Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut

Software Engineering

UNIT-1 QUIZ

1. RAD stands for

A. Rapid Application Development
B. Required Application Development
C. Rapid Application Developers
D. Rapid Application Disposition

2. Which of the following are valid step in the SDLC framework?

A. Requirement Gathering
B. System Analysis
C. Software Design
D. All of the above

3. Which of the following is the first step in the SDLC framework?

A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Communication
D. System Analysis

4. Which of the following is not the correct model in the Software

Development Paradigm?
A. Waterfall Model
B. P model
 C. Spiral Model
D. V model

5. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________

LOC (Line of Code).
A. 100-200
B. 300-400
C. 600-700
D. Above 800+

6. Waterfall model is not suitable for:

A. Small projects
B. Complex projects
C. Accommodating changes
D. Maintenance Projects

7. SRS stands for……………………...

A. Software Requirement Specification
B. Software requirement specified
C. System remain specification
D. Integration

8. The Waterfall approach to systems analysis and design was the first established
modern approach to building a system. This method was originally defined by …...

A. Barry Bohem

B. Winston W. Royce
C. Charles babbage
D.None of the above
9. Which one of the following is a functional requirement?
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Business needs
D. Reliability

10. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

A. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
B. Increases reusability of components
C. Encourages customer/client feedback
D. Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled
developers/designers are required

11. In the waterfall model, output of one phase is input to the next phase. True or false.
a) True
b) False
Comment: The output of requirement gathering is creation of URS (User requirement
specification) document which is input to analysis phase.

12. Which of the following is not a phase of SDLC?

a) Requirement gathering
b) Maintenance
c) Analysis
d) Testing
e) All of the above
13. Selection of particular life cycle model is based on,
a) Requirements
b) Technical knowledge of development team
c) Users
d) Project types and associated risks
e) All of the above

14. Regression testing is a major part of the life cycle?

a) Waterfall model
b) V model
c) Iterative model
d) All of the above

15. ……...is the collection of programs to provide service to other program.

a) System Software
b) Embedded Software
c) Real time Software
d) None of the above

16. Which of the following are advantages of an iterative model?

a) Early revenue generation
b) Simpler to manage
c) Divided workload
d) Early feedback
e) All the above
 17.In V model, why are test cases created before code?
a) To gain the confidence in the system
b) To find defects during dynamic testing
c) To meet project deadline
d) To prevent propagation of defect in next level

18.What is the first step in the software development lifecycle?

a. System Design

b. Coding

c. System Testing

d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis

19.Which of the following prototypes is not associated with the Prototyping Model?

a. Domain Prototype

b. Vertical Prototype

c. Horizontal Prototype

d. Diagonal Prototype

20.The major drawback of the RAD model is __________.

a. It requires highly skilled developers/designers.

b. It necessitates customer feedback.

c. It increases the component reusability.

d. Both (a) & (c)

21.What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?

a. Higher amount of risk analysis

b. Doesn't work well for smaller projects

c. Additional functionalities are added later on

d. Strong approval and documentation control

Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a

combination of the waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the
Spiral model are as follows:

● Expensive

● Doesn't work well for smaller projects

● Risk analysis requires highly skilled experts.

22.Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest
in the lifecycle?

a. RAD & Waterfall

b. Prototyping & Waterfall

c. Spiral & Prototyping

d. Spiral & RAD

Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase,
which involves Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses
customer communication activities such as defining objectives.

23.Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy
an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
 a. Spiral

b. Iterative Enhancement

c. RAD

d. Both (b) and (c)

24.Which of the following shows the correct sequence of waterfall model?

A.Feasibility study, Requirement analysis, Design, coding, testing, Integration and
system testing, Maintenance
B.Requirement analysis, Feasibility study, Design, coding, testing, Integration and system
testing, Maintenance
C.Requirement analysis,Design, Feasibility study, coding, testing, Integration and system
testing, Maintenance
D.Feasibility study, Requirement analysis, Design, coding, testing, Maintenance, Integration and
system testing

25.Feasibility study in sdlc model is carried out to

A.check if project is technically feasible
B.check if project is financially feasible
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above

26.Which of the following is not a software development life cycle model?

A.Agile Model
B.RAD Model
C.Prototype Model
D.Autonomous Model

27.Most of the effort in Classical waterfall model is required in

A.Design phase
B.Development phase
C.Maintenance Phase
D.Testing Phase

28.Spiral model originally proposed by

a. Boehm

b.Winston

c.Royce

d.Dexter

29. A software program that is outdated or obsolete is termed as

a.legacy application

b.engineering application

c.embedded application

d.open source application

30. In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

a. In the first loop

b.In every loop

c.Before using the spiral model

d.in first and second loop

31.The spiral model of software development

a. It is more chaotic than the incremental model

b. Include project risks evaluation during each iteration

c. Ends with the delivery of software product

32. Pattern enables software house team to develop a hierarchical process description
that begins at

a.high level of abstraction

b.low level of abstraction

c.mid level of abstraction

d.no level of abstraction

33.The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________.

a) diagonal, angular

b) radial, perpendicular

c) radial, angular

d) diagonal, perpendicular

34. Identify the disadvantage of the Spiral Model.

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects

b) High amount of risk analysis

c) Strong approval and documentation control

d) None of these
35. Each loop in the spiral represents _____ of the software process in Boehm’s spiral
model

a. phase

b. design

c. documentation

d. none of the above

36.Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?

1. Software dependence
2. Software development
3. Software validation
4. Software specification

37. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?

1. Heterogeneity
2. Flexibility
3. Business and social change
4. Security

38.RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
39.Which model can be selected if the user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?

1. Waterfall Model
 2. Prototyping Model
3. RAD Model
4. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

40.The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?

1. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model

2. Linear Model & RAD Model
3. Linear Model & Prototyping Model
4. Waterfall Model & RAD Model

41.What is the major advantage of using an Incremental Model?

1. Customer can respond to each increment

2. Easier to test and debug
3. It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
4. Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a
product to the market early

42. How is the Incremental Model different from the Spiral Model?

1. Progress can be measured for Incremental Model

2. Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
3. Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
4. All of the mentioned
43.If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would
you select?

1. Waterfall
 2. Spiral
3. RAD
4. Incremental

44. Agile Software Development is based on

1. Incremental Development
2. Iterative Development
3. Linear Development
4. Both Incremental and Iterative Development

45.How many phases are there in Scrum ?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases

46.In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’
needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.

1. True 2.False

47.Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development.

a. True

b. False
Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of
the software development cost.

48.Which of the following refers to internal software equality?

a. Scalability

b. Reusability

c. Reliability

d. Usability

49.Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model.

I. Manufacture

II. Maintain

III. Test

IV. Install

V. Design

VI. Specification

a. 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

b. 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5

c. 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5

d. 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4

50.Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy
an advanced version of the existing software in the market?
 a. Spiral

b. Iterative Enhancement

c. RAD

d. Both (b) and (c)

51.When to use the RAD Model?

a.When the system should need to create the project that modularizes in a short span time (2-3
months).

b.When the requirements are well-known.

c.When the technical risk is limited.

d.When there's a necessity to make a system, which modularizes in 2-3 months of period.

e. All of the above

52.Software is the combination of -

a.Programs

b.Programs & Operating procedures

c. Programs+Operating procedures+documentation

d.Either a or b

53. Software can’t be manufactured ,it is either developed or engineered.

a. True b. False
 Explanation:Software is not manufactured but is developed. So, it does not require
any raw material for its development.

54.”Software does not wear out, it becomes obsolete with time.

a. True b. False

Explanation:Different things like clothes, shoes, ornaments do wear out after some time.
But, software once created never wears out. It can be used for as long as needed and in
case of need for any updating, required changes can be made in the same software and
then it can be used further with updated features.

55.Which of the following is not a type of prototyping model?

a.Rapid Throwaway prototypes.

b.Evolutionary prototype.

c.Incremental prototype.

d.Extreme prototype.

e.Internal prototype

56.In the four key process activities, which are common to all software processes
,Which one is the odd one out?

a.Software specifications

b.Software development

c.Software validation

d.Software Workflow

e.Software evolution

57.Size, Quality , Cost & Delayed Delivery are the major factors of software crises.

a.True
b.False

58.Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:

a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and

throw-away prototyping

b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach

c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it

generates

d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re-

implementation of the software system using a more structured approach

59.Software evolution does not comprises:

a) Development activities

b) Negotiating with client

c) Maintenance activities

d) Re-engineering activities

60.Processes for evolving a software product depend on:

a) Type of software to be maintained

b) Development processes used

c) Skills and experience of the people involved

d) All of the mentioned

61.Which of the following is not the advantage of Prototyping Model?

 A. The customers get to see the partial product early in the life cycle. This
ensures a greater level of customer satisfaction and comfort.
B. New requirements can be easily accommodated as there is scope for
refinement.
C. Missing functionalities can be easily figured out.
D. Errors can be detected much earlier thereby saving a lot of effort and
cost, besides enhancing the quality of the software.
E. None

62.In which phase of RAD model the actual system is built and coding is done by using
automation tools to convert process and data models into actual prototypes?

A. Business Modelling
B. Data Modelling
C. Process Modelling
D. Application Generation

63.SDLC is the acronym of Software Development Life Cycle.

a. True
b. False

64.The V-Model is an extension of the…………………….

a. Waterfall Model
b. Spiral model
c. RAD model
d. None of the above

65.Software is flexible.
a. True
b. False
66……………software is used to monitor, control & analyze real world events as they
occur.
a.Embedded software
b.System Software
c.Real Time Software
d.none of the above

67.Which of the following is not a type of maintenance?

a.Corrective
b.Perfective
c.longtime
d.None of the above

68. Which of these model is completely unsatisfactory and should not be

Adopted?
a.Spiral Model
b.Waterfall Model
c.Build & Fix Model
D. Prototype model

69.Waterfall Model is also known as ………………..

a.Linear Sequential Model
b.Line Signed Model
c.Linear System Model
d.None

70.Evolutionary development model differs from the iterative enhancement model in

the sense that this does not require a usable product at the end of each cycle.
a.Yes
B. No

71. Who should review the detailed design before it is developed?

a. The developer.
b.The users.
c .As many stakeholders as possible.
d.The ICT support team.

72. A programmer would be a useful person to employ in which stage?

A. Planning
B. Design.
C. Implementation.
D. Analysis.
73. What happens in the design phase?
A. The code is produced
B. Making changes when the software has been created
C. Planning the solution, look and feel of the software interface
D. Ensuring the requirements are understood

74.What happens in the Analysis Stage?

A. Look at the existing system and find areas to improve
B. Create the new system and test it
C. Place the new system into the company for use
D. Decide how well the new system is working

75.Which stage comes after Design?

A. Evaluation
B. Documentation
C. Development and Testing
D. None

76.What happens in the Development and Testing Stage?

A. Plan the proposed system
B. Place the new system into the company for use
C. Decide how well the new system is working
D. Create the new system and test it

77.User Manuals and Technical guides are created in which stage of the System
Analysis and Design?
A. Design
B. Analysis
C. Documentation
D. Evaluation

78.A detailed analysis covers all of these EXCEPT

A. The user's needs and requirements.
B. Acquire hardware and software.
C. The deficiencies of the old system.
D. A recommendation of a solution.

79.A feasibility study does NOT look at

A. How the new system will be implemented.
B. How well the proposed new system will work.
C. Whethere the organisation has the appropriate hardware support.
D. Cost/benefit attributes.

80.When might the SDLC NOT be initiated?

A. When there is a minor fault in the code.
 B. When an entire module fails.
C. When the system is sluggish or full of errors.
D. When there is a security breach.

81.What document is produced to identify whether the project is technically possible

and worth the cost of development?
A. Feasibility study
B. Profit and loss account
C. Analysis report

82.Enhancements, upgrades, and bug fixes are done during the ____________ step in the
SDLC.
a.Maintenance and Evaluation
b. Problem/Opportunity Identification
c. Design
d.Development and Documentation

83. Who invented V- Model?

A. Barry W. Boehm
B. James Martin
C. Winston W. Royce
D. None of the above
84. In Which year V-Model was invented?
A. 1979
B. 1970
C. 1980
D. 1960

85.the term Rapid Application Development (RAD) was first coined by James Martin
A. True
B. False

86.Iterative model encounters the drawback of waterfall model?

A. True
B. False

87.The waterfall model is no longer used for system development as it is outdated.

A. True
B. False
C.
88.What happens in the implementation phase?
A. The code is tested against the specification
B. Making changes when the software has been created
C. Planning the solution, look and feel of the software interface
D. The deliverables of the implementation stage are created e.g. the code

89.A feasibility study does NOT look at

A. How the new system will be implemented.

B. How well the proposed new system will work.
C. Whether the organisation has the appropriate hardware support.
D. Cost/benefit attributes.

90.An acceptance test is carried out..

A. When testing the new system with other integrated systems.
B. When testing the new system module by module.
C. When testing that the new system works on the hardware.
D. When testing that the new system works with real data and real users.
 Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut

Software Engineering
UNIT 2

MCQ WITH ANSWERS

1. What are the types of requirements?

a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.

2. Select the developer-specific requirement?

a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability

Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.
3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) Elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and
Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering. Design is in
itself a different phase of Software Engineering.

4. FAST stands for

a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c

6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or
another (external) system.

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?

a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD

Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the
behavior of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe
interactions the users will have with the software.

8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under
development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are
individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be
affected as a result of project execution or project completion.

9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing
his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of
looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.

10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software

Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or
customers, what’s the point of being in business?.

11. Which of the following is correct for the types of requirements?

A. Reliability
B. Availability
C. Usability
D. All of the above
Answer D
12. Select the user-specific requirement?
A. Availability
B. Portability
C. Usability
D. Maintainability
E. Both A & C
Ans E
13. When different combination of input requires different combination of actions,Which of the
following technique is used in such situation?
a. Boundary Value Analysis
b. Equivalence Partition
c. Decision Table
d. Decision Coverage

Ans C

14. ------------are unstructured descriptions of user requirements

a. Use Case
b. Use Case Scenario
c. Use Case Diagram
d all
e. none

Ans b

15. -----------likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product
a. Enduring requirements
b. Volatile requirements
c all
d. none
Ans b

16. Anyone who should have some direct or indirect

influence on the system requirements.
a. coder
b. Stakeholder
c client
d. user
Ans b

17. For retail shopping software which table would be example of Decision Table?
a. A table containing rules of discount.

b. A table containing rules for interfaces between components.

c. A table containing rule of employee behavior.
d. A table containing rules for combination of input.

Ans A

18. Which of these steps is includes in the Requirement engineering process…

A. Requirement Gathering
B. Feasibility study
C. Validation
D. Both A & B
Ans D
19. In the elicitation process, the developers discuss with the client and end users and know their
expectations for the software.
A. Organizing requirements
B. Requirement gathering
C. Negotiation & discussion
D. Documentation
Ans B

20. Which the process to gather the software requirements from the client, analyze and document
them is known as…..
A. Software system analyst
B. User interface requirements
C. Requirement elicitation process
D. Requirement engineering process
Ans D
21. How the interviews held between two persons across the table is..
A. Written
B. Non-structured
C. One-to-one
D. Group
Ans C

22. The computer-based system can have a profound effect on the design that is chosen and also
the implementation approach will be applied.
A. Behavioral elements
B. Flow-oriented elements
C. Scenario-based elements
D. Class-based elements
Ans A

23. The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is
known as ___________________.

A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Requirement Engineering
D. System Requirements Specification
Ans : C

Explanation: The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document
them is known as requirement engineering.

24. The goal of requirement engineering is to develop and maintain sophisticated and descriptive
_________________ document.

A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Software Requirement Validation
D. System Requirements Specification
Ans : D

Explanation: The goal of requirement engineering is to develop and maintain sophisticated and
descriptive "System Requirements Specification" document.
25. It is the process in which developers discuss with the client and end users and know their
expectations from the software.

A. Requirements gathering
B. Organizing Requirements
C. Negotiation & discussion
D. Documentation
Ans : A

Explanation: Requirements gathering : The developers discuss with the client and end users and
know their expectations from the software.

26. Which of the following is correct software metrics?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Quality Metrics
C. Process Metrics
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Explanation: All of the above is correct software metrics.

27. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?

A. Known, Unknown, Undreamed

B. User, Developer
C. Functional, Non-Functional
D. Normal, Expected, Exciting
Ans : D

Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes

customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.

28. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?

A. Problem of scope
B. Problem of understanding
C. Problem of volatility
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify
overall system objectives. Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed,
have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and
they do not understand that the requirements change over time.

29. What is the major drawback of CORE?

A. Requirements are comprehensive

B. NFRs are not given enough importance
C. Role of analyst is passive
D. All of the above
Ans : C

Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification are put together by all users, customers and
analysts, so a passive analyst will not get the requirements properly.
30. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA)?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans : B

Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the three steps
involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA).

31. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans : B

Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a
successful brainstorming session.

32. Use case descriptions consist of interaction among which of the following?
a) Product
b) Use case
c) Actor
d) Product & Actor
Answer: d
Explanation: Use case description is the interaction among product and actors in a use case.

33. Use case description contents include ______________

a) Use case name and number
b) Actors
c) Stakeholder and needs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Use case includes all of the contents.

34. Which of these statements are truly acceptable?

a) A precondition is an assertion guaranteed to be true when the activity or operation finishes
b) A post condition is an assertion guaranteed to be true when the activity or operation begins
c) Trigger is an event which cause a use case to begin
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Precondition is when operation begins and post condition is when operation
finishes.

35. Which descriptions are true for the use case description format?
a) Underline text refers to another use case
b) Extensions section uses complicated numbering scheme
c) Indentation is used in order to make extensions easier to read
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Use case description format includes the following stated descriptions.

36. What are the methods in which use case descriptions can be written?
a) Actors in a use case are almost always stakeholders
b) Preconditions must be true before statement begins
c) Need list should be reviewed when writing each use case
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All the statement depicts the method in which use case description can be written.

37. What is true in context to extensions?

a) Once the basic flow is defined, the extensions can be specified
b) The alternatives are called extension as they extend the activity flow in a different direction
from branch point
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Extension are to be defined at first and do extend the flow from branch out.

38. The Use case Description Heuristics includes which of these?

a) Fill in the use case template from top to bottom
b) Write simple declarative sentences in active voice
c) Avoid sequence of steps by the actors and product
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All of the conditions are the heuristics which are to be followed for use case
description.

39. A different alternative must consist of?

a) Different Actors
b) Different Use cases
c) Different Overall product functionality
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: A different alternative consists all of the mentioned different aspects.

40. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Interactions supported by a product are cataloged in a use case description
b) Interactions are refined in use case diagram
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Interaction supported by a product are cataloged in use case diagram, Interaction
are refined in use case description.

41. Which steps are included in use case driven iterative development?
a) At each iteration, one or more use cases are selected for implementation
b) Iteration should be followed until the system is complete
c) Iterative development builds system functionality gradually through analysis, design, coding,
testing and evaluation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the steps are included for iterative development.

42. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?

a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.
43. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.

44. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?

a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling,
Specification and Review are the five phases.

45. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and
providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must
be traceable.

46. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.

a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business
needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.

47. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..

48. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three
perspectives or views. What is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical
views. All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and
objectives.

49. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize
performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy
customer requirements.

50. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst
considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common
operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.

51. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and
behavior.

52. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification
(SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a
unique interpretation.

53. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is
maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of
all terms and units of measure is defined.

54. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if

a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while
retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other

Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says that all
lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.

55. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?

i. SRS is written by customer

ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system
developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially
written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a
customer as well.

56. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.

a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only
its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.

57. Which of the following is included in SRS ?

a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule

Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation
language, resource limits, operating environment etc.

58. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?

a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces

Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the
solution (“how to do”) aspects.

59. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii

Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE.

60. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X
10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct

Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here the
given condition can be verified during testing phase.

61. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous

Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique
interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of
file character?”.

62. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous

Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The
statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human
interface will vary from person to person.

63. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?

a) True
b) False

Answer:b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to
change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.

64. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Failure costs are those that would disappear if no defects appeared before shipping
a product to customers.

65. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of conformance to requirements is lack of quality.
66. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options support a SQA plan.

67. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

68. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution

Answer: a
Explanation: External failure costs are associated with defects found after the product has been
shipped to the customer.

69. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Answer: c
Explanation: It is associated prevention cost.

70. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

71. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so
that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Errors lead to faults

72. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of quality includes all costs incurred in the pursuit of quality or in
performing quality-related activities.

73. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

74. CMM stands for

a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model

Answer: d
Explanation: The Capability Maturity Model for Software describes the principles and practices
underlying software process maturity and is intended to help software organizations improve the
maturity of their software processes in terms of an evolutionary path from ad hoc, chaotic
processes to mature, disciplined software processes.

75. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance
purposes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The ISO 9000 series of standards is a set of documents.

76. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be

a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified
Answer: d
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of nonconforming product to be identified.
Potential causes of nonconforming product are eliminated.

77. .CO policy in CMM means

a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform
Answer: c
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices covered under .CO policy.

78. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.

a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
Answer: c
Explanation: The practices defining the quality records to be maintained in the CMM are
distributed throughout the key process areas in the various Activities Performed practices.

79. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?

a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing
Answer: a
Explanation: The CMM is organized into five maturity levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable,
Defined, Managed and Optimizing.

80. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are
described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
Answer: a
Explanation: In CMM planning these activities is described in Software Project Planning,
however the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in
Software Product Engineering.

81. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording
design reviews and qualification tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should carry out reviews to ensure the
requirements are met and design methods are correctly carried out.

82. The CMM emphasizes

a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record information for later use in the process and for
improvement of the process.

83. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used
to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate adequate statistical techniques are
identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.

84. Verification
a) Done by developers
b) Done by testers
c) all
d) none

Answer: a

85. Validation
a) Done by developers
b) Done by testers
c) all
d) none

Answer: b

86. -----------Have static activities

a) Validation
b) Verifications
c) all
d) none

Answer: b
87. -----------Have dynamic activities
a) Validation
b) Verifications
c) all
d) none

Answer: a

88. Are we building the product right?

a) Validation
b) Verifications
c) all
d) none

Answer: b

89. Are we building the right product?

a) Validation
b) Verifications
c) all
d) none

Answer: a

90. ----------- take place first and include the checking for documentation, code etc

a) Validation
b) Verifications
c) all
d) none

Answer: b
 Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut
Software Engineering
UNIT 3

MCQ WITH ANSWERS

1. Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design?

a. Quality
b. Complexity
c. Efficiency
d. Accuracy

Answer: a) Quality

2. What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a
problem?

a. An Algorithm
b. A Plan
c. A List
d. Sequential Structure

Answer: a) An Algorithm

3. Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features?

a. Gane and Sarson methodology

b. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
d. All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

 4. __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA).

a. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model

b. Functional decomposition
c. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d. All of the mentioned

Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure

5. What is the main intent of project metrics?

a. For strategic purposes

b. To minimize the development schedule.
c. To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
d. To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a
daily basis

Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality
on a daily basis
6. Which tool is use for structured designing?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
Answer: b) Structure chart
7. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
Answer: d)Database administrators
8. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d) All of the mentioned
9. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
Answer: c) Quality
10. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: b
11. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: d
12. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits
software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
Answer: d
13. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
14. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: C
15. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: C
16. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
Answer: D
17. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: A
18. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low
coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: A
19. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to
another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
Answer: b
20. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being
exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
Answer: b
21. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
22. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
Answer:d
23. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
24. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of
a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
25. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
26. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
Answer: d
27. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies?
a) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Gane and Sarson methodology
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

28. Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ?

a) Functional decomposition
b) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
29. To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming
language is the purpose of
a) Structured Analysis (SA)
b) Structured Design (SD)
c) Detailed Design (DD)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
30. The results of structured analysis can be easily understood by ordinary customers.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
31. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of Bottom-Up Approach.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
32. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a burglar alarm system for
commercial buildings?
a) Movement detector
b) Door sensor
c) Window sensor
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
33. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?
a) Asynchronous communication
b) Observe and React
c) Environmental Control
d) Process Pipeline
Answer: a
34. A monitoring system examines its environment through
a) operating system
b) communication
c) set of sensors
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
35. ETL stands for
a) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading
b) Data Execution Transformation & Loading
c) Extraction Transformation & Loading
d) Execution Transformation & Loading
Answer: a
36. Which of the following examples is/are models of application architectures?
a) a means of assessing components for reuse
b) a design checklist
c) a vocabulary for talking about types of applications
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
37. ERP stands for
a) Enterprise Research Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Enterprise Resource Package
d) Enterprise Research Package
Answer: b
38. Which of the following type describes application architectures?
a) Transaction processing applications
b) Language processing systems
c) Client management systems
d) Transaction processing applications and Language processing systems
Answer: d
39. All the operations in a transaction need to be completed before the database changes are
made ________
a) functional
b) available to the users
c) permanent
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
40. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.
a) software-based
b) transaction-based
c) server-based
d) client-based
Answer: b
41. What translates a natural or an artificial language into another representation of that
language and, for programming languages also execute the resulting code?
a) ERP systems
b) Transaction-based information systems
c) Language processing systems
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
42. Properties of a system such as performance and security are independent of the
architecture used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
43. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?
a) Model-View-Controller
b) Layered Architecture
c) Client–server
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
44. Transaction processing systems may be organized as a _________ architecture with
system components responsible for input, processing, and output.
a) Repository
b) Client–server
c) Model-View-Controller
d) Pipe and Filter
 Answer: d
45. If P is risk probability,L is loss then RE risk exposure is computed as_______
a) R.E=P/L
b) R.E=P+L
c) R.E=P*L
d) R.E=2*P*L
Answer: c

46. Cyclomatic complexity is?

a. White-box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Grey box testing
d. All of the above

Answer: a
47. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of top-down Approach.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
48. What is the typical relationship between coupling and cohesion?
a. There is no relationship between coupling and cohesion.
b. As cohesion increases, coupling increases.
c. As cohesion increases, coupling decreases.
Answer: c

49. Given classes A and B, which of the following is not a common type of coupling in
object-oriented software?
a. A is a direct or an indirect subclass of B
b. A method parameter or local variable in A references B
c. A has an instance variable that refers to B
d. A invokes methods of B
e. None of the above
Answer: e

50. T or F? Coupling and cohesion are closely linked in that as one increases, so does the
other.
 a. True
b. False
Answer: b (as coupling increases, cohesion decreases)
51. All else being equal, which is more desirable?
a. Higher cohesion and higher coupling
b. Higher cohesion and lower coupling
c. Lower cohesion and lower coupling
d. Lower cohesion and higher coupling
e. None of the above is more desirable than the others.
Answer: b
52. Which of the following is / are the type of Cohesion?
a. Functional
b. Layer
c. Communicational
d. All of the above.
Answer: d

53. What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion?

a. Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same procedures.
b. All operations that access the same data are defined within one class.
c. All operations that access the data from outside the module.
d. None of the above.
Answer: a
54. Which is the worst type of coupling?

a. Control coupling
b. Data coupling
c. Content coupling
d. Stamp coupling

Answer: c

55. Which is the most desirable form of coupling?

a. Control coupling
b. Data coupling
c. Common coupling
d. Stamp coupling

Answer: b
 56. Read List-I and List-II and Match the following:

a. Data coupling --------------------- i. Module A and Module B have shared data.

b. Stamp coupling ------------------ ii. Dependency between modules is based on the fact
they communicate by only passing of data.
c. Common coupling --------------- iii. When complete data structure is passed from one
module to another.
d. Content coupling ----------------- iv. When the control is passed from one module to
the middle of another.
a. a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv
b. a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv
c. a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
d. a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d – i
Answer: b

57. Which is the most desirable form of cohesion?

a. Logical cohesion
b. Functional cohesion
c. Procedural cohesion
d. Communicational cohesion
Answer: b
58. An expression for the calculation of cyclomatic complexity.
a. V(G) = E – N + 2
b. V(G) = E + N + 2
c. V(G) = E – N – 2
dV(G) = E + N – 2
Answer: a
59. A software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the logical complexity of a
program.
a. Cyclomatic complexity
b. Index matrix
cQuantitative complexity
d. System complexity
Answer: a

60. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
61. ___________ is an indication of the relative functional strength of a module.
a. Cohesion
 b. Coupling
c. Modularity
d. Cohesion and coupling.
Answer: a
62. Which of the following is not an Advantage of modularization?

A. Smaller components are easier to maintain

B. Concurrent execution can be made possible
C. Program cannot be divided based on functional aspects
D. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program
Answer: c
63. How many type of cohesion are there in software design?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: c

64. When multiple modules share common data structure and work on different part of it, it
is called ___________.

A. Common coupling
B. Share coupling
C. Data coupling
D. Stamp coupling
Answer: d

65. Which tool is use for structured designing ?

A. Program Chart
B. Structure chart
C. Module Chart
D. All of the above
Answer: b

66. ……………………. is a testing strategy, which was devised for testing real-time systems.
A) Top-down testing
B) Bottom-up testing
C) Thread testing
D) Back-to- back testing
Answer: c
67. ………………………….. testing may be used when more than one version of a system is
available for testing.
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Thread
D) Back-to- back
Answer: d

68. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer: c
69. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: b
70. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
Answer: a
71. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer: c
72. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
Answer: d
73. Pseudocode is replace with
a) Flow chart
b) Structure chart
c) Decision table
Answer: a
74. Structure Chart partitions the system into
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
Answer: a
75. Modules at top level called modules at low level.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
76. Transform Centered Structured is a Types of Structure Chart_____
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
77. The data Flow Diagram is the basic component of …………… system
A) Conceptual
B) Logical
C) Physical
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Logical
78. Data cannot flow between two data stores because
A) it is not allowed in DFD
B) a data store is a passive repository of data
C) data can get corrupted
D) they will get merged
Answer: D

79. The characteristics of well designed system are

a) Practical b) Effective c) Secure d) Reliable e)
Flexible f) Economical
A) a, b, c and d
B) a, c, d and e
C) a, b, c, d and e
D) a, b, c, d, e and f
Answer: D
80. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear
statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A. documentation
 B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design
Answer: C
81. Advantages of system flowcharts ………………….
A) Effective communication
B) Effective analysis
C) Queasier group or relationships
D) All A, B, C
Answer: D) All A, B, C
82. ……………… is a tabular method for describing the logic of the decisions to be taken.
A) Decision tables
B) Decision tree
C) Decision Method
D) Decision Data
Answer: A) Decision tables
83. The approach used in top‐ down analysis and design is
A. to identify the top level functions by combining many smaller components into a
single entity
B. to prepare flow charts after programming has been completed
C. to identify a top level function an d then create a hierarchy of lower‐ level modules
and components.
D. All of the above
Answer: C
84. . Documentation is prepared
A. at every stage
B. at system design
C. at system analysis
D. at system development
ANS: A. at every stage
85. Decision tree uses
A. pictorial depictation of alternate conditions
B. nodes and branches
C. consequences of various depicted alternates
D. All of the above
ANS: D. All of the above
86. Problem analysis is done during
A. system design phase
B. systems analysis phase
C. before system test
D. All of the above
ANS: B. systems analysis phase
87. A decision table facilitates conditions to be related to
 A. Actions
B. Programs
C. Tables
D. Operation
Answer: A
88. The primary tool used in structured design is a:
A. structure chart
B. data-flow diagram
C. program flowchart
D. module
E. None of the above
Answer: A

89. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: B

90. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module

a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
Answer: B
 Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut

Software Engineering

UNIT-4 QUIZ

1) Which methodology is used to performed Maintenance testing?

a) Breadth test and depth test
b) Confirmation testing
c) Retesting
d) Sanity testing
2) Which of the following is not part of the Test document?
a) Test Case
b) Requirements Traceability Matrix [RTM]
c) Test strategy
d) Project Initiation Note [PIN
3) Which term is used to define testing?
a) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
b) Finding broken code
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the above
4) Which of the following is not a valid phase of SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)?
a) Testing Phase
b) Requirement Phase
c) Deployment phase
d) Testing closure
5) Which of the following testing is also known as white-box testing?
a) Structural testing
b) Error guessing technique
c) Design based testing
d) None of the above
6) Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis?
a) White box and black box testing
b) White-box testing
c) Black box testing
d) None of the above
7) Functional testing is a ------?
a) Test design technique
b) Test level
c) SDLC Model
d) Test type
8) What are the different levels of Testing?
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
 c) System testing
d) All of the above
9) Which of the following is not a part of STLC (Software Testing Life Cycle)?
a) Testing Planning
b) Requirement Gathering
c) Test Design
d) Testing closure
10) Sanity testing is a ------?
a) Test type
b) Test Execution Level
c) Test Level
d) Test design technique
11) White box testing techniques are?
a) Statement coverage testing
b) Decision coverage testing
c) Data flow testing
d) All of the above

12) In which environment we can performed the Alpha testing?

a) User's end
b) Developer's end
c) User's and developer's end
d) None of the above

13) Which of the below is not a part of the Test Plan?

a) Schedule
b) Risk
c) Incident reports
d) Entry and exit criteria

14) What is the key objective of Integration testing?

a) Design Errors
b) Interface Errors
c) Procedure Errors
d) None of the mentioned

15) Exploratory testing is a -----?

a) Experience-based Test Design Technique
b) White Box Test Design Technique
c) Black Box Test Design Technique
d) Grey Box Test Design Technique

16) What is the best time to perform Regression testing?

a) After the software has been modified
b) As frequently as possible
c) When the environment has been modified
 d) Both option a & c

17) Does the customer get a 100% bug-free product?

a) Product is old
b) Developers are super
c) The testing team is not good
d) All of the above

18) Cyclomatic complexity is?

a) White-box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) All of the above

19) Which of the following is not part of the Test type?

a) Function testing
b) System testing
c) Statement testing
d) Database testing

20) Which Test Document is used to define the Exit Criteria of Testing?
a) Defect Report
b) Test Summary Report
c) Test Case
d) Test Plan

21) Impact analysis helps us to decide which of the following testing?

a) Exit Criteria
b) How much regression testing should be done?
c) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
d) How many more test cases need to write?

22) Which testing technique is used for usability testing?

a) White-box testing
b) Grey box testing
c) Black Box testing
d) Combination of all

23) Which is not the right approach of Incremental testing approach?

a) Big bang approach
b) Top-down approach
c) Functional incrimination
d) Bottom-up approach

24) In which environment we can performed the Beta testing?

a) User's and developer's end
 b) Developer's end
c) User's end
d) None of the above

25) What is error guessing in software testing?

a) Test control management techniques
b) Test verification techniques
c) Test execution techniques
d) Test case design/ data management techniques

26) After which phase, we can proceed to the white box testing?
a) After the coding phase
b) After designing phase
c) After SRS creation
d) After the installation phase

27) Which of the following is not another name of white box testing?
a) Structural testing
b) Behavioral testing
c) Glass box testing
d) None of the mentioned

28) The test levels are performed in which of the following order?
a) Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance
b) It is based on the nature of the project
c) Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System
d) Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance

29) Define the term failure?

a) A human action that produces an incorrect result.
b) Its departure from specified behavior
c) Found in the software; the result of an error.
d) It is procedure or data definition in a computer database.

30) "V" model is?

a) Test type
b) Test Level
c) Test design technique
d) Software development testing (SDLC) model

31) Which of the below testing is executed without documentation and planning is known as?
a) Regression Testing
b) Adhoc Testing
c) Unit Testing
d) None of the above
32) Which of the below testing is related to Non-functional testing?
a) Unit Testing
b) Black-box Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) None of the above

33) Which of the below testing is related to black-box testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Code path analysis
c) Basic path testing
d) None of the above
34) Which of the following testing is also called Acceptance testing?
a) Beta testing
b) White-box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) Alpha testing

35) -------- testing is used to check the code?

a) Grey box testing
b) Black box testing
c) White-box testing
d) Red box testing

36) The Regression test case is not a --------?

a) Tests that focus on the software components, which have been modified.
b) Low-level components are combined into clusters, which perform a specific
software sub-function.
c) Additional tests that emphasize software functions, which are likely to be affected by
the change.
d) A representative sample of tests, which will exercise all software functions.

37) Generally, which testing is used when shrink-wrapped software products are being
established and part of an integration testing?
a) Integration Testing
b) Validation testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Smoke testing

38) Which of the following statement is used to discover errors in the test case?
a) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
b) Non-existent loop termination
c) Comparison of different data types
d) All of the above

39) The Decision table testing is a ----------?

a) White box Test Design Technique
 b) Black Box Test Design Technique
c) Experience-based Test Design Technique
d) Grey Box Test Design Technique

40) When we have to stop the testing?

a) The faults have been fixed
b) All the tests run
c) The time completed
d) The risk is resolved

41) ---------- are those software mistakes that occurred during the coding phase?
a) Defects
b) Failures
c) Errors
d) Bugs

42) Which of the following is not a valid software testing technique?

a) Inspections
b) Data flow analysis
c) Error guessing
d) Walkthrough

43) Define the term verification in V and V model?

a) Checking that we are building the system right
b) Making sure that it is what the user wants
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Checking that we are building the right system

44) What is the full form of SRS?

a) Software respond system
b) Software requirements specification
c) System responds software
d) System requirements specification

45) What is the main task of test planning?

a) Measuring and analyzing results
b) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
c) Determining the test approach
d) Preparing the test specification

46) Which of the below statement is true about the Equivalence Partitioning technique?
a) A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing.
b) A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing.
c) The black box testing technique is used only by developers.
d) A black box testing technique that can only be used during system testing.
47) ITG stands for------?
a) Integration Testing Group
b) Instantaneous Test Group
c) Independent Test Group
d) Individual Testing Group
48) Which of the following testing is refers to as a fault-based testing technique?
a) Stress testing
b) Mutation testing
c) Beta testing
d) Unit testing

49) ------ are the problems that threaten the success of a project but which has not yet happened.
a) Risk
b) Bug
c) Failure
d) Error

50) What is component testing?

a) White-box testing
b) Grey box testing
c) Black box testing
d) Both a & c

51) Which of the following testing technique deeply emphasizes on testing of one specific
module?
a) Inter-system testing
b) Gorilla Testing
c) Breadth Testing
d) Fuzz Testing

52) Which of the below testing is implemented initially?

a) Static Testing
b) Black-box Testing
c) White-box Testing
d) Dynamic Testing

53) Which of the following abbreviation is correct for the terms SPICE?
a) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
d) None of the above

54) ------- is not used in evaluating the size of the software?

a) Function points
b) KLOC
c) Size of module
 d) None of the above

55) Which of the following tool is not an open-source tool?

a) Cucumber
b) Selenium
c) Bugzilla
d) BugHost

56) In which of the following testing level, the main focus is on customer usage?
a) Validation Testing
b) Alpha Testing
c) Both Alpha and Beta Testing
d) Beta Testing

57) Which of the following testing technique can be used in order to determine the validation
test?
a) Black-box Testing
b) White-box Testing
c) Yellow- box Testing
d) All of the above

58) ------testing types is not a part of system testing?

a) Stress Testing
b) Recovery testing
c) Random testing
d) System Testing

59) Which of the following evaluation method is used to evaluate the quality test cases?
a) Verification
b) Mutation Analysis
c) Performance Analysis
d) Validation

60) Which of the following testing techniques is used to test the code?
a) Complex path testing
b) Quality assurance of software
c) Control structure testing
d) Code coverage

61) ------ testing is a testing technique where the actual data verified in the real environment.
a) Regression Testing
b) Alpha Testing
c) Beta Testing
d) None of the above

62) Which of the below statements is true about reviews?

 a) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
b) Reviews are doubtful to identify faults in test plans.
c) Reviews are the minimum operative way of testing code.
d) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.

63) Re-testing of a single program or component after a modification has been made is known
as---------?
a) Regional Regression Testing
b) Retesting
c) Unit Regression Testing
d) Full Regression Testing

64) Which of the following approaches are the parts of Integration testing?
a) Top-down approach
b) Bottom-up approach
c) Big-bang approach
d) All of the above

65) Which of the following testing is the part of non-functional testing?

a) Unit Testing
b) Performance Testing
c) System Testing
d) Integration Testing

66) In -------, the test engineer implements the same test cases on a modified build.
a) Adhoc Testing
b) Regression Testing
c) Sanity Testing
d) Retesting

67) Notifying the developers which bugs need to be fixed first is known as------.
a) Fixability
b) Traceability
c) Priority
d) Severity

68) -------- is the process of re-testing the modules that connected to the program or components
after the modification has occurred.
a) Regional regression Testing
b) Re-testing
c) Full Regression Testing
d) Unit Regression Testing

69) Which of the following testing techniques includes how well the user will understand and
interact with the system?
a) Alpha Testing
 b) User Acceptance Testing
c) Beta Testing
d) Usability Testing

70) In which of the following SDLC models we needs to start testing activities along with
development activities?
a) Spiral Model
b) V-Model
c) Linear Model
d) Waterfall Model

71) -------- plan is used to overcome the risk.

a) Master Plan
b) Mitigation Plan
c) Migration Plan
d) Maintenance Plan

72) Which of the following statement is true regarding verification?

a) Performed by an independent test team
b) Checking that we are building the right system
c) Making sure that it is what the user wants
d) Checking that we are building the system right

73) A regression test--------?

a) Will help us to ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
b) Can only be run during user acceptance testing
c) Will always be automated
d) Will help us to ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected

74) The primary purpose of acceptance testing is to ------?

a) Test by an independent test team
b) Test form a business point of view
c) Test the system with other systems
d) Finding faults in the system

75) ------ is not a part of performance testing?

a) Recovery testing
b) Measuring the response time
c) Simulating many users
d) Generating many transactions

76. Acceptance test cases are based on---------.

a) Design
b) Requirements
c) Decision table
d) Code

77. Test cases are designed during which of the following technique?
 a) Test configuration
b) Test recording
c) Test specification
d) Test planning
78. To test a function, the programmer has to write a--------- that's called the function to be tested and passes its test data.
a) Proxy
b) Stub
c) Driver
d) None of the above

79. SRS is also known as the specification of--------.

a) Integrated Testing
b) Black-box Testing
c) Stress Testing
d) White-box Testing

80. Which of the following statement is true about the test design technique?
a) A process for selecting test cases
b) A way to determine in a test plan what has to be done
c) A process for measuring expected output
d) A way to determine the quality of software

81. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted
systematically.
a)True
b) False

82. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful

guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

83. Test cases should uncover errors like

a) Nonexistent loop termination

b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned

84. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?

a) Error description is unintelligible

b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error

85. Black Box Testing is only functional testing

 a) True
b) False

86 . Which one of the following is applied for Usability Testing

a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Grey Box
d) All of above

87. Testing comes under which cost of quality

a) Appraisal
b) Failure
c) Preventive
d) None of the above

88. Which of the testing is performed first

a) Static
b) Smoke
c) Regression
d) Acceptance

89. Which is not a static testing technique

a) Walkthrough
b) Error Guessing
c) Inspection
d) Data Flow Analysis

90. Maintenance testing is performed using….

a) Retesting
b) Sanity
c) Breadth test and Depth test

91. White box is also known as

a) Structural Testing
b) Static
c) Dynamic

92. Which is true about black box testing

a) Black box testing facilitates testing communication amongst modules

 b) The main focus of black box testing is on the validation of your functional requirements.
c) Black box testing gives abstraction from code and focuses on testing effort on the
software system behavior.
d) All of the Above

93. The plan for unit, acceptance and system testing is called…

a) Retest Plan
b) Test Plan
c) Development plan

94. The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) Finding faults in the system

b) Testing from a business perspective
c) Testing the system with other systems
d) Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users

95. Acceptance testing is also known as :

a) Alpha testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing

96. User acceptance testing is done at the stage of :

a) Manual Stage
b) Automatic Stage
c) Both Manual & Automatic
d) None of the above

97. Which is not a black box technique

a) Syntax testing
b) LCSAJ
c) State transition testing
d) None of the above
 Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut

Software Engineering

UNIT 5

MCQ WITH ANSWERS

1. Software Maintenance includes

a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer:c
Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and preventive are the four types of
software maintenance.
3. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive
Answer: b
4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?
a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine
Answer: c
5. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing
Answer: a
6. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-
all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
Answer:b
Explanation: The three categories include: Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.
8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified
program to produce a different output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
d) Maximization
Answer:c
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on coverage criteria, instead they select every
test case that cause a modified program to produce different output than its original
version.
9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to
handle realistic applications.
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
Answer:c
Explanation: Generality measures the ability of a technique to handle realistic and
diverse language constructs, arbitrarily complex modifications, and realistic testing
applications.
10. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness
Answer:d
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the extent to which a technique chooses test cases
that will cause the modified program to produce different output than the original
program, and thereby expose faults caused by modifications.
11. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a) Internal data structures
b) Database structures
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
12.When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance
Answer:c
Explanation: Re-engineering involves putting in the effort to make the system easier to
maintain.
13. Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?
a) Cost reduction
b) Time reduction
c) Maintainability
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation: No such goal is mentioned which is not a business goal, so option d is
correct here.
14. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?
a) Higher quality programs
b) Reduced maintenance effort
c) Software easier to test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
15.Data re-engineering may be part of the process of migrating from a file-based system
to a DBMS-based system or changing from one DBMS to another.

a)True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Data re-engineering involves analyzing and reorganizing the data structures
in a program.
16. BPR stands for
a) Business process re-engineering
b) Business product re-engineering
c) Business process requirements
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.

17. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique?

a) Data re-engineering
b) Refactoring
c) Restructuring
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Restructuring involves automatic conversion from unstructured to
structured code.

18.In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design
information that can be extracted from the source code?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) direction level
Answer: c

19.In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an
abstraction level?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) directionality
Answer: b

20.The core of reverse engineering is an activity called

a) restructure code
b) directionality
c) extract abstractions
d) interactivity

Answer: c
Explanation: The engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful
specification of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and
the program data structures or database that is used.
21.What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every
type?
a) GUIs
b) Candidate keys
c) Object model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Therefore, the redevelopment of user interfaces has become one of the
most common types of re-engineering activity. But before a user interface can be rebuilt,
reverse engineering should occur.

22. Forward engineering is also known as

a) extract abstractions
b) renovation
c) reclamation
d) both renovation and reclamation

Answer:d
Explanation: Forward engineering, also called renovation or reclamation , not only
recovers design information from existing software, but uses this information to alter
or reconstitute the existing system in an effort to improve its overall quality.

23. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification
from its
a) GUI
b) Database
c) Source code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

24. Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of
classes of objects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is accomplished by examining the program code with the intent of
grouping related program variables.
25. Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a
precursor to re-engineering a new database model:
a) Build an initial object model
b) Determine candidate keys
c) Refine the tentative classes
d) Discover user interfaces

Answer: d
Explanation: Once information defined in the preceding steps is known, a series of
transformations can be applied to map the old database structure into a new database
structure.

26.Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software

engineering.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Re engineering is a process of analysis and change whereby a system is
modified by first reverse engineering and then forward engineering.

27.Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as

a) Re-factoring
b) Restructuring
c) Forward engineering
d) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring
Answer: d

28. Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering?

a) to reduce maintenance effort
b) to cope with complexity
c) to avoid side effects
d) to assist migration to a CASE environment
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse engineering helps us to detect side effects rather than avoiding
them.

29.Software evolution does not comprises:

a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities
Answer:b
Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study and management of the process of
making changes to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three options.
30.Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend rely on these two techniques.

31.Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities

of_____________
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Answer: c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and alteration of a subject system to
reconstitute it in a new form and the subsequent implementation of the new form.

32. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial activity in a reengineering project.

33The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new
software
a)True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software development. There may be
development problems, staffing problems and specification problems, thereby increasing
the cost.

34.Which of the following is true about Corrective Maintenance?

 A. It includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix problems,
which are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports.
B. It includes modifications and updations applied to keep the software product up-to
date and tuned to the ever changing world of technology and business environment.
C. It includes modifications and updates done in order to keep the software usable
over long period of time.
D. It includes modifications and updations to prevent future problems of the software.

Ans : A

Explanation: Corrective Maintenance : This includes modifications and updations done

in order to correct or fix problems, which are either discovered by user or concluded by
user error reports.
35.Which of the following is not a type of maintenance?

A. Adaptive Maintenance
B. Preventive Maintenance
C. Perfective Maintenance
D. Performative Maintenance
Ans : D
Explanation: Performative Maintenance is not a type of maintenance.
36.The cost of maintenance is as high as _______ of the cost of entire software process
cycle.

A. 0.61
B. 0.63
C. 0.67
D. 0.71
Ans : C

Explanation: A study on estimating software maintenance found that the cost of

maintenance is as high as 67% of the cost of entire software process cycle.
37.Which process is used to achieve system specification by thoroughly analyzing,
understanding the existing system?

A. Program Restructuring
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Forward Engineering
D. None of the above

Ans : B
Explanation: Reverse Engineering : It is a process to achieve system specification by
thoroughly analyzing, understanding the existing system.

38.In how many categories software Maintenance is classified?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Ans : C
Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and preventive are the four types of
software maintenance.

39.What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

A. Regression Testing
B. System Testing
C. Black-box testing
D. White-box testing
Ans : A
Explanation: Regression Testing is software testing is generally used in Software
Maintenance.

40.Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?

 A. Precision
B. Efficiency
C. Inclusiveness
D. Generality
Ans : C
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the extent to which a technique chooses test
cases that will cause the modified program to produce different output than the
original program, and thereby expose faults caused by modifications.

41. What are legacy systems?

A. new systems
B. old systems
C. under-developed systems
D. None of the above
Ans : B
Explanation: Legacy systems are the existing systems which may require some
modification or maintenance.

42. Which of the following is a type of Software Maintenance in SDLC?

1.Corrective Maintenance
2.Adaptive Maintenance
3.Perfective Maintenance
4.All of the above

Answer: d. All of the above

Explanation:
There are three basic types of Software Maintenance in SDLC.
Corrective: Corrective Maintenance of a product item is important to amend the
bugs watched while the framework is being used.
Adaptive: A product item may require maintenance when the clients need the
item to run on new platforms or new OS.
 Perfective: A software product needs maintenance to help the new highlights that
clients need it to support.
43. What are the major factors that affect software maintenance?
1.Degree of change in the functionalities & Cost of maintenance
2.Dangers in undertaking any actions or updating
3.Team working on it
4.No. of Employees on the client side

Options:
1.Only 1
2.1 & 2 Both
3.3 & 4 Both
4.All of the above

Answer: b. 1 & 2 Both

Explanation:
The activities associated with a software maintenance project are not interesting and rely
upon many major factors, for example,
The degree of change to the item required
The assets accessible to the maintenance team
The normal undertaking dangers, and so forth.

44. Which of the following software maintenance process models is used when little
changes are to be made in a software?
1.Primary model
2.Secondary model
3.Tertiary model
4.Any of the above

Answer: a. Primary Model

Explanation:
The primary model is favored for tasks including little revises where the code is changed
straightforwardly and the progressions are reflected in the important reports later.
45.Which of the following software maintenance process models is used when major
changes are to be made in a software?
 1.Primary model
2.Secondary model
3.Tertiary model
4.Any of the above

Answer: a. Secondary Model

Explanation:
The secondary process model for software maintenance is favored for projects where the
measure of revise required is significant.
46. Which of the following statements is true?
1.In Software Reengineering methodology reverse engineering cycle is followed.
2.In Software Reengineering methodology forward engineering cycle is followed.

Options:
1.Only i is true
2.Only ii is true
3.Both i and ii are true
4.None of them is true

Answer: c. Both i and ii are true

Explanation:
Methodology in which a reverse engineering cycle is followed by a forward engineering
cycle is called software reengineering.
47. Which of the following statements is true?
1.Reverse software engineering cycle is done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
are not available
2.Reverse software engineering cycle is done when the client’s need, old code, etc.
are available
Options:
1.Only i is true
2.Only ii is true
3.Both i and ii are true
4.None of them is true

Answer:a. Only i is true

Explanation:
Reverse software engineering cycle is done when the client’s need, old code, etc. are not
available.
48. Changes are made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called
_________ .

a. Preventive Maintenance
b. Adaptive Maintenance
c. Corrective Maintenance
d. Perfective Maintenance

ANSWER:a Preventive Maintenance

49. Preventive maintenance is implementing changes in existing or new requirements of
user.
a. true
b. false
ANSWER: b False

50.If maintenance cost changes are often left undocumented which may cause more
conflicts in future software.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a True

51. In Re-engineering process which concepts in order to get re-engineered software?

a. Apply forward engineering

b. Perform
c. Decide
d. Re-structure program

ANSWER: a Apply forward engineering

52. In software maintenance removing errors spotted by users is known as _______.

a. Adaptive
b. Corrective
c. Perfective
d. Preventive
ANSWER: b Corrective

53. Which includes modifications and updations done in order to correct or fix the
problems, that are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports?

a.Perfective maintenance
b.Adaptive maintenance
c.Corrective maintenance
d.Preventive maintenance
ANSWER: c Corrective maintenance

54. When the customer may ask for new features or functions in the software, what does
it mean in Software maintenance?

a.Host modifications
b.Client requirements
c.Market conditions
d.Organization changes
ANSWER: b Client requirements

55. Which Software-end factors affecting maintenance Cost?

a.Structure of Software Program
b.Programming Language
c.Dependence on external environment
d.All mentioned above
e.None of the above
ANSWER: All mentioned above

56. COCOMO stands for ______ .

a.COnsumed COst Model
b.COnstructive COst MOdel
c.COmmon COntrol MOdel
d.COmposition COst Model

Answer: (b).COnstructive COst MOdel

57. Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by
calculating number of function points in the software?
a. Time Estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
Answer: (d).Software size estimation
58. What is the most common measure for correctness?
a.Defects per KLOC
b.Errors per KLOC
c.$ per KLOC
d. Pages of documentation per KLOC
Answer: (a).Defects per KLOC
59. Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a. Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c.Coding
d. None of the above
Answer: (b).Direct measures
60. Which is the Estimation Software size should be known?
a. Time Estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
Answer: (b).Effort estimation
61.In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.
Boehm?
a.Putnam model
b.COCOMO
c.both a and b
d.None of the above
Answer: (b).COCOMO
62. A COCOMO model is
(A) Common Cost Estimation Model.
(B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
(C) Complete Cost Estimation Model.
(D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model.
Ans: B

63 Changes made to the system to reduce the future system failure chances is called
(A) Preventive Maintenance (B) Adaptive Maintenance
(C) Corretivctive Maintenance (D) Perfece Maintenance
Ans: A
64 Requirements can be refined using
(A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model
(C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model
Ans: B
65. The model that assumes that effort and development time are functions of product
size alone is
(A) Basic COCOMO model (B) Intermediate COCOMO model
(C) Detailed COCOMO model (D) All the three COCOMO models
Ans: A
66. Structured charts are a product of
(A) requirements gathering (B) requirements analysis
(C) design (D) coding
Ans: C
67. The problem that threatens the success of a project but which has not yet happened is
a
(A) bug (B) error
(C) risk (D) failure
Ans: C
68 Which phase is not available in software life cycle?
(A) Coding (B) Testing
(C) Maintenance (D) Abstraction
Ans: D
69. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.

70.Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.

71. CASE tools are used only during the software testing phase.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: CASE tools support the developer when performing one or more phases of
the software life cycle and/or support software maintenance.
72. Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool?
a) Lower
b) Classic
c) Real
d) Middle
nswer: d
Explanation: Lower and Upper CASE tools support analysis and design.
73. What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through
maintenance in CASE tools?
a) Database
b) Repository
c) Registers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of real CASE tools is the repository which stores all
changes.
74. What kind of support is provided by the Code Generation CASE tool?
a) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
b) Transformation of design records into application software
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code
d) Transformation of design records into application software AND Compiling,
interpreting or applying interactive debugging code

Answer: b
Explanation: Code Generation tool aids in transformation of design records into
prototypes or application software compatible with a given software development
language.

75. Which of the following is a drawback of using CASE tool?

a) Standardization of notations and diagrams
b) Communication between development team member
c) Costs associated with the use of the tool
d) Reduction of time and effort
Answer: c
Explanation: Using CASE tools is an expensive approach.

76. . An upper CASE tool is also referred to as a back end CASE.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: An upper CASE tool (front end CASE) provides support for the early
stages in the systems development life cycle such as requirements analysis and design.

77.CASE tools are mainly used while developing which of the following
methodologies?
a) RAD
b) JAD
c) OO Approach
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: CASE tools are used in various stages of the Software Development Life
Cycle.

78. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software
development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-
models that produce increasingly detailed software estimates.

79. CASE stands for?

A. Computer Aid Software Engineering
B. Computer Application Software Engineering
C. Computer Aided Software Engineering
D. Computer Analysis Software Engineering

Ans : C
Explanation: CASE stands for Computer Aided Software Engineering. It means,
development and maintenance of software projects with help of various automated
software tools.
80. Upper CASE tools are used in ___________ stages of SDLC?

A. planning
B. analysis
C. design
D. All of the above
Ans : D

Explanation: Upper Case Tools : Upper CASE tools are used in planning, analysis and
design stages of SDLC.
81. Which of the following tool is helpful in all the stages of SDLC?
 A. Central Repository
B. Lower Case Tools
C. Integrated Case Tools
D. Upper Case Tools
Ans : C
Explanation: Integrated Case Tools : Integrated CASE tools are helpful in all the stages
of SDLC, from Requirement gathering to Testing and documentation.
82. Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool?

A. Diagram tools
B. Process Modeling Tools
C. Documentation Tools
D. Testing tool

Ans : D
Explanation: Testing tool is not a type of CASE tool.
83. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
84. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control
change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a
software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
informally.

85. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These

include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a

86. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and
libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: a

89. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.

90. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.

91. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are
recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Configuration control
c) Version
d) Workspace
Answer: b
Explanation: In configuration control changes are managed and all versions of
components are identified and stored for the lifetime.
92. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out
with automated testing to discover software problems?
a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: In keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes,
continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source
code changes have been made.
93. Which of the following is a configuration item?
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes
have to be made through formal procedure.

94. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as

a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

95. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new
codeline from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline
Answer: a
Explanation: The code may then be developed independently.

96. Which of the following is not a drawback of CASE tool?

A. Perform testing easily
B. Technical limitation
C. Very difficult for technology transfer
D. Difficult to select a case tool.
Ans : A
Explanation: Perform testing easily is not a drawback of CASE tool.
97. . Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project
schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid
these risks.

98. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being
developed.

99. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a
change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: c

100. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a