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PSAT 10 Student Packet

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
268 views

PSAT 10 Student Packet

Uploaded by

re7ab
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sophomore

PSAT Training
Packet



Frequently Asked Questions

1. What is the PSAT/NMQST?

The Preliminary SAT (PSAT) or The National Merit Qualifying Scholarship Test
(NMSQT) is a test that helps you practice for the SAT. For Juniors, the test enables
students to enter the National Merit Scholarship Corporation (NMSC) scholarship
program.

2. How many times can I take the test?

You can take the PSAT once a year in October as a sophomore and a junior.

3. What is the difference between the SAT and PSAT?

There are important differences between the two exams. First, the PSAT is shorter
than the SAT. Second, it does not include an essay question. Third, the PSAT does not
test more complex topics such as imaginary numbers or trigonometry.

4. How do I register for the PSAT?

All Mitty sophomores and juniors are automatically registered for the test. Check the
calendar for the specific date of the test in October.

5. Can I guess on the PSAT?

Yes. There is no penalty for wrong answers, so do not leave a PSAT question blank!

6. Do colleges care about my PSAT scores?

PSAT scores are NEVER used for college admissions. If you were recognized as a
Commended or National Merit Scholar, you can report the recognition on your
college applications.

7. How do I get my scores?

PSAT scores and test booklets will be mailed to students in January.



1 L1 1
Reading Test
60 M I NU TES, 4 7 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. The real evils indeed of Emma’s situation were the
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................

This passage is adapted from Jane Austen, Emma, originally


power of having rather too much her own way, and a
published in 1815. 30 disposition to think a little too well of herself; these
were the disadvantages which threatened alloy to her
Emma Woodhouse, handsome, clever, and rich, many enjoyments. The danger, however, was at
with a comfortable home and happy disposition, present so unperceived, that they did not by any
seemed to unite some of the best blessings of means rank as misfortunes with her.
Line existence; and had lived nearly twenty-one years in 35 Sorrow came—a gentle sorrow—but not at
5 the world with very little to distress or vex her. all in the shape of any disagreeable
She was the youngest of the two daughters of a consciousness.—Miss Taylor married. It was
most affectionate, indulgent father, and had, in Miss Taylor’s loss which first brought grief. It was on
consequence of her sister’s marriage, been mistress of the wedding-day of this beloved friend that Emma
his house from a very early period. Her mother had 40 first sat in mournful thought of any continuance.
10 died too long ago for her to have more than an The wedding over and the bride-people gone, her
indistinct remembrance of her caresses, and her father and herself were left to dine together, with no
place had been supplied by an excellent woman as prospect of a third to cheer a long evening. Her
governess, who had fallen little short of a mother in father composed himself to sleep after dinner, as
affection. 45 usual, and she had then only to sit and think of what
15 Sixteen years had Miss Taylor been in she had lost.
Mr. Woodhouse’s family, less as a governess than a The event had every promise of happiness for her
friend, very fond of both daughters, but particularly friend. Mr. Weston was a man of unexceptionable
of Emma. Between them it was more the intimacy of character, easy fortune, suitable age and pleasant
sisters. Even before Miss Taylor had ceased to hold 50 manners; and there was some satisfaction in
20 the nominal office of governess, the mildness of her considering with what self-denying, generous
temper had hardly allowed her to impose any friendship she had always wished and promoted the
restraint; and the shadow of authority being now match; but it was a black morning’s work for her.
long passed away, they had been living together as The want of Miss Taylor would be felt every hour of
friend and friend very mutually attached, and Emma 55 every day. She recalled her past kindness—the
25 doing just what she liked; highly esteeming kindness, the affection of sixteen years—how she had
Miss Taylor’s judgment, but directed chiefly by taught and how she had played with her from five
her own. years old—how she had devoted all her powers to
attach and amuse her in health—and how nursed her
60 through the various illnesses of childhood. A large

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debt of gratitude was owing here; but the intercourse 2

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of the last seven years, the equal footing and perfect
unreserve which had soon followed Isabella’s Which choice best summarizes the first
marriage on their being left to each other, was yet a two paragraphs of the passage (lines 1-14)?
65 dearer, tenderer recollection. It had been a friend and A) Even though a character loses a parent at an
companion such as few possessed, intelligent, early age, she is happily raised in a loving home.
well-informed, useful, gentle, knowing all the ways of B) An affectionate governess helps a character to
the family, interested in all its concerns, and overcome the loss of her mother, despite the
peculiarly interested in herself, in every pleasure, indifference of her father.
70 every scheme of her’s;—one to whom she could
speak every thought as it arose, and who had such an C) Largely as a result of her father’s wealth and
affection for her as could never find fault. affection, a character leads a contented life.
How was she to bear the change?—It was true that Text D) A character has a generally comfortable and
her friend was going only half a mile from them; but fulfilling life, but then she must recover from
75 Emma was aware that great must be the difference losing her mother.
between a Mrs. Weston only half a mile from them,
and a Miss Taylor in the house; and with all her
advantages, natural and domestic, she was now in 3
great danger of suffering from intellectual solitude.
The narrator indicates that the particular nature of
80 She dearly loved her father, but he was no
Emma’s upbringing resulted in her being
companion for her. He could not meet her in
conversation, rational or playful. A) despondent.
The evil of the actual disparity in their ages (and B) self-satisfied.
Mr. Woodhouse had not married early) was much
C) friendless.
85 increased by his constitution and habits; for having
been a valetudinarian* all his life, without activity of D) inconsiderate.
mind or body, he was a much older man in ways
than in years; and though everywhere beloved for the
friendliness of his heart and his amiable temper, his 4
90 talents could not have recommended him at Which choice provides the best evidence for the
any time. answer to the previous question?
* a person in weak health who is overly concerned with his or her
ailments A) Lines 1-5 (“Emma . . . her”)
B) Lines 9-14 (“Her . . . affection”)
C) Lines 28-32 (“The real . . . enjoyments”)
1
D) Lines 32-34 (“The danger . . . her”)
The main purpose of the passage is to
A) describe a main character and a significant
change in her life. 5
B) provide an overview of a family and a nearby As used in line 26, “directed” most nearly means
neighbor.
A) trained.
C) discuss some regrettable personality flaws in a
B) aimed.
main character.
C) guided.
D) explain the relationship between a main
character and her father. D) addressed.

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6 Questions 10-19 are based on the following

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material.
As used in line 54, “want” most nearly means
This passage is adapted from Marina Gorbis, The Nature of
A) desire. the Future: Dispatches from the Socialstructed World. ©2013
B) lack. by Marina Gorbis.
C) requirement. Visitors to the Soviet Union in the 1960s and
D) request. 1970s always marveled at the gap between what they
saw in state stores—shelves empty or filled with
Line things no one wanted—and what they saw in
7 5 people’s homes: nice furnishings and tables filled
with food. What filled the gap? A vast informal
It can most reasonably be inferred that after economy driven by human relationships, dense
Miss Taylor married, she had networks of social connections through which people
A) less patience with Mr. Woodhouse. traded resources and created value. The Soviet people
10 didn’t plot how they would build these networks. No
B) fewer interactions with Emma.
one was teaching them how to maximize their
C) more close friends than Emma. connections the way social marketers eagerly teach
D) an increased appreciation for Emma. us today. Their networks evolved naturally, out of
necessity; that was the only way to survive.
15 Today, all around the world, we are seeing
8 a new kind of network of relationship-driven
economics emerging, with individuals joining forces
Which choice provides the best evidence for the sometimes to fill the gaps left by existing
answer to the previous question? institutions—corporations, governments,
A) Line 37 (“Miss . . . married”) 20 educational establishments—and sometimes creating
B) Lines 47-48 (“The event . . . friend”) new products, services, and knowledge that no
institution is able to provide. Empowered by
C) Lines 60-65 (“A large . . . recollection”) computing and communication technologies that
D) Lines 73-79 (“How . . . solitude”) have been steadily building village-like networks on a
25 global scale, we are infusing more and more of our
economic transactions with social connectedness.
9 The new technologies are inherently social and
personal. They help us create communities around
Which situation is most similar to the one described
interests, identities, and common personal
in lines 83-91 (“The evil . . . time”)?
30 challenges. They allow us to gain direct access to a
A) A mother and her adult son have distinct tastes worldwide community of others. And they take
in art and music that result in repeated family anonymity out of our economic transactions. We can
arguments. assess those we don’t know by checking their
B) The differences between an older and a younger reputations as buyers and sellers on eBay or by
friend are magnified because the younger one is 35 following their Twitter streams. We can look up their
more active and athletic. friends on Facebook and watch their YouTube
videos. We can easily get people’s advice on where to
C) An older and a younger scientist remain close
find the best shoemaker in Brazil, the best
friends despite the fact that the older one’s work
is published more frequently.
D) The age difference between a high school student
and a college student becomes a problem even
though they enjoy the same diversions.

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programmer in India, and the best apple farmer in empowered with technologies and the collective

.....................................................................................................................................................................
40 our local community. We no longer have to rely on intelligence of others in their social network—can
bankers or venture capitalists as the only sources of take on many functions that previously only large
funding for our ideas. We can raise funds directly 70 organizations could perform, often more efficiently,
from individuals, most of whom we don’t even know, at lower cost or no cost at all, and with much greater
through websites that allow people to ease. Socialstructing is opening up a world of what
45 post descriptions of their projects and generate my colleagues Jacques Vallée and Bob Johansen
donations, investments, or loans. describe as the world of impossible futures, a world
We are moving away from the dominance of the 75 in which a large software firm can be displaced by
depersonalized world of institutional production and weekend software hackers, and rapidly orchestrated
creating a new economy around social connections social movements can bring down governments in a
50 and social rewards—a process I call socialstructing. matter of weeks. The changes are exciting and
Others have referred to this model of production as unpredictable. They threaten many established
social, commons-based, or peer-to-peer. Not only is 80 institutions and offer a wealth of opportunities for
this new social economy bringing with it an individuals to empower themselves, find rich new
unprecedented level of familiarity and connectedness connections, and tap into a fast-evolving set of new
55 to both our global and our local economic exchanges, resources in everything from health care to education
but it is also changing every domain of our lives, and science.
from finance to education and health. It is rapidly 85 Much has been written about how technology
ushering in a vast array of new opportunities for us distances us from the benefits of face-to-face
to pursue our passions, create new types of communication and quality social time. I think those
60 businesses and charitable organizations, redefine the are important concerns. But while the quality of our
nature of work, and address a wide range of face-to-face interactions is changing, the
problems that the prevailing formal economy has 90 countervailing force of socialstructing is connecting
neglected, if not caused. us at levels never seen before, opening up new
Socialstructing is in fact enabling not only a new opportunities to create, learn, and share.
65 kind of global economy but a new kind of society, in
which amplified individuals—individuals

The following graph, from a 2011 report from the International Data Corporation, projects trends in digital information use to 2015
(E=Estimated).

Global Digital Information


Created and Shared, 2005 2015E
8
Digital information created
and shared (zettabytes)

0
2005 2007 2009 2011 2013E 2015E
Note: 1 zettabyte = 1 trillion gigabytes

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10 14

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
As used in line 10, “plot” most nearly means The author indicates that, in comparison to
A) mark. individuals, traditional organizations have
tended to be
B) form.
A) more innovative and less influential.
C) plan.
B) larger in size and less subject to regulations.
D) claim.
C) less reliable and less interconnected.
D) less efficient and more expensive.
11
The references to the shoemaker, the programmer,
15
and the apple farmer in lines 37-40 (“We can
easily . . . community”) primarily serve to Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) illustrate the quality of products and services in answer to the previous question?
countries around the world. A) Lines 22-26 (“Empowered . . . connectedness”)
B) emphasize the broad reach of technologies used B) Lines 40-42 (“We no longer . . . ideas”)
to connect people. C) Lines 47-50 (“We are moving . . .
C) demonstrate that recommendations made online socialstructing”)
are trustworthy. D) Lines 66-72 (“amplified . . . ease”)
D) call attention to the limits of the expansion of the
global economy.
16
The author recognizes counterarguments to the
12
position she takes in the passage by
The passage’s discussion of life in the Soviet Union in A) acknowledging the risks and drawbacks
the 1960s and 1970s primarily serves to associated with new technologies and social
A) introduce the concept of social networking. networks.
B) demonstrate that technology has improved social B) admitting that some people spend too much
connections. time unproductively on the Internet.
C) list differences between the Soviet Union and C) drawing an analogy between conditions today
other countries. and conditions in the Soviet Union of the 1960s
D) emphasize the importance of examining and 1970s.
historical trends. D) conceding that the drawbacks of socialstructing
may prove over time to outweigh the benefits.

13
17
As used in line 45, “post” most nearly means
A) publish. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
B) transfer.
A) Lines 35-37 (“We can look . . . videos”)
C) assign.
B) Lines 74-76 (“a world . . . hackers”)
D) denounce.
C) Lines 79-84 (“They . . . science”)
D) Lines 85-87 (“Much . . . time”)

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18 19

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which statement best summarizes the information According to the graph, which statement is true
presented in the graph? about the amount of digital information projected to
A) Far more people around the world own be created and shared globally in 2012?
computers and cell phones today than in 2005. A) Growth in digital information creation and
B) The number of people sharing digital sharing was projected to be wildly out of
information has more than tripled since 2005. proportion to growth in 2011 and 2013E.
C) The volume of digital information created and B) The amount of digital information created and
shared has increased tremendously in recent shared was projected to begin a new upward
years. trend.
D) The amount of digital information created and C) The amount of digital information created and
shared is likely to be almost 8 zettabytes in 2015. shared was projected to peak.
D) The amount of digital information created and
shared was projected to pass 2 zettabytes for the
first time.

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Questions 20-28 are based on the following Once a bear is under the tranquilizer’s influence

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. (which takes about five minutes), the scientists have
This passage is adapted from Tina Hesman Saey, “Lessons
60 minutes max to get the animal from its den, weigh
from the Torpid.” ©2012 by Society for Science & the Public. 45 and measure it, draw blood samples and do minor
surgeries to collect fat and other tissues. The bear is
Understanding how hibernators, including returned to its den by minute 61.
ground squirrels, marmots and bears, survive their Precious materials collected during this
long winter’s naps may one day offer solutions for high-pressure encounter need to be analyzed within
Line problems such as heart disease, osteoporosis and 50 24 hours, so the researchers often test for levels of
5 muscular dystrophy. cholesterol or certain proteins in the blood while
Nearly everything about the way an animal’s body working in the snow or at a nearby research station.
works changes when it hibernates, and preparations A pilot sometimes flies samples from field sites to a
start weeks or months in advance. The first order of lab in Denmark in order to meet the deadline,
business is to fatten up. 55 Fröbert says. Samples such as bones and arteries that
10 “Fat is where it’s at for a hibernator,” says can’t be collected from live bears come from bears
Matthew Andrews, a molecular biologist at the killed by hunters during the legal hunting season.
University of Minnesota Duluth who studies 13-lined Recent analyses revealed that Scandinavian brown
ground squirrels. “You bring your own lunch with bears spend the summer with plasma cholesterol
you.” Packing lunch is necessary because the animals 60 levels considered high for humans; those values then
15 go on the world’s strictest diet during the winter, increase substantially for hibernation, Fröbert and
surviving entirely off their white fat. “They have their his colleagues reported. These “very, very fat” bears
last supper in October; they don’t eat again until with high cholesterol also get zero exercise during
March,” Andrews says. hibernation. Lolling about in the den pinches off
Bigger fat stores mean a greater chance of 65 blood vessels, contributing to sluggish circulation.
20 surviving until spring. “If they go in really chunky, “That cocktail would not be advisable in humans,”
nice and roly-poly, that’s going to be a good Fröbert says. It’s a recipe for hardened arteries,
hibernator,” he says. putting people at risk for heart attacks and strokes.
Bears also watch their waistlines expand in the Even healthy young adult humans can develop
months before settling in for the season. The brown 70 fatty streaks in their arteries that make the blood
25 bears cardiologist Ole Fröbert studies pack on the vessels less flexible, but the bears don’t build up such
pounds by chowing down on up to 40 kilograms of artery-hardening streaks. “Our bears, they had
blueberries a day. Such gluttony among humans nothing,” Fröbert says. It’s not yet clear how the
could have severe consequences: Obesity is bears keep their arteries flexible, but Fröbert hopes to
associated with a greater risk of heart attack and 75 find some protective molecule that could stave off
30 diabetes, among other ailments. hardened arteries in humans as well.
To see how fattening up affects Scandinavian
brown bears, Fröbert and his colleagues Total Plasma Cholesterol
ventured into the wilds of Sweden following signals in Seven Bears
541
given off by radio transmitters or GPS devices on
35 tagged bears.
Milligrams/deciliter

Bears can be dangerous close-up. Even


hibernating bears can rouse to action quickly, so
scientists tracking down bears in the winter use darts 387
to tranquilize the animals from a distance. Scientists
40 studying the bears in the summer tranquilize them
from a helicopter.
232
maximum desirable level for humans

hibernation active

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20 23

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The passage is written from the perspective of What main effect do the quotations by Andrews in
someone who is lines 10-18 have on the tone of the passage?
A) actively involved in conducting hibernator A) They create a bleak tone, focusing on the
research. difficulties hibernators face during the winter.
B) a participant in a recent debate in the field of B) They create a conversational tone, relating
cardiology. scientific information in everyday language.
C) knowledgeable about advances in hibernator C) They create an ominous tone, foreshadowing the
research. dire results of Andrews’s research.
D) an advocate for wildlife preservation. D) They create an absurd tone, using images of
animals acting as if they were human.

21
24
It is reasonable to conclude that the main goal of the
scientists conducting the research described in the As used in line 19, “stores” most nearly means
passage is to A) preservatives.
A) learn how the hibernation patterns of bears and B) reserves.
squirrels differ.
C) stacks.
B) determine the role that fat plays in hibernation.
D) shelters.
C) illustrate the important health benefits of
exercise for humans.
D) explore possible ways to prevent human diseases. 25
Based on the passage, what is Fröbert’s hypothesis
regarding why bears’ arteries do not harden during
22
hibernation?
Which choice provides the best evidence for the A) The bears’ increased plasma cholesterol causes
answer to the previous question? the arteries to be more flexible.
A) Lines 1-5 (“Understanding . . . dystrophy”) B) Sluggish circulation pinches off the blood vessels
B) Lines 10-13 (“Fat . . . squirrels”) rather than hardening the arteries.
C) Lines 31-35 (“To . . . bears”) C) Bears exercise in short, infrequent bursts during
D) Lines 42-46 (“Once . . . tissues”) hibernation, which staves off hardened arteries.
D) Bears possess a molecule that protects against
hardened arteries.

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26 28

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which choice provides the best evidence for the Which statement about the effect of hibernation on
answer to the previous question? the seven bears is best supported by the graph?
A) Lines 19-20 (“Bigger . . . spring”) A) Only one of the bears did not experience an
B) Lines 24-27 (“The brown . . . day”) appreciable change in its total plasma cholesterol
level.
C) Lines 69-72 (“Even . . . streaks”)
B) Only one of the bears experienced a significant
D) Lines 73-76 (“It’s . . . well”) increase in its total plasma cholesterol level.
C) All of the bears achieved the desirable plasma
27 cholesterol level for humans.
D) The bear with the lowest total plasma cholesterol
What information discussed in paragraph 10
level in its active state had the highest total
(lines 58-68) is represented by the graph?
plasma cholesterol level during hibernation.
A) The information in lines 58-62 (“Recent . . .
reported”)
B) The information in lines 62-64 (“These . . .
hibernation”)
C) The information in lines 64-65 (“Lolling . . .
circulation”)
D) The information in lines 67-68 (“It’s . . . strokes”)

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Questions 29-37 are based on the following the latter living with the master, and therefore

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage. subject to the same conditions. When these
This passage is from Andrew Carnegie, "Wealth," originally
40 apprentices rose to be masters, there was little or no
published in 1889. Arriving penniless in Pennsylvania from change in their mode of life, and they, in turn,
Scotland in 1848, Carnegie became one of the richest educated succeeding apprentices in the same routine.
people in the United States through the manufacture of There was, substantially, social equality, and even
steel. political equality, for those engaged in industrial
45 pursuits had then little or no voice in the State.
The problem of our age is the proper The inevitable result of such a mode of
administration of wealth, that the ties of brotherhood manufacture was crude articles at high prices. To-day
may still bind together the rich and poor in the world obtains commodities of excellent quality at
Line harmonious relationship. The conditions of human prices which even the preceding generation would
5 life have not only been changed, but revolutionized, 50 have deemed incredible. In the commercial world
within the past few hundred years. In former days similar causes have produced similar results, and the
there was little difference between the dwelling, race is benefited thereby. The poor enjoy what the
dress, food, and environment of the chief and those rich could not before afford. What were the luxuries
of his retainers. . . . The contrast between the palace have become the necessaries of life. The laborer has
10 of the millionaire and the cottage of the laborer with 55 now more comforts than the farmer had a few
us to-day measures the change which has come with generations ago. The farmer has more luxuries than
civilization. This change, however, is not to be the landlord had, and is more richly clad and better
deplored, but welcomed as highly beneficial. It is housed. The landlord has books and pictures rarer
well, nay, essential, for the progress of the race that and appointments more artistic than the king could
15 the houses of some should be homes for all that is 60 then obtain.
highest and best in literature and the arts, and for all The price we pay for this salutary change is, no
the refinements of civilization, rather than that none doubt, great. We assemble thousands of operatives in
should be so. Much better this great irregularity than the factory, and in the mine, of whom the employer
universal squalor. Without wealth there can be no can know little or nothing, and to whom he is little
20 Maecenas.* The “good old times” were not good old 65 better than a myth. All intercourse between them is
times. Neither master nor servant was as well at an end. Rigid castes are formed, and, as usual,
situated then as to-day. A relapse to old conditions mutual ignorance breeds mutual distrust. Each caste
would be disastrous to both—not the least so to him is without sympathy for the other, and ready to credit
who serves—and would sweep away civilization with anything disparaging in regard to it. Under the law of
25 it. But whether the change be for good or ill, it is 70 competition, the employer of thousands is forced
upon us, beyond our power to alter, and, therefore, into the strictest economies, among which the rates
to be accepted and made the best of. It is a waste of paid to labor figure prominently, and often there is
time to criticize the inevitable. friction between the employer and the employed,
It is easy to see how the change has come. between capital and labor, between rich and poor.
30 One illustration will serve for almost every phase of 75 Human society loses homogeneity.
the cause. In the manufacture of products we have The price which society pays for the law of
the whole story. It applies to all combinations of competition, like the price it pays for cheap comforts
human industry, as stimulated and enlarged by the and luxuries, is also great; but the advantages of this
inventions of this scientific age. Formerly, articles law are also greater still than its cost—for it is to this
35 were manufactured at the domestic hearth, or in 80 law that we owe our wonderful material
small shops which formed part of the household. development, which brings improved conditions
The master and his apprentices worked side by side, in its train.
* Gaius Maecenas (70–8 B.C.E.) was a great patron of the arts.

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29 32

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which choice best describes the structure of the The author describes the people who live in the
first paragraph? “houses of some” (line 15) as interested in the
A) A personal history is narrated, historical A) materials from which their houses are
examples are given, and a method is constructed.
recommended. B) size of their homes.
B) A position is stated, historical context is given, C) advantages of culture.
and earnest advice is given.
D) pedigree of their guests.
C) Certain principles are stated, opposing principles
are stated, and a consensus is reached.
D) A historical period is described, and its attributes 33
are reviewed.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
30 A) Lines 9-10 (“the palace . . . laborer”)
The author most strongly implies which of the B) Lines 15-16 (“all . . . arts”)
following about “the ties of brotherhood” (line 2)? C) Lines 18-19 (“Much . . . squalor”)
A) They were always largely fictitious and are more D) Lines 19-20 (“Without . . . Maecenas”)
so at present.
B) They are stronger at present than they ever were
before. 34
C) They are more seriously strained in the present The author uses the phrase “good old times” (line 20)
than in the past. as an example of
D) They will no longer be able to bring together the A) a cliché that still has life and usefulness left in it.
rich and the poor. B) a bit of folk wisdom from his childhood.
C) something said by those who have acquired great
riches.
31
D) something said by people who do not share his
The author uses “dwelling, dress, food, and viewpoint.
environment” (lines 7-8) as examples of
A) things more valued in the present than in
the past. 35
B) bare necessities of life. What is the author’s main point about the
C) things to which all people are entitled. disadvantages of the modern economic system?
D) possible indications of differences in status. A) It provides only a few people with the advantages
of culture.
B) It replicates many of the problems experienced
in the past.
C) It creates divisions between different categories
of people.
D) It gives certain people great material advantages
over others.

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1 H2 1
36 37

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Which choice provides the best evidence for the As used in line 82, “in its train” is closest in
answer to the previous question? meaning to
A) Lines 37-39 (“The master . . . conditions”) A) before it.
B) Lines 43-45 (“There was . . . State”) B) with it.
C) Lines 46-47 (“The inevitable . . . prices”) C) anticipating it.
D) Lines 65-66 (“All intercourse . . . end”) D) advancing it.

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1 S2 1
Questions 38-47 are based on the following destruction—that the trend has been called a sixth

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages. 40 mass extinction, an event on par with such die-offs as
Passage 1 is adapted from Stewart Brand, “The Case for
the one that befell the dinosaurs 65 million years ago.
Reviving Extinct Species.” ©2013 by the National A program to restore extinct species poses a risk of
Geographic Society. Passage 2 is adapted from the editors selling the public on a false promise that technology
at Scientific American, “Why Efforts to Bring Extinct Species alone can solve our ongoing environmental
Back from the Dead Miss the Point.” ©2013 by Nature 45 woes—an implicit assurance that if a species goes
America, Inc. away, we can snap our fingers and bring it back.
Passage 1 Already conservationists face difficult choices
Many extinct species—from the passenger pigeon about which species and ecosystems to try to save,
to the woolly mammoth—might now be reclassified since they cannot hope to rescue them all. Many
as “bodily, but not genetically, extinct.” They’re dead, 50 countries where poaching and trade in threatened
Line but their DNA is recoverable from museum species are rampant either do not want to give up the
5 specimens and fossils, even those up to 200,000 years revenue or lack the wherewithal to enforce their own
old. regulations. Against that backdrop, a costly and
Thanks to new developments in genetic flamboyant project to resuscitate extinct flora and
technology, that DNA may eventually bring the 55 fauna in the name of conservation looks
animals back to life. Only species whose DNA is too irresponsible: Should we resurrect the mammoth
10 old to be recovered, such as dinosaurs, are the ones only to let elephants go under? Of course not.
to consider totally extinct, bodily and genetically. That is not to say that the de-extinction enterprise
But why bring vanished creatures back to life? lacks merit altogether. Aspects of it could
It will be expensive and difficult. It will take decades. 60 conceivably help save endangered species.
It won’t always succeed. Why even try? For example, extinct versions of genes could be
15 Why do we take enormous trouble to protect reintroduced into species and subspecies that have
endangered species? The same reasons will apply to lost a dangerous amount of genetic diversity, such as
species brought back from extinction: to preserve the black-footed ferret and the northern white rhino.
biodiversity, to restore diminished ecosystems, to 65 Such investigations, however, should be conducted
advance the science of preventing extinctions, and to under the mantle of preserving modern biodiversity
20 undo harm that humans have caused in the past. rather than conjuring extinct species from the grave.
Furthermore, the prospect of de-extinction is
profound news. That something as irreversible and
final as extinction might be reversed is a stunning 38
realization. The imagination soars. Just the thought The author of Passage 1 suggests that the usefulness
25 of mammoths and passenger pigeons alive again of de-extinction technology may be limited by the
invokes the awe and wonder that drives all
conservation at its deepest level. A) amount of time scientists are able to devote to
genetic research.
Passage 2
B) relationship of an extinct species to
The idea of bringing back extinct species holds
contemporary ecosystems.
obvious gee-whiz appeal and a respite from a steady
30 stream of grim news. Yet with limited intellectual C) complexity of the DNA of an extinct species.
bandwidth and financial resources to go around, D) length of time that a species has been extinct.
de-extinction threatens to divert attention
from the modern biodiversity crisis. According to a
2012 report from the International Union for
35 Conservation of Nature, some 20,000 species are
currently in grave danger of going extinct.
Species today are vanishing in such great
numbers—many from hunting and habitat

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1 S2 1
39 43

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Which choice provides the best evidence for the As used in line 37, “great” most nearly means
answer to the previous question? A) lofty.
A) Lines 7-9 (“Thanks . . . life”) B) wonderful.
B) Lines 9-11 (“Only . . . genetically”) C) large.
C) Line 13 (“It will be . . . difficult”) D) intense.
D) Lines 13-14 (“It will take . . . succeed”)

44
40
The reference to the “black-footed ferret and the
As used in line 27, “deepest” most nearly means northern white rhino” (line 64) serves mainly to
A) most engrossing. A) emphasize a key distinction between extinct and
B) most challenging. living species.
C) most extensive. B) account for types of animals whose numbers are
dwindling.
D) most fundamental.
C) provide examples of species whose gene pools
are compromised.
41 D) highlight instances of animals that have failed to
adapt to new habitats.
The authors of Passage 2 indicate that the matter of
shrinking biodiversity should primarily be
considered a
45
A) historical anomaly.
Which choice best states the relationship between the
B) global catastrophe. two passages?
C) scientific curiosity. A) Passage 2 attacks a political decision that
D) political problem. Passage 1 strongly advocates.
B) Passage 2 urges caution regarding a technology
that Passage 1 describes in favorable terms.
42
C) Passage 2 expands on the results of a research
Which choice provides the best evidence for the study mentioned in Passage 1.
answer to the previous question?
D) Passage 2 considers practical applications that
A) Lines 37-41 (“Species . . . ago”) could arise from a theory discussed in Passage 1.
B) Lines 42-45 (“A program . . . woes”)
C) Lines 53-56 (“Against . . . irresponsible”)
D) Lines 65-67 (“Such . . . grave”)

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1 S2 1
46 47

.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
How would the authors of Passage 2 most likely Which choice would best support the claim that the
respond to the “prospect” referred to in line 21, authors of Passage 2 recognize that the “imagination
Passage 1? soars” (line 24, Passage 1) in response to
A) With approval, because it illustrates how useful de-extinction technology?
de-extinction could be in addressing widespread A) Lines 28-30 (“The . . . news”)
environmental concerns. B) Lines 30-33 (“Yet . . . crisis”)
B) With resignation, because the gradual extinction C) Lines 58-59 (“That . . . altogether”)
of many living species is inevitable.
D) Lines 61-63 (“For . . . diversity”)
C) With concern, because it implies an easy
solution to a difficult problem.
D) With disdain, because it shows that people have
little understanding of the importance of genetic
diversity.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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2 W1 2
Writing and Language Test
35 M I NU TES, 4 4 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.


...................................................................................................................................

1
A) NO CHANGE
A Nod to Nodding Off B) see an annual loss of $63.2 billion each year
With 30 percent of United States workers not getting C) lose $63.2 billion annually
D) have a yearly loss of $63.2 billion annually
enough sleep at night, according to the Wall Street
Journal, US companies 1 lose a yearly sum of
$63.2 billion annually due to the drop in employee
productivity resulting from sleep deprivation.
Sleep-deprived workers generally have lower morale and
are less able to retain information than their better-rested
colleagues.

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2 W1 2
[1] One of the 2 big reasons behind workers’ lack 2

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
of sleep is the work itself. [2] To combat the problem of A) NO CHANGE
B) main things leading up to
sleep deprivation in a demanding work environment,
C) huge things about
some companies have begun allowing workers to take
D) primary causes of
naps. [3] The hours the average American 3 spend
working have increased dramatically since the 1970s, 3
making it hard for many workers to get a good night’s A) NO CHANGE
B) have spent
sleep. [4] Although employees who sleep on the job are
C) spends
often considered lazy and unproductive, napping in the
D) are spent
workplace has been shown to improve workers’ efficiency
and quality of life. [5] As long as companies continue to 4
demand long hours from 4 workers, and managers A) NO CHANGE
should champion napping as a means to keep employees B) workers; managers
C) workers, managers,
happy, healthy, and functional. 5
D) workers, managers

5
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 3
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) before sentence 1.
C) after sentence 1.
D) after sentence 4.

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2 W1 2
Such a proposition may seem counterintuitive, but, 6

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
in fact, allowing employees to nap could save companies At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
hours of lost productivity. Studies reveal that napping
Even fifteen-minute power naps improve
improves memory and boosts wakefulness for the alertness, creativity, and concentration.
remainder of the day. 6 Napping can also have a Should the writer make this addition here?
positive effect on mood and overall job satisfaction, while A) Yes, because it demonstrates that the benefits of
napping can be gained without sacrificing large
constant drowsiness reduces reaction time and hampers amounts of work time.
one’s ability to concentrate. Employee naps might also B) Yes, because it explains the methodology of the
studies mentioned in the previous sentence.
lead to reduced health care costs for companies, since
C) No, because a discussion of the type of nap
regular napping leads to long-term health benefits, workers take is not important to the writer’s
main point in the paragraph.
7 and it improves workers’ average weekly attendance.
D) No, because it contradicts the writer’s discussion
of napping in the previous sentences.

7
Which choice provides a supporting example that
reinforces the main point of the sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) including a lower risk of cardiovascular
problems such as heart attack and stroke.
C) which are essential in an era of rising health care
costs.
D) in addition to making employees more efficient.

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2 W1 2
Napping at work has already won corporate 8

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
advocates in the worlds of technology, finance, and news A) NO CHANGE
B) gently wake
media, and some businesses are beginning to set aside
C) gently to wake
special nap rooms. A few companies, such as Google,
D) gentle waking of
have even invested in high-tech nap pods that block out
light, play soothing music, and 8 gently waking 9
nappers. A) NO CHANGE
B) among
Zephrin Lasker, CEO of the mobile-advertising firm
C) between
Pontiflex, has observed that employees are happier and
D) into
more productive since he created a nap room in the
company’s Brooklyn headquarters. Ryan Hodson of 10
Kodiak Capital Group and Arianna Huffington of the A) NO CHANGE

Huffington Post Media Group have promoted napping B) but it benefits


C) as also to
9 throughout their workers and have been effusive
D) but also to
about the results. In light of the benefits not only to
employees’ efficiency 10 and again to their health and 11
sense of well-being, these executives’ enthusiasm is not The writer wants a concluding sentence that restates
the main argument of the passage. Which choice best
surprising. 11 These executives are among the most
accomplishes this goal?
successful leaders in their respective fields. A) NO CHANGE
B) Clearly, employers should consider reducing
employees’ hours when they are overworked.
C) Companies should consider employee schedules
carefully when implementing a napping policy.
D) More businesses should follow their lead and
embrace napping on the job.

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2 W1 2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage 12

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
B) pollination: this is
Vanishing Honeybees: A Threat to Global Agriculture C) pollination,
Honeybees play an important role in the agriculture D) pollination;

industry by pollinating crops. An October 2006 study


found that as much as one-third of global agriculture 13
A) NO CHANGE
depends on animal pollination, including honeybee
B) highlights the potentially disastrous effects
12 pollination—to increase crop output. The C) highlight the potentially disastrous effects
importance of bees 13 highlights the potentially D) highlight the potentially disastrous affects
disastrous affects of an emerging, unexplained crisis:
entire colonies of honeybees are dying off without 14
A) NO CHANGE
warning.
B) Known as colony
14 They know it as colony collapse disorder (CCD), C) It is known as colony
this phenomenon will have a detrimental impact on D) Colony
global agriculture if its causes and solutions are not
determined. Since the emergence of CCD around 2006, 15
Which choice offers the most accurate interpretation
bee mortality rates have 15 exceeded 25 percent of the
of the data in the chart?
population each winter. There was one sign of hope: A) NO CHANGE
during the 2010–2012 winter seasons, bee mortality rates B) been above the acceptable range.
C) not changed noticeably from year to year.
decreased slightly, and beekeepers speculated that the
D) greatly increased every year.
colonies would recover. Yet in the winter of 2012–2013,
the 16 portion of the bee population lost fell nearly
16
10 percent in the United States, with a loss of 31 percent Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the
of the colonies that pollinate crops. data in the chart?
A) NO CHANGE
B) portion of bees lost was double what it had been
the previous year, rising to
C) number of losses, which had fallen within the
acceptable range the previous year, rose to
D) portion of total colonies lost rose almost 10
percentage points, with a loss of

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2 W1 2
Managed Honey Bee 17

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Colony Losses in the US
40% Which choice most smoothly and effectively
Percent total-colony winter loss

introduces the writer’s discussion of studies of CCD


35% in this paragraph?
30% A) NO CHANGE
25% B) Bees are vanishing, and according to studies
20% there are several possible reasons for this trend.
15% C) Several possible reasons, offered by studies, may
10% explain why bees are vanishing.
acceptable range D) DELETE the underlined sentence.
5%
0%
07 008 009 010 011 012 013
20 2 2 2 2 2 2 18
0 6 0 7 0 8 0 9 1 0 1 1 12
20 20 20 20 20 20 20 At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
Winter seasons
Prolonged exposure to neonicotinoids has been
Adapted from Dennis van Engelsdorp et al., “Preliminary Results: Honey shown to increase bees’ vulnerability to disease
Bee Colony Losses in the United States, Winter 2012-2013.” ©2013 by the
Bee Informed Partnership.
and parasitic mites.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides support for the claim
17 Studies have offered several possible reasons that made in the previous sentence.
bees are vanishing. One reason that is often cited is the B) Yes, because it introduces a new idea that will
become important later in the passage.
use of pesticides called neonicotinoids, which are
C) No, because it would be better placed elsewhere
absorbed by plants and linger much longer than do in the passage.
D) No, because it contradicts the main idea of the
topical pesticides. 18 Chemicals such as herbicides and
passage.
fungicides may also play a role, contaminating the pollen
that bees typically feed on and inhibiting healthy insect
maturation.

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2 W1 2
Given the role that honeybees play in agriculture, the 19

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
impact of this loss of hives on fruit, vegetable, seed, and A) NO CHANGE
B) is a pretty big deal.
nut crops 19 is not to be scoffed at. A reduction in bee
C) can’t be put on the back burner.
numbers leads to less pollination, which in turn leads to
D) cannot be ignored.
smaller harvests and higher food prices. Some farmers
have resorted to renting hives from beekeepers to 20
pollinate their 20 crops; when there is a shortage of bees A) NO CHANGE
B) crops, this is an expensive proposition when
this being an expensive proposition. Other farmers have
there is a shortage of bees.
increased 21 they’re dependence on costly C) crops, an expensive proposition when there is a
shortage of bees.
hand-pollination by human workers. Furthermore, there
D) crops; an expensive proposition when there is a
may be sociological repercussions. Agroecologist shortage of bees.
Alexandra-Maria Klein has suggested that rising produce
prices could lead to an increase in obesity as people turn 21
to cheaper, less wholesome fare. A) NO CHANGE
B) there
Though the precise causes of CCD are yet unclear,
C) their
some commonsense measures may be taken. A decrease D) its
in the use of certain pesticides, herbicides, and fungicides,
as well as greater attention to the nutrition, habitat, and 22
genetic diversity of managed hives, could begin a shift in The writer wants a conclusion that addresses the
future of efforts to combat CCD. Which choice
a favorable direction. 22 results in the passage having the most appropriate
concluding sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Still, bee colonies have experienced such
devastating losses that the consequences of the
issue have been felt worldwide.
C) Although CCD is a relatively new phenomenon,
scientists have been studying other aspects of
honeybees for over a century.
D) Genetic variation in bee colonies generally
improves bees’ productivity, disease resistance,
and ability to regulate body temperature.

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2 W1 2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. 23

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
Lunar Farming B) stood;
C) stood—
Late last autumn, Giuseppe Ferrua 23 stood, on the
D) stood
hillside he farms overlooking Italy’s Serchio River valley,
a landscape of low mountains dotted 24 with vineyards.
24
Ferrua grows grapes and olives, and he does so according A) NO CHANGE
to the phases of the Moon. He didn’t always farm this B) inside
way. When he began, he exercised modern, C) for
D) on
one-size-fits-all farming methods but says he soon
became convinced that “plants are completely prone to
25
elements in the cosmos, the rhythms of day and night.” A) NO CHANGE
Following the lunar calendar, this type of farming is B) however,
driven by the belief that the Moon influences levels of C) by contrast,
D) thereafter,
moisture in the soil, just as the Moon’s gravitational pull
affects great bodies of water. Lunar farmers believe,
26
25 for example, that from the new Moon to quarter A) NO CHANGE
Moon phases, when the Moon is waxing, a soil’s moisture B) Given that
content increases, whereas drier periods occur during the C) So
D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the
waning phase. 26 Although moisture influences seed sentence with a capital letter.
germination, a lunar guide on when to plant and weed
can be advantageous to a grower.

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2 W1 2
27 Nature has been around forever. First-century 27

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Roman naturalist Pliny the Elder stated in his Natural Which choice most effectively sets up the paragraph?
History that the Moon “replenishes the Earth; when she A) NO CHANGE
B) People all over the world farm by the Moon.
approaches it, she fills all bodies, while, when she recedes,
C) Farming by the Moon is not new.
she empties them.” Chinese and Egyptian people D) Talk of the Moon’s influence is far-reaching.
performed agricultural tasks according to the lunar
calendar for millennia, and, to this day, the vaunted Old 28
Farmer’s Almanac includes regional lunar calendars and Which choice provides the most specific information
on the type of advice a lunar calendar offers?
advice on 28 when to conduct farm chores. The
A) NO CHANGE
29 almanacs editor, Janice Stillman, says, “That B) actions relevant to farming.
information is of value to our readers who practice these C) points in time at which to undertake certain
tasks.
traditional methods—and claim great success.”
D) optimal times to plant, weed, prune, and harvest.

29
A) NO CHANGE
B) almanacs’s
C) almanac’s
D) almanacs’

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2 W1 2
Lunar farming has its 30 skeptics, who are not sure 30

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
of the method’s efficacy. Recalling advice he received on A) NO CHANGE
B) skeptics, who have yet to be convinced.
the best lunar time to plant potatoes, an English farmer
C) skeptics—those who doubt the method.
says his first reaction was “Hoopla.” Current mainstream
D) skeptics.
agriculture does not factor the Moon into 31 their
practices, so the concept might seem quaint or irrational. 31
Additionally, lunar farming is based in astrology as A) NO CHANGE
B) those
opposed to astronomy, and no extensive scientific studies
C) it’s
have yet been conducted that measure the Moon’s overall
D) its
influence on farming, 32 so supporters continue to wait
for their practices to be verified scientifically. 32
Stillman says, “We are of the mind that you accept or The writer wants to conclude the paragraph
effectively while also reinforcing the point that
believe by choice.” Indeed, despite his doubts, the skepticism toward lunar farming still exists. Which
skeptical English farmer wound up planting his potatoes choice best accomplishes this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
according to the lunar cycle and claims they were “the
B) and therefore no sound scientific data on the
best I have tasted.” Agricultural professor Jennifer subject exist to date.
Coffman has a similar response to Ferrua’s bounty in C) yet many continue to practice lunar farming.
D) leading many to conclude that the practice is
Italy. 33 “Smell this rosemary,” she says. “Smell how based in folklore, not fact.
amazingly fragrant that is.” At this stage, one could say
that the evidence must be experienced to be believed. 33
Which choice gives an additional supporting
example that emphasizes the importance of the
senses in judging the success of the lunar farming
method?
A) NO CHANGE
B) She has taken photographs of the grapevines and
landscape.
C) She takes careful notes about Ferrua’s farming
methods, asking Ferrua to clarify how he
prepares the soil.
D) She dips bread into Ferrua’s olive oil as he
explains a soil preparation he does in the fall.

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2 W1 2
Questions 34 -44 are based on the following passage. 34

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The writer is considering deleting the underlined
Recipes for History: The Szathmary Cookbook portion (ending the sentence with a period). Should
Collection the writer make this deletion?
A) Yes, because the underlined portion detracts
In 1990, chef Louis Szathmary, a voracious collector from the paragraph’s focus on the Szathmary
of cookbooks, donated approximately 20,000 culinary collection.
B) Yes, because the information in the underlined
artifacts to the University of Iowa library. The gift portion is provided in the previous sentence.
included more than 100 manuscript recipe books C) No, because the underlined portion defines a
term that is important to the passage.
34 —collections of recipes handwritten by the people
D) No, because the underlined portion gives an
who used them. The manuscripts, some of which date example of a particular culinary artifact.
back to the seventeenth century, are an invaluable
resource for food historians as well as the general public. 35
A) NO CHANGE
35 Because of the astonishing size and range of
B) Regardless of
Szathmary’s 36 donation to the University of Iowa, C) In contrast to
making this cornucopia of information available to D) In addition to
readers was a challenge. Working in conjunction with the
library, the University of Iowa Press published volumes 36
A) NO CHANGE
as varied as The P.E.O. Cookbook, written in rural Iowa in
B) donation of so many culinary artifacts,
1908, and Ladie Borlase’s Receiptes Booke, written in the
C) massive donation of cookbooks,
English countryside from 1665 to 1822. Librarians were D) donation,
happy to show the Szathmary collection to people who
were able to visit the library, 37 so the manuscripts, too 37
A) NO CHANGE
delicate to be checked out to library patrons, remained
B) for
largely unexplored.
C) and
D) but

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2 W1 2
This all started to change in 2012, when the 38

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
university expanded its DIY History Project (“DIY” A) NO CHANGE
B) his or her
stands for “do it yourself”) to include the manuscripts.
C) their
The project enlists volunteers to transcribe the recipes:
D) one’s
working from 38 our home computers, the volunteers
type up the scanned handwritten recipes. After a page is 39
transcribed and proofread, it is digitized and becomes A) NO CHANGE
B) simple directions
part of a searchable online archive. Volunteer
C) bare-bones how-tos
transcribers need no particular expertise; 39 prosaic
D) facile protocols
directives are provided on the DIY History website.
Transcribing is easy. The ingredients (one recipe requires 40
something called “ringon root”) and measurements (a A) NO CHANGE
“ditto” of baking soda), 40 moreover, can be puzzling. B) therefore,
C) however,
The goal is to digitize all the manuscripts in the
D) in short,
Szathmary collection, making them available to anyone
with 41 access of a computer and the Internet. 41
A) NO CHANGE
B) access to
C) excess of
D) excess to

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2 W1 2
[1] The library is working hard to publicize the 42

..............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
project and encourage the public to try the recipes. [2] It A) NO CHANGE
B) work
has formed a club dedicated to cooking manuscript
C) worked
recipes. [3] Some recipes don’t fare well in the
D) could have worked
twenty-first century (one club member called her 1800s
gingerbread a “molasses-laden brick”), while others 43
42 had worked just fine. [4] In another instance of A) NO CHANGE
B) almond, cheesecake summer, mince,
library outreach, a competition at the 2013 Iowa State
C) almond cheesecake summer, mince
Fair, contestants baked desserts in three
D) almond, cheesecake, summer, mince,
categories— 43 almond cheesecake, summer mince pie,
and Marlborough pie—using recipes from the Szathmary 44
collection. 44 The writer plans to add the following sentence to this
paragraph.
The efforts of the library and the volunteers are
The judges reported that the entries were
clearly bearing fruit. By January 2014, more than 38,000 delicious.
manuscript pages had been transcribed, thanks to the To make this paragraph most logical, the sentence
volunteers who answered DIY History’s call to “help should be placed
A) after sentence 1.
build the historical record by doing it yourself.”
B) after sentence 2.
C) after sentence 3.
D) after sentence 4.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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3 M1 3
Math Test – No Calculator
25 M I NU TES, 1 7 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-13, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided,
and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 14-17, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the
directions before to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any
available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.


2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

!
r c 2x 60 s 45 s√2
w h b x
30 45
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = !w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr

h r r h h
h
w r w
! !
V = !wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 !wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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3 M1 3
1 3

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A babysitter earns $8 an hour for babysitting 1 1
2 children and an additional $3 tip when both x− y = 10
2 4
children are put to bed on time. If the babysitter gets 1 1
the children to bed on time, what expression could x− y = 19
8 8
be used to determine how much the babysitter
earned? Which ordered pair (x, y ) satisfies the system of
equations above?
A) 8x + 3, where x is the number of hours
B) 3x + 8, where x is the number of hours A) (−112, −264)
C) x(8 + 2) + 3, where x is the number of children
D) 3x + (8 + 2), where x is the number of children
B) (64, 88)

 232 224 
C)  , 
 3 3 

D) (288, 536)
2
3(x + y ) = y

If (x, y ) is a solution to the equation above and


x
y ≠ 0, what is the ratio ?
y
4
A) −
3
2
B) −
3
1
C)
3
2
D)
3

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3 M1 3
4 6

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A 2x 2 + 7x − 15 = 0
If r and s are two solutions of the equation above
and r > s , which of the following is the
value of r − s ?
15
A)
2
F
E 13
B)
2
B C
D 11
C)
Note: Figure not drawn to scale. 2
3
D)
2
Triangle ABC above is isosceles with AB = AC and
BC = 48. The ratio of DE to DF is 5 : 7. What is
the length of DC ?
A) 12
B) 20
C) 24 7
D) 28 To cut a lawn, Allan charges a fee of $15 for his
equipment and $8.50 per hour spent cutting a lawn.
Taylor charges a fee of $12 for his equipment and
$9.25 per hour spent cutting a lawn. If x represents
the number of hours spent cutting a lawn, what are
all the values of x for which Taylor’s total charge is
greater than Allan’s total charge?
A) x > 4
5
B) 3 ≤ x ≤ 4
In a certain game, a player can solve easy or hard C) 4 ≤ x ≤ 5
puzzles. A player earns 30 points for solving an easy
puzzle and 60 points for solving a hard puzzle. Tina D) x < 3
solved a total of 50 puzzles playing this game, earning
1,950 points in all. How many hard puzzles did Tina
solve?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25
D) 35

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3 M1 3
8 10

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n = 456 − 3T If f (x − 1) = 2x + 3 for all values of x, what is the
The equation above is used to model the relationship value of f (−3) ?
between the number of cups, n, of hot chocolate sold A) −7
per day in a coffee shop and the average daily
temperature, T, in degrees Fahrenheit. According to B) −5
the model, what is the meaning of the 3 in the C) −3
equation?
D) −1
A) For every increase of 3°F, one more cup of hot
chocolate will be sold.
B) For every decrease of 3°F, one more cup of hot
chocolate will be sold.
C) For every increase of 1°F, three more cups of hot
chocolate will be sold.
D) For every decrease of 1°F, three more cups of hot 11
chocolate will be sold.
Which of the following is equivalent to (s − t ) ( ts ) ?
s
A) −s
t

s
B) − st
9 t

A truck enters a stretch of road that drops 4 meters s2


in elevation for every 100 meters along the length of C) −s
t
the road. The road is at 1,300 meters elevation where
the truck entered, and the truck is traveling at s2 s
16 meters per second along the road. What is the D) − 2
t t
elevation of the road, in meters, at the point where
the truck passes t seconds after entering the road?
A) 1,300 − 0.04t
B) 1,300 − 0.64t
C) 1,300 − 4t
D) 1,300 − 16t

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3 M1 3
12 13

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p(x ) = 3(x 2 + 10x + 5) − 5(x − k ) In the xy-plane, if the parabola with equation
In the polynomial p(x ) defined above, k is a y = ax 2 + bx + c , where a, b, and c are constants,
constant. If p(x ) is divisible by x, what is the value passes through the point (−1, 1), which of the
of k ? following must be true?
A) −3 A) a − b = 1
B) −2 B) − b + c = 1
C) 0 C) a + b + c = 1
D) 3 D) a − b + c = 1

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3 M1 3
7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

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3 M1 3
14 16

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h
For what value of h is 24 = −6 ? If x is not equal to zero, what is the value
10
4(3x )2
of ?
(2x )2

15
What is the value of a if (2a + 3) − (4a − 8) = 7 ?
17

If x − 2 is a factor of x 2 − bx + b, where b is a
constant, what is the value of b ?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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4 M2 4
Math Test – Calculator
45 M I NU TES, 3 1 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-27, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 28-31
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet.
to the directions before question 28 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may
use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is permitted.


2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

!
r c 2x 60 s 45 s√2
w h b x
30 45
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = !w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr

h r r h h
h
w r w
! !
V = !wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 !wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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4 M2 4
1 3

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Tyra subscribes to an online gaming service that Monthly Rainfall in Chestnut City
charges a monthly fee of $5.00 and $0.25 per hour for
time spent playing premium games. Which of the 6
following functions gives Tyra’s cost, in dollars, for a 5

Rainfall (inches)
month in which she spends x hours playing
4
premium games?
3
A) C(x ) = 5.25x
2
B) C(x ) = 5x + 0.25 1
C) C(x ) = 5 + 0.25x 0
Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct
D) C(x ) = 5 + 25x
Month

The line graph above shows the monthly rainfall


from March to October last year in Chestnut City.
According to the graph, what was the greatest change
(in absolute value) in the monthly rainfall between
two consecutive months?
2
A) 1.5 inches
A grocery store sells a brand of juice in individual
B) 2.0 inches
bottles and in packs of 6 bottles. On a certain day,
the store sold a total of 281 bottles of the brand of C) 2.5 inches
juice, of which 29 were sold as individual bottles. D) 3.5 inches
Which equation shows the number of packs of
bottles, p, sold that day?
281 − 29
A) p =
6
281 + 29
B) p =
6
281
C) p = − 29
6
281
D) p = + 29
6

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4 M2 4
4 6

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A rectangle has perimeter P, length and width w. A soda company is filling bottles of soda from a tank
Which of the following represents in terms that contains 500 gallons of soda. At most, how
of P and w ? many 20-ounce bottles can be filled from the tank?
(1 gallon = 128 ounces)
A) =P−w A) 25
B) 78
2P − w
B) = C) 2,560
2
D) 3,200
P − 2w
C) =
2

D) = 2P − 2w

7
A car traveled at an average speed of 80 miles per
hour for 3 hours and consumed fuel at a rate of 34
miles per gallon. Approximately how many gallons
5 of fuel did the car use for the entire 3-hour trip?

Which ordered pair (x, y ) satisfies the system of A) 2


equations shown below? B) 3
2x − y = 6 C) 6
x + 2y = −2 D) 7
A) (−6, 2)
B) (−2, 2)
C) (2, −2)
D) (4, 2)

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4 M2 4
8 10

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A high school basketball team won exactly 65 percent
What is the slope of the line in the xy-plane that of the games it played during last season. Which of
the following could be the total number of games the
 5   1 
passes through the points − , 1 and − , 4 ? team played last season?
 2   2 
A) 22
A) −1 B) 20
C) 18
2 D) 14
B) −
3

C) 1

3
D)
2
11
110x + y = 1,210
A coffee shop is running a promotion where a
number of free coffee samples are given away each
day. The equation above can be used to model the
9 number of free coffee samples, y, that remain to be
Dimensions of Envelopes given away x days after the promotion began. What
14 does it mean that (11, 0) is a solution to this
12 equation?
Height (inches)

10
8 A) During the promotion, 11 samples are given
6 away each day.
4 B) It takes 11 days during the promotion to see
2 1,210 customers.
0 C) It takes 11 days during the promotion until none
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
of the samples are remaining.
Width (inches)
D) There are 11 samples available at the start of the
promotion.
The scatterplot above shows the widths and the
heights of 12 types of rectangular envelopes. What is
the width, in inches, of the envelope represented by
the data point that is farthest from the line of best fit
(not shown) ?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12

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4 M2 4
12 13

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Which scatterplot shows a negative association that 14
is not linear? (Note: A negative association between 12
two variables is one in which higher values of one
variable correspond to lower values of the other 10

Frequency
variable, and vice versa.) 8
y 6
A)
4
10 2
0
x 0 15 30 45 60 75 90 105 120 135 150
O 10
Height of pyramid (meters)

B) y The histogram above shows the distribution of the


heights, in meters, of 26 pyramids in Egypt. Which
of the following could be the median height of the
10
26 pyramids represented in the histogram?
x
O 10 A) 44 meters
B) 48 meters
C) y C) 63 meters
D) 77 meters
10
x
O 10

D) y

10
x
O 10

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4 M2 4
▼ 16

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Questions 14-16 refer to the following information.
Based on the data, how many times more likely is it
A survey of 170 randomly selected teenagers aged for a 14 year old or a 15 year old to NOT have a
14 through 17 in the United States was conducted to summer job than it is for a 16 year old or a 17 year
gather data on summer employment of teenagers. The old to NOT have a summer job? (Round the answer
data are shown in the table below. to the nearest hundredth.)
Have a Do not have a A) 0.52 times as likely
Total
summer job summer job
B) 0.65 times as likely
Ages 14–15 20 69 89
C) 1.50 times as likely
Ages 16–17 39 42 81
Total 59 111 170 D) 1.64 times as likely


14
Which of the following is closest to the percent of
those surveyed who had a summer job?
A) 22%
B) 35%
C) 47%
D) 53%

15
In 2012 the total population of individuals in the
United States who were between 14 and 17 years old
(inclusive) was about 17 million. If the survey results
are used to estimate information about summer
employment of teenagers across the country, which
of the following is the best estimate of the total
number of individuals between 16 and 17 years old in
the United States who had a summer job in 2012 ?
A) 8,200,000
B) 3,900,000
C) 2,000,000
D) 390,000

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4 M2 4
17 18

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Percent Protein in Five Food Products B C
35
30
Percent protein

25
20 A D
15 E
10
5
In quadrilateral ABCD above, BC is parallel to AD ,
0
A B C D E and AB = CD . If BC and AD were each doubled and
Food products BE was reduced by 50 percent, how would the area of
ABCD change?
The graph above shows the amount of protein A) The area of ABCD would be decreased by
supplied by five different food products, A, B, C, D, 50 percent.
and E, as a percentage of their total weights. The
B) The area of ABCD would be increased by
costs of 10 grams of products A, B, C, D, and E are
50 percent.
$2.00, $2.20, $2.50, $4.00, and $5.00, respectively.
Which of the five food products supplies the most C) The area of ABCD would not change.
protein per dollar? D) The area of ABCD would be multiplied by 2.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E

19
Boyd grows only tomatoes and raspberries in his
garden. Last year, he grew 140 pounds of tomatoes
and 60 pounds of raspberries. This year, the
production, by weight, of tomatoes declined by
20 percent, and the production, by weight, of
raspberries declined by 50 percent. By what
percentage did the total yield, by weight, of
Boyd’s garden decline?
A) 29 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 35 percent
D) 70 percent

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4 M2 4
20 21

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4 y

3 4
Frequency

2 2
1
x
4 2 O 2 4 6
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2
Integers

The graph above shows the frequency distribution of What is the minimum value of the function graphed
a list of randomly generated integers between 0 and on the xy-plane above, for −4 ≤ x ≤ 6 ?
10. What is the mean of the list of numbers? A) −∞
A) 3.0 B) −4
B) 3.5 C) −2
C) 4.25 D) 1
D) 12.0

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4 M2 4
▼ 23

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Questions 22-24 refer to the following information.
There are four galaxies shown in the graph at
In 1929, the astronomer Edwin Hubble published the approximately 0.9 Mpc from Earth. Which of the
data shown. The graph plots the velocity of galaxies following is closest to the range of velocities of these
relative to Earth against the distances of galaxies from four galaxies, in kilometers per second?
Earth.
A) 100
Velocity Distance Relation
B) 200
among Galaxies
1,500 C) 450
D) 700
1,000
Velocity (km/s)

500
Galaxy Q
0
24
500
0.5 0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 Based on the model, what is the velocity, in
Distance (Mpc) kilometers per second, of a galaxy that is 15 Mpc
from Earth?
A) 7,500 km/s
Hubble’s data can be modeled by the equation v = 500d,
B) 5,000 km/s
where v is the velocity, in kilometers per second, at
C) 1,100 km/s
which the galaxy is moving away from Earth and d is the
D) 750 km/s
distance, in megaparsecs, of the galaxy from Earth.
Assume that the relationship is valid for larger distances
than are shown in the graph. (A megaparsec (Mpc) is ▲
3.1 × 1019 kilometers.)

22
According to Hubble’s data, how fast, in meters per
second, is Galaxy Q moving away from Earth?

A) 2 × 106 m/s
B) 5 × 105 m/s
C) 5 × 102 m/s
D) 2.5 × 102 m/s

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4 M2 4
25 27

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Janice puts a fence around her rectangular garden.  y ≤ − x
The garden has a length that is 9 feet less than 3  2y > 3x + 2
times its width. What is the perimeter of Janice’s 
fence if the area of her garden is 5,670 square feet? y
A) 342 feet
B) 318 feet
section Q
C) 300 feet
D) 270 feet
section R section P
x

section S

26 A system of inequalities and a graph are shown


above. Which section or sections of the graph could
B represent all of the solutions to the system?
A) Section R
a B) Sections Q and S
C) Sections Q and P
A C D) Sections Q, R, and S
b

Given the right triangle ABC above, which of the


b
following is equal to ?
a
A) sin A
B) sin B
C) tan A
D) tan B

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4 M2 4
7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 28-31, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

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4 M2 4
28 29

..............................................................................................................................
y In a college archaeology class, 78 students are going
(4, 19) to a dig site to find and study artifacts. The dig site
has been divided into 24 sections, and each section
(v, w)
will be studied by a group of either 2 or 4 students.
How many of the sections will be studied by a group
(0, 3) of 2 students?
x
(2, 1)
(0, 9)

The xy-plane above shows one of the two points of


intersection of the graphs of a linear function and a
quadratic function. The shown point of intersection
has coordinates (v, w ) . If the vertex of the graph of
the quadratic function is at (4, 19), what is the value
of v ?

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4 M2 4
▼ 31

.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Questions 30 and 31 refer to the following
information. How long will it take for the arrow to reach its
maximum height to the nearest tenth of a second?
v = v0 gt (speed time)

h = v0t 1 gt2
(position time) ▲
2
v 2 = v02 2gh (position speed)

An arrow is launched upward with an initial speed of 100


meters per second (m/s). The equations above describe
the constant-acceleration motion of the arrow, where v0
is the initial speed of the arrow, v is the speed of the
arrow as it is moving up in the air, h is the height of the
arrow above the ground, t is the time elapsed since the
arrow was projected upward, and g is the acceleration
due to gravity (9.8 m/s2).

30
What is the maximum height from the ground the
arrow will rise to the nearest meter?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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Reading(
Test(

52
PSAT%Reading%Test%
%
Time%Allotted% 60%minutes%(SAT%65)%
Total%Questions% 47%(SAT%52)%
% %
% %
Passage%Content% %
U.S.%and%World%Literature% 1%passage;%9%questions%
History%and%Social%Studies% 2%passages,%or%1%passage%and%I%pair;%
9L10%questions%
Science% 2%passages,%or%1%passage%and%I%pair;%
9L10%questions%
Graphs% 1L2%Graphics%in%1%History/Social%Studies%and%in%1%
Science%passage%
Types%of%Questions% %
Information%and%Ideas% Determining%explicit%and%implicit%meaning%
30%questions%est.% Citing%textual%evidence%
Determining%central%ideas%and%themes%
Summarizing%
Understanding%relationships%
Interpreting%words%and%phrases%in%context%
%
Information%and%Ideas:% What%choice%best%summarizes…%
Questions%Stems% The%narrator/author%indicates/implies/suggests…%
As%used%in%line%25,%“%%%“%most%nearly%means…%
It%can%be%inferred…%
Which%situation%is%most%similar…%
It%is%reasonable%to%conclude…%
Based%on%the%passage…%
The%author’s%main%point…%
Note:%
The%following%question%stem%will%often%follow%any%
one%of%the%above%stems,%creating%a%double%threat:%
%
What%choice%provides%the%best%evidence%to%the%previous%
question?%
% %
There%will%usually%be%two%of%the%above%stem%
questions%per%passage.%

53
Rhetoric% Analyzing%word%choice%
10%questions%est.% Analyzing%text%structure%
Analyzing%point%of%view%
Analyzing%purpose%
Analyzing%arguments%
%
Rhetoric% The%main%purpose%of%the%passage…%
Questions%stems% The%reference%to%the%……%primarily%serves%to……%
% The%passage%primarily%serves%to%…%
The%author%recognizes%counterarguments…by…%
What%main%effects%do%the….have%on%the%tone…%
What%choice%best%describes%the%structure%of%the%
….paragraph?%
The%author%uses….as%examples%of…%
%
% %
Synthesis% Analyzing%multiple%texts%
7%questions%est.% Analyzing%quantitative%information%(tables,%charts,%
% graphs)%
%
Synthesis% Which%statement%best%summarizes%the%information%
Questions%stems% presented%in%the%graph/table/chart.%
%
According%the%graph,%which%statement….%
What%information%discussed%in%…%is%represented%by%the%
graph?%
What%choice%best%states%the%relationship%between%the%
two%passages?%
How%would%Author%1%respond%to%Author%2?%
%
%
% %

54
Reading Comprehension Strategies
• Scan the questions and note those that direct you to specific passages.
• Read the passage carefully and thoroughly.
• When you are ready to answer the questions, do not use outside knowledge.
Only use information located in the passage, and eliminate any answers that
cannot be directly supported by the text.
• For charts, graphs, and tables, note the title, how the axis are labeled, and any
correlations.
• If you are unfamiliar with a vocabulary word, use the context of the reading and
root words or suffixes to make an educated guess.
• As you read, underline/highlight key points (see below)
o The actual information presented. Question stems:
Based on the passage……
The author’s main point…..
The narrator/author indicates/implies/suggests……..
It is reasonable to conclude...
o How the information is presented- written, tables, graphs. Question
stems:
According to the graph, which statement………
What information discussed in…… is presented by the graph?
How would Author 1 respond to Author 2?
o Primary purpose of the passage. Question stems:
The main purpose of the passage…
The author uses...as examples of…

• The redesigned SAT uses follow-up questions. These questions require you to
identify the precise text selection that supports your answer to the previous
problem. In other words, you will be expected to provide evidence that supports
your claims.

55
History%and%%
Social%Studies%
%
% %

56
1 H3 1
Questions 11-21 are based on the following 45 There is yet another approach: instead of rooting

..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. ethics in character or the consequences of actions, we
This passage is adapted from Iain King, “Can Economics Be
can focus on our actions themselves. From this
Ethical?” ©2013 by Prospect Publishing. perspective some things are right, some wrong—we
should buy fair trade goods, we shouldn’t tell lies in
Recent debates about the economy have 50 advertisements. Ethics becomes a list of
rediscovered the question, “is that right?”, where commandments, a catalog of “dos” and “don’ts.”
“right” means more than just profits or efficiency. When a finance official refuses to devalue a currency
Line Some argue that because the free markets allow because they have promised not to, they are defining
5 for personal choice, they are already ethical. Others ethics this way. According to this approach
have accepted the ethical critique and embraced 55 devaluation can still be bad, even if it would make
corporate social responsibility. But before we can everybody better off.
label any market outcome as “immoral,” or sneer at Many moral dilemmas arise when these three
economists who try to put a price on being ethical, versions pull in different directions but clashes are
10 we need to be clear on what we are talking about. not inevitable. Take fair trade coffee (coffee that is
There are different views on where ethics should 60 sold with a certification that indicates the farmers
apply when someone makes an economic decision. and workers who produced it were paid a fair wage),
Consider Adam Smith, widely regarded as the for example: buying it might have good
founder of modern economics. He was a moral consequences, be virtuous, and also be the right way
15 philosopher who believed sympathy for others was to act in a flawed market. Common ground like this
the basis for ethics (we would call it empathy 65 suggests that, even without agreement on where
nowadays). But one of his key insights in The Wealth ethics applies, ethical economics is still possible.
of Nations was that acting on this empathy could be Whenever we feel queasy about “perfect”
counter-productive—he observed people becoming competitive markets, the problem is often rooted in a
20 better off when they put their own empathy aside, phony conception of people. The model of man on
and interacted in a self-interested way. Smith justifies 70 which classical economics is based—an entirely
selfish behavior by the outcome. Whenever planners rational and selfish being—is a parody, as
use cost-benefit analysis to justify a new railway line, John Stuart Mill, the philosopher who pioneered the
or someone retrains to boost his or her earning model, accepted. Most people—even economists—
25 power, or a shopper buys one to get one free, they are now accept that this “economic man” is a fiction.
using the same approach: empathizing with 75 We behave like a herd; we fear losses more than we
someone, and seeking an outcome that makes that hope for gains; rarely can our brains process all the
person as well off as possible—although the person relevant facts.
they are empathizing with may be themselves in the These human quirks mean we can never make
30 future. purely “rational” decisions. A new wave of behavioral
Instead of judging consequences, Aristotle 80 economists, aided by neuroscientists, is trying to
said ethics was about having the right understand our psychology, both alone and in
character—displaying virtues like courage and groups, so they can anticipate our decisions in the
honesty. It is a view put into practice whenever marketplace more accurately. But psychology can
35 business leaders are chosen for their good character. also help us understand why we react in disgust at
But it is a hard philosophy to teach—just how much 85 economic injustice, or accept a moral law as
loyalty should you show to a manufacturer that keeps universal. Which means that the relatively new
losing money? Show too little and you’re a “greed is science of human behavior might also define ethics
good” corporate raider; too much and you’re wasting for us. Ethical economics would then emerge from
40 money on unproductive capital. Aristotle thought one of the least likely places: economists themselves.
there was a golden mean between the two extremes,
and finding it was a matter of fine judgment. But if
ethics is about character, it’s not clear what those
characteristics should be.

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1 H3 1
Regular Coffee Profits
Compared to Fair Trade Coffee
Profits in Tanzania
160
Amount (US cents per lb)

140
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
2000 2002 2004 2006 2008
Year
fair trade coffee
regular coffee

Adapted from the Fair Trade Vancouver website.

11 12
....................................................................................................................................................................

The main purpose of the passage is to In the passage, the author anticipates which of the
A) consider an ethical dilemma posed by following objections to criticizing the ethics of free
cost-benefit analysis. markets?
B) describe a psychology study of ethical economic A) Smith’s association of free markets with ethical
behavior. behavior still applies today.
C) argue that the free market prohibits ethical B) Free markets are the best way to generate high
economics. profits, so ethics are a secondary consideration.
D) examine ways of evaluating the ethics of C) Free markets are ethical because they are made
economics. possible by devalued currency.
D) Free markets are ethical because they enable
individuals to make choices.

13
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 4-5 (“Some . . . ethical”)
B) Lines 7-10 (“But . . . about”)
C) Lines 21-22 (“Smith . . . outcome”)
D) Lines 52-54 (“When . . . way”)

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1 H3 1
14 18

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
As used in line 6, “embraced” most nearly means The main idea of the final paragraph is that
A) lovingly held. A) human quirks make it difficult to predict
B) readily adopted. people’s ethical decisions accurately.
C) eagerly hugged. B) people universally react with disgust when faced
with economic injustice.
D) reluctantly used.
C) understanding human psychology may help to
define ethics in economics.
15 D) economists themselves will be responsible for
reforming the free market.
The main purpose of the fifth paragraph (lines 45-56)
is to
A) develop a counterargument to the claim that 19
greed is good.
Data in the graph about per-pound coffee profits in
B) provide support for the idea that ethics is about Tanzania most strongly support which of the
character. following statements?
C) describe a third approach to defining ethical A) Fair trade coffee consistently earned greater
economics. profits than regular coffee earned.
D) illustrate that one’s actions are a result of one’s B) The profits earned from regular coffee did not
character. fluctuate.
C) Fair trade coffee profits increased between 2004
16 and 2006.
D) Fair trade and regular coffee were earning equal
As used in line 58, “clashes” most nearly means
profits by 2008.
A) conflicts.
B) mismatches.
20
C) collisions.
D) brawls. Data in the graph indicate that the greatest difference
between per-pound profits from fair trade coffee and
those from regular coffee occurred during which
17 period?
A) 2000 to 2002
Which choice best supports the author’s claim that
there is common ground shared by the different B) 2002 to 2004
approaches to ethics described in the passage? C) 2004 to 2005
A) Lines 11-12 (“There . . . decision”) D) 2006 to 2008
B) Lines 47-50 (“From . . . advertisements”)
C) Lines 59-64 (“Take . . . market”)
D) Lines 75-77 (“We . . . facts”)

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1 H3 1
21 Questions 22-32 are based on the following

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages.
Data in the graph provide most direct support for
which idea in the passage? Passage 1 is adapted from Nicholas Carr, “Author
Nicholas Carr: The Web Shatters Focus, Rewires Brains.”
A) Acting on empathy can be counterproductive. ©2010 by Condé Nast. Passage 2 is from Steven Pinker,
B) Ethical economics is defined by character. “Mind over Mass Media.” ©2010 by The New York Times
Company.
C) Ethical economics is still possible.
Passage 1
D) People fear losses more than they hope for gains.
The mental consequences of our online
info-crunching are not universally bad.
Certain cognitive skills are strengthened by our use
Line of computers and the Net. These tend to involve
5 more primitive mental functions, such as hand-eye
coordination, reflex response, and the processing of
visual cues. One much-cited study of video gaming
revealed that after just 10 days of playing action
games on computers, a group of young people had
10 significantly boosted the speed with which they could
shift their visual focus between various images and
tasks.
It’s likely that Web browsing also strengthens
brain functions related to fast-paced problem
15 solving, particularly when it requires spotting
patterns in a welter of data. A British study of the
way women search for medical information online
indicated that an experienced Internet user can, at
least in some cases, assess the trustworthiness and
20 probable value of a Web page in a matter of seconds.
The more we practice surfing and scanning, the more
adept our brain becomes at those tasks.
But it would be a serious mistake to look narrowly
at such benefits and conclude that the Web is making
25 us smarter. In a Science article published in early
2009, prominent developmental psychologist Patricia
Greenfield reviewed more than 40 studies of the
effects of various types of media on intelligence and
learning ability. She concluded that “every medium
30 develops some cognitive skills at the expense of
others.” Our growing use of the Net and other
screen-based technologies, she wrote, has led to the
“widespread and sophisticated development of
visual-spatial skills.” But those gains go hand in hand
35 with a weakening of our capacity for the kind of
“deep processing” that underpins “mindful
knowledge acquisition, inductive analysis, critical
thinking, imagination, and reflection.”
We know that the human brain is highly
40 plastic; neurons and synapses change as
circumstances change. When we adapt to a new
cultural phenomenon, including the use of a new

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1 H4 1
31 Questions 32-41 are based on the following

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages.
The phrase “liquid gold” (line 71) most directly
suggests that Passage 1 is adapted from Edmund Burke, Reflections on the
Revolution in France. Originally published in 1790. Passage 2
A) GTC has invested a great deal of money in the is adapted from Thomas Paine, Rights of Man. Originally
microinjection technique. published in 1791.
B) GTC’s milking parlors have significantly Passage 1
increased milk production. To avoid . . . the evils of inconstancy and
C) transgenic goats will soon be a valuable asset for versatility, ten thousand times worse than those of
dairy farmers. obstinacy and the blindest prejudice, we have
Line consecrated the state, that no man should approach
D) ATryn has proved to be a financially beneficial
5 to look into its defects or corruptions but with due
product for GTC.
caution; that he should never dream of beginning its
reformation by its subversion; that he should
approach to the faults of the state as to the wounds of
a father, with pious awe and trembling solicitude. By
10 this wise prejudice we are taught to look with horror
on those children of their country who are prompt
rashly to hack that aged parent in pieces, and put him
into the kettle of magicians, in hopes that by their
poisonous weeds, and wild incantations, they may
15 regenerate the paternal constitution, and renovate
their father’s life.
Society is indeed a contract. Subordinate contracts
for objects of mere occasional interest may be
dissolved at pleasure—but the state ought not to be
20 considered as nothing better than a partnership
agreement in a trade of pepper and coffee, calico or
tobacco, or some other such low concern, to be taken
up for a little temporary interest, and to be dissolved
by the fancy of the parties. It is to be looked on with
25 other reverence; because it is not a partnership in
things subservient only to the gross animal existence
of a temporary and perishable nature. It is a
partnership in all science; a partnership in all art; a
partnership in every virtue, and in all perfection.
30 As the ends of such a partnership cannot be obtained
in many generations, it becomes a partnership not
only between those who are living, but between those
who are living, those who are dead, and those who
are to be born. . . . The municipal corporations of
35 that universal kingdom are not morally at liberty at
their pleasure, and on their speculations of a
contingent improvement, wholly to separate and tear
asunder the bands of their subordinate community,
and to dissolve it into an unsocial, uncivil,
40 unconnected chaos of elementary principles.

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1 H4 1
Passage 2 32

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Every age and generation must be as free to act for
itself, in all cases, as the ages and generations which In Passage 1, Burke indicates that a contract between
preceded it. The vanity and presumption of a person and society differs from other contracts
governing beyond the grave, is the most ridiculous mainly in its
45 and insolent of all tyrannies. A) brevity and prominence.
Man has no property in man; neither has any B) complexity and rigidity.
generation a property in the generations which are to
follow. The Parliament or the people of 1688, or of C) precision and usefulness.
any other period, had no more right to dispose of the D) seriousness and permanence.
50 people of the present day, or to bind or to control
them in any shape whatever, than the parliament or
the people of the present day have to dispose of, bind, 33
or control those who are to live a hundred or a
As used in line 4, “state” most nearly refers to a
thousand years hence.
55 Every generation is, and must be, competent A) style of living.
to all the purposes which its occasions require. It is B) position in life.
the living, and not the dead, that are to be
C) temporary condition.
accommodated. When man ceases to be, his power
and his wants cease with him; and having no longer D) political entity.
60 any participation in the concerns of this world, he
has no longer any authority in directing who shall be
its governors, or how its government shall be 34
organized, or how administered. . . . As used in line 22, “low” most nearly means
Those who have quitted the world, and those who
65 are not yet arrived at it, are as remote from each A) petty.
other, as the utmost stretch of mortal imagination B) weak.
can conceive. What possible obligation, then, can C) inadequate.
exist between them; what rule or principle can be laid
down, that two nonentities, the one out of existence, D) depleted.
70 and the other not in, and who never can meet in this
world, that the one should control the other to the
end of time? . . . 35
The circumstances of the world are continually It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage 2
changing, and the opinions of men change also; and that Paine views historical precedents as
75 as government is for the living, and not for the dead,
it is the living only that has any right in it. That A) generally helpful to those who want to change
which may be thought right and found convenient in society.
one age, may be thought wrong and found B) surprisingly difficult for many people to
inconvenient in another. In such cases, who is to comprehend.
80 decide, the living, or the dead? C) frequently responsible for human progress.
D) largely irrelevant to current political decisions.

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36 39

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
How would Paine most likely respond to Burke’s Which choice provides the best evidence for the
statement in lines 30-34, Passage 1 (“As the . . . answer to the previous question?
born”)? A) Lines 1-4 (“To avoid . . . state”)
A) He would assert that the notion of a partnership B) Lines 7-9 (“he should . . . solicitude”)
across generations is less plausible to people of
his era than it was to people in the past. C) Lines 27-29 (“It is . . . perfection”)
B) He would argue that there are no politically D) Lines 34-38 (“The municipal . . . community”)
meaningful links between the dead, the living,
and the unborn.
40
C) He would question the possibility that significant
changes to a political system could be Which choice best states the relationship between the
accomplished within a single generation. two passages?
D) He would point out that we cannot know what A) Passage 2 challenges the primary argument of
judgments the dead would make about Passage 1.
contemporary issues. B) Passage 2 advocates an alternative approach to a
problem discussed in Passage 1.
C) Passage 2 provides further evidence to support
37
an idea introduced in Passage 1.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) Passage 2 exemplifies an attitude promoted in
answer to the previous question? Passage 1.
A) Lines 41-43 (“Every . . . it”)
B) Lines 43-45 (“The vanity . . . tyrannies”)
41
C) Lines 56-58 (“It is . . . accommodated”)
The main purpose of both passages is to
D) Lines 67-72 (“What . . . time”)
A) suggest a way to resolve a particular political
struggle.
38 B) discuss the relationship between people and their
Which choice best describes how Burke would most government.
likely have reacted to Paine’s remarks in the final C) evaluate the consequences of rapid political
paragraph of Passage 2? change.
A) With approval, because adapting to new events D) describe the duties that governments have to
may enhance existing partnerships. their citizens.
B) With resignation, because changing
circumstances are an inevitable aspect of life.
C) With skepticism, because Paine does not
substantiate his claim with examples of
governments changed for the better.
D) With disapproval, because changing conditions
are insufficient justification for changing the
form of government.

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Science%
%
% %

64
1 S3 1
Questions 22-31 are based on the following long molecule many different permutations are

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passage and supplementary material. possible, and it therefore seems likely that the precise
This passage is adapted from J. D. Watson and F. H. C. Crick,
sequence of bases is the code which carries the
“Genetical Implications of the Structure of Deoxyribonucleic 45 genetical information. If the actual order of the bases
Acid.” ©1953 by Nature Publishing Group. Watson and Crick on one of the pair of chains were given, one could
deduced the structure of DNA using evidence from Rosalind write down the exact order of the bases on the other
Franklin and R. G. Gosling’s X-ray crystallography diagrams one, because of the specific pairing. Thus one chain
of DNA and from Erwin Chargaff’s data on the base is, as it were, the complement of the other, and it is
composition of DNA. 50 this feature which suggests how the deoxyribonucleic
The chemical formula of deoxyribonucleic acid acid molecule might duplicate itself.
(DNA) is now well established. The molecule is a The table shows, for various organisms, the percentage of
very long chain, the backbone of which consists of a each of the four types of nitrogenous bases in that
Line regular alternation of sugar and phosphate groups. organism’s DNA.
5 To each sugar is attached a nitrogenous base, which
can be of four different types. Two of the possible Base Composition of DNA
bases—adenine and guanine—are purines, and the
other two—thymine and cytosine—are pyrimidines. Percentage of base
So far as is known, the sequence of bases along the
in organisms DNA
10 chain is irregular. The monomer unit, consisting of
phosphate, sugar and base, is known as a nucleotide. Organism adenine guanine cytosine thymine
The first feature of our structure which is of (%) (%) (%) (%)
biological interest is that it consists not of one chain,
but of two. These two chains are both coiled around Maize 26.8 22.8 23.2 27.2
15 a common fiber axis. It has often been assumed that Octopus 33.2 17.6 17.6 31.6
since there was only one chain in the chemical
Chicken 28.0 22.0 21.6 28.4
formula there would only be one in the structural
unit. However, the density, taken with the X-ray Rat 28.6 21.4 20.5 28.4
evidence, suggests very strongly that there are two. Human 29.3 20.7 20.0 30.0
20 The other biologically important feature is the
manner in which the two chains are held together. Grasshopper 29.3 20.5 20.7 29.3
This is done by hydrogen bonds between the bases. Sea urchin 32.8 17.7 17.3 32.1
The bases are joined together in pairs, a single base
Wheat 27.3 22.7 22.8 27.1
from one chain being hydrogen-bonded to a single
25 base from the other. The important point is that only Yeast 31.3 18.7 17.1 32.9
certain pairs of bases will fit into the structure. E. coli 24.7 26.0 25.7 23.6
One member of a pair must be a purine and the other
a pyrimidine in order to bridge between the two Adapted from Manju Bansal, “DNA Structure: Revisiting the
chains. If a pair consisted of two purines, for Watson-Crick Double Helix.” ©2003 by Current Science Association,
30 example, there would not be room for it. Bangalore.
We believe that the bases will be present almost
entirely in their most probable forms. If this is true,
the conditions for forming hydrogen bonds are more
restrictive, and the only pairs of bases possible are:
35 adenine with thymine, and guanine with cytosine.
Adenine, for example, can occur on either chain; but
when it does, its partner on the other chain must
always be thymine.
The phosphate-sugar backbone of our model is
40 completely regular, but any sequence of the pairs of
bases can fit into the structure. It follows that in a

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65 CO NTI N U E
1 S3 1
22 25

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
The authors use the word “backbone” in lines 3 The authors’ main purpose of including the
and 39 to indicate that information about X-ray evidence and density is to
A) only very long chains of DNA can be taken from A) establish that DNA is the molecule that carries
an organism with a spinal column. the genetic information.
B) the main structure of a chain in a DNA molecule B) present an alternate hypothesis about the
is composed of repeating units. composition of a nucleotide.
C) a chain in a DNA molecule consists entirely of C) provide support for the authors’ claim about the
phosphate groups or of sugars. number of chains in a molecule of DNA.
D) nitrogenous bases form the main structural unit D) confirm the relationship between the density of
of DNA. DNA and the known chemical formula of DNA.

23 26
A student claims that nitrogenous bases pair Based on the passage, the authors’ statement “If a
randomly with one another. Which of the following pair consisted of two purines, for example, there
statements in the passage contradicts the student’s would not be room for it” (lines 29-30) implies that a
claim? pair
A) Lines 5-6 (“To each . . . types”) A) of purines would be larger than the space
B) Lines 9-10 (“So far . . . irregular”) between a sugar and a phosphate group.
C) Lines 23-25 (“The bases . . . other”) B) of purines would be larger than a pair consisting
of a purine and a pyrimidine.
D) Lines 27-29 (“One member . . . chains”)
C) of pyrimidines would be larger than a pair of
purines.
24 D) consisting of a purine and a pyrimidine would be
larger than a pair of pyrimidines.
In the second paragraph (lines 12-19), what do the
authors claim to be a feature of biological interest?
A) The chemical formula of DNA 27
B) The common fiber axis The authors’ use of the words “exact,” “specific,” and
C) The X-ray evidence “complement” in lines 47-49 in the final paragraph
D) DNA consisting of two chains functions mainly to
A) confirm that the nucleotide sequences are known
for most molecules of DNA.
B) counter the claim that the sequences of bases
along a chain can occur in any order.
C) support the claim that the phosphate-sugar
backbone of the authors’ model is completely
regular.
D) emphasize how one chain of DNA may serve as a
template to be copied during DNA replication.

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9
66 CO NTI N U E
1 S3 1
28 30

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Based on the table and passage, which choice gives According to the table, which of the following pairs
the correct percentages of the purines in yeast DNA? of base percentages in sea urchin DNA provides
A) 17.1% and 18.7% evidence in support of the answer to the previous
question?
B) 17.1% and 32.9%
A) 17.3% and 17.7%
C) 18.7% and 31.3%
B) 17.3% and 32.1%
D) 31.3% and 32.9%
C) 17.3% and 32.8%
D) 17.7% and 32.8%
29
Do the data in the table support the authors’
31
proposed pairing of bases in DNA?
A) Yes, because for each given organism, the Based on the table, is the percentage of adenine in
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage each organism’s DNA the same or does it vary, and
of thymine, and the percentage of guanine is which statement made by the authors is most
closest to the percentage of cytosine. consistent with that data?
B) Yes, because for each given organism, the A) The same; “Two of . . . pyrimidines” (lines 6-8)
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage B) The same; “The important . . . structure”
of guanine, and the percentage of cytosine is (lines 25-26)
closest to the percentage of thymine. C) It varies; “Adenine . . . thymine” (lines 36-38)
C) No, because for each given organism, the D) It varies; “It follows . . . information”
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage (lines 41-45)
of thymine, and the percentage of guanine is
closest to the percentage of cytosine.
D) No, because for each given organism, the
percentage of adenine is closest to the percentage
of guanine, and the percentage of cytosine is
closest to the percentage of thymine.

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67 CO NTI N U E
1 S4 1
Questions 42-52 are based on the following Companies are eyeing the iron, silicon, and

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
passages. aluminium in lunar soil and asteroids, which could
Passage 1 is adapted from Michael Slezak, “Space Mining:
be used in 3D printers to make spare parts or
the Next Gold Rush?” ©2013 by New Scientist. Passage 2 is machinery. Others want to turn space dirt into
from the editors of New Scientist, “Taming the Final 45 concrete for landing pads, shelters, and roads.
Frontier.” ©2013 by New Scientist. Passage 2
Passage 1 The motivation for deep-space travel is shifting
Follow the money and you will end up in space. from discovery to economics. The past year has seen
That’s the message from a first-of-its-kind forum on a flurry of proposals aimed at bringing celestial riches
mining beyond Earth. down to Earth. No doubt this will make a few
Line Convened in Sydney by the Australian Centre for 50 billionaires even wealthier, but we all stand to gain:
5 Space Engineering Research, the event brought the mineral bounty and spin-off technologies could
together mining companies, robotics experts, lunar enrich us all.
scientists, and government agencies that are all But before the miners start firing up their rockets,
working to make space mining a reality. we should pause for thought. At first glance, space
The forum comes hot on the heels of the 55 mining seems to sidestep most environmental
10 2012 unveiling of two private asteroid-mining firms. concerns: there is (probably!) no life on asteroids,
Planetary Resources of Washington says it will and thus no habitats to trash. But its consequences
launch its first prospecting telescopes in two years, —both here on Earth and in space—merit careful
while Deep Space Industries of Virginia hopes to be consideration.
harvesting metals from asteroids by 2020. Another 60 Part of this is about principles. Some will argue
15 commercial venture that sprung up in 2012, that space’s “magnificent desolation” is not ours to
Golden Spike of Colorado, will be offering trips to despoil, just as they argue that our own planet’s poles
the moon, including to potential lunar miners. should remain pristine. Others will suggest that
Within a few decades, these firms may be glutting ourselves on space’s riches is not an
meeting earthly demands for precious metals, such as 65 acceptable alternative to developing more sustainable
20 platinum and gold, and the rare earth elements vital ways of earthly life.
for personal electronics, such as yttrium and History suggests that those will be hard lines to
lanthanum. But like the gold rush pioneers who hold, and it may be difficult to persuade the public
transformed the western United States, the first space that such barren environments are worth preserving.
miners won’t just enrich themselves. They also hope 70 After all, they exist in vast abundance, and even
25 to build an off-planet economy free of any bonds fewer people will experience them than have walked
with Earth, in which the materials extracted and through Antarctica’s icy landscapes.
processed from the moon and asteroids are delivered There’s also the emerging off-world economy to
for space-based projects. consider. The resources that are valuable in orbit and
In this scenario, water mined from other 75 beyond may be very different to those we prize on
30 worlds could become the most desired commodity. Earth. Questions of their stewardship have barely
“In the desert, what’s worth more: a kilogram of gold been broached—and the relevant legal and regulatory
or a kilogram of water?” asks Kris Zacny of framework is fragmentary, to put it mildly.
HoneyBee Robotics in New York. “Gold is useless. Space miners, like their earthly counterparts, are
Water will let you live.” 80 often reluctant to engage with such questions.
35 Water ice from the moon’s poles could be sent to One speaker at last week’s space-mining forum in
astronauts on the International Space Station for Sydney, Australia, concluded with a plea that
drinking or as a radiation shield. Splitting water into regulation should be avoided. But miners have much
oxygen and hydrogen makes spacecraft fuel, so to gain from a broad agreement on the for-profit
ice-rich asteroids could become interplanetary 85 exploitation of space. Without consensus, claims will
40 refuelling stations. be disputed, investments risky, and the gains made
insecure. It is in all of our long-term interests to seek
one out.

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42 46

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
In lines 9-17, the author of Passage 1 mentions What function does the discussion of water in
several companies primarily to lines 35-40 serve in Passage 1?
A) note the technological advances that make space A) It continues an extended comparison that begins
mining possible. in the previous paragraph.
B) provide evidence of the growing interest in space B) It provides an unexpected answer to a question
mining. raised in the previous paragraph.
C) emphasize the large profits to be made from C) It offers hypothetical examples supporting a
space mining. claim made in the previous paragraph.
D) highlight the diverse ways to carry out space D) It examines possible outcomes of a proposal put
mining operations. forth in the previous paragraph.

43 47
The author of Passage 1 indicates that space mining The central claim of Passage 2 is that space mining
could have which positive effect? has positive potential but
A) It could yield materials important to Earth’s A) it will end up encouraging humanity’s reckless
economy. treatment of the environment.
B) It could raise the value of some precious metals B) its effects should be thoughtfully considered
on Earth. before it becomes a reality.
C) It could create unanticipated technological C) such potential may not include replenishing key
innovations. resources that are disappearing on Earth.
D) It could change scientists’ understanding of D) experts disagree about the commercial viability
space resources. of the discoveries it could yield.

44 48
Which choice provides the best evidence for the As used in line 68, “hold” most nearly means
answer to the previous question? A) maintain.
A) Lines 18-22 (“Within . . . lanthanum”) B) grip.
B) Lines 24-28 (“They . . . projects”) C) restrain.
C) Lines 29-30 (“In this . . . commodity”) D) withstand.
D) Lines 41-44 (“Companies . . . machinery”)

45
As used in line 19, “demands” most nearly means
A) offers.
B) claims.
C) inquiries.
D) desires.

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.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which statement best describes the relationship Which choice provides the best evidence for the
between the passages? answer to the previous question?
A) Passage 2 refutes the central claim advanced in A) Lines 60-63 (“Some . . . pristine”)
Passage 1. B) Lines 74-76 (“The resources . . . Earth”)
B) Passage 2 illustrates the phenomenon described C) Lines 81-83 (“One . . . avoided”)
in more general terms in Passage 1.
D) Lines 85-87 (“Without . . . insecure”)
C) Passage 2 argues against the practicality of the
proposals put forth in Passage 1.
D) Passage 2 expresses reservations about 52
developments discussed in Passage 1.
Which point about the resources that will be highly
valued in space is implicit in Passage 1 and explicit in
Passage 2?
50
A) They may be different resources from those that
The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond to are valuable on Earth.
the discussion of the future of space mining in
lines 18-28, Passage 1, by claiming that such a future B) They will be valuable only if they can be
harvested cheaply.
A) is inconsistent with the sustainable use of space
resources. C) They are likely to be primarily precious metals
and rare earth elements.
B) will be difficult to bring about in the absence of
regulations. D) They may increase in value as those same
resources become rare on Earth.
C) cannot be attained without technologies that do
not yet exist.
D) seems certain to affect Earth’s economy in a
negative way.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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71
1 L2 1
Reading Test
65 M I NU TES, 5 2 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following Akira was waiting in the entry. He was in his early
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................

passage. twenties, slim and serious, wearing the black


This passage is from Lydia Minatoya, The Strangeness of
25 military-style uniform of a student. As he
Beauty. ©1999 by Lydia Minatoya. The setting is Japan in bowed—his hands hanging straight down, a
1920. Chie and her daughter Naomi are members of the black cap in one, a yellow oil-paper umbrella in the
House of Fuji, a noble family. other—Chie glanced beyond him. In the glistening
surface of the courtyard’s rain-drenched paving
Akira came directly, breaking all tradition. Was 30 stones, she saw his reflection like a dark double.
that it? Had he followed form—had he asked his “Madame,” said Akira, “forgive my disruption,
mother to speak to his father to approach a but I come with a matter of urgency.”
Line go-between—would Chie have been more receptive? His voice was soft, refined. He straightened and
5 He came on a winter’s eve. He pounded on the stole a deferential peek at her face.
door while a cold rain beat on the shuttered veranda, 35 In the dim light his eyes shone with sincerity.
so at first Chie thought him only the wind. The maid Chie felt herself starting to like him.
knew better. Chie heard her soft scuttling footsteps, “Come inside, get out of this nasty night. Surely
the creak of the door. Then the maid brought a your business can wait for a moment or two.”
10 calling card to the drawing room, for Chie. “I don’t want to trouble you. Normally I would
Chie was reluctant to go to her guest; perhaps she 40 approach you more properly but I’ve received word
was feeling too cozy. She and Naomi were reading at of a position. I’ve an opportunity to go to America, as
a low table set atop a charcoal brazier. A thick quilt dentist for Seattle’s Japanese community.”
spread over the sides of the table so their legs were “Congratulations,” Chie said with amusement.
15 tucked inside with the heat. “That is an opportunity, I’m sure. But how am I
“Who is it at this hour, in this weather?” Chie 45 involved?”
questioned as she picked the name card off the Even noting Naomi’s breathless reaction to the
maid’s lacquer tray. name card, Chie had no idea. Akira’s message,
“Shinoda, Akira. Kobe Dental College,” she read. delivered like a formal speech, filled her with
20 Naomi recognized the name. Chie heard a soft maternal amusement. You know how children speak
intake of air. 50 so earnestly, so hurriedly, so endearingly about
“I think you should go,” said Naomi. things that have no importance in an adult’s mind?
That’s how she viewed him, as a child.

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It was how she viewed Naomi. Even though 1

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Naomi was eighteen and training endlessly in the arts
55 needed to make a good marriage, Chie had made no Which choice best describes what happens in the
effort to find her a husband. passage?
Akira blushed. A) One character argues with another character
“Depending on your response, I may stay in who intrudes on her home.
Japan. I’ve come to ask for Naomi’s hand.” B) One character receives a surprising request from
60 Suddenly Chie felt the dampness of the night. another character.
“Does Naomi know anything of your . . .
ambitions?” C) One character reminisces about choices she has
“We have an understanding. Please don’t judge made over the years.
my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal. I D) One character criticizes another character for
65 ask directly because the use of a go-between takes pursuing an unexpected course of action.
much time. Either method comes down to the same
thing: a matter of parental approval. If you give your
consent, I become Naomi’s yoshi.* We’ll live in the 2
House of Fuji. Without your consent, I must go to
Which choice best describes the developmental
70 America, to secure a new home for my bride.”
pattern of the passage?
Eager to make his point, he’d been looking her full
in the face. Abruptly, his voice turned gentle. “I see A) A careful analysis of a traditional practice
I’ve startled you. My humble apologies. I’ll take no B) A detailed depiction of a meaningful encounter
more of your evening. My address is on my card. If
C) A definitive response to a series of questions
75 you don’t wish to contact me, I’ll reapproach you in
two weeks’ time. Until then, good night.” D) A cheerful recounting of an amusing anecdote
He bowed and left. Taking her ease, with effortless
grace, like a cat making off with a fish.
“Mother?” Chie heard Naomi’s low voice and 3
80 turned from the door. “He has asked you?” As used in line 1 and line 65, “directly” most
The sight of Naomi’s clear eyes, her dark brows nearly means
gave Chie strength. Maybe his hopes were
preposterous. A) frankly.
“Where did you meet such a fellow? Imagine! He B) confidently.
85 thinks he can marry the Fuji heir and take her to C) without mediation.
America all in the snap of his fingers!”
Chie waited for Naomi’s ripe laughter. D) with precision.
Naomi was silent. She stood a full half minute
looking straight into Chie’s eyes. Finally, she spoke.
90 “I met him at my literary meeting.” 4
Naomi turned to go back into the house, then Which reaction does Akira most fear from Chie?
stopped.
“Mother.” A) She will consider his proposal inappropriate.
“Yes?” B) She will mistake his earnestness for immaturity.
95 “I mean to have him.” C) She will consider his unscheduled visit an
* a man who marries a woman of higher status and takes her
imposition.
family’s name
D) She will underestimate the sincerity of his
emotions.

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...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Which choice provides the best evidence for the Why does Akira say his meeting with Chie is
answer to the previous question? “a matter of urgency” (line 32)?
A) Line 33 (“His voice . . . refined”) A) He fears that his own parents will disapprove of
B) Lines 49-51 (“You . . . mind”) Naomi.
C) Lines 63-64 (“Please . . . proposal”) B) He worries that Naomi will reject him and marry
someone else.
D) Lines 71-72 (“Eager . . . face”)
C) He has been offered an attractive job in another
country.
6 D) He knows that Chie is unaware of his feelings for
Naomi.
In the passage, Akira addresses Chie with
A) affection but not genuine love.
B) objectivity but not complete impartiality. 10
C) amusement but not mocking disparagement. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
D) respect but not utter deference. answer to the previous question?
A) Line 39 (“I don’t . . . you”)
B) Lines 39-42 (“Normally . . . community”)
7
C) Lines 58-59 (“Depending . . . Japan”)
The main purpose of the first paragraph is to
D) Lines 72-73 (“I see . . . you”)
A) describe a culture.
B) criticize a tradition.
C) question a suggestion.
D) analyze a reaction.

8
As used in line 2, “form” most nearly means
A) appearance.
B) custom.
C) structure.
D) nature.

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74 CO NTI N U E
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Reading Test
65 M I NU TES, 5 2 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1-10 are based on the following 25 my darling, my cherished-in-secret, Imagination, the
.......................................................................................................................................................................................................

passage. tender and the mighty, should never, either by


This passage is from Charlotte Brontë, The Professor,
softness or strength, have severed me. But this was
originally published in 1857. not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between
myself and my employer striking deeper root and
No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a 30 spreading denser shade daily, excluded me from
mistake in the choice of his profession, and every every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to
man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the
Line and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am slimy walls of a well.
5 baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to Antipathy is the only word which can express the
land. From the first week of my residence in X—— I 35 feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in
felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to
work of copying and translating business-letters— be excited by every, the most trifling movement,
was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed
10 all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am him; the degree of education evinced in my language
not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the 40 irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and
double desire of getting my living and justifying to accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high
myself and others the resolution I had taken to flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I
become a tradesman, I should have endured in too should one day make a successful tradesman.
15 silence the rust and cramp of my best faculties; I Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not
should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I 45 have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he
longed for liberty; I should have pent in every sigh by knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept
which my heart might have ventured to intimate its the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he
distress under the closeness, smoke, monotony, and was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a
20 joyless tumult of Bigben Close, and its panting desire ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have
for freer and fresher scenes; I should have set up the 50 forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three
image of Duty, the fetish of Perseverance, in my faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling
small bedroom at Mrs. King’s lodgings, and they two and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never
should have been my household gods, from which baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels.
Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it
55 would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its
slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

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I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was 3

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
returning to my lodgings, possessed heart and soul
with the pleasant feeling that the master who had During the course of the first paragraph, the
60 paid me grudged every penny of that hard‑earned narrator’s focus shifts from
pittance—(I had long ceased to regard A) recollection of past confidence to
Mr. Crimsworth as my brother—he was a hard, acknowledgment of present self-doubt.
grinding master; he wished to be an inexorable B) reflection on his expectations of life as a
tyrant: that was all). Thoughts, not varied but strong, tradesman to his desire for another job.
65 occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me;
again and again they uttered the same monotonous C) generalization about job dissatisfaction to the
phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” specifics of his own situation.
The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked D) evaluation of factors making him unhappy to
fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I identification of alternatives.
70 approached my lodgings, I turned from a general
view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to
whether my fire would be out; looking towards the 4
window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red
The references to “shade” and “darkness” at the end
gleam.
of the first paragraph mainly have which effect?
A) They evoke the narrator’s sense of dismay.
1 B) They reflect the narrator’s sinister thoughts.
Which choice best summarizes the passage? C) They capture the narrator’s fear of confinement.
A) A character describes his dislike for his new job D) They reveal the narrator’s longing for rest.
and considers the reasons why.
B) Two characters employed in the same office
become increasingly competitive. 5

C) A young man regrets privately a choice that he The passage indicates that Edward Crimsworth’s
defends publicly. behavior was mainly caused by his
D) A new employee experiences optimism, then A) impatience with the narrator’s high spirits.
frustration, and finally despair. B) scorn of the narrator’s humble background.
C) indignation at the narrator’s rash actions.
2 D) jealousy of the narrator’s apparent superiority.

The main purpose of the opening sentence of the


passage is to 6
A) establish the narrator’s perspective on a The passage indicates that when the narrator began
controversy. working for Edward Crimsworth, he viewed
B) provide context useful in understanding the Crimsworth as a
narrator’s emotional state. A) harmless rival.
C) offer a symbolic representation of B) sympathetic ally.
Edward Crimsworth’s plight.
C) perceptive judge.
D) contrast the narrator’s good intentions with his
malicious conduct. D) demanding mentor.

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7 9

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Which choice provides the best evidence for the The passage indicates that, after a long day of
answer to the previous question? work, the narrator sometimes found his living
A) Lines 28-31 (“the antipathy . . . life”) quarters to be
B) Lines 38-40 (“My southern . . . irritated him”) A) treacherous.
C) Lines 54-56 (“Day . . . slumber”) B) dreary.
D) Lines 61-62 (“I had . . . brother”) C) predictable.
D) intolerable.

8
10
At the end of the second paragraph, the comparisons
of abstract qualities to a lynx and a snake mainly Which choice provides the best evidence for the
have the effect of answer to the previous question?
A) contrasting two hypothetical courses of action. A) Lines 17-21 (“I should . . . scenes”)
B) conveying the ferocity of a resolution. B) Lines 21-23 (“I should . . . lodgings”)
C) suggesting the likelihood of an altercation. C) Lines 64-67 (“Thoughts . . . phrases”)
D) illustrating the nature of an adversarial D) Lines 68-74 (“I walked . . . gleam”)
relationship.

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Writing'and'Language''
'
'
' '

78
PSAT%Writing%and%Language%Test%
%
Time%Allotted% 35%minutes%(same%as%SAT)%
Total%Questions% 44%(same%as%SAT)%
% %
% %
Passage%Content% %
Careers% 1%passage;%11%questions%
History/Social%Studies% 1%passage;%11%questions%
Humanities% 1%passage;%11%questions%
Science% 1%passage;%11%questions%
Types%of%Questions% %
Expression%of%Ideas.% %
Development% These questions focus on revising text in relation
8%questions%est.% to rhetorical purpose. (Prior knowledge of the
topic is not assessed, though consistency of the
material within a passage may be.)

Organization% These questions focus on revision of text to


8%questions%est.% improve the logic and cohesion of text at the
sentence, paragraph, and whole-text levels.

%
Effective%Language%Use% These questions focus on revision of text to
8%questions%est.% improve the use of language to accomplish
particular rhetorical purposes.

Standard%English%Conventions% %
Sentence%Structures% These questions focus on editing text to correct
7%questions%est.% problems in sentence formation and inappropriate
shifts in construction within and between
sentences.

Conventions%of%Usage% These questions focus on editing text to ensure


8%questions%est.% conformity to the conventions of standard written
English usage.

Conventions%of%Punctuation% These questions focus on editing text to ensure


5%questions%est.% conformity to the conventions of standard written
English punctuation.

%
%

79
2 W2 2
Writing and Language Test
35 M I NU TES, 4 4 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by
one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising
and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.


...................................................................................................................................

Whey to Go
Greek yogurt a strained form of cultured
yogurt has grown enormously in popularity in the
United States since it was first introduced in the country
in the late 1980s.
From 2011 to 2012 alone, sales of Greek yogurt in the
US increased by 50 percent. The resulting increase in
Greek yogurt production has forced those involved in the
business to address the detrimental effects that the
yogurt-making process may be having on the
environment. Fortunately, farmers and others in the

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Greek yogurt business have found many methods of 1

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
controlling and eliminating most environmental threats. A) NO CHANGE
B) defeat
Given these solutions as well as the many health benefits
C) outperform
of the food, the advantages of Greek yogurt 1 outdo the
D) outweigh
potential drawbacks of its production.
[1] The main environmental problem caused by the 2
production of Greek yogurt is the creation of acid whey Which choice provides the most relevant detail?
as a by-product. [2] Because it requires up to four times A) NO CHANGE
B) supplement and convert it into gas to use as fuel
more milk to make than conventional yogurt does, Greek in electricity production.
yogurt produces larger amounts of acid whey, which is C) supplement, while sweet whey is more desirable
as a food additive for humans.
difficult to dispose of. [3] To address the problem of
D) supplement, which provides an important
disposal, farmers have found a number of uses for acid element of their diet.
whey. [4] They can add it to livestock feed as a protein
2 supplement, and people can make their own 3
A) NO CHANGE
Greek-style yogurt at home by straining regular yogurt.
B) can pollute waterway©
s,
[5] If it is improperly introduced into the environment, C) could have polluted waterways,
acid-whey runoff 3 can pollute waterways, depleting ©s,
D) has polluted waterway©
the oxygen content of streams and rivers as it
decomposes. [6] Yogurt manufacturers, food 4
A) NO CHANGE
4 scientists; and government officials are also
B) scientists: and
working together to develop additional solutions for
C) scientists, and
reusing whey. 5 D) scientists, and,

5
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 1.
C) after sentence 2.
D) after sentence 3.

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6 Though these conservation methods can be 6

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
costly and time-consuming, they are well worth the The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the writer do this?
effort. Nutritionists consider Greek yogurt to be a healthy
A) Yes, because it does not provide a transition
food: it is an excellent source of calcium and protein, from the previous paragraph.
serves 7 to be a digestive aid, and 8 it contains few B) Yes, because it fails to support the main
argument of the passage as introduced in the
calories in its unsweetened low- and non-fat forms. first paragraph.
Greek yogurt is slightly lower in sugar and carbohydrates C) No, because it continues the explanation of how
acid whey can be disposed of safely.
than conventional yogurt is. 9 Also, because it is more D) No, because it sets up the argument in the
concentrated, Greek yogurt contains slightly more paragraph for the benefits of Greek yogurt.

protein per serving, thereby helping people stay


7
A) NO CHANGE
B) as
C) like
D) for

8
A) NO CHANGE
B) containing
C) contains
D) will contain

9
A) NO CHANGE
B) In other words,
C) Therefore,
D) For instance,

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10 satiated for longer periods of time. These health 10

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
benefits have prompted Greek yogurt©s recent surge in A) NO CHANGE
B) fulfilled
popularity. In fact, Greek yogurt can be found in an
C) complacent
increasing number of products such as snack food and
D) sufficient
frozen desserts. Because consumers reap the nutritional
benefits of Greek yogurt and support those who make 11
and sell 11 it, therefore farmers and businesses should A) NO CHANGE
B) it, farmers
continue finding safe and effective methods of producing
C) it, so farmers
the food.
D) it: farmers

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21
83 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage 12

...............................................................................................................................
and supplementary material.
Which choice most accurately and effectively
represents the information in the graph?
Dark Snow A) NO CHANGE
Most of Greenland©s interior is covered by a thick B) to 12 degrees Fahrenheit.
C) to their lowest point on December 13.
layer of ice and compressed snow known as the
D) to 10 degrees Fahrenheit and stay there for
Greenland Ice Sheet. The size of the ice sheet fluctuates months.
seasonally: in summer, average daily high temperatures
in Greenland can rise to slightly above 50 degrees
Fahrenheit, partially melting the ice; in the winter, the
sheet thickens as additional snow falls, and average daily
low temperatures can drop 12 to as low as 20 degrees.

Average Daily High and Low Temperatures Recorded


at Nuuk Weather Station, Greenland (1961—1990)

Mar 5 Jun 10 Sep 8 Dec 13


60
Temperature (°F)

50 45° 45°
40
30 35° 38° 26°
20°
20
19°
10
12°
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
average daily high
average daily low

Adapted from WMO. ©2014 by World Meteorological Organization.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.


22
84 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
Typically, the ice sheet begins to show evidence of 13

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
thawing in late 13 summer. This follows several weeks of Which choice most effectively combines the two
sentences at the underlined portion?
higher temperatures. 14 For example, in the summer of
A) summer, following
2012, virtually the entire Greenland Ice Sheet underwent B) summer, and this thawing follows
thawing at or near its surface by mid-July, the earliest C) summer, and such thawing follows
date on record. Most scientists looking for the causes of D) summer and this evidence follows

the Great Melt of 2012 have focused exclusively on rising


14
temperatures. The summer of 2012 was the warmest in
A) NO CHANGE
170 years, records show. But Jason 15 Box, an associate B) However,
professor of geology at Ohio State believes that another C) As such,
factor added to the early 16 thaw; the dark snow D) Moreover,

problem.
15
A) NO CHANGE
B) Box an associate professor of geology at
Ohio State,
C) Box, an associate professor of geology at
Ohio State,
D) Box, an associate professor of geology, at
Ohio State

16
A) NO CHANGE
B) thaw; and it was
C) thaw:
D) thaw: being

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23
85 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
According to Box, a leading Greenland expert, 17

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
tundra fires in 2012 from as far away as North America A) NO CHANGE
B) soot
produced great amounts of soot, some 17 of it drifted
C) of which
over Greenland in giant plumes of smoke and then
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
18 fell as particles onto the ice sheet. Scientists have long
known that soot particles facilitate melting by darkening 18
snow and ice, limiting 19 it’s ability to reflect the Sun’s A) NO CHANGE
rays. As Box explains, “Soot is an extremely powerful B) falls
C) will fall
light absorber. It settles over the ice and captures the
D) had fallen
Sun’s heat.” The result is a self-reinforcing cycle. As the
ice melts, the land and water under the ice become 19
exposed, and since land and water are darker than snow, A) NO CHANGE
the surface absorbs even more heat, which 20 is related B) its
C) there
to the rising temperatures.
D) their

20
Which choice best completes the description of a
self-reinforcing cycle?
A) NO CHANGE
B) raises the surface temperature.
C) begins to cool at a certain point.
D) leads to additional melting.

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24
86 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
[1] Box’s research is important because the fires of 21

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
2012 may not be a one-time phenomenon. [2] According A) NO CHANGE
B) itself,
to scientists, rising Arctic temperatures are making
C) itself, with damage and
northern latitudes greener and thus more fire prone. D) itself possibly,
[3] The pattern Box observed in 2012 may repeat
21 itself again, with harmful effects on the Arctic 22
ecosystem. [4] Box is currently organizing an expedition To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 4
should be placed
to gather this crucial information. [5] The next step for
A) where it is now.
Box and his team is to travel to Greenland to perform B) after sentence 1.
direct sampling of the ice in order to determine just how C) after sentence 2.
much the soot is contributing to the melting of the ice D) after sentence 5.

sheet. [6] Members of the public will be able to track his


team’s progress—and even help fund the
expedition—through a website Box has created. 22

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.


25
87 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. 23

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
Coworking: A Creative Solution B) was promptly worn
C) promptly wore
When I left my office job as a website developer at a
D) wore
small company for a position that allowed me to work
full-time from home, I thought I had it made: I gleefully
24
traded in my suits and dress shoes for sweatpants and A) NO CHANGE
slippers, my frantic early-morning bagged lunch packing B) colleagues were important for sharing ideas.

for a leisurely midday trip to my refrigerator. The novelty C) ideas couldn©t be shared with colleagues.
D) I missed having colleagues nearby to consult.
of this comfortable work-from-home life, however,
23 soon got worn off quickly. Within a month, I found
25
myself feeling isolated despite having frequent email and A) NO CHANGE
instant messaging contact with my colleagues. Having B) about
become frustrated trying to solve difficult problems, C) upon
D) for
24 no colleagues were nearby to share ideas. It was
during this time that I read an article 25 into coworking
spaces.

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26
88 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
The article, published by Forbes magazine, explained 26

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
that coworking spaces are designated locations that, for a A) NO CHANGE
B) equipment, such as:
fee, individuals can use to conduct their work. The spaces
C) equipment such as:
are usually stocked with standard office 26 equipment, D) equipment, such as,
such as photocopiers, printers, and fax machines. 27 In
these locations, however, the spaces often include small 27
meeting areas and larger rooms for hosting presentations. A) NO CHANGE
B) In addition to equipment,
28 The cost of launching a new coworking business in
C) For these reasons,
the United States is estimated to be approximately
D) Likewise,
$58,000.

28
The writer is considering deleting the underlined
sentence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
A) Kept, because it provides a detail that supports
the main topic of the paragraph.
B) Kept, because it sets up the main topic of the
paragraph that follows.
C) Deleted, because it blurs the paragraph©s main
focus with a loosely related detail.
D) Deleted, because it repeats information that has
been provided in an earlier paragraph.

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27
89 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
What most caught my interest, though, was a 29

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
quotation from someone who described coworking At this point, the writer wants to add specific
information that supports the main topic of the
spaces as “melting pots of creativity.” The article refers to paragraph.
a 2012 survey in which 29 64 percent of respondents Perceived Effect of Coworking on Business Skills
noted that coworking spaces prevented them from
positive impact negative impact
completing tasks in a given time. The article goes on to
suggest that the most valuable resources provided by ideas relating 74%
to business 2%
coworking spaces are actually the people 30 whom use
creativity 71%
them. 3%

ability to focus 68%


12%
completing tasks 64%
in a given time 8%

standard of work 62%


3%
Adapted from “The 3rd Global Coworking Survey.” ©2013 by
Deskmag.

Which choice most effectively completes the


sentence with relevant and accurate information
based on the graph above?
A) NO CHANGE
B) 71 percent of respondents indicated that using a
coworking space increased their creativity.
C) respondents credited coworking spaces with
giving them 74 percent of their ideas relating to
business.
D) respondents revealed that their ability to focus
on their work improved by 12 percent in a
coworking space.

30
A) NO CHANGE
B) whom uses
C) who uses
D) who use

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28
90 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
[1] Thus, even though I already had all the 31

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
equipment I needed in my home office, I decided to try The writer wants to add the following sentence to the
paragraph.
using a coworking space in my city. [2] Because I was
After filling out a simple registration form and
specifically interested in coworking’s reported benefits taking a quick tour of the facility, I took a seat at
related to creativity, I chose a facility that offered a bright, a table and got right to work on my laptop.
The best placement for the sentence is immediately
open work area where I wouldn’t be isolated.
A) before sentence 1.
[3] Throughout the morning, more people appeared.
B) after sentence 1.
[4] Periods of quiet, during which everyone worked C) after sentence 2.
independently, were broken up occasionally with lively D) after sentence 3.
conversation. 31
I liked the experience so much that I now go to the 32
A) NO CHANGE
coworking space a few times a week. Over time, I’ve
B) colleagues;
gotten to know several of my coworking 32 colleagues: C) colleagues,
another website developer, a graphic designer, a freelance D) colleagues
writer, and several mobile app coders. Even those of us
who work in disparate fields are able to 33 share advice 33
A) NO CHANGE
and help each other brainstorm. In fact, it’s the diversity
B) give some wisdom
of their talents and experiences that makes my coworking C) proclaim our opinions
colleagues so valuable. D) opine

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29
91 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. 34

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
A) NO CHANGE
The Consolations of Philosophy B) For example,
C) In contrast,
Long viewed by many as the stereotypical useless
D) Nevertheless,
major, philosophy is now being seen by many students
and prospective employers as in fact a very useful and
35
practical major, offering students a host of transferable A) NO CHANGE
skills with relevance to the modern workplace. 34 In B) speaking in a more pragmatic way,
broad terms, philosophy is the study of meaning and the C) speaking in a way more pragmatically,
D) in a more pragmatic-speaking way,
values underlying thought and behavior. But 35 more
pragmatically, the discipline encourages students to
36
analyze complex material, question conventional beliefs, A) NO CHANGE
and express thoughts in a concise manner. B) teaches
Because philosophy 36 teaching students not what C) to teach
D) and teaching
to think but how to think, the age-old discipline offers
consistently useful tools for academic and professional
37
achievement. 37 A 1994 survey concluded that only
Which choice most effectively sets up the
18 percent of American colleges required at least one information that follows?
A) Consequently, philosophy students have been
philosophy course. 38 Therefore, between 1992 and
receiving an increasing number of job offers.
1996, more than 400 independent philosophy B) Therefore, because of the evidence, colleges
increased their offerings in philosophy.
departments were eliminated from institutions.
C) Notwithstanding the attractiveness of this course
of study, students have resisted majoring in
philosophy.
D) However, despite its many utilitarian benefits,
colleges have not always supported the study of
philosophy.

38
A) NO CHANGE
B) Thus,
C) Moreover,
D) However,

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30
92 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
More recently, colleges have recognized the 39

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
practicality and increasing popularity of studying Which choice most effectively combines the
sentences at the underlined portion?
philosophy and have markedly increased the number of
A) writing as
philosophy programs offered. By 2008 there were B) writing, and these results can be
817 programs, up from 765 a decade before. In addition, C) writing, which can also be
the number of four-year graduates in philosophy has D) writing when the results are

grown 46 percent in a decade. Also, studies have found


40
that those students who major in philosophy often do
A) NO CHANGE
better than students from other majors in both verbal B) have scored
reasoning and analytical 39 writing. These results can be C) scores
measured by standardized test scores. On the Graduate D) scoring

Record Examination (GRE), for example, students


41
intending to study philosophy in graduate school 40 has
A) NO CHANGE
scored higher than students in all but four other majors. B) students majoring
These days, many 41 student’s majoring in C) students major
philosophy have no intention of becoming philosophers; D) student©s majors

instead they plan to apply those skills to other disciplines.


42
Law and business specifically benefit from the
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
complicated theoretical issues raised in the study of following sentence.
philosophy, but philosophy can be just as useful in The ancient Greek philosopher Plato, for example,
engineering or any field requiring complex analytic skills. wrote many of his works in the form of dialogues.
Should the writer make this addition here?
42 That these skills are transferable across professions
A) Yes, because it reinforces the passage©s main
point about the employability of philosophy
majors.
B) Yes, because it acknowledges a common
counterargument to the passage©s central claim.
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph©s focus by
introducing a new idea that goes unexplained.
D) No, because it undermines the passage©s claim
about the employability of philosophy majors.

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31
93 CO NTI N U E
2 W2 2
43 which makes them especially beneficial to 43

.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
twenty-first-century students. Because today’s students A) NO CHANGE
B) that
can expect to hold multiple jobs—some of which may not
C) and
even exist yet—during 44 our lifetime, studying
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
philosophy allows them to be flexible and adaptable.
High demand, advanced exam scores, and varied 44
professional skills all argue for maintaining and A) NO CHANGE

enhancing philosophy courses and majors within B) one©s


C) his or her
academic institutions.
D) their

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal. 94


32
%
Math%
%
%
For Math Practice SATs:

SAT #1 SAT #2

Word Problems No Calculator: No Calculator:


3, 4, 6, 11, 17 3, 8, 14, 16

Calculator: Calculator:
1, 13, 14, 19, 20, 21, 25, 26, 27, 1, 2, 3, 8, 13, 15, 16, 17, 18, 27,
31, 32, 33, 34 31, 32, 34, 35

Follow-Up 15, 16, 22, 23, 37, 38 4, 5, 19, 20, 22, 23, 37, 38
Questions

%
%
% %
95
New Information about the Math SAT
1. The Math section of the Redesigned SAT will increase its focus on algebraic and
general problem solving, as well as data interpretation. Geometry will still be
present, but it will account for a much smaller portion of the test (10% instead of
25%) with trigonometry (<5%).
2. There is now a calculator-free portion.
3. Extended-thinking questions: these questions will be word problems followed by
several related questions, all of which test your problem solving skills. The
answers to these questions will be “open” (or student produced), rather than
multiple-choice. These questions are not only based on realistic scenarios but
also present more complicated situations that require understanding what math
concepts to employ.
4. More real-life situations and word problems.
5. Questions are more straightforward.

SAT Math Tips:


1. Answer the question that is being asked (solve for x, then plug it back
in). Underline key portions of the problem to remind yourself what it is ultimately
asking of you.
2. Translate words into math (i.e. of = multiplication)
3. Look for consecutive problems that pull from the same graph/data chart to ask
questions. To start preparing for these extended thinking questions, treat all math
problems as essentially “open” – solve each practice question with the possible
responses covered, and write your answer in the margin. After you finish,
compare your result with the answer key.
4. Answer all the beginning questions before moving on to the more difficult
questions. Questions go from easy to difficult. First third are easy, second third
are medium, and last third are difficult.
5. Look for wrong answers to eliminate because you are no longer penalized for
answering incorrectly; eliminating one answer will increase your odds of getting it
correct.
6. Use the figure shown to help solve the problem when it does NOT say “figure not
drawn to scale”
7. Plug in numbers to the given formula (backsolve) in order to save time.
8. Pick numbers for variables (never 0 or 1 because they have special properties) to
skip using involved algebraic equations.
%

% %

96
3 M3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
25 M I NU TES, 2 0 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.


2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

!
r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = !w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr

h r r h h
h
w r w
! !
V = !wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 !wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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34
97 CO NTI N U E
3 M3 3

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
1 3
x−1 On Saturday afternoon, Armand sent m text
If = k and k = 3, what is the value of x ? messages each hour for 5 hours, and Tyrone sent p
3
text messages each hour for 4 hours. Which of the
A) 2 following represents the total number of messages
B) 4 sent by Armand and Tyrone on Saturday afternoon?
C) 9 A) 9mp
D) 10
B) 20mp
C) 5m + 4p
D) 4m + 5p

2
For i = −1 , what is the sum (7 + 3i) + (−8 + 9i) ?
A) −1 + 12i 4
B) −1 − 6i Kathy is a repair technician for a phone company.
C) 15 + 12i Each week, she receives a batch of phones that need
D) 15 − 6i repairs. The number of phones that she has left to fix
at the end of each day can be estimated with the
equation P = 108 − 23d, where P is the number of
phones left and d is the number of days she has
worked that week. What is the meaning of the
value 108 in this equation?
A) Kathy will complete the repairs within 108 days.
B) Kathy starts each week with 108 phones to fix.
C) Kathy repairs phones at a rate of 108 per hour.
D) Kathy repairs phones at a rate of 108 per day.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.


35
98 CO NTI N U E
3 M3 3
5 7

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
r N
2 2 2 2 2 2
(x y − 3y + 5xy ) − (− x y + 3xy − 3y )  r 
 1 + 
Which of the following is equivalent to the  1,200  1,200 
m= N P
expression above?  r 
1 +  −1
 1,200 
A) 4x 2y 2
The formula above gives the monthly payment m
B) 8xy 2 − 6y 2 needed to pay off a loan of P dollars at r percent
annual interest over N months. Which of the
C) 2x 2y + 2xy 2
following gives P in terms of m, r, and N ?
D) 2x 2y + 8xy 2 − 6y 2
 r  r N
 1 + 
 1,200  1,200 
A) P = N m
 r 
1 +  − 1
 1,200 

 r N
1 +  − 1
6
 1,200 
B) P = N m
 r  r 
h = 3a + 28.6  1 + 
 1,200  1,200 
A pediatrician uses the model above to estimate the
height h of a boy, in inches, in terms of the boy’s
age a, in years, between the ages of 2 and 5. Based  r 
on the model, what is the estimated increase, in C) P =  m
 1,200 
inches, of a boy’s height each year?
A) 3
B) 5.7
C) 9.5  1,200 
D) P =  m
D) 14.3  r 

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36
99 CO NTI N U E
3 M3 3
8 11

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
a 4b b = 2.35 + 0.25x
If = 2, what is the value of ?
b a c = 1.75 + 0.40x
A) 0 In the equations above, b and c represent the price
B) 1 per pound, in dollars, of beef and chicken,
C) 2 respectively, x weeks after July 1 during last
summer. What was the price per pound of beef when
D) 4 it was equal to the price per pound of chicken?
A) $2.60
B) $2.85
C) $2.95
D) $3.35

9
3x + 4y = −23
2y − x = −19
What is the solution (x, y ) to the system of equations
above? 12
A) (−5, −2)
A line in the xy-plane passes through the origin and
B) (3, −8)
1
C) (4, −6) has a slope of . Which of the following points lies
7
D) (9, −6)
on the line?

A) (0, 7)
B) (1, 7)
C) (7, 7)
D) (14, 2)
10

g (x ) = ax 2 + 24
For the function g defined above, a is a constant
and g(4) = 8. What is the value of g(−4) ?
A) 8
B) 0
C) −1
D) −8

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37
100 CO NTI N U E
3 M3 3
13 15

...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
If x > 3, which of the following is equivalent If (ax + 2)(bx + 7) = 15x 2 + cx + 14 for all values of
x, and a + b = 8, what are the two possible
1
to 1 1 ? values for c ?
+
x+2 x+3 A) 3 and 5
B) 6 and 35
2x + 5 C) 10 and 21
A) 2
x + 5x + 6 D) 31 and 41
x 2 + 5x + 6
B)
2x + 5

C) 2x + 5

D) x 2 + 5x + 6

14

8x
If 3x − y = 12 , what is the value of y ?
2
A) 212
B) 44
C) 82
D) The value cannot be determined from the
information given.

Unauthorized copying or reuse of any part of this page is illegal.


38
101 CO NTI N U E
3 3
7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
For questions 16–20, solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

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39
102 CO NTI N U E
3 M3 3
16 18

.......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
If t > 0 and t 2 − 4 = 0 , what is the value of t ? x + y = −9
x + 2y = −25
According to the system of equations above, what is
the value of x ?

17
A

19

In a right triangle, one angle measures x°, where


4
sin x ° = . What is cos(90° − x °) ?
x feet D 5
B

E
C
20
A summer camp counselor wants to find a length, x,
If a = 5 2 and 2a = 2x , what is the value of x ?
in feet, across a lake as represented in the sketch
above. The lengths represented by AB, EB, BD, and
CD on the sketch were determined to be 1800 feet,
1400 feet, 700 feet, and 800 feet, respectively.
Segments AC and DE intersect at B, and ∠ AEB
and ∠ CDB have the same measure. What is the
value of x ?

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4 M4 4
Math Test – Calculator
55 M I NU TES, 3 8 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

1. The use of a calculator is permitted.


2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.

!
r c 2x 60° s 45° s√2
w h b x
30° 45°
b a x√3 s
A = pr 2 A = !w 1
A = bh c 2 = a2 + b 2 Special Right Triangles
2
C = 2pr

h r r h h
h
w r w
! !
V = !wh V = pr 2h 4
V = pr 3
1
V = pr 2h V = 1 !wh
3 3 3
The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2p.
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

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3
John runs at different speeds as part of his training s t
program. The graph shows his target heart rate at
different times during his workout. On which 1 !
interval is the target heart rate strictly increasing then
strictly decreasing?
2
m
Target heart rate (beats per minute)

160

120 In the figure above, lines and m are parallel and


lines s and t are parallel. If the measure of ∠1 is
35° , what is the measure of ∠2 ?
80 A) 35°
B) 55°
40 C) 70°
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 D) 145°
Time (minutes)
A) Between 0 and 30 minutes
B) Between 40 and 60 minutes
C) Between 50 and 65 minutes
D) Between 70 and 90 minutes
4
If 16 + 4x is 10 more than 14, what is the
value of 8x ?
A) 2
B) 6
2 C) 16
If y = kx , where k is a constant, and y = 24 when D) 80
x = 6 , what is the value of y when x = 5 ?
A) 6
B) 15
C) 20
D) 23

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5 6

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Which of the following graphs best shows a strong
1 decagram = 10 grams
negative association between d and t ?
1,000 milligrams = 1 gram
A) t
A hospital stores one type of medicine in 2-decagram
containers. Based on the information given in the
box above, how many 1-milligram doses are there in
one 2-decagram container?
d
A) 0.002
B) t B) 200
C) 2,000
D) 20,000

C) t

D) t

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Rooftop Solar Panel For what value of n is n − 1 + 1 equal to 0 ?
Installations in Five Cities
9 A) 0
8 B) 1
7 C) 2
6 D) There is no such value of n.
5
4
3
2
1
0
A B C D E
City

The number of rooftops with solar panel installations


in 5 cities is shown in the graph above. If the total
number of installations is 27,500, what is an
appropriate label for the vertical axis of the graph?
A) Number of installations (in tens)
B) Number of installations (in hundreds)
C) Number of installations (in thousands)
D) Number of installations (in tens of thousands)

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Questions 9 and 10 refer to the following information.
Which of the following numbers is NOT a solution
a = 1,052 + 1.08t of the inequality 3x − 5 ≥ 4x − 3 ?
The speed of a sound wave in air depends on the air A) −1
temperature. The formula above shows the relationship
B) −2
between a, the speed of a sound wave, in feet per second,
and t, the air temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit (°F). C) −3
D) −5

9
Which of the following expresses the air temperature
in terms of the speed of a sound wave?
a − 1,052
A) t =
1.08
12
a + 1,052
B) t = Number of Seeds in Each of 12 Apples
1.08
Number of apples 5
1,052 − a 4
C) t = 3
1.08
2
1.08 1
D) t =
a + 1,052 0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Number of seeds

Based on the histogram above, of the following,


which is closest to the average (arithmetic mean)
number of seeds per apple?
10 A) 4
At which of the following air temperatures will the B) 5
speed of a sound wave be closest to 1,000 feet per C) 6
second?
D) 7
A) −46°F
B) −48°F
C) −49°F
D) −50°F

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13

Course
Algebra
Algebra I Geometry Total
II
Gender Female 35 53 62 150
Male 44 59 57 160
Total 79 112 119 310

A group of tenth-grade students responded to a survey that asked which math course they were currently enrolled in.
The survey data were broken down as shown in the table above. Which of the following categories accounts for
approximately 19 percent of all the survey respondents?
A) Females taking Geometry
B) Females taking Algebra II
C) Males taking Geometry
D) Males taking Algebra I

14
...................................................................................................................................................................................

Lengths of Fish (in inches)


8 9 9 9 10 10 11
11 12 12 12 12 13 13
13 14 14 15 15 16 24

The table above lists the lengths, to the nearest inch,


of a random sample of 21 brown bullhead fish. The
outlier measurement of 24 inches is an error. Of the
mean, median, and range of the values listed, which
will change the most if the 24-inch measurement is
removed from the data?
A) Mean
B) Median
C) Range
D) They will all change by the same amount.

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Which of the following represents the relationship
Questions 15 and 16 refer to the following between h and C ?
information.

Total Cost of Renting A) C = 5h


C a Boat by the Hour
3
20 B) C = h+5
4
18
16 C) C = 3h + 5
Total cost (dollars)

14
12
D) h = 3C
10
8
6

4
2
0 h
0 1 2 3 4 5
Time (hours)

The graph above displays the total cost C, in dollars, of


renting a boat for h hours.
17
y
15
What does the C-intercept represent in the graph?
A) The initial cost of renting the boat y = f(x)
B) The total number of boats rented
C) The total number of hours the boat is rented 1
D) The increase in cost to rent the boat for each x
O 1
additional hour

The complete graph of the function f is shown in the


xy-plane above. For what value of x is the value of
f (x ) at its minimum?
A) −5
B) −3
C) −2
D) 3

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y < −x + a A food truck sells salads for $6.50 each and drinks for
y > x+b $2.00 each. The food truck’s revenue from selling a
total of 209 salads and drinks in one day was
In the xy-plane, if (0, 0) is a solution to the system of $836.50. How many salads were sold that day?
inequalities above, which of the following
A) 77
relationships between a and b must be true?
B) 93
A) a > b C) 99
B) b > a D) 105
C) a > b
D) a = − b

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Alma bought a laptop computer at a store that gave a Dreams Recalled during One Week
20 percent discount off its original price. The total
amount she paid to the cashier was p dollars, None 1 to 4 5 or more Total
including an 8 percent sales tax on the discounted Group X 15 28 57 100
price. Which of the following represents the original
price of the computer in terms of p ? Group Y 21 11 68 100
Total 36 39 125 200
A) 0.88p
The data in the table above were produced by a sleep
p researcher studying the number of dreams people
B) recall when asked to record their dreams for one
0.88
week. Group X consisted of 100 people who
observed early bedtimes, and Group Y consisted of
C) (0.8)(1.08) p
100 people who observed later bedtimes. If a person
is chosen at random from those who recalled
p at least 1 dream, what is the probability that the
D)
(0.8)(1.08) person belonged to Group Y ?
68
A)
100
79
B)
100
79
C)
164
164
D)
200

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112 CO NTI N U E
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Questions 22 and 23 refer to the following information.
Annual Budgets for Different Programs in Kansas, 2007 to 2010

Year
Program
2007 2008 2009 2010

Agriculture/natural resources 373,904 358,708 485,807 488,106

Education 2,164,607 2,413,984 2,274,514 3,008,036

General government 14,347,325 12,554,845 10,392,107 14,716,155

Highways and transportation 1,468,482 1,665,636 1,539,480 1,773,893

Human resources 4,051,050 4,099,067 4,618,444 5,921,379

Public safety 263,463 398,326 355,935 464,233

The table above lists the annual budget, in thousands of dollars, for each of six different state
programs in Kansas from 2007 to 2010.

22 23
.....................................................................................................................................

Which of the following best approximates the Of the following, which program’s ratio of its
average rate of change in the annual budget for 2007 budget to its 2010 budget is closest to the
agriculture/natural resources in Kansas from 2008 to human resources program’s ratio of its 2007 budget
2010 ? to its 2010 budget?
A) $50,000,000 per year A) Agriculture/natural resources
B) $65,000,000 per year B) Education
C) $75,000,000 per year C) Highways and transportation
D) $130,000,000 per year D) Public safety

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Katarina is a botanist studying the production of
Which of the following is an equation of a circle in pears by two types of pear trees. She noticed that
Type A trees produced 20 percent more pears
the xy-plane with center (0, 4) and a radius with than Type B trees did. Based on Katarina’s
observation, if the Type A trees produced 144 pears,
4  how many pears did the Type B trees produce?
endpoint  , 5 ?
 3 
A) 115
25 B) 120
A) x 2 + ( y − 4)2 =
9 C) 124
25 D) 173
B) x 2 + ( y + 4)2 =
9
5
C) x 2 + ( y − 4)2 =
3
3
D) x 2 + ( y + 4)2 =
5
27
A square field measures 10 meters by 10 meters.
Ten students each mark off a randomly selected
region of the field; each region is square and has side
lengths of 1 meter, and no two regions overlap. The
students count the earthworms contained in the soil
25 to a depth of 5 centimeters beneath the ground’s
surface in each region. The results are shown in the
h = − 4.9t 2 + 25t table below.
The equation above expresses the approximate
Number of Number of
height h, in meters, of a ball t seconds after it is Region Region
earthworms earthworms
launched vertically upward from the ground with an
A 107 F 141
initial velocity of 25 meters per second. After
approximately how many seconds will the ball hit the B 147 G 150
ground? C 146 H 154
D 135 I 176
A) 3.5 E 149 J 166
B) 4.0
C) 4.5 Which of the following is a reasonable
approximation of the number of earthworms to a
D) 5.0
depth of 5 centimeters beneath the ground’s surface
in the entire field?
A) 150
B) 1,500
C) 15,000
D) 150,000

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...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
y y

20 y = x2 2x 15
II I
15
x
10
III IV 5
x
5 4 3 2 1O 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
5
10
If the system of inequalities y ≥ 2x + 1 and
15
1 A
y> x − 1 is graphed in the xy-plane above, which 20
2
quadrant contains no solutions to the system?
Which of the following is an equivalent form of the
A) Quadrant II equation of the graph shown in the xy-plane above,
B) Quadrant III from which the coordinates of vertex A can be
identified as constants in the equation?
C) Quadrant IV
D) There are solutions in all four quadrants. A) y = (x + 3)(x − 5)
B) y = (x − 3)(x + 5)
C) y = x(x − 2) − 15
D) y = (x − 1)2 − 16

29
For a polynomial p(x ) , the value of p(3) is −2.
Which of the following must be true about p(x ) ?
A) x − 5 is a factor of p(x ) .
B) x − 2 is a factor of p(x ) .
C) x + 2 is a factor of p(x ) .
D) The remainder when p(x ) is divided
by x − 3 is −2.

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7
Answer: 12 Answer: 2.5
DIRECTIONS
Write
solve the problem and answer 7 / 12 2 . 5
enter your answer in the grid, as described in boxes. / / Fraction / /
below, on the answer sheet. line
. . . . . . . . Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point

1. Although not required, it is suggested that 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1


you write your answer in the boxes at the top 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
of the columns to help you fill in the circles Grid in 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
accurately. You will receive credit only if the result. 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
circles are filled in correctly. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column. 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
3. No question has a negative answer. 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
4. Some problems may have more than one 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
correct answer. In such cases, grid only one 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
answer.
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded 2
Acceptable ways to grid 3 are:
2
as 3.5 or 7/2. (If 3 1 / 2 is entered into the
/ / 2 / 3 . 666 . 667
grid, it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .) / / / / / /
2 2 . . . . . . . . . . . .
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
answer with more digits than the grid can 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
accommodate, it may be either rounded or 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Answer: 201 – either position is correct
NOTE: You
201 201 may start your
/ / / / answers in any
column, space
. . . . .. . .
permitting.
0 0 0 0 0 0 Columns you
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 don’t need to
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 use should be
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 left blank.

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...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Wyatt can husk at least 12 dozen ears of corn per Number of Portable Media Players
hour and at most 18 dozen ears of corn per hour. Sold Worldwide Each Year from 2006 to 2011
Based on this information, what is a possible amount
of time, in hours, that it could take Wyatt to husk 180

Number sold (millions)


72 dozen ears of corn? 160
140
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
2006 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011
32 Year
The posted weight limit for a covered wooden bridge
in Pennsylvania is 6000 pounds. A delivery truck
that is carrying x identical boxes each weighing According to the line graph above, the number of
14 pounds will pass over the bridge. If the combined portable media players sold in 2008 is what fraction
weight of the empty delivery truck and its driver is of the number sold in 2011 ?
4500 pounds, what is the maximum possible value
for x that will keep the combined weight of the
truck, driver, and boxes below the bridge’s posted
weight limit?

34
A local television station sells time slots for programs
in 30-minute intervals. If the station operates
24 hours per day, every day of the week, what is the
total number of 30-minute time slots the station can
sell for Tuesday and Wednesday?

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35 ▼

.....................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following
information.

Jessica opened a bank account that earns 2 percent


8 yards interest compounded annually. Her initial deposit was
$100, and she uses the expression $100(x )t to find the
value of the account after t years.

37
A dairy farmer uses a storage silo that is in the shape
of the right circular cylinder above. If the volume of What is the value of x in the expression?
the silo is 72π cubic yards, what is the diameter of
the base of the cylinder, in yards?

38
Jessica’s friend Tyshaun found an account that earns
36 2.5 percent interest compounded annually. Tyshaun
made an initial deposit of $100 into this account at
1 the same time Jessica made a deposit of $100 into her
h(x ) = 2
(x − 5) + 4(x − 5) + 4 account. After 10 years, how much more money will
For what value of x is the function h above Tyshaun’s initial deposit have earned than Jessica’s
undefined? initial deposit? (Round your answer to the nearest
cent and ignore the dollar sign when gridding your
response.)

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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56

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