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Tamil Nadu Veterinary and Sl. no. Contents Page No.

Animal Genetics and Breeding
Animal Sciences University 1.
Dr. P. Vijayakumar,Assistant Professor, LFC
04 – 17
Veterinary and Animal Husbandry Extension Education
2. Dr.K.P.Saravanan, Assistant Professor, VAE and 18 – 28
Dr.V.Sasikala, Assistant Professor, VAE
Animal Nutrition
3. Dr.K.Ayyappan, Assistant Professor, ANN and 29 – 42
Dr.M.Palanivel. Assistant Professor, ANN
Veterinary Clinical Medicine
QUESTION BANK 4.
Dr. M. Saravanan, Assistant Professor, VCC
43 – 49
Livestock Production Management
5. 50 – 60
Dr.A.Clement Ebenezer Henry, Assistant Professor, LPM
for Livestock Products Technology (Dairy Science)
6. 61 – 71
Dr.G.Rajarajan, Assistant Professor, LPT
Livestock Products Technology (Meat Science)
72 – 83
Competitive Examinations 7.

8.
Dr.R.Ilavarasan, Assistant Professor, LPT
Veterinary Preventive Medicine
Dr. K. Jayalakshmi, Assistant Professor, VMD
84 – 88
Veterinary Anatomy
(VETERINARY AND ANIMAL SCIENCES) 9. Dr.S.Paramasivam, Professor and Head, VAN and 89 – 131
Dr.S.Sivagnanam, Assistant Professor, VAN
Veterinary Biochemistry
10. 132 – 141
Dr.S.Murugavel, Assistant Professor, VPB
Compiled by Veterinary Obstetrics and Gynaecology
11. Dr.V.Prabaharan, Assistant Professor, VOG and 142 – 178
Dr. A. MANIVANNAN Dr.R.Rajkumar, Assistant Professor, VOG
Dr. P. VISHA Veterinary Microbiology
12. Dr.B.Puvarajan, Associate Professor, VMC and 179 – 188
Dr. M. DHANALAKSHMI Dr.R.Manickam, Assistant Professor, VMC
Dr. A. ELAMARAN Veterinary Parasitology
13. Dr.A.Latchumikanthan, Assistant Professor, VPA and 189 – 203
Dr. B. KARTHIK Dr.M.K.Vijayasarathy, Assistant Professor, VPA
Dr. T. SIVAKUMAR Veterinary Pathology
Dr.R.Ravikumar, Assistant Professor, VPP &
14. 204 – 213
Dr.P.C.Prabhu, Assistant Professor, VPP and
Dr.K.Thilagavathi, Assistant Professor, VPP
Veterinary Pharmacology and Toxicology
Education Cell 15. 214 – 228
Dr.P.Senthilkumar, Assistant Professor, VPT
Veterinary Physiology
Veterinary College and Research Institute 16. 229 – 238
Dr.P.Visha, Associate Professor and Head, VPB
Veterinary Surgery and Radiology
Orathanadu – 614 625, Thanjavur District Dr.S.Senthil Kumar, Associate Professor and Head, VCC &
17. 239 – 247
Dr.A.Kumaresan, Assistant Professor and Head, VSR &
Dr.P.Tamilmahan, Assistant Professor, VSR

2020
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ANIMAL GENETICS AND BREEDING 12. ________ is defined as the average age of the parents when their offspring are born

1. All Tamil Nadu cattle breeds are_________ a. Selection differential b. Generation interval

a. Milch breeds b. Draught breeds c. Selection intensity d. Genetic gain

c. Dual purpose d. None of the above 13. ___________ involves a succession of backcross from one population into another

2. _________ cattle breed is suitable for ploughing in marshy paddy fields population.

a. Bargur b. Umblachery c. Kangayam d. Pullikulam a. Cross breeding b. Backcrossing c. Grading-up d. Top

3. Recently recognized sheep breeds of Tamil Nadu crossing

a. Katchaikatty Black b. Chevvadu 14. In Indian scenario, breeding bulls are selected for genetic improvement of milk

c. Both a & b d. Vembur production based on

4. Recently recognized Goat breeds of Tamil Nadu a. Progeny testing b. Pedigree selection

a. Trichy Black b. Salem Black c. Chevvadu d. Bargur c. Both a and b d. Individual selection

5. Recently recognized buffalo breed of Tamil Nadu 15. The main concern of captive breeding programme is ________

a. Bargur b. Salem Black c. Todad. Katchaikatty Black a. Loss of genetic diversity b. Inbreeding depression

6. _________ cattle breed known for its unsurpassed in speed and endurance in c. Poor adaptation to natural environment d. All of the above

trotting in hilly region 16. When one gene masks the expression of another non-allelic gene is known

a. Bargur b. Umblachery c. Kangayam d. Pullikulam as_________

7. ____________ is the nodal agency for the registration of newly identified a. Epistasis b. Dominance-recessive

germplasm of livestock and poultry. c. Co-dominance d. Incomplete dominance

a. ICAR- IVRI b. ICAR- NDRI c. ICAR- NBAGR 17. Heritability of production traits is_________________

d.ICAR- CIRC a. Low b. Medium c. High d. None

8. Pea comb is common in which class of poultry 18. If gene frequency of A=0.7 & a=0.3, find out genotypic frequency of heterozygote

a) American b) English c) Asiatic d) Mediterranean a. 0.42 b. 0.21 c. 0.49 d. 0.09

9. Failure to response to selection is called 19. Heterosis in F2 – generation will becomes_____________

a. Selection limit b. Asymmetry of response a. Half of F1 generation b. No change

c. Selection differential d. Selection intensity c. Double of F1 generation d. None

10. The genetic improvement of well known breed can be achieved by _________ 20. Crossing over takes place in____________ phase of cell cycle

a. Selecting breeding b. Grading-up a. Pachytene stage of prophase-I b. Diplotene stage of

c. Inbreeding d. Line breeding prophase-I

11. The offspring are better than the mean of both parents is called as ________ c. Metaphase of meiosis I d. Metaphase of meiosis II

a. Positive heterosis b. Negative Heterosis 21. Which force changes the gene frequency fastest_______________

c. Hybrid Vigour d. Both a and c a. Migration b. Genetic drift c. Mutation d. Selection

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22. Barred plumage in poultry, broodiness in poultry, rapid feathering & slow feathering 30. Progeny testing and family selection are more effective when the trait is
in poultry, cryptorchidism in horses and white eye in drosophila are examples a. Sex limited traits b. Low heritable traits
of________________ c. Carcass traits d. All of the above
a. Sex-linked inheritance b. Sex-influenced inheritance 31. Most effective aids to selection for improving sex-limited trait is________
c. Sex-limited inheritance d. None a. Progeny testing b. Sib selection
23. Auto sexing on the basis of __________________ sex-linked traits of chicken c. Family selection d. Individual selection
a. Barred plumage b. Fast & slow feathering 32. Which of the following is true about repeatability of a trait_________
c. Both a and b d. None a. It is used to predict future performance from past records
24. Milk yield and draught capacity of cattle has a _____________________ correlation b. It is used to predict MPPA and used in making culling decisions of cows
a. Negatively correlation b. Nonsense correlation c. It is the upper limit of heritability in broad sense
c. Positively correlation d. None of the above d. All the above
25. The ratio of selection differential to the phenotypic standard deviation of a trait is 33. The ratio of response to selection to the selection differential is termed as- .
known as_______________ a. Regression b. Realized heritability
a. Intensity of selection b. Response to selection c. Heritability in broad sense d. Heritability in narrow sense
c. Accuracy of selection d. Limit of selection 34. The unit of selection in family selection is
26. Genes of sex-limited traits are present on______________ a. Family mean b. Pedigree information
a. Sex-chromosomes b. Autosomes c. Both d. None c. Individual mean d. Within family mean
27. The increasing order of efficiency of methods of selection is 35. Genetic gain per year is depend upon
a. Tandem selection < Independent culling < Selection index a. Heritability b. Calving interval
b. Tandem selection < Selection index < Independent culling c. Generation interval d. Repeatability
c. Independent culling < Selection index < Tandem selection 36. ―Resemblance between relatives‖ is the basis of estimation of
d. Independent culling < Tandem selection< Selection index a. Heritability b. Repeatability
28. Which is true about individual selection c. Genetic Correlation d. Regression
a. Animals are selected on the basis of their own phenotype 37. Repeatability is generally estimated by
b. It is most accurate basis of selection and gives direct estimate of breeding value a. Half-sib correlation b. Intra-class correlation
c. Generation interval is shortest among all the basis of selection c. Regression d. BLUP
d. All of the above 38. Heterosis, inbreeding depression and specific combining ability (SCA) are caused
29. Individual selection and pedigree selection are more effective when heritability of by_______________
trait is a. Non-additive gene action (Dominance + Over-dominance + Epistasis)
a. High b. Low c. Medium d. b. Additive gene action
None c. Both a & b

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d. None of the above 47. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched
39. General combining ability, Complementarity, breeding value & resemblance a. Turner syndrome: 44 + X0 b. Klinefelter syndrome: 44 + XXY
between relative is due to_______________ c. Down syndrome: Trisomy 21 d. Cat cry syndrome: Trisomy 5
a. Non-additive gene action (Dominance + Over-dominance + Epistasis) 48. Which of the following is correct about genetic code
b. Additive gene action a. It includes 61 codons for Amino acids & 3 stop codons
c. Both a & b b. Triplet nature for codon, some amino acids are coded by multiple codons
d. None of the above c. Almost universal; starting codon is AUG; AUG code for methionine amino
40. Reciprocal recurrent selection (RRS) is more suitable for poultry and swine acid
selection programme to improve d. All the above
a. GCA b. SCA c. Both d. None 49. Which of the following is true about inter-se mating
41. ______________is used for the production of commercial broilers. a. Crossing of crossbred progeny having same level of inheritance
a. Crossbreeding b. Line crossing b. It is the mating of crossbred progeny among themselves (F1 × F1)
c. Strain crossing d. Selective breeding c. It maintain the same level of inheritance
42. What are the assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium- . d. All the above
a. Small population, random mating, absence of mutation, migration & selection 50. Milk yield and fat yield in dairy animals, egg size & egg weight in poultry are
b. Large size population, random mating, absence of mutation, migration & _________ traits
selection a. Positively correlated b. Negatively correlated
c. Large size population, random mating, presence of mutation, migration & c. No correlation d. None
selection 51. Which of the following is/are example(s) of complete linkage
d. None the above a. Male drosophila
43. Inbreeding coefficient of progenies produced by grandparent – offspring mating, b. Female silk moth & female poultry
half sib mating & double first cousin mating are c. Sex chromosomes of all heterogametic species
a. 0.25 b. 0.50 c. 0.125 d. 0.0625 d. All the above
44. Genetic correlation between traits is due to 52. Criss-cross pattern of inheritance is seen in
a. Pleiotropy b. Linkage a. Sex – linked traits b. Sex – limited traits
c. Heterozygosity d. All the above c. Sex – influenced traits d. None of the above
45. The proportionate contribution of offspring to the next generation is known as 53. Which of the following is/are true about heritability
a. Fitness b. Adaptive value a. It is the regression of breeding value on phenotypic value in narrow sense
c. Selective value d. All the above b. It is the ratio of genotypic variance to phenotypic variance in broad sense
46. Number of barr-body in turner syndrome c. It is fraction of parent superiority which is transmitted to the offspring
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 d. All the above

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54. Mean deviation of progeny from its population mean is known as 62. Progeny testing is used to select
a. Transmitting ability or Average effect b) Breeding value a. Parent b. Progeny c. Full sib d. Half sib
c. Adaptive value d. None of the above 63. The ultimate source of all genetic variation of population is due to
55. Breeding value of an animal can be described as- . a. Chromosome segregation b. Crossing over
a. It is the sum of average effect of the genes carried by an individual c. Mutation, Migration, Selection, Genetic drift d. All the above
b. It is twice the mean deviation of the progeny from the population mean or 64. Which is true about random genetic drift or ‗Sewall Wright effect‘ in a population
twice of transmitting ability is
c. It is the value of individual judged by mean value of its progeny a. It is a dispersive force to change gene frequency
d. All are correct b. Random fluctuation in gene frequency from one generation to next generation
56. Phenotype is a good indicator of genotype when the heritability of a trait is c. It is only predicted in amount, not in direction and operates in small population
a. High b. Low c. Medium d. Zero d. All the above
57. Most of the economic traits are 65. Which trait show greatest inbreeding depression- .
a. Controlled by many genes (polygenes) and greatly influenced by environment a. Carcass quality b. Reproductive and fitness traits
b. Shows continuous variation c. Trait related to viability d) Both b & c
c. The effect of a gene is small and cumulative in nature 66. Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched
d. All of the above a. Exon: Coding sequence b. Intron: Non-coding sequence
58. The best method of sire evaluation is c. Highly heritable trait: Low heterosis d) All the above
a. Best Linear Unbiased Prediction (BLUP) 67. If recombination frequency is 0.5 then it is
b. Best Linear Unbiased Estimator (BLUE) a. Complete linkage b. Incomplete linkage
c. Equi-parent index c. No linkage d. All the above
d. Contemporary index 68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about nucleus breeding schemes
59. Which of the following is/are disadvantage(s) of inbreeding a. CNBS is mainly used in pig & poultry but ONBS is used in cattle, buffalo &
a. Frequency of undesirable recessive genes is increased sheep
b. It causes inbreeding depression b. Increase genetic progress & reduced rate of inbreeding is observed in ONBS
c. Inbred animals are more prone to environmental changes c. CNBS is one directional gene flow and ONBS is bidirectional gene flow
d. All the above d. All of the above
60. Ability of an individual to stamp its characters on its progeny is known as 69. In case of inbreeding, heritability tends to
a. Prepotency b. Penetrance c. Expressivity d. Panmixia a. Decline b. Increase c. Both d. None
61. Best method of heritability estimation which is relatively free from biases is 70. Breeding policy adopted for increasing milk production of non-descript cattle is
a. Half sibs correlation method b. Full sibs correlation method a. Inbreeding b. Crossbreeding c. Grading up d. Line breeding
c. Intra – sire regression d. Dam – daughter regression

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71. Toda and Burgur buffalo breeds of Tamil Nadu can be best improved by b. Cryopreservation of sperms, oocytes, embryos, somatic cells, stem cells etc.
a. Selective breeding b. Crossbreeding c. Storage of DNA & live tissue
c. Grading up d. Inbreeding d. All the above
72. Inbreeding is used for commercial production of inbred lines in 81. The percentage of individuals with a given genotype that expresses the expected
a. Cattle & buffalo b. Pig & poultry c. Pig & buffalo d. Poultry & phenotype is known as
cattle a. Epistasis b. Expressivity
73. Selection intensity is higher when c) Penetrance d. Recessive
a. Fewer animals are selected b. Large no. of animals are selected 82. Progeny testing is used for the selection of
c. Both a and b d. None a. Dam b. Sire c. Son d. Daughter
74. Crossing of two or more lines in all possible combinations is known as 83. Chromosome numbers in water buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) is
a. Diallele cross b. Out – crossing c. Criss – cross d. Top – a. 60 b. 50 c. 48 d. 54
crossing 84. Inheritance of X-linked character is through
75. Maintenance of hybrid vigour in a cattle herd is done by a. Male parent b. Female parent
a. Grading up b. Inbreeding c. Both a & b d. None
c. Top crossing d. Rotational crossing 85. Genotypic frequency of offspring will depend upon
76. Breeding policy adopted for buffalo improvement in Tamil Nadu a. Gene frequencies of parents
a. Grading up b. Selective breeding b. Genotypic frequencies of parents
c. Both a & b d. Crossbreeding c. Both Gene and Genotypic frequencies of parents
77. Which of the following is a part of National Cattle Breeding Policy in India d. None of the above
a. Grading up b. Crossbreeding 86. In Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, genotypic frequency of heterozygote will be
c. Selective breeding d. All the above highest when gene frequency of one gene is
78. Heritability is the property of a. 0.60 b. 0.40 c. 0.50 d. 0.9
a. Population b. Trait c. Environment d. All the above 87. Type of cross breeding which exploits 100% maternal, paternal as well as individual
79. Which of the following statement is true about multiple allelism heterosis
a. More than two alternative form of a gene located on the same locus of the a. Four breed crosses b) Double two breed crosses
homologous chromosome c. Rotational crossing d. Both a & b
b. Multiple alleles are produced by mutation 88. Outcrossing within a herd by use of selected sires
c. Multiple alleles are found in the population, not in the single individual. a. Top crossing b. Selective breeding
d. All are true c. inter se mating d. Grading up
80. Ex-situ conservation means 89. The primary spermatocyte contains
a. Organized herd outside breeding tract e.g. Research station, Zoo etc. a. ‗2n‘ number of chromosome b. ‗n‘ number of chromosome

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c. ‗4n‘ number of chromosome d. ‗3n‘ number of 99. Rotational crossing is favoured in
chromosome a. Swine b. Horse c. Chicken d. Camel
90. The diagrammatic representation of the chromosomes of an individual is called 100. Systemic process which tend to alter the gene frequency
a. Idiogram b. Karyotype a. Selection b. Migration c. Mutation d. All of the
c. Both a & b d. None of the above above
91. ________________is morphological representation of somatic chromosomes of an 101. ________________ gives the probability that two genes are identical by descent
individual in descending order. a. Coefficient of relationship b. Inbreeding
a. Idiogram b. Karyotype coefficient
c. Both a & b d. None of the above c. Both d. None of the above
92. Karyotype are made using 102. An inbred line has a minimum inbreeding coefficient of
a. Early prophase chromosome b. Metaphase chromosome a. 0.25 b. 0.375 c. 0.5 d. 0
c. Anaphase chromosome d. Telophase chromosome 103. Superiority of selected parents over the population is
93. Inbreed tester line is necessary in a. Response to selection b. Selection differential
a. Recurrent selection b. Reciprocal recurrent selection c. Intensity of selection d. Accuracy of selection
c. Diallel crossing d. Partial diallel crossing 104. Standardized selection differential is called as
94. Most prolific Indian goat breed is a. Response to selection b. Selection intensity
a. Malabari b. Kanniadu c. Jamnapari d. Black c. Generation interval d. Accuracy of selection
Bengal 105. Traits which show discrete variation but which is influenced by many pairs of
95. The two strands of DNA double helix are genes is known as
a. Coaxial b. Perpendicular to each other a. Sex limited traits b. Qualitative traits
c. Complementary to each other d. Identical each other c. Quantitative traits d. Threshold traits
96. A chromosomal aberration that affects the fertility of daughter is 106. Commercial layer chicks are evolved out of
a. Robertsonian translocation b. Addition a. Two way crossing b. Criss crossing
c. Random union of chromosome d. Deletion c. Three way crossing d. Four way double crossing
97. Lactation length in cattle is standardized to 107. The wall eyed buffalo breed
a. 300 days basis b. 305 days basis c. 365 days basis d. 330 days a. Bhadawari b. Nili-Ravi c. Murrah d. Toda
basis 108. Appearance of ancestral traits after some generation is known as
98. DNA synthesis occurs in a. Mutation b. Atavism c. Suppression d. None of the above
a. 3‘ ---->5‘ direction b. 5‘ ---->3‘ direction 109. Exchange of parts between non-homologous chromosome is known as
c. Both d. None of the above a. Crossing over b. Linkage c. Translocation d.
Reversion

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110. The word ‗gene‘, ‗genotype‘ and ‗phenotype‘ was coined by Answer Key
a. William Batson b. W.L. Johansen 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
c. T.H. Morgan d. T. Boveri b b c b a a c c a a
111. Dairy search index is otherwise called as 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
d b c c d a b a a a
a. Sunderasan index b. Tomar index
21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
c. Rice index d. BLUP d a c a a c a d a d
112. The most accurate aid to selection is 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
a. Individual selection b. Progeny testing a d b a c a b a b c
41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
c. Pedigree selection d. Sib selection
a b c d d a d d d a
113. To increase the milk production of the indigenous dairy cattle breeds in plains, 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
most suitable breed for crossing is d a d a d a d a d a
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
a. Brown Swiss b. Danish c. Jersey d. Holstein-Friesian
a a d d d d c d a b
114. Morphologically the Y chromosome of Bos indicus bulls is 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
a. Metacentric b. Acrocentric c. Submetacentric d. Telocentric a b a a d c d d d d
115. For carcass traits in sheep the practical aid to selection is 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
c b b c a c d b a a
a. Family selection b. Progeny testing
91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
c. Sib selection d. Individual selection b b a d c a b b a d
116. Dolly was created by 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
a. Embryo transfer b b b b d d b b c b
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117.
b. Nuclear transfer from embryonic stem cells
a a c b c d a
c. Nuclear transfer from cultured foetal cells
d. Nuclear transfer from a quiescent mammary cells
117. Apparel wool breed of Indian sheep
a. Nilagiri b. Magra c. Chokla d. Bikaneri

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DEPARTMENT OF VETERINARY AND ANIMAL HUSBANDRY b) 27.4% d) 29.8% ( )

EXTENSION EDUCATION 13. Highest milk producing state in India is ______________

a) Punjab c) Tamil Nadu
1 The per capita availability of milk India during 2018-19 b) Andhra Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh ( )
a) 394 grams/ day c) 340grams/ day
b) 285 grams/ day d) 291 grams/ day ( ) 14. In which year, India Veterinary Council Act was formed _________________
a) 1984 c) 1990
2. The per capita availability of milk for Tamil Nadu during 2018-19 b) 2019 d) 2000 ( )
a) 322 grams/ day c) 154 grams/ day
b) 1100 grams/ day d) 281 grams/ day ( ) 15 In India, Animal Welfare Board was formed in the year of _____________
a) 1962 c) 1972
3. The milk production in India during 2018-19 b) 1965 d) 1969 ( )
a) 187. 5 million tons c) 170.8 million tons
b) 140 million tons d) 165 million tons ( ) 16. As per 20th Livestock Census, the position of Tamil Nadu in Poultry population is
_____________
4. As per 2018-19 period the highest milk per capita available state in India is a) First c) Second
a) Hariyana c) Tamil Nadu b) Fourth d) Fifth ( )
b) Punjab d) West Bengal (
) 17 In India, Wildlife Protection act was enacted on________
5. Total egg production in India for the period of 2018-19 a) 1972 c) 1983
a) 103. 2 billion in numbers c) 140 billion in numbers b) 2010 d) 2005 ( )
b) 170 billion in numbers d) 132 billion in numbers ( )
18 Who is the current chairman of animal welfare board ________________
6. As per 2019 livestock census, the total livestock population in India is ____________ a) Shrimati Rukmini Devi c) Dr. O.P. Chaudhary
a) 535.78 million c) 512.06 million b) AK Mishra d) Vargheese kurien ( )
b) 459.60 million d) 555.20 million ( )
19 Mischief by killing, poisoning, maiming or rendering useless any animal is punishable
7. The per capita availability of egg for India during 2018-19 under sections _________________
a) 79 egg per annum c) 71 egg per annum a) 428 and 429 I.P.C c) 125 and 126 I.P.C
b) 59 egg per annum d) 73 egg per annum ( ) b) 328 and 329 I.P.C d) 95 and 96 I.P.C ( )

8. As per 2019 livestock census, the total Cattle population in India is _____________ 20. Bestiality is punishable under section is ________________
a) 190.90 million c) 192.49 million a) 177 I.P.C c) 77 I.P.C
b) 170 million d) 180.90 million ( ) b) 377 I.P.C d) 187 I.P.C. ( )

9. Compare to 2012 livestock Census in 2019 livestock population is decreased in -----

21. PCA act means ________________
percentage
a) Prevention of Cruelty to animals c) Prevention of Culling of
a) 6.0 % c) 4.60 % Animals
b) 7.02% d) 3.0 % ( ) b) Protection of Cruelty to Animals d) Prevention of Crime to ( )
Animals
10. Total Milk Production of world during 2017-18
a) 827.88 million tonnes c) 600.1 million tonnes 22. The performing animals rules is framed by ________________
b) 700 million tonnes d) 820.11 million tonnes ( ) a) 1973 c) 1979

11. GDP contribution by livestock in general_____________ during 2017-18 b) 1975 d) 1974 ( )

a) 4.1% c) 5.1%
b) 4.3% d) 6% ( ) 23. The Famous NGO in Tamil Nadu
12. GDP contribution by livestock in agriculture_____________ during 2017-18 a) Blue Cross of India c) Animal Aid Unlimited
a) 28.2% c) 25.6% b) ‘Buddha Society for Animal Welfare d) Let‘s Live Together ( )

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24. Which year Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, is enacted Animals Act, 2009
a) 2001 c) 2008
b) The Prevention of Cruelty to d) Food Safety and Standards ( )
b) 2002 d) 2009 ( ) Animals, 1960 Act, 2006

25. In which year the Prevention and Control of Infectious and Contagious Diseases in 33. What is punishment for poaching, illegal trade at first time under Wildlife Protection
Animals Act is enacted Act, 1972
a) 2001 c) 2009 a) Three years imprisonment or fine c) Three years imprisonment
b) 2018 d) 2010 ( ) Rs. 10,00,000 or fine Rs. 30,00,000
b) No punishment d) One year imprisonment or ( )
26. Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules was passed in the year Rs. fine 10,000
a) 2009 c) 2008
34. Penalties for placing infected animal or carcass in the river as per The Prevention and
b) 2002 d) 2001 ( ) Control of Infectious Disease in Animals Act, 2009
a) Fine Rs.2000 or one month c) Three years imprisonment
27. In which year the amendment was made for inclusion of Jallikattu bull under performing
imprisonment or fine Rs. 30,00,000
of animals category
b) Fine Rs.5000 or one month d) One year imprisonment or ( )
a) 2011 c) 2008
imprisonment Rs. fine 10,000
b) 2002 d) 2009 ( )
35. Pioneered in the setting up of the Animal Welfare Board in India
28. Any animal that's diseased, fatigued that is used for transport is punishable under rule of a) Shrimati Rukmini Devi c) Gauri Maulekhi
a) The Prevention of Cruelty to c) The Prevention of Cruelty
Draught and Pack Animals Rules, to Animals (Licensing of b) Anoopa Anand d) MD. Zabi Khan ( )
1965 Farriers) Rules,1965
b) The Transport of Animal Rules, d) The Performing animals ( ) 36. Tamil Nadu rank in egg production
1973 (Registration) Rules, 2001 a) Second c) Third
b) Fourth d) First ( )
29. The per capita availability of egg for Tamil Nadu during 2018-19
a) 322 eggs per annum c) 394 eggs per annum 37. A common name for non-profit animal welfare organizations around the world
b) 372 eggs per annum d) 265eggs per annum ( ) a) SPCA c) Blue cross of India
b) Animal welfare board d) PETA ( )
30. Which category of animal are not allowed for transport as per the Transport of Animal
Rules, 1973 38. It was the first Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
a) Advance stage of Pregnant and c) Young a) SPCA c) Blue cross of India
estrus
b) Milking animal d) Kids ( ) b) Animal welfare board d) PETA ( )

31. Use of spiked biked prohibited under the rule of 39. The fullform of SPCA
a) The Prevention of Cruelty to c) The Prevention of Cruelty a) Society for the Prevention of Cruelty c) Society for the Protection
Draught and Pack Animals Rules, to Animals (Licensing of to Animals Cruelty to Animals
1965 Farriers) Rules,1965 b) Society for the Prevention of Crime d) Society for the Prevention ( )
b) The Performing animals d) The Transport of Animal ( ) to Animals of Control to Animals
(Registration) Rules, 2001 Rules, 1973
40. Prohibiting certain forms of animal fighting is one of the issues regulated by the:
32. Prohibition of markets, Fairs exhibition. etc in the controlled areas during disease out a) The Livestock Importation Act, 1898 c) The Prevention and
breaks under law of Control of Infectious and
a) The Livestock Importation Act, 1898 c) The Prevention and Contagious Diseases in
Control of Infectious and Animals Act, 2009
Contagious Diseases in b) The Prevention of Cruelty to d) Food Safety and Standards ( )

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
Animals, 1960 Act, 2006 Rs. 35,000

41. What is the rank of India in livestock population in the world? 48. The Export value of India Livestock and Livestock products during 2018-19
a) Second c) First a) 230,772,619 lakhs c) 20,000 lakhs ( )
b) Seven d) Eight ( ) b) 40,000,00 lakhs d) 430,772,619 lakhs
42. When the first livestock census was conducted in India
a) 1910 c) 1930 49. Voluntarily hurting by means of shooting, stabbing or cutting of an animal is punishable
b) 1925 d) 1919 ( ) under IPC sections
a) IPC 336 c) IPC 226 ( )
43. SIP stands for
a) Sanitary Import Permit c) Sanitary Intensive b) IPC 338 d) IPC 440
Permission
b) Successful information permission d) Sanitary Inclusive Permit ( )
50. Tamil Nadu ranks in meat production (2018-19)
44. AQCS stands for a) Fourth c) Fifth ( )
a) Animal Quarantine and Certification c) Aquatic Quarantine and ( )
b) Sixth d) Seventh
Services Certification Services

b) Animal Quality and Certification d) Annual Quarantine and ( )) 51. NPBB was established in the year
Services Certification Services a) 2014 c) 2010 ( )
b) 2012 d) 2000
45. As per 20th Livestock Census the position of Tamil Nadu Sheep population
a) First c) Fourth 52. NCBB was initiated by merging which of the following schemes
a) NPCBB c) IDDP ( )
b) Eight d) Fifth ( )
b) SIQ & CMP and A-C d) All the above

46. According to Animal Birth Control Rules 2001 the age for sterilization of dog is
a) Three months c) Four months 53. Main objective of NPBB programme is
a) Quality AI at doorstep c) Fodder supply ( )
b) Six months d) Five months ( )
b) Quality treatment d) Advisory services

47. For punishment for teasing of wild animal based Wild Life Protection Act , 1972
a) Three Years or fine upto Rs. 25,000 c) One Years or fine upto Rs. 54. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal husbandry and Dairying was formed in the year
25,000 a) 2019 c) 2018 ( )

b) Two Years or fine upto Rs. 5,000 d) Three Years or fine upto ( ) b) 2012 d) 2015
Rs. 35,000

47. Punishment for using oxytocin to induce milk llegal 55. Which one of the following is known as saving certificate scheme for farmers
a) Three Years or fine upto Rs. 25,000 c) One Years or fine upto Rs. ( ) a) Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) c) Krishi Ambani Bima ( )
25,000 Yojana

b) Two Years or fine upto Rs. 5,000 d) Three Years or fine upto ( ) b) Garam Sinachi Yojana d) PMSGSY

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66. Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana was started in the year
56. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) was launched by India post in the year a) 2010 c) 2018 ( )
a) 1998 c) 2000 ( ) b) 2019 d) 2014

b) 1995 d) 2002 67. Startup India Scheme was established to start new business during the year
a) 2015 c) 2018 ( )
b) 2017 d) 2019
57. Krishi Ambani Bima Yojana was started in the year
a) 2014 c) 2018 ( )
68. NMSA stands for
b) 2010 d) 2016 a) National Mission of Supporting c) National Mission of ( )
Agriculture Sustainable Aquaculture
b) National Mission of d) National Mission of
Standardization Agriculture Sustainable Agriculture
58. Soil health card scheme
a) Feb 2015 c) April 2015 ( )
b) Mar 2015 d) May 2015 69. ARYA (Attracting and Retaining Youth in Agriculture) was launched by
a) GOI c) ICAR ( )
59. Deen Dayal Upadhaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana mainly insists b) Ministry of Agriculture d) IARI
a) Youth empowerment c) Women employment ( )
b) Women empowerment d) Youth employment 70. Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) was started in the year
a) 2018 c) 2010 ( )
60. Deen Dayal Upadhaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana was established in the year b) 2019 d) 2017
a) 2000 c) 2014 ( )
b) 2018 d) 2020 71. Main objective of National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) is
a) More crop per drop c) More profit ( )
61. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana is related to b) Reduce cost of production d) More production
a) Fodder cultivation c) Animal purchase ( )
b) New Crop Insurance Scheme d) Animal insurance scheme 72. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is related to
a) Employment creation c) Job development initiative ( )
62. PM Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is meant for b) Skill development initiative d) Agriculture and AH
a) Old age pension of Rs 3000 /month c) Pension scheme for all ( ) development initiative
b) Old age pension of Rs 2000 / month d) Disabled pension of Rs
3000 73. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in the year
a) 2000 c) 2016 ( )
63. Livestock Insurance was started in b) 2010 d) 2019
a) 11th and 12th five year plan c) th
13 five year plan ( )
b) 9th and 10th five year plan d) 10th and 11th five year plan 74. NRLM stands for
a) National Rural Livelihood Mission c) National Rural Living ( )
64. Livestock Insurance was implemented all over the country in the year Mission
a) 2012 c) 2016 ( ) b) National Rural Livestock Mission d) National Rural Livelihood
b) 2014 d) 2010 Management

65. National livestock mission was launched in the year 75. Kisan credit cards scheme was started in
a) 2014-15 c) 2000-01 ( ) a) 2015 c) 2000 ( )
b) 2012-13 d) 2011-12 b) 2012 d) 1998-99

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
output
76. Dairy Processing & Infrastructure Development Fund (DIDF) was started in the eyar
a) 2013 c) 2019 ( ) 85. A summary statement of all the assets and liabilities of a business at a given point of time
b) 2012 d) 2017 is called as
a) Net Worth statement c) Fixed Cost ( )
77. Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) was launched in the year b) Profit and Loss statement d) Capital Budgeting
a) 2006 c) 2010 ( )
b) 2014 d) 1999 86. A financial statement employed to assess the performance of farm business
a) Net Worth statement c) Fixed Cost ( )
78. Gopal Ratna awards meant for b) Profit and Loss statement d) Capital Budgeting
a) Farmer maintaining best cross c) High producing farmer ( )
breed animal 87. Expansion for IRR in economics
b) Farmer maintaining the best herd of d) Farmer practicing a) Internal Rate of Returns c) Indian Rate of Reading ( )
Indigenous Breed integrated farming b) Internal Registered Returns d) Indian Rupee Rate

79. National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) was launched with the objective 88. Viable Livestock Project should have
of a) BCR more than one, negative c) BCR less than one, ( )
a) Eradicating FMD & Brucellosis c) All livestock diseases ( ) NPW, IRR greater than the positive NPW, IRR
b) FMD d) Brucellosis opportunity cost of capital greater than the
opportunity cost of capital
80. National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP) was launched in the year b) BCR less than one, positive NPW, d) BCR more than one,
a) 2007 c) 2015 ( ) IRR greater than the opportunity positive NPW, IRR
b) 2008 d) 2019 cost of capital greater than the
opportunity cost of capital
81. e- pashuhaat portal is related to
a) Bovine breeders c) Animal Health ( )
89. Undiscounted measures in project appraisal techniques
b) Livestock scheme d) Livestock Census
a) Pay back period c) Average annual proceeds ( )
of rupee outlay
82. The Objective of National Dairy Plan I
b) Internal Rate of Returns d) A and B
a) Improving livelihood of rural c) Increase population of ( )
farmers dairy animals
90. Fixed cost is otherwise called as
b) Increase productivity of milch d) Control and prevention of
a) Sunk cost c) Variable costs ( )
animals diseases in dairy
b) Explicit cost d) Opportunity cost

83. The abbreviation of NITI Aayog

91. The cost which varies with level of production is called as
a) National Institute for Transforming c) National Institute for ( )
India a) Over head charges c) Total costs ( )
Transferring India
b) Marginal cost d) Variable cost
b) National Information for d) National Industries for
Transforming Industries Transforming India
92. Minimum of average total cost is called as
84. What is meant by marginal cost
a) Break-Even Point c) Shut-Down Point ( )
a) Change in total cost/Change in total c) Change in marginal ( )
output b) Marginal Cost d) Opportunity cost
cost/Change in total
output
93. Which value is desirable in Hen Housed Egg Production (HHEP)
b) Change in total output / Change in d) Change in total
a) Values of 285 or 80% c) Values of 150 or 80% ( )
total cost cost/Change in marginal
b) Values of 200 or 60% d) Values of 265 or 60%

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QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020

ANIMAL NUTRITION
94. To measure overall efficiency of a broiler farm, the measure used is
a) Hen Housed Egg Production c) Broiler Farm Efficiency ( )
1. Following one is a production value type of feeding standard
Factor a) Hay standard
b) Broiler Farm Efficiency Index d) Net Feed Efficiency Index b) NRC
c) AFRC
95. Share of the promoter in starting a business is called d) Scandinavian Feed Unit
a) Current cost c) Margins money ( ) 2. Deficiency of ------------------ mineral in diet leading to orthopedic diseases (DOD) in
b) Indirect cost d) Selling cost growing horses.
a) Zinc
96. Kissan Call Centre Number is b) Manganese
a) 1800-180-1551 c) 1800-180-1684 ( ) c) Copper
b) 1800-180-1561 d) 1800-180-1666 d) Selenium
3. Protein value is highest in
97. Gradual decline in the value of an asset is a) Maize
a) Depreciation c) Appreciation ( ) b) Soybean meal
b) Value d) Liability c) Fish meal
d) Rice bran
98. GDP and GNP belongs 4. -----------------------should be supplied freely to the working horse feed because
a) Income theory c) Price theory ( ) considerable quantities are excreted in the sweat.
b) C and D d) Micro economics a) Mineral mixture
b) Salt
99. Net return is measured by c) Probiotics
a) Gross income - Expenditure c) Gross income - Profit ( ) d) Oil
b) Gross income – Capital d) Expenditure - Gross 5. The ―Polyneuritis‖ is caused by the deficiency of ------------------ in poultry.
Expenditure income a) Folic acid
b) Zinc
100. Crop loan is an example of c) Thiamine
a) Long term liability c) Medium term liability ( ) d) Copper
b) Long term Asset d) Medium term asset 6. The concentrate and forage ratio of the hard working horse feed is
a) 30:70
ANSWER KEYS b) 50:50
c) 70:30
1 A 11 A 21 A 31 A 41 A 51 A 61 B 71 A 81 A 91 D d) 0:100
2 A 12 B 22 A 32 B 42 D 52 D 62 A 72 B 82 B 92 A 7. The following one is not the reason for laying large size egg by the layer bird
3 A 13 A 23 A 33 A 43 A 53 A 63 D 73 C 83 A 93 A a) High energy feed
4 B 14 A 24 A 34 A 44 A 54 A 64 B 74 A 84 A 94 B b) High methionine
5 A 15 A 25 B 35 A 45 C 55 A 65 A 75 D 85 A 95 C c) High temperature
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 D 46 C 56 A 66 B 76 D 86 B 96 A d) High linoleic acid
7 A 17 A 27 A 37 A 47 C 57 A 67 A 77 B 87 A 97 A 8. The following is an example of prebiotics
8 C 18 C 28 B 38 A 48 A 58 A 68 D 78 B 88 D 98 A a) Fructan-oligosaccharides
B A D A B D C A D A
b) Lactobacillus
9 19 29 39 49 59 69 79 89 99
c) Sachromyces
10 A 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 C 60 C 70 B 80 D 90 A 100 C
d) Amprolium
9. The common coccidiostat used in the broiler feed is
a) Oxytetracycline
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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
b) Gentamycin 18. The energy requirement of the grower chicken ration is ------------ Kcal /kg
c) Lasalocid a) 2500
d) Xanthophill b) 2800
10. Addition of following one to the feed will reduce dustiness of feed and laminitis c) 3000
incidence in horses d) 3500
a) Grain 19. Birds experiencing diseases require an increase intake of some nutrients such as
b) Wheat bran a) Prebiotics
c) Vegetable oil b) Enzymes
d) Antibiotics c) Antibiotics
11. A condition called Stiff lamb disease caused by d) Vitamins
a) Vitamin A 20. The following one may be added in the layer chicken diet to meet out the calcium
b) Vitamin K requirements
c) Vitamin E a) Gypsum
d) Vitamin B1 b) NaHCO3
12. Rapeseed meal contains an anti-nutritional factor which severely harm the ducks. c) Shell grit
a) Gossipol d) Silica
b) Mimosine 21. The exact quantity of nutrient given to the animal to meet out optimum production is
c) Erucic acid a) Nutrient requirement
d) Nitrate b) Nutrient allowance
13. The following one will affect the egg shell quality c) Enzyme
a) Temperature d) Antibiotics
b) Bird age 22. The amount of drinking water required for livestock becomes much higher as the
c) Nutrition temperature rises above
d) All the above a) 25 o C
14. Perosis or slipped tendon in chicks is caused by the deficiency of b) 12 o C
a) Manganese c) 5 o C
b) Folic acid d) 0 o C
c) Choline 23. The following one is not a feed additive
d) All the above a) Oilcake
15. Rodents are ----------------------- wild animals b) Antibiotics
a) Carnivorous c) Prebiotics
b) Herbivorous d) Binders
c) Omnivorous 24. The following one is added in the poultry diet as feed additives to minimize the
d) None of the above diseases and improve the growth.
16. The energy requirement of the broiler finisher ration (BIS) is ------------ Kcal /kg. a) Bacitracin
a) 2800 b) Enzyme
b) 3000 c) Pellet binders
c) 3800 d) Emulsifiers
d) 3200 25. Addition of fat in the poultry diet will
17. An additional quantity of nutrient given over the requirement is a) Increase calorific value of feed
a) Nutrient allowance b) Increase growth
b) Nutrient requirement c) Decrease growth
c) Additives d) Increase fertility
d) Enzymes 26. The energy requirement of the creeper ration for piglets is ------------ Kcal /kg
a) 3360
b) 2200

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c) 2800 d) Cattle
d) 2000 36. Example for comparative type feeding standard is
27.Creep feed for piglet is otherwise known as a) Kellner feeding standard
a) Pre-starter feed b) NRC
b) Starter feed c) AFRC
c) Grower feed d) Scandinavian feed unit
d) Finisher feed 37. Higher energy value is present in
28. Live microbial culture added as feed additive in the pig feed is a) Maize
a) Sacchromyces spp. b) Fish meal
b) Mannon oligosaccharides c) Oilcake
c) Streptococci d) Rice bran
d) E-coli 38. The common coccidiostat used in the broiler feed is
29. Antibiotics are added in the livestock ration as growth promoting agent at a) Oxytetracycline
a) Sub-therapeutic level b) Gentamycin
b) Therapeutic level c) Amprolium
c) Above therapeutic level d) Xanthophill
d) None of the above 39. Comparative type of feeding standard for ruminant is
30. The energy requirement of the guinea pig ration is ------------ Kcal /kg a) Hay standard
a) 2800 b) Morrison standard
b) 2200 c) Kellner standard
c) 2000 d) Armsby standard
d) 3500 40. The ―star gazing posture‖ is deficiency of ------------------ in poultry.
31. Restricted feeding is recommended commonly in ------------ stage of poultry a) Folic acid
a) Chick b) Manganese
b) Grower c) Thiamine
c) Starter d) Riboflavin
d) Layer 41. An emaciated condition Marasmus caused by deficiency of
32. The best cereal source for the horses is a) Zinc
a) Wheat b) Cobalt
b) Oats c) Iodine
c) Horse gram d) Manganese
d) Rice 42. Example for digestible nutrient type of feeding standard is
33. The pH of a very good silage is a) Kellner feeding standard
a) 3.5-4.2 b) Indian standard
b) 4.2-4.5 c) AFRC
c) 4.5-4.8 d) Scandinavian feed unit
d) 4.8-5.2 43. A deficiency disorder ‗scurvy‘ is caused by
34. The ―curled toe paralysis‖ is deficiency of ------------------ in poultry. a) Vitamin B
a) Folic acid b) Vitamin C
b) Manganese c) Vitamin K
c) Thiamine d) Vitamin D
d) Riboflavin
44. A hormone involving regulation of calcium metaboliosm in the body is
35. Oxidative stress is more common in
a) Thyroxine
a) Poultry
b) Paratharmone
b) Horse
c) Oxytocin
c) Pig

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
d) Vasopressin 53. Example for the prebiotics is
a) Fructo-oligosaccharides
45. Outer coarse coat of the grains is b) Lactobacillus
a) Bran c) Sachromyces
b) Gluten d) Amprolium
c) Hull 54. Addition of following one to the feed will reduce dustiness of feed and laminitis
d) Polish incidence of the horses
a) Grain
46. Cyanogens is found more in--------------------
b) Wheat bran
a) Soyabean meal
c) Vegetable oil
b) Maize
d) Antibiotics
c) Sorghum
55. Toxicity of aflatoxin is greatest for
d) Linseed
a) Chicks
47. Anaemia mainly occurs in livestocks due to deficiency of
b) Ducklings
a) Iron
c) Turkey poults
b) Folic acid
d) Gooslings
c) Copper
56. The common coccidiostat used in the broiler feed is
d) Zinc
a) Oxytetracycline
48. A substance depressing dietary utilization of protein is
b) Gentamycin
a) Saponin
c) Amprolium
b) Oxalate
d) Xanthophill
c) Nitrate
57. Urea enrichment of paddy straw done with --------------% of urea.
d)Mimosine
a) 4
49. Rapeseed meal contains ----------------------- which severely harm the livestock and
b) 8
poultry. c) 12
a) Oxalic acid d) 16
b) Glucosinolates 58. The ―star gazing posture‖ is deficiency of ------------------ in poultry.
c) Phytic acid a) Folic acid
d) Tannins b) Manganese
50. The RQ value of carbohydrate is -----------------. c) Thiamine
d) Riboflavin
a) 1.0 59. Rabbits are able to tolerate upto ------------% crude fibre in the diet.
b) 0.8 a) 5
c) 0.7 b) 10
d) 0.5 c) 15
51. A deficient level of essential amino acid in soybean meal is d) 20
a) Methionine 60. Nitrogen and Sulphur ratio needed for optimum dietary utilization of Urea is
b) Lysine a) 5:1
c) Valine b) 10:1
d) Arginine c) 15:1
52. Rapeseed meal contains an anti-nutritional factor such as -------------------which d) 20:1
severely harm the ducks. 61. The following one is added in the poultry diet as feed additives to minimize the
a) Gossipol diseases and improve the growth.
b) Mimosine a) Bacitracin
c) Erucic acid b) Enzyme
d) Nitrate c) Pellet binders

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d) Emulsifiers 70. Low milk fat syndrome is caused by rations those are rich in ------------------.
a) Protein
62. The energy requirement of the creeper ration for piglets is ------------ Kcal /kg b) Fat
a) 3360 c) Carbohydrate
b) 2200 d) Minerals
c) 2800 71. Protein value is highest in
d) 2000 a) Maize
63. Creep feed for piglet is otherwise known as b) Beef Tallow
a) Pre-starter feed c) Fish meal
b) Starter feed d) Rice bran
c) Grower feed 72. -----------------------should be supplied freely to the working horse feed because
d) Finisher feed considerable quantities are excreted in the sweat.
64. Antibiotics are added in the ration as growth promoting agent at a) Mineral mixture
a) Sub-therapeutic level b) Salt
b) None of the above c) Oil
c) Therapeutic level d) Probiotics
d) Above therapeutic level 73. Restricted feeding is recommended commonly in ------------ stage of poultry
65. Live microbial culture added as feed additive in the pig feed is a) chick
a) Sacchromyces spp. b) grower
b) Mannon oligosaccharides c) starter
c) Streptococci d) laying
d) E-coli 74. The following is an example of prebiotics
66. The energy requirement of the grower chicken ration is ------------ Kcal /kg a) Fructo-oligosaccharides
a) 2500 b) Sachromyces
b) 2800 c) Lactobacillus
c) 3000 d) Amprolium
d) 3500 75. The best cereal source for the horses is
67. Birds experiencing diseases require an increase intake of some nutrients such as a) Wheat
a) Prebiotics b) Oats
b) Enzymes c) Horse gram
c) Vitamins d) Rice
d) Antibiotics 76. Parrot beak occurs in chick embryos due to the deficiency of
68. The following one may be added in the layer chicken diet to meet out the calcium a) Biotin
requirements b) Riboflavin
a) Gypsum c) Manganese
b) NaHCO3 d) Magnesium
c) Shell grit 77. Processing of feeds is primarily done for
d) Silica a) Alter particle size
69. The ―curled toe paralysis‖ is deficiency of ------------------ in poultry. b) Change moisture content
a) Folic acid c) Change the feed density
b) Manganese d) All of the above
c) Thiamine 78. Animal protein factor found in
d) Riboflavin a) Fish Meal
b) Meat Meal
c) Liver Residue Meal
d) Blood Meal

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
79. An additional quantity of nutrient given over the requirement is d) 3200
a) Nutrient allowance
b) Nutrient requirement 88. The following one is not a feed additive
c) Additives a) Oilcake
d) Enzymes b) Antibiotics
80. The amount of water required for animals becomes much higher as the temperature c) Prebiotics
rises above d) Binders
a) 25 oC 89. Metabolic water produced per gram of protein is ----------------.
b) 12 o C a) 0.4 g
c) 5 o C b) 0.8 g
d) 0 o C
81. An early sign of -------------- deficiency in sheep is a loss of crimp of wool. c) 0.1 g
a) Cobalt d) 0.12 g
b) Copper 90. Ideal protein is a most recent method for evaluating dietary protein for -----------------.
c) Zinc a) Chicks
d) Molybdenum b) Calves
82. The ―Pica‖ is caused by the deficiency of ------------------ in cattle. c) Growing Pigs
a) Calcium
d) Foals
b) Phosphorus
c) Magnesium 91. The Vitamin which helps in coagulation of blood is ------------------.
d) Sulphur a) Vitamin E
83. The concentrate and forage ratio of the hard working horse feed is b) Vitamin A
a) 30:70 c) Vitamin K
b) 50:50 d) Vitamin C
c) 70:30 92. Intake of forages gives high proportion of -------------------- in the rumen.
d) 0:100
a) Acetate
84. The common coccidiostat used in the broiler feed is
a) Oxytetracycline b) Propionate
b) Gentamycin c) Butyrate
c) Lasalocid d) All of the above
d) Xanthophill 93. High protein green grasses and legumes are difficult to ensile satisfactory because--------------
85. Addition of following one to the feed will reduce dustiness of feed and laminitis ----.
incidence in horses.
a) Low soluble carbohydrate content
a) Grain
b) Wheat bran b) High Buffering capacity
c) Vegetable oil c) Both the above
d) Antibiotics d) None of the above
86. Perosis or slipped tendon in chicks is caused by the deficiency of -------------------. 94. Nutritive ratio is wider when the ration contain---------------------.
a) Manganese a) High Legume
b) Folic acid b) High Green grass
c) Choline
c) High Oilcake
d) All the above
87. The energy requirement of the broiler finisher ration (BIS) is ------------ Kcal /kg. d) High Straw
a) 2800 95. Gluten is generally not fed to non-ruminants due to
b) 3800 a) Bulkiness
c) 3000 b) Poor protein quality

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c) Unpalatability 103. An example of wet processing method of grains is ---------------------.
d) All of the above. a) Popping
96. Hay can be stored if moisture content is below--------------% b) Extruding
a) 5 - 10 c) Exploding
b) 15 - 20 d) Roasting
c) 25 - 30 104. Fatty Liver and Kidney Syndrome in poultry caused by -------------------
d) 40 - 45 a) Riboflavin
97. ---------------------- is an excellent source of energy and B-complex vitamins among b) Thiamin
the following milling by-products. c) Choline
a) Bran d) Biotin
b) Hull 105. Faecal energy loss in horse is ----------------.
c) Husk a) 10%
d) Polish b) 20%
98. Instrument used for measuring energy metabolism in animal is known as --------------- c) 30%
---. d) 40%
a) Respiration Calorimeter 106. ------------------------- plays an important role in the production of ‗crimp‘ in wool.
b) Bomb Calorimeter a) Iron
c) Psychometric Chamber b) Copper
d) None of the above c) Manganese
99. Which of the following is toxic factor present in Cotton Seed Cake d) Zinc
a) Phytate
b) Gossypol
Answers
1. c 51. a
c) Mimosine
2. c 52. c
d) Linamarin 3. c 53. c
100. Deficiency of ---------------------- causes Curled Toe Paralysis in chicks. 4. b 54. c
a) Vitamin B1 5. c 55. b
b) Vitamin B2 6. c 56. c
c) Vitamin B5 7. c 57. a
d) Vitamin B6 8. a 58. c
9. c 59. c
101.Excellent grazing grass for livestock in hot, dry areas of tropical countries is ----------------
10. c 60. c
--. 11. c 61. a
a) Cyanodon dactylon 12. c 62. a
b) Cenchrus ciliaris 13. d 63. a
c) Vigna catjang 14. a 64. a
d) Pennisetum glaucum 15. c 65. a
16. d 66. a
102. Intake of forages gives high proportion of -------------------- in the rumen.
17. a 67. d
a) Acetic acid 18. a 68. c
b) Propionic acid 19. c 69. d
c) Butyric acid 20. c 70. b
d) Succinic acid 21. a 71. c

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
22. a 72. b VETERINARY CLINICAL MEDICINE
23. a 73. b
24. a 74. b 1. Lactation tetany in mares is due to
25. a 75. b a. Low serum Ca+ level b. Low serum Mg+ level
26. a 76. c c. Low serum Ca+& Mg+ level d. Low serum Ca+, Mg+& P level
27. a 77. d 2. Feed additives which are in used to prevent subclinical ketosis in lactating dairy
28. a 78. a cattle is
29. a 79. a a. Monensin b. Niacin
30. a 80. a c. Methionine d. All the above
31. b 81. b 3. Transition period of dairy cows is
32. b 82. b a. 1 weeks before & 1 weeks after b. 2 weeks before & 2 weeks after calving
33. a 83. c calving
34. d 84. c c. 3 weeks before & 3 weeks after d. 4 weeks before & 4 weeks after calving
35. a 85. c calving
36. d 86. a 4. Good indicator for negative energy balance in the dairy cattle
37. a 87. d a. NEFA b. BHBA
38. c 88. a c. Acetate d. Both a & b
39. a 89. a 5. The gold-standard test for hyperketonemia in a cattle is
40. c 90. c a. NEFA b. BHBA
41. b 91. c c. Acetate d. Both a & b
42. b 92. a 6. Which biochemical profile is more sensitive test to detect metabolic derangement in
43. b 93. c pre partum cow
44. b 94. d a. NEFA b. BHBA
45. a 95. d c. Glucose d. Triglycerides
46. c 96. b 7. Which biochemical profile is more sensitive test to detect metabolic derangement in
47. a 97. d post partum cow
48. a 98. a a. NEFA b. BHBA
49. b 99. b c. Glucose d. Triglycerides
50. a 100. b 8. Repeated administration of Isoflupredone in cattle causes
101. b a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia
102. a c. Hypernatremia d. Hyponatremia
103. c 9. Milk fever is due to
104. d a. Excessive loss of calcium in b. Impairment of absorption of Ca+ from
105. d colostrum the intestine
106. b c. Impairment of resorption of d. All the above
Na+ from bones
10. Calcium homeostasis in the dairy cow is mainly depends on
a. PTH b. Vitamin D
c. a&b d. None
11. ------------------- is very much essential for the releases of PTH from the parathyroid
glands to correct hypocalcaemia in a cattle
a. Magnesium b. Phosphorous
c. Potassium d. Vitamin D
12. Normal ionized calcium level in cattle is
a. 2.0–3.5 mg/dl b. 4.0–5.2 mg/dl
c. 5.5–6.5 mg/dl d. 6.0–7.2 mg/dl

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13. The predominant sign of stage III milk fever in cattle is c. Potassium d. a & b
a. Lateral recumbency b. Elevated body temperature 26. Ketosis most commonly occurs during
c. Hyperesthesia d. Increased pulse a. First week of lactation b. First month of lactation
14. During the late gestation period addition of ------------------ in diet, causes c. Second month of lactation d. Late pregnancy
hypocalcaemia in a cow. 27. Responsible for the nervous form of ketosis in cattle due to
a. Potassium b. Magnesium a. Isopropyl alcohol b. Beta hydroxy butyric acid
c. Chloride d. Sulfur c. Butyric acid d. Propionic acid
15. Prolonged recumbency caused by milk ever leads elevation of 28. Dose of protamine zinc insulin for the treatment of bovine ketosis at
a. Creatine phospokinase b. Aspartate amino transferase a. 100-200 IU b. 200-300 IU
c. Alanine amino transferase d. a & b c. 300-400 IU d. 400-500 IU
16. Degenerative ischemic muscle necrosis noticed in 29. Pregnancy toxemia in cattle is also called as
a. Downer cow syndrome b. Fat cow syndrome a. Fat cow syndrome b. Fatty liver cow
c. Post parturient d. Toxemia c. Hepatic lipidosis d. All the above
haemoglobinuria 30. Confirmative diagnosis of Fatty liver syndrome in cattle by
17. According to the DCAD, addition of --------------- the diet during prepartum will a. Serum hepatic enzymes b. Ketone bodies
reduce the incidence of milk fever in the cows. c. Liver biopsy d. a &b
a. Sodium & Potassium b. Chloride & Sulfur 31. Predisposing factor for Fatty liver syndrome in cattle is
c. Calcium & Magnesium d. Phosphorous & Potassium a. LDA b. Retained fetal membrane
18. According to the DCAD, addition of --------------- the diet during prepartum will c. Downer cow syndrome d. All the above
induce the incidence of milk fever in the cows. 32. Neonatal hypoglycemia is more common in
a. Sodium & Potassium b. Chloride & Sulfur a. Calves b. Lambs
c. Calcium & Magnesium d. Phosphorous & Potassium c. Piglets d. Puppies
19. Secondary hypokalemia in cattle occurs due to 33. Treatment for post parturient hemogloinuria in cattle by
a. Anorexia b. Upper GI obstruction a. 20 g sodium acid phosphate b. 40 g sodium acid phosphate
c. Abomasal disorders d. All the above c. 60 g sodium acid phosphate d. 80 g sodium acid phosphate
20. Profound muscle weakness and lateral deviation of neck noticed even after calcium 34. Low milk fat syndrome in cattle due to
therapy in high yielding dairy cow - What may be the reason? a. Low fiber diet b. Low concentrate in diet
a. Hypomagnesaemia b. Hypochloremia c. Low glucose in diet d. Low calcium in diet
c. Hypokalemia d. Hypophosphatemia 35. Low milk fat syndrome in cattle treated with
21. In the following metabolic diseases which condition affects group of animals a. Magnesium oxide b. Sodium chloride
a. Hypomagnesaemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Sodium acid phosphate d. Calcium gluconate
c. Hypokalemia d. Hypophosphatemia 36. Falling diseases in cattle is caused by
22. Required Na:K ratio in rumen to improve magnesium absorption from the gut a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency
epithelium is c. Cobalt deficiency d. Vitamin E deficiency
a. 1:5 b. 5:1 37. Enzootic ataxia in sheep is caused by
c. 1:3 d. 3:1 a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency
23. Risk factors to cause hypomagnesaemia in cattle is c. Cobalt deficiency d. Vitamin E deficiency
a. Ingestion of large amount of b. Ingestion of large amount of young 38. Characteristic feature of anemia due to Copper deficiency in cattle is
wheat pasture growing grasses a. Microcytic hypochromic b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
c. Ingestion of large amount of d. All the above anemia
cereal crops c. Normocytic hypochromic d. Normocytic normochromic anemia
24. Secondary form of ketosis in cattle due to anemia
a. Abomasal displacement b. Traumatic reticulitis 39. Characteristic feature of anemia due to Copper deficiency in cattle is
c. Metritis d. All the above a. Microcytic hypochromic b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia
25. Deficiency of ------------------- in the diet leads to high incidence of bovine ketosis anemia
a. Cobalt b. Phosphorous c. Normocytic hypochromic d. Normocytic normochromic anemia

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
anemia 53. Dose of Vitamin K1 for warfarin toxicity in dog
40. Enzootic marasmus in cattle is caused by a. 1-2 mg b. 2-3 mg
a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency c. 3-5 mg d. 5-10 mg
c. Cobalt deficiency d. Vitamin E deficiency 54. High dose of Amprolium in goat cause
41. Estimation of Methylmalonic acid is the precise indicator for the diagnosis of a. Vitamin B1 deficiency b. Vitamin B1 toxicity
a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency c. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Vitamin B12 toxicity
c. Cobalt deficiency d. Vitamin E deficiency 55. Increased CSF pressure occurs in
42. Estimation of Formiminoglutamic acid in urine is the precise indicator for the a. Vitamin B1 deficiency b. Vitamin A deficiency
diagnosis of c. Vitamin E deficiency d. a&b
a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency 56. Dose of Thiamine hydrochloride in Polioencephalomalacia affected goat is
c. Cobalt deficiency d. Vitamin E deficiency a. 2-5 mg/kg bwt b. 5-10 mg/kg bwt
43. Characteristic feature of anemia due to Cobalt deficiency in cattle is c. 10-15 mg/kg bwt d. 15-20 mg/kg bwt
a. Microcytic hypochromic b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia 57. Niacin deficiency is more common in
anemia a. Dog b. Horse
c. Normocytic hypochromic d. Normocytic normochromic anemia c. Pig d. Cattle
anemia 58. Lameness and Laminitis in cattle caused by------------------- deficiency
44. Characteristic feature of anemia due to Iron deficiency in pig is a. Choline b. Niacin
a. Microcytic hypochromic b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia c. Pyridoxine d. Biotin
anemia 59. Goose stepping gait in pig is caused by ------------------- deficiency
c. Normocytic hypochromic d. Normocytic normochromic anemia a. Thiamine b. Pantothenic acid
anemia c. Pyridoxine d. Riboflavin
45. Zn deficiency also called as 60. Eclampsia in dog is treated by
a. Ovine white liver diseases b. Parakeratosis a. 10% Calcium borogluconate b. 23% Calcium gluconate
c. Swayback diseases d. Unthirftiness c. 10% Calcium gluconate d. 23% Calcium borogluconate
46. Retarded testicular development and poor wound healing in a bull is cause by 61. Producing false evidence is punishable under IPC section
a. Copper deficiency b. Zinc deficiency a. 162 b. 163
c. Iodine deficiency d. Manganese deficiency c. 192 d. 193
47. ------------- is plays a vital role in bone matrix formation and synthesis of 62. Issuing or singing false evidence is punishable under IPC section
chondrotin sulfate, which is responsible for maintaining rigidity of connective tissue a. 197 b. 176
a. Mn b. Co c. 420 d. 423
c. Zn d. Ca 63. Adulteration of food or drink meant for sale is punishable under IPC section
48. Nutritional (enzootic) muscular dystrophy in lamb is caused by deficiency of a. 270 b. 271
a. Zn b. Mn c. 272 d. 274
c. Vit E & Selenium d. Vitamin A 64. Adulteration of drugs is punishable under IPC section
49. Mulberry heart diseases in pig is caused by deficiency of a. 270 b. 271
a. Vit E & Selenium b. Vitamin A c. 272 d. 274
c. Zn d. Vit D 65. Sale of adulterated drugs is punishable under IPC section
50. Preventive dose of Vitamin D2 (Calciferol) in cattle is a. 274 b. 275
a. @100 U/kg IM b. @110 U/kg IM c. 271 d. 281
c. @1000 U/kg IM d. @1100 U/kg IM 66. Bestiality is punishable under IPC section
51. Characteristic feature of lack of bone density in radiography is a. 420 b. 377
a. Rickets b. Osteomalacia c. 422 d. 281
c. Osteodystrophia fibrosa d. a & b 67. Mischief causing damage to animals is punishable under IPC section
52. Hydrocephalus and Micropthalamus are due to deficiency of a. 420 b. 427
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1 c. 428 d. 429
c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E

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68. Mischief by killing or maiming animal is punishable under IPC section 39. a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
a. 420 b. 427 40. c. Cobalt deficiency
c. 428 & 429 d. 430 41. c. Cobalt deficiency
42. c. Cobalt deficiency
43. d. Normocytic normochromic anemia
Answer
44. a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
1. a. Low serum Ca+ level 45. b. Parakeratosis
2. d. All the above 46. b. Zinc deficiency
3. c. 3 weeks before & 3 weeks after calving 47. a. Mn
4. a. NEFA 48. c. Vit E & Selenium
5. b. BHBA 49. a. Vit E & Selenium
6. a. NEFA 50. d. @1100 U/kg IM
7. b. BHBA 51. d. a&b
8. b. Hypokalemia 52. a. Vitamin A
9. d. All the above 53. d. 5-10 mg
10. c. a&b 54. a. Vitamin B1 deficiency
11. a. Magnesium 55. d. a&b
12. b. 4.0–5.2 mg/dl 56. b. 5-10 mg/kg bwt
13. a. Lateral recumbency 57. c. Pig
14. a. Potassium 58. d. Biotin
15. d. a&b 59. b. Pantothenic acid
16. a. Downer cow syndrome 60. c. 10% Calcium gluconate
17. b. Chloride & Sulfur 61. d. 193
18. a. Sodium & Potassium 62. a. 197
19. d. All the above 63. c. 272
20. c. Hypokalemia 64. d. 274
21. a. Hypomagnesaemia 65. b. 275
22. b. 5:1 66. b. 377
23. d. All the above 67. b. 427
24. d. All the above 68. c. 428 & 429
25. d. a&b
26. b. First month of lactation
27. a. Isopropyl alcohol
28. b. 200-300 IU
29. d. All the above
30. c. Liver biopsy
31. d. All the above
32. c. Piglets
33. c. 60 g sodium acid phosphate
34. a. Low fiber diet
35. a. Magnesium oxide
36. a. Copper deficiency
37. a. Copper deficiency
38. b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
LIVESTOCK PRODUCTION MANAGEMENT b) Ongole d) Kangayam ( )

13. Highest milk producing state in India is ______________

1 The removal of wool from around a sheep's eyes to prevent wool-blindness is __________ a) Punjab c) Tamil Nadu
a) Ringing c) Crutching b) Andhra Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh ( )
b) Wigging d) Dagging ( )
14. A farming system in which animals will keep on moving from one place to another on
2. The day-old chicks that have not been sorted by sex is called as ________________ traditional migratory routes for feeding by grazing is _________________
a) Sexed chicks c) Straight-run chicks a) Transhumant c) Sedentary
b) Preening d) Zoning ( ) b) Nomadic d) Semi intensive ( )

3. The components of the whole farm system interact closely in ______________ 15 Steaming up ration in dairy cattle is provided _____________
a) Organic farming c) Integrated farming a) Immediately after c) Heifer stage
b) Mixed farming d) Extensive farming ( ) Parturition
b) At last stage of pregnancy d) Before insemination ( )
4. During 2016 – 17, the milk contribution by crossbred and exotic dairy cows in India is
____________ 16. In India, the state with highest per capita availability of milk is _____________
a) 26.5 % c) 35.4 % a) Punjab c) Tamil Nadu
b) 25.4 % d) 20.8 % ( ) b) Haryana d) Uttar Pradesh ( )

5. Quarantine shed in a dairy farm should be located __________________ 17 In India, National Centre of Organic Farming was established at ________
a) At the entrance of the farm c) Near to dry animal shed a) Pune c) Ghaziabad
b) At the end of the farm d) Near to isolation shed ( ) b) Karnal d) Hyderabad ( )

6. As per 2012 livestock census, the total bovine population in India is ____________ 18 Higher body temperature is found in ________________
a) 304.8 million c) 283.4 million a) emaciated animals c) cows suffering from milk fever
b) 190.9 million d) 300.0 million ( ) b) female in late pregnancy d) malnourished animals ( )

7. At the time of breeding the heifer should attain __________ of the adult body weight. 19 Mischief by killing, poisoning, maiming or rendering useless any animal is punishable
a) 50 % c) 85 % under sections _________________
b) 75 % d) 60 % ( ) a) 428 and 429 I.P.C c) 125 and 126 I.P.C
b) 328 and 329 I.P.C d) 95 and 96 I.P.C ( )
8. Recommended method of hand milking in dairy cattle is _____________
a) Full hand milking c) Knuckling 20. Bestiality is punishable under section is ________________
b) Stripping d) Full hand milking followed by ( ) a) 177 I.P.C c) 77 I.P.C
stripping b) 377 I.P.C d) 187 I.P.C. ( )

9. Gestation period of a cow is the period between ________________ 21. Gramapriya chicken was developed from _________________
a) Conception to calving c) Conception to drying off a) Thrissur c) Hyderabad
b) Calving to weaning d) Calving to lactation ( ) b) Bangalore d) Hosur ( )

10. Majority of Indian cows attain the peak yield after parturition in _____________ 22. In a 100-cow dairy cattle farm, milch: dry cow ratio should be _________
a) 1-2 weeks c) 4-6 weeks
b) 3-4 weeks d) 8-10 weeks ( ) a) 60: 40 c) 75: 25
b) 50: 50 d) 90: 10 ( )
11. Covered and open area required for a bull is ____________________
a) 12 & 120 sq. m/ bull c) 15 & 150 sq. m/ bull 23. The vitamin absent in chicken egg is __________________
b) 07 & 14 sq. m/ bull d) 20 & 120 sq. m/ bull ( ) a) Vitamin A c) Vitamin C
12. Which of the following cattle breed is famous for ―Sawai Chal‖?
b) Vitamin K d) Vitamin D ( )
a) Gir c) Kankrej

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0 th
24. Brooding temperature for chicks during first week of age is ____________________ C 33. As per the 19 Livestock census the total horse population in India is
a) 37.5 c) 30 a) 0.725 million c) 0.612 million
b) 35 d) 40 ( ) b) 0.625 million d) 0.319 million ( )
34. Tattooing in mouse can be done at ________________
25. The position of egg in the setter during incubation should be ______________ a) Base of the ears c) Flank region
a) Broad end up c) Horizontal b) Base of the tail d) shoulder region ( )
b) Narrow end up d) None of the above ( )
35. Young one of guinea fowl is called as _____________
26. The moisture content of poultry litter should not exceed a) Poult c) Squab
a) 15- 20 % c) 35-40 % b) keet d) Cygnet ( )
b) 25-30 % d) 40-45 % ( )
36. The person who is experienced in maintaining the horse hoof is known as __________
27. In English class, the yellow skin is present in _________________ chicken breed a) Farrier c) Horse handler
a) Sussex c) Australorp b) Equine podiatry d) Hoof tester ( )
b) Cornish d) Orpington ( )
37. Camel can tolerate extreme dehydration to lose up to___________ its body weight
28. Central Training Institute for poultry production and management is situated at_________ a) 40% c) 20%
a) Hasserghata c) Izatnagar b) 30% d) 10% ( )
b) Hyderabad d) Mumbai ( )
38. The brown colour of eggshell is due to the pigment, ______________
29. The physiological zero for chicken eggs is about ________ a) Carotenoids c) Xanthophylls
a) 27oC c) 20oC b) Protoporphyrin d) Melatonin ( )
b) 18oC d) 24oC ( )
39. The act of parturition in rabbit is called as_____________
30. Maximum permissible level of ammonia in poultry houses is _______________ a) Kindling c) Farrowing
a) 55 ppm c) 35 ppm b) Kidding d) None of the above ( )
b) 25 ppm d) 45 ppm ( )

31. Young one of rabbit is called as ____________ 40. HDEP of layer birds at 30 weeks of age under optimal condition is _________

a) Bunny c) Doe a) 92 % c) 88 %

b) Nanny d) Buck ( ) b) 98 % d) 82 % ( )

41. The atmospheric air condenses over eggshell and form water droplets over eggshell, which
32. The home tract of kathiawari horse breed is ________________ is called as__________
a) Himalayan ranges c) Gujarat a) Condensing c) Sweating
b) Dripping d) Shrinkage ( )
b) Rajasthan d) Manipur ( )

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42. Complete parts of oviduct in chronological order are b) 4-5 days d) 18-21 days ( )
a) Infundibulum- Isthumus- Magnum- Uterus -Vagina
b) Infundibulum- Magnum-Isthumus- Uterus -Vagina 54. Whitten‘s effect is more commonly observed in
c) Infundibulum- Magnum-Isthumus- Uterus a) Rabbit c) Mice
d) Infundibulum- Uterus -Isthumus- Magnum- Vagina ( ) b) Hamster d) Guinea pig ( )

43. Floor space required for egg type chicken under cage system during 9 -18 weeks of age. 55. The offspring coming from a male donkey and mare is termed as
a) 0.50 sq.ft c) 0.75 sq.ft a) Mule c) Broken horse
b) 0.30 sq.ft d) 0.60 sq.ft ( ) b) Cob d) Hinny ( )
44. In a breeder farm, the female bird is inseminated once in ----------- days intervals.
a) 10 c) 5
b) 7 d) 2 ( ) 56. The record of the ancestors of a particular animal is recorded in its
a) Performance record c) Pedigree
45. The thermoneutral zone for adult dairy cattle is _______________ b) Phenotype d) Genetic map ( )
a) 41 – 68F c) 50 – 78F
b) 70 – 88F d) 50 – 68F ( ) 57. In young piglet‘s needle teeth should be clipped within
a) 3 days after birth c) After weaning
46. The swamp buffaloes distributed mostly in upper Brahmaputra valley of Assam is b) After 10 days of birth d) After 30 days of birth ( )
________
a) Luit c) Toda 58. Boar odour is a common problem seen in
b) Ghurrah d) Chhattisgarhi ( ) a) Uncastrated young male c) Uncastrated adult male
b) Castrated young male d) Castrated adult male ( )
47. Pea comb is the typical character of __________ breed
a) Leghorn c) Rhode Island Red 59. The color of light having calming effect on the broilers, therefore used during catching is
b) Cornish d) New Hampshire ( ) __
a) Blue c) Red
48. Restricted feeding is mostly followed in b) White d) Yellow ( )
a) Layer breeders c) Layers
b) Broilers d) Broiler breeders ( ) 60. Hamsters are more active during _____________
a) Day time c) Nighttime
49. The creep feeding space in farrowing pen should be maintained at _________ by providing b) Both day and night d) Only during evening ( )
artificial lighting until the piglets are three to four days old.
a) 22 to 24C c) 24 to 28C 61. In 2018, the per capita consumption of chicken meat in India is about ______________--
b) 30 to 32C d) 32 to 34C ( ) a) 3350 g c) 2150 g
b) 1200 g d) 3890 g ( )
50. In layer birds, during grower stage ________hours of light are required for better
production. 62. Fertilization take place in which part of reproductive tract of chicken.
a) 16 c) 14 a) Ovary c) Infundibulum
b) 18 d) 12 ( ) b) Isthumus d) Uterus ( )

51. The American Merino breed of sheep is classified as ______________ 63. Breed of poultry developed by Karnataka Veterinary and Animal Sciences University
a) carpet wool breed c) fur sheep breed a) Grampriya c) Swarnadhara
b) long wool breed d) fine wool breed ( ) b) Vanaraja d) Krishibro ( )

52. The number of pairs of needle teeth present in piglets 64. The advantage of free-range housing system includes__________
a) 2 c) 6 a) Saving of feed c) No labour requirement for management
b) 4 d) 8 ( ) b) Less expensive d) All the above ( )

53. Duration of heat in sow is 65. Which of the following breeds of class has feathered shank?
a) 2-3 days c) 8-10 days a) American c) Asiatic

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b) English d) Mediterranean ( ) b) 15 sq.ft d) 25 sq.ft ( )

66. The home tract of Marwari sheep breed is 78. Normally, chicken consumes ___________ amount of water for each gram of feed consumed
a) Himalayan Ranges c) Haryana a) 0.5 ml c) 1.5 ml
b) Rajasthan d) Manipur ( ) b) 1ml d) 2 ml ( )

67. Which one of the following layer strain chicken lay white eggs. 79. Name the smallest sheep breed with typical reversed ―U‖ shaped body conformation from
a) Bab Cock BV-300 c) Bab Cock BV-380 rear side.
b) BablonaHarko d) Sever 579 ( ) a) Nellore c) Mandya
b) Magra d) Hassan ( )
68. In India, most commonly practicing mating system in pig is
a) Hand mating c) Pen mating 80. Central Avian Research Institute is located at ________________
b) Flock mating d) Herd mating ( ) a) Izatnagar c) Hydrabad
b) Banglore d) Delhi ( )
69. ―Ringtail‖ is a disease of rat caused by
a) Virus c) Fungus 81. The appearance and view of the whole building will be shown in ___________
b) Bacteria d) Low relative humidity ( ) a) Floor plan c) Elevation
b) Master plan d) Cross section ( )
70. Which one of the following is the smallestbreeds of rabbit?
a) White giant c) New Zealand White 82. The normal pulse rate for adult sheep is ____________
b) Angora d) Netherland Dwarf ( ) a) 70 – 90 beats/min c) 90 – 110 beats/min
b) 60 – 70 beats/min d) 100 – 120 beats/min ( )
71. The lamb shed of a dimension of 7.5m x 4m x 3m high can accommodate a maximum of
_____ 83. Gestation period of mare is about _______________
a) 100 animals c) 75 animals a) 150-155 days c) 235-245 days
b) 125 animals d) 50 animals ( ) b) 365-375 days d) 335 - 345 days ( )

72. The hen housed egg production of hybrid commercial layer is_____________ 84. Gestation period of sow is ___________
a) 180 eggs c) 220 eggs a) 3 months 3 weeks 3 days c) 11 months 11 weeks 11 days
b) 360 eggs d) 320 eggs ( ) b) 9 months 9 weeks 9 days d) 5 months 5 weeks 5 days ( )

85. In generaly, animal houses the pitch of thatched roof should be _________
73. Hitkari is the breed of chicken developed at______________ a) 35-40° c) 25-30°
a) Hyderabad c) IARI b) 45-50° d) 30-35° ( )
b) CARI d) Kerala ( )
86. The distance between grower and layer sheds should be minimum of ___________
74. The native tract of Arichevaadu, the Tamil Nadu sheep breed is _____________ a) 100 m c) 150 m
a) Tirunelveli c) Madurai b) 50 m d) 75 m ( )
b) Sivagangai d) Ramnad ( )
87. A large enclosed area free of obstacles where the pigeons can fly as freely as they wish is
75. Growth rate of sheep population in India during 2007 – 2012 is _____________ referred to as __________
a) - 7.54 % c) - 9.07 % a) Fly pen b. Sputnik
b) - 8.07 % d) - 3.82 % ( ) b) Aviary d. Coops ( )

76. Broken mouthed ewe retained in breeding flock because of excellent breeding performance. 88. In poultry house with slatted floor system of housing, slats are fitted _______ feet above the
a) Gimmer c) Seggy ground level.
b) Crone d) Gummer ( ) a) 6 - 7 feet c) 7 - 8 feet
b) 4 - 5 feet d) 8 - 9 feet ( )
77. The covered area required for an adult ewe/ buck in Indian condition is ____________
a) 20 sq.ft c) 10 sq.ft

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
89. The following vitamin should be supplemented with nutrition of Guinea pig is ____________ ANSWER KEYS
a) Vitamin A c) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin B d) Vitamin D ( ) 1 b 51 d
2 c 52 d
90. The EU ban on conventional cages took effect from 1st January of___________
3 c 53 a
a) 2010 b. 2011
b) 2012 d. 2013 ( ) 4 a 54 c
5 a 55 a
91. Which one of the following breeds of class is known for egg production? 6 d 56 c
a) American c) Asiatic 7 d 57 a
b) English d) Mediterranean ( )
8 d 58 c
92. Which one the following disease of poultry is not caused by virus is ________________ 9 a 59 a
a) CRD c) Infectious Bronchitis 10 b 60 c
b) Fowl Pox d) Ranikhet diseases ( ) 11 a 61 d
12 c 62 c
93. The biological value of egg protein is___________ 13 d 63 c
a) 94 c) 90
b) 85 d) 80 ( ) 14 a 64 d
15 b 65 c
94. The quantity of KMnO4 and formalin is required to get 3X concentration during 16 a 66 b
fumigation is about _____________ 17 c 67 a
a) 60 g and 120mL c) 120 g and 60mL 18 b 68 c
b) 160 g and 80mL d) 80 g and 160mL ( )
19 a 69 d
95. Reverse cages can hold of __________ 20 b 70 d
a) 1 - 2 birds c) 5 - 6 birds 21 c 71 c
b) 3 - 4 birds d) 9 - 10 birds ( ) 22 c 72 d
23 c 73 b
96. Feeding and watering space requirements for adult cattle and buffalo is _______________
24 b 74 a
a) 60 – 75 cm c) 40 – 50 cm
b) 75 – 80 cm d) 50 – 60 cm ( ) 25 a 75 c
26 b 76 b
97. As per BIS standards, minimum covered area requirement for adult male goat should be 27 b 77 b
___________ sq. m. respectively. 28 a 78 d
a) 3.4 c) 4.5 29 d 79 c
b) 1.8 d) 2.4 ( )
30 b 80 a
98. Melatonin is released only at limited intervals and depends on ______________ 31 a 81 c
a) Wavelength of light c) Day- length 32 c 82 a
b) Intensity of light d) Color of light ( ) 33 b 83 d
34 b 84 a
99. _________is the fibre obtained from Angora goats.
35 b 85 b
a) Pashmina c) Qiviut
b) Cashmere d) Mohair ( ) 36 a 86 a
37 a 87 d
100. Konkan Kapila cattle breed is native of _________________ 38 b 88 a
a) Maharashtra and Goa c) Kerala and Karnataka 39 a 89 c
b) Karnataka and Andhra d) Maharashtra and Karnataka ( )
40 a 90 b
Pradesh

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QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020

41 b 91 d LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY- DAIRY SCIENCE
42 b 92 a
43 b 93 a 1. Gerber‘s acid is used to estimate
44 c 94 a A. Fat percentage of milk B. Mineral content of milk
45 a 95 b C. Total solids of milk D. Water adulteration
46 b 96 a
47 b 97 b 2. The diacetyl content of butter as per FSSAI standard is
48 d 98 c A. 4 ppm B. 5 ppm
49 c 99 d C. 6 ppm D. 3 ppm
50 d 100 a
3. Cow milk is yellow in colour because of the pigment
A. riboflavin B. xanthophyll
C. carotene D. chlorophyll
********************
4. Pick out the whey cheese from the following
A.Camembert B. Roquefort
C. Ricotta D. Cottage cheese

5. The concentration of milk without applying heat is

A.UF B. Microfiltration
C. Bactofugation D. Clarification

6. Sugar percentage of sweetened condensed milk is

A.11 % B. 40 %
C. 15 % D. 10 %

7. Specific media used for isolation of coliform

A. MacConkey agar B. Triple sugar iron agar
C. Muller Hinton agar D. Blood agar

8. Kostler No. in mastitis milk is less than

A.3.5 - 4.0 B. 1.5 - 3.0
C. 4.0 - 4.5 D. 6.0

9. The P value of ghee is

A. 2.0-3.0 B. 3.0-4.0
C. 2.5-3.0 D. 1.0-2.0

10.The hormone responsible for ejection of milk

A. Vasopressin B. Oestrogen
C. Progesterone D. Oxytocin

11. The hardening temperature of ice cream is

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
0 0
A. -20 to -25 C B. -30 to -35 C A.2 B.3
C. -23 to -290C D. -25 to -300C C. 1 D.4

12. Baudouin test is used to detect adulteration in 23. According to PFA rule, recombined milk should contain
A. Butter B. Ghee A. 3.5% fat B. 3.0 % fat
C. Khoa D. Channa C. 4.0% fat D. 4.5% fat

13. An example of unripened cheese is 24. Satisfactory temperature for cream separation is around
A. Cheddar cheese B. Camembert A. 450C B. 500C
C. Mozarella D. Mysost cheese C. 400C D. 550C

14. The iron content of khoa is more than 25. According to PFA standard, the common salt content of butter is less than
A.175ppm B.200ppm A. 3 B. 5
C.100ppm D.250ppm C. 6 D. 6.5

15. The shelf life of paneer at room temperature is 26. Fisher and Hooker's phase reversal theory is related with the preparation of
A. 1 day B. 4 days A. Butter B. khoa
C. 3 days D. 8 days C. Cheese D. Paneer

16. Iodine can be used for the detection of 27. Makkan refers to
A. Starch B. Water A. Channa B. Desi butter
C. Cane sugar D. Skim milk powder C. Paneer D. Cream

17. Cacl2 can be used in the preparation of 28. The fat percent of double toned milk is
A. Cheese B. Butter A. 2.5% B. 2.0%
C. Khoa D. Paneer C. 1.5% D. 3%

18. The acidity of fresh cow milk is 29. In MBRT test, very good milk will have MBRT time over
A. 2.0 % B. 0.14%-0.18% A. 4½ hrs. B. 5 hrs.
C. 2.0-3.0 % D. 0.19% C. 3 hrs. D. 4 hrs

19. Ocharotoxin is produced by 30. Mastitis milk can be detected by

A. Aspergillus B. Penicillium A. Somatic cell count B. Total plate count
C. Salmonella D. Mucor C. By appearance D. Phosphatase

20. Malta fever is caused by 31. Bactofugation is the process of removing bacteria at a level of
A. Salmonella B. Clostridium A. 92.9% B. 85%
C. Listeria D. Brucella C. 99.9% D.100%

21. Psychrotrophic organisms will grow at 32. Greenish yellow colour of whey is due to
A. 300C B.15-200C A. Riboflavin B. Xanthophyll
C. 2-70C D. 9-100C C. Vitamin A D. Melanin

22. The fat per cent of flavoured milk is more than 33. According to PFA rule fat percent in ice cream is

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A. 15% B. 15% A. Casein B. Vitamin A
C. 18% D. 10% C. Cyanocobalamine D. Carotene

34. The over run in butter is 45.Calf rennet is obtained from

A. 40% B. 50% A. Abomasum of calves B. Small intestine of calves
C. 60% D. 25% C. Large intestine of calves D. Spleen

35. The fat percentage of unsweetened condensed milk is 46.Coliforms in Dahi should not be more than
A. 0.5% B. 5% A. 10 / g B. 100 / g
C. 2.5% D. 8% C. 40 / g D. 150 / g

36. Roller drying is the process used in the preparation of 47.Turbidity is used for finding out the efficiency of
A. Paneer B. Khoa A. Chilling B. Pasteurisation
C. Cream D. Milk powder C. Sterilization D. Starter activity

37. Basundi is an example of 48.Recent technique used for enumerating microbial load is
A. Condensed milk B. Evaporated milk A. DEFT test B. MBRT
C. Coagulated milk D. Frozen milk C. RRT D. GHP

38. Fat content of fore milk is 49.Pimaricin is an example of

A. Medium B. Low A. Enzyme B. Fungicide
C. High D. Normal C. Preservative D. Antioxidant

39. Recknagel‘s phenomenon is associated with 50.Stoke's law is related with

A. Specific gravity of milk B. Freezing point of milk A. Butter churning B. Clarification
C. Boiling point of milk D. Specific heat of milk C. Microfiltration D. Cream separation

40. Emulsifiers in ice cream improves 51.The commonly occurring pathogen in ice cream is
A.Taste B. Shelf life A. Salmonella B. Campylobacter
C. Flavour D. Whipping quality C. Listeria D. Leptospira

41.In India, buffalo contribution to total milk production ranges between 52.Stabilizer used in ice cream is
A. 50 – 55% B. 45 – 50% A. GMS B. Pectin
C. 35 – 40% D. 60 – 65% C. Potassium Sorbate D. Sodium glutamate

42. World milk day observed on 53.One of the practices involved in HACCP is
A. 01 June B. 01 July A. GMP B. GDP
C. 01 August D. 01 May C. MPN D. DEFT

43 .Normal pH for fresh sweet cow milk is 54.The milk used for production of sweetened condensed milk should
A. 6.6 B. 4.5 not give the MBR time less than
C. 5.6 D. 7.0 A. 3.5 hrs B. 5.5 hrs.
C. 4.5 hrs D. 4.0 hrs.
44.Yellow colour of the milk is due to 55.Yakult is a popular fermented product of

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
A. Spain B. Japan a. Punjab b. Uttar Pradesh
C. Bulgaria D. Denmark c. Tamilnadu d. Maharashtra

56. E. Coli and Enterobacter aerogenes can be differentiated by set of biochemical tests 66.Milk from Zebu is
called a. A2 type b. A1 type
A. SCC B. IMViC c. S type d. b and c
C. Hotis test D. None of the above
67. The institute which produced first cloned buffalo in the world is
57.Pick out the theory for butter churning
a. TANUVAS b. IVRI
A. fritz process B. Alfa-laval
c. NDRI d. NDDB
C. Rahn's foam theory D. CherryBurrell
68. The breed which is generally used in Jallikattu is
58.Prestratification method adopted for preparation of
A. cheese B. ghee a. Alambadi b. Burgur
C. butter D. khoa c. Pulikulam d. Umblachery

59.The pH of coagulation of milk for channa preparation should be around 69. TNLDA is stands for
A. 7.5 B. 2.6
C. 3.8 D. 5.4 a. Tamilnadu Livestock keepers b. Tamilnadu Land use Development
Development Authority Authority
60.The chemical preservative used to increase the shelf life of khoa is c. Tamilnadu Landless farmers d. Tamilnadu Livestock Development
Development Authority Agency
A. potassium hydroxide B. calcium chloride
C. potassium sorbate D. potassium dichromate
70.The state where cattle slaughter is not legally prohibited
61.NDDB is located at
a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Mizoram
a. New Delhi b.Anand c. Kerala d. All the above
c. Ahmedabad d. Karnal e.
71.The principal carbon source for majority of the spoilage causing microorganisms in
62.Father of white revolution
milk is
a. Lal Bahadur Shastri b. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
a. Fat b. Protein
c. Vergese Kurien d. Tribhuvandas Patel
c. Lactose d. Vitamins

63.The biography of Dr. Vergese Kurien is

72. Which one of the following is specific antimicrobial substance of milk
a. Pursuit of happiness b.Story of milk man
a. Lactoferrin b. Fatty acids
c. I too had a dream d. White truth
c. Complement d. Lysozyme

64.The state which stands first in milk production

73. Summer mastitis is caused by
a. Rajasthan b. Uttar Pradesh
a. Streptococcus agalactia b. Streptococcus dysagalactia
c. Undivided Andhra Pradesh d. Maharashtra
c. Corynebacterium pyogenes d. Streptococcus uberis

65.The state where crossbred dairy population is high 74. Microbacterium lacticum is mostly derived from

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a. Milking environment b. Milking personnel a. Freeze drying b. Air drying
c. Milking byres d. Milking equipment. c. Spray drying d. Sun drying
75. Recommended time-temperature combination for HTST pasteurization is
86. Common adulterant of milk is
a. 68.3ºC for 20 min b. 93ºC for 10 min a. Water b. Sugar
c. 62.8ºC for 30 min d. 72ºC for 15 sec c. Starch d. All of them

76. Water content of fresh cow milk on an average is about 87. The milk most suitable for preparation of Khoa is
a. Cow milk b. Buffalo milk
a. 87.23% b. 91.5% c. Sheep milk d. Goat milk
c. 60.8% d. 72.9%.
77. Preservation of Evaporate Milk is by 88. Somatic cell count is associated with
a. Sterilization b. Addition of Sugar a. Mastitis b. Brucellosis
c. Addition of Sodium Chloride d. Addition of Citric acid. c. Stomatitis d. Scarlet fever

89. Nisin is antibacterial substance produced by

78. The per capita availability of milk in India as per 2005 -06 statistics is
a. Streptococcus lactis b. Streptococcus cremoris
a. 220 gm b. 240 gm
c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. 300 gm d. 180 gm
90. Stabilizer used in ice cream is
79. Natural acidity of milk is due to
a. Sugar b. Gelatin
a. Casein and phosphates b. lactic acid
c. GMS d. Starch
c. bacteria d. Mould
91. Post pasteurization contamination is indicated by
80. Which of the following constituent is the most variable component in a lactation
a. Serratia b. Coliforms
a. lactose b. minerals
c. Lactobacillus d. None
c. protein d. fat
92. Irradiation of milk increases
81. The time temperature combination in pasteurization is based on the thermal death
a.Vitamin A content b. Vitamin B content
time of
c. Vitamin K content d. Vitamin D content
a. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis b. Coxiella burnetti
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Brucella abortus
93. Operation Flood Scheme - II was implemented in the year
a. 1970 b. 1990
82. During mastitis which one of the following constituents concentration increase in
c.1981 d. 1955
milk
a. Casein b. Chloride
94. Flavour compound in Yoghurt is
c. Calcium d. Phosphorus
a. Diacetyl b. Acetaldehyde
c. Acetone d. Methane
83. The group of bacteria that predominate in stored milk is
a. Thermophills b. Mesophills
95. The most heat resistant microorganism encountered in dairy industry
c. Psychrotrophs d. Thermodurics
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Streptococcus lactis
c. Coxiella burnetti d. Aspergillus niger
84. Phosphatase test is the test for finding out the efficiency of
a. Sterilization b. Pasteurization
c. Homogenization d. Vacreation 96. Bactofugation is the process of removing bacteria at a level of
85. Milk powder can be prepared by the process called A. 92.9% B. 85%
C. 99.9% D.100%

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
26. A 71. C
97. Greenish yellow colour of whey is due to 27. B 72. C
A. Riboflavin B. Xanthophyll 28. C 73. C
C. Vitamin A D. Melanin 29. B 74. A
30. A 75. D
31. C 76. A
98. According to PFA rule fat percent in Ice cream is 32. A 77. A
A. 15% B. 15% 33. D 78. B
C. 18% D. 10% 34. D 79. A
35. D 80. D
99. The over run in butter is 36. D 81. B
A. 40% B. 50% 37. A 82. B
C. 60% D. 25% 38. B 83. C
39. A 84. B
100. The fat percentage of unsweetened condensed milk is 40. D 85. C
A. 0.5% B. 5% 41. A 86. D
42. A 87. B
C. 2.5% D. 8%
43. A 88. A
44. D 89. A
45. A 90. B

Answer Key

1. A 46. A 91. B
2. A 47. C 92. D
3. C 48. A 93. C
4. C 49. B 94. B
5. A 50. D 95. C
6. B 51. A 96. C
7. A 52. B 97. A
8. B 53. A 98. D
9. D 54. A 99. D
10. D 55. B 100. D
11. C 56. B
12. B 57. C
13. C 58. B
14. C 59. D
15. A 60. C
16. A 61. B
17. A 62. C
18. B 63. C
19. A 64. B
20. D 65. C
21. C 66. A
22. A 67. C
23. B 68. C
24. C 69. D
25. A 70. D

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LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS TECHNOLOGY (MEAT SCIENCE) 10. The bleeding time for sheep is ____________ minutes.
a). 5 b). 6

1. ______________ System of dressing of carcasses is followed in modern abattoirs. c). 7 d). 8

a). Line b). Cross 11 Aspiration of blood into thoracic cavity by inserting knife too far towards the chest

c). Break d). Joint or over sticking causes _____________________

2. Muslim method of slaughter is also called as _________ a). Poor bleeding b). Back bleeding

a). Haram b). Halal c). Rush bleeding d). Stick bleeding

c). Kosher d). Jhatkha 12 Scalding temperature in pigs is about________________

3. In Jewish slaughter, the butcher is called as _______ a). 50 - 55 oC b). 62 - 64 oC

a). Shochet b). Shomer c). 70 - 85 oC d). 90 oC

c). Mulla d). Kosher 13 Animals should be bled within ________ seconds after electrical stunning to avoid

4. Removal of blood vessels of Carcasses in Jewish slaughter is called ___________ muscle splashing.

a). Searching b). Bunging a). 60 sec b). 30 sec

c). Porging d). Portioning c). 90 sec d). 10 sec

5. One livestock unit is ____________________ 14 The gelatin is obtained from the bladder of _____ is called as Isinglass

a). 1 Cattle=2 piglets=3 calves=5 sheep b). 1 Cattle=2 calves=3 pigs=5 sheep a). Beef b). Carabeef

c). 1 Cattle=2 pigs=3 sheep =5 calves d). 1 Cattle=2 pigs=3 calves=5 sheep c). Pork d). Fish

6. Bleeding time for pig is ______ minutes. 15 Animals with less fat cover over the body and ready for slaughter are called as

a). 5 b). 6 ____

c). 7 d). 8 a). Mild stock b). Good stock

7. Casings prepared from small intestine of sheep are called_____________ c). Clean stock d). Lean stock

a). weasand b). Middles 16 A male bovine castrated late in life is called as ________________

c). Bungs d). Rounds a). Bullock b). Steer

8. Average protein content of carcass meal________________ c). Stag d). Bull

a). 50% b). 30% 17 Scalding temperature of pig____________.

c). 70% d). 40% a). 40º C b). 35 ºC

9. The bleeding time for cattle is ____________ minutes. c). 63 ºC d). 80º C

a). 5 b). 6 18 Young poultry which are 23-28 days old with an average live weight of 0.5kg are

c). 7 d). 8 called as ________________

a). Gilt b). Weaner

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
c). Stag d). Poussins 28 The recommended water requirement for a pig in a abattoir is _______ litres / day.
19 Eating of dog flesh is called as ____________ a). 454 b). 272
a). Canophagia b). Hippophagia c). 45 d). None of the above
c). Kynophagia d). Caninephagia 29 Recommended light intensity at work rooms in an abattoir is ________ lux.
20 The optimum concentration of CO2 gas in stunning of pigs is _________ a). 540 b). 220
a). 70% b). 20% c). 110 d). 50
c). 50% d). 90% 30 Pen size for housing of cattle (loose) in lairage of a slaughter house is _____ m².
21 Eating of horse flesh is called as ____________ a). 2.3-2.8 b). 2.1-2.4
a). Hippophagia b). Caprophagia c). 3.1-3.3 d). 3.3-3.5
c). Kynophagia d). Biophagia 31 Recommended lairage floor gradient in a slaughter house should be at least ______
22 The voltage during electrical stunning of sheep is usually_________ a). 1:20 b). 1:30
a). 40 V b). 75 – 80 V c). 1:40 d). 1:50
c). 90 V d). 120 V 32 The slaughter rate in gravity rail system is _____ cattle / hour
23 Deer meat is called as __________________ a). 10-40 b). 10-75
a). Fryer b). Deer mutton c). 40-120 d). 50-150
c). Venison d). Menison 33 The slaughter rate in intermittent powered system of dressing is _____ cattle / hour
24 Buffalo meat is also called as ______________________ a). 10-40 b). 10-75
a). Buff b). Buffen c). 40-120 d). 50-150
c). Carabeef d). All the above 34 The slaughter rate in continuous powered system of dressing is _____ cattle / hour
25 Goat meat is called as ____________________ a). 10-40 b). 10-75
a). Mutton b). Beef c). 40-120 d). 50-150
c). Venison d). Chevon 35 The slaughter rate in canpack dressing system is _____ cattle / hour
26 Area size for a medium meat plant (50,000+ units /year) is __________________ a). 10-40 b). 10-75
a). 1-2 acres b). 2-3 acres c). 40-120 d). 50-150
c). 3-4 acres d). 2-4 acres 36 Recovery of fat from the dead carcasses is called as ____________________
27 The creatures which may cause contamination in abattoir are called as a). Rendering b). Simmering
___________ c). Braising d). Pasteurization
a). Fermins b). Kermins 37 The edible offals of food animals must be held at a temperaturenot exceeding
c). Dermins d). Vermins ____°C.
a). 3 b). 4

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c). 5 d). 6 c). Proteus d). Rennet
38 Heparin is extracted from _________________ 48 Dried blood is rich in amino acid _____________
a). Lung b). Liver a). Lysine b). Leucine
c). Spleen d). Adrenal c). Methionine d). Tryptophan
39 The process of tanning sheep skin with fish oil is popularly known as _________ 49 Black puddings are the edible by-products obtained from _________________
a). Shammoying b). Dying a). Bone marrow b). Blood
c). Bating d). Desliming c). Brain d). Kidneys
40 Animal casings are mainly graded based on their___________ 50 Pig skin yields large quantity of ____________
a). Length b). Diameter a). Collagen b). Elastin
c). Colour d). Moisture content c). Gelatin d). Reticulin
41 Omental fat is otherwise called as _________________ 51 The slunk/slink means ________
a). Caul fat b). Suet a). 12 months old calf b). 2 months old calf
c). Knob d). Leaf fat c). 7 days old calf d). Unborn calf
42 Rendered pig fat is called as ________________ 52 The air pressure of pneumatic stunner is ____________
a). Lard b). Momo a). 80 – 120 bar b). 80 – 120 psi
c). Caul fat d). Tallow c). 3500 – 4000 psi d). 3500 – 4000 bar
43 Rendered cattle fat is called as ________________ 53 The light intensity at detained meat room is __________
a). Lard b). Momo a). 110 LUX b). 220 LUX
c). Caul fat d). Tallow c). 540 LUX d). None of the above
44 Measly beef is caused by ____________ 54 The normal exsanguination time for chicken is ____________
a). Cysticercustenucollis b). Cysticercusbovis a). 1.5 to 2 min b). 3 to 4 min
c). Cysticercuscellusae d). Multicepsmulticeps c). 5 to 6 min d). 6 to 8 min
45 Measly pork is caused by ____________ 55 Wetting is a ____________________ reaction of cleaning in a meat plant
a). Cysticercustenucollis b). Cysticercusbovis a). Physical b). Chemical
c). Cysticercuscellusae d). Multicepsmulticeps c). Microbial d). Organic
46 Pig skin is also known as _______________ 56 Chelating agents are otherwise called as _________________
a). Pelt b). Hide a). Halogens b). Amphoterics
c). Rind d). Lard c). Sequestrants d). Halophiles
47 _______________ is manufactured from the abomasum of the calf. 57 Average dressing % in Indian goats is about__________________
a). Pepsin b). Rennin a). 45-50% b). 55%

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c). Above 70% d). 60% c). Haram d). Kosher
58 Ruffle fat is a fat around _________ 67 Meat unfit for human consumption by Jewish method of slaughter is known as
a). Kidney b). Mesentery ______
c). Thoracic region d). Rectum a). Halal b). Terefa
59 EU regulation for water temperature required for knife sterilization in abattoir is c). Haram d). Kosher
___°C 68 Meat unfit for human consumption by Muslim method of slaughter is known as
a). 72 b). 82 _____
c). 92 d). 102 a). Halal b). Terefa
60 The best ramp angle for loading and unloading of pigs from trucks is _________°. c). Haram d). Kosher
a). 20 b). 30 69 Five rules of ________________ slaughter required for killing the animal for food
c). 40 d). 50 are ―without pause, pressure, slanting, stabbing and tearing‖.
61 __________ reserves of animals are readily depleted during transit and detention a). Jewish b). Muslim
a). Protein b). Fat c). Jhatka d). None of the above
c). Glycogen d). All the above 70 Emergency slaughter is done in animals having _________
62 ___________________ reagent is used for dating of bruised meat a). Acute pain b). Chronic condition
a). Fouchet‘s b). TBA c). Anthrax d). Black quarter
c). Voges-proskauer d). Edwards 71 Casualty slaughter is done in animals having ___________
63 Age of the bruises in animal is identified by ____________ test a). Acute pain b). Chronic condition
a). Malachite green test b). Bilirubin test c). Anthrax d). Black quarter
c). Remington fowrie test d). Halothane test 72 The slaughter of dead animals is called__________.
64 Double muscling in thigh region of Simmental bulls is also called as _____ effect. a). Cold slaughter b). Emergency slaughter
a). Symond‘s b). Doppelender c). Casualty slaughter d). Plain slaughter
c). Roger‘s d). Gracey‘s 73 _______________ is called as father of meat inspection.
65 Meat fit for human consumption by Jewish method of slaughter is known as a). Thornton b). Gracey
________ c). Ostertag d). Collins
a). Halal b). Terefa 74 ___________________ is known as sweetbreads.
c). Haram d). Kosher a). Heart b). Spleen
66 Meat fit for human consumption by Muslim method of slaughter is known as c). Pancreas d). Kidney
_______ 75 Trotters are ________________________
a). Halal b). Terefa a). Cattle feet b). Sheep feet

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c). Rabbit feet d). Pig feet c). Russia d). France
76 Scalding of turkey is usually done at __________ temperature 86 Ossein can be obtained from______________
a). 60oC for 60 sec b). 53oC for 120 sec a). Bones b). Cartilage
c). 60o C for 120 sec d). 93oC for 5 sec c). Brain d). Skin
77 Meat bone ratio in dressed broiler is approximately________ 87 _________________is used as a source of chlorine in commercial practice.
a). 4:1 b). 2:1 a). Sodium hypochlorite b). Sodium hydroxide
c). 3:1 d). 5:1 c). Calcium oxide d). Sodium pyrophosphate
78 Folic acid is the rich source in ___________ 88 Casings from cleaned pig stomach____________
a). Beef b). Mutton a). Chitterlings b). Maws
c). Pork d). Chicken meat c). Rounds d). Middles
79 Thiamine is the rich source in ___________ 89 Aspiration of blood into thoracic cavity by inserting knife too far towards the chest
a). Beef b). Mutton causes
c). Pork d). Chicken meat a). Poor bleeding b). Imperfect bleeding
80 Niacin is the rich source in ___________- c). Back bleeding d). Rush bleeding
a). Beef b). Mutton 90 Equipment used for slaughter must be made of __________________.
c). Pork d). Chicken meat a). Plastic b). Wood
81 Glue is the crude form of ______________ c). Non-Corrodible material d). None of the above
a). Collagen b). Gelatin 91 Muscular splash caused by __________________.
c). Adhesive d). Gum a). Delay between stunning and sticking b). Transportation
82 Demineralized bone is called as ____________ c). Hanging d). None of the above
a). Bone ash b). Calcined bone 92 Pelt burn seen in _________________.
c). Bone meal d). Ossein a). Pig b). Sheep
83 Alpha cells of pancreas yield the __________________ hormone c). Calf d). Cattle
a). Insulin b). Glucagon 93 Large animal skin is called as__________________.
c). Parathormone d). Epinephrine a). Calfskin b). Kip
84 Deonar abattoir situated at _______ c). Hide d). None of the above
a). Mumbai b). Chennai 94 Skin composed of __________________has major component.
c). Calcutta d). New Delhi a). Collagen b). Keratin
85 Canpak system of dressing is developed and patented in_________ c). Both a and b d). None of the above
a). USA b). Canada 95 Hyaluronidase is extracted from _________ and used as ―spreading factor‖

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a). Testes b). Thymus Answer Key
c). Thyroid d). Pancreas
Sr. No. Answer Sr. No. Answer Sr. No. Answer Sr. No. Answer
96 A carcass from which meat has been sent to laboratory for further examination/test
1 A 26 D 51 D 76 D
at post mortem examination is sent to ____________
2 B 27 D 52 B 77 A
a). Condemned meat room b). Isolation Block
3 A 28 A 53 C 78 A
c). Detained meat room d). Lairage
4 C 29 B 54 A 79 C
97 Animals affixed the tag ―S‘, at ante mortem inspection is sent to 5 D 30 A 55 A 80 D
the______________ 6 B 31 D 56 C 81 B
a). Condemned meat room b). Isolation Block 7 D 32 A 57 A 82 D
c). Detained meat room d). Lairage 8 A 33 B 58 A 83 B
98 The gradient in a ramp for loading animals should be less than 9 B 34 C 59 B 84 A
__________________. 10 A 35 D 60 A 85 B
a). 10o b). 20o 11 B 36 A 61 C 86 A
12 B 37 A 62 A 87 A
c). 30o d). 40o
13 B 38 A 63 B 88 B
99 Meat containing sarcocyst is________
14 D 39 A 64 B 89 C
a). Rejected on aesthetic ground b). Rejected due to zoonoses
15 D 40 B 65 D 90 C
c). Passed d). Passed with caution of cooking
16 C 41 A 66 A 91 A
100 Water must be distributed to all parts of the plant under adequate
17 C 42 A 67 B 92 B
pressure_________ 18 D 43 D 68 C 93 C
a). 20 psi b). 30 psi 19 C 44 B 69 A 94 A
c). 40 psi d). 50 psi 20 A 45 C 70 A 95 A
21 A 46 C 71 B 96 C
22 B 47 D 72 A 97 B
23 C 48 A 73 B 98 B
24 D 49 B 74 C 99 A
25 D 50 C 75 D 100 A

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VETERINARY PREVENTIVE MEDICINE 15. Terminal dry gangrene and polyarthritis in calves is caused by
a. Salmonella Dublin b. Salmonella typhimurium
1. The following disease causes cyanosis of comb and swelling of wattle in poultry c. Salmonella newport d. Salmonella arizonae
except
16. Induration of udder with enlargement of supramammary lymph node occur in
a. Avian influenza b. Newcastle disease
c. Avian pasteurellosis d. Infectious bronchitis a. Tubercular mastitis b. Staphylococcal mastitis
2. The change of voice in dog affected with rabies is differentiated with c. Mycoplasmal mastitis d. Leptospiral mastitis
a. Trypanosomiosis b. Canine babesiosis 17. Which of the following diseases diagnosed by Cervical mucus agglutination test in
c. Canine distemper d. None of the above cattle
3. Blue tongue is transmitted through a. Trichomoniasis b. Genital campylobacteriosis
a. Culicoides b. Melophagus ovinus c. Salmonellosis d. a &b
c. Semen d. All the above 18. Hyperglycemia and glycosuria one of the biochemical changes in sheep affected
4. The following diseases causes corneal opacity in dog except with
a. Trypanosomiasis b. Canine Ehrlichiasis a. Pulpy kidney disease b. Rabies
c. Leptospirosis d. Infectious canine hepatitis c. Struck d. a&b
5. Semen is the choice of sample for diagnosis of 19. Which species are relatively resistant to anthrax
a. Bovine viral diarrhoea b. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis a. Dog and cat b. Sheep
c. Foot and mouth disease d. a&b c. Horse d. Cattle
6. Treatment of choice for Babesia gibsoni infection in dog 20. Investigation of relationships between disease and hypothesized causal factors in a
a. Atorvaquone b. Clindamycin study population is known as
c. Imidocarb d. All the above a. Case control study b. Cross sectional study
7. Tetanospasmin block the release of c. Cohort study d. Experimental study
a. GABA b. Acetylcholine
21. Which of the following disease causes diarrhoea without straining in cattle
c. Dopamine d. None of the above
a. Salmonellosis b. Bovine viral diarrhoea
8. The most commonly used antihelmintic for Toxocara canis in pups
c. Johnes disease d. Coccidiosis
a. Pyrantel pamoate b. Fenbendazole
22. Which of the following vaccines are not effective for goats
c. Praziquantel d. a&b
a. Tetanus toxoid b. Black quarter vaccine
9. Which of the following disease causes Moon blindness in horse
c. Enterotoxaemia vaccine d. Anthrax spore vaccine
a. Leptospirosis b. Brucellosis
23. Which of the following diseases cause immune mediated haemolytic anaemia in
c. Equine infectious anaemia. d. Babesiosis
dog
10. The choice of disinfectant for viral disease
a. Leptospirosis b. Canine Babesiosis
a. Sodium hypochlorite b. Quarternary ammonium compound
c. Canine Ehrlichiasis d. b&c
c. Iodophor d. None of the above
24. Drug of choice for haemorrhagic septicaemia in cattle
11. Permissible level of aflatoxin in poultry feed
a. Sulphadimidine @ 150mg/Kg b. Sulphadimidine@ 100mg/Kg
a. 20 ppb b. 2.0 ppm
c. Oxytetracycline@ 10mg/kg d. Oxytetracycline @ 20mg/Kg
c. 0.002 ppm d. 200 ppb
25. Transmission of leptospirosis in dog through
12. Listeriosis in sheep is managed with
a. Penicillin G@ 44000 IU/Kg b.wt a. Dexamethasone @ 1.0mg/kg b.wt a. Urine b. Rodents
c. Skin penetration d. All the above
c. Neurotropic vitamins d. All the above 26. Disinfectant for foot and mouth disease
13. Outbreak of disease in avian population is called as a. 4% sodium carbonate b. 1-2% sodium hydroxide
a. Epizootics b. Enzootic c. 1-2% Formalin d. All the above
c. Epornitics d. Panzootic 27. Sulphur granules in pus are seen in
14. Scooting behaviour in dog is caused by
a. Actinobacillosis b. Actinomycosis
a. Diphylidium caninum b. Diphylobothridium latum
c. Echinococcus granulosus d. None of the above c. Strangle d. a&b

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28. Brucella ovis in sheep is mainly transmitted through 42. Thin shelled egg and shell-less are noticed in
a. Venereal b. Ingestion a. Infectious bronchitis b. New castle disease
c. Contact d. Conjunctiva c. Egg drop syndrome d. a&c
29. Which of the following disease causes Pleurisy without effusion in cattle 43. Arsenical compounds are used for treatment of
a. Contagious bovine b. Tuberculosis a. Coccidiosis b. Hook worm
pleuropnemonia c. Heart worm d. a&c
c. Pneumonic pasteurellosis d. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis 44. Ivermectin is contraindicated in collie breeds of dogs due to
30. Screening test for diagnosis of pullorum disease in poultry a. Mutation of MDR1 gene b. Presence of M protein
a. Rapid Whole blood b. ELISA c. Mutation of NDRI gene d. Anaphylactic reaction
agglutination test 45. The test is used to measure the protective antibody titre against Rabies
c. tube agglutination test d. AGID a. RFFIT b. Direct FAT
31. Age of foot and mouth disease vaccination in calf c. Indirect ELISA d. SNT
a. 4 month b. 6 months 46. Which of the following causes blindness in sheep
c. 8 month d. 1 yr a. Gid b. Listeriosis
32. Prolonged antibiotic treatment results in growth of c. Rabies d. a&b
a. Candida sp b. Aspergillus sp 47. Number of instance of disease or cases in a known population at designated time is
c. Sporotrichum sp d. None of the above called as
33. Shaker foal syndrome is a disease caused by a. Prevalence b. Incidence
a. Wound botulism b. Forage botulism c. Cumulative incidence d. None of the above
c. Carrion associated botulism d. Toxico-infectious botulism 48. The disease is not cause paralysis in poultry
34. False black leg in sheep is associated with a. Mareks disease b. Infectious bronchitis
a. Clostridium chauvoei b. Clostridium septicum c. New castle disease d. Avian influenza
c. Clostridium novyi d. b&c 49. Trickle infection in poultry is used for control of
35. Which of the following species is resistant to aflatoxicosis a. Coccidiosis b. Ascariasis
a. Chicken b. Turkey c. Avian trichomoniasis d. Nodular taeniasis
c. Duck d. Ruminants 50. The test used to measure the protective antibody titre in dog with canine distemper
36. Which of the following causes recurrent mastitis in cattle vaccination
a. Klebsiella sp b. Staphylococcus aureus a. SNT b. ELISA
c. E.Coli d. Enterococcus faecalis c. IFAT d. IPT
37. Metastatic infection resulting in formation of abscess in any organs of the body in
horses infected with strangles known as
a. Chondroids b. Muscle infarction
c. Guttoral pouch empyema d. Bastard strangles
38. The deficiency of mineral in cattle affected with bovine Ephemeral fever
a. Magnesium b. Phosphorus
c. Calcium d. Zinc
39. An anti-cestodal drug used for used for treatment of Nasal Schistosomiasis in
cattle
a. Niclosomide b. Praziquantel
c. Nitroxynil d. Albendazole
40. Coggins test is used for diagnosis of
a. Equine influenza b. Equine viral rhinopneumonitis
c. Equine infectious anaemia d. African horse sickness
41. Which of the following causes Ring worm like lesions in abortus foetus
a. Q-fever b. Aspergillosis
c. Enzootic abortion d. Brucellosis

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Answer key VETERINARY ANATOMY
1. d 16. a 31. a 46. d OSTEOLOGY
2. a 17. d 32. a 47. a 1. Axis is otherwise known as
3. d 18. d 33. d 48. b
4. c 19. a 34. d 49. a a) Vertebra prominence b) Vertebra dentata
5. d 20. b 35. d 50. a c) Ambiguous vertebra d) Thoracic vertebra
6. d 21. c 36. b
7. a 22. c 37. d 2. Which vertebra is called as vertebra prominence
8. d 23. d 38. c a) 6th cervical b) 7th cervical c) 4th cervical d) 5th cervical
9. a 24. a 39. b
3. Synsacrum is present in
10. a 25. d 40. a
11. a 26. d 41. b a) Horse b) Cattle c) Fowl d) Dog
12. d 27. d 42. d
4. Sulcus vasculosus is for the passage of
13. c 28. a 43. d
14. a 29 b 44. a a) Middle sacral artery b) Middle coccygeal artery
15. a 30. a 45. a c) Lateral coccygeal artery d) Femoral artery
5. Uncinate process is present in the ribs of
a) Horse b) Dog c) Fowl d) Ox
6. The number of sternebrae in ox
a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8
7. Anterior extremity of the sternum is called
a) Xiphisternum b) Mesosternum
c) Manubrium sternum d) Keel
8. Boat shaped sternum is present in
a) Ox b) Horse c) Dog d) Pig
9. Identify the cranial bone
a) Nasal b) Vomer c) Temporal d) Malar
10. One of the following is an unpaired bone
a) Frontal b) Parietal c) Sphenoid d) Temporal
11. Identify the facial bone
a) Occipital b) Ethmoid c) Lacrimal d) Parietal
12. Largest foramen in the skull is
a) Foramen lacerum b) Foramen orbitorotundum
c) Foramen magnum d) Optic foramen

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13. Cranial and nasal cavity communicates through 24. Deltoid tuberosity is present on the lateral surface of
a) Lateral masses of ethmoid a) Scapula b) Radius c) Humerus d) Femur
b) Ventral nasal meatus 25. Bones found in the soft tissues and which don‘t form a part of the regular skeleton
c) Cribriform plate of ethmoid a) Sesamoid b) Heterotrophic bones c) Short bones d) Irregular bones
d) Dorsal nasal meatus 26. Which one of the following is an aborted long bone?
14. Sella turcica lodges the a) Ulna of Ox b) Ulna of Horse c) Ribs of ox d) Ribs of horse
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal 27. Glenoid cavity of the scapula articulates with
gland a) Head of Femur b) Head of Humerus
15. Facial tuberosity is present above the level of c) Condyle of Tibia d) Radius
a) 3rd cheek tooth b) 1st cheek tooth c) 4th cheek tooth d)2nd cheek tooth 28. In dog, Coronoid and Olecranon fossa communicates through the
16. Longest bone in the body of fowl is a) Supratrochlear foramen b) Nutrient foramen
a) Tibio –tarsus b) femur c) Tarso - metatarsus c) Foramen magnum d) Foramen transversarium
17. Third trochanter (or) trochanter tertius is present in the femur of 29. Point of elbow is formed by
a) Ox b) Sheep c) Horse d) Goat a) Anconeus process b) Olecranon Process
18. The posterior extremity of the sternum presents cartilage c) Semilunar notch d) Radial tuberosity
a) Meniscus b) Cariniform c) Ellipsoid d) Xiphoid 30. Identify the vertebral formula of Ox
a) C7 T13 L6 S5 Cy18-20
19. Tibia is situated between the
b) C7 T18 L6 S5 Cy15-21
a) Hip and stifle b) stifle and hock c) Shoulder and elbow d) Hock and
c) C7T13 L7 S3 Cy20-23
pastern
d) C13-14 T7 LS14 Cy7
20. In fowl, sciatic foramen of Os coxae is formed between the
31. Number of radio – ulnar arch in horse
a) Ilium and ischium b) Ischium and pubis
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
c) Ilium and Pubis d) Pubis and femur
32. Typical pectoral girdle consists of
21. Which one of the following is named as Os navicularis
a) Scapula alone b) Scapula and Clavicle
a) Distal sesamoid b) Proximal sesamoid
c) Scapula, Clavicle and Corocoid d) Clavicle and coracoid
c) Dorsal sesamoid d) Fabella
33. Depression leading to two or more foramina is called
22. Largest carpal bone in horse
a) Hiatus b) Sinus c) Foramen d) Meatus
a) Radial carpal b) Third carpal
34. Os phrenic is present in
c) Fused second and third carpal d) Fourth carpal
a) Ox b) Pig c) Camel d) Dog
23. Pulley – like articular area is termed as
35. Father of Anatomy is
a) Crest b) Condyle c) Trochlea d) Ellipsoid

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a) Hippocrates b) Aristotle c) Pythogoras d) Sisson a) Lumbar vertebrae b) Squamous occipital c) Petrous temporal d) Frontal

36. Connective tissue covering of the bone is called 47. Thin, scroll – like bone in the nasal cavity is

a) Capsule b) Perichondrium c) Periosteum d) Perimysium a) Hyoid b) Vomer c) Sphenoid d) Turbinate

37. In domestic fowl the clavicles of two sides unite to form a plate called 48. Optic foramen is for the passage of

a) Epicleidium b) Hypocledium c) Keel d) Pectoral girdle a) Oculomotor nerve b) Ethmoidal nerve c) Optic nerve d) Olfactory

38. Longest and massive bone in the body of mammals is nerve

a) Humerus b) Tibia c) Femur d) Metacarpal 49. Facial bone situated between the vertical rami of the mandible is

39. A small non – articular sulcus in the head of the femur is a) Hyoid b) Vomer c) Parietal d) Nasal

a) Fovea capitis b) Fossa atlantis c) Fovea dentis d) Foramen capitis 50. Point of croup is formed by

40. In mammals tarsal bones are arranged in ---------- rows a) Tubercoxae alone b) Tuber ischii and Trochanter major
a) One row b) Two rows c) Three rows d) Four rows
c) Tuber sacrale and median sacral crest d)Tuber ischii alone
41. A medial projection present in the fibular tarsal is called

a) Calcaneal tuber b) Sustentaculum talli c) Tallus d) Tuber calicis ARTHROLOGY

42. Mamillary and accessory processes are prominent in vertebrae of dog 1. In fibrous joints the opposing ends of bones are united by
a) White fibrous tissue b) Elastic tissue
a) Sacral b) Cervical c) Thoracic d) Lumbar
c) Cartilage d) Bone
43. ―V‖ shaped bones present on the ventral aspect of the coccygeal vertebra of dog is 2. sutures are

called a) Amphiarthroses b) Movable joints

c) Diarthroses d) Immovable joints
a) Chevron bones b) Hemal processes c) Pygostyle d) Fabella
3. Intermetacarpal articulations in horse is
44. Pyramid shaped last coccygeal vertebra of fowl is called a) Synchondroses b) Syndesmoses
c) Arthrodial d) Amphiarthroses
a) Tallus b) Hypocledium c) Pygostyle d)Uncinate
4. Occipito sphenoid articulation is
process a) Synostosis b) Syndesmoses
45. The anterior extremity of horse sternum presents cartilage called c) Synchondroses d) Arthrodial
5. Ossification of joint with advancing age is known as
a) Xiphoid b) Cariniform c) Meniscus d) Ellipsoid
a) Synostosis b) Syndesmoses
46. The hardest bone in the body of mammals is c) Synchondroses d) Arthrodial

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6. Elbow is a
c) Medial occipital protruberance d) Lateral occipital protruberance
a) Condyloid joint b) Arthrodia joint
17. ― C ― shaped inter – articular cartilages between the condyles of the tibia and
c) Ellipsoidal joint d) Ginglymus joint femur
7. Atlanto axial joint is a) Annulus pulposus b) Menisci
a) Ginglymus joint b) Trochoid joint c) Nucleus fibrosus d) Nucleus pulposes
c) Condyloid joint d) Ellipsoidal joint 18. Hyoid bone is for
8. Temporomandibular articulation are a) Mastication only b) Mastication and deglutition
a) Diarthrodial b) Synarthrodial c) Deglutition only d) None of the above
c) Amphiarthrodial d) Synchondroses 19. Occipito atlantal joint is
9. In cartilagenous joints the bones are united by a) Trochoid joint b) Arthrodia
a) Bone b) Cartilage c) Ginglymus joint d) Enarthroses
c) Elastic fibres d) White fibrous tissue 20. Shoulder joint is
10. Amphiarthroses are a) Enarthroses b) Ginglymus
a) Primary cartilaginous joints b) Secondary cartilaginous joints c) Symphysis d) Trochoid
c) Tertiary cartilaginous joints d) Quartenary cartilaginous joints
11. Diarthroses are MYOLOGY

a) Synovial joints b) Primary cartilaginous joints

1. Accessory structures of the muscle are
c) Fibrous joints d) Secondary cartilaginous joints a) Blood vessels and nerves
12. Articular cartilages in synovial joints are b) Bones and ligaments
c) Fascial and synovial membrane
a) Fibrocartilage b) Elastic cartilage
c) Hyaline cartilage d) Fibro elastc cartilage 2. Basic property of muscular tissue is
a) Contraction b) Irritability c) Conduction
13. Each intervertebral disc consists of a central soft, pulpy sub called
a) Annulus fibrosus b) Annulus pulposus 3. Which one of the following statement is correct?
c) Nucleus fibrosus d) Nucleus pulposes a) Origin of a muscle is fixed and insertion is movable
b) Insertion of a muscle is fixed and origin is movable
14. A ligament surrounding the joint is called c) Both are fixed attachments
a) Collateral ligament b) Capsular ligament
4. Band of white fibrous tissue attaches muscle to bone is
c) Annular ligament d) Interosseus ligament a) Ligament b) Aponeurosis c) Tendon
15. Cervical part of the supraspinous ligament is called as
5. A broad sheet of white fibrous tissue attaches muscle is
a) Superior check ligament b) Inferior check ligament a) Tendon b) Aponeurosis c) Ligament
c) Ligamentum nuchae d) Ligamentum arteriosum
6. Active part of the locomotive apparatus is formed by
16. Ligament nuchae is inserted into the
a) Bone b) Muscle c) Joints
a) External occipital protruberance b) Internal occipital protruberance

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7. Synovial sheath encircles the b) Cleido-Occipitalis and Cleido-mastoideus
a) Tendon b) Bone c) Muscle c) Sternomandibularis and sternomastoideus

8. Connective tissue covering the individual muscle fibre in 22. Muscle included between the flaps of the flank is
a) Endomyseum b) Perimyseum c) Epimyseum a) Obliques abdominis externus
b) Obliques abdominis internus
9. Connective tissue covering the muscle fasciculi c) Cutaneous trunci
a) Endomyseum b) Perimyseum c) Epimyseum
23. Coracobrachialis originates from
10. Connective tissue covering the whole muscle is a) Coracoid process b) Deltoid tuberosity c) Acromian process
a) Endomyseum b) Perimyseum c) Epimyseum
24. Two heads of the deltoideus muscle are
11. Cutaneous muscle developed in a) acromial and scapular head
a) Superficial fascia b) Deep fascia c) Both b) deltoid and scapular head
c) Medial and lateral head
12. Cutaneous Omobrachialis covers the
a) Lateral aspect of the shoulder and arm 25. In Ox Subscapularis has
b) Lateral aspect of the abdomen a) 3 fleshy parts b) 2 fleshy parts c) 4 fleshy parts
c) Ventral aspect of the abdomen
13. Muscle used to drive away the insects that bites the animal 26. The origin of Biceps brachii muscle
a) Transverse thoracis b) Diaphragm c) Cutaneous muscle a) Coracoid process b) Tuberscapulae c) Deltoid tuberosity

14. Cervical part of cutaneous colli is present in 27. Largest division of Triceps brachii
a) Ox b) Horse c) Sheep a) Long head b) Medial head c) Lateral head

15. Action of pectoral muscles is to 28. Musculospiral groove is for the lodgement of
a) Abduct the limb b) Abduct the limb c) Rotate the limb a) Coracobrachialis b) Brachialis c) Biceps brachii

16. Which one of the following muscle originates form ligamentum nuchae and 29. Muscle originates from the margins of olecranon fossa
Supraspinous ligament a) Anconeus b) Tensor fascia antibrachi c) Deltoideus
a) Lattissimus dorsi b) Deep pectoral c) Trapezius
30. Which one of the following muscle is used to approximate the digits?
17. Muscle that extends from head along the neck to the arm a) Medial digital extensor b) Common digital extensor c) Lateral digital
a) Sterno cephalicus b) Omotransversarius c) Brachiocephalicus extensor

18. In Ox, dorsal part of the brachiocephalicus is called 31. Which one of the following muscle is used to extend the carpus and flex the
a) Cleido-mastoideus b) Cleido-Occipitalis c) Sternomastoideus elbow?
a) Medial digital extensor b) Extensor carpi radialis c) Lateral digital extensor
19. Muscle which originates from the lumbo-dorsal fascia
a) Teres major b) Rhomboideus c) Latissimus dorsi 32. Extensors of the forearm are grouped around
a) Dorsal aspect b) Volar aspect c) Dorsolateral aspect
20. Which one of the following is a cutaneous muscle?
a) Omohyoideus b) Omobrachialis c) Omotransversarius 33. A small vestigeal muscle among the flexors of the forearm
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris b) Pronator teres c) Fexor carpi ulnaris
21. Two divisions of the brachiocephalicus are
a) Cleido-mandibularis and Cleido-mastoideus

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34. A flexor situated on the dorsolateral aspect of the forearm 47. Between the brachiocephalicus and Omotransversarius which of the following
a) Flexor carpi ulnaris b) Pronator teres c) Ulnaris lateralis nerve
branch Passing through?
35. Omotransversarius is absent in a) Spinal accessory b) Cervical spinal nerve c) 12th cranial nerve
a) Horse b) Ox c) Buffaloe
48. Largest of the extensor muscles of the forearm
36. Three digits of deep digital flexor are a) Medial digital extensor b) Common digital extensor c) Extensor carpi
a) Scapular, acromial and radial radialis
b) Radial, ulnar and scapular
c) Radial, ulnar and humeral 49. Largest of the flexor muscles of the forearm
a) Superficial digital flexor b) ulnaris lateralis c) Deep digital flexor
37. Flexors of the forearm are grouped on the
a) Dorsal aspect b) Volar aspect c) Dorsolateral aspect 50. Which one of the following muscle has 3 heads of origin?
a) Deep digital flexor b) flexor carpi ulnaris c) Superficial digital flexor
38. Deepest and smallest head of the deep digital flexor
a) Radial head b) ulnar head c) Humeral head
MYOLOGY ANSWERS:
39. Which one of the following is situated between flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnaris
lateralis?
a) Flexor carpi radialis 1. c
b) Superficial digital flexor 2. a
c) Ulnar head of deep digital flexor 3. a
4. c
40. The most superficial head of deep digital flexor 5. b
a) Radial head b) Humeral head c) Ulnar head 6. b
7. a
41. The muscle situated between the Medial and Lateral digital extensor is 8. a
a) Ulnaris laterlis b) Extensor carpi radialis c) Common digital extensor 9. b
10. c
42. The muscle situated between the flexor carpi ulnaris and deep digital flexor is 11. a
a) Ulnaris lateralis b) Superficial digital flexor c) Extensor carpi radialis 12. a
13. c
43. Which one of the following is present on the shoulder lateral aspect? 14. b
a) Deltoideus b) subscapularis c) Teres major 15. b
16. a
44. Anterior most muscle of the arm is 17. c
a) coracobrachialis b) medial head of triceps c) Biceps brachi 18. b
19. c
45. Which one of the following muscle is inserted on the medial aspect of the 20. b
scapular cartilage? 21. b
a) Trapezius b) Rhomboideus c) Brachiocephalicus 22. c
23. a
46. Upper boundry of jugular furrow is formed by 24. a
a) Brachiocephalicus b) Sternocephalicus c) Omotransversarius 25. a
26. b
27. a

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28. b 11. The internal thoracic artery terminates into musculophrenic and anterior
29. a
abdominal
30. b
31. c 12. External carotid artery divides into superficial temporal and internal maxillary
32. c
artery
33. c
34. c 13. The common trunk from the external iliac artery divides into prepubic and deep
35. a
femoral arteries.
36. c
37. b 14. The external jugular vein is formed by the union of superficial temporal and
38. a
internal maxillary veins.
39. c
40. c 15. The left ruminal artery supplies the anterior 2 / 3 of the left face of rumen.
41. c
16. Pericardiacophrenic ligament is seen in dog
42. b
43. a 17. Right AV orifice is guarded by Tricuspid valve.
44. c
18. Splenic artery arises along with right ruminal artery
45. b
46. a 19. Median artery divides into Radial and ulnar arteries.
47. b
20. Mandibulo alveolar artery is a branch of internal maxillary artery
48. c
49. c 21. Intra thoracic branches of the brachial artery are inferior cervical, internal
50. a
thoracic and a common trunk
22. The bicarotid trunk divides into two common carotid arteries.
ANGIOLOGY
23. Brachial artery emerges between dorsal and ventral divisions of scalenus muscle.
24. The opening of the great cardiac vein is coronary sinus
1. Mitral valve is situated on the left AV opening.
25. Ventricular walls of the heart bears muscular ridges trabeculae carnae except in
2. The anterior uterine artery arises from the uteroovarian artery while the middle
the conus arteriosus
uterine artery arises from the large common trunk of internal iliac artery
26. Pulmonary veins are 4 to 7 in number.
3. Subcutaneous abdominal vein in cow is otherwise called as Milk vein
27. Rete mirable cerebri is absent in horse and dog
4. The left brachial artery arises from the Brachiocephalic trunk
28. Protal vein is formed by the union of gastric and mesenteric trunks.
5. Blood supply to the larger Blood vessel is Vasa vasorum
29. The chief collecting trunk of lymphatic system is thoracic duct
6. Pulmonary veins open into the Left atrium
30. Ciliary artery is a branch of ophthalmic artery
7. Pulmonary artery arises from the Right ventricle
31. The beginning of aorta is called bulbus aorta
8. Aorta arises from the Left ventricle
32. Inferior cervical artery arises from brachial artery
9. Anterior and posterior vena cava opens into the Right atrium
33. Mammary gland is supplied by subcutaneous abdominal artery
10. Dorsal artery gives rise the first intercostal artery and Subcostal artery gives
34. The internal iliac artery terminates by dividing into posterior gluteal and internal
second to fifth intercostal artery.
pudic arteries.

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35. Bronchial artery supplies nutritional blood to lungs. 58. Coronary artery supplies blood to the heart.
36. Pulmonary artery supplies functional blood to lungs. 59. The four heads of quadriceps are supplied by anterior femoral artery
37. Impression of heart is seen in the liver of fowl (species). 60. Ramus collateralis is a branch of anterior mesenteric artery
38. The base of the heart lies opposite to second intercostal space to sixth rib. 61. Moderator band extends from the interventricular septum to the lateral wall of the
39. The gastro duodenal artery divides into pancreatico duodenal and right ventricle.
gastroepiploic arteries 62. Umbilical artery forms the round ligament of the bladder.
40. The left AV opening is guarded by bicuspid valve. 63. The common carotid artery terminates into occipital, external maxillary and
41. Reticular artery is a branch of left ruminal artery. external carotid arteries
42. The jugular vein drains into the anterior vena cava. 64. Inferior cervical artery arises from brachial aretery
43. Extensors of the forelimb are supplied by collateral radial artery 65. The hindlimb is supplied with blood by external iliac artery
44. Flexors of the forelimb are supplied by median artery except ulnaris lateralis 66. Largest venous trunk in the body is posterior venacava
which is supplied by collateral radial artery 67. Ductus arteriosus connects the aorta and pulmonary artery in foetal life and in
45. Supraspinatus muscle is supplied by suprascapular artery adult it is transformed into ligamentum arteriosum
46. Anterior gluteal artery supplies the gluteal muscle. 68. Structures in the carotid sheath on the right side are common carotid artery,
47. Posterior gluteal artery supplies the biceps femoris. vagosympathetic trunk, internal jugular vein and recurrent laryngeal nerve
48. Coeliac artery is a branch of abdominal aorta 69. Structures in the carotid sheath on the left side are common carotid artery,
49. Anterior tibial artery is the continuation of popliteal artery. vagosympathetic trunk and internal jugular vein
50. The three branches of the short common trunk of the internal iliac artery are sixth 70. The fibroserous sac encloses the heart is called pericardium
lumbar, lateral sacral and anterior gluteal 71. The two small bones found in the aortic ring of old animals are called os cardis
51. The ramus collateralis supplies the posterior one third of the small intestine 72. Median artery is the continuation of brachial artery below the elbow.
52. The prepubic artery terminates into internal pudic and posterior abdominal 73. The heart is situated in the middle mediastinal space of thorax.
arteries. 74. The internal spermatic artery in female is called as utero-ovarian artery.
53. External iliac vein drains the blood from hindlimb. 75. Superficial temporal artery supplies the horn core.
54. The saphenous artery arises from the femoral artery at the lower third of the 76. The thoracic duct is formed by the union of lumbar and gastrointestinal trunks.
femoral canal. 77. The terminal branches of internal maxillary artery are malar, infraorbital,
55. An unpaired vein attains the blood from left side of the body is venahemiazygos sphenopalatine and greater palatine
and a similar vein on the right side is called azygos vein 78. Deep brachial supplies all the heads of triceps.
56. The right brachial artery arises from brachiocephalic artery and the left brachial 79. Radio – ulnar groove lodges dorsal interosseous artery.
artery arise from common brachiocephalic trunk 80. Sterno pericardiac ligament attachés pericardium with the sternum.
57. The thoraco – dorsal artery is a branch of subscapular artery supplying the 81. The two layers of the pericardium are fibrous and serous layers.
latissimus dorsi

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82. Fluid in the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium is known as 104. Internal iliac artery is otherwise known as hypogastric artery.
liquor pericardi 105. A large common trunk of interior iliac artery in female is divided into umbilical
83. Coronary groove indicate the division between atria and ventricles. and vesical whereas in female umbilical and middle uterine artery
84. The lining membrane which lines the interior of the heart is endocardium 106. Middle uterine artery supplies the horn and body of uterus.
85. A crest situated between the openings of anterior and posterior vena cava is 107. The hindlimb is supplied with blood by external iliac artery
known as intervenous crest 108. Popliteal artery is the continuation of femoral artery
86. Musculi pectinate are the muscular ridges present in the atrium. 109. Popliteus is supplied by posterior tibial artery
87. Trabeculae carnae are the muscular ridges present in the ventricle. 110. Internal jugular vein is formed by the union of occipital, thyroid and laryngeal
88. Fibrous cords arising from the free ends of the valves are known as chorda branches.
tendinae 111. Cephalic vein is the continuation of medial metacarpal vein.
89. Pulmonary orifice is guarded by three semilunar valves. 112. Accessory cephalic vein is formed by dorsal metacarpal vein.
90. Crista supraventricularis separates the conus arteriosus frm the AV opening. 113. In horse, the spur vein is known as subcutaneous thoracic vein.
91. Conducting system of the heart include AV node, SA node, AV bundle and 114. Posterior vena cava is formed by union of two common iliac veins.
terminal sub endocardial network 115. Saphenous vein is the subcutaneous vein on the medial aspect of thigh and leg.
92. Two anterior vena cava and a single posterior vena cava is present in fowl 116. Recurrent tarsal vein of hindlimb is used for giving I / V injection.
93. Eustachian valve is present in the heart of fowl 117. Cephalic vein of forelimb is used for giving I / V injection.
94. Aorta is the main systemic arterial trunk. 118. External jugular vein is used for giving I / V injection in large animals.
95. Thoracic aorta enters into the abdomen through hiatus aorticus present in the 119. Internal jugular vein is absent in horse
diaphragm. 120. Two main lymphatic ducts in the body are thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
96. Common brachio cephalic trunk divides into brachiocephalic and left brachial 121. Thoracic duct arises from the cisterna chyli
arteries. 122. Cisterna chyli is a reservoir of lymph formed by the union of lumbar and
97. Brachio cephalic artery gives rise to right brachial artery at the level of first rib gastrointestinal trunk
and continues as bicarotid trunk NEUROLOGY
98. Bicarotid trunk divides into right and left common carotid arteies. 1. The cerebellum has three peduncles namely Brachium conjunctivum, brachium
99. Branches of subscapular artery are posterior circumflex of humerus, thoracodorsal pontis and restiform body.
and circumflex artery of scapula 2. Brachial plexus is formed by the fusion of Last three cervical, and first two
100. Rete mirable cerebri is an four sided arterial network enclosing the diaphragm – thoracic spinal nerves.
sellae. 3. Cornual nerve is a branch of Trigeminal nerve.
101. Rete mirable cerebri is formed by vertebral, condyloid and meningeal arteries. 4. The terminal part of the spinal cord is called conus medullaris
102. Circulus arteriosus is otherwise known as Circle of Willis 5. Brain and spinal cord is covered by a connective tissue membrane called
103. Emergent artery arises from the superior face of the rete. meninges

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6. Meninges consist of duramater, arachnoid and piamater from without inward. 30. The four nuclei in the basal ganglion (or) corpus striatum are caudate, lenticular,
7. The space between the arachnoid and piamater is called subarachnoid space. amygdaloid and claustrum
8. The space between the duramater and arachnoid is called subdural space. 31. The falx cerebri is situated in the great longitudinal fissure of the cerebrum and
9. Olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve. tentorium cerebelli is situated in the great transverse fissure of the cerebellum.
10. The lingual gyri consists of vision area. 32. The facial nerve arises from the lateral parts of the corpus trapezoideum
11. The inferior cervical ganglion unites with first thoracic ganglion to form the 33. The cranial nerve which is having two roots of origin is spinal accessory nerve
stellate ganglion. 34. The posterior haemorroidal nerve is derived from 3rd and 4th sacral spinal nerves
12. Jugular ganglion is seen in the vagus nerve. 35. Hind limb receives nerve supply form lumbo –sacral plexus.
13. Cauda equine is seen in the spinal cord 36. Fore limb receives nerve supply from brachial plexus.
14. The three branches of the Trigeminal nerve are ophthalmic, maxillary and 37. ----------- nerve is divide into dorsal and ventral buccal nerves.
mandibular nerve. 38. ----------- ganglion is found in the dorsal root of the spinal nerve.
15. Trigeminal nerve is the largest cranial nerve. 39. Thoraco dorsal nerve supplies latissmus dorsi.
16. The finest cranial nerve is Trochlear nerve 40. Obdurator nerve is derived from ----------- division of the lumbo sacral plex.
17. The widest distributed cranial nerve is vagus nerve 41. 10th cranial nerve is otherwise called -----------.
18. Two major divisions of the autonomic NS are sympathetic and parasympathetic 42. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve is present within the carotid sheath
19. The dorsal surface of the corpus callosum is covered by a gray matter called 43. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes under the Oesophagus.
indusium griseum 44. saphenous nerve passes through the femoral canal.
20. Nerve to diaphragm is phrenic nerve 45. Geniculate ganglion is present in facial nerves.
21. Lumbo sacral plexus is formed by the last three lumbar and first two sacral spinal 46. Semilunar ganglion is present in trigeminal nerve
nerves. 47. The subarachnoid cysterns are cisterna magna, cisterna pontis and cisterna fossa
22. Longest cranial nerve in the body is vagus lateralis
23. Sensory nerve to eye is optic nerve 48. The biggest subarachnoid cistern is cisterna magna
24. Motor nerves to eye are oculomotor, trochlear and abducent nerves 49. The horn core is innervated by cornual nerve.
25. The three nerves arising from the anterior division of the lumbo sacral plexus are 50. Recuurent laryngeal nerve is a branch of vagus nerve
iliopsoas, femoral and obturator nerve. 51. Trochlear nerve arises from the dorsal aspect of the brain.
26. The nerve supply to the extensors of the forelimb is by radial nerve and to the 52. Anterior gluteal, posterior gluteal and sciatic nerve are the major nerves arising
flexors of the forelimb is by median nerve. from the posterior division of the lumbo sacral plexus.
27. The arrangement of the cerebellum is called as arbor vitae 53. Sciatic nerve terminates by dividing into peroneal and tibial nerves.
28. The third and fourth ventricles communicate through aqueduct of sylvius 54. Gluteal muscle are innervated by anterior gluteal nerve.
29. The motor nerve to the muscle of the tongue is hypoglossal nerve. 55. Biceps femoris are innervated by posterior gluteal nerve.
56. Gastrocnemius are innervated by tibial nerve.

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57. Complex muscle are innervated by peroneal nerve. 80. Corpus trapezoidium is a transverse band lies behind the pons.
58. In brain the grey matter is inside and white matter is outside. 81. The fourth ventricle is otherwise known as rhomboid fossa
59. In spinal cord the white matter is inside and grey matter outside. 82. The fold of piamater which covers the conus medullaris is called filum terminale
60. Diaphragm sellae is a thick fold of duramater which surrounds the pituitary. 83. Total number of spinal nerves arising form the spinal cord is 37 pairs in ox 42
61. Subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid pairs in horse.
62. Along the dorsal border of the falx cerebri the arachnoid bears bulbous 84. Pneumo - gastric nerve is the other name for vagus nerve
excresences called arachnoid granulations 85. Pathetic nerve is the othername for trochlear nerve
63. Folds of piamater extend into the ventricle of the brain as telachoridea of the 86. Recurrent laryngeal nerves innervates the muscle of larynx except cricothyroid.
ventricle. 87. Two roots of the spinal accessory nerve (11th) are medullary and spinal roots.
64. Three parts of the brain stem are Medulla oblongata, pons and cerebral peduncles 88. Cochleovestibular nerve is the nerve of sense of hearing and equilibration.
65. Pituitary gland is otherwise known as hypophysis cerebri 89. Posterior hemorrhoidal nerve supplies the rectum.
66. Pineal gland is otherwise known as epiphysis cerebri 90. Radial nerve is the largest of all the nerves of the brachial plexus.
67. Pituitary is connected to the base of the brain through a hollow tube called 91. Sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body.
infundibulum 92. Sciatic nerve dips between the heads of the gastrocnemius and continues as tibial
68. A white body situated behind the pituitary is mamillary body / corpus albicans nerve.
69. A largest mass of commissural fibre which connects the cerebral hemispheres is 93. Extensors of the hind limb are innervated by peroneal nerve.
called corpus callosum 94. Flexors of the hind limb are innervated by tibial nerve.
70. An irregular cavity situated within each hemisphere is lateral ventricle 95. The efferent fibre of the ANS is characterized by the presence of ganglia
71. septum lucidum is the median partition between the two lateral ventricle. 96. The preganglionic fibres are non medullated
72. The anterior end of the corpus callosum is genu and posterior end is called 97. In parasympathetic system, the ganglia are located in the walls of the organs
splenium supplied.
73. Largest sensory nuclei in the brain is the optic thalamus 98. In sympathetic system, the ganglia are located close to the vertebral column.
74. An annular space around the thalamus is called third ventricle of the brain. 99. Sympathetic ganglia are otherwise known as vertebral ganglia.
75. Pineal gland is a gland situated between the thalamus and corpora quadrigemina. 100. More peripherally situated sympathetic ganglia are called as collateral ganglia.
76. Three recesses present in the cavity of the third ventricle are pincal recess, optic 101. Posterior mesenteric ganglion is an unpaired ganglion of sympathetic system.
recess and infundibular recess
77. substantia nigra red nucleus are structures placed between the corpora
quadrigemia and cerebral peduncles which forms part of the extrapyramidal
system.
78. Cerebellum is otherwise known as lesser brain
79. Cerebellum consists of a median vermis and two lateral hemispheres

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Splanchnology:
1. Study deals with the visceral organs of different systems in the body is 12. Cavum oris is triangular in shape in
a) Splanchnology b) Myology c) Embryology a) Fowl b) Pigs c) Rabbit d) Ox
2. Digestive system consists of
a) Alimentary canal b) Accesory organs 13. Identify the correct answer
c) Alimentary canal and accessory organs a) Vestibule is absent in fowl
3. Alimentary canal is a b) Canine teeth absent in dog
a) Membranous tube b) Muscular tube c) Musculomembranous tube c) Dental pad is absent in ruminants
d) Hollow tube d) Upper lip is not mobile in fowl.
4. Alimentary canal extends from 14. Upper lip is more mobile than the lower lip in
a) Oesophagus to stomach b) Lips to anus c) Mouth to anus a) Ox b) Horse c) Pig
d) Mouth to rectum 15. In Ox commissures are situated
5. Which one of the following is an accessory organ of digestive system? a) At the level of first cheek tooth
a) Stomach b) Mouth c) Liver d) Pharynx b) 5 cm behind the corner incisor
c) At the level of canine tooth
6. --------- is the first section of the alimentary canal d) At the level of 3rd or 4th cheek tooth
a) Cavum oris b) Rima oris c) Isthmus faucium d) Pharynx 16. Lips are not the organ of prehension in
a) Horse b) Sheep and Goat c) Ox d) Pig
7. The space between the root of the tongue, soft palate and epiglottis is 17. Philtrum is absent in
a) Hyo-epiglottic space b) Glosso-epiglotic space c) Vestibule a) Ox b) Dog c) Horse d) Rabbit
d) Cavum oris proprius 18. Muzzle is situated in the
a) Lower lip b) Upper lip c) Commissure
8. Anterior opening of the mouth is 19. Frenula labii extends from
a) Cavum oris b) Rima oris c) Isthmus faucium d) Vestibule a) Lips to gums b) Gums to tongue c) Tongue to floor of the mouth
d) Upper lip to lower lip
9. Portion of mouth cavity between the teeth and cheek is 20. Muzzle is absent in
a) Vestibule b) Cavum oris proprium c) Rima oris a) Ox b) Horse c) Rabbit d) Sheep
10. Cavum oris is longest in 21. Papilla salivalis shows the opening of
a) Dog b) Ox c) Horse d) Pig a) Parotid gland b) Mandibular gland c) Maxillary gland d) Zygomatic gland
11. Rima oris is most extensive in 22. Stenson‘s duct is the duct of
a) Ox b) Dog c) Sheep d) Fowl a) Mandibular gland b) Parotid gland c) Sublingual gland d) Buccal gland

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23. In Ox, Papilla salivalis is seen at the level of 36. A medial prolongation of the soft palate in Pig is termed
a) Upper 5th cheek tooth a) Uvula b) Anterior pillar c) Posterior pillar
b) Upper 3rd cheek tooth 37. Soft palate is absent in
c) Upper 4th cheek tooth a) Fowl b) Dog c) Rabbit d) Pig
d) Canine tooth 38. Palatine tonsil is well developed in
24. Papilla salivalis is at the level of upper 3rd cheek tooth in a) Ox b) Dog c) Horse
a) Horse and Dog b) Dog and Ox c) Horse and Ox d) Ox and Rabbit 39. Franum linguae is double in
25. Zygomtic glands are present in a) Pig b) Horse c) Fowl
a) Dog b) Ox c) Horse d) Sheep 40. Sublingual fold is present in
26. Mucous membrane lining the gum has a) Sheep b) Pig c) Horse
a) Serous glands b) Mucous glands c) No glands d) Mixed glands 41. Ductus incisivus is the duct of
27. Dental pad is the characteristic feature of a) Parotid b) Mandibular c) Nasopalatine
a) Ruminants b) Horse c) Dog d) Fowl 42. Fold of mucus membrane passing from Upper jaw to Lower jaw is called
28. Dental pad is associated with a) Plica Pterygomandibularis b) Franum linguae c) Franum labii
a) Maxilla b) Premaxilla c) Nasal bone d) Malar 43. Well marked Torus linguae is present in
29. Oral opening of the Nasopalatine duct is at the a) Horse b) Ox c) Dog
a) Papilla incisiva b) Ductus incisivus c) Barb d) Papilla of cheek 44. Identify the Gustatory papilla
30. In Horse, dental pad is replaced by a) Filliform b) Lenticular c) Vallate
a) 6 alveoli b) 4 alveoli c) 8 alveoli d) 2 alveoli 46. Fold of mucus membrane passing from root of the tongue to the base of Epiglottis is
31. In dog, Papilla incisiva is situated a) Hyo-epiglottic fold b) Glosso-epiglottic fold c) Plica pterygomandibularis
a) Between the ridges of hardpalate 47. Find out the correct answer: (Match the following :)
b) Between the dental pad and first pair of ridge i) Stenson‘s duct -A) Nasopalatine gland
c) Behind the 2nd pair of incisors ii) Ductus incisivus -B) Parotid salivary gland
32. Except during deglutition, the mouth is separated from the pharynx by iii) Sulcus linguae -C) Canine teeth
a) Soft palate b) Cheeks C) Hard palate d) Anterior pillars ` iv) Fangs -D) Dog
33. The space between the anterior and posterior pillars of the soft palate is called v) Barb -E) Maxillary gland
a) Tonsillar sinus b) Glosso-epiglottic space c) Vestibule d) Soft palate a) i-B, ii-A, iii-C, iv-D, v-E
34. Soft palate is long and closes the Isthmus faucium in b) i-A, ii-B, iii-D, iv-C, v-E
a) Horse b) Dog c) Ox d) Fowl c) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C, v-E
35. Oral breathing is not possible in 48. Lyssa is the characteristic feature in the tongue of
a) Equidae b) Suidae c) Ruminants d) Canines a) Ox b) Goat c) Dog

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50. Which one of the following is named as Wolf tooth? 64. Ventral diverticulum of Eustachian tube in equidae family
a) 1st Molar b) 1st Canine c) 1st Premolar a) Gutturhal pouch b) Pharyngeal diverticulum
51. Hardest tissue in the body is 65. At the level of 3rd thoracic vertebra the Oesophagus is situated on the -------------------
a) Enamel b) Bone c) Dentine -- face of trachea
52. Substances that form the tooth from within outward are a) Dorsal b) Lateral c) Ventral
a) Pulp, Dentine, Cement, Enamel 66. Atrium ventriculi is situated on the
b) Pulp, Enamel, Dentine, Cement a) Reticular wall b) Reticulo-omasal wall c) Rumino-reticular wall
c) Pulp, Enamel, Cement, Dentine 67. In the neck region Oesophagus is related dorsally to a straight muscle called
53. Identify the Isognathus animal a) Rectus capitis dorsalis b) Longus coli c) Intertransversales coli
a) Dog b) Pig c) Ox 68. Line of demarcation between thoracic and abdominal cavity is
54. Identify the Anisognathus animal a) Diaphragm b) Pelvic inlet c) Tuber sacrale
a) Ox b) Horse c) Dog 69. In adult, the abdominal cavity is pierced by----------------- openings
55. Infundibulum is filled up with a) 3 b) 5 c) 6
a) Enamel b) Cement c) Pulp 70. Diaphragm has --------------- number of openings
56. Largest salivary gland in Horse a) 2 b) 4 c) 3
a) Mandibular b) Maxillary c) Parotid 71. In male, Inguinal canal is for the passage of
57. Infraorbital salivary gland is present in a) Spermatic cord b) External pudic vessel c) Mammary artery and vein
a) Dog b) Sheep c) Rabbit 72. Serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is
58. Largest salivary gland of Ox is a) Pleura b) Parietal peritoneum c) Visceral peritoneum
a) Parotid b) Sublingual c) Submaxillary 73. Double fold of peritoneum extends from stomach to other viscera is
59. Musculo-membranous passage common to both digestive and respiratory systems a) Omentum b) Mesentery c) Ligament
a) Mouth b) Pharynx c) Larynx 74. Double fold of peritoneum attaches intestine to the dorsal body wall is
60. Cavity of pharynx has --------- number of openings a) Ligament b) Mesentery c) Omentum
A) 7 B) 8 c) 4 75. Double fold of peritoneum attaches viscera other than parts of the digestive tube to
61. --------openings are situated on the dorso anterior part of the pharynx the abdominal wall is
a) Eustachian tube b) Posterior nares c) Auditus laryngis a) Ligament b) Omentum c) Mesentery
62. Pharynx communicates with the tympanic cavity through 76 Which one of the following does not transmit blood vessels and nerves?
a) Ductus incisivus b) Eustachian tube c) Wharton‘s duct a) Omentum b) Mesentery c) Ligament
63. Pharyngeal diverticulum is present in 77. Largest of the three body cavities
a) Horse b) Pig c) Sheep a) Thoracic b) Abdominal c) Pelvic

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78. Smallest of the three body cavities is 92. Identify the correct answer
a) Thoracic b) Pelvic c) Abdominal a) Rumen and Reticulum are on the left side
80. Abdominal cavity is separated from the thoracic cavity by b) Rumen and Omasum are on the right side
a) Diaphragm b) Pelvic inlet c) Ribs and intercostals muscles c) Rumen and Abomasum are on the left side
81. Identify the correct answer: 93. Identify the correct statement:
a) Pelvic cavity is devoid of peritoneal lining a) Pelvic outlet is smaller than inlet
b) Anterior part of the pelvic cavity is retroperitoneal b) Pelvic inlet is smaller than outlet
c) Posterior part of the pelvic cavity is retroperitoneal c) Pelvic outlet is equal to inlet
82. Greater and lesser peritoneal sac communicates with each other through 94. The position of Rumen in Ox is from the
a) Foramen of winslow b) Foramen cecum c) Foramen dextrum a) Lower part of 7th / 8th intercostal space to Pelvic inlet
83. Double fold of peritoneum extending from the visceral face of liver to the stomach is b) Lower part of 4th / 5th intercostal space to Pelvic inlet
called c) Lower part of 7th / 8th intercostal space to Pelvic outlet
a) Superficial omentum b) Lesser omentum c) Greater omentum 95. Ruminant stomach is divided into compartments exteriorly by
84. In male, genital fold contains a) Pillars b) Grooves c) Muscular ridges
a) Urinary bladder b) Epididymis and Vasdeferens 96. The extremity of Rumen is divided into dorsal and ventral by means of
c) Vasdeferens and Seminal vesicles a) Right longitudinal groove b) Left longitudinal groove c) Coronary groove
85. The Falciform ligament of liver contains in its free edge 97. The most anterior compartment of the ruminant stomach is
a) Umbilical artery b) Umbilical vein c) Hepatic vein a) Rumen b) Omasum c) Reticulum
86. Largest compartment of the Ruminant stomach is 98. Reticulum is situated on the left side which extends from
a) Omasum b) Rumen c) Abomasum a) 8-10thrib b) 6-8th rib c) 7-9th rib
87. Smallest compartment of the Ruminant stomach is 100. Omasum is situated on the right side which extends form
a) Reticulum b) Omasum c) Abomasum a) 8-10thrib b) 6-8th rib c) 7-11th rib
91. Match the following: 101. Fundus reticuli lies opposite to the
i) Rumen -a) Honey comb appearance a) 6th rib b) 6th intercostal spacec) 8th intercostal space
ii) Omasum -b) True stomach 102. Anterior extremity of the abomasums is at the level of
iii) Reticulum -c) Paunch a) 8th rib b) 6th rib c) Xiphoid cartilage
iv) Abomasum -d) Many plie 103. Pyloric part of the abomasums is at the level of ventral part of
Identify the correct answer a) 9th rib b) 11th rib c) 10th rib
a) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b 104. Interiorly rumen is divided into compartments by
b) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b a) Pillars b) Ridges c) Grooves
c) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

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105. In Ox, Cardia is at the level of 117. In Ox, pylorus is at the ventral end of the
a) 11th rib b) 13th rib c) 8 or 9th rib a) 10th rib b) 12th rib c) 13th rib
106. Oesophageal groove extends from the 118. In Rabbit, the terminal part of the Iileum shows a dilatation called
a) Cardia to Rumino-reticular opening a) Saccus caecus b) Sacullus rotundus c) Torus pyloricus
b) Cardia to Reticulo-omasal opening 119. Bile duct and Pancreatic ducts are double in
c) Cardia to Omaso-abomasal opening a) Ox b) Dog c) Fowl
107. Sulcus omasi extends from the 120. In Ox, which part of the large intestine is in the form of a cul-de-sac?
a) Reticulo-omasal opening to the Omaso-abomasal opening a) Caecum b) Colon c) Rectum
b) Rumino-reticular opening to the Omaso-abomasal opening 121. Straight portion of the Large intestine within in the Pelvic cavity is
c) Rumino-reticular opening to the Omaso-abomasal opening a) Caecum b) Colon c) Rectum
108. Mucous membrane of the abomasum shows folds in the 122. In Cow immediately ventral to rectum it is related to
a) Glandular part only b) Non-glandular part only a) Urinary bladder b) Seminal vesicle c) Uterus
c) Throughout the abomasums 123. Terminal point of the alimentary canal is
109. Rounded cut-de-sac at the left dorsal extremity of the horse stomach is a) Rectum b) Anus c) Colon
a) Saccus caecus b) Fundus c) Diverticulum ventriculi 124. Peyer‘s patches are present in the mucous membrane of
110. Glandular and non-glandular parts of the Horse stomach is separated by a) Caecum b) Duodenum c) Ileum
a) Margoplicatus b) Terminal line c) Oesophageal groove 125. Muscle which controls the prolapse of the anus during defecation
111. Which one of the following is not a simple stomach animal? a) Sphincter ani b) Suspensory ligament of anus c) Retractor ani
a) Horse b) Pig c) Goat 127. Which one of the following species has a functional Caecum?
112. A conical blind pouch in the left extremity of Pig stomach is a) Rabbit and Horse b) Dog and Cat c) Cattle and Sheep
a) Saccus caecus b) Diverticulum ventriculi c) Insula ruminis 128. Identify the foregut digester
113. Torus pyloricus is present in the stomach of a) Ox b) Horse c) Rabbit
a) Horse b) Dog c) Pig 129. Identify the hind gut digestor
114. Identify the correct statement of the two compartments of the Fowl stomach a) Horse b) Cattle c) Goat
a) Proventriculus is glandular and Gizzard is non- glandular 130. In Horse caecum is situated on the
b) Proventriculus is non-glandular a) Left side b) Right side c) Median
c) Gizzard is glandular 131. Which one of the following is the first part of colon in Horse?
115. Fixed part of the small intestine is a) Right ventral b) Right dorsal c) Left ventral
a) Jejunum b) Ileum c) Duodenum 132. Which part of the intestine is arranged in centripetal and centrifugal coils?
116. Mesenteric part of the small intestine includes a) Jejunum b) Ileum c) Colon
a) Duodenum and Jejunum b) Jejunum and Ileum c) Ileum and Duodenum

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133. Identify the correct order of flextures formed by the greater colon form before a) Anus b) Vent c) Cloaca
backward 147. Which one of the following animal has vermiform appendix?
a) Sternal flexure, Pelvic flexure, Diaphragmatic flexure a) Ox b) Horse c) Rabbit
b) Diaphragmatic flexure, Pelvic flexure, Sternal flexure 148. Largest gland in the body of mammals
c) Pelvic flexure, Diaphragmatic flexure, Sternal flexure a) Mammary gland b) Liver c) Kidney
134. Taenia caeci and Taenia colii are present in 149. Position of liver in Ox
a) Ox and Horse b) Horse and Dog c) Horse and pig a) From lumbo-costal angle to the 8th rib on right side
135. Number of Taeniae present on the ventral part of the greater colon is b) From lumbo-costal angle to the 8th rib on left side
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 c) From lumbo-costal angle to the 6th rib on left side
136. Number of Taeniae present on the small colon is 150. In Horse liver is situated on the
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 a) Right side b) Left side c) From right to left
137. Haustra are present in the -----------------part of intestine 151. Right kidney is attached to the liver on its
a) Colon b) Duodenum c) Caecum a) Anterior border b) Dorsal border c) Medial border
138. In horse, on rectal palpation which one can be palpated? 152. Right kidney is attached to the caudate lobe of the liver by
a) Sternal flexure b) Pelvic flexure c) Diaphragmatic flexure a) Right lateral ligament b) Caudate ligament c) Falciform ligament
139. Which one of the following has the smallest diameter? 153. Falciform ligament extends from the
a) Diaphragmatic flexure b) Sternal flexure c) Pelvic flexure a) Right border to left border
140. Area of right ruminal wall between the dorsal and ventral branches of right b) Umbilical fissure to Oesophageal notch
longitudinal pillar is called c) Right border to Oesophageal notch
a) Recess of rumen b) Saccus calcus c) Insula ruminis 154. Which one of the following is embedded with in the liver?
141. Franulum ilei is present in a) Anterior vena cava b) Celiac vein c) Posterior vena cava
a) Horse b) Fog c) Pig 155. In Ox, gall bladder is in contact with the abdominal wall at the level of
142. Sacculations present in the colon of horse and pig are called a) 10th / 11th intercostal space b) 13th rib c) 7th / 8th intercostal space
a) Haustra b) Talnia c) Muscular bands 156. Ductus choledocus is formed by the union of
143. Caeca is double in a) Cystic and Hepatic ducts
a) Horse b) Pig c) Fowl b) Hepatic and Pancreatic ducts
144. The most caudal segment of the Cloaca is c) Cystic and Pancreatic ducts
a) Urodeum b) Proctodeum c) Coprodeum 157. Number of lobes present in the liver of Horse is
145. Cloacal bursa is situated on the dorsal wall of the a) 2 b) 3 c) 5
a) Proctodeum b) Coprodeum c) Urodeum 158. In Ox, the free border of the Falciform ligament carries the
146. Horizontal slit like opening of the proctodeum a) Round ligament b) Caudate ligament c) Right lateral ligament

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159. Gall bladder is absent in 1. Nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by means of
a) Ox b) Pig c) Horse a) Hard palate b) Soft palate c) Nasal septum
160. In Pig, the bile duct opens at the 6. Match the following:
a) Diverticulum duodeni b) Papilla duodeni c) Torus pyloricus A B
161. The order of lobes of liver in dog from right to left are i) Posterior nares -a) Organ of Jacobson
a) Right lateral, Right central, Caudate, Left central and Left lateral ii) Vomero-nasal organ -b) Snout-pig
b) Right lateral, Caudate, Right central, Left central and Left lateral iii) Ductus incisivus -c) Choanae
c) Right lateral, Right central, Left central, Caudate and Left lateral iv) Pseudonostril -d) Nasopalatine duct
162. Largest lobe of the dog liver is v) Osrostri -e) Horse
a) Right lateral b) Left lateral c) Caudate Identify the correct answer
163. In dog liver, gall bladder is lodged in the a) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
a) Right lateral b) Right central c) Caudate b) i-a , ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
164. Number of lobes in the rabbit liver are c) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
a) 6 b) 4 c) 5
165. Which one of the following is otherwise known as abdominal salivary gland? 7. Comma shaped nostrils are present in
a) Liver b) Spleen c) Pancreas a) Ox b) Horse c) Dog
166. Largest lymphoid organ in the body 8. In Pig, burrowing (or) rooting habit is facilitated by
a) Liver b) Adrenal c) Spleen a) Dental pad b) Rostrum c) Tusk
167. Match the following: 9. Horny skin covering the dorsal border of the nostrils in Fowl is called as
A B a) Wattle b) Operculum c) Syrinx
i) Spleen-Ox -a) Falciform/Human foot print 10. Valvular apparatus of the respiratory system is
ii) Spleen –Horse -b) Elliptical a) Nose b) Pharynx c) Larynx
iii) Spleen-Sheep -c) Spatula shaped 11. Which one of the Laryngeal cartilage is paired?
iv) Spleen-Rabbit -d) Scythe shaped a) Cricoid b) Arytenoid c) Thyroid
v) Spleen-Dog -e) Oyster-shell shaped 13. Laryngeal prominence is present on the ventral aspect of
Identify the correct answer a) Cricoid b) Arytenoid c) Thyroid cartilage
a) i-e, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c, v-a 15. Joints formed by the cartilages of the larynx in Ox are
b) i-b, ii-d, iii-e, iv-c, v-a a) Syndesmoses b) Diarthrodial c) Amphiarthrodial
c) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-d, v-s 16. Portion of larynx between the vocal folds is named as
a) Rimaglottidis b) Vestibule c) Laryngeal saccule

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17. Joints formed by the cartilages of the larynx in Horse are 33. Proportion of lung lobes in right to left lung is
a) Syndesmoses b) Amphiarthrodial c) Diarthrodial a) 3:3 b) 3:4 c) 4:3
18. Thyroid cartilage of larynx is incomplete ventrally in 34. Accessory lobe is present in
a) Ox b) Dog c) Horse a) Right lung only b) Left lung only c) Both right and left lungs
19. False vocal cords are absent in 35. Largest lobe of the Ox lung is
a) Ox b) Dog c) Pig a) Apical b) Cardiac c) Diaphragmatic
20. Organ of voice in Fowl is 36. Lobation is absent in the lungs of
a) Larynx b) Syrinx c) Carina a) Horse and dog b) Ox and Horse c) Sheep and Pig
21. In birds, homologous part of the vocal folds are 37. Diaphragm is absent in
a) Carina b) Tympaniform membrane c) Cricoid a) Dog b) Sheep c) Birds
22. Organ of voice in elephant is 38. Air sacs are the unique feature in the respiratory system of
a) Larynx b) Trunk c) Syrinx a) Dog b) Sheep c) Birds
23. In the cervical region trachea is dorsally related to 39. Number of air sacs in the respiratory system of Fowl are
a) Oesophagus b) Carotid artery c) Vagosympathetic nerve a) 13 pairs b) 10 pairs c) 11 pairs
24. Tracheal bifurcation takes place at the level of 40. Which one of the following air sac is not paired?
th rd th
a) 5 rib b) 3 rib c) 6 rib a) Cervical b) Axillary c) Clavicular
25. Apical bronchus arises at the level of 41. In Dog Thyroid gland extends from
a) 3rd rib b) 5th rib c) 6th rib a) Larynx to 7th tracheal ring
27. Bronchus is related to the b) Larynx to 5th tracheal ring
a) Bronchial artery above and Pulmonary artery below c) Larynx to 2nd tracheal ring
b) Pulmonary artery above and Bronchial artery below 42. In sheep and Goat thyroid gland extends upto the lateral sides of
c) Bronchial and Pulmonary artery above a) 2nd tracheal ring b) 7th tracheal ring c) 5th tracheal ring
28. In which one of the following Apical bronchus is absent? 43. Number of Parathyroid glands in Ox is
a) Dog b) Ox c) Horse a) 2 pairs b) 2 pairs c) 3 pairs
29. Posterior wall of the thoracic cavity is formed by 1. Surface of the Kidney is lobulated in
a) Sternum b) Diaphragm c) Intercostal muscles a) Horse b) Ox c) Dog
30. Pleura covering the lung is named as 2. In which of the following organ right kidney is attached
a) Costal pleura b) Diaphragmatic pleura c) Pulmonary pleura a) Liver b) Spleen c) Stomach
31. Plica vena cava encloses 3. Apex of the Renal pyramid is known as
a) Posterior venacava b) Anterior venacava c) Left phrenic nerve a) Area cribrosa b) Renal papilla c) Calyx major

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4. Match the following: 3. In Stallion, rudimentary teats are situated
A B a) Behind the scrotum b) Infront of the scrotum c) At the preputial orifice
i) Renal crest -a) Right kidney of horse 4. Testicles are intraabdominal in position in
ii) Heart of playing card -b) Left kidney of Ox a) Ox and Elephant b) Stallion and Donkey c) Fowl and Elephant
iii) Ruminal surface -c) Vestige of Urachus 5. In Bull, relationship between the long axis of the testis and the long axis of the body is
iv) Cicatrix -d) Kidney – Horse a) Horizontal b) Vertical c) Parallel
Identify the correct answer 6. Position of epididymal border in Bull is
a) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Dorsal
b) i-d ii-a iii-b iv-c 8. Which one of the following is not included in the Spermatic cord?
c) i-c ii-a iii-b iv-d a) Spermatic artery b) Vas deferens c) Epididymis
5. Trigonum vesicae shows the openings of 9. Testicles are globular in shape in
a) 2 Ureteral openings anteriorly and internal urethral orifice posteriorly a) Bull b) Pig c) Stallion
b) 2 Ureteral openings posteriorly and internal urethral orifice anteriorly 10. In Stallion, relationship between the long axis of the testes and the long axis of the
c) 2 Ureteral openings alone body is nearly
6. After birth, Umbilical artery is transformed into a) Vertical b) Parallel c) Horizontal
a) Lateral ligament of bladder b) Broad ligament c) Round ligament of bladder 11. In the testis of Dog, epididymis is attached on its
1. In Bull, scrotum is situated a) Anterior border b) Ventral border c) Dorsal border
a) Infront of the inguinal region 12. In Pig, tail of the epididymis is attached to the testis on its
b) In the inguinal region a) Anterior end b) Posterior end c) Dorsal
c) Subanal in position 13. Pampiniform plexus is made up of
2. Match the following: a) Internal spermatic artery b) Internal spermatic nerve
A B c) Internal spermatic vein
i) Intercolumnar fascia -a) Internal oblique muscle 14. During foetal life, testes are attached to the sublumbar region by
ii) Cremasteric fascia -b) Parietal peritoneum a) Mesorchium b) Mesentery c) Peritoneum
iii) Infundibuliform fascia -c) External oblique muscle 15. During testicular descent, the testes are guided by
iv) Tunica vaginalis -d) Transverse abdominis a) Ligamentum epididymis b) Gubernaculum testis
Identify the correct answer: c) Scrotal ligament
a) i-c ii-a iii-d iv-b 16. After birth, Gubernaculum testis is transformed into
b) i-c ii-a iii-d iv-b a) Dartos b) Tunica vaginalis c) Tunica albuginea
c) i-b ii-a iii-d iv-c 17. In Pig, descent of testis is complete
a) 3 months after birth b) At the time of birth c) Shortly before birth

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18. In which one of the following species, vas deferens is non-tortuous? 35. In Stallion, smegma is accumulated in
a) Rabbit b) Dog c) Horse a) Fossa glandis b) Corona glandis c) Urethral sinus
20. Uterus masculinus is an fetal remnant of 36. Sigmoid flexure is formed in the
a) Wolfian duct b) Multerian duct c) Paramcsonephric tubules a) Body of penis b) Root of penis c) Glans penis
21. Utriculus prostaticus in male is the homologus part of 37. Sigmoid flexure is the characteristic feature in the penis of
a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Uterus and vagina a) Dog and Cat b) Cattle and Horse c) Cattle and Pig
22. Which one of the following is not an accessory sex gland? 38. Match the following:
a) Seminal vesicle b) Cowpers gland c) Palatine gland A B
23. The only accessory sex gland in Dog is i) Pars libera -a) Bull
a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate c) Cowpers gland ii) Preputial diverticulum -b) Pig
24. Accessory sex gland lies on the neck of the urinary bladder iii) Pre scrotal sigmoid flexure -c) Stallion
a) Cowpers gland b) Prostate c) Seminal vesicle iv) Post scrotal sigmoid flexure -d) Rabbit
25. Sex gland situated at the Ischial arch is Identify the correct answer:
a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate c) Bulbo-urethral gland a) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a
26. In Bull, cowpers gland is surrounded by b) i-d ii-b iii-c iv-a
a) Bulbocavernosus muscle b) Urethralis muscle c) Bulbo spongiosus muscle c) i-d ii-c iii-a iv-b
27. Rounded prominence situated on the dorsal wall of the urethra is 39. Position of the ovaries in domestic animals
a) Processus urethral b) Colliculus seminalis c) Urethral crest a) Inside the pelvic cavity b) Intra abdominal c) Brim of the pelvic cavity
29. In which of the following species the terminal part of urethra extends beyond the 40. Ovulatory fossa is present on the surface of the ovary of
glans penis as processus urethrae? a) Cow b) Mare c) Sow
a) Bull b) Stallion c) Sheep 41. Ovarian bursa is present in the ovary of
30. Fibrous type of penis is present in a) Bitch b) Rabbit c) Sow
a) Bull b) Stallion c) Donkey 42. Opening of the infundibulum is covered by numerous
31. In boar the volume of semen is mainly contributed by the secretion of a) Cilia b) Fimbriae c) Muscular folds
a) Seminal vesicle b) Prostate c) Cowpers 43. Identify the order of sequence of different segments of the birds oviduct
32. Largest accessory sex gland in Dog a) Infundibulum, Magnum, Isthmus, Uterus and Vagina
a) Prostate b) Seminal vesicle c) Cowpers b) Infundibulum, Isthmus, Magnum, Uterus and Vagina
33. Penis of stallion is of-----------type c) Infundibulum, Uterus, Isthmus, Magnum and Vagina
a) Fibrous b) Cavernous c) Intermediate 44. Longest segment in the oviduct of Hen
34. Free margin of the glans penis in Stallion is named as a) Uterus b) Magnum c) Isthmus
a) Fossa glandis b) Collum glandis c) Corona glandis

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45. Shell of an egg is secreted in which part of the oviduct in Fowl a) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b v-e
a) Magnum b) Infundibulum c) Uterus b) i-c ii-a iii-b iv-e iv-d
46. Oviposition takes place in----------part of the oviduct of Hen c) i-e ii-a iii-d iv-c iv-b
a) Uterus b) Magnum c) Vagina 59. Uterus bicornis is present in
47. Sperm host glands are present at the junction of a) Rabbit b) Marsupials c) Domestic animals
a) Uterus and Vagina b) Uterus and Magnum c) Magnum and Isthmus 60. Pelvic outlet is larger than the Pelvic inlet in
48. Uterus is attached to the lateral body wall by a) Cow b) Mare c) Bitch
a) Sacrosciatic ligament b) Broad ligament c) Sacroiliac ligament 61. Serous membrane covering the uterus is
50. Fallopian tube opens into the horn of the uterus through a) Perimetrium b) Endometrium c) Myometrium
a) Ostium uterinum tubae b) External os c) Internal os 62. Cryptorchidism is more common in
51. Oval prominences of the mucous membrane lining the uterus are called a) Pigs b) Sheep b) Cattle
a) Caruncles b) Cotyledons c) Placentomes 63. Uterus masculinus is an embryological remnant of
52. Identify the correct statement a) Mesonephric ducts b) Wolffianduct c) Paramesonephric ducts
a) Mucous membrane of the cervix has Serous glands 66. Part of ruminant stomach involved in Traumatic gastritis is
b) Mucous membrane of the cervix has Mucous glands a) Rumen b) Reticulum c) Omasum
c) Mucous membrane of the cervix has no glands
53. Cotyledons are absent in the Mucous membrane of the uterus of
a) Cow b) Sheep c) Mare
55. Glans clitoridis is more prominent in
a) Mare b) Cow c) Sheep
56. Base of the mammary gland is attached to the abdominal wall by means of
a) Stay apparatus b) Suspensory apparatus c) Prepubic tendon
57. Which one of the following is a paired muscle?
a) Urethralis b) Bulbospongiosus c) Ischiocavernosus
58. Match the following:
i) Helicine arteries -a) Penis-Dog
ii) Ospenis -b) Horse
iii) Musculocavernous penis -c) Erection
iv) Vagina simplex and Uterus duplex -d) Marsupials
v) Vagina and Uterus duplex -e) Rabbit
Identify the correct answer

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VETERINARY BIOCHEMISTRY 14. One I.U equals to

a) 16.67 nmoles b) 16.67 nkatal c) 1.667 nmoles d) 1.667 nkatal
1. The end product of purine metabolism in cattle is
15. Xanthine oxidase requires __________as co-factor
a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Allantoin d) Ammonia
a) Mo 2+ b) Mg2+ c) Zn 2+ d) Ca 2+
2. Which one of the following is a purely Ketogenic amino acid?
16. The optimum pH for pepsin is
a) Leucine b) Glycine c) Valine d) Glutamic acid
a) 1.5 b) 6.0 c) 7 .4 d) 8.4
3. Guanase enzyme activity is deficient in the liver of
17. The optimum temperature for most of the mammalian enzymes is
a) Pigs b) Dogs c) Cats d) Cattle
a) 60°c b) 42°c c) 37°c d) 25 °c
4. The source of N1 of pyrimdine ring is
18. Attachment of a purine base to ribose sugar occurs via ____ atom.
a) Glycine b) Glutamine c) Aspartate d) N10 methylene
a) N-1 b) C- 3 c) N- 9 d) C- 9
TH4
19. Absorbance maxima of Nucleic acids is mainly contributed by -
5. Liver cannot utilize ketone bodies because it lacks the enzyme
a) Sugar b) Phosphates c) Bases d) Hydroxyl
a) Thiokinase b) β- keto thiolase c) Thiophorase d) Thioesterase
groups
6. Which one of the following amino acid does not undergo transamination reaction?
20. The Number of base pairs per turn of helix in ‗A‘form of DNA is –
a) Glycine b) Lysine c) Alanine d) Aspartate
a) 10 b) 10.5 c) 11 d) 12
7. HbA1C measurements indicate average B. glucose levels over the preceding 21. Which of the following RNA has a relatively short half life?
a) 2 days b) 2 weeks c) 2 months d) 2 years a) r- RNA b) m-RNA c) t-RNA d) Micro RNAs
22. The concept that ―DNA carries the genetic information‖ was given by
8.Which among the following is a hypoglycemic hormone?
a) Glucagon b) Cortisol c) Nor Adrenaline d) Insulin a) Singer & Nicolson b) Watson & Crick
9. Hypercholesterolemia is a common feature in c) Avery, Macleod & McCarty d) Franklin & Wilkins
a) Hyperthyroidismb) Hypothyroidism c) Hyperinsulinism d) Gout
23. The chemical agent used in Fischer-Kiliani synthesis is
10. Hypogammaglobulinemia in calves is detected by __________test. a) HCl b) HCN c) H2O2 d) Hydroxyl amine
a ) GTT b) BCG method c) Rothera‘s d) Glutaraldehyde coagulation
24. Which of the following is a Deoxy sugar
11. The enzyme involved in m-RNA synthesis in Eukaryotes is
a) Ribose b) Fucose c) Lactose d) Mannose
a) RNA pol I b) RNA pol II c) RNA pol III d) DNA pol III
12. Glucuronic acid conjugation is limited in _______. 25. An example for a Non- reducing disaccharide is
a) Cats b) Dogs c) Pigs d) Horses a) Lactose b) Trehalose c) Maltose d) Cellobiose

13. Induced fit model was given by 26. Bacterial cell wall polysaccharide has the following sugar component
a) Michaelis-Menten b) Sutherland c) D. Koshland d) Fischer a) NANA b) NAMA c) Chitin d) Dextran

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
27. Lactose produces characteristic ______________shaped Osazone crystals 42. Respiratory distress syndrome is due to the deficiency of -
a) Hedge hog b) Sunflower petals c) Rhombic rods d) Badminton ball a) Dipalmitoyl Lecithin b) Cholesterol c) Dipalmitoyl Cephalin d)
Lysolecithin
28. Enzyme –Substrate(ES) complex model was given by
a) Michaelis-Menten b) Sutherland c) D. Koshland d) J.Sumner 43. Gangliosides are the Glycolipids present in -
a) Liver b) Brain c) Kidney d) Muscle
29. The ratio of salt to acid in phosphate buffer system is
44. The ‗Bad Cholesterol‘ is -
a) 1:20 b) 1:4 c) 20:1 d) 4:1
a) VLDL b) LDL c) HDL d) Chylomicrons
30. The physiological pH of human plasma is 45. Thromboxanes promote -
a) 5.4 b) 6.4 c) 7 .4 d) 8.4
a) Blood Clotting b) Vasodilation c) Uterine Contraction d) Bleeding

31. The number of possible stereoisomers for Glucose (C 6) is 46. Pick the odd one out -
a) 6 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32 a) Glycine b) Methionine c) Cysteine d) Cystine

32. Identify the Non-diffusible ion - 47. The non- protein part of a conjugated protein is called
a) Na+ b) K+ c) Cl- d) Protein- a) Prosthetic group b) Amino group c) Anomeric group d) Oligomeric group.
33. The ratio of salt to acid in bicarbonate buffer - 48. The aromatic amino acids absorb maximum amount of light at -
a) 20:1 b) 4:1 c) 6:1 d) 3:1 a) 260 nm b) 280 nm c) 450 nm d) 600 nm
34. By Kiliani – Fischer synthesis, D-Glucose can be synthesized from – 49. The 3-D structure of Hemoglobin was discovered by -
a) D-Ribulose b) D- Xylulose c) D- Arabinose d) D-Ribose
a) Watson & Crick b) Max F Perutz c) John C Kendrew d) GN
35. Which of the following contains β-glycosidic linkage?
a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Heparin d) Starch Ramachandran
36. The structure of the cell membrane is described as - 50. The stable α-helix formed by a polypeptide, made up of only D-amino acids will
a) Bilipid layer b) Biprotein layer c) Bicarbohydrate layer d) Glycoprotein
be -
layer
37. Which of the following does not have any optical stereoisomer? a) Left-handed b) Right- handed c) Both d) None of the above
a) Fructose b) Xylulose c) Dihyrodxyacetone d) Erythrulose 51. Left handed helical DNA is
38. Identify the ―GAG‖ that acts as lubricant in joints -
a) B – DNA b) A- DNA c) Z- DNA d) mt- DNA
a) Heparin b) Hyaluronic acid c) Chondroitin -4 SO4 d) Glycogen 52. The number of base pairs in ‗Z‘ form of DNA is –
39. The breakdown product of starch is – a) 10 b) 10.5 c) 11 d) 12
a) Dextrins b) Dextran c) Dextrose d) Dextra- 53. Attachment of pyrimidine base to ribose sugar occurs through ________ atom
amine a) N-1 b) C-3 c) N-9 d) C-1
40. Invert Sugar is – 54. The energy currency of the cell –
a) Lactose b) Maltose c) Sucrose D) Glucose a) ATP b) Glucose c) Glycogen d) Fat
41. In sphingomyelins the alcohol is - 55. Protein synthesis occurs in –
a) Glycerol b) Cetyl alcohol c) Glycol d) Sphingosine a) Lysosomes b) Golgi apparatus c) Ribosomes d) Nucleus
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56. Glucose upon oxidation with concentrated HNO3 will give 69. The first protein for which the primary structure was discovered is
a) Gluconic acid b) Glucuronic acid c) Glucosaccharic acid d) None of the a) Insulin b) Myoglobin c) Hemoglobin d) Silk fibroin
above
70. The ‗suicidal bags‘ of the cell is
57. Iodine test gives pink color with
a) Mitochondria b) Lysosomes c) Ribosomes d) Peroxisomes
a) Glycogen b) Starch c) Dextrin d) Cellulose
71. Iodine test gives violet color with
58. Which among the following is a basic amino acid?
a) Starch b) Glycogen c) Dextrin d) Cellulose
a) Aspartic acid b) Asparagine c)Leucine d) Lysine
72. The odd chain fatty acid among the following is
59. The first protein for which the tertiary structure was discovered is
a) Propionic acid b) Acetic acid c) Butyric acid d) Stearic acid
a) Insulin b) Myoglobin c) Hemoglobin d) Silk fibroin
73. Which among the following is a C16 monounsaturated fatty acid?
60. The DNA having 10.5 base-pairs per helix is a) Oleic acid b) Linoleic acid c) Linolenic acid d) Palmitoleic acid
a) B – DNA b) A- DNA c) Z- DN d) mt- DNA 74. Sulfur containing amino acid among the following is
a) Arginine b) Asparagine c) Cysteine d) Lysine
61. Which among the following is a Purine base?
75. Identify the nonstandard amino acid
a) Thymine b) Thiamine c) Guanine d) Cytosine
a) Alanine b) Ornithine c) Proline d) Histidine
62. Identify the nucleotide -
76. Which of the following DNA is a left handed helix?
a) Adenosine b) Guanine c) ATP d) Cytosine
a) B –DNA b) A- DNA c) Z- DNA d) mt- DNA
63. The typical structure of t-RNA is described as –
77. Nucleic acids have an absorption maxima (λmax) at
a) Double helix b) Clover-leaf c) Triple helix d) β-sheets a) 260 nm b) 280 nm c) 360 nm d) 380 nm

64. Which among the following acts as a surfactant in Lung? 78. 5-methyl Uracil is otherwise known as
a) Lecithin b) Cardiolipin c) Cephalins d) Triacylglycerol a) Adenine b) Guanine c) Thymine d) Cytosine

65. The parent compound for bile acids is

79. Carbonic anhydrase requires __________as a co-factor
a) Arachidonic acid b) Stearic acid c) Cholesterol d) Acetic acid a) Mo 2+ b) Mg2+ c) Zn 2+ d) Ca 2+
66. The ‗Good Cholesterol‘ is
80. Chemi-osmotic hypothesis was given by
a) VLDL b) LDL c) HDL a) Peter Mitchell b) F.Knoop c) Hans Kreb d) Paul Boyer
d) Chylomicrons
81. Which among the following is a Physiological uncoupler?

67. Which among the following is a glycolipid? a)DNP b) Cyanide c) Thermogenin d) BAL

a) Keratin b) Cephalin c) Cerebroside d) Cholesterol 82. Glycerol -3-phosphate shuttle operates in

68. Which among the following is a acidic amino acid? a) Heart b) Kidney c) Liver d) Skeletal muscles

a) Aspartic acid b) Asparagine c) Leucine d) Lysine

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83. No. of ATPs produced when acetyl CoA is oxidised via TCA cycle is____.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 30 d) 32 97. The number of FADH2 produced in TCA cycle is
84. Fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
a) Mitochondrial matrix b) Lysosomes c) Cytoplasm d) Peroxisomes 98. Which one of the following is associated with Apo B100 ?
85. Which of the following is a thioester compound? a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) Chylomicrons
a) Acetyl CoA b) Coenzyme A c) Acetoacetate d) Glutathione 99. Among domestic animals, Hyperinsulinism is most commonly reported in
a) Horses b) Dogs c) Pigs d) Cats
86. The nucleotide involved in Glycogenesis is
100. Which among the follwing is a negative acute phase protein ?
a) ATP b) GTP c) CTP d) TTP
a) Ceruloplasmin b) Serum amyloid A c) Protein C d) Albumin
87. The number of NADH2 produced in glycolysis is
101. The Clearance test which is used for measuring Glomerular filtration rate.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
a) Ureab) PAH c) Inulin d) Diodrast
88. Carnitine is required for the transport of ___________.
102. The major site of plasma protein synthesis is
a) Malate b) Pyruvate c) Fatty acids d) Amino acid
a) Liver b) Intestines c) Kidneys d) Pancreas
89. All Kinase enzymes require ________________as their co factor 103. The preferred anticoagulant for blood glucose estimation is

a) Magnesium b) Manganese c) Nickel d) Molybdenum a) EDTA b) Sodium fluoride c) Heparin d) Sodium

Citrate
90. Which one of the following is associated with bad cholesterol? 104. Rothera‘s test is routinely used in the diagnosis of
a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) Chylomicrons a) Alkalosis b) Milk fever c) Ketosis d) Jaundice
91. The end product of purine metabolism in Cattle is
a) Urea b) Uric acid c) Allantoin d) Ammonia
92. The source of N9 of purine ring is
a) Glutamine b) Glycine c) Aspartate d) N5 ,N10 methylene TH4
93. The lipoprotein which is involved in reverse cholesterol transport is
a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) Chylomicrons
94. Lipase requires __________as a co-factor.
a) Mo 2+ b) Mg2+ c) Zn 2+ d) Ca 2+

95. The lipid soluble mobile electron carrier in ETC is

a) Cyt C b) Co-enzyme Q c) Cyt bc1 d) Oxygen
96. HMP pathway takes place in
a) Mitochondrial matrix b) Lysosomes c) Cytoplasm d) Peroxisomes

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Answer key 29. d) 4:1 79. c) Zn 2+
30. c) 7 .4 80. a) Peter Mitchell
1. c) Allantoin 51. c) Z- DNA
31. c) 16 81. c) Thermogenin
2. a) Leucine 52. d) 12
32. d) Protein- 82. d) Skeletal muscles
3. a) Pigs 53. a) N-1
33. a) 20:1 83. a) 10
4. c) Aspartate 54. a) ATP
34. d) D-Ribose 84. c) Cytoplasm
5. c) Thiophorase 55. c) Ribosomes
35. b) Cellulose 85. b) Coenzyme A
6. b) Lysine 56. c) Glucosaccharic acid
36. a) Bilipid layer 86. c) CTP
7. c) 2 months 57. a) Glycogen
37. c) Dihyrodxyacetone 87. c) 2
8. d) Insulin 58. d) Lysine 38. b) Hyaluronic acid 88. c) Fatty acids
9. b) Hypothyroidism 59. b) Myoglobin 39. a) Dextrins 89. a) Magnesium
10. d) Glutaraldehyde coagulation 60. a) B – DNA 40. c) Sucrose 90. b) LDL
11. b) RNA pol II 61. c) Guanine 41. d) Sphingosine 91. c) Allantoin
12. a) Cats 62. c) ATP 42. a) Dipalmitoyl Lecithin 92. a) Glutamine
13. c) D. Koshland 63. b) Clover-leaf 43. b) Brain 93. a) HDL
14. b) 16.67 nkatal 64. a) Lecithin 44. b) LDL 94. d) Ca 2+
15. a) Mo 2+ 65. c) Cholesterol 45. a) Blood Clotting 95. b) Co-enzyme Q
16. a) 1.5 66. c) HDL 46. a) Glycine 96. c) Cytoplasm
17. c) 37°c 67. c) Cerebroside 47. a) Prosthetic group 97. d) 1
18. c) N- 9 68. a) Aspartic acid 48. b) 280 nm 98. b) LDL
19. c) Bases 69. a) Insulin 49. b) Max F Perutz 99. b) Dogs
20. c) 11 70. b) Lysosomes 50. a) Left-handed 100. d) Albumin
21. b) m-RNA 71. a) Starch 101. c) Inulin
22. c) Avery, Macleod & McCarty 72. a) Propionic acid 102. a) Liver
23. b) HCN 73. d) Palmitoleic acid 103. b) Sodium fluoride
24. b) Fucose 74. c) Cysteine 104. c) Ketosis
25. b) Trehalose 75. b) Ornithine
26. b) NAMA 76. c) Z- DNA
27. d) Badminton ball 77. a) 260 nm
28. a) Michaelis-Menten 78. c) Thymine

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
VETERINARY OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY a Mitotic division b Cytoplasmic growth
c Expansion of cumulus cells d Nuclear arrest
Veterinary Gynaecology 14 Inhibin has got negative feedback over hypothalamus and pituitary to control the ( )
1 ( ) release of
The length of the estrus cycle in ewes is a FSH alone b LH alone
a. 16 days b. 18 days c FSH and Prolactin d None of the above
c. 20 days d. None of these
15 The following cells will be identified in VEC of Bitches during proestrum ( )
2 Induced ovulation occurs in ( )
a RBC b Intermediate and Superficial
a. Cat b. Rabbit
cells
c. Ferrets d. All the above
c Neutrophils d All the above
3 Gestation length in a buffaloe is about ( )
16 The most accurate measurement of ovulation time in bitches is by estimating the ( )
a 285 days b 222 days
a LH b PGF2 alpha
c 111 days d 310 days
c Prolactin d FSH
4 The probable cause of delayed ovulation in cow is ( )
17 The once a day dose of bromocriptine for treating psuedopregnancy in dogs is about ( )
a Delay in Progesterone release b Delay in estrogen release
c Delay in Prostaglandin release d Delay in LH release a 10-30 mg/kg b 100-300 mg/kg
5 In sows, signs of estrus include all of the following except: ( ) c 10-30 µg/kg d 100-300µg/kg
a Perked up ears b Mounting of the male by sow 18 Which one is a antiprogestin drug ( )
c Salivation, champing and grunting d Standing to be ridden by the a Crestar b Misoprostol
boar c Aglepristone d TRIU-B
6 Predominantly how many follicular waves occurring during estrous cycle in bovine? ( ) 19 Luteal cyst is ( )
a 1 c 3 a Anovulation b Usually develops from
c 2 d 4 normal CL
7 The onset of puberty in dogs is ( ) c Normally develops just after ovulation d None of the above
a 5-6 months b 6-12 months 20 Early embryonic death is suspected from ( )
c 12-15 months d 16-18 months a Long estrus cycle b Short estrus cycle
8 Endometrial cups present in ( ) c Intense estrus d None of the above
a Mare b Cow 21 Which of the following is not the function of uterus ( )
c Sow d Bitch a Gametogenesis b Control of cyclicity
9 Which of the following is not a predisposing cause for the cystic ovarian ( ) c Contribution to placenta d Provides environment for
degeneration in cows? pre-attachment embryo
a Heredity b intensive 22 Fertilization takes place at the ( )
c Nutrition d Milk yield a Uterotubal junction b. Ampulary isthmic junction
10 Which of the following enzyme involved during the process of ovulation in cows ( ) c Isthmus d. Ampula
a lipase b Hyaluronidase 23 The functional cyclical corpus luteum of non pregnant animal is ( )
c Collagenase d Esterase a. Albicans b. spurium
11 Which of the following hormone steadily increases around the time of ovulation in ( ) c. Verum d. Cystic CL
bitches? 24 Time of ovulation in cattle ( )
a GnRH b Progesterone a 12 hours after end of estrum b. Diestrum
c LH d Estrogen All the above
12 Abortion caused by the vibriosis is due to ( ) c. 12 hours before onset of estrum d.
a C. fetus b Mycotic 25 Embryo transfer can be used to ( )
c Brucella abortus d None of the above Rapidly increase rare blood lines To obtain more off springs
13 Which of the following does not occur during oocyte maturation ( ) a b.
from valuable females
c. To facilitate progeny testing and thus d. All of the above

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reducing the generation interval a Sow b Mare
26 Which one is not a steroid hormone secreted from gonads ( ) c Ewe d Cattle
a Relaxin b. Progesterone 40 Transuterine migration of embryo is absent in —— ( )
c. Androgens d. Estrogens a Bitch b Cattle
27 PMSG is a glycoprotein hormone similar to ( ) c Sow d Both a and c
a LH activity b. Progesterone like activity 41 Maternal Recognition of Pregnancy (M.R.P) is responsible for ( )
c. FSH activity d. None of the above a Fetal growth b Implantation
c Maternal circulation d Fertilization
28 Leptospirosis causes abortion in bovine which is diagnosed by ( ) 42 First maturation division / meiotic division is not completed at the time of ovulation ( )
a MAT b. White side test in
FAT None of the above a Sow b Cattle and Buffaloe
c. d.
c Ewe and Doe d Mare and Bitch
29 In a good maintained cattle farm , the ideal service per conception is ( ) 43 Hippomanes are usually found in ——— ( )
1.5 to 1.7 2.0 to 3.0 a Yolk sac b Amniotic fluid
a b. C Allantoic fluid d All of these
c. 2.5 to 3.7 d. None of the above
30 The block to polyspermy is at the zona pellucida is seen in ( ) 44 Steroid hormones have receptors in ——— ( )
a Sheep and swine b. Rabbit a Cytoplasm b Nucleus
c Both a and b d. None of the above c Cell membrane d Both a & c
31 The duration of the proestrum in dog is ( ) 45 An anabolic hormone ——– ( )
a. 16 days b. 18 days a Insulin b Estrogen
c. 9 days d. None of these c Testosterone d All of these
32 Spontaneous ovulation occurs in ( )
a. Cat b. Rabbit 46 An animal in which pheromones are secreted in saliva foam ( )
c. Ferrets d. Mare a Boar b Bull
33 Gestation length in a mare is about ( ) c Stallion d Ram
a 285 days b 660days
c 111 days d 310 days 47 The C.L persists through out pregnancy in all farm animals except———- ( )
34 Animal showing external evidence of pro-oestrus with vulval oedema, hyperemia & ( ) a Mare b Cow
sanguinous vulval discharge is c Ewe d Dog
a Cattle b Bitch
c Doe d Ewe and Mare 48 ——— is the major metabolic fuel for foetus ( )
35 Mammary gland duct system growth is under the influence of ( ) a Glucose b Cervical fluid
a Estrogen b Progesterone c Cellulose d None of the above
c Prolactin d Prostaglandins
36 Exogenous oxytocin has luteolytic action in ———- ( ) 49 Congenital valvular defects are common in ______________ species ( )
a Bitch b Cow and Ewe a Mare b Cow
c Cattle and Sow d Cow and Doe c Ewe d Dog
37 Mammary gland alveolar growth is under the influence of ( )
a Estrogen b Progesterone 50 Super fecundation is more common in ————— ( )
c Prolactin d Prostaglandins a Dog and Cat b Mare
38 Predominate Ig in follicular fluid is ——— ( ) c Ewe d None of the above
a Ig A b Ig M
51 Match the following ( )
c Ig G d Ig E A. Chediak Higashi syndrome 1. Swine
39 4 – Cell stage embryo is transported from site of fertilization to uterus in ( ) B. Polycystic Kidneys 2. Hopping gait

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C. Anury 3. Ghost Pattern 59 Low land abortion or Marsh land abortion is due to ( )
D. Twinning 4. Boars
Fescue poisoning Leptospirosis
E. ―Balling Up‖ 5. Iodine deficiency a b.
F. Prolonged gestation 6.Equine abortion Nitrate poisoning None of the above
c. d.
a 3, 1, 2, 6, 4, 5 b 2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4 60 Trichomonas abortion is more common in —–trimester of pregnancy ( )
c 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 d 5, 3, 6, 2, 1, 4 a First trimester b. Second trimester
52 Match the following ( ) Third trimester None of the above
c d.
A. Mature C.L. 1. Mesonephric duct
B. Female genitalia 2. 40 – 90 days of gestation 61. Opening the isthumus into the uterus is called as ( )
C. Slipping of fetal membranes 3. 80 – 120 days of gestation
D. Male genitalia 4. Liver fluke like consistancy Ostium tubae
a. b. Ostium tubae uterinum
E. Fremitus 5. Paramesonephric duct abdominale
F. Cuboni Test 6. 150-290 days of gestation c. Utero tubal junction d. Non of these
4, 1, 6, 5, 3, 2
a 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6 b. The number of the caruncle present in the endometrium of cow
62. ( )
c 4, 5, 2, 1, 3, 6 d. 4, 5, 3, 1, 6, 2 is
53 Match the following ( ) a. 150-197 b. 77-87
A. Pseudo pregnancy 1.Dog & Cat c. 88-96 d. 70-120
B. Prostaglandin antagonist 2. Ruminants 63. Cystic ovarian degeneration in bovine is due to ( )
C. Endotheliochorial placenta 3.Carazolol
D. Epitheliochorial placenta 4. Bromocriptine a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyphokalemia
E. Accelerating parturition 5 .Horse & Pig c. Cholestrol excess d. Lack of LH
F. Synepitheliochorial placenta 6. Indomethacin
By rectal examination in cattle the palpation of placentomes
a. 4, 3, 6, 1, 5, 2 b. 6, 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 64. ( )
unthil _______ days of pregnancy
c. 4, 6, 1, 5, 3, 2 d. 6, 1, 5, 2, 4, 3
a. 75 to 80 days b. 45 to 50 days
54 Unfertilized ovum remains for months in the oviduct of ——species ( )
a Sow b. Mare c. 95 to 100 days d. 120 to 180 days
Bitch
c. Ewe and Doe d.
Paratyphoid abortion, a form of salmonellosis in sheep is
65. ( )
55 In sows, maternal recognition of pregnancy is mainly due to the action of ( ) principally caused by
a Interferon tau b. Oxytocin
c. Estrogen d. Prostaglandins Salmonella abortus
a. b. Salmonella dublin
56 Endometrial cups are formed from ( ) ovis
a chorionic girdle (fetal origin) b. maternal caruncles Salmonella
c. d. All the above
c. endometrium (maternal origin) d. none of the above meleagridis
66. Spontaneous ovulation occurs in ( )
57 In sow, the villi near the endometrial glands are enlarged and specialized to form ( )
structures called a. Cat b. Rabbit
a Hippomanes b. Amniotic plaques
c. Areolae d. Placentomes c. Mare d. All the above
58 Most of the developmental anomalies occur during ( ) 67. White side test is used for the diagnosis of ( )
a Period of embryo b. Period of ovum
c. Period of fetus d. During birth a. Sub clinical b. Listeriosis

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Endometritis a Inhibin is high b Dominant follicle
c Absence of d Activin is high
c. Anestrum d. Endometritis Progesterone
76 The adenohypophysial content of LH is highest in ( )
68. MATCH THE FOLLOWING a Sheep b Horse
A. Post partum vaginal discharge 1. Glycoprotein c Man d None of the above
B. Pseudo pregnancy 2. Secundus 77 The onset of puberty in mare is ( )
C. Cervical mucus 3. Embryo ( ) a 5-8 months b 8-12 months
Transfer,1890 c 12-15 months d 16-18 months
D. Embryonic estrogen 4. Clenbuterol 78 The preovulatory LH release LH is from ( )
E. Heape 5. M.R.P. in Pig a Tonic center b Surge center
F. Delaying Parturition 6. Cabergoline c Both a & b d None of the above
79 The presence of __________________ prevents ( )
a. 2, 6, 1, 5, 3, 4 b. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 Defeminisation of surge center in female
a Glycoprotein b somatostatin
c. 6, 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 d. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4, 6 c α fetoprotein d Inhibin
yellowish brown discoloration of the fetal cotyledons and 80 Radiography may help determine the viability of late-term ( )
69. leather-like thickening or edema of the inter cotyledonary ( ) foetuses. Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of
spaces fetal death?
a Intrauterine gas b Absence of molar teeth in fetal jaws
a Vibriosis c Listeriosis c Fetal d Hyperflexion of fetal bodies
b Leptospirosis d Tuberculosis subcutaneous
gas
70 The type of bovine uterus is classified under ( ) 81 Intrauterine oxygen reductase potential (Eh) can be used to ( )
a Bicornuate b Simple find
c Duplex d None of the above a Degree of b Degree of Damage to endometrium
71 The first ovulation is not having behavioral estrous, for which ( ) bacterial
___________ hormone primes the hypothalamus infection
a GnRH b Estrogen c Presence of d Presence of Prostaglandins
c LH d Progesterone RBCs
82 Oxytocin and Vasopression are very similar in composition ( )
72 The corpus luteum will be responsible to synthetic ( ) with ------------- of the 8 amino acids in these tow hormones
prostaglandin in being similar
a First four day of b Last four day of cycle a 7 b 6
cycle c 4 d 2
c Both a and b d None of the above 83 The numbers of germ cells in the ovaries of the individual ( )
73 Which of the following is normal in white heifer disease ( ) cattle is highly variable ranging from -------- to ---------
a Vagina b cervix a 0 to 2 Lakhs b 1000 to 1 Lakhs
c uterus d Ovary c 0 to 7 Lakhs d 10,000 to 1 Lakhs
74 The ovulation time in ewes ( ) 84 There is a chance that a cow is pregnant when progesterone ( )
a Onset of LH b Last day of estrous levels in the milk are
surge a High at the time b Low at the time of AI and high 22
c 5 hrs after onset d 5 hrs after LH surge of AI and high days later
of estrous 21 days later
75 When estradiol is having positive feedback ( ) c High at the time d Low at the time of AI and low 21

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of AI and low days later a 40 days b 80 days
22 days later c 60 days d 120 days
85 Superovulation involves ( ) 92 Gestation length in swine ( )
a The b Inseminating once, 12 hours after a 333 days b 222 days
administration detecting the cow in heat c 111 days d 210 days
of PGF 2 days 93 The length of the tubular part of the horn is longer in ( )
before starting a Mare b Cow
FSH injections
c repeated FSH d None of the above c Sow d Bitch
injections, 8 in 94 Granulosa cell tumor is most common in cattle that ma cause ( )
total, beginning occational symptoms of
on day 10 -12 of a Nymphomania b Anestrum
the estrous cycle c Both a and b d None of the above
86 Which one of the following having the anti-estrogenic effect ( )
a MAP b MGA 95 In cows, for optimum super ovulatory response, gonadotropin ( )
c CAP d MRL4 treatment is initiated on which day of estrous cycle
87 In ―spilt heat‖ ( ) a 4-8 b 5–9
a Estrus b Animal will conceive if bred c 9 - 14 d 14 – 17
symptoms not
expressed 96 Segmental aplasia of the mularian or paramesonephric ducts is ( )
clearly caused by
c Animal does not d Animal will have prolonged estrus a Single, b Single sex-limited gene
ovulate recessive, sex-
88 Which of the following enzyme involved during the process of ( ) limited gene
ovulation in cows c Single, d None
a lipase b Hyaluronidase dominant, sex- of the
c Collagenase d Esterase limited gene above
97 The pH of the vaginal mucus during estrum in mare is ( )
89 Which of the following statement is not true with regard to ( )
________
luteolysis in farm animals
a 7.9 to 8.1 b 8.5 to 8.7
a Presence of b Presence of critical level of
c 6.5 to 7.0 d 7.1 to 7.5
oxytocin oxytocin
receptors on 98 The weight of the ovaries at the time of birth in mare is ( )
endometrial about ______
cells a 120 to 150 b 40 to 70 grams
c PGF2 alpha d Presence of threshold level of LH grams
synthesis by c 20 grams d None of the above
endometrium
90 During folliculogenesis for the initial recruitment of the ( ) 99 Puberty in cats usually occurs between ------- and -------- ( )
follicles which of the following hormonal condition is
months of age depending upon the kittens nutritive state
essential
a Low FSH and b High FSH and high LH and genetic background.
high LH
a 3 and 4 b 12 and 15
c Low FSH and d High FSH and low LH
high Inhibin c 7 and 12 d None of the above
91 eCG secreted by endometrial cups in mare during pregnancy ( )
can be detected in circulation until
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100 Dystrophia adiposogenitalis or Frohlich‘s syndrome is ( )
occasionally observed in dogs of either sex and is caused
by tumors of the -----
a Pituitary b Hypothalamus Veterinary Obstetrics
c Both a and b d None of the above 1
Key answers The incidence of dystocia in posterior presentation of fetus in unipara is
( )
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer a. Low b. Moderate
No. No. No. No.
1 a 26 a 51 a 76 a c. High d. Absent
2 d 27 c 52 c 77 d
3 d 28 c 53 c 78 b 2 Primary uterine inertia is seen most often in which species? ( )
4 d 29 a 54 b 79 c
5 b 30 d 55 c 80 b a. Ewe b. Bitch
6 b 31 c 56 a 81 a
7 b 32 d 57 c 82 b c. Mare d. Sow
8 a 33 b 58 a 83 c
9 b 34 b 59 c 84 b 3 Prolonged dystocia leads to fatigue of the uterine muscle and produce contraction ( )
10 c 35 a 60 a 85 a
or retraction rings called as
11 c 36 d 61 c 86 d
12 a 37 b 62 d 87 c
a Schaafer‘s ring b Uterine ring
13 d 38 c 63 d 88 c
14 a 39 a 64 a 89 d c Bandle‘s ring d Robert‘s ring
15 d 40 b 65 d 90 d
16 a 41 b 66 c 91 d 4 Small litter size leads to cause larger fetuses that may predispose to dystocia in ( )
17 c 42 d 67 a 92 c
18 c 43 c 68 a 93 c a Ewe b Bitch
19 a 44 a 69 a 94 c
20 b 45 d 70 d 95 a c Mare d Sow
21 a 46 a 71 a 96 a
22 b 47 a 72 d 97 a 5 Obstetrical hooks may be long or short but should always be ( )
23 b 48 a 73 d 98 c
24 a 49 a 74 d 99 c a Pointed b Straight
25 d 50 a 75 b 100 c
c Sharp d Blunt

6 Repulsion may be accomplished by the operator‘s arm, the arm of an assistant or by ( )

a

a Fetotome b Ropes

c Crutch repeller d Obstetrical chain

7 The corneas are grey and opaque after the fetus has been dead for ( )

a 6 to 12 hours b 12 to 20 hours

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c 48 to 72 hours d 24 to 48 hours 15 In most cows the presence of very relaxed ligaments indicates that parturition will ( )
probably occurs in
8 Version is most often done while transverse ventral presentation in ( )
a 6 to 12 hours b 12 to 20 hours
a Sow b Buffalo
c 48 to 72 hours d 24 to 48 hours
c Mare d Queen
16 Almost all severe dystocia occurs in heifers with with pelvic area of ( )
9 The uterine twisting of the birth canal is often not noticeable in ( )
a 200 to 240 sq. cm b 250 to 270 sq. cm
a a. 90 degree torsion b 270 degree torsion
c 290 to 320 sq. cm d 270 to 290 sq. cm
c 180 degree torsion d 360 degree torsion
17 Schistosoma reflexus is seen in cow and occasionally in sheep, goat and pig but ( )
10 Downward deviation of the head between the forelimb is occasionally seen in all ( )
species except a Very common in other species b Rarely in other species

a Sow b Bitch c Frequently in other species d Never in other species

c Mare d Ewe 18 The technique of epidural anesthesia was introduced by Benesch in ( )

11 Fetal ascities is seen as an occasional cause for dystocia in any species but occurs ( ) a 1935 b 1915
most often in
c 1945 d 1926
a Sow b Bitch
19 The condition of obturator paralysis is ( )
c Mare d Cow
a More prevalent in heifers than in cows b More prevalent in cows than
12 Perosomus elumbis if occurs in posterior presentation may be mistaken for ( ) in heifers

a Wry neck b Vertex presentation c Commonly prevalent in both cows and d More prevalent in heifers
heifers than in cows
c Dog sitting posture d Breech presentation
20 The turning of the fetus on its long axis to bring the fetus into dorso-sacral position ( )
13 Gluteal paralysis is rare and is described only in ( ) is called
a Sow b Ewe a Repulsion b Rotation
c Mare d Cow c Adjustment of extremities d Version
14 Hematomas and contusions of the vagina or the vulva are occasionally noted in all ( ) 21 In which species abdominal contractions are so violent that if the fetus is in proper ( )
animals but most commonly in presentation, position and posture, forced extraction is seldom necessary?
a Cow and Ewe b Mare and Sow a Bovine b. Feline
c Sow and Bitch d Bitch and Queen c Swine d. Equine

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22 Necrotic vaginitis and vulvitis is observed most often in ( ) a Presentation b Position

a Dairy and beef heifers b. Bitch and queens c Posture d None of the above

c Mare d. Sow 30 Which of the following bones form the posterior part of pelvic floor ( )

23 fetal emphysema and sloughing of the hair is present the fetus has been dead for ( ) a Ilium and pubis b Hook bone

a. 6 to 12 hours b 12 to 24 hours c Ischium d Tuber sacrale

c. 48 and more d 24 to 48 hours 31 A complication of rather diffuse bleeding occurring from the submucosal area of the
( )
uterus after incising during cesarean section occurs in
24 Puerperal tetany or eclampsia in the bitch and cat is a metabolic disease ( )
characterized by a. Bovine b. Feline

a Hypoglycemia b. Hypercalcemia 32 The new born free martin can be characterized by ( )

c. Hypocalcemia d. Hyperglycemia a Small vulval lips and lack of vaginal b Lack of vaginal patency and
patency prominent clitoris
25 Dystocia caused by the cord being wrapped around a portion or extremity of fetus ( )
c Lack of clitoris and lack of vaginal d Prominent clitoris and small
Frequently occurs in domestic animals Frequently causes fetal
a b. patency vulval lips
dead in domestic animals
33 Twinning in mare almost leads to ( )
Frequently causes dystocia Does not occurs in
c. d.
domestic animals a Early embryo resorption b Late abortion

26 During parturient paresis in cow the blood serum calcium level drops from a ( ) c Early abortion d All
normal of 8-12 g/100ml to
34 Cervico vaginal proalpse is rarely occur in ( )
a 3-7g/100ml b Less than 2g/100ml
a Bitch b Mare
c 8-9g/100ml d Less than 1g/100ml
c Both a and b d None
27 The incidence of Hydramnios in cattle is _______________ ( )
35 Which of the following statement is not correct for uterine torsion ( )
a 5-10 % b 85-90 %
a Pre cervical torsion is not common than b Torsion occurs in early
c 30-40 % d 50-60 % post cervical torison gestation

28 Transverse ventral presentation is most commonly observed in the ( ) c Left side of torsion is not common than d All
right side
a Cow b Dog
36 The second and third stage of labor is merged in ( )
c Mare d None of the above
a Monotocus animals b Polyestrous animals
29 Relation between dorsum of fetus to maternal quadrants is termed as ( )

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c Polytocus animals d Pluriparous animals 44 Which of the following instrument/s is used for Fetotomy ( )

37 Transuterine Migration of conceptus is noticed in __________________ species ( ) a Gunther‘s knife b Thygesen‘s embryotome

a Bovine b Equine c Concealed palm knife d All the above

c Caprine d Ovine 45 The drug of choice for induction of parturition in equine is _______________ ( )

38 Fetal reflex for breech presentation is _____________________ ( ) a Clenbuterol b Oxytocin

a Pedal b Anal c Progesterone d Valathamide

c Palpebral d Suckling 46 Fetal cortisol stimulates the conversion of progesterone in to estrogen during ( )

39 Ring womb condition is commonly found in __________________ ( ) parturition by activating the enzyme
a Phopholipase b Lipase
a Bovine b Swine
b 17- alpha hydroxylase d None of the above
c Ovine d Equine
47 The pregnancy in canines can be terminated by using ( )
40 Chronic inflammation of the uterus characterized by fibrotic changes in the uterine ( )
wall a Prolactin b Folligon

a Puerperal metritis b Septic metritis c Mifipristone d LH

c Selerotic metritis d Parametritis 48 ______________ is a beta adrenergic stimulant used to delay parturition in cows ( )

41 Foot nape indicates _______________ ( ) a Progesterone b Estrogen

a Transverse Dorsal b Posterior Longitudinal c Isoxysuprine d All the above

c Ant Long. Limb over neck d Transverse ventral 49 Foal heat occurs at ___________ days after foaling ( )

42 ___________________________ is the most common bacteria found in genital ( ) a 2-4 b 5-12

infections in horses.
c 15-20 d 35-38
a St. genitalium b Staphylococcus aurues
50 Decline in temperature before parturition is related with decline in ( )
c Pseudomonas d Leptospira ______________ hormone
43 Long existing extra-uterine fetuses become quite firm and encapsulated with ( ) a Relaxin b PGF2 alpha
calcium laid down in the capsule is called as _____________________________.
c Progesterone d oxytocin
a Lithopedians b superfecundation
51 Atresia ani is seen in all domestic animals but most commonly seen in ( )
c Superfetation d Fetal mummy
a Cow b Cat

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c Pig d None of the above a Anemia b. Hemoglobinuria

c a only d. both a and b c Hemoglobinemia d. All the above

53 The following one which is not used for correction of uterine torsion ( ) 61 The presence of a dark green vulvar discharge more than -------- hours after
( )
parturition is a symptom of retention of fetal membranes in dog.
a. Cornell detorsion rod b. Commerer‘s torsion fork
a. 12 hours b 24 hours
c. Erikson‘s rotator d. Whilliam‘s crutch repeller
c. 48 hours d 72 hours
54 Primary uterine inertia is seen most often in ------------ and rarely in ---------------- ( )
62 Puerperal laminitis is most likely to occur in----- ( )
a Dog , Mare b. Cow, sow
a. Mare b. Dog
c. Mare, cow d. Cow , Dog
c. Cow d. Cat
55 Maternal causes of dystocia includes ( )
63 Comprest or bull dog calves are seen in all breeds but most commonly in the ------- ( )
a Fractures and exostoses of pelvis b. Stunning of body growth breeds
56 Fetal ascites is seen as an occasional cause for dystocia in any species but occurs ( ) a Hereford b Ayrshire
most offen in the _______
c Angus d All the above
a Cow b Cat
64 True hermaphrodites is most frequently seen in ( )
c. Pig d None of the above
a Cattle b Sheep
57 Dystocia due to fetal embphysema is observed in species and is usually associated ( )
with a prolonged dystocia of ________________ hours of duration. a Cattle b Sheep

a 12 to 18 hours b 24 to 48 hours c Goat d Horse

c. 14 to 36 hours d 12 to 24 hours 66 ------- is seen occasionally in cattle and swine and is characterized by lack of ( )
vertebrae and spinal cord caudal to the thoracic region
58 Uterine or vaginal rupture may occur due to ( )
a Schistosomus reflexus b Perosomus elumbis
a Improper manipulation b. Fatigue of the operator
c Perosomus horridus d Campylorrachis scoliosa
c. Protruding bones of the fetus d. All the above
67 Nongenetic anomalies similar to genetic anomalies are called as ( )
a Mare b. Dog
a Phenocopies b Teratogens
c. Cow d. Cat
c Monster d None of the above
60 Post parturient hemoglobinuria is an uncommon disease of high producing older ( )
dairy cows occurring 2 to 4 weeks after calving having the ------------ symptoms 68 Invagination of the uterine horn is occasionally noted in the _______ and _______ ( )
but occurs only rarely in other species

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a Cow and Ewe b Swine and Sheep 76 The incidence of the dystocia in posterior presentation of the fetus in unipara is ( )

c Cow and Mare d Dog and Cat a Low b Moderate

69 In case of vulvar sutures are used for uterine prolapse should be removed in ------- ( ) c High d Absent
hours
77 Epidural anesthesia in sows can be given in ( )
a 12 hours b 24 hours
a Lumbosacral space b Sacrococcygeal space
c 48 hours d 72 hours
c Thoracolumbar space d None of the above
70 In mare rupture of the uterus is common in __________ in rotated bicornual ( )
pregnancy if traction is applied 78 The most common sequelae of hydrallantois are ( )

a Mare b. Dog a Retained placenta and incomplete cervical b Septic metritis and
dilatation anomalous fetus
c Cow d. Cat
c a. Cervicitis and salphingitis d Septic metritis and retained
71 Subinvolution of the placental sites should be differentiated from the following ( ) placenta

a. Cystitis b. Uterine or ovarian tumors 79 Placentophagy is commonly noticed in ____________________ ( )

c. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia d. All the above a Cow b Dog

72 Dystocia due to transverse ventral presentation is most commonly observed in ( ) c Mare d None of the above

a. Mare b. Dog 80 In bitches, The post partum lochia is green in colour due to the pigment ( )
―Uteroverdin‖ which is a break down product of ____________
c. Cow d. Cat
a Haemoglobin b urea
a 12 to 18 hours b 5 to 10 hours
c Myoglobin d None of the above
c 24 to 36 hours d None of the above
81 High feeding levels may favour dystocia, especially in heifers by excessive
74 Dystocia due to mosters or to disproportion between fetal size and pelvic diameter ( ) ( )
deposition of fat in the
is rare in
a. Abdominal region b. Pelvic region
a Cow b Mare
c. Uterine horn d. Genitalia
c Ewe d Dog
82 Manual removal of the placenta is contraindicated in cows with elevated body
75 In mare dystocia is due to ___________________ is one of the most common ( ) ( )
temperature above
cause,
a. 101 degree F b. 103 degree F
a Abnormal posture of head b Both a and c
c. 102 degree F d. Not contraindicated
c Abnormal posture of neck d None of the above

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83 ―waxing of teat‖is observed In ___________ ( ) 90 Amorphus globosus was an imperfect zygote of dizygotic twins commonly seen in ( )

a Mare b Cow a Cow b Cat

c Bitch d Ewe c Dog d None of the above

84 Secondary uterine inertia that is seen in all species is the result of ( ) 91 Cyclopia is most commonly seen in ( )

a Hormonal imbalance b Nutritional deficiency a. Cow b Cat

c Exhaustion of uterine muscle d Fetal oversize c. Pig and sheep d None of the above

85 At birth what is the approximate percentage of birth weight of foal in relation to the ( ) 92 Vasopresin exhibits about 20 per cent of the milk ejection activity of oxytocin
( )
mature weight which increase the intracistern pressure up to

a 4 per cent b 6 per cent a. 30 to 45 mm of mercury b. 5 to 15 mm of mercury

c 9 per cent d less than 2 per cent c. 60 to 75 mm of mercury d. None of the above

86 The advantages of fetotomy is ( ) 93 Ketosis or acetonemia in cattle is rarely observed during ( )

a It reduces the size of the fetus b It avoids cesarean operation a Prior to parturition b 10 to 60 days after
parturition
c It may cause injury to the uterus or birth d Both a and b
canal c 7 to 10 days after parturition d None of the above

87 True fetal gigantism is seen mostly commonly in ( ) 94 Hypocalcemia or hypomegnesemia is a metabolic disease of dairy cattle especially ( )
those animals which are in
a Mare b Bitch
a Advanced pregnancy and fed with early b Transported and or under
c Cow d Sow wheat pastures stress
88 The umbilical cord being wrapped around a portion or extremity of fetus leads to ( ) c Lactating heavily and Grazing on lush d All the above
dystocia ?
95 In physiological parturition the afterbirth of the cow falls away within ( )
a Does not occurs in domestic animals b Frequently causes dystocia
a 3 to 8 hours b 24 to 48 hours
c Frequently occurs in domestic animals d None of the above
c 8 to 12 hours d 12 to 24 hours
89 Bandl‘s contraction rings are seen in _______________uterine inertia ( )
96 The following is the not the causative factor for retained placental membrane in ( )
a Secondary b Late cow
c Early d Primary a Excess cortisol in late gestation b Uterine inertia

c Progesterone deficiency in late gestation d Excess amount of LH

hormone

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97 Retained placental membrane is uncommon except in ___________ ( ) Key answers

a Sow b Cat Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer
No. No. No. No.
c Bitch d Cow 1 c 26 a 51 c 76 c
2 b 27 a 52 b 77 a
98 A persistent urachus is seen most commonly in the new born of ( ) 3 c 28 c 53 d 78 d
4 d 29 b 54 a 79 b
a Mare b Cow 5 d 30 c 55 d 80 a
6 c 31 d 56 a 81 b
c Cat d Dog 7 a 32 b 57 b 82 b
8 c 33 a 58 d 83 a
99 Copper deficiency in new born animals causing the following like ( ) 9 a 34 b 59 a 84 c
10 a 35 b 60 d 85 c
c Locomotor incoordination d All the above 11 d 36 c 61 a 86 d
12 a 37 b 62 a 87 c
100 Edema of the tongue of the new born fetus is common in calves in anterior ( ) 13 a 38 b 63 d 88 a
presentation is due to 14 d 39 c 64 d 89 a
15 d 40 c 65 c 90 a
a head protruding through the vulva for b Intra pelvic pressure due to 16 a 41 c 66 b 91 c
long time narrow pelvis 17 d 42 a 67 a 92 a
18 d 43 a 68 c 93 a
c Edema of the forelimbs d All the above 19 a 44 d 69 b 94 d
20 b 45 b 70 a 95 a
21 d 46 b 71 d 96 d
22 a 47 c 72 a 97 d
23 d 48 c 73 c 98 a
24 c 49 b 74 b 99 d
25 d 50 c 75 b 100 d

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Veterinary Andrology and Artificial Insemination 11. Osmotic pressure of semen ranges from ( )
a 280 to 300 milli osmol b 100 to 120 milli osmol

1. The length of epididymal tube in bull is ( ) c 10 to 50 milli osmol d None of the above

a. 20 meters b. 30 meters 12. Major storage site for spermatozoa is ( )

c. 40 meters d. 50 meters a Caput epididymis b Corpus epididymis

2. Scrotum is absent in ( ) c Cauda epididymis d Ampulla

a. Elephant b. Rhinoceros 13. Os penis is present in ( )

c. Birds d. All of the above a Dog b Foxes

3. In pig, testicular descent into scrotum occurs at ( ) c Raccoons d All of the above

a 2 months b 3 months 14. Duration of the cycle of seminiferous epithelium in ram is ( )

c 4 months d 5 months a 9 days b 10 days

4. Daily sperm production for a bull with testes weighing about 400 gms each is ( ) c 12 days d 14 days

a 7 billion b 10 billion 15. Duration of copulation is longest in which of the following species ( )

c 12 billion d 15 billion a Cattle b Horse

5. Number of spermatozoa formed from one type A spermatogonia is ( ) c Sheep d Pig

a 4 b 16 16. Licking of penis after ejaculation as a post coital behavior is found in ( )

c 32 d 64 a Bull b Ram

6. Blood pressure in the corpus cavernosum penis at the time of erection in bull is ( ) c Buck d Stallion

a 170 mm of Hg b 270 mm of Hg 17. In stallion, the maximum number of ejaculations to exhaustion are ( )
c 1700 mm of Hg d 2700 mm of Hg a 10 b 15
7. Ergothionine present in stallion semen is secreted from ( ) c 20 d 25
a Ampulla b Prostate gland 18. Flehman‘s reaction to estrus female urine is absent in ( )
c Seminal vesicle d Bulbourethral gland a Cattle b sheep
8. High level of inositol is present in the semen of which of the following species ( ) c Horse d Pig
a Bull b Ram 19. Inability to withdraw the penis into the prepuce is called as ( )
c Stallion d Boar a Phimosis b Paraphimosis
9. Sticky, gelatinous, tapioca like material present in the boar semen is secreted from ( ) c Phallocampsis d None of the above
a Ampulla b Prostate gland 20. The percent of sodium citrate dehydrate added in egg yolk citrate diluents is ( )
c Seminal vesicle d Bulbourethral gland a 1.5 % b 2.9 %
10. The vices of ejaculation by inserting penis into the preputial diverticulum is seen in ( ) c 3.5 % d 4.1 %
a Ram b Stallion
c Bull d Boar

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21. Spermiostasis due to aberrant efferent or epididymal tubules is commonly seen in ( ) c. Retractor penis muscle d. Urethral muscle
a Bull b Ram
31. Internal reproductive organs of animals are developed from ( )
c Buck d Boar a Ectoderm b Mesoderm
22. The surface area of French mini straw is ( ) c Endoderm d All of the above
a 555 mm2 b. 823 mm2 32. Embryological structure which forms the glans penis in male and clitoris in female is ( )
c 950 mm2 d. 1152 mm2 a Urogenital sinus b Genital tubercle
23. Good quality semen sample reduces methylene blue in ( ) c Mesonephric tubule d None of the above
a. 3 – 5 minutes b. 6 – 9 minutes
33. Which of the following agent produced by fetal testes causes differentiation and ( )
c. 10 – 15 minutes d. 16 – 20 minutes development of male reproductive tract
24. Which of the following extender is used for room temperature preservation of bull ( ) a Fetal androgen b Mullerian Inhibiting Substance
semen c Both d None of the above
a Coconut milk extender b. Tris egg yolk extender
34. Pampiniform plexus is formed by ( )
c. Egg yolk citrate extender d. Egg yolk phosphate extender a Testicular artery b Testicular vein
c External pudendal artery d None of the above
25. Minimum concentration of spermatozoa required for one dose of frozen semen in ( )
35. Shape of ruminant testis ( )
horse is
a Round b Oval
a 200 million b. 500 million c Spherical d Elliptical
c. 1500 million d. 5000 million
36. Sertoli cells secrete ( )
26. Common type of tumor of penis in bulls ( ) a Inhibin b Androgen Binding Protein
a TVT b. Teratoma c Estrogen d All of the above
c. Transmissible fibropappiloma d. Squamous cell carcinoma 37. Accentrically placed thickening of the acrosome is known as ( )
a Diadem defect b Acrosome cap
c Knobbed acrosome d Pseudodroplet defect
27. Mediastinum testis is absent in which of the following species ( )
a Bull b. Ram 38. Test used to know the functional integrity of sperm membrane is ( )
a Cervical Mucus Penetration Test b Hypo Osmotic Swelling Test
c. Stallion d. Boar c Hamster Egg Penetration Test d High Temperature Viability
28. Sigmoid flexure is prescrotal in ( ) Test
a Bull b. Ram 39. The length of seminiferous tubule in bull is ( )
c. Boar d. Stallion a 4000 meters b 5000 meters
c 6000 meters d 7000 meters
29. Vascular type of penis is present in ( )
a. Bull b. Ram 40 Only accessory sex gland present in dog ( )
a Seminal vesicle b Bulbourethral gland
c. Boar d. Stallion c Prostate gland d Epididymis
30. Erectiion of penis is brought about by action of the muscle ( )
41 Scrotal ligament is absent in ( )
a. Bulbocavernous b. Ischiocavernous a Bull b Stallion
c Boar d Ram

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53 Semen picture of bilateral testicular hypoplasia ( )
42 Uretheral process is present in the penis of ( ) a Normozoospermia b Necrozoospermia
a Bull b Stallion c Aspermia d Azoospermia
c Ram d Boar
54 Gynaeco mastia is caused due to ( )
43 The prostate gland is heart shaped in ( ) a Seminoma b Leydig cell tumor
a Bull b Ram c Sertoli cell tumor d All of the above
c Stallion d Boar
55 Release of fully formed spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into lumen of seminiferous ( )
44 Testosterone is converted to dihydrotestosterone by an enzyme known as ( ) tubules is called
a Aromatase b 17 α Hydroxylase a Spermiogenesis b Spermiation
c 5 α reductase d 5 keto reductase c Emission d Ejaculation

45 The following cells of the testis are highly sensitive to irradiation ( ) 56 Final concentration of glycerol in semen extender used for freezing of bull semen is ( )
a Spematocytes b Leydig cells a 1% b 4%
c Myoid cells d Sertoli cells c 7% D 14 %

46 Sequence of male sexual behavior in bull is ( ) 57 Laparoscopic method of artificial insemination is commonly done in ( )
a Courtship to dismounting b Sexual arousal to dismounting a Sheep b Goat
c Courtship to refractoriness d Sexual arousal to refractoriness c Pig d Dog

47 Courting grunts is observed in ( ) 58 Torsion of the descended testis is commonly seen in ( )

a Bull b Stallion a Bull b Stallion
c Ram d Boar c Ram d Buck

48 In which of the following species, flagging movement of tail is exhibited after ( ) 59 Most reliable and commonly used seminal parameter in evaluating fertility of frozen ( )
ejaculation semen in field condition is
a Bovine b Ovine a Post thaw motility b Post thaw livability
c Swine d Equine c post thaw acrosomal integrity d HOST

49 Inability to protrude the penis outside the prepuce is called as ( ) 60 The required number of progressive motile sperms during filling and sealing of ( )
a Phimosis b Paraphimosis French mini straw in cattle is
c Phallocampsis d Priapism a 5 millions b 10 millions
c 20 millions d 40 millions
50 Inflammation of the glans penis and prepuce is ( )
a Balanitis b Gonitis 61. ( )
Urethral diverticulum is present in
c Balanoposthitis d Penitis
a. Bull b. Ram
51 Volume of semen in testicular degeneration is usually ( )
c. Stallion d. Boar
a Normal b Decreased
c Increased d None of the above 62. The body of the prostate gland is absent in ( )
a. Bull b. Ram
52 Total head abnormalities of bull semen samples should not exceed ( ) c. Stallion d. Boar
a 5% b 10 %
63. The optimum frequency of semen collection from adult bulls in frozen semen bank is ( )
c 15 % d 20 %
a One ejaculate twice a week b Two ejaculates once a week

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
c Two ejaculates twice a week d Two ejaculates thrice a week 74. Total length of spermatozoa of domestic animal is ( )
64. The preputial ring is present in ( ) a 10-20 microns b 20-40 microns
a Bull b Ram c 50-70 microns d 75-90 microns
c Stallion d Boar 75. Reaction time has co-relation with ( )
65. Average velocity of bull sperm cell is ( ) a Sex drive b Motility of sperm
a 1.65 mm/minute b 4.23 mm/minute c Fertility of sperm d Concentration of sperm
c 0.50 mm/minute d 3.50 mm/minute 76. Anti-agglutinin present in semen is secreted by ( )
66. Aspermia denotes ( ) a Ampulla b Seminal vesicle
a Non volume b Zero sperm c Prostate gland d Cowper‘s gland
c Decreased sperm d Increased sperm
77. An animal in which pheromones are secreted in saliva ( )
67. Inflammation of hip joint – coxitis- is seen most commonly in ( )
a Dogs b Bull a Bull b Stallion

c Stallion d Buck c Boar d Ram

68. In ram, Balanoposthitis is also known as ( ) 78. Static / zero ejaculates are common in ( )

a Pizzle rot b Phallocampsis a Bull b Buffalo bull

c Rain bow d Crampiness c Stallion d Boar

69. Increased concentration of sperm is termed as ( ) 79. Prostitis is common in ( )

a Azoospermia b Polyzoospermia a Bull b Boar

c Teratozoospermia d Hyperspermia c Stallion d Dog

70. Seminal plasma is slightly alkaline in ( ) 80. Pederasty or rectal copulation as a vices is common in ( )

a Bull and Ram b Bull and Boar a Bull b Boar

c Ram and stallion d Boar and stallion c Stallion d Buck

71. Formatation of primary and secondary spermatocyte from type A spermatogonia is ( ) 81. An example of impotentia coeundi ( )

a Spermatocytogenesis b Spermateliosis a Rainbow penis b Testicular hypoplasia

c Spermiogenesis d Spermeation c Seminal vesiculitis d Orchitis

72. Normal volume of semen in boar is ( ) 82. Epididymal sperm transit period in bull is ( )

a 25-50 ml b 125-500 ml a 10 days b. 13 days

c 1-15 ml d 50-75 ml c 15 days d. 17 days

73. Sperm concentration in Ram semen is ( ) 83. The terminal part of penis contains several spines in ( )

a 2000-4000 million/ml b 800-1200 million/ml a. Dog b. Ram

c 200-400 million/ml d 100-150 million/ml c. Cat d. Boar

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84. Volume of French medium straw is ( ) 94. During A.I. with frozen semen, the most appropriate site for semen deposition is ( )
a 0.25 ml b. 0.50 ml a Anterior Vagina b Mid cervix
c. 0.75 ml d. 1.00 ml c Body of the uterus d Uterine horn
95. Optimum time for Artificial Insemination in cow is about ( )
85. The tight coiling of tail over mid piece of the sperm is termed as ( )
a Before onset of estrum b Early to mid estrum
a Diadem defect b. Cork screw
c Mid to late estrum d After the end of the estrum
c. Knobbed sperm d. Dag defect
96. Orchitis is the inflammation of ( )
86. Stretching of head and neck as post coital reaction is seen ( )
a Ovaries b Joints
a Bull b. Ram
c Testes d Penis
c. Buck d. Stallion
97. Scrotal circumference reflects ( )
87. A nuclear sperm defect is ( )
a Body weight b Capacity for sperm production
a Diadem defect b. Cork screw defect
c Thermoregulation d Hormone production
c. Knobbed sperm defect d. Dag defect
98. In impotentia generandi disorder of bulls, which of the following condition is not true ( )
88. A reversible testicular disorder ( )
a No sex drive b Low fertile
a Hypoplasia b. Fibrosis
c Testicular degeneration d Epididymitis
c. Atrophy d. Degeneration
99. Which of the following extender is commonly used for freezing of bull semen ( )
89. Veneral bacterial disease in which the bull act as symptomless carrier ( )
a Tris yolk glycerol extender b Coconut milk extender
a. Trichomoniasis b. Vibriosis
c Caprogen d Cornell University extender
c. Brucellosis d. All of the above
100. The conception rate of cattle in India by AI is about ( )
90. Temperature of thawing media for frozen semen ( )
a 40% b 70%
a. 37°c b. 50°c c 10% d 80%
c. 25°c d. 45°c
91. Dribblings in bull, before attempting a mount are secretions from ( )
a. Vesicular glands b. Cowper‘s gland
c. Prostate gland d. Ampulla
92. The most common testicular tumor in dog ( )
a. Sertoli cell tumor b. Interstitial cell tumors
c. Seminoma d. Melanoma
93. Active principle in egg yolk, which acts as an cryoprotective agent is ( )
a Phosphorus b Calcium
c Lecithin d Vitamins

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Answer key VETERINARY MICROBIOLOGY

Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Veterinary Virology
No. No. No. No.
1 b 26 c 51 a 76 c 1. FMD virus serotypes in India are
2 d 27 c 52 a 77 c a O, A and C c O, A, C, Asia1
3 b 28 c 53 d 78 b b O, A and Asia1 d O, A and SAT
4 c 29 d 54 c 79 d 2. EDS virus belongs to the genus
5 d 30 b 55 b 80 b a Aviadenovirus c Siadenovirus
6 c 31 b 56 c 81 a b Adenovirus d Atadenovirus
7 a 32 b 57 a 82 a 3. Ephemeral fever is also known as
8 d 33 c 58 b 83 c a 3-day fever c both a and b
9 d 34 b 59 a 84 b b Stiff sickness d none of the above
10 d 35 b 60 c 85 d 4. Severe vomition, grey foul-smelling diarrhea and gastro enteritis in pups are
11 a 36 d 61 c 86 b characteristics of
12 c 37 c 62 b 87 a a Parvo virus infection c Infectious canine hepatitis
13 d 38 b 63 c 88 d b Canine distemper d Rabies
14 b 39 b 64 c 89 b 5. Rabies virus belongs to the genus
15 d 40 c 65 b 90 a a Vesiculovirus c Adenovirus
16 c 41 a 66 a 91 b b Lyssavirus d Novirhabdovirus
17 c 42 c 67 a 92 b 6. New castle Disease virus can be isolated in embryonated chicken eggs by which
18 d 43 d 68 a 93 c route of inoclulation
19 b 44 c 69 b 94 c a CAM c yolk sac
20 b 45 a 70 d 95 c b amniotic d allantoic
21 c 46 d 71 a 96 c 7. Pump handle respiration is a typical clinical sign observed in
22 b 47 d 72 b 97 b a Infectious larygotracheitis c Infectious bronchitis
23 a 48 d 73 a 98 a b Avian influenza d New castle Disease
24 a 49 a 74 c 99 a 8. Herpes virus of turkey is used as a vaccine for
25 c 50 c 75 a 100 a a Marek‘s disease c IBR
b ILT d none of the above
9. Swine fever virus can be propagated in
a MDBK c primary pig kidney cells
b Vero d primary calf kidney cells
10. Big liver disease is caused in
a ILT c Avian leucosis complex
b MD d ND
11. Equine encephalitis virus belongs to the family
a Birnaviridae c Flaviviridae
b Togaviridae d Calciviridae
12. The following virus families have segmented genome
a Reoviridae c Bunyaviridae
b Birnaviridae d All the above
13. The following viruses are neurotrophic viruses
a Rabies virus c Both a & b
b Aujeszky‘s disease virus d None of the above

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14. ‗pol’ gene in retroviruses encode for 28. Cup shaped depressions are seen in the surface of
a Reverse transcriptase c Both a & b a Calcivirus c Picorna virus
b Integrase d None of the above b Togavirus d Parvovirus
15. The following cytopathic effects are seen in the PPR infection 29. Antigenic shift is more common in
a Acidophilic intracytoplasmic c Inclusion bodies both in a Orthomyxo viruses c Bunya viruses
inclusion body formation cytoplasm & in nucleus b Arena viruses d All the above
b Syncytial formation d All the above
16. Persistent infection is seen in 30. The following poxviruses are antigenically related except
a Equine infectious anaemia c Rinderpest
a Cowpox c Sheep pox
b Maedi-visna d a & b only
b Lumpy skin disease virus d Goat pox
17. Viruses having herring bone appearance of ribonucleoprotein
a African horse sickness c Equine infectious anaemia
b Equine influenza d None of the above
ANSWER KEYS
18. Lentogenic strain of Newcastle disease virus 1. c 13.a 25.b
a komorow c Hertz 2. d 14.a 26.b
b Milano d LaSota 3. a 15.b 27.c
19. An example of cubical symmetry virus 4. b 16.c 28.a
a Orthomyxoviridae c Paramyxoviridae
5. b 17.d 29.a
b Rhabdoviridae d Picorna viridae
6. b 18.c 30.b
20. Hard pad disease is caused by
7. a 19.a
a Morbilivirus c Parvovirus
b Adenovirus d rotavirus 8. a 20.a
21. Which of the following is the smallest virus? 9. c 21.d
a Coronaviridae c Toraviridae 10. c 22.a
b Arteriviridae d Circoviridae 11. c 23.d
22. Which of the following is not antigenically related to other three viruses? 12. d 24.c
a Rinderpest c Mumps
b Canine distemper virus d Measles
23. In which infection corneal opacity in dogs may develop?
a Canine distemper c Canine parvovirus
b Rabies d Infectious canine hepatitis
24. Which of the following is the vaccine strain of Infectious Bronchitis?
a Mukteswar strain c Massachusette strain
b LaSota d R2B
25. Which of the following is the biological vector in transmission of African swine
fever?
a Culicoides sp. c Both a and b
b Ornithodorus sp. d None of the above
26. Milker‘s nodule is caused by
a Capripox c Parapox
b Cowpox d Suipox
27. Predilection site for parvovirus is
a Bone marrow c Enteric epithelium
b Foetus d All the above

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General Veterinary Microbiology and Immunology 14. The media contains agar at a concentration of 0.2-0.5 percent is called
a) Liquid media b) Solid media c) Semisolid media d) None
. 1. The largest immunoglobulin molecule
15. An epidemic disease condition affecting a large geographical area or
a) Ig E b) Ig D c) Ig M d) Ig A
often on a global scale
0 a) Epidemic b) Endemic c) Sporadic d) Pandemic
2. The bacteria which grow best at temperature 70 C is called as
a) Mesophiles b) Thermophiles c) Hyperthermophiles d) Halophiles
16. The organism lives on the host without causing any disease.
a) Saprophytis b) Commensalism c) Symbiosis d) Parasitism
3. The bacteria require low level of oxygen for growth is known as
17. Presence of toxins in blood
a) Aerobes b) Anaerobes c) Microaerophiles d) Obligate anaerobes
a) Bacteraemia b) Septicaemia c) Toxaemia d) Anemia
4. Who discovered first antibiotic penicillin
a) Ignaz Semmelweis b) Alexander Fleming c) Paul Ehrlich d) Gerd Binnig
18. The percentage of Peptidoglycan in gram positive bacterial cell wall
5. Cells divide in one plane and remain attached predominantly in pairs.
a) 80% b) 10% c) 20% d) 5%
a) Tetracocci b) Diplococci c) Streptococci d) Gerd Binnig
19. Mutations involving one or very few base pairs
6. Cells are lined up side by side like match sticks and at angles
a) Point mutation b) missense mutation c) nonsense mutation d) silent
to one another
mutation
a) Streptobacilli b) Trichomes c) Palisade d) Diplobacilli
20. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another with a help
7. Bacteria with less than one complete twist or turn are called
of bacteriophage (Bacterial virus ) is known as
a) Spirochetes b)Mycelia c) Spirilla d) vibrioid
a) Recombination b) Transformation c) Transduction d) Conjugation
8. Endospores can be stained by
21. The media used for isolation of fungi are
a) Schaffer-Fulton stain b) grams stain c) Acid fast stain d) None
a) Malt agar b) Potato dextrose agar
c) Sabouraud‘s dextrose agar d) All the above
9. Which bacterial growth phase the cells are dividing regularly by binary
fission and cell numbers increase in geometric progression.
22. Wood lamp uses which rays for identification of fungus in the hair
a) Lag Phase b) log phase c) Stationary phased) Decline Phase
a) IR rays b) UV rays c) Both a and b d) None
10. Bacteria that require low level (5-10%) carbon dioxide for growth.
23. Bacteria are measured in terms of
a) Aerobic b) Anaerobic c) Microaerophilic d) Capinophilic
a) Millimeter b) Meter c) Micrometer d) Nanometer
11. Salt loving bacteria are called
24. Virus structure can be studied by
a) Acidophiles b) osmophile c) Halophile d) xerophile
a) Light microscope b) Electron microscope c) Fluorescent microscope d) None
12. Bacteria that that utilise light as energy source
25. The movement of bacteria directed towards or away from chemical
a) chemotrophs b) chemolithotrophs c) phototroph d)
compounds are known as
chemoorganotrophs
a) Phototaxis b) Chemotaxis c) Magnetotaxis d) All the above
13. The total energy yield from complete oxidation of glucose is
26. The protein coat that covers the nucleic acid of the infectious
a) 24 ATP b) 38 ATP c) 18 ATP d) 6 ATP
virus particle is known as
a) Virion b) Viriod c) Capsomere d) Capsid

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General Veterinary Microbiology and Immunology
27. Plasmids that contain genes that code for antibiotic resistance. .
a) Colicinogenic factors b) Fertility factor c) Resistance factor d) None 1. Club colony formation is seen in
28. The specialized convoluted invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane a. Botyromycosis b. Arcanobacterium pyogenes
and is more prominent in Gram-negative bacteria.
a) Ribosomes b) Mesosomes c) Magnetosomes d) Nucleosome c. Actinomyces bovis d. Both a and b
2. Exudative epidemitis of pig is caused by
29. The enzyme involved in replication of bacterial DNA is/are
a) DNA polymerase b) DNA helicase c) Both a and b d) None a. S.aureus b. S.hyicus

30. The ability of viruses to agglutinate RBC is known as c. S.intermedius d. S.epidermitidis

a) Haemagglutination b) Haemadsorption c) Haemolysis d) Haemoptysis
3. For decontamination of specimen to eliminate fast growing bacteria to isolate
ANSWER KEYS M.bovis
1. c 13.a 25.b
a. 2-4 % sodium hydroxide b. 1% Sodium carbonate
2. b 14.b 26.d
3. c 15.d 27.c c. 3% phenol d. 2.5% glutaraldehyde
4. b 16.b 28.b
5. b 17.c 29.a 4. Ascoli test is used to diagnose
6. c 18.a 30.b
a. Anthrax b. Brucellosis
7. c 19.b
8. a 20.d c. Mastitis d. Wingrot
9. b 21.c
10. d 22.b 5. Swarming of agar plates is by
11. c 23.c
a. Proteus spp b. Staphylococcus spp
12. c 24.b
c. Streptococcus spp d. E.coli
6. Candida albicans is the causative agent for
a. Thrush b. Woolsorters disease
c. Ringworm psoriasis d. Weils disease
7. Bipolar appearance of organisms is specific for
a. Pasteuralla spp b. Brucella spp
c. E.coli d. Mycobacterium spp
8. The zebra markings in large intestine of affected animals are noticed in

a. Johne‘ s disease b. SMEDI

c. PPR d. FMD

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9. Myocarditis in young calves noticed in 22. Among the following which is coagulase producing organism?
a. FMD b .Blue Tongue (a) Streptococcus (b) Enterococcus (c) Staphylococcus (d) Micrococcus
c. Tuberculosis d. Calf scour
23. Among the following which one is string test positive and non-motile?
10. The media used for isolation of fungi are (a) E.coli (b) Klebsiella (c) Enterobacter aerogenes (d) Proteus
a) Malt agar b) Potato dextrose agar
24. Diamond skin disease is caused by
c) Sabouraud‘s dextrose agar d) All the above
(a) Enterobacter aerogenes (b) Proteus (c) Erysipelas (d) Enterococcus

11.Living together of two or more species of organisms for mutual 25. Lumpy jaw can be diagnosed by direct examination of
benefit is called as (a) Sulphur granules b) Grayish-white granules (c) Silver granules (d) None of the above
a) Commensals b) Symbiosis c) Antibiosis d) Parasitism
26. Which among the following can be used to demonstrate fungal elements in tissue
12. Rhizoids are root like structures in fungus produced by sections?
(a) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) (b) Gram staining (c) Modified Ziehl-neelsen
a) Rhizopus b) Mucor c) Absidia d) All
(d) India ink
13. Fungal media should have the following properties to promote the fungal growth 27. The caseous lympadenitis in sheep is caused by
than bacterial growth (a) Mycoplasma gallisepticum (b) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
(a) Medium sugar with neutral pH (b) High sugar with alkali pH (c) C.renale (d) Aspergillus flavus
(c) Low sugar with acidic pH (d) High sugar with acidic pH
28.Bovine farcy is caused by
14. Hjarre‘s disease in poultry is caused by (a) A.bovis (b) A.lignerisi c) N.farcinica (d) None of the above
(a) Salmonella pullorum (b) E.coli (c) Pseudomonas d) Salmonella gallinarum
29.Pasteurella multocida type A causes
15. Lumpy jaw in cattle is caused by (a) Fowltyphoid (b) Infectious coryza (c) Fowlcholera (d) None of the above
(a) Actinobacillus lignieresi (b) Actinomyces bovis (c) Salmonella
(d) E.coli 30. Sleepy foal disease is caused by
(a) A.equli (b) C.novyi type B (c) Listeria (d)All the above
16. Clostridium perfringens type D in lambs and kids cause
(a) Pulpy kidney disease (b) Lamsiekte (c) Limber neck (d) Braxy 31.In gelatin stab culture E.rhusiopathiae produce growth of
(a) Inverted fir tree appearance (b) darkegg yolk appearance(c) bottle brush appearance
17. Chinese letter or Cuneiform arrangement is characteristic of (d) All of the above
(a) Cryptococcus (b) Pseudomonas (c) Corynebacteria (d) Salmonella
32. Isolation of Listeria require a process called
18. Shiga like toxins cause a disease in pigs called (a) Salt enrichment (b) Heat enrichment (c) Cold enrichment(d)All of the above
(a) Diamond skin disease (b) Odema disease (c) Dysentery (d) Pulpy kidney disease
33.Braxy in sheep is caused by
19. Biovin antigen of Salmonella is called as (a) Cl.hemolyticum (b)Cl.septicum(c) Cl.chauvoei(d)All the above
(a) H antigen (b) Vi antigen (c) O antigen d) F antigen 34.The only live spore vaccine for animal bacterial disease used isfor
20. Among the following which one is non capsulated and motile (a) Anthrax (b)Rabies(c) Enterotoxaemia(d) Black quarter
(a) E.coli (b) Cl.tetani (c) Cl.perfringens (d) Cl.botulinum 35.A tuft of flagella present at one end of bacteria is called as
(a) Amphitrichous (b) Lophotrichous(c) Peritrichous (d) Atrichous
21. Which among the following is lactose non-fermenter 36. Father of Bacteriology is
(a) Citrobacter (b) Enterobacter aerogenes (c) Salmonella (d) E.coli (a) Antony Van Leewenhock (b) Loius Pasteur (c) Metchinicoff(d) Lister

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37. The word ending for order of a family in bacterial classification is called as VETERINARY PARASITOLOGY

(a) ales (b) oid (c) eles(d) caea

General Parasitology and Veterinary Helminthology
38. A strain with special biochemical or physiological properties is called as

(a) serovar (b)pathovar(c) biovar(d) phagewar 1. In Dicrocoelium dendriticum, egg hatches inthe
a) Water
39. The DNA is associated at one point with an invagination of cell membrane is called
b) Definitive host
a) mesosome b) phagosome c) chondroitin d) mitochondria c) Intermediate host
d) Soil
40. In pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae), the techoic acids bears the antigenic
2. Laying of leathery eggs in chicken is associatedwith
determinants
a) Heterakisgallinarum
a) Frossman antigen b)Heterophile antigen c)Multi antigen d) antigenic membrane b) Raillietinaspp.
c) Prosthogonimusspp.
d) Syngamustrachea.
ANSWER KEYS
1. a 13.b 25.a 37.a 3. The secondary complication of acute fasciolosis in sheepis
2. b 14.b 26.a 38.c a) Enterotoxaemia
3. d 15.b 27.b 39.a b) Black disease
4. a 16.a 28.c 40.a
5. a 17.c 29.c c) Foot rot
6. a 18.a 30.a d) Blue tongue
7. a 19.b 31.c
8. a 20.a 32.c 4. The metacercaria of Fasciolopsis buski foundin
9. a 21.a 33.b a) Water chest nuts
10. c 22.c 34.a
11. a 23.b 35.b b) Leaves of waterplants
12. c 24.c 36.a c) Grass blades
d) Water melons
5. An amphistome found in the liver is
a) Gigantocotyleexplanatum
b) Gastrothylaxspp.
c) Paramphistomumcervi
d) Cotylophoranspp.
6. Traumatic hepatitis in lambs occurin
a) Acute fasciolosis

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 QUESTION BANK 2020 QUESTION BANK 2020
b) Amphistomosis b) Raillietinatetragona
c) Cysticercustenuicolis c) Amoebotaeniasphenoides
d) a andc d) Cotugniadigonopora

13. Anal pruritus in dog is caused by

7. The cercaria of Schistosomes is called as
a) Dipylidiumcaninum
a) Gymnocephaluscercaria
b) Echinococcusgranulosus
b) Xiphidiocercuscercaria
c) Taeniahydatigena
c) Furcocercuscercaria
d) Taeniamulticeps
d) Lobocercuscercaria
14. Intermediate host of Dipylidium caninumis
8. The mode of infection in Schistosomosis is
a) Dog flea
a) Skin penetration by cercaria
b) Hippoboscamaculata
b) Ingestion of metacercaria along withfeed
c) Demodex spp.
c) Ingestion of infected intermediatehost
d) Rhipicephalussanguineous
d) None of the above.
15. Neurocysticercosis in man is caused by
9. Lambs infected with Moniezia spp. are predisposesto
a) Hydatid cyst
a) Enterotoxaemia
b) Cysticercuscellulosae
b) Black disease
c) Cysticercusbovis
c) Black Quarter
d) Coenuruscerebralis
d) Johne‘s disease
16. Hepatitis cysticercosa in lambs is caused by
10. A cestode which causing nodules in the small intestine of sheepis
a) Cysticercustenuicolis
a) Monieziaexpansa
b) Cysticercusovis
b) Monieziabenedeni
c) Strobilocercus
c) Stilesiaglobipunctata
d) Coenuruscerebralis
d) Avitellinaspp.
17. Gid in sheep is caused by
11. The most pathogenic cestode of poultryis
a) Hydatid cyst
a) Raillietinaechinobothridia
b) Coenuruscerebralis
b) Davaineaproglottina
c) Cysticercustenuicolis
c) Choanotaeniainfundibulum
d) Tetrathyridium
d) Cotugniadigonopora
18. ‗Milk spots‘ in the liver of swine is causedby
12. Nodular taeniasis in poultry is caused by
a) Ascaris suum
a) Raillietinaechinobothridia

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b) Stephanurusdentatus b) Trichostrongylusaxei
c) Macrocanthorhyncushirudinaceus c) Nematodirusspathiger
d) Metastrongyluselongates d) Dictyocaulusfilarial
19.Anal pruritus in horse is caused by 25.A fungus which play a major role in the dissemination (spreading) of lung
a) Oxyuris equi
worm larvae on to the pastureis
b) Strongylus vulgaris
a) Pilobolusspp.
c) Habronemaspp.
b) Arthrobotrysoligospora
d) Anoplocephalaperfoliata
c) Duddingtoniaflagrans
20.The largest poultry nematode is
d) Baevariaspp.
a) Syngamustrachea
26.The intermediate host of Metastrongylus elongatusis
b) Ascaridiagalli
a) Earthworm
c) Capillariaannulata
b) Slug
d) Tetrameresspp.
c) Snail
21. AhormoneresponsibleforactivationofdormantlarvaeinToxocara
spp is d) Grasshopper

a) Follicular stimulating hormone 27.In Swine, introduction of swine influenza virus is associatedwith
b) Prolactin a) Stephanurusdentatus
c) Oxytocin b) Strongyloidesspp.
d) Adrenalin c) Metastrongyluselongatus
22.In sheep, introduction of ―foot rot‖ organism is associatedwith d) Macrocanthorhyncus spp.
a) Bunostomumtrigonocephalum 28.Habronema spp in horse iscausing
b) Oesophagostomumcolumbianum a) Summer sore
c) Strongyloidespapillosus b) Hump sore
d) Dictyocaulusfilaria c) Kumri
23.A nematode that associated with nodule formation in the intestine of d) Haemorrhagic nodules
buffalo is 29.Eye worm of cattleis
a) Oesophagostomumradiatum a) Thelaziarhodesii
b) Paracooperianodulosa b) Thelaziacallipaeda
c) Trichostrongyluscolubriformis c) Setariadigitata
d) Ostertagiaostertagi d) Setariacervi
24.Self cure phenomenon in sheep is associatedwith 30.Oesophageal tumour in dog is associatedwith
a) Haemonchuscontortus a) Dirofilariaimmitis
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b) Ancylostomacaninum b) Parafilariaspp.
c) Spirocercalupi c) Onchocerca spp.
d) Dioctophymarenale d) Setariaspp.
31.Haemorrhagic nodules on the skin of cattle is dueto 37.Nutrition and handling of waste products of larval
stage of Trichinella spiralis is governed by
a) Parafilariabovicola
a) NK cells
b) Onchocercagutturosa
b) Nursecells
c) Stephanofilariaassamensis
c) Flamecells
d) Hypodermaspp
d) Antigen presenting cells
32. Cerebrospinal nematodiasis in horse is causedby
38.Whip worm of Sheepis
a) Thelaziarhodesii
a) Oxyuris spp.
b) Habronemaspp.
b) Mecistocirrusdigitatus
c) Parafilariabovicola
c) Trichurisovis
d) Setariadigitata
d) Cysticercusovis
33. ―Hump sore‖ in cattle is caused by
39.Pin worm of equineis
a) Stephanofilariaassamensis
a) Oxyuris equi
b) Parafilariabovicola
b) Strongylusvulgaris
c) Stephanofilariazaheeri
c) Strongylusequi
d) Stephanofilariastilesi
d) Gastrophilusequi
34.Verminous dermatitis or Cascado is caused by
a) Stephanofilariaspp. 40.Visceral larva migrans in humans is caused by larva of
b) Onchocercaspp. a) Ancylostoma caninum
c) Setariaspp. b) Toxocara canis
d) Parafilariaspp. c) Habronema majus
d) Dirofilaria immitis
35.The intermediate host of Dracunculus medinensisis
41.Thorny headed worm of swineis
a) Cyclops
a) Ascaris suum
b) Crab
b) Macrocanthorhyncushirudinaceus
c) Snail
c) Stephanurusdentatus
d) Slugs
d) Metastrongyluselongates
36.Worm nest in cattle is caused by
a) Stephanofilariaspp.

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42.Trichinella spiralis cyst can be detected by using (A) Paratenic host
a) Phase contrast microscope (B) Transport host
(C) Definitive host
b) Fluorescent microscope (D) Intermediate host
c) Trichinoscope 48.A parasite, which parasitizes the host which is not its actual definitive
host is called
d) Stethoscope
(A) Incidental parasite
43.Temporary relationship between two organisms, wherein (B) Stenoxenous parasite
one organism transports
(C) Obligatory parasite
a) Symbiosis b) mutualism (D) Periodic parasite
c) phoresy d) commensalism 49.An organism which derives benefits from the host, but the host experiences
neither benefited nor harmed is called as
(A) Parasite
44.Immunity to superinfection due to the presence of residual parasite is termed
a) acquired immunity (B) Commensal
b) innate immunity (C) Symbiont
c) premunity (D) Mutualist
d) sterile immunity
50.The association between Sea anemone and crabs is an example for
45. A parasite which lead a parasitic way of life only for a short period during its (A) Symbiosis
life span is (B) Parasitism
(C) Mutualism
a) temporary parasite (D) Commensals
b) aberrant parasite
c) obligatory parasite
d) permanent parasite Answers (General and Vet. Helminthology):
45.The host which transfers the infective agent without any development in its
body is called as
1. C 11. B 21.B 31.A 41. B
(A) Paratenic host
2. C 12. A 22.C 32.D 42. C
(B) Transport host
3. B 13. A 23.B 33.A 43. C
(C) Intermediate host
4. A 14. A 24.A 34.A 44. C
(D) Reservoir host
5. A 15. B 25.A 35.A 45. B
6. C 16. A 26.A 36.C 46. B
46.An organism which parasitized an organ which is not its natural habitat
7. C 17. B 27.C 37.B 47. A
(A) Incidental parasite
8. A 18. A 28.A 38.C 48. A
(B) Ectopic/Aberrant/Erratic parasite
9. A 19. A 29.A 39.A 49. B
(C) Accidental parasite
10. C 20. B 30.C 40.B 50. C
(D) Occasional parasite

47.Host which harbours larval stages of parasite often encapsulated or encysted

in its tissue and remains infective to definitive host without any further
development is called as

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Veterinary Entomology and Veterinary Protozoology c) Dipylidium caninum
d) Oncicola canis
1. Fly species having piercing and sucking type of mouthparts, humped thorax and
reported from Nilgiris and Palani hills of Tamil Nadu is
10. Which one among these is a CORRECT MATCH ?
a) Culicoides b) Simulium c) Glossina d) Pseudolynchia
a) Bots - Gasterophilus larva, Grub - Hypoderma larva, Nits - lice eggs, seed tick -
larva of tick
2. ‗Stick tight flea‘ affecting poultry
b) Bots - Gasterophilus larva, Grub - Hypoderma larva, Nits - lice eggs, seed tick -
a) Lipeurus caponis b) Echidnophaga gallinacea c) Xenopsylla cheopis d) Tunga
adult tick
penetrans
c) Bots - Hypoderma larva, Grub - Gasterophilus larva, Nits - tick eggs, seed tick -
larva of tick
3. Which among the following statements is FALSE ?
d) Bots - Hypoderma larva, Grub - Gasterophilus larva, Nits - tick eggs, seed tick -
a) only female mosquitoes suck blood from humans
adult tick
b) Simulium flies lay eggs usually in streams/ running water
c) both male and female Phlebotomus flies suck blood from humans
11. Which fly can pass through the commercially available mosquito nets?
d) both male and female Stomoxys flies suck blood from horses
a) Melophagus ovinus b) Hippobosca maculata
c) Haematobia irritans d) Culicoides fulvithorax
4. Tritrichomonas foetus infection in cattle leads to
a) abortion at early stage of gestation
12. Larval stages of ticks will have
b) abortion at mid stage of gestation
a) 2 pairs of legs b) 3 pairs of legs c) 4 pairs of legs d) legs are absent
c) abortion at last stage of gestation
d) birth of calf with defective limbs
13. Protozoan parasite transmitted by crop milk to young pigeons
a) Histomonas meleagridis b) Tetratrichomonas gallinarum
5. Which among the following statements is TRUE ?
c) Trichomonas gallinae d) Cryptosporidium meleagridis
a) Histomonas meleagridis transmitted through eggs of Heterakis gallinarum
b) Blue tongue virus is transmitted by Culex mosquito
14. Which of the following is a bilaterally flattened parasite ?
c) Nymphal stages are absent in life cycle of ticks
a) Lice b) Flea c) Tick d) Mite
d) Mule‘s operation is done for control of ticks in sheep
15. ‗Red mange‘is caused by
6. Which is the CORRECT order of veins in wing venation of insects ?
a) Notoedres cati b) Demodex canis
a) costal vein, subcostal vein, cubital vein, radial vein, median vein, anal vein
c) Sarcoptesscabiei d) Psoroptes cuniculi
b) costal vein, subcostal vein, cubital vein, median vein, radial vein, anal vein
c) costal vein, subcostal vein, radial vein, median vein, cubital vein, anal vein
16. ‗Long nosed cattle louse‘ is
d) costal vein, subcostal vein, median vein, radial vein, cubital vein, anal vein
a) Haematopinus suis b) Solenoptes capilatus
c) Damalinia ovis d) Linognathus vituli
7. ‗Scaly leg‘ condition in fowl is caused by
a) Cnemidocoptes gallinae
17. ‗Green bottle blow fly‘ is
b) Cnemidocoptes pilae
a) Musca autumnalis b) Lucilia cuprina c) Sarcophaga d) Haematobia irritans
c) Cnemidocoptes mutans
d) Dermanyssus gallinae
18. Hard tick resembling the seed of castor beans, so called as ‗castor bean tick‘ is
a) Ixodes ricinus b) Dermacentor variabilis
8. Second pair of wings of insects are modified into balancing structures called as
c) Amblyomma hebraeum d) Hyalomma anatolicum anatolicum
a) Halters b) Sclerites c) Pulvillus d) Sensilium
19. Buparvaquone is the drug of choice for
9. A pentastomid group ‗Tongue worm‘ present in nasal passage of dogs is
a) Ehrlichiosis b) Babesiosis c) Theileriois d) Toxoplasmosis
a) Linguatula serrata
b) Spirocerca lupi

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20. ‗PIRODOG‘ is a vaccine available and used for 31. Haemoproteus coloumbae in pigeons is transmitted by
a) Ehrlichiosis in dogs b) Babesiosis in dogs a) Dermanyssus gallinae b) Stomoxys calcitrans
c) Sarcystis cruzi in dogs d) Toxoplasmosis in dogs c) Pseudolynchia canariensis d) Cnemidocoptes mutans

21. Blood protozoan parasite transmitted through ingestion of ticks orally by dogs 32. Caecal coccidiosis in poultry is caused by
a) Babesia canis b) Eperythrozoon canis c) Hepatozoon canis d) Sarcocystis a) Eimeria brunetti b) Eimeria necatrix
bovicanis c) Eimeria acervulina d) Eimeria tenella

22. Wet film examination of blood helps in diagnosis of 33. East coast fever in cattle is caused by
a) Trypanosoma evansi b) Microfilaria in blood a) Trypanosoma evansi b) Theileria annulata
c) Abnormal shaped RBCs in blood d) Both A and B c) Theileria parva d) Babesia bovis

23. Transovarian transmission occurs in case of 34. Transmission of Babesia bigemina in cattle through arthropod Boophilus annulatus
a) Babesiabigemina infection by Boophilus ticks tick was first identified by
b) Theileriaannulata infection by Hyalomma ticks a) Anton von Leeuwenhock b) Smith and Kilbourne
c) Anaplasma marginale infection by Haemaphysalis ticks c) Donovan d) J.P.Dubey
d) None of the above
35. Which is a Romanowsky‘s stain among these ?
24. Zoonotic protozoan parasite transmitted from cats to pregnant woman is a) Leishman‘s stain b) Wright‘s stain
a) Trypanosoma evansi b) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Giemsa‘s stain d) All the above
c) Toxoplasmagondii d) Isospora felis
36. Which is CORRECT statement with respect to Eimeria sp.?
25. Theileria annulata in cattle is transmitted by tick a) Oocyst contains 4 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites
a) Hyalomma analoticum anatolicum b) Boophilus (Rhipicephalus) b) Oocyst contains 2 sporocysts each with 4 sporozoites
microplus c) Oocyst contains 2 sporocysts each with 2 sporozoites
c) Argas persicus d) Ornithodoros savignyi d) Oocyst contains 4 sporozoites with no sporocysts

26. First identified protozoan parasite by Anton von Leeuwenhoeck is 37. ‗Dalmeny disease‘ in cattle is associated with
a) Trypanasoma evansi b) Eimeria stiedae a) Eimeria zuernii b) Eimeria bareillyi
c) Neospora caninum d) Trypanosoma lewici c) Sarcocystis bovicanis d) Sarcocystis bovihominis

27. NNN medium used for in vitro cultivation of 38. Anaplasmamarginale in cattle is transmitted through
a) Leishmania donovanii b) Trypanosomacruzi a) Mechanical transmission by biting vectors b)Blood transfusion
c) Trypanosoma theileri d) All the above c) Needle transmission d) All the above

28. Intracellular, extracytoplasmic protozoan parasite causing villus atrophy 39. Morula stage of Ehrlichia canis is seen in
a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Cryptosporidiumparvum a) RBC b) Small lymphocyte c) Eosinophil d) Monocyte
c) Leishmania donovanii d) Giardia lamblia
40. ‗Sabin-Feldman dye test‘ is used for diagnosis of
29. Rakshavac-T used as vaccine in cattle for a) Entamoeba histolytica b) Toxoplasma gondii
a) Babesiabigemina b) Theileriaannulata c) Anaplasma marginale d) All the above c) Giardia lamblia d) Plasmodium falciparum

30. Equine trypanosome species transmitted by coitus is 41. TICKGARD vaccine is prepared by using
a) Trypanosoma evansi b) Trypanosoma equiperdum a) Chitin of Boophilusmicroplus
c) Trypanosoma equinum d) All the above b) BM86 antigen of Boophilusmicroplus
c) Chitin of Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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d) BM86 antigen of Haemaphysalis intermedia Answers (Vet.Entomology and Vet. Protozoology):

42. ‗Gall sickness‘ is associated with disease caused by 1. B 21. C 41. B

a) Anaplasma marginale in cattle b) Babesia bovis in cattle
2. B 22. D 42. A
c) Eimeria stiedae in rabbit d) Theileria parva in cattle
3. C 23. A 43. D
43. ‗Koch blue bodies‘ are 4. A 24. C 44. D
a) Piroplasms of Theileria annulata in RBC 5. A 25. A 45. C
b) Schizonts of Theileria annulata in RBC 6. C 26. B 46. B
c) Piroplasms of Theileria annulata in lymphocyte 7. C 27. D 47. B
d) Schizonts of Theileria annulata in lymphocyte 8. A 28. B 48. C
9. A 29. B 49. D
44. Diminazine aceturate (Berenil) is used in the treatment of
a)Babesiosis b) Theileriosis 10. A 30. B 50. D
c) Trypanosomosis d) All the above 11. D 31. C
12. C 32. D
45. ‗Tropical canine pancytopenia‘ is associated with 13. C 33. C
a) Babesia gibsoni b) Babesia canis 14. B 34. B
c) Ehrlichia canis d) Ehrlichia bovis 15. B 35. D
16. D 36. A
46. Solution 2.5% potassium dichromate is used for
a) Staining of intestinal Giardia 17. B 37. C
b) in vitro sporulation of Eimeria oocysts 18. A 38. D
c) in vitro cultivation of Entamoeba 19. C 39. D
d) Clearing agent for ticks 20. B 40. B

47. Modified ZN staining is used for staining of

a) oocystsof Eimeria b)oocysts of Cryptosporidium
c) oocysts of Isospora d) oocysts of Toxoplasma gondii

48. Winter coccidiosis in calves is mainly caused by

a) Eimeria canadensis b) Eimeria bareillyi
c) Eimeria zuernii d) Eimeria necatrix

49. Dipylidium caninum in dogs is transmitted by

a) Ctenocephalides canis b) Trichodectes canis
c) Ctenocephalides felis d) All the above

50. Melophagus ovinus fly is commonly known as

a) Bazaar fly b) Sheep cleg c) Nasal bot d) Sheep ked

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VETERINARY PATHOLOGY C . Stiff lamb disease D . Glycogen infiltration
15 Tuberculosis is the best example for
1 Exudate is characterised by A . Coagulative necrosis B . Caseation necrosis
A. Alkaline Ph B. Protein content <3% C . Liquefaction necrosis D . Fat necrosis
C. Clear watery fluid D. High leucocyte count 16 Macrophages of brain are called
2 Vesicles in foot and mouth disease are an example of A . Histiocytes B . Astrocytes
A. Hydropic degeneration B. Mucinous degeneration C . Microglia D . Schwann cells
C. Mucoid degeneration D. Parenchymatous degeneration 17 Diffuse spreading suppurative inflammation of connective tissue is called
3 Deposition of sand particles in lung is called A . Boil B . Abscess
A. Anthracosis B. Chalicosis C . Pustule D . Phlegmon/cellulitis
C. Silicosis D. Siderosis 18 ―Onion skin‖appearance of the blood vessel wall is seen in
4 Dystrophic calcification is characterized by A . Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis B . Hyaline arteriolosclerosis
A. Hypocalcaemia B. Normal calcium level in blood C . Aneurysm D .Atherosclerosis
C. Urate deposition D. Excessive growth of bones 19 Inflammation of gray matter in brain is known as
5 Obstructive jaundice occurs in A .Poliomyelitis B .Polioencephalitis
A. Anaplasmosis B. Leptospirosis C .Poliomalacia D . Leucomalacia
C. Gall stones D. Copper toxicity 20 The test used to diagnose the presence of protein in the CSF
6 Plasma cells are derived from A . Pandy‘s test B .Nonne-apelt test
A. Plasma B. Lymphocytes D . Benedict‘s test D . Both A & B
C. Bone marrow D. Macrophages 21 The test used to find out the presence of protein in the body fluid is
7 Cart wheel appearance of nucleus is a characteristic feature of A . Heller‘s test B .Hay‘s test
A . Plasma cell B . Lymphocytes C .Rothera‘s test D .Rivaltas test
C . Neutrophil D . Macrophages 22 The test used to find out the presence of protein in the urine is
8 Thrush breast heart is seen in A .Heller‘s test B .Hay‘s test
A . Amyloid degeneration B . Glycogen infiltration C .Rothera‘s test D .Rivaltas test
C . Hyropic degeneration D . Fatty infiltration 23 Presence of metachromatic granules are the charateristic features of
9 ―Basophilic stippling‖ of erythrocytes is encountered in A . Mast cell tumour B . TVT
A . Anaplasmosis B .Lead poisoning C . Melanoma D . All of the above
C . Haemonchosis D . All of the above 24 ―Fingerprint‖ appearance of tumour is seen in
10 ―White spotted kidney‖ is the pathological manifestation of A . Squamous cell carcinoma B . TVT
A . Diffuse interstitial nephritis B .Focal interstitial nephritis C . Haemangiopericytoma D .Basal cell carcinoma
C . Pyelonephritis D .Pyaemic nephritis 25 Cytoplasmic vacuolations are the charateristic feature of
11 ―Large white kidney‖ is the characteristic macroscopic lesion seen in A . Mast cell tumour B . TVT
A . Subacute glomerulonephritis B .Chronic glomerulonephritis C . Melanoma D . None of the above
C . Acute glomerulonephritis D .None 26 Pearls or cell nest is charateristic features of
12 ―Broken wind or heaves‖ is characteristic of A .Squamous cell carcinoma B .TVT
A . Acute alveolar emphysema B . Chronic alveolar emphysema C .Basal cell carcinoma D .Haemangiopericytoma
C . Interstitial emphysema D . None of the above 27 ―Rodent ulcer or Jacob‘s ulcer or hair matrix carcinoma‖ is otherwise called
13 ―Bread and butter‖ appearance of heart is A .Mast cell tumour B . Haemangiopericytoma
A . Fibrinous pericarditis B .Fibrinous peritonitis C .Squamous cell carcinoma D .Basal cell carcinoma
C . Both A and B D . None of the above 28 Mischief by killing or maiming is punished under
14 Fish flesh appearance of muscle is seen in A . IPC 428 & 429 B . IPC 420
A . Myonecrosis B . Fat infiltration C . IPC 415 D . IPC 430

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29 Sexual assault or Bestiality unnatural offence is punished under 43 Heart failure cells in lungs and ―Nut meg pattern‖ of liver are found in
A . Chronic general passive hyperemia B . Acute general passive hyperemia
A . IPC 326 B . IPC 377 C . Local passive hyperemia D . All of the above
C . IPC 415 D . IPC 430 44 Focal infiltration of amyloid material in spleen is called
30 Prevention of cruelty to animals act was found in A .Sago spleen B .Bacon spleen
A . 1959 B . 1960 C .Both A &B D . None of the above
C . 1961 D . 1962 45 Genearlised subcutaneous edema is called
31 The common preservative used for chemical examination of tissue samples A .Anaplasia B .Anasarca
C .Agenesis D .Apoplexy
A . Saturated salt solution B . 10% Formalin
46 Haemorrhage in brain is called
C .Mercuric chloride D . None of the above
32 Universal fixative for histopathology examination is A .Anaplasia B .Anasarca
A .40 % Formalin B . Saturated salt solution C .Agenesis D .Apoplexy
47 Gas gangrene occur in
C . 10% Formalin D .All of the above
33 Postmortem discolouration or staining of the carcass is A .Extremities B .Clostridial diseases
A .Algor mortis B .Livor mortis C .Lungs D .Intestine
C .Rigor mortis D .None of the above 48 The inflammation of spermatic cord is called
34 The wound caused by sharp cutting weapon is A .Orchitis B .Seminal vesiculitis
D .Balanitis D .Funiculitis
A .Incised wound B .Lacerated wound
C .Punctured wound D .Gunshot wound 49 The inflammation of crop is called
35 The wound caused by pointed object is A .Ingluvitis B .Proventricuitis
A .Incised wound B .Lacerated wound C .Ventriculitis D .None of the above
C .Punctured wound D .Gunshot wound 50 The inflammation of eyelids is called
A .Trichiasis B .Keratitis
36 Bishoping is punished under the section
A .IPC 428 & 429 B . IPC 420 C .Entropion D .Blepharitis
C . IPC 415 D . IPC 430 51 ―Cells of tripier/epitheliolisation‖ of lung is the feature of
37 Malicious poisoning and doping is punished under A .Interstitial pneumonia B .Bronchopneumonia
C .Interstitial emphysema D .Alveolar emphysema
A .IPC 428 & 429 B . IPC 420
52 The wear and tear pigment is called
C . IPC 415 D . IPC 430
38 Sale of noxious food or drink is punished under A .Lipochrome B .Melanin
A .IPC 273 B . IPC 271 C .Hemosiderin D .Bilirubin
53 The alteration in the size, shape and orientation of cells are the features of
C . IPC 274 D . IPC 275
39 False entry or false evidence is punished under A . Hypertrophy B .Metaplasia
A .IPC 192 & 193 B . IPC 204 C .Hyperplasia D .Dysplasia
C . IPC 415 D . IPC 420 54 Giant cells are arise from
40 Samples required for Nitrate/Nitrite poisoning is A .Macrophage B .Neutrophil
A .Liver, kidney and brain B . Stomach contents, liver and brain C .Lymphocyte C .Plasma cells
55 Air embolism causes
C .Serum in ice, Feed & water D . None of the above
41 The quantity of liver, intestinal & stomach contents required for chemical examination A . Caisson disease B .Brisket disease
A .100 g B .300 g C .Bottle jaw D .All the above
56 Father of modern/cellular pathology is
C .10 g D . 500-1000 g
A .John hunter B .Rudolf virchow
42 Arborization is the feature of
A .Burn injury B .Electrocution/lightening stroke C .Koch D .Ellie metchnikof
C .Drowning D .Doping

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57 The routine stain used for histopathological examination is 70 The characteristic finding in fowls affected with spirochaetosis is
A .Leishman stain B .Giemsa stain A. Severe splenomegaly B. Hepatomegaly
C .Lactophenol cotton stain D .Haematoxylin & Eosin stain C. Nephritis D. Cardiomegaly
58 The special stain used for demonstration of fat in tissues is/are 71 The organ frequently involved in Hjarre‘s disease is
A .Osmic acid B .Sudan red A. Lung B. Spleen
C .Oil red O D .All of the above C. Kidney D. Intestine
59 The special stain used for demonstration of iron is 72 Gizzard erosion is due to
A .Von kossa stain B .Koster stain A. Vitamin A deficiency B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C .Pearl‘s Prussian blue stain D . Sellers stain C. Zinc deficiency D. Vitamin C deficiency
60 The special stain used for demonstration of amyloid is 73 Facial oedema and foul smelling discharges are seen in
A .Periodic acid Schiff B .Congo red A. CRD B. Infectious coryza
C .Pearl‘s Prussian blue stain D . Alcian blue stain C. Infectious synovitis D. None
61 Bull‘s eye appearance of erythrocyte is 74 Zoonotic disease in chicken is
A .Drepanocye B .Target cll/codocyte A. Avian influenza B. Salmonellosis
C .Cabot ring D .Lead poisoning C. Chlamydiasis D. All of the above
62 The anticoagulant used for preservation of glucose is 75 ―Stargazing‖ is associated with deficiency of
A .Sodium fluoride B .EDTA A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B1
C .Heparin D .All of the above C. Vitamin B2 D. Folic acid
63 The diluting fluid used for platelet estimation is 76 The inclusions seen in hepatocytes of birds with IBH are
A .Haeyem‘s fluid B . Rees Ecker‘s fluid A. Intracytoplasmic B. Intranuclear
C .Thomas fluid D . Nambiar‘s fluid C. Both A and B D. None of the above
64 Miller‘s disease/Big head disease/Bran disease in horses is due to 77 Blue comb disease
A . Phosphorous deficiency B . Magnesium deficiency A. Favus B. Avian monocytosis
C . Phosphorous excess D . Magnesium excess C. Chicken infectious anemia D. Avian influenza
65 Goose stepping gait in pig is due to the deficiency of 78 Chicken infectious anemia is caused by
A . Folic acid B . Magnesium A. Birnavirus B. Adenovirus
C . Pyridoxine D . Pantothenic acid C. Coronavirus D. Circovirus
66 Proventriculus and gizzard junction haemorrhage is a typical lesion in 79 The site of choice for collection of material for diagnosis of infectious coryza is
A. Air sacs B. Trachea
A. IBD B. Ranikhet disease
C. Lungs D. Infraorbital sinus
C. Mycotoxins D. Avian Influenza 80 Crazy chick disease is due to deficiency of
67 Ecchymoses in shank is a characteristic lesion of A. Thiamine B. Vitamin E
A. Chicken infectious anemia B. IBD C. Riboflavin D. Vitamin A
81 The susceptible age of chicken for IBD is
C. Ranikhet disease D. Avian Influenza A. Less than a week B. 1- 2 weeks
68 Which one of the following is incorrect about lymphoid leukosis C. 2 -4 weeks D. Older birds
82 The replication of infectious bronchitis virus occurs in the tissues of
A. Caused by RNA virus B. It is neoplastic in origin
A. Respiratory tract B. Oviduct
C. Ovaries are rarely affected D. Nerves are frequently C. Kidney D. All
involved 83 Femoral head necrosis is associated with the deficiency of
69 Common form of cannibalism which results in anaemia is A. Molybdenum B. Selenium
A. Vent pecking B. Toe pecking C. Zinc D. Copper
C. Pica D. Feather pecking

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84 Round heart disease is associated with the deficiency of 98 Morbillivirus is not antigenically related to
A. Biotin B. Choline A. FMD in cattle B. Canine distemper
C. Selenium D. Magnesium C. PPR of sheep and goats D. Measles of humans
85 Bumble foot is caused by 99 Old dog encephalitis is otherwise called
A. Staphylococci B. Corynebacterium A. Rabies B. Canine Distemper
C. E.coli D. None of the above C. Infectious Canine Hepatitis D. Canine Parvo viral enteritis
86 The acute toxemic diseases of sheep that shows hyperglycemia and glycosuria are observed during 100 Icterus, anaemia, hemoglobunuria, abortion, petechiae on mucus membrane and demonstration of
A.Lock jaw B.Pulpy kidney disease/ Over eating disease organism in section by Levaditi‘s stain are diagnostic points for
C. PPR D. Both B and C A. Anaplasmosis B. IBRT
87 Perosis/ slipped tendon is observed in the deficiency of _________ in chicken C. Listeriosis D. Leptospirosis
A.Sulphur B.Manganese 101 Equine plague is otherwise called
C.Iron D.Copper A. African horse sickness B. Equine encephalomyelitis
88 Copper deficiency causes C. Swamp fever D. Strangles
A.Enzootic ataxia B.Azoturia 102 ―Onion skin‖ like appearance cross section of caseated mass in lymph node is noticed in -----------
C.Post parturient hemoglobinuria D.None of the above A. Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep B. Ulcerative lymphangitis
89 Canine filariasis is caused by C. A only correct D. A and B correct
A.Spirocerca lupi B.Dirofilaria immitis 103 Anaemia in Equine infectious anaemia is due to
C.Setaria digitata D. Eimeria spp. A. Direct lysis of RBC B. Erythrophagocytosis
90 The species that is considered as the amplifier host for FMD infection is C. Haemoglobin – haptoglobin complex removal D. All the above
A.Cattle B. Sheep 104 Feline panleukopenia virus replicates in
C.Goat D.Pig A. Labile cells B. Stable cells
91 Vitamin E deficiency in calves causes C. Permanent cells D. None of the above
A. Scurvy B. White muscle disease 105 Ascaris can cause
C. Haemorrhagic diathesis D. Chastek paralysis A. Milk spot liver B. Pipe stem liver
92 In Rabies, rhabdovirus is --------------but has an affinity toward ---------------------- gland C. Hepatocellular carcinoma D. Bile duct hyperplasia
A. Neurotropic and temporal B. Epitheliotropic and pituitary 106 The animal is least susceptible to tetanus
C. Neurotropic and salivary D. Neurotropic and pineal A. Cattle B. Chicken
93 In scrapie, ----------------- is the notable microscopic lesion C. Horse D. Dog
A. Neuronal necrosis B. Perivascular cuffing 107 Staphylococcus aureus in pigs causes
C. Vacuolation of neurons D. None of the above A. Greasy pig disease B. Glasser‘s disease
94 Brooder pneumonia in chicks is caused by C. Gut edema disease D. Aujeszky‘s disease
A. Trichophyton schoenleinii B. Microsporum gallinae 108 Ancylostomiasis in aberrant hosts causes dermatitis called as
C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. Candida spp. A. Creeping eruptions B. Visceral larva migrans
95 Para-pox virus causes C. Chonchre D. Lishman Donovon bodies
A. Cow pox B. Horse pox 109 Visceral larva migrans is characterized by
C. Contagious pustular dermatitis D. Vesicular stomatitis A. Eosinophilic granulomas B. Fibrinous pneumonia
96 Negri bodies are more commonly found in ------------portion of the brain in canine and -------------- C. Leishmonoid bodies D. Leishman- Donovan bodies
-portion of the brain in cattle 110 Presence of adult amphistomes in forestomach is
A. Hippocampus and cerebellum B. Cerebellum and Hippocampus A. Highly pathogenic B. Moderately pathogenic
C. Medulla and pons D. Pons and Medulla C. Non-pathogenic D. Mildly pathogenic
97 Sheep are found dead with oozing of dark coloured, tarry blood from the natural orifices in 111 Pseudorabies is also known as
A. Anthrax B. Blue tongue A. Aujeszky‘s disease B. Mad itch
C. sheep pox D. Anapalsmosis C. Infectious bulbar paralysis D. All of the above

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112 The characteristic lesion observed during Maedi infection is Keys:
A. Interstitial Pneumonia B. Demyelination
C. Haemorrhagic enteritis D. None of the above 1 D 21 D 41 D 61 B 81 B 101 A
113 Glanders is identified by 2 A 22 A 42 B 62 A 82 D 102 A
A. Strauss test B. Antony‘s test 3 C 23 A 43 A 63 B 83 A 103 D
C. Casoni‘s test D. Coggin‘s test 4 B 24 C 44 A 64 C 84 C 104 A
114 ―Rectal pinch‖ biopsy is helpful for the diagnosis of 5 C 25 B 45 B 65 D 85 A 105 A
A. Rinderpest B. Malignant catarrh fever 6 B 26 A 46 D 66 A 86 B 106 A
C. Johne‘s disease D. Tuberculosis 7 A 27 D 47 B 67 D 87 B 107 A
115 ―Diamond‖ shaped cutaneous lesions are the characteristic feature of 8 D 28 A 48 D 68 D 88 A 108 D
A. Swine influenza B. Swine erysipelas 9 D 29 B 49 A 69 A 89 B 109 A
C. Swine fever D. Porcine enzootic pneumonia 10 B 30 B 50 D 70 A 90 D 110 C
116 The other name for Brucellosis is/ are 11 A 31 A 51 A 71 D 91 B 111 D
A. Mediterranean fever B. Malta fever 12 B 32 C 52 A 72 B 92 C 112 A
C. Bang‘s disease D. All 13 A 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 C 113 A
117 The symptoms manifested in the bovine babesiosis is/ are 14 C 34 A 54 A 74 D 94 C 114 C
A. Haemoglobinuria B. Icterus 15 B 35 C 55 A 75 B 95 C 115 B
C. Haemolysis D. All 16 C 36 B 56 B 76 B 96 A 116 D
118 Weil‘s disease is otherwise called 17 D 37 A 57 D 77 B 97 A 117 D
A. Leptospirosis B. Listeriosis 18 A 38 A 58 D 78 D 98 A 118 A
C. Pasteurellosis D. Brucellosis 19 B 39 A 59 C 79 D 99 B 119 C
119 Punched out ulcers in the abomasum is characteristic lesion of 20 D 40 C 60 B 80 B 100 D 120 B
A. Trypanasomiasis B. Babesiosis
C. Theileriosis D. Toxoplasmosis
120 Tigroid heart is the characteristic lesion of
A. Vesicular stomatitis B. Foot and Mouth disease
C. Vesicular exanthema D. Rinderpest

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VETERINARY PHARMACOLOGY 11) Which class of antiarrhythmic agents act by blocking calcium channel
a) Class I b) Class II
1) Morphine is obtained from c) Class III d) Class IV
a) Papaver somniferum b) Atropa belladona 12) Isotonic dextrose solution contains
c) Areca catechu d) Hyoscyamus niger a) 2.5% dextrose b) 5% dextrose
2) The renal elimination of the drug is favoured by c) 7.5% dextrose d) 10 % dextrose
a) Protein bound b) High lipid solubility 13) The following drugs are antimotility drugs, except;
c) Non-ionized form d) High water solubility a) Codeine b) Bisacodyl
3) If the total amount of a drug present in the body is 2000 mg and its plasma c) Diphenoxylate d) Loperamide
concentration is 25 μg/ml, its volume of distribution is 14) One of the following is the therapeutic response with digitalis
a) 100 L b) 80 L a) Increased heart rate b) Increased end diastolic pressure
c) 60 L d) 40 L c) Increased blood volume d) Increased force of myocardial contraction
15) The following are anterior pituitary hormones, except;
4) Drug induced teratogenicity is
a) Prolactin b) Oyxtocin
a) Drug causing cancer b) Drug causing genetic material abnormalities
c) Follicle stimulating d) Thyroid stimulating hormone
c) Drug causing foetal d) Veterinarians induced diseases hormone
abnormalities 16) The following characteristic of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution
5) Vitamin with antioxidant properties include a) High lipid solubility b) Low ionisation of drug
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin A c) High plasma protein d) High tissue binding
c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin E binding
17) Secretory product of plant source of drug is
6) Which one of the following is an antiemetic
a) Gum b) Alkaloid
a) Apomorphine b) Copper sulphate
c) Saponin d) Glycosides
c) Sodium chloride d) Metoclopromide
18) Active transport of a substance across biological membranes has the following
7) Calcium homeostasis in the body is regulated by, except
characteristics, except;
a) Calcitonin b) Insulin
a) It is specific b) It is pH dependent
c) Vitamin D d) Parathyroid hormone
c) It is saturable d) It requires energy
8) Which of the following would be ineffective in producing closure of the
19) New drugs are discovered by the following procedures, except;
esophageal groove in calf? a) Molecular designing b) Serendipity
a) Water b) Milk c) Recombinant DNA d) Intolerance
c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Copper sulphate biotechnology
9) Drug-receptor occupation theory was proposed by, 20) 500 mg of drug A is administered through the intravenous route. The same drug is
a) E.J.Ariens b) A.J.Clark also administered orally and only 250 mg is absorbed unchanged. What is the
c) Patron d) R.P.Stephenson bioavailability of drug A?
10) Who is regarded as the father of Indian Pharmacology? a) 50% b) 200%
a) Dhanwantri b) Hippocrates c) 50 mg d) 200 mg
c) Galen d) R.N.Chopra

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21) Astringents a) Metabolism in liver b) Plasma protein binding
a) Loosen the keratin layer b) Reduce the inflammation c) Excretion by kidney d) Redistribution
c) Induce hyperemia d) Precipitate proteins 32) Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism
22) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the inverse agonist of largest number of drugs
a) It has both affinity and b) It has affinity but no intrinsic activity (IA=0) a) CYP 3A4 b) CYP 2C9
maximal intrinsic activity c) CYP 2E1 d) CYP 1A2
(IA=1) 33) If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma
c) It has affinity and d) It has affinity but intrinsic activity in the
concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is
submaximal intrinsic negative side (IA= -1)
activity (IA= 0 to 1) a) 0.5 L/hr b) 2.0 L/hr
23) H1 antihistaminic antiemetic drugs possess the following characters, except; c) 5.0 L/hr d) 20 L/hr
a) Anticholinergic b) Antiinflammatory 34) Select the receptor that is located intracellularly
c) Antidopaminergic d) Sedation a) Opioid μ receptor b) Steroid receptor
24) Which of the following is not an anticoagulant c) Prostaglandin receptor d) Angiotensin receptor
a) Vitamin K b) Heparin D
c) Sodium citrate d) Warfarin sodium 35) Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of
25) Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of a) Continuous use of b) Continuous use of antagonists
agonists
a) Weakly basic drugs b) Weakly acidic drugs
c) Chronic use of CNS d) Denervation
c) Strong electrolytes d) Nonpolar drugs depressants
26) Concomitant administration of furosemide and aminoglycoside antibiotics may 36) Somatostatin inhibits the release of
cause, a) Growth hormone b) Insulin
a) Hepatotoxicity b) Cardiotoxicity c) Thyrotropin d) Oestrogen
c) Osteoporosis d) Ototoxicity 37) Simple bloat can be relieved by administration of drug
27) Drugs that act in the CNS to raise the threshold of cough centre are called a) Liquid paraffin b) Pectin
a) Antitussives b) Demulcents c) Sucralfate d) Kaolin
c) Expectorants d) Brochodilators 38) An ideal fluid therapy for treating diarrhoea is
28) Official name of a drug is a) Normal saline b) Ringer lactate
a) One given in b) Its chemical name c) 5% dextrose d) 25% dextrose
Pharmacopoeia 39) An orphan drug is
c) Its proprietary name d) Its non-proprietary name a) A very cheap drug b) A drug which has no therapeutic use
29) Nitrogenous products of plant origin is
c) A drug needed for d) A drug which acts on orphanin receptors
a) Alkaloid b) Glycosides treatment or prevention of
c) Tannins d) Saponins rare disease
30) The combined effect of two drugs is less than that of individual effect is
a) Summation b) Potentiation 40)
c) Antagonism d) Addition
31) A nonvolatile, highly lipid soluble drug is metabolized at a rate of 15% per hour. On
intravenous injection it produces general anaesthesia for only10 min. Which process
is responsible for quick termination of its action

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a) Drug A is less potent and b) Drug A more potent but equally efficacious to 49. Which one of the following drugs will reverse the effects of diazepam in case there is
less efficacious than drug drug B an overdose?
B a) Naloxone b) Flumazenil
c) Drug B more potent but d) Drug B less potent and less efficacious than
c) Zolazepam d) Butorphanol
equally efficacious to drug drug A
A 50. Buspirone is
41. The following clinical conditions can be treated with prostaglandin F2 alpha, a) Nonsedative anixolytic drug b) MAO inhibitor
EXCEPT; c) Tricyclic antidepressant d) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
a) Luteolysis b) Pyometra 51. All the four stages of anaesthesia can be seen in
c) Inflammation d) Mummified foetus a) Ketamine b) Thiopentone
42. c) Isoflurane d) Ether
Ananesthetic Oil;Gas PC Blood:gas PC MAC(%) 52.
Start of anaesthetic inhalation
Ether 65 12.1 1.9
Stage I
Halothane 224 2.3 0.75
Unconsciousness
Desflurane 19 0.42 6 Stage II
N2O 1.4 0.47 105
A
Based on the above table, the following are true, EXCEPT;
Stage III
a) Halothane is potent anaesthetic and b) N2O is very less potent anaesthetic Cessation of spontaneous respiration with paralysis of diaphragm
have intermediate induction and have very fast induction Stage IV
c) Desflurane is less potent anaesthetic d) Ether is potent anaesthetic and have Failure of circulation and death
and have very fast induction fast induction In the flow diagram, A refers to,
43. Renin-Angiotensin system is inhibited by the following, EXCEPT; a) Consciousness b) Cessation of eyeball movement
a) Aldosterone antagonists b) Direct renin blockers c) Regular Respiration d) Loss of consciousness
c) Sympathomimetic drugs d) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
44. The adrenoceptor located on the prejunctional nerve cell is 53. The following are choline esters, EXCEPT;
a) β 1 receptor b) α1 receptor a) Carbachol b) Arecoline
c) β2 receptor d) α2 receptor c) Bethanechol d) Methacholine
45. Neurotransmitters are terminated by the following processes, EXCEPT; 54. The drug of choice to treat anaphylactic shock is
a) Metabolic degradation b) Co-transmission a) Pheniramine b) Epinephrine
c) Re-uptake process d) Diffusion c) Montelukast d) Salbutamol
46. The duration of local anaesthetics are prolonged by 55. What is the first indicator of local anaesthetic toxicity?
a) Cocaine b) Adrenaline a) Skeletal muscle twitching b) Tonic-clonic convulsions
c) Acetyl choline d) Procaine c) Vomiting d) Cardiac arrhythmia
47. The followings are mediators of allergic reactions, EXCEPT; 56. Non-selective, beta adrenergic receptor blocking drug is
a) Histamine b) Leukotrienes a) Noradrenaline b) Propranolol
c) Angiotensin d) Platelet activating factor c) Metoprolol d) Isoproterenol
48. Which one of the following is natural opioid, 57. The shortest acting anticholinesterase agent
a) Morphine b) Pethidine a) Physostigmine b) Neostigmine
c) Tramadol d) Fentanyl c) Edrophonium d) Tacrine

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58. 66.

A
The picture refers to which method of administration of inhalational anaesthetic agent In the above diagram, A refers to,
a) Open drop method b) Semiclosed system a) Excitatory Post Synaptic b) Inhibitory Post Synaptic Potential
c) Closed system d) None of the above Potential (EPSP) (IPSP)
59. Catecholamine includes all of the following, EXCEPT; c) Action Potential (AP) d) No potential
a) Epinephrine b) Ephedrine 67. During the induction of anaesthesia, the flow direction of anaesthetic agent is
c) Norepinephrine d) Dopamine a) Inspired air b) Alveoli
60 Stage of surgical anaesthesia are
Alveoli Inspired air
a) Plane 1 and 2 of Stage II b) Plane 3 and 4 of Stage II
c) Plane 1 and 2 of Stage III d) Plane 3 and 4 of Stage III Arterial blood Arterial blood
61. The following are products of cyclooxygenase pathway, EXCEPT
a) LTB4 b) PGF2 alpha Brain Brain
c) TXA2 d) PGE2
c) Arterial blood d) Brain
62 The following are the gastrointestinal prokinetic drugs, EXCEPT;
a) Pheniramine b) Cisapride Inspired air Arterial blood
c) Renzapride d) Metoclopromide
Alveoli Inspired air
63. A dog is chasing cow. Cow tries to attack the dog. Name the autonomic nervous
system involves in this incidence.
Brain Alveoli
a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Parasympathetic nervous system
c) Musculo-skeletal system d) All of the above 68.
A
64.
A

In the diagram, A refers to,

a) Cyclooxygenase b) Lipooxygenase
c) Thrombane oxygenase d) Phospholipase A
In the diagram, A indicates 69 Toxicity of aminoglycosides includes all of the following, except
a) Binding site for GABA b) Binding site for benzodiazipine
a) Neuromuscular blockade b) Anaemia
c) Binding site for Barbiturate d) Binding site for aspartate
65. The following are characteristics of injectable anaesthetics, EXCEPT; c) Ototoxicity d) Nephrotoxicity
a) Slow induction b) Do not require costly and sophisticated equipment
c) Slow recovery d) Depth or level of anaesthesia is difficult to control

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I70 The following antibiotics are acting by inhibition of cell wall synthesis, c) Cypermethrin d) Ivermectin
except 79 The following drugs are effective against cestodes, except;
a) Penicillin b) Cephalosporin a) Praziquintol b) Ivermectin
c) Macrolide d) Bacitracin c) Pyrantal pamoate d) Fenbendazole
71 Sulphonamides and trimethoprim are combined in the ratio of 80 Pyrethroids are highly sensitive to
a) 5:1 b) 5:2 a) Cat b) Cattle
c) 5:3 d) 5:4 c) Dog d) Horse
72 The anthelminitic activity of the following drug is attributed to its Key
cholinomimetic activity
1 A 11 D 21 D 31 D 41 C
a) Albendazole b) Levamizole 2 D 12 B 22 D 32 A 42 D
3 B 13 d 23 B 33 A 43 C
c) Piperazine d) Organophosphorus compounds 4 C 14 D 24 D 34 B 44 D
5 D 15 B 25 B 35 B 45 B
73 Natural penicillin is
6 D 16 C 26 D 36 A 46 B
7 B 17 A 27 A 37 A 47 C
a) Amoxycillin b) Penicillin G 8 A 18 B 28 A 38 B 48 A
9 B 19 D 29 C 39 C 49 B
c) Ticarcillin d) Methicillin 10 d 20 A 30 D 40 b 50 A
74 The followings are macrolide antibiotics, except;

a) Erythromycin b) Vancomycin 51 D 61 A 71 A
52 A 62 A 72 D
c) Azithromycin d) Tylosin 53 B 63 A 73 B
54 B 64 B 74 B
75 The major toxic effects of amphotericin B is 55 A 65 A 75 C
56 B 66 B 76 A
a) Bone marrow suppression b) GI disturbances 57 C 67 A 77 a
58 C 68 d 78 C
c) Renal toxicity d) Liver toxicity 59 B 69 B 79 B
60 c 70 C 80 a
76) Which one of the following drugs is cell cycle phase specific?

a) Actinomycin D b) Cisplastin

c) Vincristine d) Chlorambucil
77 6-mercaptopurine is

a) Antimetabolite b) Mitotic inhibitors

c) Topoisomerase inhibitors d) Alkylating agent

78 Synthetic pyrethroid ectoparacide is

a) Amitraz b) Dichlorvos

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VETERINARY TOXICOLOGY c) Cu d) Pb
13. The word ―rocker shaped hoof‖ is associated with the following poisoning
1. In ruminants blue-green coloured faeces is indicative of following poisoning condition
a) Lead b) Mercury a) Acute oxalate poisoning b) Sub-acute Selenium poisoning
c) Copper d) Selenium c) Chronic Selenium poisoning d) None of the above
2. Compulsive hypermotility is associated with following poisoning 14. The resistant species for Plumbism is
a) Lead b) Mercury a) Dog b) Pig
c) Copper d) Selenium c) Horse d) Cattle
3. The plant which contains 34% of oxalates on dry matter basis is 15. Loss of hairs in mane and tail of horses is associated with the following
a) Hologetan glomeratus b) Beta vulgaris poisoning
c) Oxalis pescaprae d) Sorghum vulgare a) As b) Hg
4. Bright blindness in sheep is caused by ingestion of the following plant c) Cu d) Se
a) Alkali disease b) Bracken fern poisoning 16. The word ―chocolate coloured blood‖ is associated with the following
poisoning condition
c) Oxalate poisoning d) Arsenic poisoning
a) Nitrite b) Nitrate
5. One of the following organochlorine is does not accumulate on adipose tissue
c) Cyanide d) CO
a) Lindane b) Methoxychlor
17. Mercury poisoning also known as
c) DDT d) Endosulfan
a) Hydrargyrism b) Plumbism
6. The following is the toxic ratio of Mo:Cu in the body
c) Blind staggers d) Molybdenosis
a) 6:1 b) >2:1
18. Which of the following age group is more resistant to urea poisoning
c) <2:1 d) 12:2
a) Calf b) Bull
7. ―Phossy jaw‖ condition in sheep is seen under the following toxicity
c) Heifer d) Cow
a) Mercury b) Selenium
19. Propoxur acts by
c) OPC d) Phosphorus
a) Cholinesterase stimulation b) Reversible cholinesterase
8. In flurosis condition, density of the bone is
inhibition
a) Increased b) Decreased
c) Irreversible cholinesterase d) Cholineacetyltransferase inhibition
c) No Change d) None of the above
inhibition
9. Type I pyrethroid toxicity are referred to as
20. Op compounds inhibit the following enyme(s)
a) T Syndrome b) CS Syndrome
a) AChE b) BuChE
c) All the above d) None of the above
c) NTE d) All the above
10. The plant enzyme responsible for the relaease of HCN from cyanogenitic
glycoside is 21. 2-PAM is contraindicated for the toxicity of
a) Thiaminase b) Beta glycosidase a) Sumithion b) Propoxur
c) Alpha glycosidase d) None of the above c) Dichlorovos d) Ecothiophate
11. The word ―Hemolytic crisis‖ is associated with the following poisoning 22. Organochlorine compounds act by competitive inhibition of the binding of
condition a) Glycine b) Glutamate
a) As b) Hg c) GABA d) Aspartate
c) Cu d) Pb 23. Which one is comparatively highly toxic to fish and birds?
12. The word ―Gunmetal kidney ‖ is associated with the following poisoning a) OPC b) Rotenone
condition c) Parathion d) DDT
a) As b) Hg

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24. Paraquat accumulates in a) Uncouples oxidative b) Impairs TCA cycle
a) Liver b) Kidney phosphorylation
c) Pancreas d) Lung c) Both the above d) None of the above
25. The characteristic smell of phosphine gas, which can be used for diagnosis of 37. The chemical constituent commonly found in the commercially available
zinc mosquito repellants is
phosphide toxicity is
a) Garlic odour b) Bitter almond odour a) Parathion b) Amitraz
c) Fish like / Acetylene odour d) None of the above c) Allethrin d) Bromdioline
26. The word ― Sui poisoning‖ associated with the following poisoning condition 38. Roaring in horses is caused by RECURRENT LARYNGEAL nerve paralysis
a) Abrus precatorius b) Lantana camara due to the toxicity of
c) Ricinus cummunis d) Ipomea carnea a) Pb b) HCN
27. The word ―Steep dose response curve‖ is associated in the treatment of one of c) Se d) Strychnine
the following poisoning condition 39. HCN contents are more in
a) Abrus precatorius b) Lantana camara
a) Mature plants b) Young plants
c) Ricinus cummunis d) Strychnus nuxvomica
c) Dried plants d) All the above
28. One of the following is commonly called as bracken fern poisoning
40. Abrus precatorius cause toxicity due to
a) Pteridium aquilinum b) Lantana camara
a) Cytotoxic effect b) Proteolytic effect
c) Ricinus cummunis d) Strychnus nuxvomica
c) Both the above d) None of the above
29. Astragalus sp. Is
41. The main ingredient of universal antidote is
a) Obligate Se accumulator b) Passive Se accumulator
a) Activated charcoal b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Facultative Se accumulator d) None of the above
c) Atropine d) Copper sulphate
30. Acute ANTU intoxication is characterized by
43. To determine the LD50, the following study should be conducted
a) Cardiac toxicity b) Neurotoxicity
a) Chronic toxicity study b) Sub chronic toxicity study
c) Pulmonary toxicity d) All the above
c) Sub acute toxicity study d) Acute toxicity study
31. Which is botanical rodenticide
44. Bitter almond smell of stomach content indicates poisoning with,
a) ANTU b) Red squill
a) Phosphorous b) Selenium
c) ZnP d) All the above
c) Copper d) HCN
32. Bovine bunker syndrome in cattle is due to 45. In the post-mortem, Brick red mucosal membrane of GI tract lesion seen in
a) Ammonia / NPN poisoning b) Oxalate poisoning a) Lead poisoning b) Copper poisoning
c) Salt poisoning d) All the above c) Mercury poisoning d) Arsenic poisoning
33. Calomel is 46. Garlic odour of stomach content indicates poisoning with,
a) Mercurous chloride b) Mercuric chloride a) Phophorous b) Selenium
c) Mercurochrome d) None of the above c) Copper d) HCN
34. The antidote for cyaninde poisoning is 47. Bone is considered as a main storage site for
a) Sodium nitrite b) Sodium thiosulphate a) Mercury b) Selenium
c) Both of the above d) None of the above c) Lead d) Molybdenum
35. Lantana camara is primarily a 48. Biomagnification of poisoning is seen in
a) Hepatotoxic b) Cardiotoxic a) Mercury b) Selenium
c) Renotoxic d) None of the above c) Lead d) Molybdenum
36. Which of the following is true with regard to MOA of Arsenic poisoning 49. Desferoxamine is a specific antidote for poisoning due to

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a) Mercury b) Iron VETERINARY PHYSIOLOGY
c) Lead d) Molybdenum
1. The ideal anticoagulant for blood glucose estimation is
50. A substance is classified as extremely toxic if the lethal dose (LD) is (Hodge-
Sterner scale) a. heparin b. EDTA c. sodium citrate d. sodium fluoride
a) < 1mg/kg b) 5 to 15 g/kg 2. The ideal anticoagulant for blood coagulation studies is
c) 1 to 50 mg/kg d) 0.5 to 5 g/kg
a. heparin b. EDTA c. sodium citrate d. sodium
fluoride
VETERINARY TOXICOLOGY - KEY
3. The ideal anticoagulant for the study of blood cell morphology is
1. c) Copper 26. a) Abrus precatorius
a. potassium oxalate b. EDTA c. sodium citrate d. ammonium oxalate
2. a) Lead 27. d) Strychnus nuxvomica
3. a) Hologetan glomeratus 28. a) Pteridium aquilinum 4. The anticoagulant not recommended for BUN estimation is
4. b) Bracken fern poisoning 29. a) Obligate Se accumulator
5. d) Endosulfan 30. c) Pulmonary toxicity a. sodium fluoride b. EDTA c. sodium citrate d. ammonium oxalate
6. c) <2:1 31. b) Red squill 5. The anticoagulant commonly used for blood transfusion is
7. d) Phosphorus 32. a) Ammonia / NPN poisoning
8. a) Increased 33. a) Mercurous chloride a. potassium oxalate b. EDTA c. sodium citrate d. sodium fluoride
9. a) T Syndrome 34. c) Both of the above
10. b) Beta glycosidase 35. a) Hepatotoxic 6. Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by acting along
11. c) Cu 36. c) Both the above a. Antithrombin III b.Factor III c.Factor XIII d. Factor I
12. c) Cu 37. c) Allethrin
13. c) Chronic Selenium poisoning 38. a) Pb 7. The water content of plasma is
14. b) Pig 39. b) Young plants
15. d) Se 40. c) Both the above a. 99-100% b.91-92% c. 75-80% d.45-50%
16. a) Nitrite 41. a) Activated charcoal 8. The solid content of plasma is
17. a) Hydrargyrism 42. d) Acute toxicity study
18. a) Calf 43. d) HCN a. Nil b.8-9% c.15-20% d. 50-55%
19. b) Reversible cholinesterase 44. d) Arsenic poisoning
inhibition 9. The yellow colour of plasma is due to
20. d) All the above 45. a) Phophorous
21. b) Propoxur 46. c) Lead a. bile salt b. bilirubin c. carotene d. both b and c
22. c) GABA 47. a) Mercury 10. The colloidal osmotic pressure of blood is maintained by
23. b) Rotenone 48. a) Mercury
24. d) Lung 49. b) Iron a. albumin b. globulin c. creatinine d. phospholipids
25. c) Fish like / Acetylene odour 50. a) < 1mg/kg 11. All the circulating mammalian erythrocytes are
a. non nucleated and nonmotile b. non nucleated and motile
c. nucleated with no organelles d. motile with no organelles
12. The erythrocytic enzyme which facilitates carbon dioxide transport in blood is
a. carboxydehydrogenase b. carboxyhydrogenase c.carbonic anhydrased.carboxylase
13. The avian erythrocytes are
a. biconvex and nucleated b. biconcave and nucleated

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c. elliptical and nucleated d. elliptical and non nucleated 26. The lifespan of platelets in circulating blood is
14. The haemoglobin content of solid portion of erythrocytes is a. 2-3days b. 8-11 days c. 50-60days d.100-120days
a.15% b.24% c.75% d.95% 27. Hemal lymph nodes are the site of granulopoiesis in
15. The total surface area of mammalian erythrocyte is a. dogs b. cattle c. horse d. birds
a.10-20m2/kg b. 27-37m2/kg c. 40-50m2/kg d. 57-67m2/kg 28. The naturally occurring antibody against erythrocytes is
16. The lifespan of erythrocytes can be measured by tagging with isotopes of a.Ig A b.IgD c.IgM d.IgG
a.11Se b.22Cr c.14Fe d.32P 29. The immunoglobulin that does not cross placental barrier is
17. The principle site of erythrocyte destruction in domestic animals is a.Ig A b.IgD c.IgM d.IgG
a.bone marrow b.spleen c.liver c.lymph nodes 30. Blood volume (ml/kg body weight) of cattle is
17. The principle site of erythrocyte destruction in birds is a.12-24 b.27-36 c. 38-47 d.52-60
a.bone marrow b.spleen c.liver d.lymph nodes 31. All are platelet aggregation and activation agonists,except
18. Complete blockage of bile duct may be diagnosed by urinary absence of a.thrombin b.ADP c.epinephrine d.protein C
a.biliverdin b.bilirubin c.urobilinogen d.bilirubindiglucouronide 32. All have anticoagulant activity, except
19.Extrarenal source of erythropoietin production in mammals is a.thrombomodulin b.von Willebrand factor c.plasmin
a. liver b. lymph nodes c. lungs d. bone d.α2macroglobulin
marrow 33. The contact phase of coagulation is absent in
20.Biosynthesis of haemoglobin starts in a.cattle b.dogs c.horse d.birds
a.rubricyte b.metarubricte c.rubriblast d.reticulocyte 34. The factor XII is absent in
21.One gram of haemoglobin carries ______ ml of oxygen a.marine mammals b.birds c.horse d.ruminants
a.4.0 b.1.34 c.15.4 d.19.6 35. Buccal mucosal bleeding time is a reliable test to diagnose
22.Non toxic useless respiratory pigment is a. haemophilia b.platelet dysfunctionc.liver dysfunctiond.ingestion of rodenticide
a. myoglobin b. methaemoglobin c.carboxyhaemoglobin d.oxyhaemoglobin 36. The coagulation factor with shortest half life is
23. Pyrogens are produced from a.Factor IV b. Factor V c. FactorVII d. . Factor X
a.lymphocytes b.monocytes c.basophils d.neutrophils 37. The cells having contractile and phagocytic activity in the Juxtaglomerular apparatus
24.Stress conditions or exogenous ACTH administration leads to are
a.eosinopenia b.eosinophlia c.lymphocytosis d. a.maculadensa b.JG cells c.mesangial cells d.peritubular cells
monocytosis 38. Filteration fraction refers to
25. The shift to left denotes all except, a.GFR/RPF ratio b.GFR/RBF ratio c.RPF/GFR ratio d.RBF/GFR
a.bacterial infections b.inflammation ratio
c.increase in immature neutrophils d. increase in immature lymphocytes 39. The substance readily filtered in the glomerulus is

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a.negatively charged b.positively charged c.globular shaped d. neutral 53.All the following will result in shifting of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve to right
except,
charged
a. decrease in H+ b.increase in carbondioxide
40. Amost 65% of the Na+ reabsorption occurs in the
c.increase in 2,3diphosphoglycerate d. increase in blood temperature
a.PCT b.loop of henle c.DCT d.collecting duct
54. Majority of the carbondioxide is transported in blood as
41. Proximal convoluted tubule accounts for _______% of glucose absorption
a. bicarbonate b. carbamino compound c.dissolved CO2d. carbonic acid
a.25 b.50 c.75 d.100
55.The inspiratory volume and respiratory rate is controlled mainly by
42. Glucose and aminoacids are reabsorbed in nephron tubules by
a.dorsal respiratory group b. ventral respiratory group
a.cotransport b.countertransport c.passive diffusion d.all the above
c.pnemotaxic centre d.apneustic centre
43. Hyperosmolarity of renal medulla is facilitated by all except
56.Increased alveolar ventilation results due to
a.increased medullary Na+ b. recirculation of urea c. sluggish medullary blood flow
a. increase in PO2 b. increase in PCO2 c. increase in H+ d. decrease in
2+
d. increased medullary Ca
PO2
2+
44. Regulation of Ca reabsorption primarily occurs in
57.Decrease in oxygen concentration of the arterial blood is
a.PCT b.loop of henle c.DCT d.collecting duct
a.hypoxia b.hypoxemia c.asphxia d.anoxia
45.Micturition reflex is regulated by
58.All are vasodilators except
a. cerebral cortex b.cerebellum c.hypothalamus d.spinal cord and brain stem
a.Prostacyclin b.ThromboxaneA2 c.kininsd.nitric oxide
46.Plasma clearance is lowest for
59. The greatest left ventricular volume is achieved during which one of the following
a.creatinine b.inulin c. urea d.para amino hippuric acid periods of the cardiac cycle?
47.Renal portal system is a unique feature in the kidneys of a. Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation b. rapid filling
c. diastasis d. atrial systole
a.swine b.birds c.equines d.canines
48.Antidiuretic hormone of birds is 60. The v wave of the atrial pressure curve corresponds most closely to which one of
the
a.argininevasotocin b.arginine vasopressin c.arginine leucine d. arginine isoleucine
following?
49.Decrease in GFR results due to a. Atrial contraction
a. increased sympathetic stimulation b. decreased sympathetic stimulation b. Ventricular contraction and bulging of the A-V valves back into the atria
c. Continued filling of the atria from the veins during ventricular relaxation
c. dilation of afferent arterioles d. increased blood pressure d. Closure of the semilunar valves
50.Uric acid in birds is formed in the
61.Whichoneofthefollowingperiodsofthe cardiac cycleis
a.liver b.kidney c.liver and kidney d.cloaca thefirstperiodnormallyassociated with ventriculardiastole?
51.Costal breathing is observed during all conditions,except a. Atrial contraction b.Isovolumetric relaxation
c.Rapidfilling d. Diastasis
a.normal respiration b.breathing difficulty c. pneumothorax d. pain in abdomen
52. Panting in dogs results in all except 62.Thethirdheartsound, S3,ismostcloselyassociated with whichoneof
thefollowingperiodsof the cardiac cycle?
a. increased dead space ventilation b. decreased dead space ventilation
a. Atrial contractionb. Isovolumetric contractionc. Rapidejection d. Rapidfilling
c. constant alveolar ventilation d. hyperventilation

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63.The depolarization phase of the atrioventricular nodal action potential is most closely 73.The substance that is actively secreted into the tubular fluid by the tubular cells
associated with the movement of cations through which one of the following types of is
channels? a.Na+ b.K+ c.Glucose d.Cl-
a. Sodium "leak" channels b.Fast voltage-gated sodium
channels 74.The major anion responsible for VFA exchange in omasum is
c. Slow voltage-gated calcium channels d. Potassium channels a.Cl- b.bicarbonate c.phosphate d.K+

64. The binding of acetylcholine to cardiac muscarinic cholinergic receptors causes a 75. Which ofthefollowingstatementsisTRUEregardingthepressurechangesinthecardiac
decrease in the heart rate that results from an increase in which one of the following? cycle?
a. Calcium influx b.Potassium efflux c. Sodium influx d.Chloride efflux a. pressuredevelopedduringventricularsystoleisequal betweenrightandleftside
b. pressuredeveloped inleftventricleis higherthantherightventricleduring
65. Which oneofthefollowingelectrocardiographic leadsisa bipolarlead? systole
a. LeadaVR b. LeadV4 c.Lead III d.Lead aVF c. pressuredeveloped inleftventricleduringsystole isequaltotheaorticpressure
d. atrial and ventricularpressuresareequal during ventricularsystole
66. TheTwaveof normal ECG is
a. Always negative 76. Increasein heartratedue toincreaseinvenous returnis knownas
b.Alwayspositiveif Rwaveis positive a. Baroreceptorreflex b. Psychogenicreflex
c. causedbydelayin betweenatrialand ventriculardepolarization c. vasovagal‘reflex d.Bainbridgereflex
d.caused byventricularrepolarization
77. Themostimportant factorthat has thegreatestinfluence onflowof bloodin thevessels is
a. radius ofthevessel b.pressuredifference c. viscosity d.length
67. Anincrease inatrial pressureresults in whichoneofthefollowing? ofthevessel
a. Decreaseinplasma atrial natriureticpeptide
b. Anincrease in plasmaangiotensinIIconcentration 78. Concerningcoronarycirculation,whichofthefollowingisTRUE?
c. Anincrease in plasmaaldosteroneconcentration a. Undernormal condition,cardiacmusclesextract 15ml O2/100ml blood
d. Anincrease inheartrate b.10%of cardiac outputflowsthroughcoronarycirculation
c.Bloodflow toventricularmusclesis greaterduringsystolethandiastole
68Which ofthefollowingcomponentsof d. Major controlof coronarycirculationisneural rather than metabolic
thecirculatorysystemhasthelargestdistributionof blood volume?
a. Arteries b.Capillaries c.Veins d. ventricles 79. Duringsystemic hypoxia
a. pulmonaryandsystemicbloodvessels constrict
b.pulmonaryvesselsconstrict andsystemicvesselsdilate
69. Thevelocityofbloodflowingthroughthecirculatorysystemislowestinwhich of thefollowingparts
c.pulmonaryvesselsdilateandsystemicvesselsconstrict
of thecirculation?
d.pulmonaryandsystemicvesselsdilate
a.Venules b.Veins c.Smallarteries d.Capillaries
80. Thetendencytoform oedemawillbeincreasedby
70.Whichoneofthefollowingpartsof thecirculationhasthehighestcompliance? a. arteriolarconstriction b. increasedvenous pressure
a.Capillaries b.Veins c.Aorta d.Arteries c. increasedplasmaproteinconcentration d. dehydration

71.Water retention by ADH is achieved by its action on 81. Which ofthefollowingenzymeis NOTsecretedbythesmall intestine?
a.PCT b.DCTc.loop of henle d.collecting duct a. Maltase b.sucrase c.lactase d.trypsinogen

72.What percentage of cardiac output is renal blood flow 82.Monensinisaddedtothe ruminantdietmainlyto

a.5 b.15 c.25 d.30
a.Protectprotein hydrolysis b.increasecellulosedigestion
c.improvevitaminsynthesis d.inhibit methanogenesis

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83.Which of the following enzyme is part of the plasma membrane of small intestine epithelial cells? 94. Indomestic animals, thermalsweatingiscontributedby
a.Amylase b.sucrase c.lipase d.trypsin a. apocrineglands b.apocrineandeccrineglands
c.eccrineglands d.mesocrineglands
84.Themajorfunctionofthelargeintestineis
a.absorptionofmonosaccharides 95.Whichof thefollowingspeciesDOES NOTdependonthermoregulatorysweatingfor
b.absorptionofvitamins heat dissipation?
c.absorptionofwaterandelectrolytes a. horse b.cattle c.birds d.camel
d.absorptionofbilesalts
96.Lactation can be artificially induced by injection of
85. Amylolyticbacteriainthe rumen canperformtheir
functionverywellinanoptimumpHof a. injection of lactogen b.largedoseof oxytocin
a.5.5 to6.6 b. 3.0to4.0 c.7.4to8.4 d.10.0to14.0 c.injectionof bovine somatotropin d.injection of LH

86. ThestimulatoryeffectsofgastrinonHClsecretionaremediatedinpartby gastrin-inducedsecretionof 97. The milk let-down reflex in dairy animals is initiated by
a. Acetylcholine b. Aminoacids c. Gastrin-releasingpeptide d. Histamine a. a rise in intramammary pressure
b.tactile stimulation of the teats
87. Themainexcitatoryneurotransmittertogut smoothmuscleiswhichofthefollowing?
c.a declineinprogesteronesecretionaftercalving
a. Acetylcholine b. GIP c. Noradrenaline d. SubstanceP
d.a riseinprolactin secretion
88.Whichofthefollowingstatementsaboutvolatilefattyacids(VFAs)isINCORRECT?
a. VFAs supply60-80%of 98. Hormone involved in mammary lobulo alveolar growth is
theruminant'senergyneeds b. Acetateisthemajor a.estrogen b.prolactin c. progesterone d.growth hormone
VFAproduced inthe rumen
c. VFAs are absorbed bypinocytosisin therumen epithelium 99. Hormone involved in mammary duct growth is
d. Almostallofbutyrateisconverted toβ-OHbutyratebeforeabsorption a.estrogen b.prolactin c. progesterone d.growth hormone

89.Rumination 100. Hormone involved in prolactin release inhibition is

a. rateincreases whenanimals arefedfinelygrounddiets a.estrogen b.dopamine c.oxytocin d.epinephrine
b. involvestriphasic contractionsofthe rumen
c. is notcoordinated with respiration
d. cyclesarestimulatedby chemoreceptorsintherumenwall

90.ExcessH+ions produced intherumen duringfermentationareremoved by

a. formationofCH4 b.propionateformation
c.saturationof fattyacids d.all oftheabove

91. When environmentaltemperaturebecomesveryhighandtheanimalisnotable to maintain

homeothermy,they
a.increasethemetabolicrate b.decreasefeedintake
c.decreasethe respiratoryrate d.decreasesperipheral bloodflow

92.WhichofthefollowingfactorsDOES NOTaffecttheadult animal‘s abilityto withstandcold?

a. long,thickcoat b.subcutaneousfatlayer
c.brown fatoxidation d.increasedmetabolicrate

93. Thebrainareawhichhas thesetpointand isinvolvedinmaintainingthebodytemperatureis

a. cerebral cortex b.pineal body c.hypothalamus d. medulla

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Answer Key DEPARTMENT OF VETERINARY SURGERY AND RADIOLOGY
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer 1. Sterilization of operation theatre done by
No. No. No. No.
1 d 26 b 51 a 76 d a. Nitrous oxide gas b. Steaming
2 c 27 b 52 b 77 a c. Ethylene oxide gas d. UV irradiation
3 b 28 c 53 a 78 b 2. Autoclaving of surgical instruments are carried out under
4 d 29 a 54 a 79 b
a.121°C,15lbs pressure for 15 mts b. 350°C, 15lbs pressure for 15 mts
5 c 30 d 55 c 80 b
6 a 31 d 56 d 81 d c. 150°C, 15lbs pressure for 30 mtsd. d. 121°C,15lbs pressure for 60 mts
7 b 32 b 57 b 82 d 3. Cellulitis is inflammation of
8 b 33 d 58 b 83 b a) Skin b) Mucosa
9 d 34 a 59 d 84 c
10 a 35 b 60 c 85 a c) Muscle d) Connective tissue
11 a 36 c 61 b 86 d 4. Lembert pattern suture is used in
12 c 37 c 62 d 87 a a) Intestine b) Oesophagus
13 c 38 a 63 c 88 c
c) Hollow organ d) none of the above
14 d 39 b 64 b 89 b
15 d 40 a 65 c 90 d 5. Cryo surgery is done by using
16 d 41 d 66 d 91 b a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrous gas
17 a 42 a 67 d 92 c c) Liquid nitrogen d) none of the above
18 c 43 d 68 c 93 c
19 a 44 c 69 d 94 a
6. A fresh, sutured wound heals by
20 a 45 d 70 b 95 c a) First intention b) Scab formation
21 b 46 c 71 a 96 c c) Second intention d) Mixed intention
22 b 47 b 72 b 97 b
7. Inherent capability of the suture material to return to original gross shape is called as
23 d 48 a 73 b 98 c
24 a 49 a 74 a 99 a a.Elasticity b. Capillarity
25 d 50 c 75 b 100 b c. Flexibility d. Memory
8. The commonly used chemical for tissue adhesion for surgical procedures in dog is
a. Polymethyl methocrylate b. Cyanoacrylate
c. Polyurethane d. polypropylene
9. An example for tendon suture is
a. Cushing b. Bunnel
c. Lembert d. Parker-kerr
10. The wound is known as infected when the bacterial count exceeds
a. 105 bacteria/gm b.106 bacteria/gm
c.108 bacteria/gm d. 107 bacteria/gm
11. Radical surgery is surgery done to
a. Conserve damaged tissue b. Remove damaged tissue
c. Eliminate root cause d. Correct malformations
12. Lembert suture include in its bite
a. Serosa b. Serosa, muscles and submucosa
c. Submucosa and mucosa d. Mucosa alone

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13. Overlapping sutures are applied to close 25. Surgical anaesthesia produced by combining two or more drugs or anaesthetic
a. Rumen wound b. Abomasal wound techniques is called
c. Hernial ringd. Wound on tongue a) Combination of anaesthesia b) General anaesthesia
14. A swelling that develop slowly and devoid of inflammatory symptoms c) Basal anaesthesia d) Balanced anaesthesia
a) Cyst b) Tumor 26. Difference in intensity across the X-ray beam is called
c) Haematoma d) Abscess a) Edge effect b) Roentgen effect
15. Ulcer may be formed due to c) Heel effect d) Keel effect
a)Impaired nutrition b) Chronic irritation 27. Cat gut is obtained from
b)Vasomotor distutbances d) Bacterial infection a) Submucosa of cat intestine b) Submucosa of cattle intestine
16. The binding material in wound is laid by c) Submucosa of sheep intestine d) Mucosa of sheep intestine
a) Blood vessels b) Endothelial cells 28. Hypoventilation with retention of carbon dioxide may result into
c) Fibroblast cells d) Epithelial cells a) Metabolic acidosis b) Metabolic alkalosis
17. Scald is injury produced by c) Respiratory acidosis d) Respiratory alkalosis
a. Acids b. Alkali 29. Surgical anaesthesia is achieved under
c. Steamd. Flame a) Stage I b) Stage II
18. Father of modern surgery is c) Stage III d) Stage IV
a. Halsted b. W.C.Roentgen 30. The Penetrating power of X-ray beam depend on
c. Joseph Lister d. R.Eberlin a) Kvp b) MAs
19. Wound does not showing tendency to heal is __________wound c) FFD d) FPD
a. Ulcerated wound b. Proud flesh 31. Name one anesthetic which is in steroid in nature
c. Granulatingd. Aseptic wound a) Propofol b) Etomidate
20. ______________is the method of heating the tissues in depth by passing through them c) Althesin d) Ketamine
modified high frequency electric current 32. Dilated pupil and fish eye is in which stage of anaesthesia
a. UV iiradiation b. Infrared therapy a) Stage I b) Stage II
c. Ultrasound therapy d. Diathermy c) Stage III d) Stage IV
21. The main reason for atropine premedication in xylazine anaesthesia is to 33. The quality of radiograph depend on
a) Reduce salivation b) Muscle relaxation a) Kvp b) MAS
c) Prevent bradycardia d) Hasten sedation c) FFD d) All of the above
22. Intravenous pyleography is a radiographic technique used to diagnose 34. It is an alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist used for preanaesthetic medication
a) Urethral calculi b) Cystic calculi a) Ketamine b) Thiopentone sodium
c) Kidney function d) Bladder emptying c) Atrophine d) Xylazine
23. Biological effect of X-ray used for treatment of cancer is based on its affinity towards 35. Nystagmus commonly occur in which stage of anaesthesia in horse
a) Degenerating cells b) Fast multiplying cells a) Stage 1 b) Stage II
c) Regenerating cells d) Blood cells c) Stage III d) Stage IV
24. In radiographic parameters, one of the following is considered constant 36. Peterson block is a technique used to anaesthetize the………..
a) Time b) Part film distance a).Eye ball b) Upper Eyelid
c) Kilo voltage peak d)Milliampherage seconds c) Lower Eyelid d) All the above

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37. The most common complication in mid ventral abdominal laprotomy in dog is 49. Stationary anode used in which type of X-ray machine
a) Adhesion b) Incisional hernia a) Portable machine b) Ceiling mounted machine
c) Fibrosis of suture line d) Self mutilation c) Dental Machine d) All the above
38. Bradycardia and second degree AV block is caused by over dosage of 50. Atropine administration in birds produces-------------- effect in eye
a) Xylazine b) Ketamine a) Mydriasis b) Miosis
c) Haothane d) Thiopentone c) Blepharospasm d) None of the above
39. Chronic luxation of patella can be relieved by 51. Amputation of horn in goat is performed by blocking
a) Middle ligament b) Medial ligament a) Cornual nerve b) Infratrochlear
c) Lateral straight ligament d) Cruciate ligament c) a and b d) Ring block
40. Failure of cells of vital organ to perform normal metabolic function despite availability 52. Drug used for reviving respiratory arrest during anaesthesia in dog is
of oxygen is noticed in a) Doxapram b) Dopamine
a) Cardiogenic shock b) Septic Shock c) Atropine d) Adrenaline
b) Hypovolemic shock d) Distributive Shock 53. A good quality radiograph should have an image with
41. Dose rate of xylazine in horse is a) Good definition b) Good detail
a) 1-2 mg/kg b) 1.1mg/kg c) Proper scale of contrast d) All the three
c) 2.2mg/kg c) 0.1mg/kg 54. Glucose effect seen in which injectable anaesthesia
42. Succinyl choline is a ____________________ muscle relaxant a) Propofol b) Ketamine
a) Non depolarizing blocking agent b) Depolarizing blocking agent c) Barbiturate d) Althesin
c) Local analgesic d) Pain killer 55. An ionic contrast medium used for urinary system is
43. In a X-ray machine the radiation intensity will be higher in a) Hypaque b) Omnipaque
a) Anode b) Cathode c) Amipaque d) Biligraphin
c) Both side d) None of the above 56. Healing by granulation is?
44. Cystography is a contrast radiography of a. First intention healing b. second intention healing
a) Gall bladder b) Ovary c. Third intention healing d. first intention and second intention
c) Urinary bladder d) None of the above 57. Which of the following is absorbable synthetic suture material?
45. Grid is placed in between a. Catgut b. PGA
a) The x ray tube and the patient b) The patient and the table c. Polyglactin d. Both b & c
c) The patient and the cassette d) The table and the cassette 58. Excessive granulation tissue is called as?
46. The most radiosensitive body system is a. Proud flesh b. Keloid
a) Nervous system b) Skeletal system c. Cellulitis d. Ranula
c) Reproductive system d) Urinary system 59. Fluid of choice for shock?
47. Pulse echo principle is used in a. RL b. DNS
a) X-rays b) Fluroscopy c. Both a & b d. none
c) Ultra sound d) Nuclear Scintigraphy 60. …………Scatter radiation is a major radiation hazard especially during fluoroscopic
48. In X-ray production the energy distribution will be examinations.
a) Heat energy 99% and X-ray 1% b) X-ray 99% and kinetic energy 1% A) Photo electric effect b) Compton effect
c) X-ray 50% and kinetic energy 50% d) X-ray 10% and Heat 90% C) Pair production d) Photo disintegration

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61. In which form of Xray selenium is used as a photo conductor 73. Object film distance is
A) Xero radiography b) MRI a) 0 cm b) 100 cm
C) CT scan d) Scintigraphy c) 8 cm d) 70cm
62. Detailed soft tissue can be seen in which diagnostic method 74. Azaperone is best anesthetic for
A) MRI b) CT scan a) Cattle b) Horse
C) Xero radiography d) Substraction technique c) Cats d) Swine
63. Contrast radiography of spinal cord is…………. 75. A local anaesthetic with long duration of action is
A) Myelography b) Intraosseous vertebral venography a) Lidocaine b) Bupivacaine
C) Dacrocystorhinography d) none of the above c) Procaine d) Cocaine
64. The combination of Droperidol and Fentanyl citrate is 76. The principle ingredient in developing solution is
a. Sedivet b. Innovar vet a. Hypo b. Metol
c. Immobilon LA d. Revivon LA c. Sodium carbonate d. Potassium bromide
65. The comination of Etorphine and Acepromazine is 77. The best projection for imaging the pelvis is
a. Sedivet b. Innovar vet a. Ventro-dorsal view b. Lateral view
c. Immobilon LAd. Revivon LA b. Cranio-caudal view d. Dorso ventral view
66. The adverse effect of Xylazine reversed with 78. Acoustic shadowing in ultrasound is caused due to
a. Neostigmine b. Yohimbine hydrochloride a. Air b. Fluid
c. doxaprom d. Naloxone c. Calculi d. All the three
67. The Ketamine is contraindicated in intraocular surgery due to 79. X-rays were discovered by
a Increase intraocular pressureb. decrease intraocular pressure a. Hounsfield b) Roentgen
c. Increase intraocular d. Increase blood pressure c. Virchow d. Galileo
pressure and blood pressure 80. The surgery done to improve the body appearance of an animal is called
68. MAC of isoflurane in dogs a.Elective surgery b.Cosmetic Surgery
a 1.4 b. 1.7 c.Exploratory surgery d. None of the above
c. 1.28d.1.3 81. Hemorrhage control by application of epinephrine is due to_____
69. ____________ reflex is not abolished during ketamine anesthesia A.Vasodilation b.Vasoconstriction
a. Corneal reflex b.Palpebral reflex c.Both a and b d.None of the above
c. Pedal reflex d.Both a&b 82. The use of hyaluronidase is done to increase___________ anaesthesia
70. Paravertebral nerve block in cattle , the blocked spinal nerves are a.Duration of action b. Area of spread
a. T13 ,L1,L2b. T18 ,L1,L2 c. Both a and b d.None of the above
c. T12 ,T13,L1 d. L1 ,L2,L3 83. Ketamine administration leads to_________
71. Inflammatory tract having two openings_________ a.Catalepsy b.Tachypnea
a. sinus b. Abscess c.Bradycardia d.None of the above
c. Tumour d. fistula 84. _______________ is mostly used to reduce intracranial pressure
72. ___________are the drugs that control bleeding. a.Mannitol b.Dextrose
a. Antiseptics b. Antibiotics c.Rl d.DNS
c. Styptics d. antiemetics 85. Rumenotomy is a form of __________________ surgery
a.Cosemetic b.Bariatric

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c.Exploratory d. Orthopaedic c. Kmno4 d. Povidone iodine
86. The third degree burns is categories when it involve 99. Ideal age for disbudding in calves is
a. Dermis b. Epidermis a. 5 days b. 5-10 days
c. Fascia d. Muscles c. 5 - 15 days d. 10 - 15 days
87. Which is a butyrophenol derivative 100. KVP setting in an x-ray machine decides the
a. Azaperone b. Acepromazine a. Quality of x-rays b. Quantity of x-rays
c. Etorphine d. Diazepam c. Direction of x-rays d. intensity of ionization
88. Amide group of Local anesthetic
a. Lignocaine b. Procaine Answers
c. Tetracaine d. Cocaine 1.D 11.C 21.C 31.C 41.B 51.C 61.A 71.D 81.B 91.A
89. The normal exposure capacity of portable x-ray machine is 2. A 12.B 22.C 32.D 42.B 52.A 62.A 72.C 82.B 92.C
a. 40 mA b. 35 mA 3. D 13.C 23.B 33.D 43.B 53.D 63.A 73.A 83.A 93.A
c. 100 mA d. 60 mA
90. Ultrasound scanning image of fluid is 4.C 14.A 24.B 34.D 44.C 54.C 64.B 74.D 84.A 94.A
a. Hyperechoic b. Hypoechoic
5.C 15.B 25.D 35.B 45.B 55.A 65.C 75.B 85.C 95.B
c. Isoechoic c. Anechoic
91. Misplaced embryonic tissue with hair is 6.A 16.C 26.C 36.A 46.C 56.B 66.B 76.B 86.D 96.C
a. Dermoid cyst b.Urachal cyst 7D 17.C 27.C 37.B 47.C 57.D 67.A 77.A 87.A 97.B
c. Ranula d. Dentigerous cyst
8B 18.C 28.C 38.A 48.A 58.A 68.C 78.C 88.A 98.B
92. Drug used as cardiac stimulation
a. Lignocaine b) Naloxone 9. B 19.A 29.C 39.B 49.C 59.A 69.D 79.B 89.B 99.B
c. Dopamine d) Doxapram 10.A 20.D 30.A 40.B 50.B 60.B 70.A 80.B 90.C 100.A
93. Flumazenil is used for reversal of
a. Diazepam b. Xylazine
c. Acepromazine d. Ketamine
94. Grid is used when the thickness of body exceeds
a. 10cm b. 15cm
c. 20 cm d. 6 cm
95. Second gas effect is noticed when ________________ inhalation anesthetic agent is
used.
a. Isoflurane b. Nitrous oxide
c. Sevoflurane d. Halothane
96. The agents used for sterilization of inanimate objects are called
a. Sterilization b. Antiseptic
c. Disinfectant d. Asepsis
97. Epulis are tumors of________________
a. Tooth b. Gum
c. Enamel d. Soft palate
98. Antiseptic that is active in organic matter___________
a. Tincture iodine b acriflavin

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