1z0-062

Number: 1z0-062
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1

1z0-062.

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;

Which statement is true in this scenario?

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A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.

B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the
stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects
are then processed in the next maintenance window.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431

QUESTION 3
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
– The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
– The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.

Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracledistilled.com/oracle-database/administration/creating-a-database-using-database-configuration-assistant/

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QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments.
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 5
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one
ratio between client and server processes.

Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method

B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 6
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

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A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 7
The HR user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:

On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an
unlimited quota on it.

Which two methods would you use to resolve this error? (Choose two.)

A. Altering the data file associated with the USERS tablespace to extend automatically
B. Adding a data file to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 8
Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter

B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 9
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

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A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue
contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.

B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

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You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.

What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.

B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 12
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle
Database 12c?

A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded

B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/upgrade.htm#UPGRD12395

QUESTION 13
Your database is open and the listener LISTENER is up. You issue the command:

LSNRCTL> RELOAD

What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?

A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.

B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes the re-registration of the database instance
and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 14
Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:

Which statement is true?

A. Only SGA components are sized automatically.

B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.

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C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 15
You execute the commands:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The create user command fails if any role with the name SIDNEY exists in the database.
B. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user Sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is assigned to the user.
D. The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects in the users tablespace.
E. The user Sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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References:

QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication.

B. A role can be granted to other roles.
C. A role can contain both system and object privileges.
D. The predefined RESOURCE role includes the UNLIMITED TABLESPACE privilege.
E. All roles are owned by the SYS user.
F. The predefined CONNECT role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their creation.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:

QUESTION 17
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database (CDB). (Choose three.)

A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an existing CDB.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).

This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:

* (A) Create a PDB by using the seed as a template

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Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container database (CDB) as a template. The files associated with the
seed are copied to a new location and the copied files are then associated with the new PDB.

* (C) Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB

Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB (the source PDB) and then plugging the copy into the CDB. The files associated with
the source PDB are copied to a new location and the copied files are associated with the new PDB. This operation is called cloning a PDB.

The source PDB can be plugged in or unplugged. If plugged in, then the source PDB can be in the same CDB or in a remote CDB. If the source PDB is in a remote
CDB, then a database link is used to connect to the remote CDB and copy the files.

* Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB

Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML metadata file.

QUESTION 18
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally
managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.

On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.

Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to
specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified,
they are ignored.
* Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for traditional freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to
manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free

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block management.

Note:
* Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
* The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing
indexes.

QUESTION 19
Examine this command:

SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’, ‘false’);

Which three statements are true about the effect of this command? (Choose three.)

A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure

This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.

* Example:
Using Pending Statistics

Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still
picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans
when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:

EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS('hr', 'employees', 'PUBLISH', 'false');

By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics
will be marked as pending.

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QUESTION 20
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.

B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B, not A: The PDB must be closed before unplugging it.

D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported
way to handle the conversion of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness difference.

E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so
that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.

QUESTION 21
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as follows:

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After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.

What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.

B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction
(DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the
DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the
current database instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.

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Note:
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by
low-privileged users or an application.
* UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure

This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.

* After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.

* Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or applications. You can redact column
data by using one of the following methods:

/ Full redaction.
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction.
/ No redaction.

QUESTION 22
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types,
and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.

The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.

Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.

B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting the availability of the table. The mechanism is called

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online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.

* To redefine a table online:

Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid

* By key—Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are unique keys with all component columns having NOT
NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and
default method of redefinition.

* By rowid—Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is
recommended that this column be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of
redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.

You cannot use this method on index-organized tables.

Note:
* When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move
to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the
CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.

Incorrect:

Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

QUESTION 23
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message:

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SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more information.

Identify the reason the instance failed to start.

A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Example:
SQL> startup force
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings
ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 24
What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before installing and creating an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Effectively implements role separation

B. Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C. Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.
D. Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E. Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: To use Oracle ASM or Oracle Restart, you must first install Oracle Grid Infrastructure

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for a standalone server before you install and create the database. Otherwise, you must
manually register the database with Oracle Restart.

Desupport of Block and Raw Devices

With the release of Oracle Database 11g release 2 (11.2) and Oracle RAC 11g release 2 (11.2), using Database Configuration Assistant or the installer to store
Oracle Clusterware or Oracle Database files directly on block or raw devices is not supported.
If you intend to upgrade an existing Oracle RAC database, or an Oracle RAC database with Oracle ASM instances, then you can use an existing raw or block
device partition, and perform a rolling upgrade of your existing installation. Performing a new installation using block or raw devices is not allowed.

QUESTION 25
Identify two correct statements about multitenant architectures. (Choose two.)

A. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB) resources.
C. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
E. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.

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F. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-
called “Shares” (resource allocations) to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use “utilization limits” to limit the
CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and unplug.

E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.

The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable
database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container database at a different Oracle Database software version.

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Incorrect:
Not A:
* The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC environment.
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning,
upgrades, and more.
It is supported by a new architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other options, including Oracle
Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes
are needed in the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one
CDB at a time.

not F:
* UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
* Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC instance.

QUESTION 26
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose two.)

A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.

B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_plug.htm#ADMIN13658

QUESTION 27
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement based on different selectivity ranges? (Choose
three.)

A. Bind Variable Peeking

B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing

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D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDBs).

Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the password file? (Choose two.)

A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.

B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

* orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.

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The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:

orapwd FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={y|n}] [ASM={y|n}]

[DBUNIQUENAME=dbname] [FORMAT={12|legacy}] [SYSBACKUP={y|n}] [SYSDG={y|n}]
[SYSKM={y|n}] [DELETE={y|n}] [INPUT_FILE=input-fname]

force - whether to overwrite existing file (optional),

* v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has been granted the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP,
SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.

/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the password file.

ColumnDatatypeDescription
USERNAMEVARCHAR2(30)The name of the user that is contained in the password file
SYSDBAVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSDBA privileges
SYSOPERVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSOPER privileges

Incorrect:
not E: The format of the v$PWFILE_users file is already in 12c format.

QUESTION 29
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks are getting aged out of the default buffer cache.

How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?

A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schema objects are referenced with varying usage patterns; therefore, their cache behavior may be quite different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address
these differences. You can use a KEEP buffer pool to maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent objects from consuming
unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache, all blocks from that object are placed in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer
pool for objects that have not been assigned to one of the buffer pools.

QUESTION 30
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privilege.

The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.

There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.

What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?

A. The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* SHUTDOWN [ABORT | IMMEDIATE | NORMAL | TRANSACTIONAL [LOCAL]]

Shuts down a currently running Oracle Database instance, optionally closing and dismounting a database. If the current database is a pluggable database, only the
pluggable database is closed. The consolidated instance continues to run.

Shutdown commands that wait for current calls to complete or users to disconnect such as SHUTDOWN NORMAL and SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL have a
time limit that the SHUTDOWN command will wait. If all events blocking the shutdown have not occurred within the time limit, the shutdown command cancels with
the following message:

ORA-01013: user requested cancel of current operation

* If logged into a CDB, shutdown closes the CDB instance.

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To shutdown a CDB or non CDB, you must be connected to the CDB or non CDB instance that you want to close, and then enter

SHUTDOWN
Database closed.
Database dismounted.
Oracle instance shut down.

To shutdown a PDB, you must log into the PDB to issue the SHUTDOWN command.

SHUTDOWN
Pluggable Database closed.

Note:
* Prerequisites for PDB Shutdown

When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the SHUTDOWN command can only be used if:

The current user has SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSBACKUP, or SYSDG system privilege.

The privilege is either commonly granted or locally granted in the PDB.

The current user exercises the privilege using AS SYSDBA, AS SYSOPER, AS SYSBACKUP, or AS SYSDG at connect time.

To close a PDB, the PDB must be open.

QUESTION 31
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).

The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:

– Version: Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
– Character set: AL32UTF8
– National character set: AL16UTF16
– O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit

The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:

– Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
– Character Set: AL32UTF8
– National character set: AL16UTF16
– O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit

Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

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A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Overview, example:

- Log into ncdb12c as sys

- Get the database in a consistent state by shutting it down cleanly.
- Open the database in read only mode
- Run DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE to create an XML file describing the database.
- Shut down ncdb12c
- Connect to target CDB (CDB2)
- Check whether non-cdb (NCDB12c) can be plugged into CDB(CDB2)
- Plug-in Non-CDB (NCDB12c) as PDB(NCDB12c) into target CDB(CDB2).
- Access the PDB and run the noncdb_to_pdb.sql script.
- Open the new PDB in read/write mode.

* You can easily plug an Oracle Database 12c non-CDB into a CDB. Just create a PDB manifest file for the non-CDB, and then use the manifest file to create a
cloned PDB in the CDB.
* Note that to plug in a non-CDB database into a CDB, the non-CDB database needs to be of version 12c as well. So existing 11g databases will need to be
upgraded to 12c before they can be part of a 12c CDB.

QUESTION 32
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new
indexes and materialized views. You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.

What should you use to achieve this?

A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer

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E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type of system change. Examples of common system changes include:
• Database upgrades
• Configuration changes to the operating system, hardware, or database
• Database initialization parameter changes
• Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or materialized views
• Gathering optimizer statistics
• SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles

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QUESTION 33
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.

A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:

THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE

Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened in read only mode? (Choose four.)

A. You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.

B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.

Correct Answer: ACDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 34
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change has made this performance difference.

You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further investigation.

Which three findings would you get from the report? (Choose three.)

A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Keyword: shows the difference.

* Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods

Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them
Causes: workload changes, configuration changes
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect)
Makes actionable recommendations along with quantified impact
* Identify what changed
/ Configuration changes, workload changes
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to
a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database
performance between two periods of time.

While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two
periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and
configuration settings that differ between two time periods.

QUESTION 35
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
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A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a
persistent verification report is generated.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning
is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window.
If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes
usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted
plan performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve job at end time.

Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer
instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual
number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid
suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.

QUESTION 36
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB? (Choose three.)

A. SYSTEM
B. SYSAUX
C. EXAMPLE
D. UNDO
E. TEMP
F. USERS

Correct Answer: ABE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created tablespaces in it.
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.

* tablespace_datafile_clauses

Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the seed PDB.

Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.

Note:
* Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1

SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces;

TABLESPACE_NAME
------------------------------
SYSTEM
SYSAUX
TEMP
USERS

SQL>

QUESTION 37
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files? (Choose two.)

A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.

B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Correct Answer: AC

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file
create and open operations.

C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.

Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Each extent
resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.

* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit
size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group
compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 38
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table
to the OCP schema.

The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.

What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RMAN tablespace point-in-time recovery (TSPITR).
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the

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tablespaces and objects in the database.

Fully Automated (the default)

In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination,
the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.

The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR,
channel settings and parameters or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.

QUESTION 39
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE" clause.

What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause? (Choose two.)

A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.

B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE
PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.

D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB.

The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:

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Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a
database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within this CDB.

QUESTION 40
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE” statement?

A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE
DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.

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Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:

* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is
created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is
just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.

QUESTION 41
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your database server that is running on Oracle Linux.

You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= ‘/dev/flash_device_1 ‘,’ /dev/flash_device_2’

How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.

B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C - DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.

In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its
sizes for “Database Smart Flash Cache” area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc

DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G

So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”

/dev/sda – size 32G

/dev/sdb – size 32G
/dev/sdc – size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT – it’s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|device and compute the average latency

QUESTION 42
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:

MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m

Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)? (Choose three.)

A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Correct Answer: AEF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space
SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE

Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters listed in the table below to enable full automatic tuning of
the automatically sized SGA components.
* Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

QUESTION 43
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:

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Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file? (Choose three.)

A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal carriage return string as the record terminator.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if
the table is not empty to begin with.

B (not D):

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Note:
* SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE directive could not be processed.
Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation

E:
* A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the separator character does not have to be a comma) file stores
tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted instead, as
binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of some kind; each record consists of fields, separated by some other
character or string, most commonly a literal comma or tab. Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields.
* Fields with embedded commas must be quoted.
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,"Super, luxurious truck"

Note:
* SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.

QUESTION 44
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.

You execute the following command:

$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / cat@catdb
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.

B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;

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This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;

D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:

Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption

Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.

Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical
corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their
entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 45
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.

The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.

Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time? (Choose two.)

A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job's relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Job priorities are used only to prioritize among jobs in the same class.

Note: Group jobs for prioritization

Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs in the class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one
with the higher priority takes precedence. This ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely completion of a more important one.

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C: Set resource allocation for member jobs
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler, because each job class can specify a resource consumer group as an
attribute. Member jobs then belong to the specified consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the current resource plan.

QUESTION 46
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
1. Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
2. Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
3. Shuts down the CDB instance
4. Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITE

Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script? (Choose two.)

A. The seed will be in mount state.

B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: The seed is always read-only.

D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

QUESTION 47
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:

1snrctl > STOP

What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?

A. They are able to perform only queries.

B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.

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D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be that no new session can be established from a
remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

QUESTION 48
Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container database (CDB)? (Choose three.) (Choose three.)

A. The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B. To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C. Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D. The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the CDB.
E. A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore point.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 49
You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same server.

All databases of all versions use Automatic Storage Management (ASM).

Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for a disk group? (Choose three.)

A. The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B. RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance can mount the ASM disk group.
C. The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the compatibility value, to mount the ASM disk group.
D. The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the Oracle disk group.
E. The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle 10 g database.

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Correct Answer: ABD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AD: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute determines the minimum software version for an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group.
This setting also affects the format of the data structures for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.

B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum COMPATIBLE database initialization parameter setting for any database
instance that is allowed to use the disk group. Before advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the values for the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter for all of the databases that access the disk group are set to at least the value of the new setting for COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.

For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1 or 11.2, then COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value
between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.

Not E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group can contain Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or
higher. Before setting this attribute, the COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume drivers must be loaded in the supported
environment.

/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk group. The volume device associated with the dynamic volume can
then be used to host an Oracle ACFS file system.

The compatibility parameters COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.ADVM must be set to 11.2 or higher for the disk group.

Note:
* The disk group attributes that determine compatibility are COMPATIBLE.ASM, COMPATIBLE.RDBMS. and COMPATIBLE.ADVM. The COMPATIBLE.ASM and
COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute settings determine the minimum Oracle Database software version numbers that a system can use for Oracle ASM and the
database instance types respectively. For example, if the Oracle ASM compatibility setting is 11.2, and RDBMS compatibility is set to 11.1, then the Oracle ASM
software version must be at least 11.2, and the Oracle Database client software version must be at least 11.1. The COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines
whether the Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager feature can create a volume in a disk group.

QUESTION 50
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = ‘/dev/flash_device_1’ , ‘/dev/flash_device_2’

DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G

What is the result when you start up the database instance?

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A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
You executed this command to create a password file:

$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N

Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)

A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the SYSDBA role.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
* Adding Users to a Password File

When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information are added to the password file. If the server does not have
an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing),
Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.

A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle
Database removes the user from the password file.
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* The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:

ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers]

[FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
* IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the
password in the password file.

QUESTION 52
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:

SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);

You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows.

What could be a reason for this recommendation?

A. The keep pool is not configured.

B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

QUESTION 53
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information lifecycle Management (ILM)? (Choose three.)

A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

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F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Incorrect:
Not E, Not F When Heat Map is enabled, all accesses are tracked by the in-memory activity tracking module. Objects in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces
are not tracked.

* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the segment and row level.

* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and modification. You can also use Automatic Data Optimization
(ADO) to automate the compression and movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.

QUESTION 54
Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index Maintenance in Oracle database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION

B. ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C. ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D. ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E. ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F. ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Asynchronous Global Index Maintenance for DROP and TRUNCATE PARTITION
This feature enables global index maintenance to be delayed and decoupled from a DROP and TRUNCATE partition without making a global index unusable.
Enhancements include faster DROP and TRUNCATE partition operations and the ability to delay index maintenance to off-peak time.

QUESTION 55

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You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.

Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection? (Choose two.)

A. User session data

B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that,
with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any
one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.

C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private
SQL areas are located in the server process’ PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.

Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control information for one Oracle Database instance. The
SGA is shared by all server and background processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.

* Program global area (PGA)

A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server
process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own
PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total
instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.

QUESTION 56
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)? (Choose two.)

A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.

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C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as needed for the following database structures:

Tablespaces
Redo log files
Control files
Archived logs
Block change tracking files
Flashback logs
RMAN backups

Note:
* Using Oracle-managed files simplifies the administration of an Oracle Database. Oracle-managed files eliminate the need for you, the DBA, to directly manage
the operating system files that make up an Oracle Database. With Oracle-managed files, you specify file system directories in which the database automatically
creates, names, and manages files at the database object level. For example, you need only specify that you want to create a tablespace; you do not need to
specify the name and path of the tablespace's datafile with the DATAFILE clause.

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QUESTION 57
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements. (Choose
three.)

A. Change in the Oracle Database version

B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade

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Correct Answer: ACE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set
before and after a database change. The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:

* (E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.

* (A,C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
* Database initialization parameter changes.
* Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
* Refreshing optimizer statistics.
* Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 58
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container database (CDB).

The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:

1. Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3. Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the expdp utility.
5. Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable
import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.

Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

1. Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.

2. From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data residing in administrative tablespaces from the source
database using the FULL=Y and TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only when exporting from an Oracle
Database llg Release 2 database:
3. Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the log file from the export operation will list the data files required to
be moved.
4. Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
5. In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file. The act of importing the dump file will plug the tablespace
data files into the destination PDB
Oracle White Paper - Upgrading to Oracle Database 12c -August 2013

QUESTION 59
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new PDB by using SQL Developer.

Which statement is true?

A. The CDB must be open.

B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is
created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is
just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1
gigabyte and it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 60

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Examine the parameters for your database instance:

Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback? (Choose three.)

A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution
statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are submitted to the optimizer.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.

D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back on cardinality feedback.

(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for repeated executions.

optimizer_dynamic_sampling
optimizer_features_enable

* dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of conjunctive predicates.

Note:
* OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer.
Range of values. 0 to 10

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* Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to automatically improve plans for queries that are executed
repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as
missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.

QUESTION 61
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle? (Choose three.)

A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table

B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions.

A: Merge Multiple Partitions:

The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local
and global index operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.

B: Drop Multiple Partitions:

The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement.

Example:

view plaincopy to clipboardprint?

SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7;

Table altered

SQL>
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Restrictions :
- You can’t drop all partitions of the table.
- If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a partitioned.

QUESTION 62
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

All users have their default set of system privileges.

For which three situations will data not be redacted? (Choose three.)

A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled?

A. It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message

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B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. Advising on block checksum failures

B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D. Advising on empty password files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Data Recovery Advisor can diagnose failures such as the following:

/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do not have the correct access permissions, have been
taken offline, and so on

/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values

/ Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files

/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system resource limits (for example, the number of open files)

* The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs
at the user's request. This reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

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QUESTION 65
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.

Examine the table definition:

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data
definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:

Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?

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A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 67
You created an encrypted tablespace:

You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.

Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.

Which is true about the result?

A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with
SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted tablespaces.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:

SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;

SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id);

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.

B. Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
D. The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E. Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.

Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not A: Both indexes are created fine.
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML operations on the Orders table.
F: Since ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is invisible only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the query optimizer.

Not C,Not D,Not E:

* ord_customer_ix1 is an invisible index and is therefore not used by the optimizer.
* VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the optimizer. An invisible index is maintained by DML operations, but it
is not be used by the optimizer during queries unless you explicitly set the parameter OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system
level.

Note: Specify BITMAP to indicate that index is to be created with a bitmap for each distinct key, rather than indexing each row separately. Bitmap indexes store the
rowids associated with a key value as a bitmap. Each bit in the bitmap corresponds to a possible rowid. If the bit is set, then it means that the row with the

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corresponding rowid contains the key value. The internal representation of bitmaps is best suited for applications with low levels of concurrent transactions, such as
data warehousing.

QUESTION 69
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently with queries that span multiple partitions

The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.

Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed
partitions.

This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a month.

You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for
segments where many rows are returned.

Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result? (Choose three.)

A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the table partitions that return most of their rows to the
queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note:
* Oracle 12c now provides the ability to index a subset of partitions and to exclude the others.
Local and global indexes can now be created on a subset of the partitions of a table. Partial Global indexes provide more flexibility in index creation for partitioned
tables. For example, index segments can be omitted for the most recent partitions to ensure maximum data ingest rates without impacting the overall data model
and access for the partitioned object.
Partial Global Indexes save space and improve performance during loads and queries. This feature supports global indexes that include or index a certain subset
of table partitions or subpartitions, and exclude the others. This operation is supported using a default table indexing property. When a table is created or altered, a
default indexing property can be specified for the table or its partitions.

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QUESTION 70
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and
ALTER SYSTEM statements.
* * CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause
/ CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

QUESTION 71
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.

Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup. (Choose four.)

A. BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;

B. BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;

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C. BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D. BACKUP TABLESPACE "TEMP" SECTION SIZE 10M;
E. BACKUP TABLESPACE "UNDO" INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F. BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G. BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;

Correct Answer: ABEG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 72
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose
three.)

A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A, Not D: In a CDB, PUBLIC is a common role. In a PDB, privileges granted locally to PUBLIC enable all local and common users to exercise these privileges in
this PDB only.

C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:

The user is a common user whose current container is root.

The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies in all containers.

The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has been granted commonly

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Incorrect:

Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted
locally.

QUESTION 73
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are connected to the HR_PDB. You execute the following command:

SQL > CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE undotb01

DATAFILE ‘u01/oracle/rddb1/undotbs01.dbf’ SIZE 60M AUTOEXTEND ON;

What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.

B. It falls and reports an error because there can be only one undo tablespace in a CDB.
C. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the command.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the command.
E. It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Interesting behavior in 12.1.0.1 DB of creating an undo tablespace in a PDB. With the new Multitenant architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level
and PDBs all share the same UNDO tablespace.

When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without returning an error.

QUESTION 74
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives? (Choose three.)

A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.

B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the optimizer are incorrect.

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E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 75
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.

You issue this command:

SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE - 5/24);

Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the correct SCN.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 76
Examine these two statements:

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Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)

A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required for big file files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 77
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated after a specified period of time.

How would you accomplish this?

A. Setting a metric threshold

B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:

Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output? (Choose three.)

A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup and shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.

D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to reduce shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read
from a specific disk of a diskgroup

E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in privilege to allow the DBA full control over the database

Incorrect:

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Not C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption wallet operations.

Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative
privileges.

QUESTION 79
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.

The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = ‘*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;

Which is true about the result of this command?

A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 80
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction? (Choose two.)

A. Flashback Database must be enabled.

B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.

Correct Answer: BD

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

References: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/tip/How-to-perform-Oracle-Flashback-Transaction-Queries
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e41502/adfns_flashback.htm#ADFNS610

QUESTION 81
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with SQL:

There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.

What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for maintenance?

A. Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fall.
B. Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C. The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and rebalancing is initiated.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the
controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E. Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail but queries will succeed.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes

SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;

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SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for query execution plan.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11G has a new feature called Invisible Indexes. An invisible index is invisible to the optimizer as default. Using this feature we can test a new index without effecting
the execution plans of the existing sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.

QUESTION 83
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.

Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database? (Choose two.)

A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container

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B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container

C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Correct Answer: AC

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.

* (A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you use the
BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a
PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command.

QUESTION 84
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database 12c. Your database supports a mixed workload. During the
day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations are performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs perform
certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.

After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the cause of performance degradation, you want to collect basic
statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.

How do you accomplish this?

A. Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B. Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data from the trace file.
C. Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Monitoring database operations
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks such as batch jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction,
Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a composite business operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries associated with the
business operation being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define business operations for monitoring by explicitly specifying the start and end of the
operation or implicitly with tags that identify the operation.

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QUESTION 85
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file
is called temp01.tmp.

A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status

Identify two ways to rectify the error. (Choose two.)

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the
names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.

* If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN
automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 86
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

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Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:
C (not D): CONS_VPD_AUTO
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically

* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database
(VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.

Note:
* CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag" parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and
CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that the
redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are
used by the materialized views during refresh synchronization.

* START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

QUESTION 87
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)

A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 88
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.

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B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/process.htm

QUESTION 89
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN
backup exists for the database.

You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to
ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.

What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?

A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The rest of the database remains open and available for users to
access data. Conversely, you can bring an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users. The database
must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 90
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this

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particular period but the changes in data are not tracked. You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?

A. Apply fine-grained auditing.

B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a session and executes commands as follows:

SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, 'JACK');

1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, 'SMITH');
1 row created.

As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:

ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;

Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott's session?

A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.

B. The transaction in Scott's session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes readonly.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements only as part of the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)

A. DDL statements can be audited.

B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than once.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 93
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?

A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER operating groups

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)

A. IMPDP can be used to change target data file names, schemas, and tablespaces during import.
B. The DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL package can be used independently of Data Pump clients to perform export and import operations.
C. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.

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D. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
E. IMPDP always use the conventional path insert method to import data.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e22490/dp_overview.htm#SUTIL2880

QUESTION 95
Your database instance has started using an SPFILE.
Examine the RMAN configuration settings:

You execute the command:

RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE TEST;

Which three types of files are backed up by using this command? (Choose three.)

A. online redo log files

B. control file
C. SPFILE
D. archived redo log files
E. data file(s)
F. PFILE

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.juliandyke.com/Research/RMAN/BackupCommand.php
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QUESTION 96
You have the following entry in the tnsnames.ors of your hq.us.example.com host machine:

You issue the following command at the command prompt:

Sqlplus HR/HR@ORCL

Which statement is true about the connection to the ORCL database instance?

A. The connection succeeds, provided the NAMES.DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to us.example.com in the sqlnet.ora file on the client side.
B. The connection fails because the net service name does not have the suffix us.example.com.
C. The connection succeeds, provided the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter is set to ORCL.
D. The connection succeeds, provided the ORCL.us.example.com database service is registered with a listener, the listener is up, and the database is open.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97
Which three statements are true about Oracle Restart? (Choose three.)

A. It can be configured to automatically attempt to restart various components after a hardware or software failure.
B. While starting any components, it automatically attempts to start all dependencies first and in proper order.
C. It can be configured to automatically restart a database in case of normal shutdown of the database instance.

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D. It can be used to only start Oracle components.
E. It runs periodic check operations to monitor the health of Oracle components.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 98
You want to schedule a job to rebuild a table’s indexes after a bulk insert, which must be scheduled as soon as a file containing data arrives on the system.

What would you do to accomplish this?

A. Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild indexes on the table.
B. Create a file watcher for the bulk inserts and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
C. Create a job array and add a job for bulk insert and a job to rebuild indexes to the job array.
D. Create an event-based job for the file arrival event, then create a job for bulk insert, and then create a job to rebuild indexes.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99
You execute this command:

Which two statements are true about segment space management for segments in this tablespace? (Choose two.)

A. Space utilization inside segments is mapped by bitmaps.

B. Segments are automatically shrunk and compressed when rows are deleted.
C. The PCTFREE storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.

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D. The PCTUSED storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about the (PMON) background process in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. It records checkpoint information in the control file.

B. It frees unused temporary segments.
C. It kills sessions that exceed idle time.
D. It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the database instance.
E. It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/122/CNCPT/process-architecture.htm#CNCPT9840

QUESTION 101
Which two actions does an incremental checkpoint perform? (Choose two.)

A. It signals CKPT to write the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
B. It writes the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
C. It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D. It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_incremental_checkpoint.htm

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QUESTION 102
You want to prevent a group of users in your database from performing long-running transactions that consume huge amounts of space in the undo tablespace. If
the quota for these users is exceeded during execution of a data manipulation language (DML) statement, the operation should abort and return an error. However,
queries should still be allowed, even if users have exceeded the undo space limitation.

How would you achieve this?

A. Specify the maximum amount of quota a user can be allocated in the undo tablespace.
B. Decrease the number of Interested Transaction List (ITL) slots for the segments on which these users perform transactions.
C. Implement a profile for these users.
D. Implement a Database Resource Manager plan.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the Automated Maintenance Task?

A. statistics recommendations
B. SQL profile recommendations
C. SQL statement restructure recommendations
D. creation of materialized views to improve query performance

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 104
You have just completed a manual upgrade of an Oracle 11g Database to Oracle Database 12c.

The Post-Upgrade Status Tool reports an INVALID status for some of the components after the upgrade.

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What must you do first in this situation to attempt to fix this problem?

A. Run catuppst.sql to perform revalidation actions

B. Run utluiobj.sql to filter out objects that were invalidated by the upgrade process.
C. Run preupgrd.sql and then execute the generated “fix-up” scripts to resolve status issues.
D. Run utlrp.sql to recompile stored PL/SQL and Java code and check the DBA_REGISTRY view.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
What should you do to ensure that a job stores minimal job metadata and runtime data on disk, and uses only existing PL/SQL programs?

A. Create an event-based job.

B. Create a lightweight job.
C. Specify the job as a member of a job class.
D. Use a job array.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schedover004.htm#BGBJGHBH

QUESTION 106
You plan to install the Oracle Database 12c software on a new server. The database will use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and Oracle Restart. Oracle
Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server is already installed on the server.

You want to configure job role separation. You create the following operating system users and groups:
- The user oracle as the owner of the Oracle database installation
- The user grid as the owner of Oracle Grid Infrastructure
- The group oinstall as an Oracle Inventory group
- The group dba as the OSDBA group for Oracle database
- The group asmdba as the OSDBA group for Oracle ASM

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- The group asmadmin as the administration privileges group for Oracle ASM
- The group asmoper as the group for Oracle ASM

Which two additional tasks should you perform with regard to the OS-level owners and groups? (Choose two.)

A. creating a separate central inventory group for the Oracle Database 12c installation
B. assigning oinstall as the primary group for the oracle user
C. assigning asmadmin and asmoper as primary groups for the oracle user
D. creating OS groups associated with the OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBA, and OSKMDBA system privileges
E. assigning asmdba as the secondary group for the oracle user

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 107
The DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION parameter is set to TRUE in your database instance.

You execute the following command to create a table:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The table is created without a segment because the storage clause is missing.
B. A segment is allocated when the first row is inserted in the table.
C. A segment is allocated when an index is created for any column in the table.
D. The table is created and extents are immediately allocated as per the default storage defined for its tablespace.
E. A segment is allocated for the table if the ALTER TABLE… ALLOCATE EXTENT command is issued.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108
Which three statements are true about automated maintenance tasks? (Choose three.)

A. They run at predefined time intervals that are intended to occur during a period of low system load.
B. An Oracle Scheduler job is created for each maintenance task that is scheduled to run in a maintenance window.
C. A maintenance window is automatically extended until all the maintenance tasks defined are completed.
D. A repository is maintained in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of execution of all tasks.
E. Predefined maintenance tasks consist of automatic optimizer statistics collection, running Automatic Segment Advisor, and running Automatic SQL Tuning
Advisor.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25494/tasks.htm#ADMIN12331

QUESTION 109
Examine the parameters for a database instance:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in a temporary tablespace.

B. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo.
C. Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo only for those sessions where temporary undo is enabled.
D. No redo is generated for the undo records belonging to temporary tables.

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E. No redo and undo records are generated for temporary tables.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110
Which three statements are true about the purpose of checkpoints? (Choose three.)

A. They ensure that uncommitted transactions are rolled back in case of an instance failure.
B. They ensure that all the dirty buffers are written to disk during a normal shutdown.
C. They ensure that instance recovery starts in the event of an instance failure.
D. They ensure that dirty buffers in the buffer cache are written to disk regularly.
E. They reduce the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E36909_01/server.1111/e25789/startup.htm#BABGDACG

QUESTION 111
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:

Examine the command:

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

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What is the outcome?

A. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET command.
B. It executes successfully and creates a backup set of the database along with archived log files and then deletes the original archived log files.
C. It executes successfully and creates an image copy of the database along with archive log files and then deletes the original archived log files.
D. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY command.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B13789_01/server.101/b10734/rcmbackp.htm

QUESTION 112
Your production database uses file system storage. You want to move storage to Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM).

How would you achieve this?

A. by using a transportable database

B. by using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
C. by using Data Pump
D. by using RMAN

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951.pdf (p.184)

QUESTION 113
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of configuring temporary undo? (Choose two.)

A. Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.

B. Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
C. Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.

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D. Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary tables.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
Which activity is audited by default and recorded in the operating system audit trail irrespective of whether or not database auditing is enabled?

A. execution of SQL statements by users connected with the SYSDBA privilege

B. creation of a fine-grained audit policy
C. configuration of unified auditing mode
D. usage of the AUDIT statement

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/auditing.htm#DBSEG0622

QUESTION 115
You want to create a role that:
- is protected from unauthorized usage
- does not use a password embedded in the application source code or stored in a table
- is enabled for a user based on security policies defined in a PL/SQL package

How would you create this role?

A. as a secure application role

B. with definer’s rights
C. with global authentication
D. with external authentication

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG97973

QUESTION 116
You perform RMAN backups for your database and use a recovery catalog for managing the backups. To free space, you execute this command:

RMAN> DELETE OBSOLETE;

Which three statements are true is this scenario? (Choose three.)

A. The backup sets marked as expired are deleted.

B. The information related to the backups is removed from the recovery catalog and the control file.
C. The physical files related to the backup need to be manually deleted.
D. The physical files related to the backup are deleted automatically.
E. The backups deleted are based on the backup retention policy.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 117
Your database instance is started by using a server parameter file (SPFILE). You execute the following command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER
initialization parameter:

ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32M;

What is the outcome of this command?

A. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the SGA.
B. It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
C. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect at the next instance startup.
D. It returns an error because SCOPE should be set to MEMORY.

Correct Answer: B

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 118
You want to create a database and you have the following:
- Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed and configured.
- Oracle Database Vault is installed in ORACLE_HOME to be used for this database.
- Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control is available and an agent is deployed on the database server.

Examine the requirements:

1. configuring the database instance to support shared server mode
2. using Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing database files.
3. configuring a naming method to help a remote user connect to a database instance
4. configuring the Fast Recovery Area
5. configuring Database Vault
6. configuring Enterprise Manager (EM) Database Express
7. registering with EM Cloud Control
8. configuring remote log archive destinations
9. enabling daily incremental backups
10. configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces

Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 and 10
B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
C. 1, 2, 3, 8, 9 and 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
E. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 119
You want execution of large database operations to suspend, and then resume, in the event of space allocation failures.
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You set the value of the initialization parameter RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT to 3600.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Before a statement executes in resumable mode, the ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE statement must be issued in its session.
B. Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations are resumable, provided that they are not embedded in a PL/SQL block.
C. A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during execution.
D. A suspended statement will report an error if no corrective action has taken place during a timeout period.
E. Suspending a statement automatically results in suspending a transaction and releasing all the resources held by the transaction.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 120
Your production database PROD uses file system storage. You want to migrate storage including the Fast Recovery Area for the PROD database to Oracle
Automatic Storage Management (ASM) by using RMAN. You back up the entire database.

What should the next step be in this migration process?

A. enabling row movement for the database

B. disabling Oracle Flashback Database if enabled
C. opening the database in exclusive mode
D. placing all tablespaces in read-only mode

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asm_rman.htm#OSTMG89995

QUESTION 121
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of complex queries. Currently, the database is running with peak
workload. You want to analyze some of the most resource-intensive statements cached in the library cache.

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What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to improve query performance?

A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)

B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28314/tdpdw_perform.htm#TDPDW00813

QUESTION 122
In which situations does the Database Writer process (DBWn) write to data files? (Choose two).

A. when the RMAN recovery process starts

B. when a user process commits a transaction
C. when a tablespace is made read-only or taken offline
D. when PMON cleans up dirty buffers in the database buffer cache
E. when clean buffers for reading new blocks into the database buffer cache are not found easily

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm

QUESTION 123
Which two statements are true about availability audit features after migration to unified auditing? (Choose two.)

A. The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post-migrated database.
B. Operating system audit trail is available in the post-migrated database.
C. Network auditing is available in the post-migrated database.

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D. Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_changes.htm#DBSEG341

QUESTION 124
Which three statements are true about Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)

A. A resource plan change can be automated by using the Oracle Scheduler.

B. It can be used to control the consumption of only physical I/Os where excessive physical I/Os can trigger an automatic session termination but excessive logical
I/Os cannot.
C. It can be used to control the usage of the undo tablespace by consumer groups.
D. A resource plan can have multiple resource plan directives, each of which controls resource allocation for a different consumer group.
E. It can be used to enable resumable timeout for user sessions.
F. It can be used to control the usage of the temp tablespace by consumer groups.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125
Which two statements describe the relationship between a scheduler window, a resource manager plan, and a job class? (Choose two.)

A. A scheduler window together with a job class, controls resource allocation for a job using that job class in that scheduler window.
B. A job class specifies a scheduler window that will be open when that job class becomes active.
C. A scheduler window specifies a resource manager plan that will be activated when that scheduler window becomes active.
D. A scheduler window specifies a job class that will be activated when that scheduler window becomes active.
E. A scheduler window can control resource allocation by itself.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 126
What is the effect of setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter to BASIC?

A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.

B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots are not generated automatically.
D. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary object-level statistics on tables as part of query optimization.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams240.htm#REFRN10214

QUESTION 127
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode, and daily full database backups are taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackups.

Which statement is true about the loss of a duplexed control file?

A. The database remains open but transactions are not permitted.

B. The database instance aborts, and media recovery is required after restoration of the control file to open the database.
C. The database instance remains open and the control file can be restored without shutting down the database.
D. The database instance aborts and a control file restore operation does not require media recovery.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 128
Which two categories of segments are analyzed by the Automatic Segment Advisor? (Choose two.)

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A. segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold
B. segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
C. segments that are sparsely populated and have more than 10% of free space below the high water mark.
D. segments that have unusable indexes
E. segments for tables created using ADVANCED ROW COMPRESSION

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_segment_advisor_10g.htm

QUESTION 129
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net.

You want to ensure that:

1. The user account must be locked after five consecutive unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.

Which two would you do to implement this? (Choose two.)

A. by alerting the appropriate user attributes with an ALTER USER command

B. by using appropriate PASSWORD parameters set in the profile assigned to the user
C. by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a profile for the user
D. by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a role for the user
E. by using appropriate KERNEL parameters set in the profile assigned to the user

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 130
You install “Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server” on a host on which the ORCL1 and ORCL2 databases both have their instances running.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. All databases subsequently created by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
B. The srvctl add database command must be used to add ORCL1 and ORCL2 to the ORACLE Restart configuration.
C. Both ORCL1 and ORCL2 are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D. All database listeners running from the database home are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
E. The crsctl start has command must be used to start software services for Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) after the “Oracle Grid
Infrastructure for a standalone server” installation is complete.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 131
Which statement is true about unified auditing?

A. The unified audit trail, by default, resides in a read-only table in the AUDSYS schema in the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. Only the CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements are audited for all users, including SYS.
C. Unified auditing is enabled only if the AUDIT_TRAIL parameter is set to NONE.
D. The unified audit trail contains audit records only from unified audit policies and AUDIT settings.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_admin.htm#DBSEG370

QUESTION 132
Which two options can be configured for an existing database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose two.)

A. Configure Label Security

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B. Database Vault in ORACLE_HOME
C. Oracle Suggested Backup Strategy
D. Database Resident Connection Pooling
E. Nondefault blocksize tablespaces

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133
You want to create a database with a block size other than the default 8 kilobytes (KB) by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).

Which option should you use?

A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage of data files

B. a file system for storage of data files
C. a Data Warehouse database template
D. a custom database template

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 134
Which two statements are true about using SQL*Loader? (Choose two.)

A. It can load data from external files by using direct path only.
B. It can load data into multiple tables using the same load statement.
C. It can load data into only one table at a time.
D. It can generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
E. It can load data from external files by using conventional path only.

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Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135
The HR user owns the BONUSES table. HR grants privileges to the user TOM by using the command:

SQL> GRANT SELECT ON bonuses TO tom WITH GRANT OPTION;

TOM then executes this command to grant privileges to the user JIM:

SQL> GRANT SELECT ON hr.bonuses TO jim;

Which statement is true?

A. TOM cannot revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.

B. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
C. JIM can grant the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege to other users, but cannot revoke the privilege from them.
D. HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from TOM, which will automatically revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 136
Your database is running in NOARCHIVLOG mode.

Examine the following parameters:

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You execute the following command after performing a STARTUP MOUNT:

SQL> ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;

Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

A. It executes successfully and sets the Fast Recovery Area as the local archive destination.
B. It executes successfully and issues a warning to set LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST while opening the database.
C. It fails and returns an error about LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST not being set.
D. It executes successfully and sets $ORACLE_HOME/dbs as the default archive destination.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 137
Which set of statements is true about data dictionary views?

1. They are stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.

2. They are based on virtual tables.
3. They are owned by the SYS user.
4. They can be queried by a normal user only if the 07_DICTIONARY_ACCESSIBILITY parameter is set to TRUE.
5. The V$FIXED_TABLE view can be queried to list the names of these views.
6. They are owned by the SYSTEM user.

A. 2, 5, and 6
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 2, 3, 4, and 5

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40540/datadict.htm#CNCPT002

QUESTION 138
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?

A. All current, online, and archived redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
B. All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes made after the most recent checkpoint.
C. All redo log entries in the current log are applied to data files until the checkpoint position is reached.
D. All current, active, and inactive redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A58617_01/server.804/a58396/ch2.htm

QUESTION 139
A database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as database storage, which has a diskgroup, DATA1, which is created as follows:

What happens when the FAILGRP1 failure group is corrupted?

A. Mirroring of allocation units occurs within the FAILGRP2 failure group.

B. Transactions that are using the diskgroup fail.
C. ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the FAILGRP2 failure group.
D. Data in the FAILGRP1 failure group is moved to the FAILGRP2 failure group and rebalancing is started.

Correct Answer: D

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 140
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup.

In which three scenarios do you need media recovery? (Choose three.)

A. loss of all the copies of the control file

B. loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
E. logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F. abnormal termination of the database instance

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 141
Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot specify how partitioned tables should be handled during an import operation.
B. Only data can be compressed during an export operation.
C. Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
D. Tables cannot be renamed during an import operation.
E. Metadata that is exported and imported can be filtered based on objects and object types.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28300/expimp.htm#UPGRD12560

QUESTION 142
You want to upgrade an Oracle Database running Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c.

Which three tasks should be performed before a manual upgrade? (Choose three.)

A. running preupgrad.sql in Oracle Database 11g to generate fix-up scripts and a log file
B. running utlu121s.sql from the new Oracle home to display information about the required initialization parameters
C. copying the initialization parameter file to the new Oracle home
D. copying the password file to the new Oracle home
E. copying net configuration files to the new Oracle home

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 143
Which four operations performed after the Oracle Restart installation are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose four.)

A. listener configured by using NETCA

B. database service created by using SRVCTL
C. database created by using a SQL statement
D. database created by using DBCA
E. ASM instance created by using ASMCA
F. database service created by using DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE
G. database service created by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter

Correct Answer: BCEF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/restart002.htm#insertedID3

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QUESTION 144
You create an Oracle 12c database and then import schemas that are required by an application which has not yet been developed.

You want to get advice on creation of or modifications to indexes, materialized views and partitioning in these schemas.

What must you run to achieve this?

A. SQL Access Advisor with a SQL tuning set

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. SQL Access Advisor with a hypothetical workload
E. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 145
The HR user updates the salary of one of the employees in the non-partitioned EMPLOYEES table, but does not commit the transaction.

Which two types of lock exist in this situation? (Choose two.)

A. exclusive lock on the EMPLOYEES table

B. null lock on the row being updated
C. null lock on the EMPLOYEES table
D. row level lock on the row being updated
E. shared lock on the EMPLOYEES table

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 146

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You have a production Oracle 12c database running on a host.

You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any Oracle database software installed. You also want the new databases
to have the same directory structure and components as your existing 12c database.

The steps in random order:

1. Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines.
2. Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the production database.
3. Create a database clone template for the database.
4. Run the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.
5. Run OUI in graphical mode on each machine.
6. Run OUI in silent mode using the OUI response file.

Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human intervention.

A. 1, 5, and 4
B. 3, 1, 5, and 6
C. 2, 3, 6, and 4
D. 2, 1, 6, and 4
E. 2, 3, 1, and 6

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 147
The HR.DEPARTMENTS table is the parent of the HR.EMPLOYEES table. The EMPLOYEES.DEPARTMENT_ID column has a foreign key constraint with the ON
DELETE CASCADE option that refers to the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column. An index exists on the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column. A
transaction deletes a primary key in the DEPARTMENTS table, which has child rows in the EMPLOYEES table.

Which statement is true?

A. The transaction acquires a table lock only on the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction is complete.
B. The transaction acquires a table lock on the DEPARTMENTS table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the DEPARTMENTS table until the
transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
C. The transaction acquires a table lock on the EMPLOYEES table. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the EMPLOYEES table until the
transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.

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D. Only the rows that are deleted in the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables are locked until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 148
For which three requirements would you use the Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)

A. specifying an idle time limit that applies to sessions that are idle and blocking other sessions
B. limiting the degree of parallelism of operations performed by user sessions in a consumer group
C. specifying the maximum number of concurrent sessions allowed for a user
D. limiting the CPU used per database call
E. specifying the amount of private space a session can allocate in the shared pool of the SGA.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/dbrm.htm

QUESTION 149
Which two files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the new Oracle home for Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)

A. the tnsnames.ora file

B. the sqlnet.ora file
C. the initialization parameter file
D. the password file
E. the listener.ora file

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747

QUESTION 150
Backup requirements for a database:

* Level 0 backup on Sunday

* Cumulative incremental level 1 backup on Monday, Wednesday, and Saturday
* Differential incremental level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday

Which three statements are true about the strategy? (Choose three.)

A. Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been formatted.
B. Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 1 backup.
C. Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 1 backup.
D. Level 1 backup on Monday, Wednesday, and Saturday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 0 backup.
E. Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 0 backup.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 151
When is the UNDO_RETENTION parameter value ignored by a transaction?

A. when there are multiple undo tablespaces available in a database

B. when the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible
C. when the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled
D. when Flashback Database is enabled

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/undo.htm (undo retention)

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QUESTION 152
Which two statements are true about the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used to create a database template from an existing database.

B. It can be used to add a new tablespace.
C. It can generate SQL database creation scripts.
D. It can be used to copy an existing Oracle database to a new host and apply any patches necessary in the new host.
E. It can configure Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroups.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E17559_01/em.111/e16599/appdx_creating_db_templates.htm#CJACEDCD

QUESTION 153
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)

A. A schedule can be specified to a single job only.

B. A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
C. A job may get started automatically when a window opens.
D. A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E. A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F. A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G. A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.

Correct Answer: BCFG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm

QUESTION 154
Which three statements are true about checkpointing? (Choose three.)

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A. It prompts the Checkpoint (CKPT) process to write data to the data files and redo information to the online redo log files.
B. It ensures that all dirty buffers are written to data files during consistent shutdown.
C. It reduces the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.
D. Frequent thread checkpoints can degrade database performance.
E. It prompts the Database Writer (DBWn) process to write checkpoint information into data file headers and the control file.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 155
Your database instance has Automatic Memory Management enabled and supports shared server connections.

Examine the following:

1. Parallel execution messages and control structures

2. Local variables for a process
3. Security and resource usage information
4. Runtime memory values, such as rows retrieved for a SQL statement using a serial execution plan
5. SQL execution work areas

Which option indicates what is allocated from the large pool in this instance?

A. only 1
B. 1, 2, and 5
C. 1, 2, 3, and 5
D. 1, 2, and 4

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 156

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You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server.

Which two components are automatically included in the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose two.)

A. A pre-existing Oracle Net Listener

B. Oracle Notification services
C. A pre-existing database
D. A pre-existing Oracle management agent
E. Oracle CSSD service

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/LADBI/oraclerestart.htm#LADBI999

QUESTION 157
Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled for your database instance. You notice that there are SQL statements performing poorly because of repeated
parsing activity.

Which action generates recommendations to overcome the performance issues?

A. running the Memory Advisor for the buffer cache

B. running the Memory Advisor for the library cache
C. running the Memory Advisor for the SGA
D. running the Memory Advisor for the PGA

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 158
Which two statements are true about a server parameter file (SPFILE)? (Choose two.)

A. An SPFILE can be created from a PFILE or from memory.

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B. A PFILE can be used to start up a database instance even if an SPFILE exists.
C. An SPFILE must reside in the ORACLE_HOME/dbs directory.
D. An SPFILE can be created only before a database instance is started.
E. An SPFILE contains only those dynamic parameters that can be changed without having to restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 159
You want to create a file watcher and an event-based job for detecting the arrival of files on the local server from various locations. To achieve this, you enable the
raising of file arrival events from remote systems.

Which two conditions must be satisfied to receive file arrival events from a remote system? (Choose two.)

A. The remote system must have a running Oracle Database instance and a scheduler agent installed.
B. The initialization parameter REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT must be set to TRUE on your database.
C. The local database must be set up to run remote external jobs.
D. The remote system's scheduler agent must be registered with your database.
E. Database links to remote databases must be created.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm

QUESTION 160
You determine that database performance is sub-optimal due to hard parsing statements. Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is disabled for your
database instance.

Which tool would you use to get advice on how to improve performance?

A. Memory Advisor for the PGA

B. SQL Access Advisor

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C. Memory Advisor for the shared pool
D. SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/server.1111/e10897/montune.htm#CHDGFCFJ

QUESTION 161
Identify three uses of the CROSSCHECK command (Choose three.)

A. to validate the database backup

B. to synchronize logical backup records with physical files in backup storage
C. to check the obsolete backups that can be deleted from the file system
D. to update information about backups that are deleted, corrupted, or inaccessible in a recovery catalog or control file
E. to update the recovery catalog or control file if archived log files are deleted with operating system commands

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 162
Which statement is true about the Oracle central inventory directory (oraInventory)?

A. oraInventory must not be shared by all Oracle software installations on a single system.
B. If ORACLE_BASE is set to /u01/app/oracle for the oracle user during an installation, OUI creates the Oracle Inventory directory in the /u01/app/oracle/
oraInventory path.
C. lf an OFA-compliant path is not created and the ORACLE_BASE environment variable is not set during an Oracle Database installation, the Oracle Inventory
directory is placed in the home directory of the user that is performing the installation.
D. Oracle software owners must be members of the same central oraInventory group, but they need not have this group as their primary group.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWLIN/usrgrps.htm#CWLIN483

QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)

A. An AWR snapshot shows the SQL statements that are producing the highest load on the system, based on criteria such as elapsed time and CPU time.
B. AWR data is stored in memory and in a database.
C. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
D. The manageability monitor (MMON) process gathers statistics and creates an AWR snapshot that is used by the self-tuning components in a database.
E. An AWR snapshot contains system-wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 164
Which three statements are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)

A. Server-generated alerts notify administrators of problems that cannot be resolved automatically.

B. Alerts are not issued for locally managed read-only tablespaces.
C. Response actions cannot be specified for server-generated alerts.
D. Stateful alerts can be queried only from the DBA_ALERT_HISTORY view.
E. When an alert is cleared, it is moved to the DBA_ALERT_HISTORY view.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120

QUESTION 165
Which three functions can be performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)

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A. recommending creation of indexes based on SQL workload
B. recommending restructuring of SQL statements that have suboptimal plans
C. checking schema objects for missing and state statistics
D. recommending optimization of materialized views
E. generating SQL profiles

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
Examine the parameters:

Users complain that their sessions for certain transactions hang. You investigate and discover that some users fail to complete their transactions, causing other
transactions to wait on row-level locks.

Which two actions would you take to prevent this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the maximum number of ITL slots for segments on which a blocking user performs a transaction.
B. Decrease the SESSIONS_PER_USER limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
C. Set a limit in the profiles of blocking users to control the number of data blocks that can be accessed in a session.
D. Use Database Resource Manager to automatically kill the sessions that are idle and are blocking other sessions.
E. Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.

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Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 167
Which statement is true about the loss of a data file belonging to the default undo tablespace?

A. The database remains open in read-only mode.

B. The database is put in MOUNT state and requires recovery to be opened.
C. The database remains open for querying but no DML statements can be executed except by the users with SYSDBA privilege.
D. All the noncommitted transactions are lost.
E. The database instance aborts.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 168
Examine the following steps:

A DBA grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege with ADMIN OPTION to the user SIDNEY.
SIDNEY grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege to the HR user.

Which statement is true?

A. SIDNEY can revoke the CREATE TABLE system privilege only from HR, to whom he granted it.
B. HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege to other users.
C. Neither SIDNEY nor HR can create new tables if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE privilege from SIDNEY.
D. HR still retains the CREATE TABLE system privilege if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE privilege from SIDNEY.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_with_grant_admin_privileges.htm

QUESTION 169
What is a pre-requisite to alter a role?

A. You should be granted the DBA role.

B. You should set the OS_ROLES parameter to true.
C. You should be granted the role with the GRANT OPTION.
D. You should have the ALTER ANY ROLE system privilege.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 170
Identify the access that is initially available to connect to your Database as a Service (DBaaS) environment.

A. Enterprise Manager on port 1158

B. telnet on port 23
C. Cloud Control on port 7799
D. SSH on port 22
E. SSL/TLS on port 443

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171
Which three statements are true about naming methods? (Choose three.)

A. Local naming supports multiple protocols, but for any one connection, the client and server must use the same protocol.

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B. In the Easy Connect method, clients can connect to a database server by using the host name of the database with an optional port and service name.
C. In the Easy Connect method, the listener port and IP address must be provided for the connection to be successful.
D. The local naming method does not support connect-time failover and load-balancing options.
E. The directory naming method supports connect-time failover and load-balancing options.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 172
Examine the command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=TRUE;

Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. All data definition language (DDL) commands are logged in to the alert log file.
B. All DDL commands are logged in to a text file in Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.
C. A subset of executed DDL statements is written into an XML file in ADR home.
D. A subset of executed DDL statements is written to the DDL log in ADR home.
E. All DDL commands are logged in to a trace file in ADR home.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
When does a database checkpoint occur?

A. When there is an online redo log switch.

B. When a user session terminates abnormally.
C. When a server process terminates abnormally.
D. When the SHUTDOWN ABORT command is issued.

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 174
What action must you take to ensure complete database recovery till the point of failure?

A. Multiplex the control files

B. Duplex the RMAN backup sets.
C. Multiplex the online redo log files.
D. Configure the database to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 175
An application repeatedly accesses small lookup tables, causing a lot of physical I/O operations.

What do you recommend to minimize this?

A. Configure the nonstandard buffer cache with a buffer size greater than the size of the default buffer cache.
B. Increase the size of the shared pool
C. Configure the KEEP buffer cache and alter the tables to use the KEEP cache.
D. Configure the RECYCLE buffer cache and alter the tables to use the RECYCLE cache.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 176
Examine the command:

Which statement is true?

A. The data file, TEST01.DBF, can be auto extended to a maximum size of 5M.
B. The tablespace, TEST1, can contain a maximum of one data file.
C. Allocated and free extents are tracked using bitmaps.
D. Segment free space is tracked in the data dictionary.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 177
Your database is open in read/write mode and multiple users are connected to the database instance.

You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION;

What would be the effect on current sessions?

A. They are not terminated but may only issue queries.

B. They are not affected.
C. They are terminated immediately.
D. They are terminated after completing the transaction.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 178
You create a locally managed tablespace ORDERS_TBS with automatic segment management.
You then create the table DAILY_ORDS_LST in the ORDERS_TBS tablespace using the command.

CREATE TABLE daily_ords_1st(ordno NUMBER, ord_date DATE) PCTFREE 20;

How does the PCTFREE storage parameter influence data storage for this table?

A. It allows only 80% of space to be occupied in all data blocks of this table.
B. It minimizes row chaining during row insertion.
C. It minimizes row migration during existing row data updation.
D. It automatically coalesces free space of a data block when it reaches 20% of available space.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 179
What must you use to read data from a table in your database and write it to an external table?

A. Use SQL* LOADER conventional path load.

B. Use SQL* LOADER direct path load.
C. Use CREATE TABLE..ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_LOADER access driver.
D. Use CREATE TABLE..ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_DATAPUMP access driver.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180

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Which three statements are true about user account administration? (Choose three.)

A. A user's current session is not affected when the user's profile is changed.
B. Only users with the SYSDBA privilege can change the tablespace quota for other users.
C. A new user account can be created only by SYS or SYSTEM users.
D. A user's quota can be set for any permanent tablespace but not for the default temporary tablespace.
E. A user requires only the CREATE SESSION privilege to change his or her own password.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181
Which two statements are true about initialization parameter files? (Choose two.)

A. A lost or damaged SPFILE can be re-created by using the parameter values listed in the alert log.
B. A PFILE must exist for an SPFILE to be created.
C. The ALTER SYSTEM command cannot be used to change the value of any parameter if a database instance has started using a PFILE.
D. Both the SPFILE and PFILE must always reside on a file system accessible from the database host server.
E. On startup, by default a database instance always first searches for an SPFILE, and if it does not find any, searches for a PFILE.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 182
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in ARCHIVELOG mode. The default location for the archived redo log
files is the FRA.

Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention policy? (Choose two.)

A. Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B. user-managed backups of data files and control files

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C. RMAN backups that are obsolete
D. flashback logs

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 183
You want to create a locally managed tablespace called NEWTBS to store segments with different extent sizes.

Which set of tablespace attributes can be specified for a tablespace that satisfies the requirements?

A. EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL STORAGE (INITIAL 5M MAXSIZE 10M)

B. REUSE AUTOEXTEND ON MAXSIZE UNLIMITED
C. EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT UNIFORM
D. EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL AUTOALLOCATE

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 184
The schema SALES exists in two databases, ORCL1 and ORCL2, and has the same password, SALES123.

User SALES has CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges on both databases.

Examine these commands:

conn SALES/SALES123
CREATE DATABASE LINK orcl2 USING 'orcl2';

What is the outcome of executing these commands in the ORCL1 database?

A. ORCL2 is created as a public database link to connect a single session to the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database.
B. ORCL2 is created as a shared database link to connect multiple sessions to the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database.

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C. ORCL2 is created as a private database link to connect to only the SALES schema in the ORCL2 database.
D. ORCL2 database link creation fails.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 185
What is a requirement for creating a remote database scheduler job?

A. The remote database job must run as a user that is valid on the target remote database.
B. A private database link must be created from the originating database to the target remote database.
C. The target remote database on which the job is scheduled must be Oracle Database 11g Release 2 or later.
D. The target remote database must be on a different host form the originating scheduler database host.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 186
Which users are created and can be used for database and host management of your DBaaS database servers?

A. opc and oracle users

B. root, oracle and cloud users
C. root and oracle users
D. root, opc and oracle users
E. cloud and oracle users

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 187
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed to move data across different database releases.
B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independent of Data Pump clients.
C. A directory object must exist and a user performing an EXPDP or IMPDP operation must have read and write permission on that directory object.
D. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
E. Oracle Data Pump export operations invoked from the clients that are connected remotely by using a connection string, create Data Pump files on the client file
system.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 188
In your database, archive logging and control file autobackup are enabled.
The data files and redo log files are intact but control files are impacted due to media failure.

In which two recovery scenarios must you use the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)

A. One control file copy is intact so the spfile is changed to refer to only one copy.
B. One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to the default location.
C. All copies of the control file are damaged and the CREATE CONTROLFILE statement is executed manually.
D. All copies of the control file are damaged and the auto backed up control file is used for recovery.
E. One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to a non-default location.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 189

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Examine the command to perform a data pump export operation on a source database:
$> expdp hr/hr DIRECTORY=dumpdir DUMPFILE=emp1.dmp VIEWS_AS_TABLE=emp_dept

On the target database, you execute the data pump import command:
$> impdp hr/hr DIRECTORY=dumpdir DUMPFILE=emp1.dmp VIEWS_AS_TABLE=emp_dept

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. The expdp operation exports data that satisfies the condition of the defining query used to create the EMP_DEPT view.
B. The impdp operation creates the view and dependent objects.
C. All rows from the dependent objects, along with the metadata required to create the EMP_DEPT view, are exported.
D. Objects dependent on the EMP_DEPT view are exported.
E. The impdp operation creates EMP_DEPT as table and populates it with the data from the export dump file.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 190
Examine the details of the uncompressed, non-partitioned heap table CITIES.

Examine the command:

SQL>ALTER TABLE cities SHRINK SPACE COMPACT;

What must you do before executing it?

A. Ensure free space that is approximately equal to the space used by the table should be available.
B. Ensure there are no pending transactions on the table.
C. Enable row movement is enabled.
D. Disable all indexes on the table.

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 191
Your database has archive logging enabled and RMAN backups are taken at regular intervals. A data file in the USERS tablespace is damaged.

Which command must you execute before starting the recovery of this tablespace?

A. ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE

B. STARTUP FORCE NOMOUNT
C. STARTUP FORCE
D. SWITCH DATAFILE ALL

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 192
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

You want to take a consistent whole database backup.

Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. RMAN backups contain only data files.

B. The database instance must be shut down to take a user-managed consistent backup.
C. Consistent RMAN backups can be taken while the database is open.
D. User-managed backups only contain formatted data blocks.
E. The database must be in MOUNT state to take consistent RMAN backups.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 193
Which statement is true about the Database as a Service (DBaaS) instances and Database instances in Oracle Public Cloud?

A. An Oracle database instance can support only one DBaaS instance.

B. A DBaaS instance can support only one Oracle database instance.
C. An Oracle database instance can support multiple DBaaS instances.
D. A DBaaS instance can support multiple Oracle database instances.
E. A DBaaS instance runs in a pluggable database (PDB), which is contained in a multi-tenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 194
Which background process does Automatic Shared Memory Management use to coordinate the sizing of memory components?

A. PMON
B. SMON
C. MMNL
D. MMAN
E. MMON

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 195
You configured the flash recovery area in the database. Which two files would you expect to find in the flash recovery area? (Choose two.)

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A. backup pieces
B. copies of all parameter files
C. trace file generated using BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE
D. control file autobackups

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 196
Examine the following ALTER command:

SQL> ALTER DISKGROUP dgroup1 UNDROP DISKS;

What is the purpose of the command?

A. It cancels all pending disk drops within the disk group

B. It restores disks that are being dropped as the result of a DROP DISKGROUP operation.
C. It mounts disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already been completed
D. It restores all the dropped disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already been completed
E. It adds previously dropped disks back into the disk group

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 197
Tape streaming is not happening while performing RMAN tape backup. On investigation, you find that it is not because of the incremental backup or the empty file
backup and that RMAN is sending data blocks to tape drive fast enough.

What could be a solution to make streaming happen during the backup?

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A. Configure backup optimization
B. Configure the channel to increase MAXOPENFILES
C. Configure the channel to increase the capacity with the RATE parameter
D. Configure the channel to adjust the tape buffer size with the BLKSIZE option

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 198
Because of a logical corruption in the EMPLOYES tables, you want to perform Tablespace Point-in-Time Recovery (TSPITR) to recover the table. Before you
started the TSPITR process, you queried the TS_PITR_CHECK view and you realized that the table has a referential constraint with DEPARTMENTS that exists in
another tablespace, MASTERTBS. Which two actions will permit the TSPITR to work? (Choose two.)

A. Taking the MASTERTBS tablespace offline

B. Dropping the relationship between the tables
C. Adding the MASTERTBS tablespace to the recovery set
D. Putting the MASTERTBS tablespace in read-only mode

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If constraints for the tables in tablespace tbs1 are contained in the tablespace tbs2, then you cannot recover tbs1 without also recovering tbs2.
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/backup.112/e10642/rcmtspit.htm#BRADV99978

QUESTION 199
You executed the following query:

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Considering that all the redo logs are available, what information can you derive from the output of the preceding query?

A. The time when the last flashback operation in your database was performed
B. The time when the first flashback operation in our database was performed
C. The approximate time and the lowest system change number (SCN) to which you can flash back your database
D. The system change number (SCN) and the time when the Flashback Database was enabled in the database instance

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200
Which two tasks must you perform before you begin the upgrade process to Oracle Database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. Put all readonly tablespaces in read write mode

B. Recompile all invalid objects
C. Set the compatible parameter to 12.1.0.1
D. Gather dictionary statistics
E. Empty all user recycle bins

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 201
Which two tools can be used to configure static service information in the listener.ora file? (Choose two.)

A. Oracle Net Manager

B. Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
C. Oracle Net Configuration Assistant
D. Listener Control Utility (LSNRCTL)
E. Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express

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Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 202
You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure standalone server and issue the following command:

crsctl start has

Which two existing components get automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Oracle CSSD services

B. the database whose instance is running
C. Oracle Notification services
D. Oracle Healthcheck services
E. Oracle Net Listener

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 203
Examine this command executed on a client that is remote from the database server.

SQL> CONNECT hr/hr@orcl

Which two are required for this command to connect the SQLPLUS client to a database instance? (Choose two.)

A. An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the client-side and server-side tnsnames.ora files
B. An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the client-side tnsnames.ora file
C. A service name must be defined to the listener that matches the service name in the orcl TNS entry
D. An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the server-side tnsnames.ora file

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E. The service name orcl must be defined to the listener

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204
One of your databases supports an OLTP workload.
The default UNDO tablespace is fixed size with:

1. RETENTION NOGUARANTEE
2. UNDO_RETENTION is 12 minutes

User SCOTT gets this error after a query on the SALES table has run for more than 15 minutes:

ORA-01555: snapshot too old

Which three factors taken separately or in some combination might be the cause? (Choose three.)

A. An update was made to the SALES table after the query began
B. An update to the SALES table was committed after the query began
C. A committed delete to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
D. An uncommitted update to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
E. A committed update to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
F. An uncommitted delete to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
G. An update was made to the SALES table before the query began

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 205
One of your databases has archive logging enabled and RMAN backups are taken at regular intervals.
The data file for the USERS tablespace is corrupt.
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Which command must you execute before starting the recovery of this tablespace?

A. STARTUP FORCE
B. ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
C. SWITCH DATAFILE ALL;
D. ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE NORMAL;
E. ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE TEMPORARY;

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 206
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Examine the RMAN configuration parameters:

Examine the command:

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY command
B. It creates image copies of the archivelogs
C. It creates a backupset of archive log files
D. It creates image copies of the database files
E. It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET command

Correct Answer: BE

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 207
Which are two ways for a database service to be recognized by a listener in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. Dynamic Registration by the LREG process

B. Dynamic Registration by the SMON process
C. Static registration in the listener.ora file using the GLOBAL_DBNAME parameter
D. Dynamic Registration by the PMON process
E. Static registration in the listener.ora file using the SERVICE_NAME parameter

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/NETAG/listenercfg.htm#NETAG298

QUESTION 208
DAILY_ORDS_LST is created in locally managed tablespace ORDERS_TBS which uses automatic segment space management.

Which two are true? (Choose two.)

A. 80% of every data block in daily_ords_list is reserved for row inserts

B. 20% of each data block in the table is reserved for row updates
C. PCTFREE can help to minimize row chaining during inserts
D. PCTFREE can help reduce row migration during updates
E. PCTFREE eliminates row chaining during inserts

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Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 209
Which two must be installed or configured either manually or by DBCA in order to use Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express)? (Choose two.)

A. A port number for Oracle HTTP Server must be configured

B. The APEX_PUBLIC_USER role must be granted to SYSMAN
C. A SYSMAN user with SYSDBA privilege must be created
D. At least one TCP/IP dispatcher must be configured
E. The Oracle HTTP Server must be installed

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 210
Which four statements are true about database instance behavior? (Choose four.)

A. An idle instance is created when a STARTUP NOMOUNT is successful

B. All dynamic performance views (v$ views) return data when queried from a session connected to an instance in NOMOUNT state
C. The consistency of redo logs and data files is checked when mounting the database
D. Redo log files can be renamed in MOUNT state
E. An SPFILE can be updated when connected to an idle instance
F. Datafiles can be renamed in MOUNT state

Correct Answer: CDEF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 211
Which three statements are true PFILEs, SPFILEs or both? (Choose three.)

A. SPFILEs and PFILEs may both be edited with an O/S editing utility
B. Some SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=MEMORY clause
C. A SPFILE can be created by an idle instance
D. A PFILE can be created by an idle instance
E. All SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=BOTH clause
F. All SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=MEMORY clause

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 212
Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
You want to disable archiving for the database.
Examine these steps:

1. Execute the ALTER DATABASE NOARCHIVELOG command

2. Execute SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
3. Execute STARTUP MOUNT
4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/
5. Execute STARTUP NOMOUNT
6. Open the database
7. Execute SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL

Identify the required steps in the correct sequence.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
B. 2, 5, 1, 6
C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 6
D. 2, 3, 1, 6

Correct Answer: B

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://dba-oracle.com/bk_disable_archive_log_mode.htm

QUESTION 213
A database is open READ WRITE and the instance has multiple sessions some of which have active transactions.
You execute this command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE RESTRICTED SESSION;

Which three are true about the active transactions? (Choose three.)

A. They may issue COMMIT or ROLLBACK statements

B. They are suspended and unable to issue any statements
C. They may continue to issue DML statements
D. They are rolled back automatically
E. They may continue to issue queries
F. They are terminated immediately

Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 214
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

A. The DBA role is required to create a job chain.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based schedules.
F. It can be executed using time-based schedules.

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Correct Answer: BEF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 215
An employee salary in the non-partitioned EMPLOYEES table, has been updated but the transaction is uncommitted.
Which two types of lock are held by the transaction? (Choose two.)

A. a row level lock on the row being updated

B. a null lock on the row being updated
C. a row shared lock on the EMPLOYEES table
D. an exclusive lock on the EMPLOYEES table
E. a null lock on the EMPLOYEES table

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 216
DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION is TRUE in one of your databases.
You execute this command:

Which three statements are true immediately after this statement executes successfully? (Choose three.)

A. A database object is created.

B. No database segment is created.

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C. The table and column definitions are stored in the data dictionary.
D. No table definition is stored in the data dictionary.
E. No column definitions are stored in the data dictionary.
F. No object definition is stored in the data dictionary.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 217
A PFILE exists for your database. You want to increase the value of the PROCESSES parameter from 300 to 400 and make it persistent for your database instance.
You plan to use the ALTER SYSTEM command.
Which two methods can be used? (Choose two.)

A. Edit PFILE manually, re-create the SPFILE from the edited PFILE, and restart the database instance by using the SPFILE.
B. Create an SPFILE, start the database instance by using the SPFILE, and then execute the ALTER SYSTEM SET PROCESSES=400 SCOPE=SPFILE
command.
C. Create an SPFILE, start the database instance by using the SPFILE, and then execute the ALTER SYSTEM SET PROCESSES=400 SCOPE=DEFERRED
command.
D. Create an SPFILE, STARTUP MOUNT the database instance by using the SPFILE, and then execute the ALTER SYSTEM SET PROCESSES=400 command.
E. Start the database instance by using the PFILE, and then execute the ALTER SYSTEM SET PROCESSES=400 SCOPE=BOTH command.
F. Use the PFILE to STARTUP MOUNT the database instance, and then execute the ALTER SYSTEM SET PROCESSES=400 command.

Correct Answer: CF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 218
In one of your databases, unified auditing is enabled and an SH.SALES table exists.
You can successfully execute these commands:

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Which statement is true about SALES_POL?

A. Audit records are always stored in an external audit file.

B. It is enabled for all users having SELECT privilege on SH.SALES.
C. It is only enabled for SH.
D. Only successful queries of SH.SALES are written to the audit trail.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 219
What should you do for a Scheduler to start a job when a file arrives on a remote system?

A. Start an Oracle database instance on the remote system and register the Scheduler agent with this database.
B. Install the Scheduler agent on the remote system and register the agent with the database on the local system.
C. Ensure dedicated server is enabled on both the local and remote databases.
D. Shutdown the file watcher on the local system.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25494/scheduse.htm#ADMIN034

QUESTION 220

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The HR schema exists in databases, BOSTON and DENVER, with the same password, HR.
You have CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges in both databases.
DENVER is defined as a service name in the tnsnames.ora of both databases.
You plan to use this command:
CREATE DATABASE LNK hr_link CONNECT TO hr IDENTIFIED BY hr USING ‘DENVER’;
What must be done to ensure that all users in BOSTON can access the HR schema in DENVER?

A. Change the command to create a public database link in BOSTON.

B. Change the command to create a public database link in DENVER.
C. Execute the command as SYS in DENVER.
D. Execute the command as SYS in BOSTON.
E. Execute the command as HR in BOSTON and SYS in DENVER.
F. Execute the command as SYS in both databases.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 221
Examine these statements:

DESC emp

INSERT INTO emp VALUES ( 101, 'John', 12000);

1 row created.
SAVEPOINT after_insert;
Savepoint created.
UPDATE emp SET salary=16000 WHERE empno=101;
1 row updated.
SAVEPOINT after_update;
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Savepoint created.
DELETE FROM emp WHERE empno=101;
1 row deleted.
SAVEPOINT after_delete;
Savepoint created.
ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT after_update;
Rollback complete.
INSERT INTO emp VALUES ( 102, 'Emma', 12000);
ROLLBACK TO SAVEPOINT after_delete;

Which is the result and effect of this ROLLBACK?

A. The ROLLBACK backs out all DMLS before after_delete.

B. The ROLLBACK backs out all DMLS until after_delete.
C. The ROLLBACK throws an error.
D. The ROLLBACK executes successfully but does not back out any DMLS.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 222
All of your database instances use SPFILES.
You executed this command in one of them:
ALTER SYSTEM SET MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=1024M;

Which statement is true?

A. The parameter is modified in memory and in the parameter file.

B. The command returns an error.
C. The parameter is modified in the parameter file only.
D. The parameter is modified in memory only.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/memory.htm#ADMIN00207

QUESTION 223
Which two utilities can NOT configure a new listener on port 1526? (Choose two.)

A. dbca
B. asmca
C. netca
D. netmgr
E. lsnrctl

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://community.oracle.com/thread/3781791?start=15&tstart=0

QUESTION 224
In which three situations can you use threshold server-generated alerts to help diagnose and fix problems? (Choose three.)

A. when free space in a locally managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage
B. when the number of logons per second exceeds a specific value
C. when a resumable statement is suspended
D. when the total number of locked user account exceeds a specific value
E. when the total number of logons exceeds a specific value
F. when free space in a dictionary managed tablespace falls below a specified percentage

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/monitoring001.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm

QUESTION 225
Which three are true about the default database buffer cache? (Choose three.)

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A. Buffers containing block images may be selected for reuse based only on a Least Recently Used (LRU) algorithm.
B. It is in the fixed area of the SGA.
C. Its buffers can contain data block images for blocks that have a corresponding image in a data file.
D. Buffers containing block images may be selected for reuse based only on a touch count algorithm.
E. It can contain block images only for database blocks whose block size is equal to the buffer size.
F. The keep and recycle cache memory is sub-allocated from memory allocated to the default buffer cache.
G. Its buffers can contain data block images for blocks that have no corresponding image in a data file.

Correct Answer: BFG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 226
One of your databases runs in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Examine this command:

Now examine these steps executed from RMAN:

1) SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
2) STARTUP MOUNT
3) BACKUP DATABASE;
4) BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL;
5) ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
6) STARTUP

Identify the minimum required steps in the correct order needed to perform a whole consistent database backup.

A. 1, 2, 3, 5

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B. 1, 6, 3, 4
C. 1, 6, 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
E. 3, 4

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://community.oracle.com/thread/451341

QUESTION 227
Examine these steps:

CONNECT / AS SYSDBA

CREATE DIRECTORY dumpdir AS '/u01/app/';

Directory created.

GRANT READ, WRITE ON DIRECTORY dumpdir TO PUBLIC;

Grant succeeded.

CREATE USER TEST IDENTIFIED BY test;

User created.

GRANT CREATE SESSION, RESOURCE, UNLIMITED TABLESPACE TO test;

Grant succeeded.

CONN test/test
Connected.

CREATE TABLE test_employees (id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(20), salary NUMBER(7));

Table created.

SQL> CREATE SYNONYM emp FOR test_employees;

Synonym created.

Now examine this command:

$ expdp test/test DIRECTORY=dumpdir DUMPFILE=test_emp.dmp LOGFILE=test.log TABLES=emp CONTENT=data_only

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query='EMP:"WHERE salary=12000"'

What is true about the execution of this command?

A. It throws an error as the QUERY parameter is not supported on an empty table.

B. It throws an error as the table test_employees is empty and CONTENT=data_only is specified.
C. It performs the export successfully.
D. It throws an error as Data Pump cannot find a table called TEST.EMP.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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