LANGUAGE ASSESSMENT

FINAL PROJECT
(MULTIPLE CHOICES TEST)

BY:
FITRI OKLADIS DWI SAPUTRI/1852040016
ANDI KURNIAWAN/1852041019
SYAHRIL/1752041015

ENGLISH EDUCATION A 2018

ENGLISH EDUCATION DEPARTMENT

FACULTY OF LANGUAGES AND LITERATURE
STATE UNIVERSITY OF MAKASSAR
2020
 PREFACE

Bismillahirrohmanirrohim,
Assalamu’alaikum waraohmatullahi wabarakatuh,

First of all, I said thank you to Allah Subhanahu wata’ala, who had given me mercy and
blessing, so I could finish my final project Language Testing or Language Assesment. This
assignment is an examination that composed of Observation Report.
The purpose in writing this paper is to fulfill the assignment that is given by Prof. Baso
Jabu as my lecturer of Language Assesment Course.
In arranging this paper, I got many challenges and obstructions but with help of many
individuals, those obstructions could pass. I realized there are still many mistakes in this paper.
Because of that, I said thank you to all individuals who helps in the process of writing
this paper. Hopefully, Allah Subhanahu wata’ala replies all helps and bless you all. I realized
that this paper still imperfect in arrangement and the content. Then I hope the criticism from the
readers can help me in perfecting the next paper. Last but not the least, hopefully this paper can
help the readers to gain more knowledge about this paper.

Makassar, November 24th, 2020

Authors
 CHAPTER I
INTRODUCTION
I. BACKGROUND

In plain words, testing or administering a test is a method of measuring a person’s

ability or knowledge in a given domain. It is a set of techniques, procedures or and items
that constitute an instrument of some sort that requires performance or activity on the part
of the test-taker (and sometimes on the part of the tester as well). A test is an instrument
or procedure designed to elicit performance from learners with the purpose of measuring
their attainment of specified criteria. The method may be intuitive and informal or may
be structured and explicit (Brown, 2001). Language testing is the administration of test in
order to assess and measure a person’s language competence and performance or testing
language ability. It is an evaluation of an individual’s language proficiency.
Tests have become a way of life in the educational world and tests are often used
for pedagogical purposes, either as a means of motivating students to study, or as a means
of reviewing material taught (Bachman, 1990). Thus language tests can be valuable
sources of information the effectiveness of learning and teaching. Language teachers
regularly use tests to help diagnose students’ strengths and weaknesses, to assess student
progress, and to assist in evaluating student achievement. As sources of feedback on
learning and teaching, language tests can thus provide useful input into the process of
language teaching (Bachman, 1990). In testing, the test items should base on the syllabus
of teaching which has been made. The language materials may include both the four
language elements and four language skills.
Based on the statement above, the writer conducted a test for student in
Vocational High School to know their knowledge about English. The test consists of
language skills for reading and also language area test for grammar and vocabulary. The
writer try to find out the frequency of distribution of the scores, mean scores, standard
deviation, and reliability. Besides that, the writer also analyze the validity, item difficulty
level, item discriminates, and full item analysis. The purpose of this activity is to know
how to evaluate English language testing.
II. COVERAGE

The writer conducted the test comprised for three distinct elements. It consists of
two language areas (vocabulary and grammar) and the rest is language skill (reading). For
language skill test, reading comprehension concern with narrative text and consist of ten
questions which related to the passage. The areas of language tried-out in this test
encompass vocabulary and grammar. Both vocabulary and grammar test consists of ten
questions and the whole totals of questions in the test are 30 items.

III. PLACE OF TRY-OUT

The writer was conducted the test at SMA NEGERI 1 GOWA. The sample of this
test was X MIA 7 grade student with total participant 30 students. The school is located
at Jl. Andi Mallombassang No.1A, Gowa Kecamatan Somba Opu, Makassar. The date
was 24th November 2020. The result of the test will be discussed in the next chapter.
 CHAPTER II
PREPARATION
I. TEST SPESIFICATION
Subject : English
Semester / Class : Ganjil /X MIA 7
School : SMA NEGERI 1 GOWA
Type of test : Multiple Choices
BASIC TYPES OF
NO. OBJECTIVES DOMAIN ITEMS
COMPETENCE QUESTIONS

The students can

The text consist of
comprehend the text
1. Reading C1 and C2 two narrative text 1-10
and get the specific
(fables)
information from the
text.

The text consist of

The students are able
tenses, such as
to use the suitable
simple present
2. Grammar tenses in C1 and C2 11-20
tense, simple past
constructing
tense, past perfect
sentences
continuous tense
etc.

Students are able to

identify the words’ Words meaning
C1,C2,and
3. Vocabulary meaning, the words’ and the closed 21-30
C3
use in context and its meaning
closed meaning.
 II. THE CONSTRUCTED TEST

Mata Pelajaran : BAHASA INGGRIS

Nama Sekolah :
Nama Siswa :
Kelas :

A. READING SECTION
Read the text below and answer the following questions number 1-5 by crossing
each letter (A, B, C, or D) for the correct answer.

The Rats and the Elephants

Once upon a time there lived a group of mice under a tree in peace. However, a group of elephants
crossing the jungle unknowingly destroyed the homes of all the rats. Many of them were even crushed to
death.
Then taking of rats decided to approach the elephant's king and request him to guide his herd
through another route. On hearing the sad story, the elephant's king apologized and agreed to take another
route. And so the lives of the rats were saved.
One day elephant-hunters came to the jungle and trapped a group of elephants in huge nets. Then
the elephant king suddenly remembered the king of the rats. He called the elephants of his herd, which had
not been trapped, to go seek help from the king and told him about the trapped elephants.
The rat's king immediately took his entire group of rats and they cut open the nets which had
trapped the elephant's herd. The elephant herd was totally set free. They danced with joy and thank the rats.

1. What is the generic structure of "once upon a time there lived a group of mice under a
tree in peace"?
A. Complication
B. Orientation
C. Description
D. Identification
 2. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about a group of elephants?
A. Crossing the jungle
B. Makes many mice death
C. They mad with a group of mice
D. Destroyer of a group mice
3. The pronoun “him” in paragraph 2 line first refers to…?
A. an elephant's king
B. a group of mice
C. a group of an elephant
D. an elephant hunters
4. According to the passage above it is implied that…?
A. the group of rats helped the elephant for the hunters’ trap.
B. the group of an elephant are destroyer for the rats.
C. the group of rats are helper and is not revenged with an elephant.
D. the elephant-hunters trapped a group of elephants in huge nets.
5. All the following statements below are stated on the passage above, EXCEPT…?
A. a group of elephants crushed a group of mice to death.
B. the elephant hunters trapped the elephant then they sell it the zoo.
C. the elephant's king apologized to the rats till they were saved
D. they danced with joy and thank the rats when the elephant totally free.

A Woman and the Wolves

A long time ago, very few people lived in the New Territories. There were only a few villages. If
the people wanted to go from one village to another, they often had to pass through wild and unsafe forest.
One day, a farmer’s young wife went to the next village to visit her own mother and brother. She brought
along her baby son. When it was time for her to leave, her brother said “it is getting dark. Let my son, Ah
Tim go with you though the forest.”
So Ah Tim led the way and the young woman followed behind, carrying her baby. When they were
in the forest, suddenly they saw a group of wolves. They began to run to avoid the danger, but Ah Tim
kicked against a stone and fell down. At once the wolves caught him. The young woman cried to the
wolves, “please eat my own son instead.” Then, she put her baby son on the ground in front of the wolves
and took her nephew away.
Everyone understood that this was because the woman was very good and kind. She had offered
her own son’s life to save her nephew. They ran back to the house and called for help. All men in the
village fetched thick sticks and went back with her into the forest. When they got there, they saw something
very strange. Instead of eating the woman’s baby the wolves were playing with him.
 Read the following text above to answer questions number 6-10! Choose then answer
the following questions below by crossing each letter for the correct answer.

6. What separated between one village to another in the New Territories?

A. Mountains and hills
B. Another village
C. Forests
D. Towers
7. According to the story above it is implied that the woman gave her son to the wolves
because …?
A. she thought about how her brother would be
B. she wanted her son was eaten by the wolves
C. she kept a grudge on his brother
D. she loved her nephew than her son
8. It can be inferred from the story “A Woman and the Wolves” that Ah Tim is…?
A. The young woman’s brother
B. The young woman’s nephew
C. The young woman’s son
D. The young woman’s mother
9. Which one of the following statements below is NOT stated in the story?
A. The young woman went the next village along with her son and nephew.
B. There was wild and dangerous forest with many wolves.
C. The young woman’s baby was playing with the group of wolves.
D. The young woman’s brother would be a guardian for his son and nephew.
10. The word “unsafe” in the first paragraph line 3 is closed meaning to…?
A. scared
B. peaceful
C. dangerous
D. horror
B. GRAMMAR SECTION
Choose then answer the following questions below by crossing each letter (A, B, C,
D) for the correct answer.

11. Neana and I . . . the lunch yet. So, we are very hungry now.
A. haven’t eat
B. haven’t eaten
C. have eaten
D. haven’t eating
12. Someone . . . the door now. But we are not in the living room.
A. is knocking
B. are knocking
C. knock
D. knocked
13. What time does your older sister get up?
A. She gets up at 6 am.
B. She usually got up at 6 am.
C. She always got up at 6 am.
D. She always gets up at 6 am.
14. It is still raining now outside. Therefore, the riders . . . their rain coat.
A. is wearing
B. will wearing
C. are wearing
D. have wearing
15. Rachel . . . her mother to buy her some clothes at the moment.
A. is asking
B. have asked
C. asks
D. asked
16. Moana, and Neana . . . stayed here since four years.
A. been
B. being have
C. be have been
D. have been
17. Ms. Jenifer . . . a lot of novels since she was a teenager.
A. has being read
B. has read
C. has been read
D. has reader
18. What is she doing in the garden?
A. She is planting flowers.
B. She is eating.
C. She is watching TV.
D. She is playing cards.
19. Moana can’t come to the Neana’s birthday party because she . . . her young sister.
A. taking care of
B. is taking care of
C. be taking care of
D. is takes care of
20. What are they doing right now?
A. They are doing swimming.
B. They swim right now.
C. They are swimming.
D. They usually go swimming.
C. VOCABULARY SECTION
Choose then answer the following questions below by crossing each letter (A, B,
C, D) for the correct answer.
21. She is a radio reporter. She always . . . the information every morning.
A. broadcast
B. listen to
C. reads
D. speaks
22. In some countries, employers are accused of ... their workers by paying them low wages.
A. exploring
B. exploiting
C. exposing
D. exploding
23. I went to dentist yesterday because my . . . were in pain.
A. hands
B. fingers
C. teeth
D. ears
24. My neighbor is a professional tailor. He makes. . . .
A. comfy clothes
B. beautiful bag
C. stunning belt
D. some delicious food
25. Kathy is a . . . she teaches English in our class. Every students love her.
A. nice teacher
B. emotional teacher
C. ugly teacher
D. arrogant teacher
26. Katherine didn’t study hard. She didn’t . . . the exam.
A. join
B. get
 C. pass
D. break
27. This exercise was too . . . for me. I got score 100.
A. easiest
B. easy
C. easier
D. easily
28. You look so beautiful today in white dress. The underline word is closed meaning to?
A. Gorgeous
B. Attractive
C. Charming
D. Pleasant
29. My mother is a nurse. She works in Harapan Bunda Hospital. The underline word is
closed meaning to?
A. trade
B. business
C. duty
D. employment
30. Diana’s barbie is broken. Diana is very sad now. The underline word is closed meaning
to?
A. crack
B. shatter
C. snap
D. spoil
III. ANSWER KEYS

Reading Grammar Vocabulary

No. Answer No. Answer No. Answer
1. B 11. A 21. A
2. D 12. A 22. D
3. A 13. D 23. C
4. C 14. B 24. B
5. B 15. C 25. A
6. C 16. B 26. C
7. A 17. C 27. B
8. B 18. A 28. A
9. D 19. A 29. C
10. C 20. D 30. D

IV. SCORING RUBRIC

Number of Correct Wrong No Total

Section
Questions Answer Answer Answer Questions
Reading 10 1 0 0
Grammar 10 1 0 0 30
Vocabulary 10 1 0 0

Raw score
Total score Score of students get = x 100
Number of Questions
 CHAPTER III
ANALYSIS

A. DATA PRESENTATION (FREQUENCY DISTRIBUTION)

a. List of Students’ Score

NO NAME RAW SCORE FINAL SCORE

1 ADELYA USWATUN K. 22 73
2 AFDHALUL HISYAM 21 70
3 AINIYYAH MUTIARA C.H. 21 70
4 ALISIA FITRI FIDELA T.S. 21 70
5 ANDI SUCI RAMADHANI 20 67
6 AURA AZIZAH LATIF 19 63
7 FITRIANA RAMADHANI 19 63
8 JELITA SEPTIANI SAHAR 19 63
9 KAILA SHIFRA SUN 19 63
10 MUH. AKBAR FADILLAH 19 63
11 MUH. FAHMI SAYYID A. 19 63
12 MUH. FAJAR 18 60
13 MUH. HARLIANSYAH M. 18 60
14 MUH. RAHAYU 18 60
15 MUHAMMAD FADLI 17 57
16 MUHAMMAD RIZWAN R. 17 57
17 NUR HANDAYANI ZAIN 17 57
18 NUR RAHMIYANTI R. 17 57
19 NUR RAMADHAN ASHARI 17 57
20 NUR RIFDHA AULIA 16 53
21 NURAENI AZIS 16 53
22 NURANNISA 16 53
23 NURHALIZAH S. 15 50
24 NURUL FIRDAUSIA 15 50
25 NURUL HASJA 15 50
26 NURZAITUN JUNITA 14 47
27 RACHMAT RENGGA R. 14 47
28 REZKY AULIA R. 13 43
29 SHASY AULIA 13 43
30 SHERLAH MASTYANI N. 12 40
 b. Data Presentation

NO. RAW SCORE FINAL SCORE TALLY FREQUENCY PERCENTAGE

1 22 73 / 1 3.33
2 21 70 /// 3 9.99
3 20 67 / 1 3.33
4 19 63 ////// 6 19.98
5 18 60 /// 3 9.99
6 17 57 ///// 5 16.65
7 16 53 /// 3 9.99
8 15 50 /// 3 9.99
9 14 47 // 2 6.66
10 13 43 // 2 6.66
11 12 40 / 1 3.33
TOTAL 187 623 30 30 100

Raw Score : Total of correct answers

Raw score
Final score : Score of students get = Number of Questions x 100

Tally : Number of student gets the same raw score

F
Percentage : x 100
N

B. MEAN SCORE & STANDAR DEVIATION

a. Mean score

NO. X F FX
1 7.3 1 7.3
2 7.0 3 21.0
3 6.7 1 6.7
4 6.3 6 37.8
5 6.0 3 18.0
6 5.7 5 28.5
7 5.3 3 15.9
8 5.0 3 15.0
9 4.7 2 9.4
10 4.3 2 8.6
11 4.0 1 4.0
TOTAL 62.3 N= 30 ∑fx= 172.2
  fx = 172.2 = 5.74
Mean (X) = N 30
b. Standard deviation

No. X d (X-Mean) d2
1 7.3 1.56 2.4336
2 7.0 1.26 1.5876
3 7.0 1.26 1.5876
4 7.0 1.26 1.5876
5 6.7 0.96 0.9216
6 6.3 0.56 0.3136
7 6.3 0.56 0.3136
8 6.3 0.56 0.3136
9 6.3 0.56 0.3136
10 6.3 0.56 0.3136
11 6.3 0.56 0.3136
12 6.0 0.26 0.0676
13 6.0 0.26 0.0676
14 6.0 0.26 0.0676
15 5.7 -0.04 0.0016
16 5.7 -0.04 0.0016
17 5.7 -0.04 0.0016
18 5.7 -0.04 0.0016
19 5.7 -0.04 0.0016
20 5.3 -0.44 0.1936
21 5.3 -0.44 0.1936
22 5.3 -0.44 0.1936
23 5.0 -0.74 0.5476
24 5.0 -0.74 0.5476
25 5.0 -0.74 0.5476
26 4.7 -1.04 1.0816
27 4.7 -1.04 1.0816
28 4.3 -1.44 2.0736
29 4.3 -1.44 2.0736
30 4.0 -1.74 3.0276
172.2 0 21.772
 ∑𝑑 2
S.D =√
𝑁

21.772
= √
30

= √0.726
= 0.852
 C. RELIABILITY (SPLIT-HALF OR TEST-RETEST)

TEST ITEM
NO NAME
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 X Y
1 ADELYA USWATUN K. 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 11 11
2 AFDHALUL HISYAM 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 11 10
3 AINIYYAH MUTIARA C.H. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 12 9
4 ALISIA FITRI FIDELA T.S. 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 10 11
5 ANDI SUCI RAMADHANI 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 10 10
6 AURA AZIZAH LATIF 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 11 8
7 FITRIANA RAMADHANI 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 11 8
8 JELITA SEPTIANI SAHAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 9 10
9 KAILA SHIFRA SUN 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 12 7
10 MUH. AKBAR FADILLAH 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 10 9
11 MUH. FAHMI SAYYID A. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 11 8
12 MUH. FAJAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 10 8
13 MUH. HARLIANSYAH M. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 9 9
14 MUH. RAHAYU 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 10 8
15 MUHAMMAD FADLI 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 8 9
16 MUHAMMAD RIZWAN R. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 11 6
17 NUR HANDAYANI ZAIN 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 9 8
18 NUR RAHMIYANTI R. 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 9 8
19 NUR RAMADHAN. A 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 10 7
20 NUR RIFDHA AULIA 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 8 8
21 NURAENI AZIS 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 10 6
22 NURANNISA 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 7 9
23 NURHALIZAH S. 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 8 7
24 NURUL FIRDAUSIA 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 10 5
25 NURUL HASJA 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 9 6
26 NURZAITUN JUNITA 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 8 6
27 RACHMAT RENGGA R. 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 10 4
28 REZKY AULIA R. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 8 5
29 SHASY AULIA 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 9 4
30 SHERLAH MASTYANI N. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 8 4
SX 27 4 25 3 16 18 17 20 22 17 15 18 16 5 18 26 12 27 20 16 15 5 26 27 29 21 23 16 7 5 289 228
 TABLE FOR RELIABILITY CALCULATION

GANJIL GENAP
NO. X2 Y2 XY
X Y
1 11 11 121 121 121
2 11 10 121 100 110
3 12 9 144 81 108
4 10 11 100 121 110
5 10 10 100 100 100
6 11 8 121 64 88
7 11 8 121 64 88
8 9 10 81 100 90
9 12 7 144 49 84
10 10 9 100 81 90
11 11 8 121 64 88
12 10 8 100 64 80
13 9 9 81 81 81
14 10 8 100 64 80
15 8 9 64 81 72
16 11 6 121 36 66
17 9 8 81 64 72
18 9 8 81 64 72
19 10 7 100 49 70
20 8 8 64 64 64
21 10 6 100 36 60
22 7 9 49 81 63
23 8 7 64 49 56
24 10 5 100 25 50
25 9 6 81 36 54
26 8 6 64 36 48
27 10 4 100 16 40
28 8 5 64 25 40
29 9 4 81 16 36
30 8 4 64 16 32
N=30 X = 289 Y = 228 X2 = 2833 Y2 = 1848 XY= 2213
 𝑵∑𝒙𝒚−( ∑ 𝒙 ) ( ∑ 𝒚 )
rxy =
√[ 𝑵∑𝒙𝟐−(∑𝒙)𝟐][ 𝑵∑𝒚𝟐 −(∑𝒚𝟐 ]

rxy = Pearson product correlation between variables x and y

N = number of students taking the test

x = sum of variable x

y = sum of variable y

 xy = sum of multiplication of variable x and variable y

x 2
= sum of square x

y 2
= sum of square y

𝑵∑𝒙𝒚−( ∑ 𝒙 ) ( ∑ 𝒚 )
rxy =
√[ 𝑵∑𝒙𝟐−(∑𝒙)𝟐][ 𝑵∑𝒚𝟐 −(∑𝒚𝟐 ]

(𝟑𝟎 × 𝟐𝟐𝟏𝟑)−(𝟐𝟖𝟗 ×𝟐𝟐𝟖)

rxy =
√[ (𝟑𝟎×𝟐𝟖𝟑𝟑)−(𝟐𝟖𝟗)𝟐][ (𝟑𝟎×𝟏𝟖𝟒𝟖)−(𝟐𝟐𝟖)𝟐 ]
𝟔𝟔𝟑𝟗𝟎−𝟔𝟓𝟖𝟗𝟐
rxy =
√[ 𝟖𝟒𝟗𝟗𝟎−𝟖𝟑𝟓𝟐𝟏].[𝟓𝟓𝟒𝟒𝟎−𝟓𝟏𝟗𝟖𝟒]
𝟒𝟗𝟖
rxy =
√[ 𝟏𝟒𝟔𝟗].[𝟑𝟒𝟓𝟔]
𝟒𝟗𝟖
rxy =
√𝟓𝟎𝟕𝟔𝟖𝟔𝟒
𝟒𝟗𝟖
rxy = = 0.221
𝟐𝟐𝟓𝟑.𝟏𝟖
For Split Half Reliability + the formula:

rtt = Total test coefficient reliability (tt = total test)

rhh = Product moment Correlation Coefficient between the first half and the second half
of the test (hh = half-half)
1 & 2 constant number

2𝑟ℎℎ
rtt =
1+𝑟ℎℎ

2×0.221 0.442
rtt = = = 0.36
1+0.221 1.221
 D. VALIDITY

TEST ITEM
NO. NAME ∑
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 ADELYA USWATUN K. 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 22
2 AFDHALUL HISYAM 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 21
3 AINIYYAH MUTIARA C.H. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 21
4 ALISIA FITRI FIDELA T.S. 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 21
5 ANDI SUCI RAMADHANI 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 20
6 AURA AZIZAH LATIF 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 19
7 FITRIANA RAMADHANI 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 19
8 JELITA SEPTIANI SAHAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 19
9 KAILA SHIFRA SUN 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 19
10 MUH. AKBAR FADILLAH 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 19
11 MUH. FAHMI SAYYID A. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 19
12 MUH. FAJAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 18
13 MUH. HARLIANSYAH M. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 18
14 MUH. RAHAYU 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 18
15 MUHAMMAD FADLI 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 17
16 MUHAMMAD RIZWAN R. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 17
17 NUR HANDAYANI ZAIN 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 17
18 NUR RAHMIYANTI R. 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 17
19 NUR RAMADHAN A. 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 17
20 NUR RIFDHA AULIA 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 16
21 NURAENI AZIS 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 16
22 NURANNISA 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 16
23 NURHALIZAH S. 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 15
24 NURUL FIRDAUSIA 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 15
25 NURUL HASJA 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 15
26 NURZAITUN JUNITA 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 14
27 RACHMAT RENGGA R. 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 14
28 REZKY AULIA R. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 13
29 SHASY AULIA 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 13
30 SHERLAH MASTYANI N. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 12
SX 27 4 25 3 16 18 17 20 22 17 15 18 16 5 18 26 12 27 20 16 15 5 26 27 29 21 23 16 7 5 517
 𝟓𝟏𝟕
Calculating the mean score of total score: Mt = = 𝟏𝟕. 𝟐
𝟑𝟎

NO. X d (X-Mean) d2
1 22 4.8 23.04
2 21 3.8 14.44
3 21 3.8 14.44
4 21 3.8 14.44
5 20 2.8 7.84
6 19 1.8 3.24
7 19 1.8 3.24
8 19 1.8 3.24
9 19 1.8 3.24
10 19 1.8 3.24
11 19 1.8 3.24
12 18 0.8 0.64
13 18 0.8 0.64
14 18 0.8 0.64
15 17 -0.2 0.04
16 17 -0.2 0.04
17 17 -0.2 0.04
18 17 -0.2 0.04
19 17 -0.2 0.04
20 16 -1.2 1.44
21 16 -1.2 1.44
22 16 -1.2 1.44
23 15 -2.2 4.84
24 15 -2.2 4.84
25 15 -2.2 4.84
26 14 -3.2 10.24
27 14 -3.2 10.24
28 13 -4.2 17.64
29 13 -4.2 17.64
30 12 -5.2 27.04
Total 517 1 197.4
 𝟐
SD= √∑𝒅 𝒔. 𝒅 = √𝟏𝟗𝟕.𝟒 = 𝟐, 𝟓𝟔
𝑵 𝟑𝟎

1. Item 1
∑𝑥 27
p = = = 0,9
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0.9 = 0,1
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(4×17)+(3×16)+(2×15)+(2×14)+(2×13)+12)
Mp = 27
464
= = 17,1
27

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17.1−17.2 0.9 −0,1 0.9

rpbi = √𝑞 = √ = √
𝑠𝑑1 2,56 0.1 2,56 0.1

= -0,03 √9 = -0,03 . 3 = -0.09

2. Item 2
∑𝑥 4
p = = = 0.13
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0.13 = 0.87
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(21+17+16+(2×16) 86
Mp = = = 21.5
4 4

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 21,5−17.2 0.13 4.3 0.13

rpbi = √𝑞 = √ = 2,56 √0.87
𝑠𝑑1 2,56 0.87

=1,67 √0.14 = 1,67 . 0,37= 0.61

3. Item 3
∑𝑥 25
p = = = 0,83
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0.83 = 0,17
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(3×17)+(2×16)+(3×15)+14+(2×13)+12 432
Mp = = 25 = 17.28
25

SD = 2,56
𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17.28−17.2 0,83 0,08 0,83
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,17 = 2,56 √0,17

=0,03 √4.88 =0,03 . 2,20= 0.06

4. Item 4
∑𝑥 3
p = = = 0,1
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,1 = 0,9
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(21+(2×19) 59
Mp = = 3 = 19,6
3

SD = 2,56
𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 19,6−17.2 0,1 2,4 0,1
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,9 = 2,56 √0,9

=0,93 √0,11 =0,93 . 0,33= 0,30

5. Item 5
∑𝑥 16
p = = = 0,53
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,53 = 0,47
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+21+20+(6×19)+18+(2×17)+15+14+13 271
Mp = = 16 = 16,9
16

SD = 2,56
𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 16,9−17.2 0,53 −0,3 0,53
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,47 = 2,56
√0,47

= -0,11 √1.12 = -0,11 . 1,06= -0.11

6. Item 6
∑𝑥 18
p = = = 0,6
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,6 = 0,4
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(4×19)+(2×18)+(4×17)+16+15+14+13 322
Mp = = 18 = 17,8
18

SD = 2,56
𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,8−17.2 0,6 0,6 0,6
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,4 = 2,56 √0,4

= 0,23 √1.5 = 0,09 . 1,22= 0,28

7. Item 7
∑𝑥 17
p = = = 0,56
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,56 = 0,44
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(3×19)+(3×18)+(2×17)+16+(3×15)+14 325
Mp = = 17 = 19.1
17
 SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 19,1−17,2 0,56 1,9 0,56

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,44 = 2,56 √0,44

= 0,74 √1.27 = 0,74 . 1,12= 0,82

8. Item 8
∑𝑥 20
p = = = 0,66
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,66 = 0,34
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(5×19)+18+(4×17)+(2×16)+(2×15)+14) 362
Mp = = 20 = 18.1
20

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 18,1−17,2 0,66 0,9 0,66

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,34 = 2,56 √0,34

= 0,35 √1.94 = 0,35 . 1,39= 0,48

9. Item 9
∑𝑥 22
p = = = 0,73
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,73 = 0,27
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(6×19)+(2×18)+(4×17)+(2×16)+(2×15)+14) 399
Mp = = 22 = 18.1
22

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 18,1−17,2 0,73 0,9 0,73

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,27 = 2,56 √0,27

= 0,35 √2.7 = 0,35 . 1,64 = 0,57

10. Item 10
∑𝑥 17
p = = = 0,56
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,56 = 0,44
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(2×21)+20+(3×19)+(2×18)+(2×17)+(2×16)+(2×15)+14+12) 277
Mp = = 17 = 16,3
17

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 16,3−17,2 0,56 −0,9 0,56

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,44 = 2,56 √0,44

= -0,35 √1,27 = -0,13 . 1,12 = -0,39

11. Item 11
∑𝑥 15
p = = = 0,5
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,5 = 0,5
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(3×19)+(3×18)+(3×17)+16+15+13) 290
Mp = = 15 = 19,3
15

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 19,3−17,2 0,5 2,1 0,5

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,5 = 2,56 √0,5

= 0,82 √1 = 0,82 . 1 = 0,82

12. Item 12
∑𝑥 18
p = = = 0,6
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,6 = 0,4
517
Mt = 30
= 17.2
 (22+(3×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(3×17)+16) 340
Mp = = 18 = 18,8
18

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 18,8−17,2 0,6 1,6 0,6

rpbi =
𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,4 = 2,56 √0,4

= 0.62 √1,5 = 0,62 . 1,22 = 0,75

13. Item 13
∑𝑥 16
p = = = 0,53
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,53 = 0,47
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(3×21)+20+(2×19)+(4×17)+(2×16)+(3×15)+13) 279
Mp = = 16 = 17,4
16

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,4−17,2 0,53 0,2 0,53

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,47 = 2,56 √0,47

= 0.07 √1,12 = 0,07 . 1,05 = 0,07

14. Item 14
∑𝑥 5
p = = = 0,16
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,16 = 0,84
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(2×21)+20+18+15 95
Mp = = 5 = 19
5

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 19−17,2 0,16 1,8 0,16

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,84 = 2,56 √0,84

= 0.70 √0,19 = 0,70 . 0,43 = 0,30

15. Item 15
∑𝑥 18
p = = = 0,6
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,6 = 0,4
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(2×21)+20+(4×19)+(2×18)+(4×17)+(2×16)+15+14) 303
Mp = = 18 = 16,3
18

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 16,3−17,2 0,6 −0,9 0,6

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,7 = 2,56 √0,4

= -0.35 √1,5 = -0,35 . 1,22 = -0,42

16. Item 16
∑𝑥 26
p = = = 0,86
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,86 = 0,14
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(5×19)+(2×18)+(5×17)+(2×16)+(2×15)+(2×14)+(2×13)+12) 449
Mp = = 26 =
26

= 17,3
SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,3−17,2 0,86 0,1 0,86

rpbi =
𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,14 = 2,56 √0,14

= 0.03 √6,14 = 0,03 . 2.48 = 0,07

17. Item 17
∑𝑥 12
p = = = 0,4
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,4 = 0,6
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(21+19+18+17+16+(2×15)+(2×14)+(2×13)+12 187
Mp = = 12 = 15,5
12

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 15,5−17,2 0,4 −1,7 0,4

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,6 = √
2,56 0,6

= -0,66 √0,66 = -0,66 . 0,81 = -0,53

18. Item 18
∑𝑥 27
p = = = 0,9
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,9 = 0,1
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(6×19)+(2×18)+(5×17)+(3×16)+(2×15)+(2×14)+13+12) 471
Mp = = 27 = 17,4
27

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,4−17,2 0,9 0,2 0,9

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,1 = 2,56 √0,1

= 0.07 √9 = 0,07 . 3 = 0,21

19. Item 19
∑𝑥 20
p = = = 0,66
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,66 = 0,34
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
 (22+(3×21)+20+(5×19)+18+(3×17)+(2×16)+15+14+(2×13) 356
Mp = = 20 = 17,8
20

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,8−17,2 0,66 0,6 0,66

rpbi =
𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,34 = 2,56 √0,34

= 0.23 √1,94 = 0,23 . 1,39 = 0,31

20. Item 20
∑𝑥 16
p = = = 0,53
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,53 = 0,47
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(4×19)+(2×18)+17+(2×16)+15+14+13) 287
Mp = = 16 = 17,9
16

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,9−17,2 0,53 0,7 0,53

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,47 = 2,56 √0,47

= 0.27 √1,12 = 0,27 . 1,05 = 0,28

21. Item 21
∑𝑥 16
p = = = 0,53
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,53 = 0,47
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(3×21)+20+(4×19)+18+(4×17)+16+14+13) 288
Mp = = 16 = 18
16

SD = 2,56
 𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 18−17,2 0,53 0,8 0,53
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,47 = 2,56 √0,47

= 0.31 √1,12 = 0,31 . 1,05 = 0,32

22. Item 22
∑𝑥 5
p = = = 0,16
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,16 = 0,84
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+21+19+18+15) 95
Mp = = 5 = 19
5

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 19−17,2 0,16 1,8 0,53

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,84 = 2,56 √0,47

= 0.70 √0,19 = 0,70 . 0,43 = 0,30

23. Item 23
∑𝑥 26
p = = = 0,86
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,86 = 0,14
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(4×17)+(3×16)+(3×15)+(2×14)+12) 453
Mp = = 26 = 17,42
26

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,42−17,2 0,86 0,22 0,86

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,14 = 2,56 √0,14

= 0.08 √6,14 = 0,08 . 2,47 = 0,35

24. Item 24
∑𝑥 27
p = = = 0,9
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,9 = 0,1
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(5×17)+(3×16)+(2×15)+14+13+12) 475
Mp = = 27 = 17,59
27

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,59−17,2 0,9 0,39 0,9

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,1 = 2,56 √0,1

= 0.15 √9 = 0,15 . 3 = 0,45

25. Item 25
∑𝑥 29
p = = = 0,96
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,96 = 0,04
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(3×21)+20+(6×19)+(3×18)+(5×17)+(3×16)+(2×15)+(2×14)+(2×13)+12) 502
Mp = = 29
29

= 17,3
SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,3−17,2 0,96 0,1 0,96

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,04 = 2,56 √0,04

= 0.03 √24 = 0,03 . 4,89 = 0,14

26. Item 26
∑𝑥 21
p = = = 0,7
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,7 = 0,3
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
 (22+21+20+(6×19)+(2×18)+(5×17)+(2×16)+15+14+13)_ 372
Mp = = 21 = 17,7
21

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,7−17,2 0,7 0,5 0,7

rpbi =
𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,3 = 2,56 √0,3

= 0.19 √2,33 = 0,19 . 1,52 = 0,28

27. Item 27
∑𝑥 23
p = = = 0,76
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,76 = 0,24
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+20+(4×19)+(2×18)+(3×17)+(2×16)+(3×15)+(3×14)+(2×13)+12) 404
Mp = = 23 =
23

= 17,5
SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,5−17,2 0,76 0,3 0,76

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,24 = 2,56 √0,24

= 0.11 √3,16 = 0,11 . 1,77 = 0,19

28. Item 28
∑𝑥 16
p = = = 0,53
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,53 = 0,47
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+(2×21)+(2×19)+(3×18)+(2×17)+(2×16)+(2×15)+13+12) 277
Mp = =17,3 = 17,3
16

SD = 2,56
 𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 17,3−17,2 0,53 0,1 0,53
rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,47 = 2,56 √0,47

= 0.03 √1,12 = 0,03 . 1,05 = 0,31

29. Item 29
∑𝑥 7
p = = = 0,23
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,23 = 0,77
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(21+(2×19)+18+17+13+12) 102
Mp = = = 14,57
7 7

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 14,57−17,2 0,23 −2,63 0,23

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,77 = 2,56
√0,77

= -1,02 √0,29 = -1,02 . 5,38 = -5,48

30. Item 30
∑𝑥 5
p = = = 0,16
𝑁 30
q = 1- p = 1 – 0,16 = 0,84
517
Mt = = 17.2
30
(22+21+17+16+15) 91
Mp = = 7 = 13
7

SD = 2,56

𝑀𝑝−𝑀𝑡 𝑝 13−17,2 0,16 −4,2 0,16

rpbi = 𝑠𝑑1
√𝑞 = 2,56
√0,84 = √
2,56 0,84

= -1,6 √0,19 = -1,6 . 0,43 = -0,6

 TABEL OF VALIDITY

NO. MP MT SD P Q RPBI QUALITY

1 17.1 17.2 2.56 0.9 0.1 -0.09 INVALID
2 21.5 17.2 2.56 0.13 0.87 0.61 VALID
3 17.2 17.2 2.56 0.83 0.17 0.06 INVALID
4 19.6 17.2 2.56 0.1 0.9 0.30 VALID
5 16.9 17.2 2.56 0.53 0.47 -0.11 INVALID
6 17.8 17.2 2.56 0.6 0.4 0.28 INVALID
7 19.1 17.2 2.56 0.56 0.44 0.82 VALID
8 18.1 17.2 2.56 0.66 0.34 0.48 VALID
9 18.1 17.2 2.56 0.73 0.27 0.57 VALID
10 16.3 17.2 2.56 0.56 0.44 -0.39 INVALID
11 19.3 17.2 2.56 0.5 0.5 0.82 VALID
12 18.8 17.2 2.56 0.6 0.4 0.75 VALID
13 17.4 17.2 2.56 0.53 0.47 0.07 INVALID
14 19 17.2 2.56 0.16 0.84 0.30 VALID
15 16.3 17.2 2.56 0.6 0.4 -0.42 INVALID
16 17.3 17.2 2.56 0.86 0.14 0.07 INVALID
17 15.5 17.2 2.56 0.4 0.6 -0.53 INVALID
18 17.4 17.2 2.56 0.9 0.1 0.21 INVALID
19 17.8 17.2 2.56 0.66 0.34 0.31 VALID
20 17.9 17.2 2.56 0.53 0.47 0.28 INVALID
21 18 17.2 2.56 0.53 0.47 0.32 VALID
22 19 17.2 2.56 0.16 0.84 0.30 VALID
23 17.4 17.2 2.56 0.86 0.14 0.35 VALID
24 17.5 17.2 2.56 0.9 0.1 0.45 VALID
25 17.3 17.2 2.56 0.96 0.04 0.14 INVALID
26 17.7 17.2 2.56 0.7 0.3 0.28 INVALID
27 17.5 17.2 2.56 0.76 0.24 0.19 INVALID
28 17.3 17.2 2.56 0.53 0.47 0.31 VALID
29 14.5 17.2 2.56 0.23 0.77 -5.48 INVALID
30 13 17.2 2.56 0.16 0.84 -0.60 INVALID
 Difficulty level and discrimination power

TEST ITEM
NO. NAME ∑
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 ADELYA USWATUN K. 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 22
2 AFDHALUL HISYAM 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 21
3 AINIYYAH MUTIARA C.H. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 21
4 ALISIA FITRI FIDELA T.S. 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 21
5 ANDI SUCI RAMADHANI 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 20
6 AURA AZIZAH LATIF 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 19
7 FITRIANA RAMADHANI 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 19
8 JELITA SEPTIANI SAHAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 19
9 KAILA SHIFRA SUN 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 19
10 MUH. AKBAR FADILLAH 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 19
11 MUH. FAHMI SAYYID A. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 19
12 MUH. FAJAR 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 18
13 MUH. HARLIANSYAH M. 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 18
14 MUH. RAHAYU 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 18
15 MUHAMMAD FADLI 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 17
16 MUHAMMAD RIZWAN R. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 17
17 NUR HANDAYANI ZAIN 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 17
18 NUR RAHMIYANTI R. 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 17
19 NUR RAMADHAN ASHARI 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 17
20 NUR RIFDHA AULIA 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 16
21 NURAENI AZIS 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 16
22 NURANNISA 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 16
23 NURHALIZAH S. 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 15
24 NURUL FIRDAUSIA 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 15
25 NURUL HASJA 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 15
26 NURZAITUN JUNITA 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 14
27 RACHMAT RENGGA R. 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 14
28 REZKY AULIA R. 1 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 13
29 SHASY AULIA 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 13
30 SHERLAH MASTYANI N. 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 12
UG 13 1 14 3 11 11 11 12 14 8 10 15 6 4 10 14 3 14 11 11 9 4 13 15 15 12 11 9 4 2 290
LG 14 3 11 0 5 7 6 8 8 9 5 3 10 1 8 12 9 13 9 5 7 1 13 12 14 9 12 7 3 3 227
E. DIFFFICULTY LEVEL

ITEM FU FL FU+FL IF QUALITY

1 13 14 27 0.90 IMPROPER
2 1 3 4 0.13 IMPROPER
3 14 11 25 0.83 IMPROPER
4 3 0 3 0.10 IMPROPER
5 11 5 16 0.53 PROPER
6 11 7 18 0.60 PROPER
7 11 6 17 0.56 PROPER
8 12 8 20 0.66 PROPER
9 14 8 22 0.73 PROPER
10 8 9 17 0.56 PROPER
11 10 5 15 0.50 PROPER
12 15 3 18 0.60 PROPER
13 6 10 16 0.53 PROPER
14 4 1 5 0.16 IMPROPER
15 10 8 18 0.60 PROPER
16 14 12 26 0.86 IMPROPER
17 3 9 12 0.40 PROPER
18 14 13 27 0.90 IMPROPER
19 11 9 20 0.66 PROPER
20 11 5 16 0.53 PROPER
21 9 7 16 0.53 PROPER
22 4 1 5 0.16 IMPROPER
23 13 13 26 0.86 IMPROPER
24 15 12 27 0.90 IMPROPER
25 15 14 29 0.96 IMPROPER
26 12 9 21 0.70 PROPER
27 11 2 13 0.43 PROPER
28 9 7 16 0.53 PROPER
29 4 3 7 0.23 IMPROPER
30 2 3 5 0.16 IMPROPER
F. DISCRIMINATION POWER

ITEM FU FL FU-FL ID QUALITY

1 13 14 -1 -0.06 IMPROPER
2 1 3 -2 -0.13 IMPROPER
3 14 11 3 0.2 IMPROPER
4 3 0 3 0.2 IMPROPER
5 11 5 6 0.4 PROPER
6 11 7 4 0.26 PROPER
7 11 6 5 0.33 PROPER
8 12 8 4 0.26 PROPER
9 14 8 6 0.4 PROPER
10 8 9 -1 -0.06 IMPROPER
11 10 5 5 0.33 PROPER
12 15 3 12 0.8 PROPER
13 6 10 -4 -0.26 IMPROPER
14 4 1 3 0.2 IMPROPER
15 10 8 2 0.13 IMPROPER
16 14 12 2 0.13 IMPROPER
17 3 9 -6 -0.4 IMPROPER
18 14 13 1 0.06 IMPROPER
19 11 9 2 0.13 IMPROPER
20 11 5 6 0.4 PROPER
21 9 7 2 0.13 IMPROPER
22 4 1 3 0.2 IMPROPER
23 13 13 0 0 IMPROPER
24 15 12 3 0.2 IMPROPER
25 15 14 1 0.06 IMPROPER
26 12 9 3 0.2 IMPROPER
27 11 2 9 0.6 PROPER
28 9 7 2 0.13 IMPROPER
29 4 3 1 0.06 IMPROPER
30 2 3 -1 -0.06 IMPROPER
 SAMPLE TABLE
Validity : 0.304 – 1.000
Difficulty : 0.25 – 0.75
Discrimination : 0.25 – 1.00

ITEM VALIDITY DIFFICULTY DISCRIMINATION QUALITY

1 -0.09 0.90 -0.06 -V -F -D IMPROPER

2 0.61 0.13 -0.13 +V -F -D IMPROPER
3 0.06 0.83 0.20 -V -F -D IMPROPER
4 0.30 0.10 0.20 +V -F –D IMPROPER
5 -0.11 0.53 0.40 -V +F +D IMPROPER
6 0.28 0.60 0.26 -V +F +D IMPROPER
7 0.82 0.56 0.33 +V +F +D PROPER
8 0.48 0.66 0.26 +V +F +D PROPER
9 0.57 0.73 0.40 +V +F +D PROPER
10 -0.39 0.56 -0.06 -V +F -D IMPROPER
11 0.82 0.50 0.33 +V +F +D PROPER
12 0.75 0.60 0.80 +V +F +D PROPER
13 0.07 0.53 -0.26 +V +F -D IMPROPER
14 0.30 0.16 0.20 +V -F -D IMPROPER
15 -0.42 0.60 0.13 -V +F -D IMPROPER
16 0.07 0.86 0.13 -V -F -D IMPROPER
17 -0.53 0.40 -0.40 -V +F -D IMPROPER
18 0.21 0.90 0.06 -V -F -D IMPROPER
19 0.31 0.66 0.13 +V +F -D IMPROPER
20 0.28 0.53 0.40 -V +F +D IMPROPER
21 0.32 0.53 0.13 +V +F -D IMPROPER
22 0.30 0.16 0.20 +V -F -D IMPROPER
23 0.35 0.86 0 +V -F -D IMPROPER
24 0.45 0.90 0.20 +V -F -D IMPROPER
25 0.14 0.96 0.06 -V -F -D IMPROPER
26 0.28 0.70 0.20 -V +F -D IMPROPER
27 0.19 0.43 0.60 -V +F -D IMPROPER
28 0.31 0.53 0.13 +V +F -D IMPROPER
29 -5.48 0.23 0.06 -V -F -D IMPROPER
30 -0.60 0.16 -0.06 -V -F -D IMPROPER
G. DISTRACTOR POWER

ITEM 1 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 27
A* 13 14 27 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.9
𝑁 30
B 0 1 1
C 1 0 1
D 1 0 1 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −1
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.06
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 1 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.9) and
discrimination (-0.06) but all distractors work.

ITEM 2 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 4
A 13 9 22 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.13
𝑁 30
B 1 0 1
C 0 3 3
D* 1 3 4 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −2
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.13
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 2 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.13) and
discrimination (-0.13) but all distractors work.

ITEM 3 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 25
A* 14 11 25 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.83
𝑁 30
B 1 1 2
C 0 3 3
B 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.2
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 3 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.83) discrimination
(0.2) and one distractors does not work.
 ITEM 4 UG LG UG+LG
A 6 6 12
𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 3
B 5 2 7 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.1
𝑁 30
C* 3 0 3
D 1 7 8
0 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.2
TOTAL 15 15 30 𝑁 15

Item No. 4 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.1) and
discrimination (0.2) but all distractors work.

ITEM 5 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 16
A 0 3 3 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.53
𝑁 30
B* 11 5 16
C 4 6 10
D 0 1 1 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 6
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.4
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 5 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.53) discrimination (0.4)
and all distractors work.

ITEM 6 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 18
A 3 4 7 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.6
𝑁 30
B 1 4 5
C* 11 7 18
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 4
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.26
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 6 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.6) discrimination (0.26)
but one distractors does not work.
 ITEM 7 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 17
A* 11 6 17 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.56
𝑁 30
B 4 9 13
C 0 0 0
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 5
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.33
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 7 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.56) discrimination (0.33)
but two distractors does not work.

ITEM 8 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 20
A 3 5 8 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.66
𝑁 30
B* 12 8 20
C 0 2 2
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 4
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.26
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 8 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.66) discrimination (0.26)
but one distractors does not work.

ITEM 9 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 22
A 0 3 3 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.73
𝑁 30
B 1 3 4
C 0 1 1
D* 14 8 22 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 6
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.4
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 9 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.73) discrimination (0.4)
and all distractors work.
 ITEM 10 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 17
A 0 0 0 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.56
𝑁 30
B 7 4 11
C* 8 9 17
D 0 1 1 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −1
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.06
0 0 1 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 10 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.56) discrimination
(-0.06) and one distractors does not work.

ITEM 11 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 15
A* 10 5 15 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.5
𝑁 30
B 4 6 10
C 1 3 4
D 0 1 1 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 5
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.33
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 11 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.5) discrimination (0.33)
and all distractors work.

ITEM 12 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 18
A* 15 3 18 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.6
𝑁 30
B 0 0 0
C 0 1 1
D 0 11 11 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 5
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.8
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 12 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.6) discrimination (0.8)
and all distractors work.
 ITEM 13 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 16
A 3 4 5 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.53
𝑁 30
B 6 1 7
C 0 0 0
D* 6 10 16 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −4
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.26
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 13 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.53) discrimination
(-0.26) and one distractors does not work.

ITEM 14 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 5 5 10 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.15
𝑁 30
B* 4 1 5
C 2 3 5
D 4 6 10 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.2
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 14 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.15) discrimination
(0.2) but all distractors work.

ITEM 15 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 18
A 4 0 4 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.6
𝑁 30
B 0 0 0
C* 10 8 18
D 1 7 8 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 2
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.13
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 15 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.6) discrimination
(0.13) and one distractor does not work.
 ITEM 16 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 26
A 1 1 2 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.86
𝑁 30
B* 14 12 26
C 0 1 1
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 2
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.13
0 0 1 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 16 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.86) discrimination
(0.13) and one distractor does not work.

ITEM 17 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 12
A 1 1 2 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.4
𝑁 30
B 10 5 15
C* 3 9 12
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −6
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.4
0 1 0 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 17 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.4) discrimination
(-0.4) and one distractors does not work.

ITEM 18 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 12
A* 14 13 27 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.9
𝑁 30
B 1 2 3
C 0 0 0
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 1
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.06
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 18 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.9) discrimination
(0.06) and two distractors does not work.
 ITEM 19 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 20
A* 11 9 20 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.66
𝑁 30
B 3 1 4
C 0 1 1
D 1 4 5 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 2
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.13
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 19 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.66) discrimination
(0.13) but all distractors work.

ITEM 20 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 16
A 1 4 5 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.53
𝑁 30
B 2 6 8
C 1 0 1
D* 11 5 16 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 6
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.4
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 20 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.53) discrimination (0.4)
and all distractors work.

ITEM 21 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 16
A* 9 7 16 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.53
𝑁 30
B 0 2 2
C 0 0 0
D 6 6 12 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 2
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.13
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 21 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.53) discrimination
(0.13) and one distractor does not work.
 ITEM 22 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 6 9 15 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.13
𝑁 30
B 3 4 5
C 2 0 0
D* 4 1 5 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.2
0 0 1 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 22 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.13)

discrimination (0.2) but all distractor work.

ITEM 23 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 26
A 0 1 1 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.86
𝑁 30
B 2 0 2
C* 13 13 26
D 0 1 1 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 0
𝐼𝐷 = = =0
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 23 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.86)

discrimination (0) but all distractor work.

ITEM 24 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 27
A 0 1 1 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.9
𝑁 30
B* 15 12 27
C 0 2 2
D 0 0 0 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.2
0 0 0 0 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 24 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.9)

discrimination (0.2) and one distractor does not work.

ITEM 25 UG LG UG+LG
 A* 15 14 29
B 0 1 1 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 29
C 0 0 0 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.96
𝑁 30
D 0 0 0
0 0 0 0
𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 1
TOTAL 15 15 30 𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.06
𝑁 15

Item No. 25 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.96)

discrimination (0.06) and two distractors does not work.

ITEM 26 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 0 1 15 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.7
𝑁 30
B 0 1 5
C* 12 9 21
D 3 4 5 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 3
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.8
0 0 0 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 26 is GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.7) discrimination

(0.8) and all distractor work.

ITEM 27 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 0 0 0 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.76
𝑁 30
B* 11 12 23
C 1 0 1
D 3 2 5 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −1
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.06
0 0 1 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 27 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.76)

discrimination (-0.06) and one distractor does not work.

ITEM 28 UG LG UG+LG
A* 9 7 16
B 1 5 6
 C 3 0 3
D 2 1 3 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 16
0 0 2 2 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.53
𝑁 30
TOTAL 15 15 30

𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 2
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.13
𝑁 15

Item No. 28 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.53)

discrimination (0.13) but all distractor work.

ITEM 29 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 2 1 3 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.23
𝑁 30
B 2 3 5
C* 4 3 7
D 7 7 14 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 1
𝐼𝐷 = = = 0.06
0 0 1 1 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 29 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.23)

discrimination (0.06) but all distractor work.

ITEM 30 UG LG UG+LG 𝑈𝐺 + 𝐿𝐺 5
A 4 1 5 𝐼𝐹 = = = 0.16
𝑁 30
B 3 4 7
C 5 6 11
D* 2 3 5 𝑈𝐺 − 𝐿𝐺 −1
𝐼𝐷 = = = −0.06
0 1 1 2 𝑁 15
TOTAL 15 15 30

Item No. 30 is NOT GOOD. It has proper index of difficulty (0.16)

discrimination (-0.06) but all distractor work.
 CHAPTER IV

CONCLUSION

The test constructed consists of 30 items. There are 10 items about reading, 10 items
about grammar, and 10 items about vocabulary. After constructing the test, the writer tried it
out to students in the X grade students in SMA Negeri 1 Gowa. All items presented to the
students were answered.

Based on the test analysis, which have done, the writer can conclude that from the
calculation the writer found that the mean score of the data was (5.74), the standard deviation
was (2.56), and the reliability was (0.221). The writer also calculated if the items were valid
or not, and the writer found that about 14 items such as
(2,4,7,8,9,11,12,14,19,21,22,23,24,28) is valid among 30 questions and the rest are invalid.

Among the 30 questions given, the writer analyzed the difficulty items and the extent
to which the questions given may discriminate the ability of students who needs more
assistance from teachers. The writer found that there were 18 questions are improper such as
(5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,15,17,19,20,21,26,27,28) in terms of difficulty level and 9 items
proper such as (5,6,7,8,9,11,12,20,27) in terms of discrimination power.

The writer found that among 30 questions constructed only about 9 questions were
good such as (5,6,7,8,9,11,12,20,27) in terms of discrimination power, and the rest left are
not good. It shows that the writer has not been capable yet to construct qualified items for
language testing. Thus, the writer still needs to train to construct better items.
 APPENDICES

❖ SURAT KETERANGAN TELAH MELAKUKAN UJICOBA TES

❖ SAMPLES OF STUDENTS’ ANSWER SHEETS
❖ CURRICULUMN/SYLLABUS
 SILABUS
Bahasa Inggris Umum
Satuan Pendidikan : SMA Negeri 1 Gowa
Kelas : X (Sepuluh) MIPA 7
Kompetensi Inti :
• KI-1 dan KI-2:Menghayati dan mengamalkan ajaran agama yang dianutnya. Menghayati dan
mengamalkan perilaku jujur, disiplin, santun, peduli (gotong royong, kerjasama, toleran, damai),
bertanggung jawab, responsif, dan pro-aktif dalam berinteraksi secara efektif sesuai dengan perkembangan
anak di lingkungan, keluarga, sekolah, masyarakat dan lingkungan alam sekitar, bangsa, negara, kawasan
regional, dan kawasan internasional”.
• KI 3: Memahami, menerapkan, dan menganalisis pengetahuan faktual, konseptual, prosedural, dan
metakognitif berdasarkan rasa ingin tahunya tentang ilmu pengetahuan, teknologi, seni, budaya, dan
humaniora dengan wawasan kemanusiaan, kebangsaan, kenegaraan, dan peradaban terkait penyebab
fenomena dan kejadian, serta menerapkan pengetahuan prosedural pada bidang kajian yang spesifik sesuai
dengan bakat dan minatnya untuk memecahkan masalah
• KI4: Mengolah, menalar, dan menyaji dalam ranah konkret dan ranah abstrak terkait dengan
pengembangan dari yang dipelajarinya di sekolah secara mandiri, bertindak secara efektif dan kreatif, serta
mampu menggunakan metode sesuai kaidah keilmuan

Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
3.1 Menerapkan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak dan
unsur kebahasaan teks interaksi transaksional
Mengenalkan, menirukanbeberapa contoh
lisan dan tulis yang melibatkan tindakan
interaksi terkait jati diri dan
memberi dan meminta informasi terkait jati menjalin hubungan
diri dan hubungan keluarga, sesuai dengan hubungan keluarga, dengan
konteks penggunaannya. (Perhatikan unsur interpersonal ucapan dan tekanan kata
kebahasaan pronoun: subjective, objective, dengan teman dan yang benar
possessive)
guru
4.1 Menyusun teks interaksi transaksional lisan - Mengidentifikasi
dan tulis pendek dan sederhana yang ungakapan-ungkapan
• Struktur Teks
melibatkan tindakan memberi dan meminta penting dan perbedaan
informasi terkait jati diri, dengan - Memulai
antara beberapa cara yang
memperhatikan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, - Menanggapi
(diharapkan/di ada
dan unsur kebahasaan yang benar dan sesuai
konteks luar dugaan)
- Menanyakan hal-hal yang
• Unsur Kebahasaan
tidak diketahui atau yang
- Sebutan anggota
berbeda.
keluarga inti dan
yang lebih luas - Mempelajari contoh teks
dan orang-orang interaksi terkait jati diri dan
dekat lainnya; hubungan keluarganya yang
hobi, kebiasaan dipaparkan figur-figur
terkenal.
- Verba: be, have,
go, work, live - Saling menyimak dan
(dalam simple bertanya jawab tentang jati
present tense) diri masing-masing dengan
teman-temannya
- Subjek Pronoun:
I, You, We, They, - Melakukan refleksi tentang
He, She, It proses dan hasil belajarnya

- Kata ganti
possessive my,
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
your, his, dsb.

- Kata tanya Who?

Which? How?
Dst.
- Nomina singular
dan plural dengan
atau tanpa a, the,
this, those, my,
their, dsb.
- Ucapan, tekanan
kata, intonasi,
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan
• Topik
Deskripsi diri
sendiri sebagai
bagian dari keluarga
dan masyarakat
yang dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.2 Menerapkan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak dan menirukan
unsur kebahasaan teks interaksi interpersonal beberapa contoh percakapan
Menjaga hubungan
lisan dan tulis yang melibatkan tindakan
mengucapkan selamat dan
memberikan ucapan selamat dan memuji interpersonal
bersayap (extended), serta menanggapinya, memuji bersayap (extended)
dengan guru, teman yang diperagakan
sesuai dengan konteks penggunaannya
4.2 Menyusun teks interaksi interpersonal lisan dan orang lain. guru/rekaman, dengan
dan tulis sederhana yang melibatkan tindakan ucapan dan tekanan kata
memberikan ucapan selamat dan memuji • Struktur Teks yang benar
bersayap (extended), dan menanggapinya - Memulai
dengan memperhatikan fungsi sosial, struktur - Menanggapi - Bertanya jawab untuk
teks, dan unsur kebahasaan yang benar dan (diharapkan/di mengidentifikasi dan
sesuai konteks luar dugaan) menyebutkan ungkapan
• Unsur Kebahasaan pemberian selamat dan
- Ungkapan pujian serta tambahannya, n
memberikan mengidentifikasi persamaan
ucapan selamat dan perbedaannya
dan memuji
bersayap - Menentukan ungkapan yang
(extended), dan tepat secara lisan/tulis dari
menanggapinya
berbagai situasi lain yang
- Nomina singular
dan plural dengan serupa
atau tanpa a, the,
this, those, my, - Membiasakan menerapkan
their, dsb. yang sedang dipelajari.
- Ucapan, tekanan dalam interaksi dengan guru
kata, intonasi, dan teman secara alami di
ejaan, tanda baca, dalam dan di luar kelas.
dan tulisan tangan
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
• Topik - Melakukan refleksi tentang
Interaksi antara proses dan hasil belajar
guru dan peserta
didik di dalam dan
di luar kelas yang
melibatkan ucapan
selamat dan pujian
yang dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.3 Menerapkan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Mencermati beberapa
unsur kebahasaan teks interaksi transaksional contoh interaksi terkait niat
lisan dan tulis yang melibatkan tindakan Menyatakan
melakukan suatu
memberi dan meminta informasi terkait niat rencana,
melakukan suatu tindakan/kegiatan, sesuai tindakan/kegiatan
dengan konteks penggunaannya. (Perhatikan menyarankan, dsb. dalam/dengan tampilan
unsur kebahasaan be going to, would like to) visual(gambar, video)
• Struktur Teks
4.3 Menyusun teks interaksi transaksional lisan
dan tulis pendek dan sederhana yang - Memulai - Mengidentifikasidengan
melibatkan tindakan memberi dan meminta - Menanggapi menyebutkan persamaan
informasi terkait niat melakukan suatu (diharapkan atau dan perbedaan dan dari
tindakan/kegiatan, dengan memperhatikan di luar dugaan)
contoh-contoh yang ada
fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur • Unsur Kebahasaan dalam video tersebut, dilihat
kebahasaan yang benar dan sesuai konteks - Ungkapan dari isi dan cara
pernyataan niat
pengungkapannya
yang sesuai,
dengan modalbe
- Bertanya jawab tentang
going to, would
like to pernyataan beberapa tokoh
- Nomina singular tentang rencana melakukan
dan plural dengan perbaikan
atau tanpa a, the,
this, those, my, - Bermain game terkait
their, dsb. dengan niat mengatasi
- Ucapan, tekanan masalah
kata, intonasi,
ejaan, tanda baca, - Membiasakan menerapkan
dan tulisan tangan yang sedang dipelajari.
• Topik dalam interaksi dengan guru
Interaksi antara dan teman secara alami di
guru dan peserta dalam dan di luar kelas.
didik di dalam dan
di luar kelas yang - Melakukan refleksi tentang
melibatkan proses dan hasil belajar.
pernyataan niatyang
dapat
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.4 Membedakan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak dan menirukan
unsur kebahasaan beberapa teks deskriptif guru membacakan teks
lisan dan tulis dengan memberi dan meminta Membanggakan,
deskriptif sederhana tentang
informasi terkait tempat wisata dan bangunan menjual,
bersejarah terkenal, pendek dan sederhana, tempat wisata dan/atau
sesuai dengan konteks penggunaannya mengenalkan, bangunan bersejarah
4.4 Teks deskriptif mengidentifikasi, terkenaldengan intonasi,
mengkritik, dsb. ucapan, dan tekanan kata
4.4.1 Menangkap makna secara kontekstual terkait
yang benar.
fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur • Struktur Teks
kebahasaan teks deskriptif, lisan dan tulis, - Mencermati danbertanya
Dapat mencakup
jawab tentang contoh
pendek dan sederhana terkait tempat wisata - Identifikasi menganalisisdeskripsi
dan bangunan bersejarah terkenal (nama dengan alat seperti tabel,
keseluruhan dan
4.4.2 Menyusun teks deskriptif lisan dan tulis, mind map, dan kemudian
bagian)
pendek dan sederhana, terkait tempat wisata - Sifat (ukuran, menerapkannya untuk
dan bangunan bersejarah terkenal, dengan warna, jumlah, menganalisis beberapa
memperhatikan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, bentuk, dsb.) deskripsi tempat wisata dan
dan unsur kebahasaan, secara benar dan - Fungsi, manfaat, bangunan lain
sesuai konteks tindakan,
kebiasaan - Mencermati cara
• Unsur kebahasaan mempresentasikan hasil
- Kosa kata dan analisis secara lisan,
istilah terkait mempraktekkan di dalam
dengan tempat kelompok masing-masing,
wisata dan dan kemudian
bangunan
mempresentasikan di
bersejarah
terkenal kelompok lain
- Adverbia terkait
sifat seperti quite, - Mengunjungi tempat wisata
very, extremely, atau bangunan bersejarah
dst. untuk menghasilkan teks
- Kalimat dekalraif deskriptif tentang tempat
dan interogatif wisata atau bangunan
dalam tense yang bersejarahsetempat.
benar
- Nomina singular
- Menempelkan teks di
dan plural secara dinding kelas dan bertanya
tepat, dengan atau
jawab dengan pembaca
tanpa a, the, this, (siswa lain, guru) yang
those, my, their,
datang membacanya
dsb.
- Melakukan refleksi tentang
- Ucapan, tekanan
proses dan hasil belajar.
kata, intonasi,
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan
• Topik
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
Deskripsi tempat
wisata dan
bangunan
bersejarah yang
dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.5 Membedakan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak dan menirukan
unsur kebahasaan beberapa teks khusus dalam
Menjalin hubungan guru membacakan beberapa
bentuk pemberitahuan (announcement),
dengan memberi dan meminta informasi teks pemberitahuan
interpersonal dan
terkait kegiatan sekolah, sesuai dengan (announcement) dengan
konteks penggunaannya akademik antar intonasi, ucapan, dan
4.5 Teks pemberitahuan (announcement) peserta didik, guru, tekanan kata yang benar.
4.5.1 Menangkap makna secara kontekstual terkait dan sekolah
fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur - Bertanya dan
kebahasaan teks khusus dalam bentuk mempertanyakan tentang
• Struktur Teks
pemberitahuan (announcement) persamaan dan perbedaan
4.5.2 Menyusun teks khusus dalam bentuk - Istilah khusus
fungsi sosial, struktur teks
pemberitahuan (announcement), lisan dan terkait dengan
jenis dan unsur kebahasaannya
tulis, pendek dan sederhana, dengan
memperhatikan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, pemberitahuanny
a - Mencermati danbertanya
dan unsur kebahasaan, secara benar dan
- Informasi khas jawab tentang contoh
sesuai konteks
yang relevan menganalisisdeskripsi
- Gambar, hiasan, dengan alat seperti tabel dan
komposisi warna kemudian menerapkannya
• Unsur Kebahasaan untuk menganalisis
- Ungkapan dan beberapa teks
kosa kata yang pemberitahuan lain
lazim digunakan
dalam - Membuat teks
announcement pemberitahuan
(pemberitahuan) (announcement) untuk kelas
- Nomina singular atau teman
dan plural secara
tepat, dengan atau
- Melakukan refleksi tentang
tanpa a, the, this,
those, my, their, proses dan hasil belajar.
dsb.
- Ucapan, tekanan
kata, intonasi,
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan
• Topik
Pemberitahuan
kegiatan, kejadian
yang dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
termuat di KI

• Multimedia
Layout dan dekorasi
yang membuat
tampilan teks
pemberitahuan lebih
menarik.

3.6 Menerapkan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak dan menirukan
unsur kebahasaan teks interaksi transaksional
Menjelaskan, beberapa contoh percakapan
lisan dan tulis yang melibatkan tindakan
memberi dan meminta informasi terkait terkait dengan intonasi,
mendeskripsikan,
keadaan/tindakan/ kegiatan/ kejadian yang ucapan dan tekanan kata
dilakukan/terjadi di waktu lampau yang menyangkal, yang tepat
merujuk waktu terjadinya dan kesudahannya, menanyakan, dsb.
sesuai dengan konteks penggunaannya. - Guru mendiktekan
(Perhatikan unsur kebahasaan simple past • Struktur Teks percakapan tersebut dan
tense vs present perfect tense) - Memulai peserta didik menuliskannya
4.6 Menyusun teks interaksi transaksional, lisan - Menanggapi dalam buku catatannya
dan tulis, pendek dan sederhana, yang (diharapkan/di untuk kemudianbertanya
melibatkan tindakan memberi dan meminta luar dugaan) jawab terkait perbedaan dan
informasi terkait keadaan/tindakan/ kegiatan/
• Unsur Kebahasaan persamaan makna kalimat-
kejadian yang dilakukan/terjadi di waktu
lampau yang merujuk waktu terjadinya dan - Kalimat kalimat yang menggunakan
kesudahannya, dengan memperhatikan fungsi deklaratif dan kedua tense tersebut
sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur kebahasaan interogative
yang benar dan sesuai konteks dalam simple past - Membaca beberapa teks
tense, present pendek yang menggunakan
perfect tense. kedua tense tersebut, dan
- Adverbial dengan
since, ago, now; menggunakan beberapa
klause dan kalimat-kalimat di dalamnya
adveribial untuk melengkapi teks
penunjuk waktu rumpang pada beberapa teks
- Nomina singular terkait.
dan plural secara
tepat, dengan atau - Mencermati beberapa
tanpa a, the, this, kalimat rumpang untuk
those, my, their,
menentukan tense yang
dsb.
- Ucapan, tekanan tepat untuk kata kerja yang
kata, intonasi, diberikan dalam kurung
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan - Diberikan suatu kasus,
peserta didik membuat satu
• Topik
teks pendek dengan
Kegiatan, tindakan,
menerapkan kedua tense
kejadian, peristiwa
tersebut
yang dapat
menumbuhkanperil - Melakukan refleksi tentang
aku yang termuat di proses dan hasil belajar
KI

3.7 Membedakan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak guru
unsur kebahasaan beberapa teks recount lisan
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
dan tulis dengan memberi dan meminta Melaporkan, membacakan peristiwa
informasi terkait peristiwa bersejarah sesuai bersejarah, menirukan
menceritakan,
dengan konteks penggunaannya bagian demi bagian dengan
4.7 Teks recount – peristiwa bersejarah berbagi ucapan dan temakan kata
4.7.1 Menangkap makna secara kontekstual terkait pengalaman, yang benar, dan bertanya
mengambil teladan, jawab tentang isi teks
fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur
kebahasaan teks recount lisan dan tulis terkait membanggakan - Menyalin teks tsb dalam
peristiwa bersejarah buku teks masing-masing
• Struktur Teks
mengikuti seorang siswa
4.7.2 Menyusun teks recount lisan dan tulis, pendek Dapat mencakup: yang menuliskan di papan
dan sederhana, terkait peristiwa bersejarah,
- orientasi tulis, sambil bertanya jawab
dengan memperhatikan fungsi sosial, struktur
teks, dan unsur kebahasaan, secara benar dan - urutan terkait fungsi sosial, struktur
sesuai konteks kejadian/kegiatan teks, dan unsur kebahasaan
- orientasi ulang dalam teks
• Unsur Kebahasaan
- Kalimat - Mencermati analisis
deklaratif dan terhadap fungsi sosial,
interogatif dalam rangkaian tindakan dan
simple past, past kejadian dengan
continuous, menggunakan alat seperti
present perfect, tabel, bagan, dan kemudian
dan lainnya yang
mengerjakan hal sama
diperlukan
- Adverbia dengan teks tentang
penghubung peristiwa bersejarah lainnya
waktu: first, then,
after that, before, - Mengumpulkan informasi
when, at last, untuk menguraikan
finally, dsb. peristiwa bersejarah di
- Adverbia dan Indonesia
frasa
preposisional - Menempelkan karyanya di
penujuk waktu
dinding kelas dan bertanya
- Nomina singular
dan plural dengan jawab dengan pembaca
atau tanpa a, the, (siswa lain, guru) yang
this, those, my, datang membacanya
their, dsb.
- Ucapan, tekanan - Melakukan refleksi tentang
kata, intonasi, proses dan hasil belajar.
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan
• Topik
Peristiwa bersejarah
yang dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.8 Membedakan fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan • Fungsi Sosial - Menyimak guru
unsur kebahasaan beberapa teks naratif lisan membacakan legenda,
dan tulis dengan memberi dan meminta Mendapat hiburan,
sambil dilibatkan dalam
informasi terkait legenda rakyat, sederhana,
 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
sesuai dengan konteks penggunaannya menghibur, tanya jawab tentang isinya
mengajarkan nilai-
4.8 Menangkap makna secara kontekstual terkait - Didiktekan guru menuliskan
fungsi sosial, struktur teks, dan unsur nilai luhur, legenda tersebut dalam buku
kebahasaan teks naratif, lisan dan tulis catatan masing-masing,
mengambil teladan
sederhana terkait legenda rakyat
sambil bertanya jawab
• Struktur Teks terkait fungsi sosial, struktur
Dapat mencakup: teks, dan unsur kebahasaan
- Orientasi yang ada
- Komplikasi
- Resolusi - Dalam kelompok masing-
- Orientasi ulang masing berlatih
membacakan legenda tsb
• Unsur Kebahasaan dengan intonasi, ucapan dan
- Kalimat-kalimat tekanan kata yang benar,
dalamsimple past
dengan saling mengoreksi
tense, past
continuous, dan
- Membaca satu legenda lain,
lainnya yang
relevan bertanya jawab tentang
- Kosa kata: terkait isinya, dan kemudian
karakter, watak, mengidentifikasi kalimat-
dan setting dalam kalimat yang memuat
legenda bagian-bagian legenda yang
- Adverbia ditanyakan
penghubung dan
penujuk waktu
- Melakukan refleksi tentang
- Ucapan, tekanan
kata, intonasi, proses dan hasil belajar.
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan
• Topik
Cerita legenda yang
dapat
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI

3.9 Menafsirkan fungsi sosial dan unsur • Fungsi sosial - Membaca, menyimak, dan
kebahasaan lirik lagu terkait kehidupan
Mengembangkan menirukan lirik lagu secara
remaja SMA/MA/SMK/MAK
lisan
4.9 Menangkap makna terkait fungsi sosial dan nilai-nilai
unsur kebahasaan secara kontekstual lirik lagu kehidupan dan - Menanyakan hal-hal yang
terkait kehidupan remaja
karakter yang tidak diketahui atau berbeda
SMA/MA/SMK/MAK
positif - Mengambil teladan dari
pesan-pesan dalam lagu
• Unsur kebahasaan
- Kosa kata dan - Menyebutkan pesan yang
tata bahasa dalam terkait dengan bagian-
lirik lagu bagian tertentu

- Ucapan, tekanan - Melakukan refleksi tentang

 Materi
Kompetensi Dasar Kegiatan Pembelajaran
Pembelajaran
kata, intonasi, proses dan hasil belajarnya
ejaan, tanda baca,
dan tulisan tangan

• Topik
Hal-hal yang dapat
memberikan
keteladanan dan
menumbuhkan
perilaku yang
termuat di KI