OS-OD-ROENT MAY 2 B.

Remove the tuberosity from the tooth and reimplant

the tuberosity
1. Which of the following pathologic conditions should be C. No special treatment is necessary
considered in a patient whose CBC shows an elevated
eosinophil count? 8. The most common complaint of gingival bleeding is the
A. Allergic reaction result of:
B. Asthma A. Local irritating factors
C. Pemphigus B. Monocytic leukemia
D. Parasitic infection C. Vitamin C deficiency
E. All of these D. Diabetes mellitus

2. Treatment of dry sockets include: 9. Developmental disturbances which result in unusual size
A. Sedative dressings, analgesics, oral hygiene and and/or shape of teeth most frequently occur in:
antibiotics A. 3rd molars and max lateral incisors
B. ASA in extraction socket B. 3rd molars and mand incisors
C. Morphine 10mg intramuscular every 6hrs C. Max and mand incisors
D. Silver nitrate dressings of dry socket D. 3rd molars, mand second bicuspids
E. None of these
10. Which artery descends on the posterior surface of the
3. A subjective sensation associated with a feeling of maxilla and supplies the maxillary sinus and maxillary
inadequate respiration is: molar and premolar teeth?
A. Dyspnea A. Posterior superior alveolar artery
B. Bradypnea B. Sphenopalatine artery
C. Tachypnea C. Greater palatine artery
D. Bronchial obstruction D. Infraorbital artery

4. In preparing the edentulous mandible for dentures, each 11. Dryness of the skin, lips and fingernails, thin sparse head
of the following maybe safely excised except? and eyebrow and congenital absence of numerous teeth
A. The genial tubercle are all associated with:
B. The mylohyoid ridge A. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
C. A lingual frenum B. Gardner’s syndrome (familial adenomatous polypsis)
D. A labial frenum C. Osteogenesis imperfecta (blue sclera, dentinogenesis
E. An exostosis imperfect, bone fragility)
D. Albers-Schonberg disease (osteopetrosis)
5. All of the following are contraindications to tooth
extraction except: 12. All of the following are true statements concerning the
A. Acute dentoalveolar abscess principles of the suturing technique except:
B. Acute pericoronitis A. Tissues should be closed under tension
C. End-stage renal disease B. Sutures should be placed form thin tissue to thick
D. Acute infectious stomatitis tissue
C. Sutures should be placed from mobile tissue to thick
6. All of the following are requirements for an adequate tissue
trapezoidal flap, except: D. Sutures should be placed at an equal distance from
A. Mucous membrane carefully separated from the wound margin (2-3mm) and at equal depths
periosteum E. The needle should be perpendicular when it enter
B. Base containing blood supply the tissue
C. Base wider than free margin
D. Flap wider than the bony defect that will be present 13. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant
at the conclusion of the operation cell granuloma. For definitive diagnosis, serum calcium
E. None of these level should be determined to distinguish between
granuloma and:
7. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, you realize A. Hyperparathyroidism
the tuberosity has also been extracted. What is the B. Osteoporosis
proper treatment in this case? C. Fibrous dysplasia
A. Smooth sharp edges of the remaining bone and D. Osteogenesis imperfect
suture the remaining soft tissue E. Paget disease of bone

1
 20. An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the
14. In case of muscle trismus, treatment in sufficiently severe following lesions?
cases is: A. A 3.0cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate
A. Muscle relaxant B. A 3.0cm hemangioma of the tongue
B. Sedative C. A 2.0cm area of Fordyce’s disease of the cheek
C. Analgesic D. A 2.0cm exostosis of the hard palate
D. Hemostatic E. A 0.5 cm papillary fibroma of the gingiva
E. Anti-thrombotic
21. Atropine and scopolamine have similar pharmacologic
15. In the absence of systemic disease, most common effects. Which of the following actions does only
infections originating within the oral cavity usually are scopolamine have? EXCEPT:?
localized and respond well to mechanical forms of A. CNS depression
therapy alone. Signs and symptoms involvement which B. Cycloplegia
indicate treatment of these conditions with antibiotic C. Mydriasis
include the following except: D. Prevention of cardiac slowing during general
A. Redness and tenderness of an operculum anesthesia
B. Elevation of temperature E. Reduction of salivation
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Trismus and/or pain in swallowing 22. 18 yr. old dentition revealed a severe enamel hypoplasia
of the mandible left second bicuspid. This turner tooth is
16. Prolonged antibiotic administration is known to result in most likely to have developed as a result of:
the presence of: A. Periapical infection of its deciduous predecessor
A. Black hairy (elongated papillae) B. Congenital syphilis
B. Median rhomboid glossitis C. An exanthematous fever during its calcification
C. Geographic tongue (smooth depapillation, stress, D. Vit. B deficiency
habits)
D. Cremated tongue (scalloped tongue- 23. A 4 year old male patients dentition revealed a
hyperthyroidism) pronounced yellow green discoloration of crowns of
entire dentition. The father reported multiple blood
17. A 38-year old female brought her teenaged children for transfusions at the time of birth. These findings are
initial examination. On the buccal mucosa of each were suggestive of:
detected white corrugated, firm, non-tender lesions. The A. Erythroblastosis fetalis (anemia, Rh, ABO
strongest clinical suspicion is: incompatibility, jaundice)
A. White sponge nevus B. Dentinogenesis imperfect
B. Leukodema (streaked lesions, milky opalescent) C. Amelogenesis imperfect
C. An atypical form of lichen planus (keratotic and D. Fluorosis (enamel hypoplasia)
erosive)
D. Hyperkeratotic (overgrowth of epithelial cells) 24. Which of the following chemical mediators are released
into the wound to recruit neutrophils and monocytes to
18. Precocious (advance) eruption of teeth is known to be the site of injury?
associated with: A. Cytokines
A. Hyperthyroidism and hyperpituitarism B. Leukotrienes
B. Hypoparathyroidism (due to neck surgery e.g. C. Kinnins
thyroidectomy, paresthesia of the mouth, enamel D. Prostaglandins
hypoplasia, delayed eruption of teeth)
C. Excessive Vit. A intake 25. It is a localized growth of compact bone that extend from
D. Hyperparathyroidism (stones, bones and abdominal the inner surface of the cortical bone into the cancellous
groans) bone
A. Exostosis
19. Characteristic clinical finding in hereditary gingival B. Tuberosity
fibromatosis include all of the following except: C. Torus palatinus
A. Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage D. Torus mandibularis
B. Pink gingival color
C. Generalized gingival enlargement 26. A radiographic technique that will detect and monitor
salivary gland diseases is?
A. Sialography

2
 B. Anthography
C. Ultrasonography 33. The primary purpose of a lead diaphragm within the cone
D. None of the above of an x-ray tube head is to:
A. Restrict size and shape of the beam of radiation
27. Leukoedema, occasional observed on the buccal mucosa, B. Increase penetrating qualities of the beam
is characterized by a clinical appearance of: C. Eliminate long wavelength x-ray photons
A. Milky white, translucent coloration of the mucosa D. Reduce or eliminate tube head leakage
with minute “hanging” folds of the tissue
B. White lesions with lacelike configuration (lichen 34. The electrons that revolve in shells around the nucleus:
planus) A. Have a negative charge
C. Erosions B. Have a positive charge
D. Raised, white lesions with annular configuration C. Have no charge, either positive or negative
D. Have either a positive or negative charge
28. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR)
A. Suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in 35. It appears on intraoral periapical radiographs as a thin
the body radiolucent line in the midline between the two positions
B. Is due to an increase in the size and weight of the of the maxilla
RBC A. Intermaxillary suture
C. Is the result of high blood pressure B. Nasal spine
D. Is specific for rheumatic fever C. Nasal fossa
D. Incisive foramen

36. The technique that show the upper and lower crowns on
29. The sign which indicates that a tooth is most severely the same radiograph is called the:
periodontally involves is: A. Bite wing technique
A. Depressibility and/or rotatability B. Bisecting angle technique
B. 3rd degree mobility C. Paralleling technique
C. Pocket depth of 5mm D. Occlusal technique
D. Radiographic evidence of 50% bone loss

30. A program of prevention is of utmost importance in the 37. The advantage of the paralleling technique over the
patient undergoing radiation therapy to the head and bisecting angle technique is:
neck area are because of known development of A. The increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic
rampant caries shortly after such therapy. Rampant image
caries is of high incidence in these patients because? B. The increase object-film distance
A. Xerostomia invariably occurs and persists for about a C. The greater the magnification of the image
year after treatment D. That the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary
B. Gingiva recession produced by the radiation exposes line drawn through half the angle between the long
the cementum axis of the teeth and the film
C. Of direct effect of radiation
D. Of composite of blood supply to all the oral cavity 38. A depression in the bone on the lingual surface of the
mandibular body, immediately below the mylohyoid
31. The CC of a 19 year old male patient was soreness of the ridge in the molar area is:
right TMJ and some pain on mastication. He reported a A. Submandibular gland fossa
bumped in the jaw in an automative accident. A clinical B. Inferior borer of the mandible
sign of altered function which would substantiate the C. External oblique ridge
suspicion of a fracture on the right condyle is: D. Internal oblique ridge
A. Deviation of the mandible to the right, on opening E. Mandibular canal
B. Inability to wink on the right eye
C. Deviation of the mandible to the left, on opening 39. Of the following factors affecting magnification, which
D. Inability to protrude the mandible does the operator NOT have control over?
A. Focal spot size
32. All of the following belong to the lector-magnetic B. Source-film distance
radiation except: C. Film-object distance
A. UV ray B. Gamma ray C. X-ray D. Central ray direction
D. Beta ray E. Film parallelism

3
 47. A periapical radiograph of the left maxillary canine shows
40. The target in an anode of the x-ray tube is set in a stem an elongated tooth which does not capture the apex of
of: the canine. While taking the periapical of the left max
A. Copper B. Cobalt C. Glass D. Brass canine, the operator had an:
A. Incorrect vertical angulation
41. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the B. Incorrect horizontal angulation
operator receives the greatest hazard from which type of C. Wrong usage of film
radiation? D. None of these
A. Secondary and scatter
B. Scatter 48. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating:
C. Direct primary beam A. Sialoliths in Wharton’s duct
D. Secondary B. The hyoid bone
E. Gamma C. Maxillary sinus mucocele
D. The mental foramen
42. Which of the following statements are false? Tungsten is E. Sialoliths in Stensen’s duct
used as a target material because:
1. Of its ability to decelerate electrons coming from the 49. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing:
cathode A. Source-film distance
2. Of its low vapor pressure at high temperature B. Kilovoltage
3. It has high atomic number C. Milliamperage
4. It has high degree of thermal conductivity D. Diameter of the aperture
5. It has a light nucleus with few orbiting electrons to E. Exposure time
interfere with the flow of electrons
A. 1 & 2 50. When a photon gives up its energy to dislodge and
B. 1& 3 orbiting electron, the process is called:
C. 2 & 4 A. Photoelectric
D. 3 & 5 B. Coherent scattering
E. 4 & 5 C. Compton scattering
D. Roentgen
43. An increase in which if the following factors causes an
increase in contrast?
A. Time of exposure
B. Kilovoltage
C. Milliamperage
D. Time of exposure and kilovoltage 51. Major radiographic findings in ectodermal dysplasia
44. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit A. Congenitally missing tooth
determines quality of the x-ray beam? B. Ground glass appearance
A. Autotransfer C. Supernumerary teeth
B. Cathode filament temperature D. Hutchinson’s teeth
C. X-ray timer switch E. Canal obliteration
D. Milliamperage control switch

45. It is produced by the sudden stopping or braking of high- 52. Which of the following is the primary direction of
speed electrons at the target of the anode: luxation for extraction of maxillary deciduous molars?
A. Bremsstrahlung radiation A. Buccal B. Palatal C. Mesial
B. Characteristic radiation D. Distal E. does not matter
C. Particulate radiation
D. All of these 53. When the maxillary sinus is accidentally opened during
surgery, never insert any gauze, drain, or surgical foam
46. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the because it will:
nucleus? A. Cause more pain B. Disturb clot formation
A. K-shell electron C, Induce bleeding
B. L-shell electron D. Cause infection E. None of the above
C. J-shell electron
D. Q-shell electron 54. Because of its root structure, which of the following
teeth is the least responsive to rotation forces during
extraction?
4
 A. mandibular canine D.
mandibular first premolar 62. The most appropriate blade number for the creation of a
B. maxillary central incisor E. mucoperiosteal flap for a maxillary tuberosity reduction:
mandibular second premolar A. #11 B. #12 C. #10 D. #15
C. maxillary first premolar E. none of the choices

55. The most common complication of an open fracture is:

A. nonunion B. malunion C. infection D. 63. Which of the following is the most common cause of
crepitation E. poor alignment of the fracture bleeding disorders?
A. Myelofibrosis D. Polycythemia
56. Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled vera
effectively by: B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia E. Acute
A. Suturing the flaps myelogenous leukemia
B. Applying pressure over the wound C. Thrombocytopenia
C. Applying vasoconstrictors
D. Clamping and tying out vessels 64. The most common cause of delayed wound healing is:
E. None of the above A. Long surgical procedure
B. Tight suture
57. When removing an impacted third molar, a dentist C. Suture not placed directly on the incision line
divides (sections) the tooth for each of the following D. Infection E. None of the above
reasons, except:
A. To shorten the surgical procedure 65. In cases of muscle trismus, treatment in sufficiently
B. To minimize the amount of bone to be removed severe cases is:
C. To allow the tooth to be delivered to the A. Sedative B. Analgesic C. Muscle relaxant D.
occlusal aspect Hemostatic E.Anti-thrombotic
D. To minimize exertion of force necessary to 66. The Z-plasty procedure may be used to correct:
remove the tooth 1. ankyloglossia
2. interfering labial frena
58. On oral surgery, cold compresses are applied 3. oroantral fistula
A. Immediately before surgery 4. sharp mylohyoid ridges:
B. Immediately after surgery A. 1,2 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the
C. To prevent spread of infection choices.
D. To avoid swelling in the area
E. To promote better circulation on the 67. Removal of the entire lesion with a margin of clinically
affected area uninvolved tissue. This procedure is meant to be both
diagnostic and therapeutic?
59. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically when A. punch biopsy C. incisional
the patient says “ah”, it suggests which one of the ffg biopsy
cranial nerves may be damaged? B. brush biopsy D. excisional
A. glossopharyngeal nerve C superior alveolar branch biopsy E. oral cytology
of the trigeminal nerve
B. hypoglossal nerve D. vagus nerve 68. . The prime factor in the regeneration of bone is the:
E. none A. Bone B. Blood C. Periosteum D. Lymph E. None of
60. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the jaw the above
bone penetrating the entire jaw emerging opposite the
entry site usually at the bottom of the chin. 69. A primary consideration for a febrile patient is
A. transosseous B. subperiostea C. endosseous A. Bleeding tendencies D. Neuropathies
D. osteointegration E. none B. Hyperthermia E. Hypertension
C. Hyperglycemia
61. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following
conditions, except 70. Which of the following will most likely cause an
A. Chronic abscess with induration autogenous tooth transplant to fall during the third year?
B. To reduce pressure that has built up A. Development of root caries
C. Acute fluctuant cellulitis B. Ankylosis of the tooth
D. Treatment of deep tissue infection C. An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone
E. None of the above

5
 D. An idiopathic chronic progressive root 79. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the
resorption following, except:
A. a history of allergy
71. The primary treatment modality for ameloblastoma is: B. inspiratory wheezes
A. Marginal or partial resection C. hyperactive bronchi
B. Enucleation and/or curettage D. bronchi that rapidly and spontaneously change
C. Composite resection ` caliber in response to various irritants.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above 80. A patient receives a tentative diagnosis of central giant
cell granuloma. For definitive diagnosis, serum calcium
72. A biopsy should nor be performed on a tissue when the level should be determined to distinguish between
tissue: granuloma and:
A. Suddenly enlarges A. osteopetrosis
B. Is associated with paresthesia B. B. fibrous dysplasia
C. Is pigmented C. hyperparathyroidism
D. Responds to local treatment D. osteogenesis imperfecta
D. All of the above E. Paget disease of bone

73. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root 81. Blood disease related to administration of those drug
of a multirooted tooth due to periodontal disease: aminopyrine, acitophenatidin
A. Crown sectioning B. Hemisection C.. or chloramphenicol:
trephination D. replantation E. transplantation A. aplastic anemia C. pernicious anemia
B. anemia D. Polycythemia
74. The duration of exposure at 170˚C for dry heat
sterilization is: 82. The Steven- Johnson syndrome is closely related to;
A. 1 hour B. 3 hours C. 5 hours A. schleroderma C. pemphigus
D. 7 hours E. 9 hours B. erythema multiforme D. lupus vulgaris

75. The best diagnostic aid to evaluate a maxillary sinus 83. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are
condition is: useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Palpation B. Radiography C. Respirometer D. A. anemia C. vitamin deficiency
Transillumination E. Biopsy B. eosinophilia D. thrombocytopenic purpura
E. spherocytosis
76. An antrostomy is commonly used:
A. to remove high maxillary third molars 84. In cleidocranial dysplasia, most commonly impacted
B. following closure of an oroantral fistula teeth are:
C. to expose a tooth root for apicoectomy A. Maxillary premolars and incisors
D. to establish drainage of an alveolar abscess B. Mandibular incisors and premolars
C. Maxillary molars
77. Excisional biopsy is most appropriate for which of the D. Mandibular molars
following conditions? 85. Which type of impacted tooth removal involves both
A. A 1 –cm exophytic mass on the buccal mucosa bone removal and sectioning?
B. A 2 –cm painless ulcer of ten weeks’ duration A. Horizontal impaction C. Vertical
C. A 3 –cm submucosal indurated lump impaction
D. A leukoplakic area covering most of the buccal B. Mesioangular impaction D. A and B only
mucosa E. A, B, and C

78. Oral surgery to patients currently on steroid therapy will 86. Healing process that takes place following extraction of a
most likely develop tooth may be described as:
A.Bleeding A. healing by first intention
B. Infection D. both A & C
C. Swelling B. healing by secondary intention
D. Severe pain E. none of these
E. All of the above C. healing by granulomatous tissue formation

87. Sialadenitis:

6
 A. inflammation of the tonsils A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial
B. inflammation of the salivary glands D. distal E. none of these
C. inflammation of salivary ducts
D. inflammation of the ducts 97. An atom is said to be neutral when:
A. it is ionized
88. The following are signs of osteomyelitis except: B. there are more electrons than protons
A. periostitis B. sequestra formation C. C. the net number of negative charges of the nucleus
hypercementosis D. sinus tracts E. tooth mobility equals the number of negative charges of the orbital
89. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking electron
radiographs, the dentist should stand: D. it has positive charge.
A. at the back of the patient E. none of these
B. at least 3 feet from the patient
C. next to the patient
D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary
radiation 98. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit
determines quality of the x-ray beam?
90. A herringbone pattern appears on a film if it is : A. Autotransformer D.
A. not processed properly C. not exposed to cathode filament temperature
a sufficient amount of radiation B. X-ray timer switch E.
B. given too much radiation D. placed in the oral cavity milliamperage control switch
backwards C. Step-down transformer

91. The smaller the focal spot, the sharper is the image, and 99. Salient radiographic findings showing perpendicular bone
the focal spot of the x-ray tube is bigger: trabeculation radiating outwardly describe as “hair-on-
A. the first statement is false and the second is true end” effect and generalized osteoporosis:
B. the first statement is true and the second is false A. aplastic anemia B. sickle-cell anemia C. polycythemia
C. both statements are true D. pernicious anemia
D. both statements are false

92. An increase in which of the following factors causes an OS OD ROENT 9-17-2021

increase in contrast?
A. time of exposure B. milliamperage C. kilovoltage D. 1. An asthmatic patient is characterized by having all of the
none of the above. following, except: A. a history of allergy B. inspiratory
wheezes C. hyperactive bronchi D. bronchi that rapidly and
93. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation
spontaneously change caliber in response to various irritants.
overexposure is
A. loss of hair C. agenesis of 2. Hypercementosis may be associated with: a. Acromegaly
blood cells and Paget’s disease b. Histocytosis X-disease(pulmonary,
B. erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary eosinophilic granuloma) c. Osteogentic sarcoma d. Von
epithelium
Recklinhaussen’s disease of the bone(neurofibromatosis)
94. Occlusal radiograph are useful in locating 3. Which is correct about complications of dental extractions?
A. the hyoid bone a. Teeth lost into the oropharynx do not require intervention
B. sialoliths in Stensen’s duct b. Infections are common c. Dry socket occurs in 10% of 3rd
C. the mental foramen
molar extractions d. Patients with numbness lasting more
D. sialoliths in Wharton’s duct
than 4 weeks should be referred for micro neurosurgical
E. maxillary sinus mucoceles
evaluation.
95. The primary reason for using fast films is to: 4. Examination of a 79 year old man reveals a 3cm flat,
A. save time in the dental office
mottled, brown-black splotchy lesion on the left side of his
B. give a better image quality
face. The margins of the lesion are not palpable. The patient
C. reduce the radiation dose to the patient
states that the lesion has been increasing in size for 10 years.
D. reduce the processing time.
The most likely diagnosis is: a) Junctional nevus b)
96. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and Lentigomaligna c) Age spot d) Nodular melanoma e)
the object in question appears to move distally, then the Superficial spreading melanoma
object is said to be on the :
7
5. An increased erythrocytes sedimentation rate (ESR): A. is of altered function which would substantiate the suspicious
specific for rheumatic fever B. is the result of high blood of a fracture on the right condyle is: a) Inability to protrude
pressure C. is due to an increase in the size and weight of the the mandible b) Deviation of the mandible to the right, on
RBC D. suggests the presence of an infection somewhere in opening c) Inability to work on a right eye d) Deviation of the
the body E. none of these. mandible to the left, on opening

6. Taurodism is characterized by radiographic appearance of 16. A swelling on the anterior floor of the mouth is soft and
teeth which possess: a) Unusually large bulbous roots b) painless. It has been present for several months. The
Large elongated pulp chambers and unusually short roots, overlying mucosa has a bluish tinge. The most likely diagnosis
particularly in the molar regions c) Bifid root formation of is: A. A retention cyst D. A mixed salivary gland tumor B. An
teeth which are usually single rooted d) Bell shaped crowns infected periodontal abscess E. A carcinoma of the floor of
and short tapering roots the mouth C. An obstructed sublingual gland duct

7. Which is not a sign of severe infection? a) Difficult or 17. Which of the following is the possible important sign of
painful swelling b) Temperature of 37.3 degrees Celsius c) sub-acute bacterial endocarditis. A. splinter hemorrhage C.
Drooling d) Trismus e) Swelling and induration with tongue enlargement of the tongue B. discharge from the ear D.
elevation intestinal obstruction

8. The primary treatment modality for ameloblastoma is: a) 18. A 23 year old male complained of swelling of the left
All of these b) Enucleation and/or curettage c) Composite cheek which appeared overnight. Palpation disclosed a
resection d) Marginal or partial resection nontender swelling without detectable borders. The Max left
molar is badly carious with radiographic radiolucencies.
9. Thorough examination includes the following: 1. Case
Tentative diagnosis is: a) Ludwig’s angina (floor of the mouth-
history 2. Clinical examination 3. Diagnosis 4 Treatment
submandibular space) b) Chronic Alveolar Abscess c)
Planning 5. Treatment A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,4,5 D. all of
Vincent’s angina (trench mouth-NUG) d) Cellulitis
those mentioned E. none of those mentioned
19. Acronynia (pink discoloration of the skin),
10. A radiographic technique that will detect and monitor
hypophosphatasia and progeria (age prematurely) are rare
salivary gland disease is? a. Sialography b. Anthography c.
conditions in which: a. Multiple supernumerary teeth are
Ultrasonography d. None of the above
often present b. Premature exfoliation of deciduous teeth is
11. Minute yellow granules are readily detected on the buccal known to occur c. Delayed eruption of teeth is common d.
mucosa. These fordyce's spots are one of the very free Precocious eruption of teeth invariably occurs
pathognomic signs. A. Ectopic sebaceous glands B. aberrant
20. The most common condition encountered in dental
tonsillar tissue C. Minor mucous glands D. hyperkeratosis due
practice in which subnormal temperature is invariably found
to trauma
is: a) Cretinism b) Syncope c) Myxedema d) Aniline
12. A biopsy should nor be performed on a tissue when the intoxication (aminobenzene, phenylamine, aniline oil
tissue: A. Suddenly enlarges C. Is pigmented B. Is associated
21. An 18 year old female requested aesthetic improvement
with paresthesia D. Responds to local treatment E. all of these
of her “brown teeth”. She reported that her mom and the
13. Which of the following structures should be visible on a siblings have the same condition. Radiographically, there
dental panoramic radiograph? A. The mandibular canal B. The absence of pulp chambers and canals of most teeth and
mandibular canal and maxillary sinus C.The mandibular canal, unusually short tapering roots. These are characteristics of: a.
maxillary sinus and hard palate D.The mandibular canal, Amelogenesis imperfecta (enamel only) b. Erythroblastosis
maxillary sinus, hard palate and zygomatic arch fetalis c. Dentinogenesis imperfecta d. Fluorosis

14. Ankylosis of a tooth is most definitely suggestive of: a. 22. A 38 year old female brought her teen age children for
Inability to move the tooth buccolingually b. Clear, ringing initial examination. On the buccal mucosa of each were
sound upon percussion c. Thickened periodontal ligament detected white, corrugated,firm, non-tender lesions. The
space on the radiographs d. Absence of the periodontal strongest clinical suspicion is: a. An atypical form of lichen
ligament space on the radiograph planus, (keratotic and erosive) b. White sponge nevus c.
Hyperkeratotic (overgrowth of epithelial cells) d. Leukoedema
15. The CC of a 19 year old male patient was soreness of the (streaked lesion, milky opalescent)
right TMJ and some pain on mastication. He reported a
bumped in the jaw in an automotive accident. A clinical sign

8
23. Which is not a relative contraindication for routine, wear: a. Dentinogenesis imperfecta b. Amelogenesis
elective oral surgery? A. Head and neck radiation B. Chronic imperfecta c. Odontodysplasia d. Dentin dysplasia
sinusitis C. Unstable cardiac angina D. Hemophilia
35. Which of the following will be a characteristic of
24. The most reliable test for lues is: A. biopsy B. darkfield hypovolemic shock? A. Hypotension B. low pulse pressure C.
examination C. oral exfoliative cytology D. serology Tachycardia D. all of these

25. Which oral landmark marks the opening of the 36. Excisional biopsy is the most apt procedure to which of
submandibular duct? A. sublingual caruncle B. nasolacrimal the following conditions? A. A 1-cm exophytic mass on the
duct C. lingual frenum D. parotid raphe buccal mucosa B. A 2-cm painless ulcer of 14 days duration C.
A 3-cm submucosal indurated mass D. A leukoplakic area
26. A program of prevention is of utmost importance in the
covering most of the buccal mucosa E. All of the above
patient undergoing radiation therapy to the head and neck
area because of known development of rampant caries 37. Oral surgery to patients currently on steroid therapy will
shortly after such therapy. Rampant caries is of high incidence most likely develop a. Bleeding b. Swelling c. Infection d.
in these patients because: a. Xerostomia invariably occurs and Severe pain
persist for about a year after treatment b. Of compromise of
38. Which of the following is the most commonly used
blood supply to all the oral cavity c. Gingival recession
surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? A. C-
produced by the radiation exposes the cementum d. Of direct
osteotomy C. Inverted L osteotomy B. LeFort 1 osteotomy D.
effect of radiation
Anterior maxillary osteotomy
27. Which is true of polycythemia? a. Spurious polycythemia
39. All of the following are contraindications to tooth
(Gaisbock syndrome) is a relative form of polycythemia b.
extraction except: a. Acute infectious stomatitis b. Acute
True polycythemia has ↓ in RBC and ↓ in total blood volume
pericoronitis c. Acute dentoalveolar abscess d. End-stage
c. In secondary polycythemia, erythropoietin levels are ↓ d.
renal disease
Primary polycythemia has no genetic predisposition
40. Patients under long term therapy with steroid suffering
28. Wickman’s striae may be found on mucus membrane of
from adrenal diseases are at great surgical risk because A. Of
the patient with: A. keratosis follicularis B. lichen planus C.
increased adrenocortical response D. Irreversible shock may
erythema multiforme D. white spongy nevus
be triggered B. Hypertension may set in E. all of them C. Post-
29. Corresponding clinical manifestations of the inflammatory operative severe pain may be induced
phase in extraction site are except: a. Swelling b. Redness c.
41. If it is necessary to perform a coniotomy, entry should be
Bleeding d. Heat
made at the: A, thyroid notch C. cricoid cartilage B, thyroid
30. The systemic visual purpose of oral diagnosis is: a) membrane D. cricothyroid ligament E. thyroepiglottic
Recognize the disease by its physical appearances b) Excise a ligament
malignant neoplasm of the oral tissue c) Suggest and provide
42. A paroxysmal and intermittent intense pain usually
a basis for the most suitable plan of treatment d) Identify the
confined to specific nerve branches and is most commonly
abnormality
present in the maxillofacial region: A. neuritis C. neuralgia B.
31. Blood disease related to administration of those drug hyperesthesia D. paralysis E. none of these.
aminopyrine, acetophenetidin or chloramphenicol: A. aplastic
43. The most appropriate blade number for the creation of a
anemia B. pernicious anemia C. anemia D. Polycythemia
mucoperiosteal flap for a maxillary tuberosity reduction: a.
32. A comparison of the different diseases and contrasted by #12 b. #15 c. #11 d. #10
the use of the clinical, pathological and lab exam is ___
44. A primary consideration for a febrile patient is: a)
diagnosis a. Final b. Tentative c. Differential d. Prognosis e.
Hyperglycemia b) Bleeding tendencies c) Neuropathies d)
Referral
Hypertension e) Hyperthermia
33. Differential white blood cell counts in the laboratory are
45. The beak of extraction forceps is designed so that most of
useful in the diagnosis of: a. Anemia b. vitamin deficiency c.
the extraction pressure is transmitted to :A. Root of the tooth
eosinophilia d. thrombocytopenic purpura e. spherocytosis
B. Crown of the tooth C. Cemento-enamel junction D.
34. Teeth with high degree of amberlike translucency and a Dentino-enamel junction E. Alveolar bone
variety of colors from yellow to blue gray and crowns readily

9
46. The most sensitive indication of acute blood is a 57. All are clinical features of cysts, except: a. Crepitation b.
combination of a. Shallow ventilation and sweating b. Pain c. Rapid expansion d. Fluctuance
Tachycardia and hypotension on sitting up c. Nausea,
58. Surgical incision and drainage is indicated in the following
dizziness and cyanosis d. Tachycardia and tremor while
conditions, except A. Chronic abscess with induration C. Acute
recumbent e. Hypernea and restlessness
fluctuant cellulitis B. To reduce pressure that has built up D.
47. Rumpel-Leede, or the tourniquet test, is a measure of: a) Treatment of deep tissue infection
Factor IX deficiency b) Clotting time c) Capillary fragility d)
59. Treatment of dry sockets include: A. Sedative dressings,
Blood pressure
analgesics, oral hygiene and antibiotics B. ASA in extraction
48. Bone marrow for grafting defects in the jaws is generally socket C. Morphine 10mg intramuscular every 6hrs D. Silver
obtained from A. a rib D. maxillary tuberosity B. the tissue nitrate dressings of dry socket E. None of these
bank E. the mandibular parasymphysis C. the iliac crest
60. On oral surgery, cold compresses are applied: a. To
49. The ideal bone graft should do each of the following, promote better circulation on the affected area b.
except: a. Withstand mechanical forces b. Produce an Immediately before surgery c. Immediately after surgery d. To
immunologic response c. Induce osteogenesis d. Become prevent spread of infection e. To avoid swelling in the area
replaced by host bone
61. Rongeur is designed specifically for: a) Cutting bone b)
50. A complete fracture through the neck of the condyle may Smoothening hard rough areas c) Removing small bone
result in the forward displacement because of the pull of the: fragments d) Crushing bone and trimming soft tissue
A.Lateral Pterygoid muscle B. masseter muscle C. Temporalis
62. Open fracture of the bone resulting to open
Muscle D. Medial Pterygoid muscle E. Buccinator Muscle
communication with the oral cavity: a. Compound b.
51. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, you realize Complicated c. Comminuted d. Simple greenstick
the tuberosity has also been extracted. What is the proper
63. An accepted surgical procedure most frequently
treatment in this case? a. Remove the tuberosity from the
indicated for odontogenic cysts is: a. Enucleation b.
tooth and reimplant the tuberosity b. Smooth the sharp
marsupialization c. fulguration d. incision and drainage e.
edges of the remaining bone and suture the remaining soft
injection of a sclerosing solution
tissue c. No special treatment is necessary
64. The most common cause of delayed wound healing is: A.
52. A patient with an elevated Bence-Jonce protein and
Long surgical procedure B. Tight suture C. Suture not placed
multiple radiolucent areas in the mandible and the skull may
directly on the incision line D. Infection E. None of the above
have a. Multiple myeloma b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Multiple
myeloma d. Burkitt’s lymphoma e. Adenocarcinoma 65. Bleeding during surgical procedure is controlled
effectively by: A. Suturing the flaps D. Clamping and tying out
53. All of the following are ways of eliminating dead space
vessels B. Applying pressure over the wound E. None of these
except: A. Close the wound in layers to minimize the
C. Applying vasoconstrictors
postoperative void B. allow the void to fill with blood so that
a blood clot will form C. use drains to remove any bleeding 66. Because of its root structure, which of the following teeth
that accumulates D. apply pressure dressings is the least responsive to rotation forces during extraction? A.
mandibular canine B. mandibular first premolar C.maxillary
54. Varicella and variola are examples of ___ type of lesion a.
central incisor D. mandibular second premolar E. maxillary
Macule b. Vesicle c. Papule d. Bullae e. Pustules
first premolar
55. Which of the following will most likely cause an
67. Surgical procedure that involves removing only one root
autogenous tooth transplant to fall during the third year? a.
of a multirooted tooth due to periodontal disease: a. Crown
An inflammatory resorption of supporting bone b. Ankylosis
sectioning B. Hemisection C. trephination D. replantation E.
of the tooth c. Development of root caries d. An idiopathic
transplantation
chronic progressive root resorption
68. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of the
56. Which of the following pathologic conditions should be
paralleling technique? a. The image formed on the film will
considered in a patient whose CBC shows an elevated
not have dimensional accuracy b. Due to the amount of
eosinophil count? a. Allergic reaction b. Asthma c. Pemphigus
distortion, periodontal bone height cannot be accurately
d. Parasitic infection e. All of these
diagnosed c. An increase in exposure time is necessary due to

10
the use of a long cone d. An increase in exposure time is 80. Which of the following does not control magnification of
necessary due to the use of a short cone the radiograph? a. Object film distance b. Cathode size c.
Alignment of film d. Objects radiation film e. Focal spot-film
69. In object localization,, if the tube is shifted mesially, and
distance
the object in question appears to move distally, then the
object is said to be on the : A. buccal B. lingual C. mesial D. 81. One advantage of a film with an emulsion coating on both
distal E. none of these. sides (double-emulsion film) is that: A. the film requires less
radiation exposure to make an image B. The image produced
70. Image sharpness on a radiograph is increased by A.
is less distorted C. The film has less sensitivity to radiation D.
increasing film speed D. increasing object-film distance B.
The processing solutions are absorbed more easily
using a small focal spot size E. decreasing object-film distance
C. using a large focal spot size 82. Which of the following components of an x-ray unit
determines quality of the x-ray beam? a. Autotransformer D.
71. The radiographic view that best demonstrates a
cathode filament temperature b. X-ray timer switch E.
mediolaterally-displaced subcondylar fracture is the A.
milliamperage control switch c. Step-down transformer
panoramic projection D. lateral oblique of the mandible B.
maxillary occlusal view E. lateral skull projection C. 83. A herringbone pattern appears on a film if it is : A. not
posteroanterior projection processed properly C. not exposed to a sufficient amount of
radiation B. given too much radiation D. placed in the oral
72. In performing normal dental diagnostic procedures, the
cavity backwards
operator receives the greatest hazard from which type of
radiation? A. direct primary beam C. secondary B. scatter D. 84. Uses of the panoramic radiograph include all of the
gamma E. secondary and scatter following except? a. Evaluation of impacted teeth b.
Detection of diseases, lesions and conditions of the jaws c.
73. Which electron has the greatest binding energy to the
Examination of the extent of large lesions d. Evaluation of
nucleus? A. J-shell electron C. L-shell electron B. K-shell
eruption patterns and growth and development e. Diagnosis
electron D. Q-shell electron E. both B & C
of early carious lesions
74. Collimation of a beam refers to be: A. selective removal of
85. Of the following factors affecting magnification, which
soft radiation from the beam B. selective removal of hard
does the operator NOT have control over? A. Focal spot size
radiation from the beam C. reduction of the beam diameter
B. Source-film distance C. Film-object distance D. Central ray
D. none of these.
direction E. Film parallelism
75. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation
86. If the intensity of a beam of radiation is 12 at a point 12
overexposure is A. loss of hair C. agenesis of blood cells B.
inches from the target, the intensity of the beam at 24 inches
erythema of the skin D. loss of alimentary epithelium
is A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 9
76. The advantage of the parallel technique over the
87. The x-ray beam is filtered to A. Soften the beam C.
bisecting- angle technique is: a) The increase object-film
remove long wavelength x-rays B. Restrict the beam size D.
distance b) The greater the magnification of the image c) The
remove short wavelength x-rays
increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image d)
That the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line 88. The component of developer that gives detail to the
drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the radiographic image is A. hydroquinone C. potassium bromide
teeth and the film B. sodium carbonate D. none of these E. sodium sulfite

77. If a film is stripped from its pocket and exposed to light, 89. To avoid exposure to secondary radiation when taking
after processing it will: a. Turn white b. Turn black c. Be radiographs, the dentist should stand: A. at the back of the
translucent d. Be unaffected patient C. at least 3 feet from the patient B. next to the
patient D. at least 6 feet from the source of secondary
78. Radiographic film emulsion is: A. cellulose acetate C.
radiation
hydroquinone B. sodium thiosulfate D. gelatin and silver
bromide E. calcium tungsten 90. The density of a radiograph is reduced by increasing A.
kilovoltage D. source-film distance B. milliamperage E.
79. A herringbone or diamond effect will appear on the
diameter of the aperture C. exposure time
processed film when: a) The film is placed backwards in the
mouth b) An improper angulation is used c) The film is bent d) 91. If a dried radiograph were processed a second time, its
An improper vertical angulation is used appearance would show A. Increased contrast and density B.
11
Decreased contrast and density C. Increased contrast only D. 100. The techniques that show the upper and lower crowns
Increased density only E. No change in contrast or density on the same radiograph is called the: A. bisecting angle
technique C. paralleling technique B. bite wing technique D.
92. A patient is coming into your office for the first time. You
occlusal technique
can see obvious carious lesions on the facial surfaces of
multiple teeth when she talks. Due to her high caries activity,
you take a full mouth series. Of these radiographs, which are
the most useful in detecting interproximal caries? a. Bitewing
radiographs b. None of these c. Occlusal radiographs d.
Periapical radiographs

93. The speed with which electrons travel from the filament
of the cathode to the target of the anode depends upon the:
a) Potential difference between the two electrodes b) Angle
between the filament and the target c) Voltage in the
filament circuit d) Number of milliamperes in the tube circuit

94. An increase in which of the following factors causes an

increase in contrast? a. Time of exposure b. Milliamperage c.
Kilovoltage d. Time of exposure and kilovoltage

95. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the

bisecting technique? a. Image on x-ray film may be
dimensionally distorted (amount may vary) b. May not be
able to judge the correct alveolar bone height c. Increased
exposure time d. Due to the use of a short cone (which results
in divergent rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the
object

96. The advantage of the parallel technique over the

bisecting- angle technique is: a) The increase object-film
distance b) The greater the magnification of the image c) The
increased anatomic accuracy of the radiographic image d)
That the central ray is perpendicular to an imaginary line
drawn through half the angle between the long axis of the
teeth and the film

97. A phenomenon caused by a relatively lower x-ray

absorption on the mesial or distal aspect of teeth, between
the edge of the enamel and the adjacent crest of the alveolar
ridge is called: a. Coronal burnout b. Cervical burnout c. Root
burnout d. Apical burnout

98. Cone-cutting (partial image) on a radiograph is caused by:

a. Underexposure b. a damaged cone c. improper exposure
technique d. improper coverage of the film with the beam of
radiation

99. On the way out of your dental chair, the patient gets up
too fast, feels dizzy and falls chin first onto your tiled operator
floor. Suspecting bilateral sub-condylar fractures, which of
the following projections would best allow for this
examination a. Waters projection b. Transcranial projection c.
Submentovert d. Townes projection

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