1- The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning

(A) Capacity planning

(B) Material requirements planning
(C) Scheduling
(D) Product development and design
(Ans: D)

2- The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product

(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

3- Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

4- The ultimate objective of the product is

(A) To provide a new look
(B) Utilizing existing manpower
(C) To monopolize the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

5- Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as

(A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
(B) Consumer, Capital and Defense
(C) Essential, Market and Standard
(D) Primary, Luxury and Consumer
(Ans: B)

6- The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency of the product
performance
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)
7- _____ is the development of original products, product improvements,
product modifications, and new brands through the firm’s own R&D efforts.
(A) Idea generation
(B) Concept testing
(C) Test marketing
(D) New product development

(Ans: D)

8- The “simplicity to operate and easy to understand” of product is concerned with its
following aspect
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

9- ______ helps in establishing the interchangeability of products

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) Specialization
(Ans: A)
10- In which of the following type the manufacturing cost may go up

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

11- Product ______ is the ultimate objective of variety reduction

(A) Simplification
(B) Standardization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

12- The following eases the process of stock control

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
 (Ans: C)

13- The following is the Durability aspect(s) of a product

(A) Efficiency of the product
(B) Easy to understand
(C) Ease with which a product can be maintained
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

14- Why does software engineering design shares many design principles?
(A) Common design goal of creating high quality design
(B) For expansion of product lifetime
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: C)

15- Why are the design principles considered unique?

(A) They are characteristic of well-constructed
(B) They are robust
(C) All of the mentioned
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: A)

16- ________ is a new-product development approach in which one company department

works to complete its stage of the process before passing the new product along to the next
department and stage.
(A)Team-based product development
(B)Micromarketing
(C)Product life-cycle analysis
(D)Sequential product development
(Ans: D)

17- A detailed version of a new idea stated in meaningful customer terms is called a
________.
(A)Product image
(B)Product idea
(C)Product movement
(D)Product concept
(Ans: D)

18- A manufacturer with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle might
decide to ________ if it has reason to hope that competitors will leave the industry.
(A)Search for replacements
(B)Drop the product
(C)Harvest the product
(D)Maintain the product without change
(Ans: D)

19- After concept testing, a firm would engage in which stage in developing and marketing
a new product?
(A)Business analysis
(B)Marketing strategy development
(C)Idea screening
(D)Product development
(Ans: B)

20-An attractive idea must be developed into a ________.

(A)Product concept
(B)Test market
(C)Product image
(D)Product strategy
(Ans: A)

21- During which stage of new-product development is management most likely to estimate
minimum and maximum sales to assess the range of risk in launching a new product?
(A)Business analysis
(B)Concept testing
(C)Test marketing
(D)Product development
(Ans: A)

22- Executives, manufacturing employees, and salespeople are all examples of ________.
(A)New-product committee members
(B)Internal sources for new-product ideas
(C)Research and development team members
(D)External sources for new-product ideas
(Ans: B)

23- Gray Berry Gifts has just brainstormed a large number of ideas for adding new
products and services after visiting several buying fairs. The owners will begin the first
idea-reducing stage, called ________ , to arrive at a realistic number to adopt.
(A)Idea screening
(B)Concept development
(C)Product concept
(D)Idea dissemination
(Ans: A)
24- In the ________ stage of new-product development, products often undergo rigorous
tests to make sure that they perform safely and effectively or that consumers will find value
in them.
(A)Concept development and testing
(B)Business analysis
(C)Marketing mix
(D)Product development
(Ans: D)

25- In the ________ stage, the firm faces a trade-off between high market share and high
current profit.
(A)Introduction
(B)Maturity
(C)Decline
(D)Growth
(Ans: D)

26- In the concept testing stage of new-product development, a product concept in

________ form is presented to groups of target consumers.
(A)Prototype
(B)Physical or symbolic
(C)Market-tested
(D)Final
(Ans: B)

27- In which stage of the PLC will promotional expenditures be high in an attempt to react
to increasing competition?
(A)Introduction
(B)Decline
(C)Product development
(D)Growth
(Ans: D)

28- Increasing profits will most likely occur at which stage of the PLC?
(A)Product development
(B)Decline
(C)Introduction
(D)Growth
(Ans: D)

29- Most products in the marketplace are in the ________ stage of the product life cycle.
(A)Introduction
(B)Maturity ANS
(C)Development
(D)Decline
(Ans: B)

30- Sales decline in the decline stage of the PLC because of technological advances,
increased competition, and ________.
(A)Shifts in the economy
(B)New market pioneers
(C)Shifts in consumer tastes and preferences
(D)Marketing mix modifications
(Ans: C)

31- Schmidt Steel Corporation lacks the confidence, capital, and capacity to launch its new
steel product into full national or international distribution. Even though test market
results look promising, what will be management's next step?
(A)Secure a loan to provide confidence, capital, and capacity
(B)Seek the help of a nationally known consultant
(C)Develop a planned market rollout over time
(D)Retest the product in additional markets
(Ans: C)

32- The advantages of standardizing an international product include all of the following
except ________.
(A)Lower product design costs
(B)The adaptation of products to different markets
(C)The development of a consistent image
(D)Decreased manufacturing costs
(E)Lower marketing costs
(Ans: B)

33- The creation of a successful new product depends on a company's understanding of its
________ and its ability to deliver ________ to customers.
(A)Product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations
(B)Competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles
(C)Customers, brands, products; product images
(D)Customers, competitors, and markets; superior value
(Ans: D)
34- The major purpose of test marketing is to provide management with the information
needed to make a final decision about ________
(A)Whether to launch the new product
(B)How long to compete in the market
(C)How to develop a market strategy
(D)How to compete in the market
(Ans: A)

35- The PLC concept can be applied by marketers as a useful framework for describing
how ________.
(A)To develop marketing strategies
(B)Product ideas are developed
(C)Products and markets work
(D)To forecast product performance
(Ans: C)

36- The search for new-product ideas should be ________ rather than haphazard.
(A)Strategically planned
(B)Systematic
(C)Seldom
(D)Segmented
(Ans: B)

37- The second part of the marketing strategy statement outlines the product's planned
price, distribution, and ________ for the first year.
(A)Positioning
(B)Advertising
(C)Marketing budget
(D)Promotion
(Ans: C)

38- The team-based new-product development approach is faster because departments

work closely together through _______.
(A)Cross-functional teams
(B)The help of a consultant
(C)Departmentalization
(D)Team efforts
(Ans: A)
39- Under what circumstances might it be wise for a company to do little or no test
marketing?
(A) When management is not sure of the product.
(B) When the product has no substitutes and is new in its category.
(C) When the costs of developing and introducing the product are low.
(D )When a new product requires a major investment.
(Ans: C)

40- What are the two ways that a company can obtain new products?
(A)Market mix modification and research and development
(B)Internal development and merger
(C)Line extension and brand management
(D)New-product development and acquisition
(Ans: D)

41- Which of the following cannot be described by the PLC concept?

(A)Product form
(B)Brand
(C)Product image
(D)Product class
(Ans: C)

42- Which of the following costs is most likely associated with the commercialization stage
of new-product development?
(A)Identifying target markets
(B)Building or renting a manufacturing facility
(C)Developing a prototype of the product
(D)Paying groups of target consumers for product feedback
(Ans: B)

43- Which of the following is not a potential cause of the failure of a new product?
(A)Higher than anticipated costs of product development
(B)Ineffective advertising
(C)A poorly designed product
(D)An underestimated market size
(Ans: D)

44- Which of the following is a disadvantage of a team-based approach to new-product

development?
(A)It takes longer to get the right products to market.
(B)The development effort is not as effective because of team members' lack of expertise.
(C)The process does not work with the shorter life cycles of many of today's products.
(D)Organizational confusion and tension can be a part of the process.
(Ans: D)

45- Which of the following is necessary for successful new-product development?

(A)A team-based, innovation-management approach
(B)An innovation management system and sequential product development
(C)A market pioneer mindset and a holistic approach
(D)A customer-centered, team-based, systematic approach
(E)A holistic and sequential product development approach
(Ans: D)

46- Which of the following is perhaps the most important external source of new-product
ideas?
(A)Competitors
(B)Customers
(C)Engineers
(D)Trade magazines, shows, and seminars
(Ans: B)

47- Which stage in the PLC normally lasts longer and poses strong challenges to the
marketing managers?
(A)Growth
(B)Introduction
(C)Decline
(D)Maturity
(Ans: D)

48- Our firm wants to use external sources for new product ideas. After consulting with a
friend you learn that all of the following are common external sources except ________.
(A)Customers
(B)Competitors
(C)The firm's executives
(D)Trade shows and magazines
(Ans: C)

49- To develop superior products company must understand

(A)Consumer
(B)Market
(C)Competitors
(D)All of these
 (Ans: D)

50- In marketing ________________________introduces new product so radically that it

changes the way people live.
(A)Marketing strategy
(B)Quality function deployment
(C)Discontinuous innovation
(D)Differentiation strategy
(Ans: C)

51- By installing _____________________________ the search for new product ideas will be
always systematic rather than haphazard.
(A)Idea generation
(B)Idea management system
(C)Idea screening
(D)Innovating ideas
(Ans: B)

52- What are the characteristics for validation of requirements?

(A)Correctness
(B)Proper Requirement prioritization
(C)All of the mentioned
(D)None of the mentioned
(Ans: C)

53- ____is the systematic search for new-product ideas.

(A)Idea generation
(B)Idea screening
(C)Concept development and testing
(D)Marketing strategy development
(Ans: A)

54- All of the following are major internal sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
(A)Picking the brains of company executives, scientists, engineers and salespeople is a good way
to generate ideas.
(B)Entrepreneurial programs that encourage employees to think and develop new-product ideas
is a good way to generate ideas.
(C)Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
(D)Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers.
(Ans: D)

55-Major sources of new product ideas include .

(A)Internal sources, using company R&D
(b)Creative approaches, using both "method and madness" approaches
(C)Watching and listening to customers
(D)All of the above are sources of new product ideas
(Ans: D)

56- All of the following are major external sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
(A)Companies can conduct surveys or focus groups to learn about consumer needs and wants.
(B)Competitors are a good source of new-product ideas.
(C)Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
(D)Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers
(Ans: D)

57-All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?
(A)New product development starts with idea generation.
(B)Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people's minds and generate new
ideas around the client's problem.
(C)At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and
impractical ones out the window.
(D)Customers must be careful not to rely too heavily on customer input when developing new
products.
(Ans: C)

58-All of the following statements accurately reflect the requisites of new-product success,
except which one?
(A) Thinking of a few good ideas, turning them into products, and finding customers for them.
(B) A systematic approach for finding new ways to create value for target consumers, from
generating and screening new-product ideas to creating and rolling out want-satisfying products
to customers.
(C)New-product success requires a total-company commitment.
(D)At firms known for their new-product success, their culture does not encourage, support, and
reward innovation.
 (Ans: D)

59-Which one is the 3S in product design?

(A)Standardization, specialization and simplification
(B)Satisfaction, specialization and simplification
(C)Specialization, standardization simulation,
(D)Safety, security and specialization
(Ans: D)

60-Modern Product Design approach does not include-

(A)Concurrent design
(B)Quality function deployment
(C)Rapid prototyping
(D)Morphology

61-Number of phases of product design are-

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 3
(Ans: C)

62-is not the factor for product design

(A)Need
(B)Optimality
(C)Morphology
(D)Management
(Ans: D)

63-Quality function Deployment does not include---

(A)Correlation matrix
(B)Relationship matrix
(C)Engineering requirements
(D)Tolerance
(Ans: D)

64-Modern approaches to design involves-

(A)Concurrent Engineering
(B)Quality Function Deployment
(C)Rapid Prototyping
(D)All of the above.
(Ans: D)

65- QFD is the process for defining

(A)Customer help
(B)Customer improvement
(C)Customer needs
(D)All of the above.
(Ans: C)

66- ____ is/.are method of rapid prototyping.

(A)Stereolithography
(B)Selective Laser Sintering
(C)Both a & b
(D)None of the above.
(Ans: C)

67-____ is the process of reducing the number of products within a defined range.
(A)Simplification
(B)Specialization
(C)Standardization
(D)Satisfaction
(Ans: A)

68-____ is the process when particular firm concentrates on manufacturing of a

limited number of products.

(A)Simplification
(B)Specialization
(C)Standardization
(D)Satisfaction
(Ans: B)

69-____ always results as one’s aim to monopolize the market.

(A)Simplification
(B)Specialization
(C)Standardization
(D)Satisfaction
(Ans: B)

70- Process of evaluating the attributes or performances of products or measuring its

characteristics is .

(A)Product testing
(B)Product desgn
(C)Product validation
(D)Product development

(Ans: A)

71-____ is the first phase of product design.

(A)Feasibility Study
(B)Preliminary Design
(C)Detailed Design
(D)None of the above
(Ans: A)

72-_____is the last phases of product design.

(A)Consumption
(B)Retirement
(C)Distribution
(D)Production
(Ans: B)

73-_____ reduces wastage, obsolescence, maintenance cost, and paper work.

(A)Simplification
(B)Specialization
(C)Standardization
(D)Satisfaction
(Ans: C)

74- Product design deals with conversion of ideas into -----.

(A) Reality
(B) Product
(C) Production.
(D) None of the above.
 (Ans: A)

75- Essential Factors for product design are.

(A) Facility to operators.

(B) Customer requirements
(C) Cost/Price ratio
(D) All the above.
(Ans: D)

76-______ should be an integral part of a product design.

(A) Product & Productivity.

(B) Cost effectiveness and quality.
(C) Quality & Quantity
(D) Design & development.
(Ans: B)

77- The main objectives of packaging is --------

(A) To covet the product

(B) Protection and promotion of the product.
(C) To handle the product
(D) To give information about product.
(Ans: B)

78- What are correct 3 S?

(A) Seiri, Seiton, Seiso

(B) Sort, Shine, Sustain
(C) Standardization, Simplification, Specialization.
(D) None of the above.
(Ans: C)

79- Simplification is the process of reducing -------

(A) Production.
(B) variety in production.
(C) Quality of product.
(D) Tolerances in product.
 (Ans: B)

80- Standardization has following advantage.

(A) Reduction of material waste.

(B) Reduction in inventories.
(C) Reduction in paper work.
(D) All the above.
(Ans: D)

81- The effective solutions to the design problems is depends on---

(A) Quality of product

(B) Feasibility study.
(C) Design of product
(D) Testing of product.
(Ans: B)

82- For the detailed design phase concept chosen from

A) The preliminary design

B) Feasibility Study.
C) User Manual.
D) Any one of the A,B or C
(Ans: A)

83- In Planning for production process phase of product design involve

A) Quantity of production.
B) No. of machines used.
C) Tool design and production engineering
C) All the above.
(Ans: C)

84-______ helps in establishing the interchangability of products.

(A) Standardization.
(B) Simplification.
(C) Diversification.
(D) Specialization.
(Ans: A)
85- Product_____ is the ultimate objective of variety reduction.

(A) Simplification.
(B) Standardization.
(C) Specialization.
(D) All of the above.
(Ans: C)

86- The following eases the process of stock control

(A) Standardization.
(B) Simplification.
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(D) None of the above.
(Ans: C)

87- New product ideas can come from

A) Customers.
B) Competitors.
C) Suppliers.
D) all of the above.
(Ans: D)

88- Product design contains___ activities within product development process.

A) Technical
B) Production
C) Material selection.
D) All the above.
(Ans: D)

89- What are the roles of the product development team member.

A) Administrator, manager.
B) Visionary, diplomat.
C) Innovator, specialist.
D) All the above.
(Ans: D)

90- Which one is the 3S in product design?

(A) Standardization, specialization and simplification
(B) Satisfaction, specialization and simplification
(C) Specialization, standardization simulation
(D) Safety, security and specialization
(Ans: A)

91- Modern Product Design approach does not include-

(A)Concurrent design
(B)Quality function deployment
(C)Rapid prototyping
(D)Morphology
(Ans: D)

92- Number of phases of product design are-

(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 3
(Ans: C)

93- Which is the correct sequence of the phases of product development?

(A)Realize the opportunity → Develop the concept → Implement the concept.
(B)Take the opportunity → Inspect the concept. → Implement the concept.
(C)Develop the opportunity → Imagine the concept. → Implement the concept.
(D)Give the opportunity → Accept the concept. → Implement the concept.
(Ans: A)

94- The main purpose of preliminary designs is to choose --------

(A) Best design concept among available preferred alternatives.

(B) Design the fist component.
(C) The material requirement of the product.
(D) None of the above.
(Ans: A)

95- The correct sequence of phases of product design is

(A) Feasibility Study → Preliminary Design → Detailed Design → Planning for production
process → Planning for Distribution → Planning for consumption → Planning for retirement
(B) Feasibility Study → Preliminary Design → Detailed Design→ Planning for Distribution →
Planning for consumption →Planning for production process → Planning for retirement.
(Ans: A)

96- Planning for product retirement involves.

(A) All of the below.
(B) Designing physical life to match desired service life.
(C) Design for recycle.
(D) Examining retired products in laboratory to get proper useful design data.
(Ans: A)

97- PRIDE principle involves.

(A) Principle, Respect, Individual, Discussion, Excellence
(B) Purpose, Response, Ideal. Distance, Excel.
(C) Price, Risk, Individual, Discussion, Expand.
(D) None of the above.
(Ans: A)
1. Which stage of the product life cycle is advertising and promotion aimed at retaining
existing customers and persuading customers to switch from competitor products?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(Ans:C )

2. The production era is best described as which of the following?

(A) Customers are plentiful and easily pleased
(B) Products are manufactured and promoted to customers
(C) Customer needs and wants are considered with appropriate products being manufactured and
promoted
(D) Products are plentiful, with fierce competition for customers
(Ans: A)

3. The sales era is best described as which of the following?

(A) Customers are plentiful and easily pleased
(B) Products are manufactured and promoted to customers
(C) Customer needs and wants are considered with appropriate products being manufactured and
promoted
(D) Products are plentiful, with fierce competition for customers
(Ans:B )

4. According to Jenkins, customer loyalty is achieved by which of the following?

(A) Altering the marketing mix of products in order to increase sales to existing customers
(B) Extending the range of products available for customers to purchase
(C) Keeping sales volume buoyant with new customers
(D) Expanding the number of customers and markets for existing products
(Ans:A )

5. Price competition starts to occur in which phase of the product life cycle?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(Ans:D )

6. The fifth 'P' of marketing is which of the following?

(A) Position
(B) Placement
(C) Presentation
(D) People
(Ans:D )
7. The marketing mix consists of which four areas?
(A) Product, price, profit and promotion
(B) Product, profit, promotion and provision
(C) Product, promotion, potential and profit
(D) Product, price, place and promotion
(E) Product, potential, price and place
(Ans: D)

8. Question mark products in the Boston Consulting Group matrix are usually in which
stage of their product life cycle?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(E) Decline
(Ans:A )

9. In the Boston Consulting Group matrix, unsuccessful products move around the matrix
in which order?
(A) Question mark to dog
(B) Question mark to cash cow
(C) Cash cow to dog
(D) Question mark to star

(Ans: A)

10. In the Boston Consulting Group matrix, stars do which of the following?
(A) Achieve high market growth in the future but currently have low market share
(B) Hold a sizeable portion of a small, but growing market
(C) Hold high market share in a mature market
(D) Hold a low market share in a mature market
(Ans:B )

11. According to Jenkins, customer acquisition is which of the following?

(A) Altering the marketing mix of products in order to increase sales to existing customers
(B) Extending the range of products available for customers to purchase
(C) Keeping sales volume buoyant and customers loyal customers by price competition
(D) Expanding the number of customers and markets for existing products
(Ans:D )

12. Which of the following is/are product life cycle extension strategies?
(A) Market development
(B) Product development
(C) Unrelated diversification
(D) Market development and product development
(Ans:D )

13. Extension of the product life cycle should be considered before the end of which stage?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(Ans:D )

14. In which of the following stages of the product life cycle do profits peak?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(Ans:C )

15. In which of the following stages of the product life cycle do sales peak?
(A) Introduction
(B) Growth
(C) Maturity
(D) Saturation
(Ans:D )

16. New-product development starts with _____.

(A) Idea screening
(B) Idea generation
(C) Concept development and testing
(D) Marketing strategy development
(Ans:B )

17. All of the following are major internal sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
(A) Picking the brains of company executives, scientists, engineers and salespeople is a good
way to generate ideas.
(B) Entrepreneurial programs that encourage employees to think and develop new-product ideas
are a good way to generate ideas.
(C) Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
(D) Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers.
(Ans:D )

18. All of the following are major external sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
(A) Companies can conduct surveys or focus groups to learn about consumer needs and wants.
(B) Competitors are a good source of new-product ideas.
(C) Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
(D) Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers.
(Ans:D )

19. A _____ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.
(A) Product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Product image
(D) Test market
(Ans:B )

20. A _____ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product.

(A) Product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Product image
(D) Test market
(Ans:C )

21. Product development is a central business activity because?

(A) It is expensive and complicated
(B) It determines organization’s future
(C) It is risky
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: D)

22. What is false among these?

(A) A product plan is a list of approved development projects, with start and delivery dates
(B) Marketing is a process of conceiving products and planning and executing their promotion,
distribution, and exchange with customers
(C) An opportunity funnel is a mechanism for collecting product ideas from specific source
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: C)
23. Which of these is not a part of product planning?
(A) Identification of opportunities
(B) Evaluation and prioritizing opportunities
(C) Allocation of resources and time determination
(D) Finalizing process
(Ans: D)

24. How does a marketer study customers and products for generation of ideas?
(A) Surveys
(B) Focus Groups
(C) Interviews
(D) All of the mentioned
 (Ans: D)

25. Which of these does not account for Passive channels for opportunity funnels?
(A) Suggestion Lines
(B) Bug-report Web pages
(C) Monitoring trends
(D) Awards for outstanding product ideas
(Ans: C)

26. Which is not correct for active channel?

(A) Studying User to detect problems
(B) Awards
(C) Eliciting ideas through surveys, focus groups
(D) Evaluating product strengths, needed features etc)
(Ans: B)

27. Which of these is false about opportunity statement?

(A) Opportunity statement collects product ideas into opportunity funnel
(B) Opportunity statement is brief description of product development idea
(C) Opportunity statements for derivative and maintenance products summarize mass changes
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: A)

28. What among these takes project mission statement as its input?
(A) Generic Software Product Design
(B) Generic Software Engineering Design
(C) Generic Software Product & Engineering Design
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: A)

29. The design process where project mission statement is the input what will be its output?
(A) Final design document
(B) SRS
(C) Product plan
(D) Design document
(Ans: B)

30. Which of these are known as Project mission statement?

(A) Business case document
(B) Project charter
(C) Project brief
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: D)

31. What is project mission statement?

(A) It is a document that defines development project’s goal
(B) It is a document that specifies project’s limits
(C) It is a document that defines development project’s goal & specifies project’s limits
(D) It is document which specifies project mission
(Ans: C)

32. The important roles followed by project mission statement?

(A) Launching a development project
(B) Stating the software design problem
(C) Both launching a development project & stating the software design problem
(D) None of the mentioned
(Ans: C)

33. Which of these is not a part of project mission template?

(A) Introduction
(B) Product vision and project scope
(C) Business requirements
(D) Functional requirements
(Ans: D)

34. Which of these is correct?

(A) Assumption is any factor that limits developers
(B) Constraint is something that developers take it as granted
(C) Constraint is a restriction on the solution
(D) Assumption is drawback of the problem
(Ans: C)

35. Operations generated forecasts often not to do with

(A) Inventory requirements
(B) Resource needs
(C) Time requirements
(D) Sales
(Ans: D)

36. Which of the following is not true for forecasting?

(A) Forecasts are rarely perfect
(B) The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
(C) Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
(D) Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
(Ans: D)

37. Which of the following is not a forecasting technique?

(A) Judgmental
(B) Time series
(C) Time horizon
(D) Associative
(Ans: C)
38. In which of the following forecasting technique, subjective inputs obtained from various
sources are analyzed?
(A) Judgmental forecast
(B) Time series forecast
(C) Associative model
(D) All of the above
(Ans: A)

39. In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is
analyzed?
(A) Judgmental forecast
(B) Time series forecast
(C) Associative model
(D) All of the above
(Ans: B)

40. Delphi method is used for

(A) Judgmental forecast
(B) Time series forecast
(C) Associative model
(D) All of the above
(Ans: A)

41. Short term regular variations related to the calendar or time of day is known as
(A) Trend
(B) Seasonality
(C) Cycles
(D) Random variations
(Ans: B)

42. The forecasting time horizon that would typically be easiest to predict for would be the
(A) medium-range.
(B) Short-range.
(C) Intermediate range.
(D) Long-range.
(Ans: B)

43. A forecast that projects a company's sales is a(n):

(A) Economic forecast.
(B) Technological forecast.
(C) Demand forecast.
(D) Associative model.
(Ans: C)

44. Quantitative methods of forecasting include

(A) Sales force composite.
(B) Consumer market survey.
(C) Jury of executive opinion.
(D) Exponential smoothing.
(Ans: D)
45. The forecasting model that is based upon salesperson's estimates of expected sales is
(A) Jury of executive opinion.
(B) Delphi method.
(C) Sales force composite.
(D) Consumer market survey.
(Ans: C)

46. Decomposing a time series refers to breaking down past data into the components of
(A) Long-term, short-term, and medium-term variations.
(B) Strategy, tactical, and operational variations.
(C) Constants and variations.
(D) Trends, cycles, seasonal and random variations.
(Ans: D)

47. With regard to a regression-based forecast, the standard error of the estimate gives a
measure of
(A) The time required to derive the forecast equation.
(B) The maximum error of the forecast.
(C) The variability around the regression line.
(D) The time period for which the forecast is valid.
(Ans: C)

48. A forecasting technique consistently produces a negative tracking signal. This means
that
(A) The forecasting technique consistently under predicts.
(B) The MSE will also consistently be negative.
(C) The MAPE will also consistently be negative.
(D) The forecast technique consistently over predicts.
(Ans: A)

49. Linear regression is most similar to

(A) The weighted moving average method of forecasting.
(B) The simple moving average method of forecasting.
(C) The trend projection method of forecasting.
(D) The naïve method of forecasting.
(Ans: C)

50. Time series patterns that repeat themselves after a period of days or weeks are called
(A) Seasonality.
(B) Trend.
(C) Random variation.
(D) Cycles.
(Ans: A)

51. Which of the following is NOT a time-series model?

(A) Linear regression
(B) Moving averages
(C) Naïve approach
(D) Exponential
(Ans: A)

52. Tools for gathering customer needs is

(A) Interviews
(B) Questionnaires
(C) Be the customer
(D) All of the above.
(Ans: A)

53. Direct needs are

(A) Basic needs of customers
(B) Hidden needs of customers
(C) Needs that don’t change with time
(D) Needs specific to the customer
(Ans: A)

54. Which one is the type of customer needs?

(A) Direct Needs
(B) Latent Needs
(C) Special Needs
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

55. Which one is not the type of customer need model?

(A) Kano Model
(B) Kolbe’s Model of learning
(C) Black box Model
(D) Zachary Wong’s model.
(Ans: D)

56. Segmentation is based on age, sex, education, occupation, annual income status of a
family.
(A) Geographic
(B) Demographic
(C) Behavioral
(D) Psychographic
(Ans: B)
57. Segmentation is based on parameters like price, sensitivity, usage rate, brand, loyalty.
(A) Geographic
(B) Demographic
(C) Behavioral
(D) Psychographic
(Ans: C)

58. Segmentation is based on parameters like opinions, lifestyle, attitude, interests.

(A) Geographic
(B) Demographic
(C) Behavioral
(D) Psychographic
(Ans: D)

59. Customers visit the store regularly.

(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Discount
(D) Impulse
(Ans: C)

60. Customers have no specific desire in mind when they visit the store.
(A) Wandering
(B) Loyal
(C) Internal
(D) Discount
(Ans: A)

61. Customers are not having any specific intention to buy a product as per their need but
they purchase as per what appears good at the same time.
(A) Discount
(B) Loyal
(C) Impulse
(D) Need based
(Ans: C)

62. Customers buy a product with a definite need in mind.

(A) Impulse
(B) Need based
(C) Discount
(D) Loyal
(Ans: B)

63. First phase of S-Curve Product performance is

(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Medium
(D) None of the above.
(Ans: A)

64. In which physical law of process dominates--

(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

65. Long term type of forecast includes time of

(A) 10-20 years
(B) 2-10 years
(C) 1 year or less than 1 year
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)

66. Short term type of forecast includes time of

(A) 10-20 years
(B) 2-10 years
(C) 1 year or less than 1 year
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

67. Medium term type of forecast includes time of

(A) 10-20 years
(B) 2-10 years
(C) 1 year or less than 1 year
(D) None of the above
(Ans: B)

68. Interest on loan is an example of

(A) Variable cost
(B) Fixed Cost
(C) Total Cost
(D) Average total cost
(Ans: A)

69. Land property tax is an example of

(A) Variable cost
(B) Fixed Cost
(C) Total Cost
(D) Average total cost
(Ans: B)
70. In order to install an idea management system, whereby all ideas are directed to a
central point, a company can do any or all of the following:
(A) Appoint a respected senior person to be the firm's idea manager.
(B) Create a cross-functional idea management committee comprising of people form R&D,
finance, engineering and operations to meet and evaluate new product ideas.
(C) Reward employees through formal recognition programs.
(D) All of the above are legitimate ways to systematically collect ideas.
(Ans: D)

71. The purpose of____ is to generate a large number of ideas

(A) Idea screening
(B) Idea generation
(C) Concept development and testing
(D) Marketing strategy development
(Ans: B)

72. The first idea reducing stage is___, which helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as
soon as possible.
(A) Idea generation
(B) Idea screening
(C) Concept development and testing
(D) Marketing strategy development
(Ans: B)

73. A____ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms
(A) Product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Product image
(D) Test market
(Ans: B)

74. A____ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product

(A) Product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Product image
(D) Test market
(Ans: C)

75. An attractive idea must be developed into a .

(A) Product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Product image
(D) Test market
(Ans: B)
76. All of the following are accurate descriptions of activities performed in the idea
screening stage of new product development, except which one?
(A) Idea screening helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
(B) Companies want to go ahead only with the product ideas that will turn into profitable
products.
(C) Many companies require their executives to write up new product ideas on a standard form
that can be reviewed by a new-product committee.
(D) Setting up a toll-free number or Web site for anyone who wants to send a new idea to the
idea manager.
(Ans: D)

77. ____ calls for testing new-product concepts with groups of target consumers.
(A) Concept development
(B) Concept testing
(C) Idea generation
(D) Idea screening
(Ans: B)

78. _______ entails testing new-product concepts with a target group of consumers to find
out if the concepts have strong consumer appeal.
(A) Concept development
(B) Concept testing
(C) Idea generation
(D) Idea screening
(Ans: B)

79. Product concepts are presented to consumers during concept testing in any of the
following ways, except which one?
(A) A word or picture description is presented to consumers.
(B) A concrete and physical presentation of the concept will increase the reliability of the
concept test.
(C) Some companies are using virtual reality to test product concepts.
(D) Companies are reluctant to use the Web to test product concepts.
(Ans: D)
80. Designing an initial marketing strategy for a new product based on the_____is called
marketing strategy development.
(A) New product idea
(B) Product concept
(C) Test market results
(D) Product prototype
(Ans: B)

81. The marketing strategy statement in new product development consists of three parts:
_____,_____, and____.
(A) Idea generation; idea screening; concept development
(B) Idea generation; concept development; concept testing
(C) Idea generation; idea screening; idea management
(D) Target market description; planned product positioning; sales, market share, and profit goals
for the first few years.
(Ans: D)

82. _____involves a review of the sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to
find out whether they satisfy the company's objectives.
(A) Idea generation
(B) Idea screening
(C) Business analysis
(D) Concept development and testing
(Ans: C)

83. If a product concept passes the______, it moves into .

(A) Business analysis test; product development
(B) Concept development stage; product development
(C) Concept testing stage; product development
(D) Idea generation stage; product development
(Ans: A)

84. Once management has decided on a product concept and marketing strategy, it can
next evaluate the_____ of the proposal.
(A) Product idea portion
(B) Product development part
(C) Business attractiveness
(D) Commercial viability
(Ans: C)

85. All of the following statements are accurate descriptions of the simultaneous product
development approach to new product development, except which one?
(A) The simultaneous product development approach is also known as collaborative product
development.
(B) Company departments work closely together through cross-functional teams.
(C) Companies assemble a team of people from various departments that stay with the new
product from start to finish.
(D) Companies often pass the new product from department to department in each stage of the
process.
(Ans: D)

86. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new-product development approaches
used by companies in the commercialization phase of the process, except which one
(A) New-product development teams in the simultaneous approach tend to stay with the new
product from start to finish.
(B) In the simultaneous approach, top management gives the product development team general
strategic direction but no clear-cut product idea or work plan.
(C) In order to get their new products to market more quickly, many companies are adopting a
faster approach called sequential product development.
(D) The simultaneous team-based approach can be riskier and more costly than the slower, more
orderly sequential approach.
(Ans: C)

87. A mission statement is called as ____.

(A) Forecasting
(B) Vision statement
(C) Sells target
(D) Unique tag line.
(Ans: B)

88. The mission can serve as the______.

(A) Communication supports
(B) Production capacity
(C) Quality
(D) Target area
(Ans: A)

89. Technical questioning is task of______.

(A) Selling the product
(B) Improving the product.
(C) Gathering additional information.
(D) Increasing the product parameters.
(Ans: C)

90. Technological forecasting is a prediction of the future characteristics of useful____.

(A) Quality of product
(B) Quantity of product.
(C) Production schedule.
(D) Technique.
(Ans: D)
1. Detailed stated version of shortlisted new ideas in meaningful consumer terms is best
classified as
(A) Product concept
(B) Production phase
(C) Production screening
(D) Raw-material screening
(Ans: A)

2. Way consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential market

offering is called
(A) Sales concept
(B) Product idea
(C) Product image
(D) Customer management
(Ans: C)

3. Fourth step in process of new product development is

(A) Developing marketing strategy
(B) Developing production schedule
(C) Developing introductory test
(D) Developing new candidate's pool
(Ans: A)

4. Most successful products are those which are

(A) Differentiated
(B) Solve customer problems
(C) Offering customer value proposition
(D) All of above
(Ans: D)

5. Number of competitors in decline stage of product life cycle are

(A) few
(B) Continuously growing
(C) Stable but begins declining
(D) Declining in number
(Ans: D)

6. Idea generation' stage in new product development process does not include
(A) Internal idea sources
(B) External idea sources
(C) Crowdsourcing
(D) on-boarding
(Ans: D)

7. Third step in new product development is

(A) Product screening
(B) Business screening
(C) Systematic screening
(D) Concept development and testing
(Ans: D)
8. Employees of company can also contribute in idea generation and this source can be
best classified as
(A) Internal idea sources
(B) External idea sources
(C) Off shoring ideas
(D) Outdated ideas
(Ans: A)

9. Second step in new product development is

(A) Idea generation
(B) Product development
(C) Idea screening
(D) Business screening
(Ans: C)

10. Type of product development which is systematic, holistic and not

compartmentalized is said to be
(A) Customer centered product development
(B) Team based product development
(C) Systematic product development
(D) Concentration based development
(Ans: C)

11. For developing new products, company must know its

(A) Markets
(B) Consumers
(C) Competitors
(D) All of above
(Ans: D)

12. Finding and developing alternative concepts is part of

(A) Concept development
(B) Product development
(C) Customer retention
(D) Supply chain management
(Ans: A)

13. New product development stage in which concept is tested whether idea has strong
appeal is called
(A) Concept development
(B) Concept testing
(C) Material testing
(D) Market screening
(Ans: B)
14. Pugh matrix is used for
(A) Identify most feasible product
(B) Identify customer voice
(C) Compare conceptual scoring of concepts
(D) All of the above
 (Ans: D)

15. Management of new product development strategy includes

(A) Customer centered development
(B) Team based development
(C) Systematic product development
(D) All of above
(Ans: D)

16. Testing of new product concepts in group of targeted segment of market is called
(A) Concept development
(B) Concept testing
(C) Material testing
(D) Market screening
(Ans: B)

17. What does conceptual modeling represents?

(A) Responsibility
(B) Attributes
(C) Important relationships between them
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: D)

18. What are the sequences of steps for conceptual process?

(A) Add Classes
(B) Add Attributes
(C) Add Association
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: D)

19. Which of the following fall under constructive design principles?

(A) Modularity principles
(B) Implementary principles
(C) Aesthetic principles
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: D)

20. Which of the following is an Engineering Design characteristic?

(A) Trans-disciplinary
(B) Iterative
(C) Neither a nor b
(D) Both a and b
(Ans: D)

21. What is the personal characteristic of an Engineering Designer?

(A) Ability to identify problems
(B) Supervisory skills
(C) Both a and b
(D) Only a
(Ans: C)
22. Which of the following is Engineering design model?
(A) Pahl and Beitz
(B) Friedman and Stig
(C) Resnick and Hathway
(D) Hall and Carrieck model
(Ans: A)

23. What is the 3rdstage of Pugh model?

(A) Market
(B) Detail Design
(C) Concept Design
(D) Sell
(Ans: C)

24. Which of the following are internal Engineering Design Interfaces?

(A) Computation and purchasing
(B) Manufacturing and commissioning
(C) Computation and drawing office
(D) Manufacturing and development
(Ans: C)

25. Main characteristics of Engineering Design are:

(A) Trans disciplinary
(B) Highly Complex
(C) Iterative
(D) All
(Ans: D)

26. An Engineering Designer must be capable of dealing with:

(A) The production of practical design solutions
(B) The production of design requirement of a particular component, system,assembly or
installation
(C) Negotiations with vendors on aspects of bought out components
(D) All
(Ans: D)

27. The aim of the engineering design process is to support the designerby providing a
_________
(A) Framework
(B) Methodology
(C) Either
(D) None
(Ans: C)

28. Engineering design is a ___________ process

(A) Sequential
(B) Iterative
(C) Both
(D) Either of (A) or (B)
(Ans: B)

29. The factor which doesn’t determine the quality of the product is:
(A) Consistency of components of products
(B) Products should meet the requirements
(C) All components should be new and free from defects
(D) Weight of product should be less
(Ans: D)

30. Colour shape form and texture come under, which criteria?
(A) Acceptance standards
(B) Operational requirements
(C) Performance requirements
(D) Manufacture requirements
(Ans: C)

31. Method of verification of products speed, consumption and reliability is called

(A) Inspection
(B) Quality
(C) Patents
(D) Testing
(Ans: D)

32. Which of the following is not a manufacturing requirement?

(A) Materials
(B) Assembly
(C) Delivery date
(D) Standards
(Ans: D)

33. __________ technique, basic principle used is association of ideas:

(A) Morphological analysis
(B) Brainstorming
(C) Inversion
(D) Analog
(Ans: B)

34. The opportunity for making changes or suggesting improvements to the concepts is
________ before detail design
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Medium
(D) Average
(Ans: B)

35. Which of the following does not apply to the datum method?
(A) + or – assigned relative to first datum.
(B) Criteria are taken on the vertical axis.
(C) Concepts are taken on the horizontal axis.
(D) + or – assigned relative to each other
(Ans: D)

35. During criteria ranking and weighing procedure which of the following doesn’t
happen.
(A) Criteria are reordered according to descending order of weight.
(B) Criteria are reordered according to ascending order of weight.
(C) Criteria re reordered in no particular order.
(D) Total number of 1s is 0.5(n^2-n)
(Ans: B)

37. Which of the following is not a principle of concept selection?

(A) Divergence
(B) Convergence
(C) Intuition
(D) Visibility
(Ans: A)

38. Computer aided decision making is not one of the following:

(A) It is a spread sheet program

(B) It helps in accelerating selection procedure
(C) Changes can be made easily
(D) It is a word program
(Ans: D)

39. Embodiment is the bridge between concept stage and _______

(A) Specification stage
(B) Detail design
(C) Manufacture
(D) None of the above
(Ans: B)

40. The input to embodiment is the conceptual design sketches developed earlier and
__________
(A) PDS
(B) Form design
(C) Scheme drawings
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)

41. When attention is attracted by any visual feature such that all other feature tends to
lose significance. This effect is called _________
(A) Brightness ratio
(B) Acuity
(C) Figure on ground
(D) Illumination
(Ans: C)
42. Confident recognition of visual statement is important in which of the following
design activity.
(A) Ergonomics
(B) Simulation
(C) Aesthetics
(D) Optimization
(Ans: C)

43. The ability to perceive details is called ____________

(A) Brightness ratio
(B) Illumination ratio
(C) Aesthetics
(D) Acuity
(Ans: D)

44. __________ is concerned with ways of designing machines, operations and work
environments:-
(A) Aesthetics
(B) Ergonomics
(C) Scaling
(D) None of the above
(Ans: B)

45. Embodiment process runs in parallel with __________

(A) Modeling
(B) Value engineering
(C) Industrial engineering aspects
(D) None of the above
(Ans: B)

46. The _________ is the bridge between the conceptual stage of the design and detail
design
(A) Concept selection
(B) Embodiment
(C) Modeling
(D) None
(Ans: B)

47. The ____________ is biased towards ensuring useful products satisfy and appeal to
their users
(A) Engineer design
(B) Industrial design
(C) Ergonomic
(D) Aesthetic
(Ans: B)

48. The general equation for safety is

(A) Load carrying capability / applied load
(B) Applied load / load carrying capability
(C) 6L / 6r
(D) None of the above
(Ans: A)

49. One of the more widely used techniques in simulation is

(A) Structural analysis
(B) Modeling analysis
(C) Finite element analysis
(D) None of these
(Ans: C)

50. Design responsibilities includes

(A) Detail drawings
(B) Assembly drawings
(C) Arrangement drawings
(D) Concept sketch
(Ans: D)

51. The products offered by several brands similar to each other with same functionally
and attributes
(A) Parity products
(B) Desirable products
(C) Salutary products
(D) Deficient products
(Ans: A)

52. Which of the following are benefits of brainstorming when compared to nominal
group technique?
(A) Brainstorming is more fun
(B) Brainstorming can create a positive organizational climate
(C) Brainstorming can encourage talented and highly skilled employees to remain in an
organization
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

53. Groupthink can be combatted in which of the following ways?

(A) The team leader could withhold his or her viewpoint during team discussion
(B) The devil's advocate role could be assigned to a specific team member
(C) Team members could engage in cohesiveness-building training
(D) Both a and b
(Ans: D)

54. Team creativity can be promoted in which of the following ways?

(A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas
(B) Establishing challenges for the team
(C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
(D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus
(Ans: B)
55. Which of the following is an effective technique for dealing with troublesome group
members?
(A) Embrace their disruptive behavior
(B) Use the same behaviors as the disruptive member to demonstrate why their behaviors are
flawed
(C) Create an environment where the disruptive member does not feel welcome
(D) Confront the person directly
(Ans: B)

56. Goals work best for building teams when

(A) They are clearly stated
(B) There are many goals to challenge the team
(C) The goals create competition within the group
(D) No goal is shared by every member on the team.
(Ans: A)

57. Which of the following is not a way to establish team identity?

(A) Creating a team name
(B) Creating a uniform style of dress
(C) Creating group rituals
(D) Creating competition among group members for prizes and awards given to the best team
member.
(Ans: D)

56. Breaking down a problem into its constituent parts during team discussion is which
of the following steps in the Standard Agenda?
(A) Criteria development
(B) Identification of the problem
(C) Analyzing the problem
(D) Evaluating problem solutions.
(Ans: C)

57. Consensus decision making means that

(A) Every group member's preferred choice will be selected by the group
(B) All members agree to the final decision or group choice
(C) All legitimate concerns of group members are addressed
(D) Both b and c
(Ans: D)

58. Majority rule has which of the following disadvantages?

(A) It is time consuming to arrive at a majority decision
(B) Majorities make slow methological decisions
(C) A dominance power dynamic can emerge
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

59. Groupthink is
(A) A process where group members gather to decide issues
(B) A process of group members stressing disagreement and skepticism
(C) A process of group members stressing cohesiveness and agreement instead of skepticism
and optimum decision making
(D) A process of breaking rigid thinking by placing a problem in a different frame of
reference.
(Ans: C)

60. What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every
type?
(A) GUIs
(B) Candidate keys
(C) Object model
(D) All of the mentioned
(Ans: A)

61. Forward engineering is also known as

(A) Extract abstractions
(B) Renovation
(C) Reclamation
(D) Both renovation and reclamation
(Ans: D)

62. Uses cross functional integration for concurrent development of a product.

(A) Value engineering
(B) Concurrent engineering
(C) Business analysis
(D) Value analysis
(Ans: B)

63. ______ is the reason for failure in “New Product Development Strategy”
(A) Poor product design
(B) Incorrect positioning
(C) Price too high
(D) Market size overestimated
(E) All of the above
(Ans: E)

64. The following is the preliminary stage of Production planning

(A) Capacity planning
(B) Material requirements planning
(C) Scheduling
(D) Product development and design
(Ans: D)

65. The following is the source(s) for developing new or improved product
(A) Research and Development department of the enterprise
(B) Consumer suggestions and Complaints
(C) Other competitive products in the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
66. Product cost can be reduced by considering the following aspect(s) at the design stage
(A) Minimum number of operations
(B) Unnecessary tight tolerance should not be provided
(C) Design should consist of standard parts
(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)

67. The ultimate objective of the product is

(A) To provide a new look
(B) Utilizing existing manpower
(C) To monopolize the market
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

68. Based on their field of application, manufactured goods can be classified as

(A) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary
(B) Consumer, Capital and Defense
(C) Essential, Market and Standard
(D) Primary, Luxury and Consumer
(Ans: B)

69. The following aspect of product is concerned with the ease and efficiency of the product
performance
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

70. The “simplicity to operate and easy to understand” of product is concerned with its
following aspect
(A) Functional aspect
(B) Operational aspect
(C) Durability aspect
(D) Aesthetic aspect
(Ans: A)

71. _____ helps in establishing the interchangeability of products

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) Specialization
(Ans: A)

72. In which of the following type the manufacturing cost may go up

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Diversification
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

73. Product ______ is the ultimate objective of variety reduction

(A) Simplification
(B) Standardization
(C) Specialization
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

74. The following eases the process of stock control

(A) Standardization
(B) Simplification
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

75. The following is the Durability aspect(s) of a product

(A) Efficiency of the product
(B) Easy to understand
(C) Ease with which a product can be maintained
(D) All of the above
(Ans: C)

76. The mission statement is written by ------------and it is distributed to --.

(A) CEO, distributors
(B) Directors, distributors
(C) Project manager, development team
(D) Sales manager, retailers
(Ans: C)

77. Which of the following question is asked throughout the lifecycle of the design process?
(A) What features the product should not have?
(B) What parameters of the design task can be identified?
(C) What attributes or features the product should have?
(D) All the above.
(Ans: D)

78. Roll of mission statement is ---------

(A) Define the goal.
(B) Transforms entire business related to the product.
(C) Both a) & b)
(D) None of above.
(Ans: C)