Residential Coaching Academy

Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh

PARTICULARS TO BE FILLED IN BY THE CANDIDATE English

2015 – 2016
Roll Number ADMISSION TEST
JSE
Name of the Candidate

Name of the Centre

Date of the Test

Signature of the Candidate

Time (Test Duration): 02 hours Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS
 Complete all entries on the cover page and put your signature in the space provided.
 Use only Ball Point Pen (black/blue) for making entries in the Question Booklet and the OMR
Answer Sheet.
 Candidate should also read carefully the instructions printed on the Admission Test Card and the
OMR Sheet before attempting to answer the questions.

1. The Question Booklet consists of 16 pages (including cover sheet) and contains 100 questions.
Count the number of pages and questions before attempting the questions. Discrepancy, if any,
must immediately be brought to the notice of the Invigilator.
2. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
3. The time (test duration) as specified above shall be reckoned from the moment of distribution of
the Question Booklets.
4. Blank space in the Question Booklet may be used for rough work.
5. Each question is followed by four alternative answers. Select only one answer, which you consider
as the most appropriate. Shade the relevant circle against the corresponding question number on the
OMR Answer Sheet.
6. Answer should ONLY be marked on the OMR Answer Sheet. No answer should be written on the
Question Booklet.
7. The candidate (he/she) shall hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving his/her seat.
8. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
 2

1. Under which one of the following 5. In which one of the following Sections of
Sections of I.P.C., rash and I.P.C., "Kidnapping or maiming a minor
negligent driving of vehicle on for begging" has been discussed ?
public way is an offence ?
(a) Section 363 (b) Section 364
(a) Section 17 (b) Section 18
(c) Section 279 (d) Section 280 (c) Section 363-A (d) Section 364-A

2. "Court of Justice" is defined in 6. How many kinds of hurts are grievous

I.P.C. under hurt under Section 320 of I.P.C.?

(a) Section 17 (b) Section 18 (a) 6 (b) 7

(c) Section 19 (d) Section 20 (c) 8 (d) 9

3. 'A', by falsely pretending to be in 7. 'X' on receiving grave and sudden

the civil service, intentionally provocation from 'Z', intentionally causes
deceives 'Z', and thus dishonestly the death of 'Y', who is brother of 'Z', 'X'
induces 'Z' to let him have on credit has committed the offence of :
goods for which he does not mean (a) Murder
to pay, 'A' has committed. (b) Culpable homicide not amounting to
(a) Cheating by personation murder.
(b) Cheating Extortion (c) Grievous hurt
(c) Extortion (d) Attempt to murder
(d) None of the above 8. 'X' having sufficient food, does not
4. Which of the following not matched provide some food to a beggar, who dies
correctly under Indian Penal Code? of hunger. 'X' is guilty of

(a) Thug -Section 309 (a) No offence

(b) Counterfeiting -Section 231 (b) Attempt to murder

coins (c) Murder
(c) Bribery -Section 171-B (d) Culpable homicide not amounting to
(d) Gender -Section 8 murder.
 3

9. In which of the following offences, 13. Preparation to commit murder is-

guilty intention is not an essential (a) Punishable
element?
(b) Not punishable
(a) Murder (b) Theft
(c) Robbery (d) Bigamy (c) Punishable with fine
10. 'A' intentionally pulls up a woman's (d) All the above
veil in order to annoy her, 'A' 14. Preparation to commit dacoity is a-
commits:
(a) Punishable offence
(a) Wrongful restraint
(b) Not punishable offence
(b) Assault
(c) No offence
(c) Criminal force
(d) None of the above.
(d) Defamation
15. For an offence of cheating, intention to
11. Which Section of I.P.C. has been cheat should be present-
declared unconstitutional and
violative of Articles 14 and 21 of (a) In the end
the Constitution of India? (b) In the middle
(a) Section 314 (c) Both the above
(b) Section 301 (d) From the very beginning
(c) Section 303 16. Which one of the following is not
(d) Section 306 essential for commission of an offence?

12. For providing an offence under (a) Intention

Section 307 of I.P.C.- (b) Motive
(a) Intention to commit murder has (c) Prohibited act
to be proved (d) Punishment
(b) Causing of grievous hurt is to be 17. 'Wrongful gain' and 'wrongful loss' have
proved been defined under Indian Penal Code,
(c) Use of lethal weapon is to be 1860 in
proved (a) Section 22
(d) Actual injury is to be proved. (b) Section 23
 4

(c) Section 24 21. Warrant case means a case relating to an

(d) Section 27 offence

18. In which one of the following cases (a) Punishable with death
the Supreme Court of India has held (b) Punishable with imprisonment for life
that wife cannot be charged for or imprisonment for a term exceeding
harbouring her husband? two years.
(a) State v. Ratan Singh (c) Punishable with imprisonment not
(b) State of Tamil Nadu v. Nalini exceeding two years.

(c) Jai Narain Mishra v. State (d) (a) and (b) above

(d) Sardara Singh v. State 22. Under Section 145 Cr.P.C. in disputes as
to immovable property, the Executive
19. Which provisions of the Indian Magistrate can decide the question of
Penal Code, 1860 deal with the
'Solitary confinement' and limits on (a) possession and title
solitary confinement'? (b) actual possession
(a) Section 68 and Section 69 (c) title
(b) Section 59 and Section 60 (d) all the above
(c) Section 73 and Section 73 23. Read the following :
(d) Section 71 and Section 72 (1) F.I.R. is only a report about the
20. Which one of the following commission of a crime.
Sections of the Indian Penal Code, (2) F.I.R. in itself is a substantial
1860 provides that right of private evidence.
defence of body extends to causing Of the above :
harm short of death?
(a) (1) is true, but (2) is false.
(a) Section 99
(b) (1) is false, but (2) is true.
(b) Section 100
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true.
(c) Section 103
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
(d) Section 101
24. Which one of the following remedies
have not been provided under the
Criminal Procedure Code?
 5

(a) Reference (b) Review (d) none of the above

(c) Revision (d) Appeal 29. A is an accused of theft. After arrest he
25. Which one of the following sections remained 90 days in preventive
of the Cr.P.C. deals with the detention. After this he was imprisoned
prosecution of offences against for one year. Is he entitled for set-off of
Marriage? 90 days?

(a) Section 198 (a) Yes

(b) Section 199 (b) No

(c) Section 197 (c) Entitled for set-off for 45 days

(d) None of the above (d) Entitled for set-off for 30 days

26. Which Section of the Cr.P.C. 30. Jurisdiction to grant 'anticipatory bail'
resembles with the writ of habeas vests with
corpus? (a) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(a) Section 96 (b) Section 97 (b) The Court of Sessions only
(c) Section 98 (d) Section 99 (c) The High Court only
27. A Judicial Magistrate may record (d) Both (b) and (c)
any confession 31. Cognizance of the offence of 'defamation'
(a) In the course of trial under Chapter XXI of I.P.C. can be taken
(b) In the course of inquiry (a) On a police report
(c) In the course of investigation (b) On complaint made by aggrieved
(d) All of the above person

28. Provisions relating to "plea (c) Sue motu by court

bargaining" is applicable to (d) All the above
(a) offences affecting socio- 32. The appeal against an order of acquittal
economic conditions of India passed by Judicial Magistrate First Class
(b) offences committed against in respect of the offence under Section
women 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act
would lie to-
(c) offences against children below
14 years of age. (a) To the High Court directly
 6

(b) To the Court of Session 35. In which case has the Supreme Court
(c) To the High Court with the held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was
leave of that Court applicable to all irrespective of their
religion?
(d) To the Court of Chief Judicial
Magistrate (a) Mohd. Umar Khan v. Gulshan Begum

33. Which section of the Cr.P.C. (b) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano
provides for confirmation by the Begum
High Court of an order of death (c) Mst. Zohara Khatoon v. Mohd.
sentence passed by the Sessions Ibrahim
Court prior to its execution? (d) Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mojid Quasim
(a) Section 366 36. Which of the following offences is not
(b) Section 368 compoundable?
(c) Section 369 (a) Offence under Section, 323, I.P.C.
(d) Section 371 (b) Offence under Section, 334, I.P.C.
34. Point out incorrect response- (c) Offence under Section, 448, I.P.C.
The period of limitation for taking (d) Offence under Section, 307, I.P.C.
cognizance of an offence shall be- 37. Which Section of the Criminal procedure
(a) Six months if offence is Code provides that, the Public Prosecutor
punishable with imprisonment for a in charge of a case may, with the consent
term not exceeding one year of the Court at any time before the
(b) One year, if the offence is judgment is pronounced, withdraw from
punishable with imprisonment for a the prosecution of any person in respect
term not exceeding one year of any offence for which he is tried?

(c) Three years, if the offence is (a) Section 304

punishable with imprisonment for a (b) Section 306
term not exceeding one years but (c) Section 321
not exceeding three years.
(d) Section 313
(d) Five years, if the offence is
punishable with death sentence 38. Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate may
pass a sentence of imprisonment
extending upto :
 7

(a) 5 years Evidence

(b) 7 years D. Oral Evidence 4. Section 60
(c) 3 years Codes:
(d) 10 years A B C D
39. Which Section of the Cr.P.C., 1973 (a) 2 3 1 4
applies when the officer-in-charge (b) 1 2 3 4
of a police station receives
information that a person has (c) 3 2 1 4
committed suicide? (d) 2 1 4 3
(a) Section 174 42. which Section of Evidence Act deals
(b) Section 181 with Act deals with rule of res gestae?

(c) Section 154 (a) Section 7 (b) Section 9

(d) Section 147 (c) Section 10 (d) Section 6

40. Who of the following cannot claim 43. For an offence under Section 376 I.P.C.,
maintenance under Section-125(4) evidence of character of the victim is not
of the Cr.P.C.? relevant under which Section of the
Evidence Act?
(a) Wife living in adultery
(a) Section 53-A
(b) Wife living separately by
mutual consent (b) Section 114-A

(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Section 53

(d) Either (a) or (b) (d) Section 119

41. Match List-I and List-II and find 44. "Presumption of Life" is contained in
out the correct answer according to which of following Section of the Indian
code given below the lists. Evidence Act ?

List-I List-II (a) Section 108 (b) Section 106

A. document 1. Section 3 (c) Section 104 (d) Section 107

B. Primary 2. Section 62 45. Electronic records were included in

Evidence Section 3 the Evidence Act w.e. from:

C. Secondary 3. Section 63 (a) 17 October, 2000

 8

(b) 10 October, 2000 (d) All the above.

(c) 2 October, 2000 50. Which Section of the Indian Evidence
(d) 14 November, 2000 Act provides that no particular number of
witnesses shall in any case be required
46. Which one of the following for the proof of any fact?
Sections of the Indian Evidence Act
provides provision relating to (a) Section 135
"refreshing memory"? (b) Section 134
(a) Section 161 `(b) Section 160 (c) Section 136
(b) Section 159 (d) Section 158 (d) Section 132
47. Which Section of Indian Evidence 51. Under Section 45 of the Evidence Act,
Act makes the provision that there the opinion of the expert cannot be
shall be no new trial on the ground sought for
of improper admission or rejection (a) Foreign law
of evidence ?
(b) Science or Art
(a) Section 166 (b) Section 167
(c) Indian Law
(c) Section 165 (d) Section 161
(d) Finger impression
48. A plea of alibi
52. A witness unable to speak, gives
(a) is a special exception under evidence by sign-gestures in open court.
I.P.C. Such evidence is
(b) is a general exception under (a) Oral evidence
I.P.C.
(b) Secondary evidence
(c) is only a rule of evidence
recognized in S.11 of Evidence Act. (c) Special evidence

(d) None of the above. (d) Circumstantial evidence

49. A "dying declaration" can be 53. R.M. Malkani Vs. State of Maharashtra,
(A.I.R. 1973 SC 157) deals with
(a) oral admissibility of
(b) in writing (a) Tape recorded evidence
(c) in any adequate method of (b) Admission made to public
communication
 9

(c)n Expert opinion (b) Section 46 of Evidence Act

(d) Hearsay evidence (c) Both the above
54. Case of Sharad Chandra (d) None of the above
Dey Vs. Gopal Chandra Laha is 59. Leading questions can generally be asked
concerned with in-
(a) Confession (b) Conspiracy (a) Examination in chief
(c) Presumption (d) Estoppel (b) Re-examination
55. Section 114 Evidence Act deals (c) Cross examination
with-
(d) All the above
(a) Admissibility of facts
60. Which of the following is relevant and
(b) Relevancy of facts may be received in evidence?
(c) Relevancy of facts (a) Tape recordings
(d) Legal presumptions. (b) Dog-tracking
56. The Indian Evidence Act applies to- (c) Narco analysis test
(a) Proceedings before tribunals (d) All the above
(b) Affidavits presented to any 61. Under Section 3 of the Act, the following
Court or officer. does not amount to notice:
(c) Proceedings before an arbitrator (a) Registration where the instrument is
(d) None of the above. compulsorily registrable.
57. Confessions made while in custody (b) Registration where the instrument is
of police are- not compulsorily registrable.
(a) Irrelevant (c) Possession
(b) Admissible (d) Notice to agent.
(c) Inadmissible 62. The doctrine of Lis Pendense applies
(d) Relevant where :

58. Opinion of experts is relevant (a) The suit is collusive.

under-
(a) Section 45 of Evidence Act
 10

(b) The transfer is made after the insolvent, B's interest in the field shall
decree of the trial Court but before cease.
the filing of an appeal. (c) A makes a gift of his field to B with a
(c) Right to movable property is in condition that if B does not within a year
question. set fire to C's house his interest shall
(d) Property is situated outside the cease.
territorial jurisdiction of the Court. (d) A makes a gift of a house to B on
63. A mortgage by deposit of title condition that the gift will be forfeited if
deeds is called : B does not reside in it.

(a) Anomalous mortgage 66. Where a person transfers property

representing that he has a present interest
(b) English mortgage therein, whereas he has, in fact, only a
(c) Equitable mortgage spes successionis, the transferee is
(d) Usufructuary mortage entitled to the benefit of S. 43, if he has
taken the transfer on the faith of that
64. In the absence of contract or local representation and for consideration as S.
laws or usage, a lease of immovable 43 and S.6 (a) operate on different fields.
property for manufacturing This principle was laid down in-
purposes shall be deemed to be
(a) Rajesh Kanta Roy v. Shanti Debi
(a) A lease for year to year
(b) Chunchun Jha v. Ebadat Ali
(b) A lease for month to month
(c) Jumma Masjid, Mercara v.
(c) A lease for a minimum term of 2 Kodimaniandra Deviah
years.
(d) Ram Baran Prasad v. Ram Mohit
(d) A lease for a minimum term of Hazra
3 years.
67. A transfers to C a debt due to him by B,
65. Which of the following gifts is A being then indebted to B. C sues B for
valid? the debt due to B to A. Is B entitled to set
(a) A gives Rs.5000/- to B on off the debt due by A-
condition that she shall murder C. (a) Yes although 'C' was unaware of it at
(b) A makes a gift of his field to B the date of such transfer.
with a proviso that if B becomes
 11

(b) No, because 'C' became aware 70. Which of the following is not an
of it after the transfer actionable claim-
(c) Yes, because 'C' became aware (a) Right to a Provident Fund Account.
of it after the transfer. (b) Promises to pay Rs.500/- if promisee
(d) No, because the transferee of an succeeds in LL.B. examination.
actionable claim shall not take it (c) Agreement to pay Rs. 500/- if the
subject to all the liabilities. promisee marries a particular woman.
68. Whick of the following properties (d) Right to claim benefit of a contract
has not been recognized by Courts coupled with a liability.
as immovable property?
71. Doctrine of lis pendens does not apply to
(a) Right of way transaction-
(b) Right to collect rent of (a) Before the summon, in the suit, is
immovable property served
(c) A right of worship (b) After decree but before the time
(d) Right to fishery allowed for appeal has expired
69. A deed of gift is executed, attested (c) During pendency of execution
and delivered to the donee. The proceedings
donee accepted the gift. Before (d) Under the authority of the Court in
registration of the deed, the donor which the suit is pending
seeks to revoke the gift. Advise the
donee- 72. A transfer Rs. 500 to B, to be paid to him
on attaining his majority or marrying
(a) It can be revoked as it was not with a proviso that if B dies a minor or
registered marries without C's consent the said
(b) Gift is not complete, therefore, Rs.500/- shall go to D. B marries when
it is revocable only 17 years of age, without C's consent.
(c) Gift is complete, the deed may The said Rs.500 shall go to :
be registered later on. (a) A
(d) He should wait till registration (b) B
is done. (c) C
(d) D
 12

73. The farm of Sultanpur is the (c) An oral lease of a house from year to
property of C and worth year.
Rs.80,000/-. A, by an instrument of (d) An oral assignment of debt.
gift professes to transfer it to B,
giving by the same instrument 76. Which of the following properties has not
Rs.1,00,000/- to C. A dies before been recognized by Courts as immovable
the election. B shall be : property?

(a) Entitled to get Rs.20,000 from C (a) Right of way

(b) Entitled to get Rs.80,000 from C (b) Right to collect rent of immovable
property.
(c) Entitled to get Rs.20,000 from
A's representative (c) A right of worship

(d) Not be entitled to get any (d) Right to fishery

amount from any one 77. In the absence of contract or local laws or
74. What act does not constitute part usage, a lease of immovable property for
performance- manufacturing purpose shall be deemed
to b-
(a) Delivery of possession
(a) A lease for year to year
(b) Act done in performance of the
contract (b) A lease for month to month

(c) An unequivocal act which is (c) A lease for a minimum term of 2

referable to no other contract years
than alleged. (d) A lease for a minimum term of 3
(d) Acts introductory to and years
previous to the agreement. 78. The right of redemption can be exercised
75. Which of the following transfers is by :
valid- (a) Paying the mortgage money to the
(a) An unregistered usufructuary mortgage outside the Court
mortgage of the value of Rs. (b) Depositing the amount due on the
4900. mortgagee in the Court
(b) An unregistered gift of (c) Regular suit for redemption
immovable property of the value (d) Any one of the above ways
of Rs.4900.
 13

79. Principle laid down by the Privy (c) Article 303(2)

Council as to the constructive (d) Article 304(b)
notice of the real title as provided in
Section 41 was re-affirmed by6 the 82. By which Constitutional amendment has
Supreme Court in- Article 39A been inserted in the
Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Syed Abdul Khader v. Rami
Raddy (a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment)
Act, 1976
(b) Chunchun Jha v. Ebadat Ali
(b) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act,
(c) Jumma Mashjid, Mercara v. 1978
Kodimaniandra Devish
(c) The Constitution (46th Amendment) Act,
(d) Ram Baran Prasad v. Ram 1982
Mohit Hazra
(d) The Constitution (29th Amendment) Act,
80. Which Section emodies 'Doctrine of 1972
Cy-pres'-
83. Which Constitutional provision mandates
(a) Section 25 that the President or the Governor of a
(b) Section 26 State shall not be answerable to any
(c) Section 27 Court for the exercise and performance
of the powers and duties of his office or
(d) Section 28 for any act done or purporting to be done
81. Which constitutional provision that by him in the exercise and performance
no bill or amendment for the of those powers and duties?
purposes of imposing reasonable (a) Article 316
restrictions on the freedom of trade,
commerce or intercourse with or (b) Article 346
within a State as required in the (c) Article 361
public interest shall be introduced (d) Article 363
or moved in the Legislature of that
State without the previous sanction 84. Which decision of the Apex Court
of the President? enunciated the doctrine of 'basic
structure' of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 301
(a) I.C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
(b) Proviso to Article 304(b)
(b) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
 14

(c) Minerva Mils v. Union of India (c) Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secy.,
(d) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. State of Bihar
Rajnarain (d) Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar
85. By which Constitutional 88. Which bill provides for the holding of a
amendment has Part- IX A of the joint sitting of both the House of the
Constitution of India been inserted? Parliament for its passage in case of a
(a) The Constitution (74th deadlock?
Amendment) Act, 1992 (a) Ordinary Bill
(b) The Constitution (27th (b) Money Bill
Amendment) Act, 1976 (c) Finance Bill
(c) The Constitution (24th (d) Both (a) and (b)
Amendment) Act, 1976
89. Which provision of the Constitution of
(d) The Constitution (29th India confers pardoning power on the
Amendment) Act, 1976 Governor of a State?
86. Under which list in the Seventh (a) Article 171
Schedule to the Constitution of
India, does the subject 'banking' (b) Article 151
occur? (c) Article 161
(a) Union List (d) Article 163
(b) State List 90. In which decision rendered by the Apex
(c) Both the Union List and State Court has it been held that an order under
List Article 226 passed in a habeas corpus
matter will not constitute res judicata to
(d) Concurrent List bar a petition under Article 32 of the
87. Which decision of the Supreme Constitution of India?
Court has dealt with the right of a (a) Daryao v. State of U.P.
prisoner to a speedy trial and legal
aid? (b) Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India

(a) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. (c) Joseph Pothern v. State of Kerala

(b) A.K. Gopalan v. State of (d) Kochunni v. State of Madras

Madras
 15

91. The number of categories of (d) Four months

freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 95. The statement 'what cannot be done
is- directly cannot be done indirectly' relates
(a) 6 to the doctrine of-
(b) 7 (a) Pith and Substance
(c) 8 (b) Implied Power
(d) 9 (c) Severability
92. The Writ of Certiorari can not be (d) Colourable Legislation
issued to a Judicial or Quasi 96. The Eighth schedule of the Constitution
Judicial body if- contain-
(a) It has acted in excess of (a) Fundamental Rights
jurisdiction
(b) Directive Principles
(b) It has acted in violation of
principles of natural justice. (c) A list of 22 languages recognized by
the Constitution
(c) It has acted without jurisdiction
(d) None of these
(d) No failure of justice has
occasioned. 97. In which case, the Supreme Court gave
'Doctrine of Prospective Overruling'
93. From which source the Directive
Principles have been adopted? (a) Shankari Pd. v. Union of India

(a) Russian Constitution (b) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(b) British Constitution (c) I.C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

(c) Irish Constitution (d) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of

Kerala
(d) Swedish Constitution
98. An eminent jurist can be appointed as a
94. Within what period, the Parliament Judge/member of
has to approve Financial emergency
declared by the President (a) A High Court

(a) Six months (b) The Administrative Tribunal

(b) Two months (c) The Debt Recovery Tribunal

(c) Three months (d) The Supreme Court

 16

99. In Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj

Narayan case, the Supreme Court
widened the ambit of the 'basic
features' of the Constitution by
including within the purview-
(a) Rule of Law
(b) Judicial Review
(c) Democracy as implied by free
and fair elections
(d) All of the above
100. In which of the following cases the
right to education was held to be
concomitant to fundamental rights
enshrined under Part III of the
Constitution?
(a) Attorney General of India v.
Lachma Devi
(b) Paramanand Katara v. Union of
India
(c) Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi
Admn.
(d) Mohini Jain v. State of
Karnataka