Sri. G.R.

RAVINDER REDDY

SECRETARY, GEETHANJALI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

Sri. G. R. Ravinder Reddy, an alumnus of NIT Warangal, has received B. Tech degree in Civil
Engineering and M. Tech in Civil Engineering, with a specialization in Geotechnical
Engineering. He served the government of A.P. as Superintendent of Police.
He successfully completed several assignments pertaining to law and order, Traffic and Training
wings in A.P. Police. As a former senior police officer with a technical background, he
visualized to set up an Institution of higher learning where future Engineers can be moulded for
societal development. He uses his expertise, experience and exposure in crafting technocrats with
enhanced employability. He is the driving force behind Geethanjali and steers the college
towards the pinnacles of human excellence. His prowess and insightfulness navigate the college
through challenging tasks and help it to make a mark in the field of Education.

1
 Dr. UDAYA KUMAR SUSARLA

PRINCIPAL, GEETHANJALI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

Dr. Udaya Kumar Susarla, Principal of Geethanjali College of Engineering and Technology
(GCET), received his degree of B. E. (ECE), M. E. (ECE) specializing in "Digital Systems
Engineering" from University College of Engineering, Osmania University, Hyderabad. He
obtained M. Tech (Hons.) in Information Engineering from Massey University, New Zealand and
PhD in Computer Science from JNTU, Hyderabad.

Dr. Udaya Kumar has a repertoire of experience working in New Zealand, Ethiopia, Morocco,
and India. A teacher par excellence, highly passionate towards his profession, emphasises on
Project-based Learning, strongly believes in meticulous mentoring and a great motivator of
students, he has been instrumental in shaping the career of a large number of students in
CBIT, SNIST, KLCE (now KL University), MVSR, GCET and also abroad. He has actively
involved in the Accreditation Process of some of the program(s) in all the colleges he has
worked with. He is a Master Trainer for National Board of Accreditation (NBA) on
"Outcome Based Education". He has published 56 research papers and guided two research
scholars, who were awarded PhD degree in Computer Science and Engineering.

2
 Page.
S. No Contents No
1. Student’s Details 4
2. About Us 5
3. The Governing Body Members 5-6
4. Members of College Academic Council/Institutional and 6-7
Departmental Heads
5. Training and Placements 7-26
6. Academic Programs 26-27
7. Value Added Courses 27
8. Grade Point Calculations and promotional Rules 28
9. Performance Monitoring, Guidance and Attendance Policy 29-30
10. Students’ Activities, College Celebrations/ Events 30-32
11. Sports Events 32-33
12. Awards 33
13. College Clubs 33-40
14. Library Information 40-43
15. Transport Information 43
16. Students’ Conduct, Responsibilities and Disciplinary Rules 43-46
17. Departments’ Information and Overview 46-54
18. Centre for Academic and Career Guidance (CACG) 55-59
19. Skills to be enhanced in the ensuing four years 59-65
A) Tips for students’ Success in Academics and Career( I Yr)
B) Centre for student Performance Monitoring and Counselling
(II Yr)
C) Centre for Soft Skills and Personality Development/ Setting a
Career Goal (III Yr)
D) Centre for Industry-Institute- Interaction (CIII) (IV YR)
20. Nodal Centre for Personality Development by R K Mutt 66
21. Bus Routes 67-75
22. Academic Calendar 76
23. Question Bank 77-216

3
 STUDENT’S DETAILS

Name :

Roll No :

Branch/Year/Section :

Parent’s/Guardian’s Name :

Occupation :

Date of birth :

Present address :

Permanent address :

Contact No. :

Parent’s/Guardian’s Mobile No. :

E-mail ID :

Any special rewards/awards in academics :

Sports/Extra-Curricular activities in

School/College :

TIME TABLE

PERIODS
WEEK
DAYS 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

MON
TUE L
WED U
THUR N
FRI C

SAT H

4
ABOUT US:
The College
The college was established in 2005 and within ten years of its establishment, it has become an
autonomous institution under UGC from the academic year 2016-17. It offers UG Programs in
CSE, ECE, EEE, ME and CE; PG programs in CSE and MBA. UG Programs of CSE & ECE
were first accredited in July, 2012 and were reaccredited in July, 2015
for three years and reaccredited in July, 2018. UG Programs of EEE and ME are accredited by
NBA in 2018. The college has also been accredited by NAAC with A grade with a score of
3.36 on a scale of 4 in June, 2017.
The college recognizes the rapidly changing technological advancement, and leaves no stone
unturned in equipping the young technocrats to understand and learn the importance of
evolving technologies for a sustainable growth in the global world.

The Campus
Constructed in the midst of scenic beauty with lush green arena, Geethanjali
is a befitting place to pursue technical studies of high standards. With its highly qualified and
experienced faculty, a healthy teacher-student relationship is assured. The college has state-of-
the-art laboratories, digital library with high speed Internet connectivity, vast sports outfield
and many other notable features.

COLLEGE TIMINGS
The college functions from 9:00 am to 3:30 pm on all working days (The timings are likely
to change based on the new regulations). Timings during examinations will be informed as and
when required. Second Saturday is a holiday. Remedial classes are conducted for students on
need basis. Library and other facilities (Laboratories) are kept open till 6:00 pm on all working
days.
THE GOVERNING BODY MEMBERS
Sl.
Name Designation Status Category
No.
1 Mr. G. R. Ravinder Reddy Secretary, GCET Chairman

2 Dr. G. Sridevi Member

3 Mr. N. Sanjeeva Reddy Members, Teja Educational Member Management

4 Ms. N. Ramana Devi Society Member

5 Ms. G. Madhumitha Member

6 Dr. S. T. Rajmohan Dean – Admin. & Prof. – MBA Member

Dean – Student Affairs & Faculty
7 Prof. K. Somasekhara Rao Member
Prof.ECE nominated by
Principal
Dean – Academics & Prof. –
8 Dr. P. Vijai Bhaskar Member
ECE

9 Dr. B. Yagnanarayana Former Dy.Director IIT, Madras Member

5
 Director, Link well Tele
10 Mr. Vishwanath Ekbote Member
Systems

Expert Industry (Formerly Chief

Technology Officer, Tech
11 Mr. A. Sreenivasa Murthy Member
Mahindra & Formerly CEO,
Satyam Computers)

Expert-Education & Industry

12 Dr. P. G. Sastry Member
(Advisor – Ramky)

Director, NITTTR (MHRD,

Govt. of India) Formerly Vice
Prof. Shyam Sundar
13 Chancellor, Biju Patnaik Member UGC Nominee
Patnaik
University of Technology,
Odisha

Professor, ECE & Director, JNTUH

14 Dr. B. N. Bhandari Member
Academic & Planning, JNTUH Nominee
Member
15 Dr. S. Udaya Kumar Principal, GCET Ex-officio
Secretary

MEMBERS OF COLLEGE ACADEMIC COUNCIL

Sl.
Name Designation Status Remarks
No
1 Dr. S. Udaya Kumar Principal Chairman

2 Prof. B. Hari Kumar HOD – ECE Member

3 Dr. D. S. R. Murthy HOD-CSE & Controller of “

Exams (JNTUH)

4 Dr. D Radhika HOD – EEE “

5 Dr. T. Siva Prasad HOD – ME “

6 Dr. R. Prasanna Kumar HOD – CE “

7 Dr. G. Neeraja Rani HOD – Freshman Engineering “

8 Dr. A. Sita Madhavi HOD – MBA “

9 Dr. S. T. Raj Mohan Registrar, GCET & “

Prof. MBA

10 Dr. N. Ravi Shankar Controller of Exams “

(Autonomous) & Prof. CSE
11 Dr. R. Suryanarayana Raju Dean R & D & Professor ECE “

6
 12 Prof. K. Somasekhara Rao Dean – Student Affairs & “
Professor - ECE

13 Dr. M. Devaiah Professor – ME “

14 Mr. S. Hari Kiran Assoc. Prof. - CE “ Special Invitee

15 Mr. G. R. Ravinder Reddy Expert – Engineering “

(Invited Member)

16 Mr. Pratap Reddy Expert - Legal “ Experts

nominated by
17 Dr. G. Sridevi Expert – Medicine “ Governing Body

18 Mr. Y. Srinivas Expert - Industry “

19 Dr. P. G. Sastry Expert – Education & Industry “

20 Dr. K. Ramamohan Reddy Director, UAAC I/C, JNTUH “

21 Dr. Ch. Venkata Ramana Professor of Chemistry & “

Nominees of
Reddy DUIIC, JNTUH
JNTUH
22 Dr. E. Saibaba Reddy Professor of Civil Engg. & “
Principal, JNTUH CEH

23 Dr. P. Vijai Bhaskar Dean – Academics & Member – Nominated by

Professor, ECE Secretary Principal

INSTITUTIONAL AND DEPARTMENTAL HEADS / IN-CHARGE

S.No Name Designation

1. Prof. B. Hari Kumar HoD- ECE
2. Dr. D. S. R. Murthy HoD- CSE
3. Dr. G. Neeraja Rani HoD- Freshman Engg. Dept.
4. Dr. D .Radhika HoD- EEE
5. Dr. T. Siva Prasad HoD- ME
6. Dr. R. Prasanna Kumar HoD- CE
7. Dr. A. Sita Madhavi HoD – MBA
8. Dr. K. Srinivas I/C HoD- IT
9. Dr. S. T. Raj Mohan Registrar, GCET & Professor MBA, Dean- Admin
10. Dr. P. Vijai Bhaskar Dean –Academics & Prof. ECE
11. Prof. K. Somasekhara Rao Dean - Student Affairs & Professor-ECE
Professor, ECE

TRAINING & PLACEMENTS

The college has a very effective Placement Cell with three placement officers. It consists of a
team of an inter-departmental faculty in delivering the functions attached to the centre. The
Cell plays a vital role in the college set up in forging fruitful and mutually beneficial linkages
with industries and professional organizations. It prepares a database of a very large number of
companies, details of t hei r Operations and Requirements and also e m p o w e r s students
with life-long career decision-making skills, develop and implement successful job search
7
 strategies and finds suitable summer internships which would facilitate skill development in
students. The department also ensures active interaction with the industry by organizing guest
lectures and seminars. Working effectively and efficiently, it liaises with various industries and
associations to facilitate training, getting live projects as well as providing placement assistance
to the students.

Following are the details of placements for the academic year 2018-19:

S. No. Place
of
Roll No. Candidate’s Name Branch Name of Company Drive

1. KASURA TECHNOLOGIES
15R11A04L3 KAMARAJU PRANAV ECE PVT LTD GCET

2. KASURA TECHNOLOGIES
15R11A0555 TIRUVEEDHULA RAGA SINJITH CSE PVT LTD GCET

3. KASURA TECHNOLOGIES
15R11A0517 G SAI SRI ADITYA CSE PVT LTD GCET

4. 15R11A05K4 DINESH MANOHAR MATAI CSE GS LABS GCET

5. THASMAI AUTOMATION PVT

15R11A0485 K V NIKHIL ECE LTD GCET

6. JAMMALAMADAKA SAI THASMAI AUTOMATION PVT

15R11A0479 VENKATA TARUN ECE LTD GCET

7. THASMAI AUTOMATION PVT

15R11A0483 K S VEERENDERNATH ECE LTD GCET

8. 15R11A0571 D VISHNU HARSHITH CSE GGK SOLUTIONS GCET

9. 15R11A05K4 DINESH MANOHAR MATAI CSE GGK SOLUTIONS GCET

10. 15R11A05F5 P SRI SAIRAM CSE GGK SOLUTIONS GCET

11. 15R11A0562 A SHANMUKHA BRUHADROOP CSE GGK SOLUTIONS GCET

12. 15R11A05G5 SAIREDDY PRANITH REDDY CSE VALUE LABS GCET

13. 15R11A0563 ADDEPALLI BALAJI CSE VALUE LABS GCET

14. ANNAPUREDDY PARDHA

17R11E0003 SARADHI MBA VALUE LABS GCET

15. 17R11E0044 P. DIVYA MBA VALUE LABS GCET

16. KONDAMADUGU UPPALA

17R11E0028 SUMAN KUMAR MBA VALUE LABS GCET

17. GUNDABOINA HARITHA

17R11E0020 LAKSHMI MBA VALUE LABS GCET

18. 17R11E0007 CHADA REVATHI MBA VALUE LABS GCET

19. 17R11E0032 K.AKHILA MBA VALUE LABS GCET

20. 17r11e0059 ARCHANA MADDI MBA VALUE LABS GCET

8
21. 17R11E0057 VEMURI ABHISHEK MBA VALUE LABS GCET

22. 17R11E0013 DASARI.SWETHA MBA VALUE LABS GCET

23. 17R11E0033 KUTURU.MEGHANA MBA VALUE LABS GCET

24. 17R11E0023 K.AVINASH MBA VALUE LABS GCET

25. 17R11E0014 D.SUSHMA MBA VALUE LABS GCET

26. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0105 GANDI SANDEEP CE LTD GCET

27. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0113 VEGURU SRINATH CE LTD GCET

28. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0108 ANNALDESH PRASHANTH CE LTD GCET

29. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0111 SHAIK NAZEER CE LTD GCET

30. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0168 LINGAMANENI NIKHIL CE LTD GCET

31. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0120 KOLLURI LINGA RAJU CE LTD GCET

32. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15VD1A0105 VELAMURI ANIROOTH CE LTD GCET

33. CHINTALAPATI VENKATASAI GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0314 BHRAMAR BHA ME LTD GCET

34. GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0315 D VEERABHADRA VARMA ME LTD GCET

35. MIRIYALA RAMANAND GVPR ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0335 ABHISHEK ME LTD GCET

36. 15R11A05A0 P GRISHMA CSE Mphasis GCET

37. 15R11A0562 A SHANMUKHA BRUHADROOP CSE Mphasis GCET

38. 15R11A05D5 EGA SHRAVANI CSE Mphasis GCET

39. 15R11A05K6 G SRI SHEETAL CSE CODE MANTRA GCET

40. 15R11A05L1 GUBBALA HARI PRIYA CSE CODE MANTRA GCET

41. 15R11A0517 G SAI SRI ADITYA CSE CODE MANTRA GCET

42. 15R11A0504 BANDAM AKHILA CSE KHAZANA GROUP GCET

43. 15R11A05H0 THINDERU SAKSHI CSE KHAZANA GROUP GCET

44. 15R11A0249 SAMBARAPU BHARGAVI EEE SAVANTIS GCET

45. 15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME SAVANTIS GCET

46. 15R11A0240 NAINIKA SHARMA EEE SAVANTIS GCET

47. 15R11A0248 S PIYUSH BALAJI EEE SAVANTIS GCET

48. 15R11A0303 AKASH A ME SAVANTIS GCET

9
49. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA
15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE SAVANTIS GCET

50. 15R11A0257 VELAGALA ANEERUDDH EEE SAVANTIS GCET

51. 15R11A0243 NISCHALA B NARAYANAN EEE SAVANTIS GCET

52. 15R11A0590 MALLUGARI SUNYANA CSE SAVANTIS GCET

53. 15R11A05Q0 DANTURTY SAI VISHAL CSE SAVANTIS GCET

54. AMANCHARALA VENKATA

15R11A05J2 RAMA KAUSIK CSE SAVANTIS GCET

55. 15R11A05L7 LIYA ROSE ANTONY CSE SAVANTIS GCET

56. 15R11A04L0 K PAVAN KUMAR ECE SAVANTIS GCET

57. 15R11A0538 MURALIDHAR SAI AKSHAY CSE SAVANTIS GCET

58. 15R11A05P8 Y NITISHA CSE SAVANTIS GCET

59. 15R11A05C7 BEEMANABOINA PRATHYUSHA CSE SAVANTIS GCET

60. DESHMUKH JANHAVI

15R11A04K1 RAVINDRA ECE SAVANTIS GCET

61. 15R11A0432 M V S HARI PREM ECE SAVANTIS GCET

62. DAVULURI VENKATA NAGA

15R11A05K3 RAMYA SAMHITH CSE SAVANTIS GCET

63. CHELLAPILLA LAKSHMI

15R11A05J8 APARNA CSE SAVANTIS GCET

64. 15R11A05A4 POLAKONDA SAI VAMSHI CSE SAVANTIS GCET

65. SUNKARI SAIYASHWANTH

15R11A05A9 REDDY CSE SAVANTIS GCET

66. 15R11A04N7 RAVURI AMULYA JOYCE ECE SAVANTIS GCET

67. 15R11A05K0 CHINTA SAIDEEP CSE SAVANTIS GCET

68. 15R11A0565 AMULYA JAKKARIGARI CSE SAVANTIS GCET

69. 15R11A0221 GANTI NAGA SRIVARSHA EEE SAVANTIS GCET

70. 15R11A0577 G SUPRIYA REDDY CSE SAVANTIS GCET

71. 16R15A0318 KOYYADA TARUN KUMAR ME SAVANTIS GCET

72. 15R11A05A5 POTTABATHINI TANMAYI CSE TCS GCET

73. UNISTRING TECH

15R11A0418 K DIVYA BHANU ECE SOLUTIONS GCET

74. 15R11A05L8 M ABHINAV REDDY CSE APPS ASSOCIATES GCET

75. 15R11A0562 A SHANMUKHA BRUHADROOP CSE APPS ASSOCIATES GCET

76. 15R11A05B3 SATYAVARAPU VIDYA SREE CSE MuSigma GCET

77. 15R11A05F5 P SRI SAIRAM CSE MuSigma GCET

10
78. 15R11A05A5 POTTABATHINI TANMAYI CSE TCS GCET

79. VALLALA SHIVA KUMAR

15R11A05H6 YADAV CSE TCS GCET

80. 15R11A05F5 P SRI SAIRAM CSE TCS GCET

81. 15R11A05N5 POLAPALLY SWATHI CSE TCS GCET

82. DAVULURI VENKATA NAGA

15R11A05K3 RAMYA SAMHITH CSE TCS GCET

83. 15R11A0528 KOLAGATLA CHAITANYA SAI CSE TCS GCET

84. 15R11A05P0 SANTHAPURI KISHORE KUMAR CSE TCS GCET

85. 15R11A0550 ROHIT E S S M CSE TCS GCET

86. 15R11A0555 TIRUVEEDHULA RAGA SINJITH CSE TCS GCET

87. 15R11A0562 A SHANMUKHA BRUHADROOP CSE TCS GCET

88. 15R11A04P9 VUPPALA PRATHYUSHA ECE TCS GCET

89. 15R11A0480 JELLA ABHINAV ECE TCS GCET

90. 15R11A0483 K S VEERENDERNATH ECE TCS GCET

91. 15R11A04G3 REGU MOUNIKA ECE TCS GCET

92. DHARANIKOTA SAI JAYA

15R11A0472 MADHAVI ECE TCS GCET

93. PEDDAKONDREDDY GARI

15R11A04F6 NIKITHA REDDY ECE TCS GCET

94. 15R11A0467 CHANTIGARI ANUSRI ECE TCS GCET

95. 15R11A04B9 YEDDHU SHRUTHI ECE TCS GCET

96. 15R11A0492 KUPPA MANASA ECE TCS GCET

97. 15R11A0408 CHITNENI SAI RAM RAO ECE TCS GCET

98. 15R11A0243 NISCHALA B NARAYANAN EEE TCS GCET

99. 15R11A0233 KOTTE YASWANTH REDDY EEE TCS GCET

100. 15R11A05M9 P MAHESH REDDY CSE INDIUM GCET

101. 15R11A04G0 PURANAM SRIVATHS ECE INDIUM GCET

102. 15R11A0401 A NIMISHA REDDY ECE INDIUM GCET

103. 15R11A05P0 SANTHAPURI KISHORE KUMAR CSE INDIUM GCET

104. 15R11A0450 SAI VYSHNAVI KONA ECE INDIUM GCET

105. 15R11A05E0 GURAJADA NIKHILA CSE INDIUM GCET

106. BORRA VENKATA VARUN

15R11A04C8 KUMAR ECE INDIUM GCET

107. 15R11A0579 GARABOINA SHIVA SAI CSE INDIUM GCET

11
108. 15R11A05D7 G SUNITHA CSE INDIUM GCET

109. 15R11A04N3 PARUCHURI SAJEEV ECE INDIUM GCET

110. 15R11A04J6 BUMAN SINDHU BHAVANI ECE INDIUM GCET

111. 15R11A04A0 PAILLA KALYANI ECE INDIUM GCET

112. 15R11A04P5 T SARITHA ECE INDIUM GCET

113. 15R11A04D7 GUNTI BANU SRIKAR ECE INDIUM GCET

114. 15R11A04K8 JALAGAM NIKHIL ECE INDIUM GCET

115. RAVINUTHALA V S S PHANI

15R11A04G2 KUMAR ECE INDIUM GCET

116. 15R11A05F0 METTU DEEPIKA CSE INDIUM GCET

117. 15R11A04B9 YEDDHU SHRUTHI ECE INDIUM GCET

118. 15R11A04A3 PULLA SARIKHA ECE INDIUM GCET

119. 15R11A0432 M V S HARI PREM ECE NETELIXIR GCET

120. 15R11A05J0 YERMUNE ADITHYA CSE NETELIXIR GCET

121. SUBHASHITH REDDY THOUTI

15R11A05P2 REDDY CSE NETELIXIR GCET

122. 15R11A04J1 AMBATI CHINMAYI ECE NETELIXIR GCET

123. 15R11A0521 GUNZA Y SAMUEL JOEL CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

124. 15R11A0548 R BINDIYA CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

125. 15R11A05E5 KASTHURI NARESH KUMAR CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

126. 16R15A0405 KAIDALA SUSHMITA ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

127. 15R11A05G9 TENALI ZENITH CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

128. NUTHALAKANTE PADMA RAO

15R11A0599 HARITHA CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

129. 15R11A0215 C SHANMUKA GOWRI EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

130. 15R11A0248 S PIYUSH BALAJI EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

131. 15R11A0493 M SUJANA ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

132. 15R11A0540 NEBARSU VISHNU TEJA CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

133. 15R11A04D9 K C PRATHYUSHA ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

134. 15R11A0441 NOMULA LAKSHMI MEGHANA ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

135. 15R11A0235 LUKKA HEMENDRA BHARATH EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

136. 15R11A05E1 J PRAGNA CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

137. 15R11A0239 NADIGOTI SAI KUMAR EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

138. 15R11A0257 VELAGALA ANEERUDDH EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

139. 15R11A0213 BOLLAMPALLY SUMA EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

12
140. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA
15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

141. 15R11A0205 ARIGE SHIVA KRISHNA EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

142. 16R15A0315 THATI DEVIKA NAINA ME ALIENS GROUP GCET

143. 15R11A05P8 Y NITISHA CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

144. 15R11A04C2 AGALI PRASAD PAAVANI ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

145. 15R11A0589 MALLAKULA KOMAL CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

146. 15R11A0515 ESHA SAHITHA KODALI CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

147. 15R11A0240 NAINIKA SHARMA EEE ALIENS GROUP GCET

148. 15R11A05M4 N SHRUTHI CSE ALIENS GROUP GCET

149. 15R11A0471 DEVA REDDY SRINIDHI REDDY ECE ALIENS GROUP GCET

150. 17R11E0016 G. Mahesh MBA ALIENS GROUP GCET

151. 17R11E0049 R. Krishna Chaitanya MBA ALIENS GROUP GCET

152. 15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME ALIENS GROUP GCET

153. 15R11A04D9 K C PRATHYUSHA ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

154. 15R11A04E9 N BHUVANESHWARI ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

155. 15R11A0589 MALLAKULA KOMAL CSE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

156. 16R15A0409 ERUSALAGANDI TEJASWINI ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

157. 15R11A04C1 ADEPU BHARGAVI ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

158. 15R11A04C7 BONTHALA NIKITHA ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

159. 15R11A0248 S PIYUSH BALAJI EEE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

160. 15R11A05L5 KOTTAM NIKHIL TEJA CSE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

161. 15R11A0519 GUJJARI SHRUJAN CSE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

162. VENKATA NAGASESHA SAI

15R11A04J0 LAKSHMI SHOWM ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

163. NANGANOORI MAHESH

15R11A05F3 KUMAR CSE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

164. 15R11A05D2 CHEPPALLI VINEETH KALYAN CSE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

165. 14R11A04D5 E RAHUL CHOWDHARY ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

166. 15R11A04P1 SRISHTU NITYA NIKHILA ECE EPIC RESEARCH GCET

167. 17R11E0016 GADEPALLI MAHESH MBA EPIC RESEARCH GCET

168. 17R11E0033 KUTURU.MEGHANA MBA EPIC RESEARCH GCET

169. 17R11E0056 VEMULAKONDA.KAVYASRI MBA EPIC RESEARCH GCET

170. DHRUV CONSULTING

17R11E0033 KUTURU.MEGHANA MBA SERVICES GCET

13
171. DHRUV CONSULTING
17R11E0039 METTU SANDHYA MBA SERVICES GCET

172. DHRUV CONSULTING

17R11E0029 K JHANSI MBA SERVICES GCET

173. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0519 GUJJARI SHRUJAN CSE SERVICES GCET

174. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE SERVICES GCET

175. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0493 M SUJANA ECE SERVICES GCET

176. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0249 SAMBARAPU BHARGAVI EEE SERVICES GCET

177. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0317 DIKSHANT JOSHI ME SERVICES GCET

178. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0546 PERI KAMESWARY BHAVANI CSE SERVICES GCET

179. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0228 KATA HANUMANTH PUJA EEE SERVICES GCET

180. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE SERVICES GCET

181. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0257 VELAGALA ANEERUDDH EEE SERVICES GCET

182. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0221 GANTI NAGA SRIVARSHA EEE SERVICES GCET

183. DHRUV CONSULTING

16R15A0521 ISSAC NEHA MARGRET CSE SERVICES GCET

184. DHRUV CONSULTING

16R15A0507 K SHANKAR CSE SERVICES GCET

185. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A04P2 SURAGANI SAI MEGHANA ECE SERVICES GCET

186. VENKATA NAGASESHA SAI DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A04J0 LAKSHMI SHOWM ECE SERVICES GCET

187. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0395 PARAMKUSHAM DHEERAJ ME SERVICES GCET

188. DHRUV CONSULTING

16R15A0318 KOYYADA TARUN KUMAR ME SERVICES GCET

189. DHRUV CONSULTING

15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME SERVICES GCET

190. 15R11A04C2 AGALI PRASAD PAAVANI ECE GREY CAMPUS GCET

191. 15R11A05P4 U AMANI CSE GREY CAMPUS GCET

192. 15R11A05E1 J PRAGNA CSE GREY CAMPUS GCET

14
193. 15R11A05G4 S SAI UJWAL NARAYAN CSE GREY CAMPUS GCET

194. 15R11A0445 PEDDADA SRI LAASYA LATHA ECE GREY CAMPUS GCET

195. 15R11A0517 G SAI SRI ADITYA CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

196. 15R11A05A4 POLAKONDA SAI VAMSHI CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

197. 15R11A0593 MUDUMBA SHANTHAN KUMAR CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

198. 15R11A05M0 MARSHALL MRINAL MOSES CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

199. 15R11A0598 NIDA AFREEN CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

200. 15R11A05B6 HARSHITHA THATIPAMULA CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

201. 15R11A05K0 CHINTA SAIDEEP CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

202. 15R11A0550 ROHIT E S S M CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

203. 15R11A05B5 TERLI POOJITHA RANI CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

204. 15R11A0511 DASARI ANUHYA CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

205. 15R11A0526 KALLEM ARAVIND REDDY CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

206. 15R11A0561 A MANICHANDANA CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

207. 15R11A0589 MALLAKULA KOMAL CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

208. 15R11A0512 DESHETLA RAMYA YADAV CSE ZENOPSYS GCET

209. 15R11A0571 D VISHNU HARSHITH CSE NTT DATA GCET

210. 15R11A05A4 POLAKONDA SAI VAMSHI CSE NTT DATA GCET

211. 15R11A05F5 P SRI SAIRAM CSE NTT DATA GCET

212. 15R11A0432 M V S HARI PREM ECE NTT DATA GCET

213. DESHMUKH JANHAVI

15R11A04K1 RAVINDRA ECE NTT DATA GCET

214. 15R11A0486 KACHAM CHETHAN ECE NTT DATA GCET

215. 15R11A0487 KATTELA AMITH NARAYANA ECE NTT DATA GCET

216. 15R11A05D5 EGA SHRAVANI CSE NTT DATA GCET

217. 15R11A05G6 SANDHYA MOURYA CSE MODAK ANALYSTICS GCET

218. VEDANTAM SHANMUKHA

15R11A05B8 SHREYAS CSE MODAK ANALYSTICS GCET

219. 15R11A0528 KOLAGATLA CHAITANYA SAI CSE MODAK ANALYSTICS GCET

220. 15R11A0410 GADDAM VINDHYA REDDY ECE WIPRO GCET

221. 15R11A0494 MIRIYALA SAIKRUPA REDDY ECE WIPRO GCET

222. VALLALA SHIVA KUMAR

15R11A05H6 YADAV CSE WIPRO GCET

223. 15R11A05G6 SANDHYA MOURYA CSE WIPRO GCET

224. 15R11A04F6 ECE WIPRO GCET

PEDDAKONDREDDY GARI
15
 NIKITHA REDDY

225. 15R11A05G2 S APARNA CSE WIPRO GCET

226. 15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE WIPRO GCET

227. 15R11A0486 KACHAM CHETHAN ECE WIPRO GCET

228. 15R11A04M7 NAGA SAI GAYATHRI VEERLA ECE WIPRO GCET

229. 15R11A05F0 METTU DEEPIKA CSE WIPRO GCET

230. 15R11A0508 D TEJA SAI SRINIVAS CSE WIPRO GCET

231. 15R11A0483 K S VEERENDERNATH ECE WIPRO GCET

232. 15R11A05H9 YARLAGADDA PRUDHVIK CSE WIPRO GCET

233. 15R11A05A4 POLAKONDA SAI VAMSHI CSE WIPRO GCET

234. 15R11A0587 KONDAVEETI GOUTHAM CSE WIPRO GCET

235. 15R11A04P1 SRISHTU NITYA NIKHILA ECE WIPRO GCET

236. 15R11A04P8 VANGARI PRASHANTH ECE WIPRO GCET

237. 15R11A05P0 SANTHAPURI KISHORE KUMAR CSE WIPRO GCET

238. 15R11A0517 G SAI SRI ADITYA CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

239. 15R11A0508 D TEJA SAI SRINIVAS CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

240. 15R11A05E7 M RAHUL SAI CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

241. 15R11A0511 DASARI ANUHYA CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

242. 15R11A0494 MIRIYALA SAIKRUPA REDDY ECE DISPACH TRACK GCET

243. 15R11A0493 M SUJANA ECE DISPACH TRACK GCET

244. 15R11A0598 NIDA AFREEN CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

245. 15R11A0589 MALLAKULA KOMAL CSE DISPACH TRACK GCET

246. 15R11A0485 K V NIKHIL ECE DISPACH TRACK GCET

247. 15R11A05N5 POLAPALLY SWATHI CSE OPEN TEXT GCET

248. DHARANIKOTA SAI JAYA

15R11A0472 MADHAVI ECE INFOSYS GCET

249. 15R11A04J1 AMBATI CHINMAYI ECE INFOSYS GCET

250. 15R11A05G2 S APARNA CSE INFOSYS GCET

251. 15R11A0453 T NAGA SRAVANI ECE MULTIPLIER SOLUTIONS GCET

252. 15R11A0442 NOMULA SAICHANDANA ECE MULTIPLIER SOLUTIONS GCET

253. VENKATA NAGASESHA SAI

15R11A04J0 LAKSHMI SHOWMYA ECE VEM TECHNOLOGIES GCET

254. 16R15A0315 THATI DEVIKA NAINA ME VEM TECHNOLOGIES GCET

255. CHINTALAPATI VENKATASAI

15R11A0314 BHRAMAR BHA ME VEM TECHNOLOGIES GCET

16
256. 15R11A0315 D VEERABHADRA VARMA ME VEM TECHNOLOGIES GCET

257. MADISHETTI HEMANTH HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0237 KUMAR EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

258. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

259. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

16R15A0208 GATTU SHIVA EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

260. NAWAB SHAIK AASIM HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0242 HUSSAIN EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

261. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0239 NADIGOTI SAI KUMAR EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

262. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0235 LUKKA HEMENDRA BHARATH EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

263. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0233 KOTTE YASWANTH REDDY EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

264. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0223 GOURISHETTY RAHUL EEE Pvt Ltd GCET

265. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

16R15A0320 MUTHYALA SAI KISHORE ME Pvt Ltd GCET

266. PENUBARTHI VENKATA HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0346 RAKESH CHANDRA K ME Pvt Ltd GCET

267. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0361 BOLLI NAVEENKUMAR ME Pvt Ltd GCET

268. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

16R15A0321 SANGYAM GURU KRISHNA ME Pvt Ltd GCET

269. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

16R15A0322 CHOWHAN RAJU ME Pvt Ltd GCET

270. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0338 N NIKHIL ME Pvt Ltd GCET

271. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0379 K MAHESH ME Pvt Ltd GCET

272. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0306 BANOTH KALYAN ME Pvt Ltd GCET

273. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0313 CHAVA TULASI RAM ME Pvt Ltd GCET

274. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0394 P MYSURA REDDY ME Pvt Ltd GCET

275. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

16R15A0316 DUSERLA NIKHIL ME Pvt Ltd GCET

276. HYOSEONG ELECTRIC INDIA

15R11A0333 MANORANJAN MISHRA ME Pvt Ltd GCET

277. 15R11A0208 BANDELA PRASHANTH KUMAR EEE SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

17
278. 15R11A04D2 EDAVELLI SAIKRISHNA ECE SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

279. 15R11A0223 GOURISHETTY RAHUL EEE SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

280. 15R11A0208 BANDELA PRASHANTH KUMAR EEE SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

281. 15R11A0224 G VENKAT SAI EEE SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

282. 15R11A0328 LOLAKAPURI PRANAY ME SURYA TECH SOLUTIONS GCET

283. 15R11A05G8 SRIPADA SINDHUJA CSE ADP INDIA PVT LTD GCET

284. 15R11A0527 KATTA SUSHMITHA CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

285. 15R11A05J5 B TANUJA CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

286. 16R15A0518 VADLA BHAVANI CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

287. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

288. 15R11A05L1 GUBBALA HARI PRIYA CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

289. 15R11A05E9 MADDURI SHIVA KRUTHI CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

290. 15R11A0548 R BINDIYA CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

291. BEEMARPULA JANAK VARUN

15R11A05J6 KUMAR CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

292. 15R11A05M2 MERUGUMALA HARSHINI CSE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

293. 15R11A04C1 ADEPU BHARGAVI ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

294. 15R11A04D9 K C PRATHYUSHA ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

295. 15R11A04N7 RAVURI AMULYA JOYCE ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

296. 15R11A04A5 S INDIRA DEVI ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

297. 15R11A04E9 N BHUVANESHWARI ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

298. 15R11A04P1 SRISHTU NITYA NIKHILA ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

299. PRERANA SUGUNA

15R11A04F8 KAMBHAMPATI ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

300. 15R11A04F9 PULLURU VISHAL PREETHAM ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

301. 15R11A04D8 GURU PARAN A S ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

302. 15R11A04C9 BUSANI HARITEJA ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

303. 15R11A04C4 BADHINI SIDDHARTHA GOUD ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

304. 15R11A0401 A NIMISHA REDDY ECE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

305. 15R11A0215 C SHANMUKA GOWRI EEE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

306. 15R11A0257 VELAGALA ANEERUDDH EEE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

307. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA

15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

308. 15R11A0235 LUKKA HEMENDRA BHARATH EEE GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

309. 17R11E0057 VEMURI ABHISHEK MBA GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

18
310. GUNDABOINA HARITHA
17R11E0020 LAKSHMI MBA GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

311. 17R11E0016 GADEPALLI MAHESH MBA GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

312. 15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

313. 15Z51R0072 M.MAMATHA Bpham GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

314. 15Z51R0047 ADIBA TAHA Bpham GENPACT IDIA PVT LTD GCET

315. 15R11A0153 D PAVAN KUMAR CE IBPR INFRA GCET

316. 15R11A0101 ANEBONI SAIKIRAN CE IBPR INFRA GCET

317. PABBATHI BHANU KUMAR

15R11A0178 REDDY CE IBPR INFRA GCET

318. 15R11A0119 KANDURI SATHWIK CE IBPR INFRA GCET

319. 15R11A0179 PASTAM DAYAKAR CE IBPR INFRA GCET

320. 15R11A0154 DARAVENI SHIVA TEJA CE IBPR INFRA GCET

321. 15R11A0161 HANUMANTHU VAMSHI SAI CE IBPR INFRA GCET

322. 15R11A0112 G BHEEM REDDY CE IBPR INFRA GCET

323. RUDRAGONI VENKATA SURYA

15R11A0180 TEJA CE IBPR INFRA GCET

324. 15R11A05G6 SANDHYA MOURYA CSE REPUTATION GCET

325. 15R11A05H3 V NAGA TEJASWI CSE TALENTIO GCET

326. 15R11A0546 PERI KAMESWARY BHAVANI CSE TALENTIO GCET

327. 15R11A04C4 BADHINI SIDDHARTHA GOUD ECE TALENTIO GCET

328. 15R11A05L1 GUBBALA HARI PRIYA CSE TALENTIO GCET

329. 15R11A0521 SAMUEL JOEL CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

330. 15R11A04F9 PULLURU VISHAL PREETHAM ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

331. 15R11A05K0 CHINTA SAIDEEP CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

332. 15R11A04L8 LANKA MARTIN DAVID ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

333. 15R11A0493 M SUJANA ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

334. 15R11A0248 S PIYUSH BALAJI EEE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

335. 15R11A0413 GUDUGUNTLA DEEKSHITHA ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

336. 15R11A0168 LINGAMANENI NIKHIL CE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

337. 15R11A05N3 PATNAM SPURTHI CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

338. 15R11A0511 DASARI ANUHYA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

339. 15R11A0504 BANDAM AKHILA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

340. 15R11A05L7 LIYA ROSE ANTONY CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

341. 17R11E0016 G MAHESH MBA AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

19
342. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

343. 15R11A0368 GORANTALA SUDHANSHU ME AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

344. 15R11A0546 PERI KAMESWARY BHAVANI CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

345. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA

15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

346. 15R11A0243 NISCHALA B NARAYANAN EEE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

347. 15R11A05A1 P HARIKA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

348. 15R11A0598 NIDA AFREEN CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

349. 15R11A0257 VELAGALA ANEERUDDH EEE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

350. 15R11A05L8 M ABHINAV REDDY CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

351. 15R11A05J5 B TANUJA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

352. 15R11A04E9 N BHUVANESHWARI ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

353. 15R11A04F2 NIDIGONDI MANI KANTA SAI ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

354. PRERANA SUGUNA

15R11A04F8 KAMBHAMPATI ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

355. CHIRANJEEVI SHANMUKHA

15R11A05D3 KARTHIKEYA CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

356. 15R11A0471 DEVA REDDY SRINIDHI REDDY ECE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

357. 15R11A05H2 TUMMALA HARSHINI CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

358. 15R11A0565 AMULYA JAKKARIGARI CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

359. 15R11A0366 DASARI NAVEENA ME AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

360. 15R11A0317 DIKSHANT JOSHI ME AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

361. 15R11A05M2 MERUGUMALA HARSHINI CSE AMAZON INDIA PVT LTD GCET

362. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A0516 G B NIKITHA CSE LTD GCET

363. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A04L7 KOMPELLA V B SAI SREEKAR ECE LTD GCET

364. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A04D1 CHINDAM MOHANA ECE LTD GCET

365. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A0441 NOMULA LAKSHMI MEGHANA ECE LTD GCET

366. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A05D5 EGA SHRAVANI CSE LTD GCET

367. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A05H9 YARLAGADDA PRUDHVIK CSE LTD GCET

368. DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT

15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE LTD GCET

369. 15R11A05N9 RUDRAVARAM SHIVANI CSE GCET

DARK HORRSE INDIA PVT
20
 LTD

370. KAMBHAMPATI VENKATA

16R15A0126 SAIDUTT CE GLOBAL ACTIVE ENGINEERS GCET

371. 15VD1A0105 VELAMURI ANIROOTH CE GLOBAL ACTIVE ENGINEERS GCET

372. PABBATHI BHANU KUMAR

15R11A0178 REDDY CE GLOBAL ACTIVE ENGINEERS GCET

373. 15R11A0119 KANDURI SATHWIK CE GLOBAL ACTIVE ENGINEERS GCET

374. 15R11A0568 BOYAPALLY PRIYANKA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

375. 15R11A0581 GUNDLAPALLY SUSHMITHA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

376. 15R11A05A1 P HARIKA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

377. 15R11A05K1 D DEEPIKA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

378. 15R11A05J5 B TANUJA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

379. 15R11A0516 G B NIKITHA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

380. 15R11A0540 NEBARSU VISHNU TEJA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

381. 15R11A05D5 EGA SHRAVANI CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

382. 15R11A05G1 RESHAM SUPRIYA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

383. 15R11A05F1 MOLUGU PAVANI CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

384. 15R11A0539 N PADMAJA CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

385. 15R11A0529 KORUKOPPULA SUPRIYA GOUD CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

386. 15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

387. 15R11A0545 PANUGANTI ABHISHEK CSE ARTECH INFO PVT LTD GCET

388. RASTER ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0168 LINGAMANENI NIKHIL CE LTD GCET

389. RASTER ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0108 ANNALDESH PRASHANTH CE LTD GCET

390. RASTER ENGINEERING PVT

16R15A0103 EROLLU SAILAJA CE LTD GCET

391. DANGETI SIVA VARA PRASAD RASTER ENGINEERING PVT

15R11A0108 PAVAN KUMA CE LTD GCET

392. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE EDUREKA GCET

393. 15R11A04A5 S INDIRA DEVI ECE EDUREKA GCET

394. 15R11A05B1 SANDOLU ANNIE NEETHIKA CSE EDUREKA GCET

395. 15R11A0565 AMULYA JAKKARIGARI CSE EDUREKA GCET

396. NUTHALAKANTE PADMA RAO

15R11A0599 HARITHA CSE EDUREKA GCET

397. 15R11A04D7 GUNTI BANU SRIKAR ECE EDUREKA GCET

21
398. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA
15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE EDUREKA GCET

399. 15R11A04F2 NIDIGONDI MANI KANTA SAI ECE Asahi Glass India Limited GCET

400. 15R11A04C2 AGALI PRASAD PAAVANI ECE Asahi Glass India Limited GCET

401. 15R11A0352 SRIKAR KAPARDI SHARMA T ME Asahi Glass India Limited GCET

402. 15R11A0549 RAYABARAPU MADHULIKA CSE GLOBAL LOGIC GCET

403. 15R11A05B7 V KARTIKEYA PRANEET CSE GLOBAL LOGIC GCET

404. 15R11A0502 ANGALA DEEKSHITH CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

405. 15R11A0548 R BINDIYA CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

406. POTHI REDDY JASMITHA

15R11A04N6 REDDY ECE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

407. POOVANNAMODIYIL
15R11A0398 SASIKUMAR SHYAM KUM ME RESOLUTE B2B GCET

408. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

409. 15R11A0504 BANDAM AKHILA CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

410. 15R11A0471 DEVA REDDY SRINIDHI REDDY ECE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

411. 15R11A04C5 BANDARI HIMAJA ECE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

412. 15R11A05K5 G BHARATH CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

413. 15R11A05J9 CHERYL D SOUZA CSE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

414. 15R11A04M9 NALLANAGULA PRANAY TEJA ECE RESOLUTE B2B GCET

415. SANDRA MUNI GNANA

15R11A04A7 PRAKASH ECE JUST DIAL GCET

416. 15R11A04M3 MANNEBOINA SAI KUMAR ECE JUST DIAL GCET

417. 15R11A05G0 RAJULA NAGAPHANINDRA CSE JUST DIAL GCET

418. 15R11A05C9 C H LOKESH KUMAR CSE JUST DIAL GCET

419. 15R11A05K8 GINKALA ANIL KUMAR CSE JUST DIAL GCET

420. 15R11A05C1 A DINESH KUMAR CSE JUST DIAL GCET

421. 15R11A05F8 POTHIGANTI KUSHAL SAI CSE JUST DIAL GCET

422. NANGANOORI MAHESH

15R11A05F3 KUMAR CSE JUST DIAL GCET

423. 15R11A0555 TIRUVEEDHULA RAGA SINJITH CSE KEKA TECHNOLOGY GCET

424. 15R11A0517 G SAI SRI ADITYA CSE KEKA TECHNOLOGY GCET

425. 15R11A04M9 NALLANAGULA PRANAY TEJA ECE CV CROP GCET

426. 15R11A04H2 VANAKURI SHARMILA ECE CV CROP GCET

427. 15R11A04F4 PALURI MAHENDRA REDDY ECE CV CROP GCET

22
428. DESHMUKH JANHAVI
15R11A04K1 RAVINDRA ECE CV CROP GCET

429. 15R11A0101 ANEBONI SAIKIRAN CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

430. 15R11A0164 KASOJU AJAY KUMAR CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

431. 15R11A0154 DARAVENI SHIVA TEJA CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

432. 15R11A0152 C RAGHU VARDHAN REDDY CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

433. 15R11A0104 CHATRAGHADDA NIKHIL CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

434. 15R11A0165 KETHAVATH AKASH CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

435. 15R11A0186 VANCHA JITHENDHAR REDDY CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

436. 15VD1A0105 VELAMURI ANIROOTH CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

437. 15R11A0120 KOLLURI LINGA RAJU CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

438. 16R15A0108 ANNALDESH PRASHANTH CE RVM CONSTRUCTIONS GCET

439. 15R11A05A4 POLAKONDA SAI VAMSHI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

440. 15R11A05F5 P SRI SAIRAM CSE COGNIZANT GCET

441. 15R11A05G2 S APARNA CSE COGNIZANT GCET

442. 15R11A05H2 TUMMALA HARSHINI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

443. 15R11A05H3 V NAGA TEJASWI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

444. 15R11A05H9 YARLAGADDA PRUDHVIK CSE COGNIZANT GCET

445. CHELLAPILLA LAKSHMI

15R11A05J8 APARNA CSE COGNIZANT GCET

446. 15R11A05N5 POLAPALLY SWATHI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

447. 15R11A05N9 RUDRAVARAM SHIVANI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

448. 15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

449. 15R11A0550 ROHIT E S S M CSE COGNIZANT GCET

450. VEDANTAM SHANMUKHA

15R11A05B8 SHREYAS CSE COGNIZANT GCET

451. 15R11A05E1 J PRAGNA CSE COGNIZANT GCET

452. 15R11A05E6 M DEEPIKA CSE COGNIZANT GCET

453. 15R11A05N9 RUDRAVARAM SHIVANI CSE COGNIZANT GCET

454. 15R11A04D5 GAJULA HARICHANDANA ECE COGNIZANT GCET

455. 15R11A04F2 NIDIGONDI MANI KANTA SAI ECE COGNIZANT GCET

456. 15R11A04J8 CHENNU CHAITANYA ECE COGNIZANT GCET

457. 15R11A04L8 LANKA MARTIN DAVID ECE COGNIZANT GCET

458. 15R11A0392 NARALA SAI DHEERAJ ME COGNIZANT GCET

459. 15R11A0248 S PIYUSH BALAJI EEE RAAM GROUP GCET

23
460. 15R11A0224 G VENKAT SAI EEE RAAM GROUP GCET

461. 15R11A0545 PANUGANTI ABHISHEK CSE OORWIN LABS GCET

462. ROSHAN SAKETH

15R11A04G4 GUNDAMANANI ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

463. 15R11A05G0 RAJULA NAGAPHANINDRA CSE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

464. 15R11A04H1 V SAI DHILEEP ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

465. VEERUBHOTLA SRI KRISHNA

15R11A04H6 PRIYA ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

466. 15R11A04D5 GAJULA HARICHANDANA ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

467. 15R11A04P1 SRISHTU NITYA NIKHILA ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

468. 15R11A04N1 P UMASREE ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

469. 15R11A0320 GATTOJI MURALI KRISHNA ME SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

470. 16R15A0518 VADLA BHAVANI CSE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

471. 15R11A0249 SAMBARAPU BHARGAVI EEE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

472. 15R11A0247 REVURI VARSHASREE EEE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

473. 15R11A04A5 S INDIRA DEVI ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

474. 15R11A04C1 ADEPU BHARGAVI ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

475. 16R15A0521 ISSAC NEHA MARGRET CSE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

476. 15R11A04N9 SAMREEN ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

477. 15R11A04P3 SYED FARHEEN ECE SURTHERLANDS GLOBAL GCET

478. 15R11A05H0 THINDERU SAKSHI CSE VIRTUSA GCET

479. 15R11A0505 BONDUGULA VAMSHI CSE TA DIGITAL GCET

480. 15R11A0401 A NIMISHA REDDY ECE Montaigne smart business GCET

481. 16R15A0326 KAMBALA VENKATESH ME DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

482. AMANCHARALA VENKATA

15R11A05J2 RAMA KAUSIK CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

483. 15R11A0552 SEELAM SAIPRIYA CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

484. 15R11A0523 J VENKAT SHIVA CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

485. 16R15A0322 CHOWHAN RAJU ME DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

486. 16R15A0518 VADLA BHAVANI CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

487. 15R11A0421 KODURU VIKAS REDDY ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

488. VEERUBHOTLA SRI KRISHNA

15R11A04H6 PRIYA ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

489. MEKALA VENKATA RAHUL

15R11A05M1 YADAV CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

24
490. 15R11A0484 K SRAVANTH KUMAR ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

491. 15R11A0437 METHADI SIDHARTH ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

492. 15R11A0462 ALLAKONDA ANIL KUMAR ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

493. 15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

494. 15R11A0519 GUJJARI SHRUJAN CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

495. 15R11A0529 KORUKOPPULA SUPRIYA GOUD CSE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

496. 15R11A04N2 PALLA DURGA SUCHARITHA ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

497. 16R15A0409 ERUSALAGANDI TEJASWINI ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

498. BURRA LAKSHMI NARAYANA

15R11A0466 ANJANEYA KAR ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

499. BORRA VENKATA VARUN

15R11A04C8 KUMAR ECE DQ ENTERTAINMENT GCET

500. 15R11A04P2 SURAGANI SAI MEGHANA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

501. 15R11A04K8 JALAGAM NIKHIL ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

502. BACHINAPPA KRISHNA

15R11A0207 HARSHA EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

503. 15R11A04A4 RAMIDI G PRASUNA REDDY ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

504. 15R11A04C9 BUSANI HARITEJA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

505. 15R11A04H3 VANAPALLI GNANENDRA SAI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

506. 15R11A04F9 PULLURU VISHAL PREETHAM ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

507. RAVINUTHALA V S S PHANI

15R11A04G2 KUMAR ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

508. 15R11A04D7 GUNTI BANU SRIKAR ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

509. 15R11A0204 ANUGU AKHIL KUMAR EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

510. 15R11A0220 ENUGULA JYOTHI EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

511. 15R11A0254 SURA BHARGAVI EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

512. VEERUBHOTLA SRI KRISHNA

15R11A04H6 PRIYA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

513. 15R11A04J3 BASVABHAKTULA ROSHINI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

514. 15R11A04G7 SHIVALINGALA BHARGAVI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

515. 15R11A04D5 GAJULA HARICHANDANA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

516. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

517. 15R11A04C1 ADEPU BHARGAVI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

518. 15R11A04A1 POOSKURI LAHARI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

519. 15R11A0477 GUDA SOWJANYA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

25
520. 15R11A04A8 SHERKHANE PRIYANKA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

521. MADISHETTI HEMANTH

15R11A0237 KUMAR EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

522. 15R11A0225 GURRAPU SANJAY BHARGAVA EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

523. 15R11A04D6 GANJIKUNTA VANDANA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

524. 15R11A0228 KATA HANUMANTH PUJA EEE GLEENWOOD GCET

525. 16R15A0409 ERUSALAGANDI TEJASWINI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

526. VARANASI PRASANNA TARUN

15R11A04H4 TEJA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

527. 15R11A0453 T NAGA SRAVANI ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

528. 15R11A0413 GUDUGUNTLA DEEKSHITHA ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

529. 15R11A0523 J VENKAT SHIVA CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

530. 15R11A0551 SEELAM RAHUL CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

531. 15R11A0367 G SHEETAL GUPTA ME GLEENWOOD GCET

532. 15R11A04E5 MOHAMMAD ABDUL AFROZ ECE GLEENWOOD GCET

533. 15R11A0537 MANGA SHRUTHI CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

534. 15R11A0381 KANNAM VINAY SIDDHARTHA ME GLEENWOOD GCET

535. 15R11A05E6 M DEEPIKA CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

536. 15R11A05G6 SANDHYA MOURYA CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

537. 15R11A0587 KONDAVEETI GOUTHAM CSE GLEENWOOD GCET

538. 15R11A0240 NAINIKA SHARMA EEE JARO TOPSCHOLARS Pvt Ltd GCET

539. 15R11A0235 LUKKA HEMENDRA BHARATH EEE JARO TOPSCHOLARS Pvt Ltd GCET

540. 15R11A0521 GUNZA Y SAMUEL JOEL CSE HSBC GCET

541. 15R11A0541 NEHA CHIRUMALLA CSE HSBC GCET

ACADEMIC PROGRAMS
The academic structure of the courses and schedules are finalized by the Board of Studies
(BoS) and the College Academic Council (CAC). The list of courses offered with intake is given
below:

B.TECH
➢ Civil Engineering (CE) 120
➢ Computer Science and Engineering (CSE) 240
➢ Electrical and Electronics Engineering (EEE) 120
➢ Electronics and Communication Engineering (ECE) 240
➢ Information Technology (IT) 60
➢ Mechanical Engineering (ME) 120

26
MBA
➢Master of Business Administration (MBA) 60
M.TECH
➢Computer Science and Engineering 30
From the academic year 2016-17, eight hundred and forty students are apportioned into
17 sections instead of 14 sections. There are approximately 45-50 students per class instead
of usual 60 students per class, so that more personal attention can be given to students.

Value Added Courses

1. Soft Skills development course.

2. Value added courses - NX-CAD, PTC CREO-4.0
3. Technical skill-enhancing courses with experts in the field from academia and industry.
a. Oracle
b. Advance Java
c. Arduino
d. Raspberry pie
e. Cadence tools
f. Auto-Cad
g. Lab-view
h. Data Analytics
i. IBM Security
j. IBM Cognos
k. Wizbee Hardware Technology
4. Business English Certificate (BEC) course taken up by experts for interested students.
5. Nano coatings and applications, CNC programming, Computer Aided Manufacturing.
6. Advances in Robotics.
7. Engineering Design (CAD/CAM) for Mechanical Engineering students
8. CNC Machining Skill Development Techniques
9. Wireless sensor networks.
10. Next generation wireless technology, Data mining for web intelligence.
11. Cloud computing and services, E-learning techniques, Information retrieval and
management.
12. Power quality, Energy audit and demand side management, Virtual instrumentation.
13. SCADA and PLC applications.
14. Finishing School
15. Aptitude Training
16. Writing Skills
The above courses are offered to students as "Value added Courses" to enhance
their employability skills and advance their career.
27
 Grade Point Calculations and Promotion Rules AR18

% of Marks Secured (Class Letter Grade (UGC Grade

Intervals) Guidelines) Points
( 90% ) O (Outstanding) 10
( 80% , < 90% ) A+ (Excellent) 9
( 70% , < 80% ) A (Very Good) 8
( 60% , < 70% ) B+ (Good) 7
( 50% , < 60% ) B (above Average) 6
( 40% , < 50% ) C (Average) 5
Below40% ( < 40% ) F (FAIL) 0

i. Attendance Based Promotion Rules:

➢ A student shall be eligible to appear for the Semester End Examinations, if he/she acquires
a minimum of 75% of attendance of all the courses for that semester.
➢ Condoning of shortage of attendance in aggregate up to 10% (65% and above, and below
75%) in each semester may be granted by the College Academic Committee on
valid medical grounds, participation in sports, games, NCC, NSS, other co-curricular and
extra-curricular activities, recognized for the purpose, and the participation having the prior
approval of the competent authority (Head of the Department concerned). Such
condonation shall be based on the student’s representation with supporting evidence.
➢ A stipulated fee shall be payable towards condoning of shortage of attendance.
➢ Shortage of attendance below 65% in aggregate shall in “NO” case be condoned.
➢ Students, whose shortage of attendance is not condoned in any semester, are not eligible to
take their semester end examinations and they get detained and their registration for that
semester shall stand cancelled. They shall not be promoted to the next semester. They may
seek re-registration for all those courses registered in that semester in which they were
detained, by seeking re-admission into that semester as and when offered.

ii. Credit Based Promotion Rules

S. No Promotion Credits Required

1 From I year to II Year Only if the student earns 50% of the credits offered in the
first year of study from one regular and one
supplementary examinations of I year I semester and one
regular exam of I year II semester, irrespective of whether
the student takes those examinations or not.
28
2 From II year to III Year Only if the student earns 60% of the credits offered up to
II year II semester from all the exams conducted up to and
including II year II semester irrespective of whether the
student takes those exams or not.
3 From III Year to IV year Only if the student earns 60% of the credits offered up to
III year II semester from all the exams conducted up to
and including III year II semester irrespective of whether
the student takes those exams or not.

Please note that advanced supplementary examinations of any type shall not be conducted.
PERFORMANCE MONITORING AND GUIDANCE
Student Mentors
Every student is assigned a student mentor [a faculty member]. Students can directly
discuss with them, either college related or personal problems related to studies. The Mentors
are accessible whenever they are free from class / lab work. Mentors meet the students once in a
week to get feedback on their academic progress. Students can contact them during working
hours or over the phone.

Class Representatives and their roles

Two students from each class are selected as the Class Representatives from each department
from first year, based on their % of marks in Intermediate or EAMCET rank. The selections are
made by respective class teachers and Department Heads. Their responsibilities include:
• Communicating the departmental / college directives and information to the students.
• Collecting the feedback f r o m the students about the difficulties t h e y face
within the campus and communicating it to the faculty in-charge for further
suggestions / improvements.
• Coordinating academic events and co-curricular activities.
• Encouraging students to interact for better studies, sharing books and notes.
Performance Counselling
Mentors and Coordinators counsel the students individually in the following
situations:
• Less marks in Internal Exams.
• Continuous Absenteeism (For 3 or more than 3days).
• Inability to understand the subject.
• Students from vernacular medium
• Personal issues enabling student to cope with academics

Special Classes/Tutorial/Revisions
Special classes are conducted for students who need extra help to improve their academic
performance. Students can approach their mentors or the Head of the Department concerned for
special coaching.

Backlog Management
A complete record of Examination results of each student is maintained by the Mentors who
counsel the students and guide them to get through their backlogs. Students are provided with
29
study material and important questions are discussed.

Correspondence with parents

Parents are informed about the performance of their ward from time to time in the semester.
However parents are requested to be in touch with the Student’s mentor / Head of the
Department on a regular basis.

Internal Quality Assurance Cell (IAQC)

(Co-Ordinator: Dr B. L. Prakash, Professor, ECE)
A unique feature of GCET is its Internal Quality Assurance Cell which is set up to monitor
teaching of both theory as well as practical sessions. This section functions with senior members
among the faculty at the helm. Pre-quality, process-quality and final-quality checks are
conducted. The standards of teaching and its parameters are checked by this section. It leaves no
stone unturned to give the students the best. This body also checks the labs and keeps them
updated with the latest equipment.
The primary aim of IQAC is

• To develop a system for conscious, consistent and catalytic action to improve the
academic and administrative performance of the institution.

• To promote measures for institutional functioning towards quality enhancement through

internalization of quality culture and institutionalization of best practices.

ATTENDANCE POLICY
1. Attendance in every department is compiled once in a fortnight and displayed on the
notice boards.
2. The students falling short of required attendance are informed about the same regularly.
3. An undertaking is taken from students falling short of attendance.
4. Parents of such students are informed as and when required.

STUDENT ACTIVITIES

STUDENT CHAPTERS
The college has three student chapters- Indian Society for Technical Education (ISTE) managed
by faculty coordinator Dr. J. Shankar, Professor of Physics; IETE is managed by the department
of ECE and CSI managed by the department of CSE. The details are given under the department
details.

STUDENT SEMINARS
Students are encouraged to prepare and present seminars as scheduled in their time table. They
are also encouraged to form teams to give presentations in their respective subjects.
Symposium
The College organizes Symposia by inviting eminent personalities to encourage and influence

30
students. These personalities are renowned Academicians, Researchers, Scientists, CEOs, and
important Government Officials and Persons.

Guest Lectures
The College organizes guest lectures at department level for technical advancements in the
respective field and also to sharpen the knowledge in the subjects of the curriculum.

Industrial and Study Tours and Visits

Local industrial visits are arranged for II and III Year students.

ANNUAL DAY CELEBRATIONS – VIBES 2K19

Annual day is celebrated on a large scale every year and it is the culmination of year-long
efforts of the students. Events like Singing, Dancing, Beat Boxing, Music, Mimicry, Decoration,
Sports etc., are held and prizes are awarded to the winners. The Chief Guest of the day, Mr.
Srikanth Surampudi, TCS HR Regional Hyder, presented cash prizes to the Academic toppers
and trophies to the JNTU sports winners for the A.Y 17-18.

ALFAMATICA
ALFAMATICA (A Litero-Mathematical fest) is conducted every year. Students actively come
forward with many novel ideas both for main events and open events. The three-fold objective
of the fest is to enhance the interest among the students, to improve their creativity and to give
them adequate experience in handling various situations while organizing and managing the
events. These events create a platform for inter-collegiate participation and encourage students
to improve their literary and mathematical skills entitled ALFABETICA and MATHEMATICA
respectively.
Students from various colleges take very active part in the events. Volunteers advertise
and promote the event and bring in support from various sponsors both in cash and kind. The
motto of the college is “Striving towards Perfection”, in every aspect. Almost 300 students
participate and win many prizes every year.

VAISHESHIKA 2K19
The Department of Freshman Engineering came out with yet another innovative idea of
organizing an Intra-college Science Fest in the year 2015 and christened it VAISHESHIKA. The
main motto in conducting the Science Fest is to bring out the latent talents of the budding
engineers. Every year this event is conducted to commemorate the eve of ‘NATIONAL
SCIENCE DAY’. This year it was celebrated on 7th March, 2019. The students participated
with great zest in the science fest.

Dr. K. Bhanuprakash, Chief Scientist, IICT, Hyderabad .was the chief guest for Vaisheshika
2K19. He addressed the young students with his motivational talk on the topic “Computers in
Chemistry”. He spoke on the research work of Chemistry in different CSIR labs in general in
particular in IICT Hyderabad and how the computers are used in the research field. It was well
received by both students and faculty members. 35 working models, 05 demo models and 32
posters were presented by the students. 59 students presented posters and 159 students
participated in working and demo model competitions. A total 218 students participated in
Vaisheshika2k19.Winners were given memento and books as prizes.
31
 TEACHER’S DAY CELEBRATIONS
5th September, is celebrated as Teacher’s Day every year, in the memory of our first Vice
President Dr. Sarvepalli Radha Krishnan. Celebrations for the Teacher’s Day create ever
lasting memories in the minds and hearts of all the faculty members and students. Heart-
warming events are organized by the students of Fine Arts Club of the college, in order to pay
gratitude towards their teachers and other staff members. A number of events are organized
which include dance, skits, songs etc.

GRADUATION DAY
The Tenth Graduation Day was held on 12 July, 2018 at the open auditorium. Dr. Udaya Kumar
Susarla, the Principal of Geethanjali College of Engineering and Technology addressed the
gathering and gave a report on the institution’s performance, highlighting the achievements of
the students during the last academic year. Sri. G. R. Ravinder Reddy, Secretary of our
esteemed institution declared the Convocation Open.
The Chief Guests of the day, Sri Kumar Mynampati, Associate Vice President INFOSYS, IVS-
Cloud, Security Infra and Mfg, and Sri. Raghu Rao, Head of Business Development, PeerNova,
Inc. delivered Convocation speech and encouraged the students to move towards the path of
their success. The Chief Guests accompanied by the Principal and the Secretary gave the degree
certificates to all the graduated students of 2018. The Chief Guests also presented Gold
Medals as a special award of merit to the Toppers of every branch.

BHASWARA
Bhaswara, a Technical Symposium, is held every year to recognize the creative, competitive,
and analytical skills of students. The symposium hosts very interesting and educative events like
robotics, paper and poster presentations, model making, debugging, code mazing, treasure hunt,
contraptions, Robot Race, etc. This gathering of engineering students has been taking the center
stage for enthusiastic youth for about 12 years in and around Hyderabad.

SPORTS EVENTS
Geethanjali is a Paradise for sports lovers. The college is well equipped with the required
material for Sports & Games and also GYM. It has three cricket pitches for practice in the vast
playground. Our college participates in various sports & games conducted by various institutions
throughout the year. Sports and games like Cricket, Football, Basketball, Throw ball,
Volleyball, Kabaddi, Kho-Kho, Tennikoit, Table Tennis, Chess, Caroms, Handball, Baseball,
Soft Ball, Shuttle Badminton and Athletics are conducted during ‘LARO FESTO’ the Annual
Sports and Games Fest of the College.

32
Student’s Achievements in Sports – 2018-19
OUT STANDING PERFORMANCE IN SPORTS-2018-2019
1. Mr. K. Manish Civil II year represented by JNTUH Swimming (Aquatics) team to participate
in All India Inter University Tournaments at Jain University Bangalore, Karnataka.
2. Mr. V. Prasad Rao of Mechanical III Year represented by JNTUH Volleyball team to
participate in All India Inter University South Zone Tournaments at SRM University- Chennai.
3. Mr. G. Srilakhan of Mechanical II year represented by JNTUH Hockey team to participate in
All India Inter University South Zone Tournaments at Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur.
4. Mr. Shaik Jaweed of Mechanical III year represented by JNTUH Football team to participate
in All India Inter University South Zone Tournament at Pondicherry University, Karnataka.
5. N. Rukmini Varalakshmi Mechanical II year represented by JNTUH Swimming (Aquatics)
team to participate in All India Inter University Tournament at Belgaum University, Karnataka.
6. Mr. P. Aravind Thilok of Mechanical III year represented by JNTUH Tennis team to
participate in All India Inter University South Zone Tournament at SRM University, Chennai.

AWARDS
Academic and other Awards
Academic Awards are given to students by the College and also by the Professors of the College
for specific academic achievements. The various awards instituted by the college are:
Academic Prize
Raja Reddy memorial for academic excellence is given to the college toppers of all the four years
(I, II, III and IV year) of respective Engineering branches and MBA (I and II year). Cash prize is
given to each student who tops in each branch every year.

COLLEGE CLUBS
‘Life is not just academics at Geethanjali’. Here the endeavour is to make all-rounder. As a
part of this, the college organizes several activities, which imbibe a strong set of values in
students to deal with life. Clubs which give ample opportunities to experiment and experience
life to the fullest are:

MATHEMATICS CLUB
(Co-Ordinator: Dr. V. S. Triveni, Professor; Freshman Eng. Dept.)
Mathematics club was started to augment the analytical and logical reasoning to be inculcated in
all the students, thereby improving their life skills. As a part of this activity an inter-collegiate
mathematical fest- Mathematica, is held every year. The events included mathematical puzzles,
quiz and exciting mind games.
This year, five events were conducted at Seminar Hall, Block-II. Majority of the events had three
rounds. The events are O Math Amet, Mathema, Sudoriferous, Monster Math, Trig Troupe.
Each event was allotted 60 minutes time and 151 students participated in each event. The
winners were listed out by the Judge. The events were quite interacting, analytical, logical,
mathematical skill based and problem solving activities.

33
The chief guest for the valedictory function was Dr. S. Mohanraj, Retired Professor; EFL
University inspired students with his speech.

Activities conducted during the academic year 2018-19

Date No. of
S. No. Name of the Event
Participants
Geethanjali Monsoon Cube Open 2018 in association 25-08-2018
1 with World Cube Association and Deccan Cubing 26-08-2018 60
Organization
Geethanjali Cube Open 2019 in association with 26-01-2019
2 World Cube Association and Deccan Cubing 27-01-2019 70
Organization
Quiz competition conducted on the eve of National 07-01-2019
3 179
mathematics day(To commemorate Ramanujan’s day)

FINE ARTS AND CULTURAL CLUB

(Co-Ordinator: Ms. P. Mercy Kavitha, Assoc. Prof.; Freshman Engg. Dept.)
A campus poised on sheer scientific thrills requires a balancing dose of art and culture so that
aesthetics and beauty around us are not forgotten. In this pursuit, the fine arts club organizes
events, conducts competitions and celebrate festivals. Students are provided with adequate
opportunities to understand the importance of living in harmony with each other for an ideal
college, society and nation at large.
The Club celebrates important events like Teachers’ Day and Fresher’s Day. It is also for
organizing Talent Day and Traditional Day. The themes for all the competitions are selected
to create/ enhance aesthetic sense among students.

Following activities were taken up by the club in the year 2018-19:

1. Celebrating Fresher’s Day on 16th August, 2018.

2. The Club organized Bathukamma and Daandiya Raas on 13th October, 2018.
3. A Rally against Speed Driving was organized on 1st September, 2018. Students of the college
not only took a pledge to drive safely but also motivated the residents of Cheryala Village to do
the same.
4. The innate talent of our students was tapped by TV5 which organized the Student of the year-
Competition in coordination with the club. The college tied up with Hindu Dharmam of TV5 to
celebrate the Traditional Day and Talent Day on 11th January, 2019.
5. The Club coordinated with the other departments in organizing VIBGYOR and VIBES- the
Annual Fests of the college.

LITERARYCLUB
(Co-Ordinator: Dr. K. Madhumathi, Assoc. Prof.; Freshman Engg. Dept.)

The Literary Club was started to enhance the written and spoken skills in students. The aim of
this club is to bring out hidden talents in the students both pedantic, speaking and writing skills.
This also aids as a vent for the student’s creative energies. The students find such activities
invigorating and help them in their academic pursuits.

34
 Activities conducted during the academic year 2018-19

NAME OF AY 2018-19
S.NO THE
ACTIVITY
Date No.
of
Participants
Essay writing competition by Heartfulness Education 25th Aug., 2018.
28
1 Trust in collaboration with UNIC of India & Bhutan
1st Sept., 2018.
Safe Driving Campaign and Awareness Rally in
2 150
Cheeryal village
5th Sept., 2018. 12
3 Elocution on Teacher’s Day

4. Mega Health Camp organized by SSSOS Hyd. 17th Nov, 2018. 200
5. Awareness on PCODs for Girls of Gcet 10th Jan,19 220
6. Essay writing competition on ISRO’s success and 18th Apr., 2019.
General elections-19. 115

SCIENCE CLUB
(Co-Ordinator: Dr. J.Shanker, Prof. of Physics, Freshman Engg. Dept.)

With a novel idea of inculcating and identifying innovative skills among the students from first
year itself, the Department of Freshman Engineering came out with an innovative idea of
running the College Science Club in the year 2014. The main aim of this club is to organize
seminars, guest lectures and workshops with scientific orientation. It is coordinated by the
faculty of Physics and Chemistry under the guidance of Dr. G. Neeraja Rani, Prof. of Physics
and Head of the Department.

S. No Date of Event Name of the Event Number of Participants

1 18-08-2018 Science Quiz round-1 175

2 01-09-2018 Science Quiz round-2 121
3 27-10-2018 Science Quiz final round 30
4 9th -10th ,November 2018 Quadcopter Work shop 127

5 2/2/2019 Technical Paper presentations on 142

Making of digital displays

6 07-03-2019 Vaisheshika-2k19 218

(Science Fest)

35
ENVIRONMENTAL CLUB
(Co-Ordinator: Ms. Swarupa Rani, Asst. Prof., Freshman Engg. Dept.)
‘Save Today – Survive tomorrow’
The “Environmental club” was formed in the college in 2009. The committee works towards
creating awareness among the students on the hazards of environmental pollution and involve
them in tasks to minimize wastage of water, usage of plastics and increase of green cover.
‘Geethanjalites Go Green (GGG)’ – is its motto. As a part of Adhira foundation,
ECO-CLUB has been organizing many eco-friendly events since 2011.
Environmental consciousness is spread among the students and the villagers. The
environmental club takes the responsibility of educating the villagers on the need to utilize eco-
friendly material while preparing idols of Ganesh for Ganesh Chathurthi & eco-friendly colors
during Holi. Students and faculty of the college engage themselves in preparing and distributing
eco-friendly clay Ganesh Idols. The students actively involved in creating awareness towards
environmental issues while celebrating Holi and Diwali.

The activities conducted during the year 2018-19

S. No Activity Date
1 Haritha Haram/Plantation 27/7/18
2 Haritha Haram/Plantation& Plant distribution program to 18/8/18
the staff and students
3 Best out of Waste Drive-1 1/9/18
4 Ganesh Idol distribution 12/9/18
5 Best out of Waste Drive-2 27/10/18

WOMEN’S PROTECTION CELL

‘Empower the women- Impact the world’
The College has constituted a Women’s Protection Cell in the college campus for the women
faculty, staff and girl students, to be aware of issues related to women and to make the campus a
safe place for them. With an aim of creating awareness of their rights and duties the cell organizes
seminars and talks.
The functions of the Women’s Protection Cell of the college are to combat deprivation, gender
discrimination and sexual harassment against women. This committee enquires the complaints
received on sexual harassment reported by women staff or students and come out with a solution.
All women (staff/students) can address their grievances to the following members of the Cell.
S. No Name of the staff Designation Phone No. Position
1. Dr. V. S. Triveni Prof.-Freshman Engg. 9246281065 Presiding
Officer
2. Ms. A. Sri Lakshmi Asso.Prof. - CSE 9912188764
3. Ms. Y. Nagalakshmi Asst. Prof.- ECE 9492922084
4. Ms. E. Hima Bindu Asst. Prof.- EEE 9703880222
5. Mr. G. Naveen Ram Administrative Officer 9866308271 Member
6. Ms. M. Nidhi Student (16R11A05H7) CSE- D 9705396910
7. Afreen Noor Patil Student (16R11A0257) EEE- A
8. Dr. Arpitha Velanki Freelancer 8688801408 External
Member

36
Grievances Redressal Cell

Protection of human rights is essential for all round development of an individual’s personality.
To realize the primary needs of the students and staff and secure civil liberties for everybody, a
Grievance Redressal Cell has been constituted in the college. The Grievance Redressal Cell
attempts to address genuine problems and complaints of staff and students whatever be the
nature of the problem. They may approach the members of the cell or any of their other
teachers whichever is comfortable. Grievance Redressal Cell enquires and analyses the nature
of the grievances and redresses them in a strictly confidential manner.
S.No. Name of the staff Designation/Dept. Phone No. Position
1. Prof. K. Somasekhara Dean-Students’ Affairs 7780799363 Chairman
2. Rao B. Hari Kumar
Prof. HoD- ECE 9642613923
3. Dr. D S R Murthy HoD- CSE
4. Dr. G. Neeraja Rani HoD- Freshman Engg. 9951752754
5. Dr. T. Siva Prasad HoD- ME 9440822343
6. Dr. R. Prasanna Kumar HoD- CE
7. Dr. A. Sita Madhavi HoD – MBA 9949469853
8. Dr. S. T. Raj Mohan Dean Admin Member
9. G. Sreelaxmi Assoc. Prof.-ECE 9989432990
10. B. Anitha Asst. Prof. – ME 9963523160
11. P. Supriya Asst. Prof. – CE 8801211727
12. A. Srilakshmi Asst. Prof. – CSE 9912188764
13. B. P. S. Jyothi Asst. Prof. – MBA 9908931864
14. U. Appalaraju Assoc. Prof. – ECE 9848889764
15. Ch. C. Y. Rao Asst. Prof. – CSE 8500717237
16. M. Ravindra Gandhi Asst. Prof. – ME 8008664404
17. Mr. K. Jithendar Reddy Assoc. Prof. - ME Convenor

NSS (Co-ordinator: Mr. Odaiah; Asst. Prof., CSE)

The motto of NSS is- ‘NOT ME BUT YOU’. It is aimed to inculcate social awareness in
students to develop a sense of social and civic responsibilities. The NSS unit was started in our
college in the academic year 2008-09 with 250 volunteers.
• Distribution of Stationary and story books to school children’s had done in two days. first
day we covered Cheeryal primary school and primary school M.P.P.S on 26/09/2018,
second day we covered primary school, ZPHS on 4/02/2019from 10am to 3pm.
• Visited primary schools of Cheeryal, for their necessary requirements and prepared list of
requirements
• Distribution of stationary to Cheeryal primary schools (1 and 2) on 26/09/2018.
• Books collected from all the students
• Distribution of story books 4/2/2019
• Blood Donation Camp In- Association with the Indian Red Cross society was organized
on 4th August 2018. Total 164 units of blood were collected from students as well as
Faculty voluntarily. For this camp 19 student volunteers, all the department NSS
coordinators and NSS Program officer were given their service.
• Blood Donation Camp in association with LIONS Club of Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad, was
conducted in the college campus on 23rd March 2019. Total 75 units of blood were
collected from the students as well as Faculty voluntarily. For this camp 10 student

37
 volunteers, all the department NSS coordinators and NSS Program officer have rendered
their services.
• Skill Development Program (English Language Communications Skills& MS-Office) for
one week i.e. from 25th June 2018 to 30th June 2018 was conducted. In this Program
around 37 students were attended to the classes.
• Swachh Bharat Camp was conducted in GCET on 19th January 2019. In this Program
around 60students and 5 Faculty members participated.

YOGA
(Co-ordinator: Prof. O. P. R. Siva Kumar, Professor; ECE)
Yoga is the ancient Indian knowledge that immensely benefits and uplifts physical, mental and
spiritual realms. It’s the Supreme Gift of India to the world. The vast technological and
scientific advancements in the modern world posed innumerable challenges to the youth by way
of reduced physical effort and increased level of stress. These in turn are taking a toll on the
overall well-being of human beings.

In line with the principle of providing holistic education to students, the college encourages
practice of Yoga on a regular basis. International Yoga day is celebrated in the college every
year. On this occasion, experts in Yoga are invited to the college to motivate the faculty, staff
and students to practice yoga and to reap the benefits there from. In addition, Meditation
sessions are conducted periodically for the benefit of the students and faculty members.

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING STUDENT CELL (Dept. of Mechanical Engineering)

“Mechanical Engineering Student Cell” was inaugurated on 18th July, 2014. The aim of the
cell is to organize various programs for the advantage and overall development of the students
of Mechanical Engineering.
S. No. Name of the Activity Date of Event
1 Manotron’19 29th March 2019 &30th March
2019

VIDYUTH: EEE STUDENT CELL (Dept. of EEE)

VIDYUTH is a student entrepreneurship group which has the basic drive of bringing out
innovative ideas among the students and transform the ideas into wonderful projects. Under this
group, Inter collegiate Tech FEST for Electrical and Electronics department, christened
ELECTRIKA ,was organized in 2K15 for the first time. Since then, it has been organizing many
events and expos for the last three successive years for encouraging young innovative minds.

BUSINESS ENGLISH CERTIFICATE (BEC)

(Co-ordinator: Prof. G. Karuna Kumari , Prof. of English, Freshman Eng. Dept.)
COMMUNICATION for BETTER TOMORROW--- THE BEC COURSE
The College is credited to introduce English language training with a major footprint in the form
of Business English Course in the academic year 2016. We impart effective training with an
aim to bridge the gap that exists between the skill-set required by the corporate world and the
skills acquired by the students through a regular course of study, thereby facilitating
substantial improvement in the employability of the students.
38
Ms. G. Karuna Kumari, a Certified Trainer and Examiner, Cambridge University, U.K, and Dr.
B. Nagamani are taking charge of training the students of the college to sit for BEC Exam.
We have introduced BEC Course, a leading English language training course with a major
footprint in imparting training of effective English Language Communication Skills on par with
Cambridge University, U.K. We aim to bridge the gap that exists between the skill-set required
by the corporate world and the skills acquired by the students through the regular course of study,
thereby facilitating substantial improvement in the employability of the students.

To state briefly, our college has tied-up with University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations as an
authorized Examination center for the conduct of the BEC Exams. Our college was awarded the
“Cambridge English Center of the year” in the year 2016. This is an achievement by itself. We
make use of state-of-the-art training methodologies using concept based quality content teaching.
Students receive certificates, from University of Cambridge ESOL Examinations. The state -of –
art class rooms in the college helped us to the maximum. Two batches appeared for the
Examination, both Preliminary and Vantage, 2016-17 and 2017-18 securing 100% result. We
are sending Third batch of students (71) for the same Exam in March 2019 and needless to state,
secured 12 Distinction and 30 Merit Certificates. All others passed.

Impact of Business English Certificate Training:

This training not only enabled the students to enhance their employment opportunities, but also
helped them further to gain professional development. And improve individual employability
skills.

Writing Skills Classes

The College has introduced Writing Skills Course to all the B. Tech first year students as a
Value Added Course and its basic principle is not just to produce students who are capable of
communicating effectively through critical and creative writing, but also resilient to the
changing needs of the learner. These classes encourage and support students in (i) cultivating
interest in developing their expressive skills through writing (ii) preparing them to be resilient to
the required writing techniques by the industry.
These goals are achieved by adopting an assorted approach with an inclination towards using
various Classroom Techniques. Students' interest is sustained and simulated through carefully
designed teaching plan and learning techniques. Collaborative language learning and peer
learning is encouraged to help the students understand difficult concepts and write with
minimum errors. At the end of the course, evaluation of performance is obtained from the
teachers in a prescribed format which shows a recognizable change in the writing skills of
students.

Soft Skills Classes (II & III yrs)

(Co-ordinator: Dr. B. Nagamani, Assoc. Prof. of English, Freshman Engg. Dept.)
The responsibility of training students in acquiring life skills is entrusted with the Centre for Soft
Skills Development. The main objective of the training is to inculcate healthy habits that are
useful for the overall development of the students. The II & III year students are trained in
acquiring interpersonal skills. Creative and Critical Thinking abilities are enhanced through
various activities. Critical Thinking and Creative Thinking activities are practiced along with
Team work and Assertive Communication. In the allotted stipulated time, the trainers could
achieve the objectives in the form of outcomes.
39
Like every year this year also many activities like Poster Presentation on the topics that enhance
nationalistic spirit are conducted in addition to the activities that test creativity, team work and
other important life skills.
Notable achievement of the Centre is it organized many activities for I.B.Tech students.
Another notable achievement is students of II year CSE started a students’ club christened
‘Enchanting Minds’ and opted to work under the aegis of Centre for Soft Skills Development.
The club has more than 50 members. Online discussions, group activities were organized by the
students with the help of the coordinator.
Finishing School
Finishing School is the brain child of the Secretary, Mr. G. Ravinder Reddy. The basic premise
of Finishing School is to synergise the potential skills among the students. It trains students in
three major arenas namely, Aptitude and Logical Reasoning, Verbal Ability and Programming
Skills. The methodology adopted to train the students is Learner-Centered, Activity Based
Approach. As Finishing School is 100% practice-based it is conducted in computer labs. It is a
unique program. It helps students to keep up with web-development expectations from
companies and equips them with intellectual knowledge and motivation to do well in all walks of
life. The programming skills are enhanced through practice of programming tasks from
companies covering C, Data-Structures, Java, MySQL and Web Technologies.

Aims of Finishing School:

* To enable students to practice programming using tasks so that they are well-equipped with
practical knowledge for Campus Placements.
* To widen students’ intellectual capacity through knowledge, vision, responsibility, hard work,
kindness and enthusiasm.
* To enable students to appreciate co-operation when working in groups.
The students of III Year of all branches were trained in the Academic Year, 2017-18, both in
Verbal Ability and Programming Skills.

LIBRARY AND INFORMATION CENTRE

The Central Library along with seven departmental libraries collectively supports the teaching,
and non-teaching staff. All students, faculty and employees of the Institute are entitled to take
library membership of online journals of IEEE, DELNET, INFOTRACK and INVENTI.
Library & Information Centre provides uncompromising information and intellectual support to
students and faculty with user-friendly approach. It offers a fully integrated and dynamic
environment for conducting academic study. Library is fully computerized with bar-coding
system.

40
 FACILITIES AT A GLANCE

Total Area 1110 Sq m

Seating Capacity 250 No.s.
No. of Volumes 35869
No. of Titles 6190
No. of Journals-Print (National,International) 160
Theses 2390
E-Journals 5083
Average number of users per day 400
Total no. of CDs (Textbooks&Magazines) 3125
TLM CD 76
Back Volumes 1650
News papers 8

TITLES/VOLUMES/JOURNALS

Course Department Titles Volumes Journals

UG Computer Science and Engineering 1347 9021 26
Electronics and Communication Engineering 1178 7581 27
Electrical & Electronics Engineering 831 3320 20
Mechanical Engineering 548 3064 20
Civil Engineering 281 2423 20
Freshman Engineering Department 759 3155 10
PG M.Tech -CSE 637 3441 12
Management Studies 613 3864 25
Total 6194 35869 160

DIGITAL LIBRARY:

NPTELVIDEO LECTURES : 5571

STANFORD VIDEO LECTURES : 14
MIT VIDEO LECTURES : 16
E-BOOKS : 6971
E-JOURNALS : 5083
PDF DOCUMENTS : 2616
Teaching and Learning Material : Available
Course Files : Available
Question Papers : Available

INSTITUTIONAL MEMBERSHIPS
IEEE, ISTE, BRITISH LIBRARY, NDL and NLIST
41
SYSTEM DETAILS
SYSTEMS : 100
SYSTEM MANUFACTURER : HP
PROCESSOR : INTEL DUAL CORE E5400
MOTHERBOARD : INTEL G43/ICH10
HDD : 320GB
RAM : 1 GB DDR3
CD/DVD : SAMSUNG
MONITOR : HP 18.5‖ TFT
MOUSE : HP
KEYBOARD : HP
HEAD PHONES : BULZER GROOVE,
INTEX OPERATING SYSTEMS : DOS WINDOWS 7XP
IP ADDRESS : 192.168.0.191 -210
SERVER SPECIFICATIONS
1. Unified Library Server Model ML1250 Base with NAS, SAN
2. Backup instant recovery, SATA Disks 1500GB
3. Digital e-learning Video serving module
4. Digital Media e-Library module with NVD Jukebox 1000
5. Mail, Print, Proxy server modules and CD/DVD Mirror server module.
6. Internet Provider: Excel Media and Apollo
7. Speed: 80mbps
REFERENCE SERVICES:
Reference books have more than 6200 books. All the Current Journals are displayed on the
racks. It is open to users every day from 9 a.m to 6 p.m.

REPROGRAHIC SERVICE
Photocopy machine is available in the library. Members can make use of this service for photo-
copying as per the requirement.
LENDING SERVICE:
MEMBERSHIP
Membership is given to all the B. Tech, M. Tech & MBA students, Teaching and Non-
Teaching staff.

Category Number of Books Loan Period

Faculty 10 End of Sem.
Non- Teaching 4 30 days
UG-Student 4 15 days
PG-Student 6 15 days
ISSUE & RENEWALS
Books are issued/received and renewed at the Circulation Counter. Users are responsible for all
the material borrowed against their ID cards, and shall present his/her ID card to borrow or
renew books.
42
LOANS & RENEWALS
For renewal, books must be brought to the Circulation Counter in person. To avoid overdue
charges, books shall be returned or renewed before the due date stamped on Due Date
Slip. Books recalled/on demand/on reserve will not be renewed. Books are not renewed
without a valid Library ID card.
OVERDUE CHARGES
Students: 1/- Rupee per day per book
BOOKS LOST OR DAMAGED
The borrower is responsible for the condition of the book borrowed. In case of loss of a book or
damage, the replacement or actual cost of the book/s with penalty is to be paid.
LOSS OF LIBRARY BARCODE
The library Barcode which is on the ID card of the student is used for all renewals and
cancellations. If the Barcode is lost, it can be replaced by applying for the same in the library
by paying a penalty of Rs. 10
Timings: Books issue/return - 9 A.M. to 4.30 P.M.
Reading – 9 A.M to 6 P.M

TRANSPORT

Transport facility for the students is provided from all corners of the city. Driven by a team of
trained drivers in 39 routes, the buses ply from far flung areas catering to the students’ need
for comfortable and hassle free journey.
The college is situated at a distance of 7Km from ECIL X Roads, which is well connected to all
the important places of the city. Therefore, a good number of APSRTC buses have frequent
access to this area. The college owns sufficient buses to bring the students on time to the
college. The unique feature is that, the students are taken care of in the buses by senior faculty
members, such that their needs are well attended to, even during the journey.

NOTE: All the staff members and students using the college buses should be present 10
minutes before the scheduled time at their respective boarding points. Bus In-charge and other
authorized persons are allowed to check the students’ bus passes.

STUDENT’S CONDUCT, RESPONSIBILITIES AND DISCIPLINARY RULES

Conduct
1. Attend every class promptly except when unavoidable and justifying circumstances occur
(such as illness, emergencies, etc)
2. Treat faculty and staff with respect and courtesy which also include on-time attendance,
attentiveness in the class activities, etc.
3. Attend every class with required preparation honestly and actively listen and participate
(having completed reading and other assignments).
4. Exhibit academic integrity.
5. Provide information and necessary supporting documents in situations demanding special
attention such as illness.

43
 6. Meet class advisor regularly to ensure that all academic requirements are met; especially
attendance.
7. Scrupulously follow the stated policies of the college.
8. Plan meticulously for long-term professional development and implement the same. Keep
monitoring your professional development and take corrective measures whenever
needed.
9. Always review prerequisite material as needed.
10. Do not damage or misuse college resources
11. Consider faculty’s course evaluation seriously and provide a fair assessment of
course and faculty.
12. Display enthusiasm for courses with a real concern for learning.
Responsibilities
I. ID Cards:
1. All Students should always wear and display their ID cards prominently. This should be
from the time they enter the college campus till they leave the campus. The students
using the college bus facility should wear the ID cards even while they are commuting
from their boarding point to college and back.
2. The Students who fail to bring their ID cards should get down from their vehicle at
the security gate, enter their name, and other particulars in the register, get their
identity authenticated by any other student of the college carrying his/her ID card before
entering the campus.
3. Any student who has lost his/her ID card should apply for a duplicate ID card on
payment of the prescribed fee.
II. Punctuality:
1. The students should always be punctual to class. They must enter the campus well before
the commencement of the 1st period (9:30A.M).

2. The students should not loiter in the corridors, lawns, play ground, canteen etc., during
the class hours. Those students who come late for the 1st period by more than 10 minutes
will not be permitted inside the class.
III. Rules to be observed by students commuting by college bus.
• The students should travel in college bus with a valid bus pass.
• The students should travel only on the route for which the bus pass is issued.
• The students should put on and display their ID cards while boarding the bus, and
while they are in the bus.
• The students should board the bus only at the allotted boarding points. Those who
board the college bus should get down at the college only and not at any other stage en
route
• The students should take their seats in the bus following the seating plan
mentioned below:
B. Tech I year girl students should be seated in the front rows followed by the senior
girl students and faculty/bus in-charge. B. Tech I year boy students are seated before the senior
boy students.
44
 • The students should arrive at their respective boarding points ahead of scheduled time
of departure. No requests to delay the departure will be entertained.
• The students should conduct themselves with dignity and decency while they are in the
bus. They should not engage in loud conversation or create any kind of disturbance.
IV. Regulation of mobile phone use by the students in the college
campus
Use of mobile phones by the students in the college campus is generally not permitted.
However, considering the need for communication facility with the outside world in exigencies,
the following guidelines for use of mobile phones are issued
(i) Mobile phones may be used in public places like play grounds, canteen, parking
space etc. This facility should be used sparingly and without causing inconvenience
to others.
(ii) The mobile phones should be switched off when the students are in
classroom/laboratory/seminar hall/corridor/venue of special functions.
(iii) While the students are in laboratory, they may keep their mobile phones inside the
laboratory in a bag.
(iv) No photographs of persons, buildings, college facilities or any object shall be taken
using the mobile phones without prior permission.
(v) The students who bring mobile phones are responsible for the safety thereof and
risk of loss or theft shall be borne by them. The college Management/Staff does not
take any responsibility in this regard.
If any student is found to violate the above rules, his/her mobile phone will be confiscated
and disciplinary action is initiated against him/ her

V. Safety of personal belongings:

The students should take adequate care of their personal belongings such as cash,
jewellery, books, Mobiles etc. The college does not take any responsibility for any
loss/theft of their belongings.
VI. Permission to Leave the College.
(i) The students who enter the college campus are not generally permitted to leave
the college during the working hours. However, any student who wants to leave the
college on account of ill-health or other genuine reasons may do so after obtaining
permission from the HoD concerned and the Principal. The college security will permit
the student to leave the college only on producing the permission slip.
ii) The students who come to college on the days when classes are not scheduled for
them, on any work related to projects, examinations, scholarship, payment of fees,
library use, co- curricular activities etc., should obtain permission slip or group-pass
from the HoD concerned and the Principal and submit the same at t h e security
gate while leaving the college.
VII. Monitoring Authority
The members of disciplinary committee, bus-in-charge, other members of the faculty
and staff authorized by the principal are competent to monitor observance and
enforcement of these rules. These rules are applicable to all the students while they are
45
 in the college campus including the college buses, which is considered as extended
campus.

FEE PARTICULARS:
Branch Admission Fee Convener Fee Management Fee
B. Tech 5,500.00 1,20,000.00 1,20,000.00

M. Tech 7,500.00 65,000.00 65,000.00

MBA 5,500.00 42,000.00 42,000.00

DEPARTMENTS’ INFORMATION
COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING (CSE)
The Department of Computer Science and Engineering was established in the
year 2005. Currently the department offers an under graduate program B.Tech in
Computer Science and Engineering with an annual intake of 240 students and one post-
graduate program M.Tech in Computer Science and Engineering with an annual intake
of 30 students. The department is headed by Prof. Dr. D.S.R Murthy. He has over 30
years of teaching experience. There are 8 Professors, 15 Associate Professors, 41
Assistant professors in the department. The department has 7 programmers / System
Administrators to assist and maintain the computer labs.

LABORATORIES

There are 25 laboratories including one Research lab under CSE department. The labs are
equipped with the latest Core i3 7th Generation computers with the required licensed software
like Microsoft Digital Network Academic Alliance. The department also has an E-Class Room
and two Servers with high speed internet connection. The department has the following
laboratories to meet the requirements of CSE and other branches like ECE, EEE, ME and CE.
The laboratories in the department are well equipped with the latest software and technologies so
as to provide required infrastructure to carry in-house projects for final year students as well as
R&D activities.
• Computer Programming Lab
• English Language Communication Skills Lab
• Information Technology Workshop Lab
• Computational Mathematics Lab
• Object Oriented Programming Lab
• Data Structures Lab
• Computer Organization and Assembly Language Programming Lab
• Data Base Management Systems Lab.
• Algorithms Lab
46
 • Data ware housing and Data Mining Lab
• Computer Graphics Lab
• Web Technologies Lab
• Operating Systems Lab
• Information Security Lab
• Software Engineering Lab
• Image Processing Lab
• Advanced English Communication Skills Lab
• Mobile Application Development Lab
• Compiler Design Lab
• Computer Networks Lab
• Cloud Computing Lab
• Analytics Lab
• Internet Of Things (IOT) -Research Lab
• Machine Learning Lab
• Artificial Intelligence Lab
Coding Club (Dept. of CSE):
The aim of the coding club is for enhancing the coding skills and getting awareness on Emerging
Technologies.
Certification Courses:
Computer Science and Engineering Department conducting certification program for the benefit
of the students of II, III year and IV Year that, to learn advanced courses which are used in
software companies such as Oracle Database Design and Programming with SQL & PLSQL,
JAVA Fundamentals and JAVA Programming and IBM COGNOS BI tool.
Student Activities:
Student Branches/Chapters/Forums
• G Somasekhar, Associate Professor, Department of CSE is a member, IEEE Computer
Society Faculty Adviser, IEEE Hyderabad Section for 2018.
• J. Uma Mahesh, Assistant Professor, Department of CSE is a member, Student branch
Counselor, IEEE Hyderabad Section for 2018.

Patents acquired by Faculty:

1. Dr. D.S.R Murthy having patent on Node Integrity based Authentication model for dynamic
wireless communication networks in the year Feb-2018.
2. DR. G. Soma Sekhar and DR. Kamakshaiah Kolli having the patent on IOT-AIS-DESK-:
USING IOT APPLICATION INTELLIGENT STUDENT DESK in the year April 2019.

The department actively participates in the following activities:

1) P ublishing technical/ research papers in reputed journals.
47
 2) Organizing Faculty Development Programs (FDPs).
3) At t e n d i n g conferences, workshops, and FDPs.
4) The department has MOUs with industries for development of curriculum, student and
faculty interaction according to changes in present day scenario in technology
development.

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING (EEE)

The Department of Electrical and Electronics Engineering was established in the year 2005 with
an intake of 60 students. Currently the department offers an undergraduate program B. Tech in
Electrical and Electronics Engineering with an intake of 120 students. The Department is
headed by Prof. Dr. D. Radhika, with 17 years of experience in Teaching. There are 3
Professors, 5 Associate Professors, 14 Assistant Professors and 6 Lab assistants to assist and
maintain the labs.
The department conducts various FDPs, workshops and other academic activities like
professional institutions membership, so that the faculty is updated with latest technical
aspects in their field. The department has organized various events like Bhaswara, Electrika,
Sparsh and Energy Sparen in the previous academic year
LABORATORIES
• Electrical Circuits
• Signals, Systems and Transforms Techniques
• Network Theory
• Electrical Machines -I
• Electrical Machines -II
• Control Systems
• Power Electronics
• Power system simulation and Drives
• Computer Methods in Power Systems
• Instrumentation and Measurement Techniques
• Basic Electrical Engineering

R & D Consultancy Work

One research project tilted “Power generation using alternate sources” in collaboration with
BEES consulting, which has been sponsored by the college management in progress.

Activities/Chapters/Forums

1. Conducted IEEE Power Energy Society SB chapter Inauguration in association with IEEE PES
Hyderabad Section
2. Conducted Leadership Challenges for Professional Women in association with IEEE Hyd.
WIE section and OU, Hyd.

48
3. Conducted Micro grids & Battery Energy Storage Systems in association with IEEE –
PES/IAS/PELS Joint Chapter, Hyderabad Section.
Value Added course by the EEE Department

The department offers the following Value Added Courses

• Wind and Solar Energy Systems
• Special Machines
• Electrical Energy Conservation and Auditing
• Smart Grid/Micro Grid
• Electrical Estimation and Costing
• Industrial Electrical Systems
• Robotics
• Electrical and Hybrid Vehicles
• Electrical Machine Design

ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING (ECE)

The Department of Electronics and Communication Engineering was established in the year
2005 and the present annual intake for B. Tech ECE program is 240 students. The Department is
headed by Prof. B. Hari Kumar, Professor with 31 years of experience in teaching. There are 9
Professors, 15 Associate Professors, 30 Assistant Professors and 8 lab assistants in the
department. Currently, the department is executing two R&D projects sanctioned by DST and
Private Industry. Few other project proposals are in the active consideration by various
organizations like ISRO, DRDO, UAE, Kerala Electricity Board etc.,
LABORATORIES
The Department has 13 well equipped laboratories with state of art equipment like RF Signal
generators, Spectrum Analyzers, Digital Storage Oscilloscopes, DSP Processor kits, Fiber optic
kits, Microwave test benches, high end computers. Cadence VLSI tools, MATLAB, Xilinx,
Keil software are available. The labs are designed to accommodate two students on a work
bench, so as to facilitate the methodology and inference in the experiments. In tune with the
latest advancements, the lab classes are being held to impart practical training to create
familiarity with the developments.
The following labs function under ECE Department:
▪ Electronic Devices & Circuits
▪ Simulation Lab - I
▪ Electronic Circuits & Pulse Circuits
▪ Simulation Lab - II
▪ IC Applications and HDL simulations
▪ Analog Communications
▪ Microprocessors and Micro controllers
▪ Microwave and Digital Communication
▪ Digital Signal Processing
▪ VLSI Design Lab
49
 ▪ DDVH Lab
▪ Embedded System Lab
▪ R&D Laboratory

• These Laboratories are fully equipped with high quality test equipment. The basic
knowledge of electronic circuitry is imparted with special care to ensure that the students
are strong in the fundamentals. In order to inculcate the spirit of independent thinking
and to harness the hidden talents, the students are encouraged to carry out mini projects
ad major projects in these labs.
• IC Application and HDL simulation lab is equipped with Licensed Xilinx Software
with CPLD and FPGA for Simulation and Synthesis.
• The practical aspects of Communications Engineering and various modulation
techniques, both in time and frequency domain are emphasized in the respective
laboratories. The several key techniques which form the basis of modern Communication
systems are given special attention.
• Analog Communication Laboratory has Spectrum Analyzers, RF Signal Generators and
Digital Storage Oscilloscopes to perform experiments on various modulation
schemes and to observe the wave forms both in time domain as well a s in
frequency domain for better understanding of theoretical concepts.
• Microprocessors Lab consists of 8086 microprocessor and 8051 microcontroller kits
and have add on cards for various interfaces like 8259, 8279, 8255 and 8251, A/D and
D/A Converters, Stepper motor, Temperature Sensors etc., It also has Computers with
Application Software and Assembler.
• Microwave and Digital Communications Lab is fully equipped with high quality
Test Benches and additional advanced components.
• Basic Simulation Lab and Digital Signal Processing Labs have Licensed MATLAB
with
• Signal Processing, Digital Image Processing and Communications tool
boxes.
• In R&D Laboratory, Photo detection system with two Laser sources, High end
HP computers and GPS Receiver are available.
• All labs are equipped with Advanced Tools and Software to enable students to
perform in-house projects.

Student Activities
Student Branches/Chapters/Forums
The college has various professional societies, student branches, chapters and forums
like:
• IEEE
• CSI
• IETE
• ISTE
• Women in Engineering Affinity Group of IEEE
Under the umbrella of these student branches/chapters/forums, the college organizes various
50
student activities to enrich their knowledge in the latest technologies, to develop
leadership skills, networking with other students etc.
The college also has IETE Institutional Membership. Many of the students and faculty are
members of this professional society. Members participate in various events conducted by the
professional societies at state and regional levels.
• Dr. C. Venkata Narasimhulu, Professor of ECE is elected as a committee member of
Executive Body of IETE-Hyderabad Centre.
• D. Venkata Rami Reddy, Associate Professor, Department of ECE is a member,
Student Activities Committee, IEEE Hyderabad Section.
• Ms. S. Jyothirmayee, Associate Professor, Department of ECE is a member, Student
branch Counseller, IEEE Hyderabad Section for 2018.
• Mr. U Appala Raju, Associate Professor, Department of ECE, Coordinator of IETE
Student Forum.

Overview of Bachelor of Technology Program in Electronics and Communication

Engineering:
• B. Tech ECE program focuses on understanding and application of the concepts and
techniques used in Analysis, Design and development of existing and future
Electronic/Instrumentation/Communication Systems.
• Students in this program explore the concepts of basics of various signals, different
systems, Electronic Devices that are needed for faithful transmission and reception of
Analog as well as Digital Communication Signals of the present and future Technology. In
addition, students have a great opportunity to choose courses from a rich set of electives,
which are useful for their higher studies. This includes Data-Base Management Systems,
Cloud Computing, Artificial Neural Networks, among other topics that have been
making sweeping changes and revolutionizing the world.
• All the basic courses, including soft-core and advanced courses also stress "Hands-on"
learning thereby greatly enhancing the Hardware testing, soft-ware programming.
• In addition, a plethora of open electives facilitate students with liberal education that
has been transforming the world.
• Additional Courses such as Logical Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and Soft Skills provide
students with an opportunity to perform well in placement and other competitive
examinations for higher studies.
The goal of the program is to ensure that students will be able to integrate theory and practice,
recognize the importance of abstraction and appreciate the value of efficient design, through
creativity and innovation, to meet explicitly developing societal requirements. ECE program is
intended to prepare students for lifelong learning and undertake professional careers in multi-
disciplinary areas.

Projects:
The department has successfully completed two projects in association with DST. 3 On-going
projects under the eminent organizations like MTRDC (DRDO) Bangalore, DRDO Kanpur,
and UGC and 1 In-house Project is in process. 1 Consultancy project with VEM Technologies
Pvt. Ltd, Hyderabad is going-on since Nov, 2016.
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MECHANICAL ENGINEERING (ME)
The department of Mechanical Engineering was established in the year 2011 with an intake of 60
students and then increased to 120 in the year 2013. Currently, the department offers an under
graduate program B. Tech in Mechanical Engineering with an annual intake of 120 students. The
department is headed by Dr. T. Siva Prasad. He has 31 years of teaching experience in various
reputed institutions and 3 years of industrial experience as Design and Marketing Engineer.
There are 5 Professors, 5 Associate Professor and 27 Assistant Professor in the department.
Apart from regular curriculum, students are encouraged to participate in different co-curricular
and extracurricular activities. In this regard department had inaugurated SAE cogitative Club for
encouraging students to participate in different activities throughout INDIA.
Activities in the Department:
1. The Department conducts Industrial visits for the benefit of students to get practical exposure
to their curriculum subjects.
2. The Department has MOU’s with industries for development of curriculum, student and
faculty interaction according to changes in present day scenario in technology development.

3. The Department organises certification programs (CREO PTC, NX-CAD) conducted by

CANTER CADD and SIEMENS respectively for the benefit of the students of II and III year
that, to learn advanced courses which are used in industries such as Aerospace, Automobile, etc.

LABORATORIES:

• Engineering Workshop (2)

• Production Technology Lab
• Metallurgy Lab
• Mechanics of Solids Lab
• Thermal Engineering Lab
• Machine Tools
• Metrology Lab
• Heat Transfer lab
• CAD Lab
• CAM Lab
• Instrumentation Lab
• Digital Fabrication Lab
• Design for manufacturing Lab
• Kinematics Lab

CIVIL ENGINEERING (CE)

The Department of Civil Engineering was established in the year 2014 and currently the
department offers an under graduate program; B. Tech in Civil Engineering with an annual
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intake of 120 students. The department is headed by Dr. R.Prasanna Kumar with 25years of
teaching experience. The Department is enriched with 4 Professors, 4 Associate Professors and
16 Assistant Professors. The department has 4 Lab Technicians to assist and to maintain the
laboratories.
LABORATORIES:
1. Surveying Lab
2. Strength of Materials Lab
3. Engineering Geology Lab
4. Concrete Technology Lab
5. Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulic Machinery Lab
6. Transportation Engineering Lab
7. Geotechnical Engineering Lab
8. Environmental Engineering Lab
9. Computer Aided Structural Drafting Lab
10. Remote Sensing and GIS Lab
11. Pavement Analysis and Design Lab
The department provides details of all the departmental activities in its newsletter
“NIRMAAN” which is published at the end of each semester. The department actively
participates in the following activities:
1) Publishing technical/ research papers in reputed journals.
2) Organizing Faculty Development Programs (FDPs).
3) Attending conferences/ workshops/ FDPs in reputed institutions and organizations like
NITs, IITs and Universities to enhance and keep the faculty updated with latest
technological advancements.
4) Conducting Guest lectures by inviting speakers from NITs, IITs, Universities and
industry experts to enrich the teaching-learning process.
5) Conducting Industrial/ Field trips to expose students to civil engineering working
environment.
6) Skill Development Program on REVIT Software was conducted for III year students to
gain hands on experience.
7) Indian Green Buildings Chapter has been started where students will be trained on Energy
Efficient Build Construction Principles.

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (IT)

The department of IT has been restarted in 2019 with an intakle of 60 students and has
committed faculty. The IT Program was earlier accredited by NBA, New Delhi before it was
discontinued. Dr. K. Srinivas is the Professor and In-charge HoD, supported by two Associate
Professors and three Assistant Professors. The department has well- equipped laboratories to
impart the practical training to the students. It has strong external linkages with Industry, R&D
establishments etc.

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 FRESHMAN ENGINEERING

The department of Freshman Engineering imparts quality education for undergraduate students
in fundamental fields of Sciences and Humanities .The department is headed by Prof. Dr.
G.Neeraja Rani with 24 years of experience in teaching. There are 7 Professors, 13 Associate
Professors, and 22 Assistant Professors in the department. The department has well-equipped
labs to cater to the needs of the first year students.
LABORATORIES:
1. Engineering Chemistry Laboratory
Engineering Chemistry laboratory introduces concepts in a concise way and describes the
quantitative analysis and estimations of the compounds of general interest to the engineers.
The laboratory is well equipped with PH meter, Potentiometer, Conductometer, Colorimeter to
train the students to meet the present industrial needs.
2. Physics Laboratory
Physics laboratories are well equipped with required infrastructure that caters to the needs of 1
year B. Tech students. In these laboratories the students explore the basic engineering concepts
such as Interference, Diffraction, Electromagnetism, Total Internal Reflection (TIR) in Fiber
Optics and Semiconductor devices and their applications.
3. English Laboratory for B. Tech I Year
English Lab focuses on the production and practice of sounds of language and familiarizes the
students with the use of English language in everyday situations and contexts. The laboratory
is well equipped with the required infrastructure that facilitates computer-aided multi-media
instruction enabling individualized and independent language learning. It enhances interactive
communicative skills in students and trains them for interviews, public speaking etc.
4. Advanced English Communication Skills Laboratory for B. Tech III Year
Advanced English Communication Skills Lab helps the students to enhance their LSRW skills
in English language that helps them move forward with required confidence in building up their
career in the global context. This lab is well equipped with the required infrastructure and
focuses on using computer-aided multimedia instruction to improve on the students’ fluency in
English and respond /communicate their ideas appropriately in different socio-cultural and
professional contexts.

MASTER OF BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION (MBA)

The Department of MBA was established in the year 2006 with an annual intake of 60
students. It is headed by Dr. A. Sita Madhavi with 18 years of experience in teaching. There
are 3 Professors, 1 Associate Professor and 9 Assistant Professors in the department.
The department offers specialization in Finance, Human Resource Management,
Marketing, Production Management and Systems Specialization to the students. The
department conducts lectures by Professionals and organises Industrial Tours and Visits for
students.

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CENTER FOR ACADEMIC AND CAREER GUIDANCE (CACG)

Vision
To shape up into a centre facilitating academic excellence of every student and to help
discover his/her full potential and strive to attain success in the chosen field.
Mission Statement:
CACG is recognized as one of the top most ranking centers for the consistently high standard
of its output through opening new avenues of career development.

The Center’s Objectives:

The guidance and counselingcenter seeks to interpret the college’s aspirations to assist
student’s understanding of the problems they might face and provide them with useful
methods of resolving them. This will enable a generation of citizens to graduate, equip with
knowledge, faith, scholarship, self-confidence, and the ability to participate in building and
developing our country.
This will be achieved through meeting the following objectives:
• Preparing students to understand college life.
• Offering academic guidance in collaboration with the various departments.
• Strengthening academic achievement, encouraging students’ abilities, and
overcoming obstacles that occur in the process of educational attainment.
• Caring for students with low academic achievement, nurturing them, and striving to
improve their academic performance.
• Caring for exceptional and talented students, meeting their needs for enhancement of their
abilities and support their creativity, in collaboration with other centers and the relevant
departments.
• Providing assistance, direction, help and guidance to students in their academic
and career pursuit.
• Conducting sessions by inviting eminent personalities to cater to the career
aspirations of the students.

The Center’s Services:

The center provides a number of student-oriented services in the college, the
most important of which are:
• Guidance services, awareness programs, and guidelines to inform students about the
departments and centers. This is done in cooperation and coordination with the
departments, centers and specialized college Administration bodies.
• Students are informed about the changes they may face during the course of their
college life and are advised on how to deal with them through programs that the
center offers through information sessions, orientation program for First Year
Students, and any other specialized courses.
• A variety of information resources, including educational CDs, brochures, and
pamphlets, related to specialized guidance and counseling, in cooperation with the
relevant bodies, and specialized books from internal and external sources are
provided to the students. This enables the students to benefit from them and makes it
55
 easy to seek necessary guidance.
• The Princeton Review-Manya, has extended its free sponsored GRE training for
selected scholarship offers to the following list of students for their Career
enhancement. GCET considered as one of the top 15 colleges of Twin cities and
these meritorious students of different branches of Engineering have benefitted by
this programme

R.No. Name of the student Branch Percentage Rank

15R11A0562 A.Shanmukha Brahadroop CSE 81.2% 1
15R11A0220 E. JYothi EEE 80.8 2
15R11A04F6 P. Nikhitha reddy ECE 80.46 3
15R11A0247 R. Varsha sree EEE 79.73 4
15R11A0472 D. Sai jaya madhavi ECE 79.6 5
15R11A04J1 Chinmaya ECE 79 6
15R11A05F5 P. Sri Sairam CSE 78.7 7
15R11A0243 N.B.Narayanan EEE 78.6 8
15R11A0120 K. Lingaraju CE 77.26 9
15R11A0342 Padmavathi Jeevan Reddy ME 76.26 10
Organizational Structure:
• Based on the goals of the center, an organizational structure has been formed under the
direct supervision of the Principal. The organizational structure of the center includes a
general supervisor (In-charge) for the center and a secretariat, in addition to the
following units
The Academic Guidance Unit, which includes:
• Academic advisers (mentors for group of students), and class advisers, who are members
of the respective departmental committee. One of them acts as the In-charge of the unit.
They also present periodical reports of their students who were given guidance.
• Providing motivational and guidance lectures on issues affecting student’s growth
and developmental needs and their problems, such as time management,
motivation, concentration, memory enhancement, and study skills, and also methods to
deal with anxiety, pressure, tension, depression, and self-development.
• Providing group guidance services between a group of students who have similar goals,
concerns or issues. Group guidance sessions have many benefits, including learning to
participate, and build self-confidence.
• Organizing a guidance program for the students who are low academic achievers, those
under academic observation, and absentee students.
• Identify the main causes for student difficulties and assisting them to resolve them.
• Raising awareness of the academic regulations among students.
• Encouraging exceptional students by all means, to motivate them to succeed and other
students to emulate them.
• Monitoring students who have low academic achievement in the specific branches in
coordination with the various academic departments and the Guidance and Counseling
Center committees.
A committee under the Principal manages the Center. It includes the Dean, the Center
56
 for Student Performance Monitoring and Counseling, the In-charge of the Center for
Academic and Career Guidance, members of the two centers, representative faculty
members of all departments.
The committee meets once at the beginning of the academic year to discuss the Center’s
plan for the year and allocate the roles and tasks for each specialization. The committee
also holds monthly meetings to study the programs offered by the specialized units and
to take necessary decisions about the cases that have been studied by academic and
class advisers. A crucial meeting is held at the end of the academic year to discuss
the accomplishments and report all achievements, future plans, and requirements
for approval by the members of the Governing Body

Functions of the Unit:

To achieve the above mentioned objectives, the unit performs the following activities:
• Creating a database of all the students, including all personal and academic
information, in cooperation with the Academic section of the college.
• Creating awareness among students regarding the important role of assisting students‟
progress in the College and encouraging them to turn to the unit for help in resolving
any difficulties they encounter.
• Cooperating with the Center Student Performance Monitoring and Counseling
and college departments to assist in the accomplishment of their tasks.
• Providing academic guidance to students and working with them to resolve educational
problems in a confidential manner, and referring students requiring additional
assistance to relevant bodies within or outside the college.
• Organizing and implementing programs and competitions that will encourage students to
improve their academic performance or provide incentive awards for distinguished
students in the various departments.
• Any other activities that would contribute towards the achievement of the objectives
of the Center or that are received from the Student Performance and Counseling
Center and other centers and departments of the College.
• Preparing an annual report at the end of the academic year of the work of the unit.

Implementation Mechanisms:
• Developing material to be posted on the college notice boards in the various
departments to identify the Center’s purpose and functions at the beginning of each
semester and periodically, especially for new students.
• Contacting the departments to coordinate with the Guidance and Counseling Centers’
committees to help resolve students’ academic problems.
• The Academic Guidance Unit is open on all days of the week with the members of
the unit working on a Rota basis.
• The committee meets at least once a month to review their student clients to
develop action plans and programs to support them.
• The committee holds a special meeting at the end of each semester to evaluate
the semester’s work, and another special meeting is held at the end of the academic
57
 year to evaluate the performance of the whole year and present the annual report.
These mechanisms require coordination with several departments within the college
as follows:
• The guidance and counseling committees of the various departments work with them
to establish a register through which information can be exchanged on to students
who have been referred, including any decisions, recommendations, and action taken.

Career & Academic Guidance Activities

a. To offer career guidance programs and provide assistance and resources to
support students in making real life contracts to academic learning.
b. To enable students to gain skills, ability and confidence to transform them
successfully for pursuing higher studies/career/entrepreneurship etc or any other
activity in which he/she lands.
c. To equip students with tools needed to answer the ―‟Life Long Learning” questions.
• Who Am I?
• What Am I Doing?
• Why Am I Here?
• Where Am I Going?
• How do I Get There?
d. To encourage students to open their mind to the numerous opportunities awaiting them.
e. To explore their interest and talents and to take a realistic look into the world that awaits
them.
f. To provide services which expose students to infinite opportunities available in future; to
equip those with the tools they need to plan for future endeavors and to provide
continued support and encouragement that they need to be successful in career and life
at large.
g. To enable students to evaluate various career options and embark on their career path to
meet their interests by facilitating them to assess their interests and talents.
h. To help find answers to the following questions which pester students:
•
What am I going to do when I leave college?
•
Do I meet the entrance requirements of places of higher education?
•
Can I afford to study further?
•
Will I find a job in my chosen field and place?
•
Should I take a gap/break after college?
•
Are some places better to study than others?
•
Is my degree internationally recognized?
•
Will my job earn me the money to live the lifestyle I desire?
i. Facilitate students realize their career priorities and goals; provide students with skills
needed to manage their career throughout their professional life; to help students assess
their aspirations and capabilities; to advise and assist them about study opportunities,
fellowships and academic programs in the country and abroad, career choice and
decision-making etc.
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 j. Help the student, on an individual basis, to formulate his/her own career plans as well
as determine the nature of assistance needed from the office.
k. To provide various services like:
• Identifying strengths of students and guiding/counseling appropriately
• Appraisal
• Follow-up
• Referral (self; faculty recommendation or formal faculty referral

Activities Conducted by CACG in 2018-19

S. No. NAME OF THE EVENT DATE RESOURCE PERSON

22nd Feb,
1 Manya Princeton Review- Promotional Session 2019 From Manya Princeton Review
Dr.Rofle , Prof. Manoj Sukla and
21st Feb, Dr. Kumar Annavarapu, New
2 Promotional Session on Higher Education in USA 2019 Mexico State University, USA

3 A Promotional Session by Education Matters Jan, 2019 Mr.David Fallon an Irish Journalist
Promotional Session-Higher Education Through 14th Sept,
5 GRE, TOFEL, IELTS 2018 Manya Princeton Review
21st July, Sri. Ravi CEO Peoples Plus
6 Climbing the Ladder to Success 2018 Consultants-Singapore

Skills Enhanced by CACG

Center for Academic and Career Guidance (CACG) would guide you in improving
students’ performance in academics and also help them make wise decisions and
choices involved in planning their future and building their career. We at CACG
expose the students to eminent resource persons through different Promotional,
Higher educational and entrepreneurial sessions and guide the students to their
choicest Careers.
The Team of CACG is happy to announce that it records the details of the
sessions conducted by publishing a Newsletter.
Academic Guidance
1. Academic Regulations
2. Academic Calendar
3. Improving Academic Performance
4. Enhancing Communication Skills
5. Enhancing vocabulary
6. Improving on Presentation Skills
7. Improving on Concentration
8. Time Management
9. Problems related to any Subject(s)
10. Various Certification Courses

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 Career Guidance
1. Career Assessment
2. Available Career Options
3. Making of Resume
4. Writing Cover Letters
5. Online Job Hunting
6. Getting a Job Abroad
7. Preparing yourself for Placements (On/Off campus)
8. Summer internships
9. Resources Available for Career Growth and Personality Development
You are at liberty to approach CACG for any other information/guidance related
to your academic progress and career development.

SKILLS TO BE ENHANCED IN THE ENSUING FOUR YEARS

A) Tips for Students’ Success in Academics and Career (I Year)
Academic and Career Goals
1. Set your Academic Goal:
To get a meritorious B. Tech Degree (First Class Distinction with 75% to 80%)
2. Set your Career Goals:
Be passionate in life and pursue any task passionately (be it higher studies or Job)
till you take it to its logical end.
To achieve your Academic Goal
• Attend and Participate in all Classes
• Arrive on time, pay attention, and participate in class discussions and activities.
• Take notes, read the prescribed textbooks, submit all assignments and lab exercises.
• Show outward interest during lectures (attentive expression and posture) to self-
motivate internal interest.
• Spend 10 to 15 minutes in the morning before lectures to review notes of the previous
lecture and read course material pertaining to the current lecture to anticipate the main
ideas that the teacher will discuss.
Stick to a routine, effective and efficient study schedule.
Develop strategies, study skills, and a network of support. Plan to spend a minimum of
2 hours studying other than the class for each hour you spend in class. Review anything
that you have listened / learnt within 24 hours.
• Monitor your progress.
Build up a congenial rapport with your peers and teachers. Never hesitate to seek help
or advice related to your academics in or outside the class. Update your work if you
happen to miss your class.
• Be Test Smart
• Don’t lose marks because of test-writing errors.
• Use strategies to tackle different types of tests (e.g. multiple-choice, descriptive,
and viva-voce).
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 • Read instructions, budget time to answer questions
• Do easier questions first. Less difficult questions next to build confidence.
This will enable you to score good marks
• No matter how well you understand something, without practice one forgets.
• Before a test, recall information without looking at notes or textbooks.
• Do assignment questions again.
Take responsibility for yourself.
•
Motivate yourself to do well.
•
Get counseling and do the work effectively and efficiently.
Enjoy spending time in College.
• Participate not only in your class work activities, but also in your professional society’s
activities, which gives ample scope for you to develop your organizational, interpersonal,
leadership and conversational skills.
•
Be strong in basic spelling and grammar.
•
English is your employable language, gain command over it.
•
Attend all the Guest lectures/sessions conducted in the campus.
• Take a study break of 5 to 10 minutes for every few hours.
Do something different from what you’ve been doing (e.g. walk around if you’ve
been sitting, and in a different area).
• Take care of your health.
Have good food habits and exercise regularly
• Be conscientious and honest in your efforts.
Be careful with spending money. Even if you’re lucky enough to have parents who
can help you out financially, you need to learn to spend money frugally and wisely.
To achieve your Career Goals
• Give wide reading.
• Read books other than coursework.
• Keep spending a few hours per week improving your vocabulary, listening
skills, writing skills, analytical and logical reasoning skills.
• Read English literature, books on anthropology, history, etc.
• Such reading enables you to converse with anyone for a reasonable length of
time in the subject close to the other person’s heart.
• It would also facilitate you to develop rapport with various people which
would eventually come in handy for your professional career in future
• Read newspapers, magazines such as India Today, Business Today, Business
India, Out Look, etc.
• Learn two or three new English words per day and construct sentences with
these words and share them with your study partners.
• Spend at least three to four hours per week in reading books on Logical
Reasoning, Quantitative and Verbal Reasoning aptitude.
• Practice exercises on these.
• These are needed to get through the written test conducted by various companies
for campus placements and as well as for writing GRE, CAT, GMAT, etc.
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 5. Participate in debate and group discussions.
• To gain expertise in both these activities, keep watching TV channels such as
NDTV, CNN IBN, Times Now, etc. and observe how various people are
participating in debates and discussions on various aspects of current affairs.
• Develop speaking skills by modulating your voice as much as possible.
• Remember that most of the successful people are / were great orators.
Open your mind.
• You are going to meet numerous people who see the world in a different way and holds
different perspective.
• You’re going to get a lot of ideas / perceptions which you may not agree with
• It’s an important part of the college experience that will teach you quite a bit.
• Keep an open mind, respect their views, and try to understand even if you do not agree
with them.
6. Develop Passion.
• Keep watching TV channels such as Discovery Channel, National Geographic Channel,
Animal Planet, History Channel, etc. The programs will inspire you and provide you the
information that you normally do not get the opportunity to see.
• Keenly observe and involve yourself whenever you watch programs on these
channels.

B) Centre for Student Performance Monitoring and Counselling (II Year)

Vision
To ensure during the next five years that no student is detained for want of
required attendance and getting the required credits.
Mission
1. To consistently and progressively effect improvement in the overall academic
performance of the college through identification of students falling below desired
standards and initiate remedial measures.
2. To improve and enhance the existing standards of discipline and attendance among
the students through continuous monitoring.
Introduction
Monitoring student learning is an essential component of high-quality education.
Therefore, the Centre:
•
Provides professional assistance in a congenial atmosphere.
• Offers advice on an individual basis on academics and allied issues.
•
Provides counseling to students who are experiencing academic setback, falling
short of attendance and violating/deviating from general norms of code of
conduct of the college.
The Centre aims at
• Reviewing student performance based on result analysis and suggesting required
modifications in instruction.
• Providing quality, professionally-delivered counseling services to students.
• To help resolve academic problems of the students by conducting periodic reviews and
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 identifying gaps in their understanding and knowledge.
• Providing a range of supportive activities and services aimed at enhancing the learning
ability of the students.
Activities
The activities of counseling centre can be broadly classified into two categories.
1. Academic 2. Attendance and Discipline
Academic
1. Academic counseling should be conducted twice in a semester once at least five to six
weeks before the first mid-exam with a follow up before the exam and the second at least
five to six weeks before the second mid-exams with another follow up.
2. Students with backlogs should be identified and counseled to know the reasons for their
poor performance and advise them appropriately.
Discipline
1. Act of indiscipline includes non-compliance of dress codes, improper behavior in
class, campus/premises, college bus, ragging, smoking, consuming alcohol, malpractice in
examinations, unauthorized absenteeism from class etc.
2. Centre on the advice of CAC may constitute inter departmental disciplinary
committee which would monitor continuously to maintain discipline in the college
premises.
3. Any act of indiscipline found by the disciplinary committee has to be brought to the
notice of the centre immediately for taking necessary action.

Operationalization of the Activities

1. The centre has to take steps to educate the students to impress upon them the importance
of maintaining discipline while in college and outside college so that they will actively and
willingly co-operate with the college authorities in maintaining high standards of
discipline.
2. Heads of various departments should be advised to nominate a few of their faculty
members to co-ordinate with the centre on behalf of their department with regard to the
activities prescribed.
3. The centre has to conduct periodical meetings with liaison officers to monitor smooth
and effective functioning of the centre.
4. The centre may design required formats and circulate them to all t h e HODs to be
submitted periodically with required data for proper communication from each
department to the centre.

C) Centre for Soft Skills and Personality Development (III Year)

Objectives
• To help an individual discover his/her unique personality by imparting synergizing Soft-
skills and developing an attitude to demonstrate their best with utmost confidence.
• To complement learning skills of the students acquired through formal education
by imparting skills in the areas of Communication, Presentation, Inter-personal
relationship, Leadership, Decision-making, Interview, Negotiating techniques etc.
to enable the individual to blossom to his/her fullest potential.
63
 • To enhance employability of the students by equipping them with required
career- orientation tools.
Functions of the Centre:
• Identify required inputs for the UG/PG students of various streams and structure
different programs tailored for them to be easily absorbed in any organization when they
graduate.
• The customized program is merged into the regular time table for each semester with
an objective to catalyze self and personality development of individual student.
• Identify the resource personnel and allocate topics which they can handle to the best
of their abilities.
• Ensure that the program includes topics such as verbal aptitude, social skills, poise
and confidence, general manners and international etiquette, positive attitude, impression
management, Restaurant and table etiquette, coping with everyday life, good and bad
habits, personal hygiene, grooming, posture, gait, to develop the kind of style that
will enable him/her to be successful in their profession, to appreciate the values of
discipline and tolerance, to face the rigors of the fiercely competitive work place with
dignity and proficiency, participate actively in various individual and group activities,
ways to improve self-confidence, self-esteem, communication skills, personality
appearance, and above all appreciate the purpose of one’s existence.
• Procure relevant books/journals, CDs, DVD, etc.,. and arrange to make use of them
effectively.
• Initiate educative programs to enable students to appreciate relevance of these skills.
• Motivate the student community to actively associate in these sessions.
• Address and encourage faculty concerned to take up these assignments with required
passion and enthusiasm.
• Co-ordinate smooth running of the soft-skills classes of various sections.
• Ensure large turn-out of students to these classes.
• Monitor attendance and progress of the students on regular basis.
• Arrange guest lectures to reap the benefit of the talent available outside the precincts
of the college.
• Obtain and review the efficacy of the program periodically and take
remedial measures wherever and whenever required.
• If you are planning to go abroad to do MS, take your GRE in the last week of
June following the third year of your B. Tech. Ensure that you get about 6
continuous weeks
• This also facilitates your preparation for the campus placements which normally
would be commencing from the second week of July of your final year.
• Aptitude tests for campus placements are of similar pattern to those of GRE
except for Logical Reasoning, which is not tested in GRE.
• This preparation also helps you to do well in CAT for MBA in India and GMAT
to pursue MBA abroad.

64
 Various activities conducted in the college in addition to the regular training in order
to nurture and prune the young minds are as follows:
• Debate, Essay writing, drawing and quiz competitions are conducted at regular intervals
to achieve the objective of inculcating ethical leadership qualities among the students.
• The writing skills development classes are introduced for I Year B. Tech Students,
with a positive thought of laying the foundation to augment basic written skills.

D) CENTRE FOR INSTITUTE – INDUSTRY – INTERACTION (CIII) (IV Year)

Introduction
Indian industry at present has reached a crucial turning point where it has to face the
dynamic demands of the competitive domestic and global markets through the
provisions of high quality products and services. To survive and succeed in this new
scenario, the input that is most essential is the human resource. As technologies change
rapidly, retaining and updating of the work force continuously has become major
challenge that is being faced by every country today. Industries and Technical
Institutions have a strong mutuality of interest which forms the basis of a partnership
between them.
Aims and Objectives
•
Developing close links between Industry and Institute by organizing interactive
programs. High priority is to be given to activities designed to bring about
improvement in the performance of industries.
•
Mobilizing industrial Personnel. A partnership approach.
•
Identifying the present day requirements for professionals (engineers/managers) to
meet the future human resource needs.
•
Disseminating technical advances through informal educational techniques.
•
Training the shop floor personnel through continuing education program.
•
Publishing and issuing technical bulletins/newsletters and course material with
latest technological developments.
•
Organizing seminars, symposiums, exhibitions and workshops.
•
Widening the scope for effective implementation of R & D consultancy.
•
Collaborating with other societies (National and International) having similar
objectives.
•
Testing and Calibration instruments for Industries.
•
Testing of products and setting of quality control parameters for the Industry.
•
Joint collaborative research.
•
Conducting training programs in Science, Technology, and Management etc.
•
Opening up the infrastructure facilities of the college departments for
utilization by the industry in resource generation.
•
Products Development.
•
Other partnership programs.

65
 NODAL CENTRE FOR PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT BY R.K.MUTT
(VIVEKANANDA INSTITUTE OF HUMAN EXCELLENCE)
Concerned about the gradual degradation of morality and spiritual values in every sphere of
life and activity, Geethanjali College of Engineering and Technology felt the urgent need to
start a Centre to impart the age-old cherished ideals and values propagated by the patriot and
monk Swami Vivekananda. The result is the establishment of the Centre for Human Excellence
in the Premises of the College. The chief aim of this move is to instill faith in oneself and
impart noble values of life and life-giving strength, to raise individuals to higher levels of
strength and felicity with spiritual, moral, ethical and eternal values of personality
development and human excellence. Various programmes of this centre are intended for the
students for their overall development to meet the global challenges and to reduce peer pressure
and stress. It re-kindles oneself as a productive citizen to the society which in turn makes
healthy country for a better tomorrow. Under this, various guest lectures and presentations are
planned.
The significance of establishing a Nodal center indicates the commitment of RKMath in
conducting quarterly motivational sessions for the students at GCET and involving students of
GCET in services for Social cause and creating a wider exposure with the society. With respect
to First B.Tech 2017-18, VIHE-RKMath, extended its fullest cooperation by deputing eminent
resource persons for the successful conduct of the Orientation Programme. Besides, the Math
conducted a Two day workshop and training for faculty on Contributor Personality Development
programme and trained the faculty. GCET students are happy to collaborate with VIHE RK
Math programme and wishes to continue every year.

Following are the programs offered by the Institution:

01) Communication Skills
02) Mind Management Techniques
03) Value Orientation Program for Students
04) Personality Development Course
05) How to Over Come Fear of Failure
06) Tabla
07) Drawing & Painting
08) Parents Motivation Course
09) Value Orientation Program for Youth
10) Special One-day Conventions for Professional Groups Like Doctors, Nurses, Engineers
etc.
11) Steps to Build Self Confidence
12) Leadership Qualities
13) Stress Management
14) Devotional Music - (Vocal) Karnatic
15) Vivekananda Bala Vikas Program Summer Camp for Children
16) Personality Development workshop for IX and X Class Students
17) Value Orientation Program for Teachers
18) Special Orientation Programs for Rural Groups
19) Youth Convention for Boys and Girls
20) Value Orientation Program for Government/ Corporate Employees
21) Residential Youth Camp
22) The Art of Public Speaking (students and professionals)
23) Yogasanas
24) Joy of Meditation - Theory & Practice
66
TRANSPORT DETAILS:
Route No. 1 Route No. 2
Driver: B.Lingaiah 9701235770 Driver: B.Nageshwar-9989992742
Incharge: G. Sunil 8019391939 Incharge: Vivekananda-9701839773
S.No Name of the stage Timings S.No Name of the stage Timings
1 BANDLAGUDA 7.20 1 SAGAR X ROAD 7.10
2 ANANDNAGAR 7.25 2 BIRAMAL GUDA 7.12
3 SOUTHERN PARK 7.30 3 KARMANGHAT 7.15
4 MANSOORABAD 7.32 4 FOCUS HOSPITAL 7.17
5 KAMINENI 7.35 5 IS SADAN 7.20
6 ALKAPURI 7.38 6 SAIDABAD 7.23
7 SNEHAPURI COLONY 7.40 7 NALGONDA X ROAD 7.28
8 NAGOLE 7.42 8 CHADERGHAT PS 7.30
9 UPPAL X ROAD 7.48 9 NIMBOLI ADDA 7.35
10 GANDHI STATUE 7.50 10 KACHIGUDA 7.40
11 UPPAL BUS STAND 7.52 11 FEWER HOSPITAL 7.43
12 GCET 8.40 12 NALLAKUNTA 7.45
13 SHANKARMATT 7.48
14 VIDYANAGAR 7.50
Route No. 3
15 ADIKMET PS 7.52
Driver: Saresh- 7981089730
16 MANIKESHWAR 7.55
Incharge: M.Bhavana- 9849157312 NAGAR
S.No. Name of the stage Timings 17 GCET 8.40
1 PARKING FATEHNAGAR 7.20
2 ERRAGADDA 7.25 Route No. 4
3 ESI 7.28 Driver: S Kishan Reddy-9963679049
4 SR NAGAR 7.31 Incharge: Vijay Bhasker-9866132030
5 MITHRIVANAM 7.33
S.No. Name of the stage Timings
7 AMEERPET 7.34
1 CHENGICHARLA 7.30
8 PUNJAGUTTA X ROAD 7.40
2 MEDIPALLY 7.45
9 GREENLANDS 7.43
3 BODUPPAL SBI 7.50
10 HPS BEGUMPET 7.45
4 AKRUTHI TOWNSHIP 7.52
11 SHOPPERS STOP 7.47
5 AMBEDKAR STATUE 7.55
12 RASULPURA X ROAD 7.50
13 PARADISE 7.52 6 MALLANA TEMPLE 7.57
14 VIKRAM PURI 8.02 7 MALLAPUR WATER TANK 8.00
15 KHARKHANA PS 8.05 8 NFC BRIDGE 8.05
9 GCET 8.40
16 GCET 8.40

67
Route No. 5 Route No. 6
Driver: A.Upender 6301085968 Driver: Mr. J.Srinivas- 9000807551
Incharge: Kalyani 9908492444 Incharge: Mr. M. Simhardri: 9849145986
S.No Name of the stage Timings S.No Name of the stage Timings
1 KALI TEMPLE 7.05 1 BHEL X ROAD 7.00
2 SUNCITY 7.10 2 CHANDANAGAR 7.03
3 LANGER HOUSE 7.15 3 ALLWYN X ROAD 7.07
4 NANAL NAGAR 7.20 4 MIYAPUR X ROAD 7.10
5 MEHDIPATNAM 7.22 5 NIZAMPET 7.15
6 NMDC 7.25 6 JNTU 7.17
7 LAKDIKAPOOL 7.28 7 KPHB 7.18
8 TELEPHONE BHAVAN 7.30 8 KUKUTPALLY 7.23
9 INDIRA PARK 7.40 9 Y JUNCTION 7.26
10 R.T.C.CROSS ROAD 7.42 10 BALANAGAR 7.30
11 MUSHIRABAD X ROAD 7.44 11 BOWENPALLY PS 7.37
12 METTUGUDA 7.55 12 MALLAREDDY GARDEN 7.40
13 TARNAKA 8.00 13 BOWENPALLY MARKET 7.45
14 GCET 8.40 14 TIRUMALAGIRI 7.50
15 GCET 8.40

Route No. 7 Route No. 8

Driver: Venkat Reddy 9704778960 Driver: M.Sudhakar-9573322210
Incharge: V.Sirisha 9493976640 Incharge: M.V.Shiva Narayan 9848625028
S.No Name of the stage Timings S.No Name of the stage Timings
1 RISALA BAZAR 7.10 1 N.T.R.NAGAR 7.15
2 SATYA PETROL PUMP 7.25 2 KOTHAPET 7.25
3 LOTHUKUNTA 7.27 3 CHAITHANYAPURI 7.27
4 BUDHEVI NAGAR 7.30 4 DILSUKH NAGAR 7.30
5 SUBHASH NAGAR 7.35 5 MUSARAMBAGH 7.32
6 LAL BAZAR 7.40 6 AMBERPET 7.37
7 AMMUGUDA 7.50 7 SYNDICATE BANK 7.42
8 YAPRAL 7.55 8 SHIVAM ‘X’ ROAD 7.45
9 BALAJI NAGAR 1 8.05 9 GCET 8.40
10 BALAJI NAGAR 2 8.07
11 GCET 8.40

68
Route No. 9 Route No. 10
Driver: B.Ramesh -9963142744 Driver: Paramesh-9948549875
Incharge: Y.Swathi Teja-9010703203 Incharge: Lakshmi-9392422999
S.No Name of the stage Timings S.No Name of the stage Timings
1 AMBERPET 6.50 1 VINAYAK NAGAR 7.58
2 SHIVAM ROAD 7.10 2 SANTHOSHIMA 8.00
3 VIDYA NAGAR 7.20 TEMPLE
4 RAM NAGAR GUNDU 7.25 3 OLD SAFILGUDA 8.02
5 ADIKMET 7.30 4 PRASHANTH GARDEN 8.05
6 JAMAI OSMANIA 7.33 5 SAINATHAPURAM 8.07
7 WARASIGUDA 7.38 6 GCET 8.40
8 SITHAFALMUNDI 7.42
9 CHILKALGUDA ‘X’ ROAD 7.45 Route No. 12
10 METTUGUDA 7.50 Driver: R Bal Narsimha-9848520536
11 TARNAKA 7.55 Incharge: K. Swarupa 9490351137
12 LALAPET 8.00 S.No Name of the stage Timings
13 GCET 8.40
1 3 TEMPLES 7.55
2 KAKATIYA NAGAR 8.00
Route No. 11 3 VAYUPURI 8.05
Driver: Fayaz-9848771945 4 SAINIKPURI X ROAD 8.08
Incharge: Y.Sravan Kumar-9885615824 5 SHARADA 8.13
S.No Name of the stage Timings 6 AS RAO NAGAR 8.15
1 Musheerabad 7.20 7 KAMALA NAGAR 8.20
2 KAVADIGUDA X ROAD 7.25 8 KUSHAIGUDA TEMPLE 8.25
3 BIBLE HOUSE 7.27 9 CHAKRIPURAM 8.28
4 BATA 7.30 10 GCET 8.40
5 PATNY X ROAD 7.33
6 EAST MARREDPALLY 7.40 Route No. 13
7 WEST MARREDPALLY 7.45
Driver: D. Mallesh-9912110041
8 AOC CENTER 7.47
Incharge: K.Srinivas- 9866546163
9 NEREDMET ‘X’ ROAD 7.55
S.No. Name of the stage Timings
10 ECIL 8.10
11 GCET 8.40 1 VISHAL SUPERMARKET 7.30
2 TV STUDIO 7.32
3 STREET NO – 8 7.40
4 HABSIGUDA 7.50
5 HMT NAGAR 7.52
6 VYJAYANTHI THATER 8.00
7 H.B.COLONY 8.10
8 GCET 8.40

69
Route No. 14 Route No. 15
Driver: S.Mahesh-9505474762 Driver: N.Venkateswara Rao- 9030262599
Incharge: P.Sandeep Kumar 8978451261 Incharge: S. Raju-8978034208
S.No Name of the stage Timings S.No Name of the stage Timings
1 SHABARI GARDEN 7.15 1 BOLARUM(RLWY STATION) 7.30
2 PARAVATAPURAM 7.20 2 SELECT TALKIES 7.40
3 GIS SCHOOL 7.22 3 IG STATUE 7.43
4 UPPAL BUS STOP 7.25 4 OLD ALWAL 7.45
5 GSI 7.30 5 TEMPLE ALWAL 7.47
6 HABSIGUDA X ROAD 7.35 6 E.SEVA 7.50
7 HMT COLONY 7.38 7 SATYA COMPLEX 7.52
8 VYJAYANTHI 7.40 8 LOTHUKUNTA 7.55
9 NACHARAM X ROAD 7.42 9 AMMUGUDA 8.00
10 MALLAPUR 7.47 10 YAPRAL 8.12
11 ASHOK NAGAR 7.50 11 BALAJINAGAR 8.15
12 CHARLAPALLY RLWY STATION 7.55 12 GCET 8.40
13 MINT 8.15
14 CHAKRIPURAM X ROAD 8.25 Route No. 17
15 GCET 8.40 Driver: G.Nagavardhan Rao 9491346587
Incharge: K.Shashikala 9908248973
S.No. Name of the stage Timings
Route No. 16 1 SAI BABA TEMPLE 7.55
Driver: B Narsimha-9550412794 2 NETHAJI NAGAR 8.00
Incharge: S. Srinivas Rao-8688236223 3 VIJAYA SCHOOL 8.02
S.No. Name of the stage Timings 4 OLD MUNCIPAL OFFICE 8.05
1 Ganesh Nagar 7.35 5 YELLA REDDY GUDA 8.10
2 DHANVANTHARI 7.50 6 GCET 8.40
3 A.S.RAO NAGAR 7.55
4 RADHIKA 8.00 Route No. 18
5 BHAVANINAGAR 8.02 Driver: Naresh-8106560152
6 Sri Ram Nagar Colony 8.05 Incharge: G Lokeshwari 9490943751
7 PS Rao Nagar 8.15 S. No. Name of the stage Timings
8 GCET 8.35 1 KRISHNA NAGAR 7.40
2 ANUTEX 7.43
3 MALKAJGIRI MARKET 7.45
4 SAI RAM THEATRE 7.50
5 ST.ANN’S SCHOOL 7.52
6 ANDHRA BANK 7.55
7 MIRJALGUDA 8.00
8 SHANTHINAGAR 8.05
9 GCET 8.40
70
Route No. 19 Route No. 20
Driver: K Mallesh-9177901060 Driver: J.Ashok-9949920304
Incharge: Esther Varma-7702234519 Incharge: V.Padmaja 9490216768
S. No Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 SAFFILGUDA X ROAD 7.45 1 SHARADA BUS STOP 8.00
2 CINE POLIS 7.50 2 AS RAO NAGAR 8.02
3 RK NAGAR 7.52 1 RADHIKA X ROAD 8.08
4 VANI NAGAR 7.55 2 BHAVANI NAGAR 8.10
5 ANUTEX 8.00 3 SRI RAM NAGAR 8.13
6 MALKAJGIRI PS 8.05 4 KAPRA CIRCLE 8.14
7 BALAJI FUNCTION HALL 8.07 5 JAI JAWAN COLONY 8.20
8 GCET 8.40 6 DAMMAIGUDA 8.25
7 GCET 8.40

Route No. 21 Route No. 22

Driver B Venkatesh 9948146072 Driver: Mr.Parusuram 9912510162
Incharge: D.V.Rami Reddy 9866338091 Incharge: Venkateshwar Rao-9966092124
S. No Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 RTC COLONY 7.40 1 SAINATHPURAM 8.00
2 ZTS 7.45 2 SHARADA BUS STOP 8.05
3 CARBON 7.50 3 RADHIKA X ROAD 8.10
4 HB COLONY PHASE 1 7.55 4 KAMALANAGAR 8.12
5 VASUNDARA 8.02 5 ECIL X ROAD 8.15
6 UNANI HOSPITAL 8.05 6 KUSHAIGUDA TEMPLE 8.18
7 GCET 8.35 7 KUSHAIGUDA BUS STOP 8.20
8 NAGARJUNANAGAR COLONY 8.22
Route No. 23 9 CHAKRIPURAM 8.25
10 VIJAYA HOSPITAL 8.28
Driver: Bikshapathi-9346607805
11 GCET 8.40
Incharge: V. Manjula-8978279948
S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 MINI TANKBAND 7.50
2 KRUPA COMPLEX 7.55
3 NAREDMET X ROADS 8.00
4 A.S.RAO NAGAR 8.10
5 ROUND BUILDING 8.15
(ECIL)
6 GCET 8.40

71
Route No. 24 Route No. 25
Driver: Bhaskar- 8328530924 Driver: Laxman-9989831345
Incharge: Y.Shiva 9866964152 Incharge: Y.Vani Sree-9885023129
S. No Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 SAINATH PURAM 8.00 1 MUSHEERABAD 7.30
2 SHARADA 8.05 2 PADMARAO NAGAR 7.35
3 RADHIKA` 8.10 3 GARONDA SUPER MARKET 7.40
4 BHAVANI NAGAR 8.12 4 CHILKALGUDA X ROAD 7.45
5 CAL PUBLIC SCHOOL 8.15 5 METTUGUDA 7.55
6 SAKETH TOWERS 8.18 6 TARNAKA 8.00
7 DAMMAIGUDA 8.25 7 LALAPET 8.00
8 GCET 8.40 8 HB COLONY 8.05
8 ECIL 8.15
10 GCET 8.40

Route No.26 Route No. 27

Driver: Venkatesh Goud- 9701502625 Driver: Nagesh Yadav-8179177627
Incharge:K.Preethi-9642339938 Incharge: Neeraja-9533914425
S. No Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 5th AVENEUE 7.55 1 ANAND BAGH RLWY GATE 7.55
2 SHOPPING COMPLEX 7.58 2 NMDC 7.58
3 NIRMALANAGAR 8.00 3 ZTS 8.01
4 NEREDMET 8.05 4 CARBAN 8.03
5 NETHAJI NAGAR 8.10 5 H.B COLONY, I-PHASE 8.05
6 JAI JAWAN COLONY 8.17 6 VASUNDARA COLLEGE 8.07
7 DAMMAIGUDA 8.22 7 INDRA NAGAR BUS STOP 8.09
8 FISH BUILDING 8.27 8 MEERA FUNCTION HALL 8.11
9 GCET 8.40 9 SP NAGAR BUS STOP 8.13
10 DAE COLONY 8.15
11 GCET 8.40

72
Route No. 28 Route No. 29
Driver: Yakaiah- 7731868228 Driver: G.Ravi Kumar- 9951211391
Incharge: B Priyanka-8801163965 Incharge: Abdul Eusuf-9505419974
S. No. Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 SAGAR RING ROAD 7.20 1 SAI BABA TEMPLE 8.00
2 LB NAGAR 7.23 2 POULOMI 8.05
3 WHITE HOUSE 7.25 3 RADHIKA X ROAD 8.08
4 RAMAKRISHNA PURAM 7.30 4 CAL PUBLIC SCHOOL 8.13
5 SNEHAPURI COLONY 7.34 5 SRI RAM NAGAR 8.15
6 NAGOLE X ROAD 7.35 6 SAKETH TOWERS 8.17
7 UPPAL X ROAD 7.37 7 JAI JAWAN COLONY 8.18
8 GSI 7.40 8 SAKETH COLONY 8.20
9 NACHARAM HMT 7.45 9 DAMMAIGUDA 8.22
10 VYJAYANTHI 7.47 10 KRISHNA THEATER 8.26
11 NOMA 7.50 11 GCET 8.40
12 MOULALI H.B COLONY 7.55
13 GCET 8.40

Route No. 31
Route No. 30
Driver: Ameen Ali-9652318198
Driver: M.Raju- 8897516124
Incharge: Nagamani-9493284882
Incharge: K.Mahendrachari-9948158662 S. No Name of the stage Timings
S. No Name of the stage Timings 1 RADHIKA PETROL BUNK 8.00
1 EAST ANANDBAGH 7.55 2 NORTH KAMALANAGAR 8.02
2 BIG C 7.57 3 ECIL X ROADS 8.05
3 ANUTEX 7.59 4 KUSHAIGUDA TEMPLE 8.10
4 MALKAJGIRI 8.01 5 KUSHAIGUDA POCHAMMA TEMPLE 8.12
5 BALAJI FUNCTION HALL 8.03 6 NAGARJUNANAGAR COLONY 8.15
6 HB COLONY PHASE 1 8.13 7 CHAKRIPURAM 8.18
7 GCET 8.40 8 VIJAYA HOSPITAL 8.20
9 NAGARAM 8.23
10 RAMPALLY X ROAD 8.28
11 GCET 8.40

73
Route No. 32 Route No. 33
Driver: Gopal Rao-9951095553 Driver: Madhu Babu- 9553581371
Incharge: Dr K.Madhumathi-9849433056 Incharge: K Priyanka-9985987198
S. No Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 DAMMAIGUDA 8.05
1 RADHIKA X ROAD 7.55
2 PS RAO NAGAR 8.03 2 RAJINI SUPER MARKET 8.00
3 SIDDHARTHA NAGAR 8.06 3 GAYATHRI NAGAR 8.02
4 ANUSHAKTHI NAGAR 8.09 4 HANUMAN TEMPLE 8.05
5 NAGARAM X ROADS 8.12 5 SP NAGAR BUS STOP 8.07
6 RAMPALLY X ROAD 8.15 6 KUSHAIGUDA DEPOT 8.08
7 GCET 8.40 7 ECIL 8.10
8 GCET 8.40

Route No. 34 Route No. 35

Driver: G Balraju 9705721108 Driver: Veera Swamy-7093586490
Incharge: M.Arun Kumar-9182058198 Incharge: Krishna Chaitanya 9441802797
S. No. Name of the stage Timings S. No Name of the stage Timings
1 PARKING MEDIPALLY 7.45 1 SUCHITRA X ROAD 7.40
2 MEDIPALLY KAMAN 7.50 2 LAYOLA COLLEGE 7.42
3 MEDIPALLY BUS STOP 7.52 3 SAIBABA TEMPLE 7.45
4 NAREPALLY X ROAD 8.00 4 IG STATUE 7.48
5 JODIMETLA 8.05 5 SELECT TALKIES 7.50
6 GHATKESAR 8.12 6 JANAPRIYA 7.52
7 RAMPALLY 8.20 7 AYYAPA TEMPLE BOLLARUM 7.57
8 RL NAGAR 8.23 8 WATER TANK 8.00
9 RTC COLONY 8.25 9 THUMKUNTA 8.10
10 SATYANARAYAN COLONY 8.28 10 DONGALA MAISAMMA 8.13
11 RAMPALL X ROAD 8.30 11 BITS 8.18
12 GCET 8.40 12 GCET 8.40

74
Route No. 36
Driver: K .Mallaiah-9948949675 Route No.37
Incharge -M. Prashanth 8143333526 Driver Spare: M.Linga Reddy-9490137386
S. No Name of the stage Timings Incharge A Shanker 8985169362
1 UPPAL X ROAD 7.45 S. No Name of the stage Timings
2 GANDHI STATUE 7.48
1 HABSIGUDA METRO 7.40
3 UPPAL BUS STOP 7.50
2 IICT GATE 7.42
4 PHIRZATGUDA KAMAN 7.55
3 HMT 7.45
5 UPPAL BUS DEPOT 8.00
4 VYJAYANTHI 7.50
6 ANUTEX 8.02
5 NACHARAM X ROAD 7.55
7 CANARA NAGAR 8.05
6 MALLAPUR 8.00
8 GCET 8.40
7 NOMA 8.03
8 GCET 8.40
Route No 38
Driver: G.Narsaiah-7702417524 Route No: 39
Incharge: V.Sandeepa-8297028822 Driver: K.Ramesh-9000736756
S. No Name of the stage Timings
Incharge: E.HimaBindu-9703880333
1 PARKING KHARKHANA 7.45 S. No Name of the stage Timings
2 R K PURAM 7.50 1 PARKING SAGAR X ROAD 7.30
3 GK COLONY 7.55 2 CHINTHALAKUNTA UNDERPASS 7.36
4 NEEREDMET X ROAD 7.57 3 SUSHMA THEATER 7.40
5 SAINIKPURI PETROL BUNK 8.05 4 PANAMA 7.45
6 NETHAJI NAGAR X ROAD 8.07 5 AUTONAGAR 7.50
7 VIJAYA SCHOOL 8.10 6 HAYATHNAGAR 7.55
8 DAMMAIGUDA 8.20 7 KUNTLUR 8.00
9 GCET 8.40 8 GCET 8.40

S.No Name Vehicle

1 K Devender Principal Car
2 T Ramesh Goud HOD's car
3 Yellaiah K Four wheeler
4 Mallesh Four wheeler
5 Kumar Four wheeler
6 S.Ramesh Spare Driver
7 Yadagiri Spare Driver
8 Shankar Spare Driver
9 Gopal Reddy Spare Driver
10 Michael Spare Driver

75
 ACADEMIC CALENDAR
I Semester

Description Period Duration

Orientation and Induction Program 02-08-2019 to 15-08-2019 (2 weeks)
First Spell of Instruction 16-08-2019 to 17-10-2019 (8 weeks)
Fresher’s Day 31-08-2019
First Parent- Teacher Meeting 08-09-2019
*Dussehra Holidays 05-10-2019 to 12-10-2019 (8 days)
First Mid-Term Examinations 17-10-2019 to 19-10-2019 (3 days)
Submission of First Mid-Term Examinations Marks 25-10-2019
to Exam Branch on or before
Second Spell of Instruction 21-10-2019 to 14-12-2019 (8 weeks)
Second Parent-Teacher Meeting 24-11-2019
Second Mid-Term Examinations 12-12-2019 to 14-12-2019 (3 days)
Submission of Second Mid-Term Examinations 23-12-2019
Marks to Exam Branch on or before
Preparation Holidays and Practical Examinations 15-12-2019 to 22-12-2019 (8 days)
End Semester Examinations 23-12-2019 to 04-01-2020 (2 weeks)
*Dussehra Holidays are likely to be re-scheduled according to the announcement made by Telangana Government.

II Semester

Description Period Duration

First Spell of Instruction 06-01-2020 to 29-02-2020 (8 weeks)
First Parent- Teacher Meeting 09-02-2020
First Mid-Term Examinations 27-02-2020 to 29-02-2020 (3 days)
Submission of First Mid-Term Examinations Marks 10-03-2020
to Exam Branch on or before
Second Spell of Instruction 02-03-2020 to 25-04-2020 (8 weeks)
Second Parent-Teacher Meeting 22-03-2020
Second Mid-Term Examinations 23-04-2020 to 25-04-2020 (3 days)
Submission of Second Mid-Term Examinations 05-05-2020
Marks to Exam Branch on or before
Preparation Holidays and Practical Examinations 27-04-2020to 04-05-2020 (8 days)
End Semester Examinations 05-05-2020 to 13-05-2020 (9 days)
Supplementary Examinations 14-05-2020to 20-05-2020 (7 days)
Summer Vacation 21-05-2020 to 20-06-2020 (5 weeks)
Commencement of Class work for the next Academic 22-06-2020
Year 2020-2021

76
 QUESTION BANK
ENGLISH
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. ‘Raman had achieved what he had claimed in 1924.’Substantiate in 250 words.
2. Develop a paragraph in 100 words on the advantages of reading books.
3. Explain when should the following Punctuation Marks be used with two suitable examples each.
i. Comma ii. Colon iii. Hyphen iv. Apostrophe v. Semicolon
4. What is an Article? Explain the rules of using Articles in sentences.
5. List various techniques of Reading.

Unit II
1. Compare the Architectural styles of Gandhara and Dravida from the lesson “Ancient Architecture
in India”.
2. Write the Architectural contribution of the following Dynasties.
i.Kushanas ii. Satavahanas iii. Guptas iv. Pallavas v. Cholas
3. What are Synonyms and Antonyms? Choose the correct Synonym or Antonym for the following
words.
i. inspire: decorate, achieve, motivate, adorn
ii. significant: important, easy, useful, necessary
iii. permanence: timely, instantly, quickly, stablely
iv: flourish: grow, increase, develop. under developed
4. Write the techniques to improve Reading Comprehension.
5. Draft a Cover Letter with a resume for the post of Trainee Engineer in BHEL.

Unit III
1. Explain the manufacturing process of Blue Jeans. BTL1
2. Identify the root language of the following affixes and write their meanings.BTL2
i. co…
ii.de…
iii. crypto…
iv… nomy
v.…gress
3. Identify the root language of the following words and frame sentences with the words.
BTL 3
i. Genre
ii. Fest
iii. Demand
iv. Impromptu
v. Cafeteria
4. Explain the steps involved in writing an Abstract.BTL 3
5. Differentiate Skimming and Scanning.

77
 Unit IV
1. “A healthy diet is a solution to many of our health problems.” Explain the statement with
reference to the lesson “What Should You be Eating?”
2. “Abbreviations and acronyms are the key aspects of academic and business writing”.
Illustrate with 5 examples each.
3. Analyze the importance of avoiding redundancies and clichés in writing with appropriate
examples.
4. How does Intensive and Extensive Reading open up new vistas and change perspectives of
the reader?
5. Write an argumentative essay in 250-300 words on “Should the Government have a say on
our financial savings?”
Unit V

1. Narrate the incidents which led Zhou to become the richest woman in the world.
2. Write 10 important Technical vocabulary used with their meanings.
3. Elaborate any two techniques of reading to improve comprehension skills .
4. What kind of language is used in writing a Report. Explain.
5. Change the following sentences into the other Voice .
i. The car is driven by a Chauffeur. (to AV)
ii. Proteins are consumed to make bones healthy. (to PV)
iii. EVMs were broken during the recent Elections. (to AV)
iv. More than 100 students were selected by Tech Mahindra Team during Placements this year.
(to AV)
v. Mukesh Ambani initiated many new industries. (to P.V)

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Describe the importance of reading in 50 words.
2. Choose appropriate prefix and suffix for the following words.
(i) Significant (ii) create (iii) control (iv) portable (v) relevant
3. Explain the importance of ‘comma’ and ‘apostrophe’ with examples.
4. Distinguish a descriptive paragraph from a narrative.
5. Elaborate the significance of Raman Effect in the pharmaceutical industry or in the 21st
century.

Unit-II
1. Develop a paragraph of 100 words about Cave Architecture with 2 examples.
2. Elaborate the steps for improving good comprehension skills.
3. Write correct synonyms and antonyms 2 each for
i. Exquisite ii. Flourish iii. Magnificent iv. Testimony
4. Compose a requisition letter to the SI of your locality police station about tracing your lost
Certificates while travelling.

78
 5. Identify the Common Errors in the following sentences.
i. The committee have decided to pass the budget.
ii. Printers and scanners needs regular maintenance for trouble- free service.
iii. John and Sally are fond of his or her son.
iv. Everyone returned his books to the library.
v. Ravi is knowing how to play guitar.

Unit-III
1. Write a note on misplaced modifiers. Give three examples.
2. List out the uses of skimming and scanning.
3. Identify the language from which the following prefixes and suffixes are taken
Prefixes:
i. A-
ii. De-
iii. Hyper-
iv. Photo-
v. Super-
Suffixes:
i. Graph-
ii. Ism-
iii. Mer-
iv. Logy-
v. Nomy-

4. ‘Writing a good Abstract is an art’- Analyse the statement in relation to the rules to be
followed while writing an abstract in 150 words.
5. Elaborate the reasons for the evolution of Blue Jeans.

Unit-IV
1. Enlist 10 redundancies and clichés that one should avoid while writing.
2. Examine the importance of reading.
3. Write the full form of the following:
i. FAQ
ii. ABM
iii. AIR
iv. CARE
v. ERDA
vi. FICCI
vii. HDFC
viii. NABARD

79
 ix. NATO
x. SCOPE
4. Write an essay on the “Organic foods vs. genetically modified foods”.
5. Discuss the importance of eating healthy food.

Unit-V
1. Change the following verbs into passive forms.
a. Supply b. are supplying c. were supplying d. have supplied e. had supplied
2. Read the Head line given below and comprehend. Write the meaning of it in one or two
sentences.
Super-intelligent aliens could be trying to contact Earth, but humans may
not be able to pick up the signals.
3. Use the following technical words in your own sentences.
i. fission ii. Contamination iii. Sensor iv. Microprocessor v. chip
4. Explain the sections of a Report.
5. Explore the factors that helped Ms.Zhou to become a successful entrepreneur.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Summarize the contribution of Sir.C.V. Raman in discovering ‘Raman Effect’ in 200 words.
2. Write the meaning of the following word roots and form five words each.
acu, brev, cant, del, eco, fall, graph, harm, inter, laps
3. (a) Define a ‘phrase’ and a ‘clause.’
(b) Use the following clauses in sentences of your own.
if, although, until, moreover, however
Unit-II
1. Compare and Contrast the Architectural styles of Gandhara, Dravida and Nagara from the
lesson “Ancient Architecture in India”.
2. Design a Job Application with your Resume responding to the following advertisement.
Wanted a Software Engineer to work for Softech . The candidate must have 2 years of
experience and should be fluent in English. Apply to careers –[email protected].
3. Elucidate the techniques for good Comprehension.

Unit-III
1. Explain the process of manufacturing denim cloth.
2. Consider a piece of writing of your choice and develop an Abstract of 250 words.
3. Describe all the sub skills of Reading.

Unit-IV
1. Discuss the impact of social media in developing different kinds of eating disorder.
80
 2. You have recently gone through few food blogs and decided to create your own food blog.
Enlist ten tips that you want to keep in your mind about food, hygiene, calories,
consumption etc. while blogging.
3. Draw a healthy food pyramid from your daily food consumptions. Illustrate and explain the
reason of classifying your food items according to the levels of healthy eating pyramid.

Unit-V
1. Examine the meaning of ‘to be most at home’ from the lesson “How a Chinese Built Her
Fortune”. Explain what Lens Technology produces.
2. Draft a report on work place safety.
3. Change the following sentences into correct voice
i. The fabric has been cut and styled by the fashion designer.
ii. The police accepted his complaint.
iii. The Government is promoting the use of khadi to make clothes.
iv. The artist demanded high remuneration to participate in the show.
v. He broke the World Record in throwing Javelin.

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Raman initiated research in the areas of scattering of light by liquids,
__________________________ and ________________________________. BTL1
2. Raman’s Spectroscopy is applied in various areas such as ____________________________ and
___________________________. BTL1
3. Add a prefix to the word legitimate__________________ and to the word refutable
________________________.BTL 2
4. A word with suffix -ous is __________________and a word with suffix -al
is______________________ . BTL 2
5. One who is the centre of attraction is called__________________________ and one who sneers
at the beliefs of others is called _________________________________.BTL3
6. He is _________best player in the team but he makes_____________ lot of noise. (use articles)
BTL2
7. Ten crore people will vote___________ choose from 979 candidates ______________ 59
constituencies. (use prepositions)
8. The strategies of effective writing are _________________ and _________________. BTL1
9. A complex sentence consists of one ________________ and one or more
______________________ clauses. BTL 4
10. __________________ is used to separate elements in a list of three or more items and
________________________ is used to separate words in compound adjectives. BTL 3
81
11. We use transition words such as _____________ and ________________ in Narrative
paragraphs. BTL 2
12. J.J.Thompson and Lord Rutherford were already acquainted with Raman’s study in the field of
____________________ and ____________________. BTL 1
13. Raman used a ________________ Nicol prism on a sample of ____________________ to show
that light was indeed scattered by the water molecules. BTL 1
14. Reading is to obtain brief and ___________________ information and also for detailed
________________. BTL 2
15. The meaning of speculation is____________________ and diffraction is _________________.
BTL 4

Unit-II
1. The _________ _______of Sanchi and Sarnath are symbols of the achievements of
__________________ architecture.
2. The ___________________ of Greek and Indian art subsequently led to the development of
___________________ art.
3. The ___________ _________School under the patronage of the Satavahanas adorned the stupas
with ___________________.

4. Konark the famous Sun temple is famous for _________ architecture and ‘Shikaras’ were built
in _________________ style of architecture.
5. The Dilwara temples in Rajasthan are dedicated to ______________ and were built under the
patronage of _______________________rulers.
6. Use synonyms for the underlined words.
i. It was a hazardous _____________ journey.
ii. Students gain knowledge in a pleasant___________ environment.

7. The antonyms for the word adore are _________ and _________ .
8. ___________ and _________ are the techniques for good comprehension.

9. Everyone must submit their Adhar card in the MRO office.(identify the error and rewrite)
___________________________________________________________.
10. In a ___________ letter we need a favour/service from an ________________.
11. The tone of letter of complaint should be _________ and _________.

12. In a Cover Letter, an aspirant should _______________ the employer about the
___________________ given in the resume.
13. Fill the blank with appropriate verb. i. Every man, woman and child ______________ washed
away in Phoni cyclone.
ii. Neither Anusha nor Aparna _______________stolen my purse.
14 The benefits of extensive reading are ________________ and __________.
15 A resume carries information pertaining to candidate’s_______________ qualifications,
_______________ experience, achievements and strengths.

82
Unit-III
1. A tailor named _________________ invented ______________ pants.
2. ____________ Denim should not shrink more than ____________ per cent after three
washings.
3. ______________ recognized a need for strong work pants in the mining communities of
___________________.
4. The prefix ‘crypto’ means ___________________ and the suffix ‘port’ means
_____________
5. The words formed with the prefix hemi- are ___________ and ______________.
6. The word ‘adhoc’ is derived from _______________ language and means
________________________.
7. The word ‘anonymous’ is derived from __________________ language and means
____________________________.
8. Modifiers generally are descriptive words such as _________________ and
_________________.
9. The process of coating the dyed yarn with a variety of starchy substances is called
_________ to make the yarn stronger and ____________.
10. The movie ____________ (start) by the time I ________ (reach) the theater. CO3,BTL 3
(use correct form of the verb)
11. Locating specific information within a text is __________ and identifying the main
ideas quickly is ____________. CO3,BTL 3
12. The two main steps involved in Abstract Writing are ______________and
___________. CO3,BTL 2
13. Sensible writing means having a clear understanding of ________________ and examining
it from _____________ angles. CO3,BTL 2
14. Sensible Writing is avoiding _____________ and _________________. CO3,BTL 2
15. An abstract should be ________________ and __________________. CO3,BTL 1
Unit-IV
1. Healthy carbohydrates help in preventing sudden rise and fall of __________________ and
____________________ in the body. BTL 1
2. Fruits and vegetables help in avoiding the ______________ ailment and guard against
_________________________. BTL 1
3. People suffering from __________________ and _________________ should avoid the
yolk of egg. BTL 2
4. The shortened form of a word or phrase is ________________________ whereas an
abbreviated form with the initial letters of a word is ________________. BTL 2
5. Sci-fi is ____________________ and ‘Encl.’ is __________________. BTL 3
6. Redundancy can be eliminated by avoiding _____________and _____________.
7. ________________ and ________________ are the common strategies followed while
reading a text.
8. Reading develops__________________ and ___________________ skills of an individual.

9. Intensive reading helps in understanding _________________ whereas extensive reading

helps in understanding the ___________________.
10. Exploratory essays reflect on a _________________________ and
_____________________ the ability of the writer.

83
 11. _____________ and _____________________ are the purposes of an argumentative essay.

12. A successful blog focuses on _________________ and _______________.

13. _____________________ and _____________________ are the qualities of précis writing.

14. _________________are not to be used in Précis writing to make it __________________.

15. The words overused in a sentence are called ______________ and they become a
_____________ for communication.

Unit-V
1. Zhou was dropped out of school though she was_______________ and then she landed with a
job of _________________ glass.
2. The advent of ____________________in 2003 made Qunfei a billionaire for making
_____________________.
3. Ms Zhou is very __________________with her job but still _______________________the
machines.
4. Zhou’s employees know her to be _____________________________ and
______________________of the smallest details.
5. The conventional method of transmitting data is called _________________ and ISP is
__________________________.
6. A type of rotary machine that converts direct current into mechanical energy is known as
_________________________ and a ____________ accelerates a reaction.
7. A period of temporary economic decline is called ____________________and Bull Market is a
_________________________.
8. Identify the errors in the following sentences.
i. When I was walking in the park, I was hearing a loud noise.
ii. MNTE is constructing this bridge since 2008.
9. ______________________ and _______________________ are essential qualities to improve
Reading Comprehension.
10. Highly structured documents are called _______________________and each section of it has a
____________________________value.
11. The additional parts which are not central to a Report but play a pivotal role are
___________________ and ____________________________.
12. A Report which justifies specific recommendations is called____________________ and the
report which adheres to established guidelines is _______________________ report.
13. Zhou exudes ___________________________and __________________________.
14. The meaning of monotonous is ________________________ and obsessive is
_______________________.
15. The brief summary of a text is an __________________and it should avoid
_____________________.

84
 MATHEMATICS-I

ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS

Unit-I
2 3 45
1. Find the rank of the matrix 𝐴 = [3 4 56 ] by reduce it into the Normal form.
4 5 6 7
9 10 1112
1 1 3
2. Using the Gauss-Jordan method, find the inverse of the matrix 𝐴 = [ 1 3 −3 ]
−2 −4 −4

3. Find the values of 𝑘 for which the system of equations (3𝑘 − 8)𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 0, 3𝑥 +
(3𝑘 − 8)𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 0, 3𝑥 + 3𝑦 + (3𝑘 − 8)𝑧 = 0 has a non-trivial solution.

4. Test for consistency the following equations and solve them, if consistent.
5x + 3y + 7z = 4, 3𝑥 + 26𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 9, 7𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 10𝑧 = 5

5. Investigate the values of a and b so that the equations

2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 5𝑧 = 9, 7𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 8, 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 𝑎𝑧 = 𝑏,
have (i) no solution (ii) unique solution(iii) an infinite number of solutions

Unit-II
1 0 3
1. Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem and find 𝐴−1 and𝐴4 for the matrix 𝐴 = [2 1 −1] .
1 −1 1
2. Determine the eigen values and the corresponding eigen vectors of the matrix 𝐴 =
3 2 2
[1 2 2]
−1 −1 0
−2 2 −3
3. Determine the modal matrix P of 𝐴 = [ 2 1 −6] and hence find the diagonal matrix of
−1 −2 0
A.
4. Reduce the quadratic form 2𝑥1 2 + 2𝑥2 2 + 2𝑥3 2 − 2𝑥1 𝑥2 + 2𝑥1 𝑥3 − 2𝑥2 𝑥3 to canonical form
by orthogonal transformation. Hence discuss the nature of the quadratic form.
5. Reduce the quadratic form3𝑥 2 + 5𝑦 2 + 3𝑧 2 − 2𝑦𝑧 + 2𝑧𝑥 − 2𝑥𝑦 to canonical form.

85
Unit- III
𝑥⁄ 𝑥 𝑥⁄
1. Solve (1 + 𝑒 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 + (1 − 𝑦) 𝑒 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
𝑑𝑦
2. Solve 𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 2 𝑦 3 + 𝑥𝑦) = 1.
3. The temperature of the body drops from 100℃ to 75℃ in ten minutes when the surrounding
air is at 20℃. What will be the temperature after half an hour?
4. A bacterial culture growing exponentially increases from 100 to 400 grams in 10 hrs. How
much bacteria will be present after 3 hours?
5. Solve for x the differential equation 𝑦 = 2𝑝𝑥 + 𝑦 2 𝑝3 .

Unit-IV
1. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 − 4𝐷 + 4)𝑦 = 8𝑥 2 𝑒 2𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥.

2. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 4𝑦 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛2𝑥 using Method of variation of parameters.

3. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ − 𝑦 = 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + (1 + 𝑥 2 )𝑒 𝑥 .
4. Solve 𝑥 2 𝑦 ′′ − 𝑥𝑦 ′ + 2𝑦 = 𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥.
5. Solve the differential equation (1 + 𝑥)2 𝑦 " + (1 + 𝑥)𝑦 ′ + 𝑦 = 4 cos(log(1 + 𝑥)).

Unit-V

∞ 𝑒 −𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑡
1. Evaluate ∫0 𝑑𝑡, Using Laplace Transform technique.
𝑡
𝜋
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑤𝑡, 0≤𝑡<𝑤
2. Find the Laplace transform of the function 𝑓(𝑡) = { 𝜋 2𝜋 with period
0 , <𝑡≤
𝑤 𝑤
2𝜋
of .
𝑤
𝑠2
3. Find 𝐿−1 [(𝑠2 +𝑎2 )(𝑠2 +𝑏2 )], Using convolution theorem.
𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦
4. Solve the differential equation + 2 𝑑𝑡 2 − 𝑑𝑡 − 2𝑦 = 0, where 𝑦 = 1, = 2, = 2 at
𝑑𝑡 3 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 2
𝑡 = 0.
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
5. Using Laplace transform, Solve the differential equation −4 + 3𝑦 = 𝑒 −𝑡 , given
𝑑𝑡 2 𝑑𝑡
𝑦(0) = 1 and 𝑦 ′ (0) = 0

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Define Hermitian, Skew-Hermitian and Unitary matrices.
2. Define an orthogonal matrix.

86
 0 2𝑏 𝑐
3. Find the values of a, b, c if 𝐴 = [𝑎 𝑏 −𝑐 ] is orthogonal?
𝑎 −𝑏 𝑐
4. If a non-singular matrix A is symmetric, show that 𝐴−1 is also symmetric.
5. Prove that the inverse and transpose of a unitary matrix is unitary.
6. Define skew-symmetric matrix and give a suitable example.
7. If A is Hermitian matrix, prove that iA is a skew-Hermitian matrix
8. Define singular and non-singular matrix.
4 0 0 1
9. Determine whether the matrix 𝐴 = [1 3 1 −1] has inverse.
0 0 0 2
2 4 2 −3
10. Define Idempotent matrix and give a suitable example.
11. Define nilpotent matrix.
1 2 1
12. If 𝐴 = [3 2 2] then find the Adj A.
1 2 2
13. Define Echelon form of a matrix.
14. Define Normal form of a matrix.
1 0 0
15. Find the rank of the matrix 𝐴 = [1 1 1].
2 2 2
1 1 1 1
16. What is the rank of the matrix 𝐴 = [1 1 1 1].
1 1 1 1
1 1 1 1
𝑘 10
17. Find the value of k such that rank of 𝐴 = [ ] is 2.
6 10
18. Define the necessary and sufficient condition that the system of equations 𝐴𝑋 = 𝐵 is
consistent.
19. When the equation 𝐴𝑋 = 𝐵 as a unique solution, no solution, infinite number of solutions.
20. Find whether the system of equations 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 0, 𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 𝑧 = 0,
2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 4𝑧 = 0, is consistent or not?
Unit-II
1. Define Eigen values and Eigenvectors of a matrix.
2 −3
2. Find the sum and product of the eigenvalues of matrix 𝐴 = [ ]
4 −2
6 −2 2
3. If the product of two eigenvalues of the matrix 𝐴 = [−2 3 −1] is 16, then find the third
2 −1 3
eigenvalue.
4. State the Cayley-Hamilton theorem and use it to find the inverse of the matrix
1 2
𝐴=[ ].
2 −1
3 1
5. Using Cayley-Hamilton theorem, find 𝐴8 , if 𝐴 = [ ].
−1 2
1 1
6. Find the eigenvalues of a matrix𝐴 = [ ].
2 5
87
 1 −6 −4
7. Find the eigenvalues of matrix𝐴 = [0 4 2 ].
0 −6 −3
8. Define Diagonalization of a matrix.
−1 2 −2
9. Whether the matrix [ 1 2 1 ] is diagonalizable or not?
−1 −1 0
10. Define Similarity of matrices.
11. Define Algebraic and Geometric multiplicity of a Characteristic roots.
12. Define the following terms, positive definite, negative definite, semi positive definite, semi
negative definite and indefinite.
13. Find the symmetric matrix corresponding to the quadratic form
𝑥12 + 4𝑥22 + 𝑥32 − 4𝑥1 𝑥2 + 2𝑥1 𝑥3 − 4𝑥2 𝑥3
1 −1 2
14. Find the quadratic form corresponding to the symmetric matrix [−1 2 −2]
2 −2 3
15. Discuss the nature of the quadratic form 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2
0 1 1
16. If 𝐴 = [1 0 1] find the nature of the quadratic form 𝑋 𝑇 𝐴𝑋
1 1 0
17. Define Index and signature of a quadratic form.
18. Find the index and signature of 𝑥 2 + 3𝑦 2 + 3𝑧 2 − 2𝑦z.
19. If the eigenvalues of A are 1, , −3 then find index and signature of the quadratic form
𝑋 𝑇 𝐴𝑋

Unit-III
1. Define Order and Degree of the differential equation.
2. Eliminate the arbitrary constant 𝑦 = 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑐 − 𝑐 3
3. Define Linear and Non-linear differential equation.
4. Write the general form of the first order linear differential equation.
5. Define the exact differential equation.
6. State law of Natural Growth.
7. State law of Natural Decay.
8. State Newton’s law of cooling.
9. Find the differential equation of the family of circles with centre as origin.
10. Write down the standard form of homogeneous equation of degree ‘n’.
11. Write down the standard form of first order linear differential equation.
dy
12. The integrating factor of the differential equation x dx − y = 2x 2 is
dy
13. Solve the differential equation = log(x + 1)
dx
y
14. Form the D.E by eliminating the arbitrary constants log (x) = cx
15. If the air is maintained at 30℃ and the temperature of the body cools from 80℃ to 60℃ in
12 minutes, then find the temperature of the body after 24 minutes.

88
 Unit-IV
1. Solve (D2 + 5D + 9)y = 0
2. Find the particular integral of (D3 + 1)y = 5e2x
3. Show that y = ce−2x is solution of y1 + 2y = 0
4. Find the complementary function of (D3 − D)y = x
5. Find the particular integral of (D + 1)2 y = x
1
6. Find the value of D−2 sinx
1
7. Find the particular integral of D2 +4 sin2x
8. Find the complementary function of (D − 1)4 y = ex
1
9. Find the particular integral of D+2 (x + ex )
10. Find the particular integral of (D2 − 5D + 6)y = e2x
11. Find the complementary function of (D4 − a4 )y = 0
12. Find the Wronskian of x and ex
13. The general solution of (4D3 + 4D2 + D)y = 0
14. Find the differential equation whose auxiliary equation has the roots are 0, −1, −1
15. Find the particular integral of (D2 + a2 )y = sinax
d2 x
16. Find the periodic time of the motion described by the differential equation dt2 + 4x = 0
Unit-V
1. Define Laplace transform operator and Inverse Laplace transform operator
2. State Laplace transform of First shifting theorem.
3. Find Laplace transform of sin2tcost.
4. Find Laplace transform of e2t+t2+sin2t
5. State Laplace transform of Second shifting theorem.
6. Find Laplace transform of eat using the theorem on transform of derivatives.
7. State Unit impulse function
8. Find Laplace transform of e-t cosht
9. Find Laplace transform of t2e2t
2𝑆−5
10. Find L-1 {𝑆2 −4}
𝑆
11. Find L-1 {(𝑆+2)2 }
1
12. Find 𝐿−1 (𝑠3 )
1
13. Find L-1 {𝑙𝑜𝑔(1 + 𝑠2 )}
sint
14. Find Laplace transform of t
𝑠+2
15. Find 𝐿−1 {𝑠3 −4𝑠+13)} State Convolution Theorem
𝑠
16. Find 𝐿−1 {𝑠2 −𝑎2 }
1−𝑒 𝑡
17. Find 𝐿−1 { 𝑡 }
18. Find Laplace transform of 𝑒 2𝑡 + 4𝑡 3 − 2𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝑡 + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑡
19. State Convolution Theorem

89
 20. Find 𝐿[𝑡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑎𝑡]

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I

1. Define Rank of a matrix. Define symmetric matrix, skew matrix and orthogonal
matrix.
2. Find the rank of the following matrices by reducing it into echelon form.
1 2 −1 4 2 1 3 5 0 1 −3 −1
A= [ 2 4 3 4 ] B=[ 4 2 1 3 ] C=[1 0 1 1]
1 2 3 4 8 4 7 13 3 1 0 2
−1 −2 6 −7 3 4 −3 −1 1 1 −2 0
1 −1 2 −3 1 2 3 −2
3. Reduce the matrix A = [ 4 1 0 2 ] 𝐵 = [2 −2 1 3 ] in to the normal
0 3 0 4
3 0 4 1
0 1 0 2
I 0
form [ r ] and hence determine its rank.
0 0
4. Determine the value of k, if rank of matrix A is 3
1 2 −1 3
4 1 2 1
𝐴=[ ]
3 −1 1 2
1 2 0 𝑘
5. Find the rank of the following matrix by reducing to the row Echelon form.
0 1 2 2
𝐴 = [1 2 2 3]
2 2 2 3
−2 1 3
6. Find the inverse of 𝐴 = [ 0 −1 1] using elementary row operations
1 2 0
1 1 3
7. Find inverse of the matrix A=[ 1 3 −3 ] using Gauss Jordon method.
2 −4 −4
3 1 −1
8. Find inverse of the matrix A=[ 2 −8 1 ] using Gauss Jordon method.
1 −2 9

9. Test for consistency and solve if the equations are consistent: 𝑥+

2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 2, 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 5, 2𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 3𝑧 = −4, 𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 6𝑧 = 0
10. Test for consistency and solve
5𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 7𝑧 = 4, 3𝑥 + 26𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 9, 7𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 10𝑧 = 5.
11. For what value of λ, the system of equations
3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 4𝑧 = 3, 𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 3𝑧 = −2, 6𝑥 + 5𝑦 + 𝜆𝑧 = −3 will have infinite number
of solutions and solve them with that λ value?
12. Solve the system of equations for all values of 𝑘
90
 (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (3𝑘 + 1)𝑦 + 2𝑘𝑧 = 0,
(𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (4𝑘 − 2)𝑦 + (𝑘 + 3)𝑧 = 0,
2𝑥 + (3𝑘 + 1)𝑦 + 3(𝑘 − 1)𝑧 = 0
13. Determine whether the following equations have a non-trivial solution, if so solve
them: 4𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 + 3𝑤 = 0, 6𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 4𝑧 + 7𝑤 = 0, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑤 = 0.
14. Discuss for what values of λ, µ the simultaneous equations
x + y + z = 6, x+ 2 y + 3z = 10, x + 2 y +  z =  have
( i) no solution (ii) unique solution (iii) infinite number of solutions.
15. Test for consistency and solve
𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 0,3𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 4𝑧 = 0, 7𝑥 + 10𝑦 + 12𝑧 = 0
16. Express the following system in matrix form and solve by Gauss Elimination method
2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2𝑧 + 𝑤 = 6; 6𝑥 − 6𝑦 + 6𝑧 + 12𝑤 = 36;
4𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 3𝑧 − 3𝑤 = −1; 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 + 𝑤 = 10.
Unit-II
1. Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem for the following matrices and hence find 𝐴−1 and 𝐴4
2 −1 1 1 0 2  1 2 −1
 
(i) A =[−1 2 −1] (ii) A = 0 2 1 (iii) 𝐴 = [2 1 −2]
1 −1 2 2 0 3 2 −2 1

2. Find the characteristic equation, eigenvalues and corresponding eigenvectors for the following
matrices
1 1 1 8 −6 2 2 0 1 
(i) A= [1 1 1], (ii) B= [−6  
7 −4] , (iii) C= 0 2 0
1 1 1 2 −4 3 1 0 2

3. Determine the modal matrix which transforms the matrix into diagonal form and hence find 𝐴5
for the following matrices
1 1 3 −2 2 −3  1 1 1 3 −1 1
 
(i) [1 5 1] (ii) [ 2 1 −6] (iii) A =  0 2 1 (iv) 𝐴 = [−1 5 −1]
3 1 1 −1 −2 0 − 4 4 3 1 −1 3
1
4. If λ be an eigenvalue of a non-singular matrix A, show that 𝜆 is an eigenvalue of the matrix 𝐴−1 .
A
5. If  be an eigenvalue of a non-singular matrix A, show that is an eigenvalue of the matrix

adjA.

6. Find rank, index, signature and nature of the Quadratic form and its canonical form by using
orthogonal transformation
(i) 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 + 3𝑧 2 + 2𝑥𝑦 − 4𝑦𝑧 − 4𝑧𝑥
(ii) 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑦 2 + 2𝑧 2 + 2𝑦𝑧
(iii) 𝑥12 + 2𝑥22 − 3𝑥32
(iv) 3x − 2 y − z + 12 yz + 8zx − 4 xy
2 2 2

91
Unit-III
1. Solve 𝑦(log 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 − log 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
𝑑𝑦
2. Solve 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥.
dy
3. Solve the differential equation xy(1 + xy2 ) = 1.
dx
𝑑𝑦
4. Solve the differential equation 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 𝑦 6 .
𝑑𝑦
5. Solve the differential equation (𝑥 + 1) 𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦 = 𝑒 3𝑥 (𝑥 + 1)2 .
6. Solve the differential equation (1 + 2𝑥𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (sin 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑦 = 0.
7. Solve the differential equation(1 + 𝑥𝑦)𝑦𝑑𝑥 + (1 − 𝑦𝑥)𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0.
8. Solve (𝑥 3 𝑦 2 + 𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑦.
9. Solve (1 + 𝑥𝑦)𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + (1 − 𝑥𝑦)𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
dy y cos x + sin y + y
10. Solve the differential equation + = 0.
dx sin x + x cos y + x
11. Solve the differential equation (1 + y 2 )dx = (tan −1 y − x)dy .
12. Solve (𝑥 2 𝑦 − 2𝑥𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 − (𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 2 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
𝑑𝑦
13. Solve 𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 2 𝑦 3 + 𝑥𝑦) = 1.
𝑥⁄ 𝑥 𝑥⁄
14. Solve (1 + 𝑒 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 + (1 − 𝑦) 𝑒 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
15. Solve 𝑦 sin 2𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − (𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥) 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
𝑦
16. Solve (𝑥 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑦 − 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 + (𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
1
17. Solve (𝑥 𝑦 2 − 𝑒 𝑥2 ) 𝑑𝑥 − (𝑥 2 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
18. An object cools from 120℉ to 90℉ in half an hour, when surrounded by air whose
temperature is 70℉. Find the temperature at the end of another half an hour.
19. A copper ball is heated to a temperature of 80℃. Then at time 𝑡 = 0 it is placed in water
which is maintained at 30℃. If at 𝑡 = 3 minutes, the temperature of the ball is reduced
to30℃, find the time at which the temperature of the ball is 40℃.
20. The temperature of the body drops from 100℃ to 75℃ in ten minutes when the surrounding
air is at 20℃. (i) What will be the temperature after half an hour? (ii) When will the
temperature be 25 ?
21. The temperature of a cup of coffee was 92℃, when freshly poured the room temperature
being24℃. In one minute it was cooled to 80℃. When will the temperature of the cup
becomes 65℃?
22. A bacterial culture growing exponentially increases from 100 to 400 grams in 10 hrs. How
much bacteria will be present after 3 hours?
23. A bacterial culture growing exponentially increases from 200 to 500 grams in the period
from 6 A.M to 9 A.M. How much bacteria will be present at noon?
92
 24. Solve for y: 𝑦 − 2𝑝𝑥 = tan−1(𝑥𝑝2 ).
25. Solve for y: 𝑦 + 𝑝𝑥 = 𝑥 4 𝑝2 .
26. Solve for x: 𝑦 = 2𝑝𝑥 + 𝑦 2 𝑝3 .
27. Solve for x: 𝑝3 − 4𝑥𝑦𝑝 + 8𝑦 2 = 0
28. Solve: (𝑝𝑥 − 𝑦)(𝑝𝑦 + 𝑧) = 𝛼 2 𝑝.
29. Solve; (𝑦 − 𝑝𝑥)(𝑝 − 1) = 𝑝.
30. Solve for p: 𝑝2 + 2𝑝𝑦 cot 𝑥 = 𝑦 2 .
31. Solve for p: 𝑝(𝑝 + 𝑦) = 𝑥(𝑥 + 𝑦).

Unit –IV
1. Solve the differential equation (𝐷4 + 1)𝑦 = 0
2. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 1)𝑦 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ2𝑥
3. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = (1 + 𝑒 𝑥 )2
4. Solve the differential equation (𝐷3 − 6𝐷2 + 11𝐷 − 6)𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥
5. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = sin(2𝑥 + 3)
6. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 3𝑦 ′ + 2𝑦 = 4𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
7. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑦 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥
8. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ − 6𝑦 ′ + 9𝑦 = 4𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 3
9. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ − 4𝑦 ′ + 4𝑦 = 8(𝑒 2𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 + 𝑥 2 )
10. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 4)𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥
11. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 2)𝑦 = 𝑥 2 𝑒 3𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥
12. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 3𝐷 + 2)𝑦 = 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥
13. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 − 2𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = 𝑥𝑒 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
14. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 3𝐷 + 2)𝑦 = 𝑥𝑒 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
15. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 − 4𝐷 + 4)𝑦 = 8𝑥 2 𝑒 2𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥
16. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 − 4𝐷 + 4)𝑦 = 𝑥 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 + 𝑒 2𝑥 + 3
1
17. Solve the differential equation 𝑥 3 𝑦 ′′′ − 2𝑥 2 𝑦 ′′ + 2𝑦 = 10 (𝑥 + 𝑥)
18. Solve the differential equation (1 + 𝑥)2 𝑦 ′′ + (1 + 𝑥)𝑦 ′ + 𝑦 = 4 cos(log(1 + 𝑥))

Unit-V
1. Find the Laplace transform of {𝑒 2𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑡}
2. Evaluate 𝐿{𝑡𝑒 2𝑡 sin 2𝑡}
3. Evaluate 𝐿{𝑆𝑖𝑛ℎ 3𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑡}
𝑠+2 2𝑠 2 −6𝑠+5
4. Find 𝐿−1 { } b) 𝐿−1 { }
𝑠 2 −4𝑠+13 𝑠 3 −6𝑠2 +11 𝑠−6
𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑡−𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑡 1−𝑒 𝑡
5. Find i) 𝐿 { } ii) 𝐿 { }
𝑡 𝑡
𝑡 −𝑡
6. Find 𝐿 {∫0 𝑡𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑡 𝑑𝑡}
𝑡 𝑒 −𝑡 sin 𝑡
7. Evaluate 𝐿 {𝑡 ∫0 𝑑𝑡}
𝑡
𝑠+1
8. Evaluate 𝐿−′ {𝑠 log 𝑠−1}
9. State second shifting theorem and Evaluate the following
93
 1+𝑒 −𝜋𝑠 𝑒 −2𝑠
a) 𝐿(𝑒 𝑡−3 𝑢(𝑡 − 3)) b) 𝐿−1 ( ) c) 𝑙 −1 (𝑠2 +4𝑠+5)
𝑠2 +1
10. State periodic function of the Laplace Transform and hence
find a) 𝐿{|sin 𝑡|}
b) Laplace Transform of the rectified semi-wave function defined by
𝜋
sin 𝜔𝑡, 0 < 𝑡 < 𝜔
𝐹(𝑡) = { 𝜋 2𝜋
0, 𝜔 < 𝑡 < 𝜔
𝑠2 𝑠
11. Apply Convolution theorem to evaluate a) 𝐿−1 { } b) 𝐿−1 {(𝑠2 +𝑎2 )2}
(𝑠 2 +𝑎2 )(𝑠 2 +𝑏2 )
1 1
12. Using Convolution Theorem, Evaluate a) 𝐿−′ {𝑠2 (𝑠2 +𝑎2 )} b) 𝐿−′ { }
(𝑠−2)(𝑠+2)2
13. Solve by the method of Laplace transforms, the equation 𝑦 ′′′ + 2𝑦 ′′ − 𝑦 ′ − 2𝑦 = 0
given 𝑦(0) = 𝑦 ′ (0) = 0 and 𝑦 ′′ (0) = 6
14. Solve the initial value problem 𝑦 ′′ − 2𝑦 ′ + 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑡 with 𝑦(0) = 2 and
𝑦 ′ (0) = −1 using Laplace transform.
𝑑2 𝑦
15. Using Laplace Transform, solve + 9𝑦 = cos 2𝑡, given that
𝑑𝑡 2
𝜋
𝑦(0) = 1, 𝑦 ( ) = −1
2
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
16. Using Laplace Transform, solve 𝑑𝑡 2 + 2 𝑑𝑡 + 2𝑦 = 5 sin 𝑡 given that
𝑑𝑦
𝑦 = 0, (𝑑𝑥 ) = 0 at 𝑡 = 0

TUTORIAL PROBLEMS
Unit-I
Tutorial-1
1) Prove that any complex square matrix can be expressed as the sum of Hermitian and Skew-
Hermitian matrix.
3 7 − 4𝑖 −2 + 5𝑖
2) Define Hermitian matrix and verify that the matrix 𝐴 = [ 7 + 4𝑖 −2 3 + 𝑖 ] is a
−2 − 5𝑖 3 − 𝑖 4
Hermitian matrix or not.
1 2 3
3) Define the Rank of a Matrix and find the value of k such that the rank of 𝐴 = [2 𝑘 7 ] is 2.
3 6 10

Tutorial-2

2 3 −1 −1
1) Reduce the matrix 𝐴 = [1 −1 −2 −4] into echelon form and find its rank.
3 1 3 −2
6 3 0 −7
94
 1 2 −1 4
2) Reduce the matrix 𝐴 = [ 2 4 3 4 ] into normal form and find its rank.
1 2 3 4
−1 −2 6 −7
1 0 1
3) Using Gauss-Jordan method, find the inverse of the matrix 𝐴 = [−2 1 0]
0 −1 1
Tutorial-3

1) Solve the equations 4𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 + 3𝑤 = 0, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑤 = 0, 6𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 4𝑧 + 7𝑤 = 0.

2) Test for the consistency of the following equations and solve them if consistent: 𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 3𝑤 =
2; 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 + 𝑤 = 0; 4𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 𝑧 + 7𝑤 = 8.
3) For what values of a and b, the system of equations 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 6; 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 10; 𝑥 +
2𝑦 + 𝑎𝑧 = 𝑏 would have (i) no solution (ii) unique solution (iii) infinite solution.

Unit-II
Tutorial-1
7 2 −2
1. Verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem for the matrix 𝐴 = [−6 −1 2 ]. Hence find 𝐴−1 and 𝐴4 .
6 2 −1
1 2 −1
2. If 𝐴 = [2 1 −2] then verify Cayley-Hamilton theorem and find 𝐴−1 and 𝐴4 .
2 −2 1
1 2 −1
3. Find the eigenvalues and the corresponding eigenvectors of 𝐴 = [0 2 2]
0 0 −2
Tutorial-2
1 1 1
1. Determine the eigenvalues and the corresponding eigenvectors of 𝐴 = [1 1 1]
1 1 1
8 −8 2
2. Diagonalize the matrix 𝐴 = [4 −3 −2]
3 −4 1
1 0 −1
3. Find a matrix P which transforms the matrix 𝐴 = [1 2 1 ] to diagonal form. Hence
2 2 3
4
find 𝐴 .
Tutorial-3
1. Identify the nature of the quadratic form 𝑥1 2 + 4𝑥2 2 + 𝑥3 2 − 4𝑥1 𝑥2 + 2𝑥1 𝑥3 − 4𝑥2 𝑥3 .
2. Reduce the quadratic form 2𝑥1 2 + 2𝑥2 2 + 2𝑥3 2 − 2𝑥1 𝑥2 − 2𝑥1 𝑥3 − 2𝑥2 𝑥3 to canonical form
by orthogonal transformation.

95
3. Reduce the quadratic form 𝑥1 2 + 3𝑥2 2 + 3𝑥3 2 − 2𝑥2 𝑥3 to canonical form by orthogonal
transformation.
Unit-III
Tutorial-1
1. Solve 𝑦 sin 2𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − (𝑦 2 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥) 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
2. Solve the differential equation(1 + 𝑥𝑦)𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + (1 − 𝑦𝑥)𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 0.
𝑑𝑦
3. Solve the differential equation 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 𝑦 6 .
Tutorial-2
1. A body is originally at 80℃ and cools down to 60℃ in 20 minutes, the temperature of the
air being40℃. What will be the temperature of the body after 40 minutes from the original?
2. A bacterial culture grows exponentially so that the initial number was doubled in 3 hours.
How many times the initial number will be present after 9 hours?
3. Radium decomposes at a rate proportional to the amount present. If 5% of the original
amount decomposes in 50 years, how much will remain after 100 years?

Tutorial-3
1. Solve 𝑦 + 𝑝𝑥 = 𝑥 4 𝑝2 .
2. Solve for x: 𝑝3 − 4𝑥𝑦𝑝 + 8𝑦 2 = 0.
3. Solve for p: 𝑥𝑦𝑝2 + 𝑝(3𝑥 2 − 2𝑦 2 ) − 6𝑥𝑦 = 0.

Unit-IV
Tutorial-1
1. Solve the differential equation (𝐷3 − 1)𝑦 = (1 + 𝑒 𝑥 )2 .
2. Solve the differential equation(𝐷2 + 𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = sin(2𝑥 + 3).
3. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ − 4𝑦 ′ + 4𝑦 = 8(𝑒 2𝑥 + 𝑥 2 ).

Tutorial-2
1. Solve the differential equation (𝐷2 + 4)𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 𝑥.
2. Solve the differential equation𝑦 ′′ + 𝑦 = 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥.
3. Solve the differential equation𝑦 ′′ − 2𝑦 ′ = 𝑒 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 using Method of variation of parameters.

Tutorial-3
1. Solve the differential equation𝑥 2 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑥𝑦 ′ − 3𝑦 = 𝑥 2 .
1
2. Solve the differential equation 𝑥 3 𝑦 ′′′ − 2𝑥 2 𝑦 ′′ + 2𝑦 = 10 (𝑥 + 𝑥).
3. Solve (𝑥 + 1)2 𝑦 ′′ − 3(𝑥 + 1)𝑦 ′ + 4𝑦 = 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1.

96
Unit-V
Tutorial-1
𝑒 −𝑎𝑡 −𝑒 −𝑏𝑡
1. (a) Find 𝐿 [ ] (b) Find 𝐿[𝑡 2 𝑒 −3𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑡]
𝑡
𝑡
2. Find the Laplace transform of ∫0 𝑡𝑒 −𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑡.
(𝑡 − 1), 1 ≤ 𝑡 < 2
3. Express 𝑓(𝑡) = { as a unit step function and find it’s Laplace
(3 − 𝑡), 2 < 𝑡 ≤ 3.
transform.
Tutorial-2
2 2
1. Find the 𝐿−1 [𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (𝑠 ) + 𝑐𝑜𝑡 −1 (𝑠+1)]
2. Find the Laplace transform of the periodic function
𝑡, 0 < 𝑡 ≤ 𝑎
𝑓(𝑡) = { and 𝑓(𝑡 + 2𝑎) = 𝑓(𝑡).
(2𝑎 − 𝑡) , 𝑎 < 𝑡 ≤ 2𝑎
3. Using Laplace transform, Solve the differential equation
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
+ 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑡 2 + 2𝑡 given 𝑦(0) = 4 and 𝑦 ′ (0) = −2.
𝑑𝑡 2

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. A square matrix ‘𝐴’ is said to be idempotent if……………
2. The determinant of an orthogonal matrix is…………..
3. The principal diagonal elements of Skew-symmetric matrix must be………..
4. If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are symmetric matrices, then 𝐴 + 𝐵 is ………………
5. If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are symmetric matrices, then 𝐴𝐵 is symmetric iff……………
2 1 −1
6. 𝐴 = [0 2 1 ] , then inverse of matrix 𝐴 is ……………….
5 2 −3
7. The matrix which is both symmetric and skew-symmetric must be a …………….
8. Every Hermitian matrix can be written as 𝐴 + 𝑖𝐵 where 𝐴 is real and .......... and 𝐵 is real
and...............
15 0 0
9. If the rank of the matrix 𝐴 = [12 −7 0] is 2 then the value of 𝑘 is………..
10 8 𝑘

10. A system of linear non-homogeneous equations are consistent, if and only if the rank of
coefficient matrix is equal to rank of ……………
11. If 𝐴𝐵 = 0 and 𝐴 is a non-singular matrix, then 𝐵 must be a……..
3 2 −1
12. Determinant of 𝐴 = [0 1 4 ] is……….
1 5 −2
−1 2 −3
13. If 𝐴 = [ 2 1 0 ] what is the 𝑎𝑑𝑗(𝐴)……………
4 −2 5
14. The maximum value of the rank of a 4 × 5 matrix is ………

97
 𝑥 2
15. Matrix [ ] is singular for 𝑥=………..
1 𝑥−1
16. The system of equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 9, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 7 can be expressed in matrix
notation as………….
17. If every minor of order 𝑟 of a matrix 𝐴 is zero, then rank of 𝐴 is ………
18. Solving the equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 0, 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 4 = 0, 7𝑥 + 10𝑦 + 12 = 0,
𝑥 = ________, 𝑦 = ___________, 𝑧 = _________.
Unit-II
1. The sum of the eigenvalues of a matrix is the…….. of the elements of the principal diagonal.
2 −3
2. The sum and product of the eigenvalues of the matrix[ ] are…… and
4 −2
……respectively.
8 −6 2
3. If two eigenvalues of [−6 7 −4] are 3 and 15, then the third eigenvalue is……….
2 −4 3
−1 6 9
4. The eigenvalues of matrix [ 0 2 6] are ……………
0 0 8
−1 2 3
5. If 𝐴 = [ 0 3 5 ], then the eigen values of 𝐴2 are……..
0 0 −2
1 2 3
6. If 𝐴 = [0 2 5], then eigen values of 𝐴−1 are………..
0 0 3
7. The eigenvalues of a triangular matrix are………..
8. If λ is an eigenvalue of an orthogonal matrix A of order 2×2 then the second eigenvalue is
……
|𝐴|
9. If λ is an eigenvalue of a non-singular matrix A, then 𝜆 is an eigenvalue of the matrix ……..
10. If 𝜆1 , 𝜆2 , 𝜆3 are the eigenvalues of a matrix A, then 𝐴3 has the eigenvalues…..
1 0 0
11. Characteristic equation of matrix 𝐴 = [1 0 1] is………………..
0 1 0
12. A square matrix A of order n is diagonalizable if and only if it has ….. number of linearly
independent eigenvectors.
1 2 3
13. Is the matrix 𝐴 = [0 2 5] is having ……… number of linearly independent
0 0 3
eigenvectors.
14. Cayley-Hamilton theorem states that every square matrix satisfies its own………………
15. If a square matrix A or order n has n linearly independent eigenvectors, then there exists a
non-singular matrix P such that 𝑃−1 𝐴𝑃 =……
16. The matrix of the quadratic form 𝑞 = 4𝑥 2 − 2𝑦 2 + 𝑧 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 + 6𝑧𝑥 is………………
17. The index and signature of the quadratic form 𝑥12 + 2𝑥22 − 3𝑥32 are
respectively……….and……….
18. If the sum of the eigen values of the matrix of the quadratic form is zero, then the nature of
the quadratic form is………….
1 2
19. The quadratic form corresponding to the symmetric matrix [ ] is……..
2 −4
98
 20. A quadratic form is positive semi-definite when………..

Unit-III
𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦
1. The order of 𝑥 3 𝑑𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 = 𝑥 is _____________
3/2
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑2 𝑦
2. The degree of the differential equation [𝑑𝑥 2 + (𝑑𝑥 ) ] =𝑎 is _____________
𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦
3. The general solution of = 𝑒 𝑥+𝑦 is ___________________
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦 𝑦
4. The solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 = 𝑥 2 under the condition that 𝑦 = 1
when 𝑥 = 1 is ______________
5. The family of straight lines passing through the origin is represented by the differential
equation _____________
6. The differential equation of a family of circle having the radius 𝑟 and centre on the 𝑥-axis is
_____________
7. The differential equation satisfying the relation 𝑥 = 𝐴 cos(𝑚𝑡 − 𝛼)is __________
𝑑𝑦 𝑎𝑥+ℎ𝑦+𝑔
8. The equation 𝑑𝑥 + ℎ𝑥+𝑏𝑦+𝑓 = 0 is ______________
𝑦𝑑𝑥−𝑥𝑑𝑦
9. The general solution of = 0 is ___________
𝑦2
𝑦𝑑𝑥+𝑥𝑑𝑦
10. The general solution of = 0 is ___________
𝑥 2 +𝑦 2
2 𝑑𝑦
11. The general solution of 𝑝 − 5𝑝 − 6 = 0 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑝 = 𝑑𝑥 is_________________
12. The general solution of (1 + 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑦 − (1 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 = 0 is ________________
𝑑𝑦
13. The general solution of 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑥 is ______________
14. The general solution of (1 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 = (𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 𝑦 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑦 is _____________
𝑑𝑦 𝑦
15. The general solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥 + tan(𝑦/𝑥) is ______________
𝑑𝑦
16. The solution of differential equation (𝑥 + 𝑦)2 = 𝑎2 is given by ___________
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
17. The integrating factor of 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝑥 is ______________
18. The number of arbitrary constants in the general solution of differential equation of fourth
order differential equation is_________
19. The number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of a differential equation of third
order differential equation is _______

Unit-IV

1. The general solution of (4𝐷2 + 4𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = 0 is __________________

2. The C.F. of (𝐷 + 1)(𝐷 − 2)2 𝑦 = 𝑒 3𝑥 is ___________________
𝑑3 𝑦
3. Particular Integral of 𝑑𝑥 3 + 𝑦 = 𝑒 −𝑥 is __________________
4. The P.I. of (𝐷2 + 𝑎2 )𝑦 = cos 𝑎𝑥 is _______________
5. The P.I. of (𝐷2 − 5𝐷 + 6)𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 is _____________
6. P.I. of (𝐷 + 1)2 𝑦 = 𝑥 is ________________
1
7. 2
𝐷 +𝐷+1
sin 𝑥 = _________________
8. P.I of (𝐷 − 1)4 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑥 is __________________
99
 1
9. The value of 𝐷−2 sin 𝑥 is ___________________
1
10. The value of 𝐷2 +4 sin 2𝑥 is _________________
1
11. 𝑒 𝑥 = __________________
𝐷 2 −1
1
12. (𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑥 ) = ______________
𝐷+2
13. The C.F. of the equation (𝐷3 − 𝐷)𝑦 = 𝑥 is _________________
14. The C.F. of (𝐷2 + 4𝐷 + 5)𝑦 = 13𝑒 𝑥 _____________________
15. C.F. of (𝐷 − 1)2 (𝑦) = sin 2𝑥 is _____________________
16. The equation 𝑒 4𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥𝑒 𝑦 + 2𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0 is ________________
17. P.I. of (𝐷2 − 2𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = cosh 𝑥 is _________________
18. The values of k so that 𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑘𝑥 is a solution of (𝐷2 − 𝐷 − 6)𝑦 = 0____________
𝑑2 𝑖 1
19. The C. F. of the differential equation 𝐿 𝑑𝑡 2 + 𝑐 𝑖 = 𝜔𝑟0 cos 𝜔𝑡 (with usual notation in
electrical circuits) is_______________
20. P.I. of (𝐷2 + 𝑎2 )𝑦 = 𝑘 cos(𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏) is _____________

Unit-V
1. Linear property of Laplace transform states that ______________
1
2. L {√πt}=__________________
∞
3. ∫0 𝑒 −2𝑡 cos3tdt = ____________________
4. If 𝐿{𝑓(𝑡)} = 𝑓(𝑠) then 𝐿{𝑒 −𝑎𝑡 𝑓(𝑡)} is____________________
2s−5
5. L−1 { s2 −9} = _________________
sinat
6. L{ } = __________________________
t
∞
7. The value of ∫0 𝑡𝑒 −3𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑡 =_________________
8. L[sin2 h2t] =________________
2𝑠 𝑡
9. If 𝐿[𝑓(𝑡)] = 𝑠2 +16 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝐿 [∫0 𝑓(𝑡)𝑑𝑡] = ____________________
10. Laplace transform of 𝑡𝑒 𝑎𝑡 sin(𝑎𝑡) , 𝑡 > 0 𝑖𝑠 = _______________
11. The convolution (𝑓 ∗ 𝑔)(𝑡) of 𝑓 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑔 is defined by the equation________________
12. Laplace transform of f(t) is defined for positive and negative values of t.
_______(True/Flase)
13. L(cosh2 2t) = _____________
1
14. L−1 { }=___________________
√(s+3)
−1 1+s
15. L {log ( s )} = __________________
s+5
16. L−1 [s2 −4s+5] = ____________________
1
17. L−1 {sn } is possible only when n is_________________
′′ ′ −𝑡 ′ (0)
18. If y satisfies 𝑦 + 4𝑦 + 4𝑦 = 𝑒 with 𝑦(0) = 𝑦 = 0 then 𝐿{𝑦(𝑡)} = ___________
19. Solution of (𝐷2 + 1)𝑦=0 when y=1, 𝐷𝑦 = 0 when t=0 is_____________

100
 ENGINEERING PHYSICS
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
Unit I
1. a ) Explain angular momentum and the law of conservation of angular momentum.
b) Show that mechanical energy of a body is conserved under motion.
2. Classify the different types of forces in nature.
3. a) Explain central force and show that central force is conservative.
b) Write the main features of central force.
4. a) Explain Newton’s laws of motion.
b) Explain linear momentum and the law of conservation of linear momentum
5. a) Explain central force. Prove that F= - grad U.
b) Show that curl of a central force is conservative.
Unit II
1. Derive the displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion.
2. a) Derive energy and power dissipation in damped harmonic oscillator.
b) Explain quality factor.
3. a) Derive the deferential equation of damped harmonic system.
b) Discuss the conditions for over damping and critical damping of a system subjected to
damping force.
4. a) Derive the differential equation for forced vibrator.
b) Explain the two cases i) p << w ii) p = w, Where p is the angular frequency of the body
and the w is frequency of external periodic force.
5. a) Derive an equation for electrical oscillator.
b) Give electrical analogy to mechanical oscillator.
Unit III
1. Explain transverse wave. Derive the general wave equation of transverse wave.
2. Derive the equation for the velocity of transverse wave along a stretched string.
3. Derive the frequency of nth mode of vibration of stretched string clamped at both the ends.
Show that the ratio of all possible frequencies is integral multiples of fundamental
frequency.
4. Explain characteristic impedance. Derive an equation for it.
5. a) Explain longitudinal wave. Derive an equation for the velocity of longitudinal wave
through a cylindrical cube of unit cross sectional area.
b) Distinguish between velocity of sound wave in open and closed pipe.
Unit IV
1. a) Mention the necessary conditions to obtain interference.
b) Explain Young’s double slit experiment and derive an expression for conditions for
maxima and minima.
2. Explain Newton’s rings experiment with diagram and derive an expression for radius of
curvature of plano-convex lens.
3. Explain how Michelson’s interferometer be used to determine the wavelength of
monochromatic light?
4. What is Diffraction? Describe Fraunhofer Diffraction due to single slit?
5. Explain the conditions required for preparing the antireflection coating.
101
Unit V
1. a) Compare spontaneous emission and stimulated emission processes.
b) With the help of diagram describe the construction and working of He-Ne laser.
2. a) Explain the characteristics of a laser beam.
b) Explain the principle, construction and working of CO2 laser
3. a) Explain the necessary conditions for laser action.
b) Explain the principle, construction and working of Nd-YAG laser
4. Define acceptance angle and Numerical aperture. Derive an expression for angle of
acceptance.
5. a) Explain the different losses in optical fibers.
b) Mention any four applications of optical fibers.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit I
1. Define conservation of angular momentum.
2. Define conservation energy.
3. Explain non conservative forces.
4. What is central forces explain its importance?
5. Define inertial frame of reference.
Unit II
1. Define the logarithmic decrement and relaxation time.
2. Write the differences between undamped and damped oscillations.
3. Explain the quality factor.
4. What is resonance and define half power frequencies.
5. Show that energy of SHM is directly proportional to square of its amplitude.
Unit III
1. Define harmonic waves.
2. Explain impedance matching.
3. Define longitudinal and transverse waves.
4. What are acoustic waves?
5. Define standing waves.
Unit IV
1. State principle of superposition on waves.
2. Explain the phenomenon of interference of light.
3. What types of fringes are obtained in Young’s double slit experiment when white light is
used as source?
4. Define diffraction. Distinguish between interference and diffraction fringes.
5. Mention the uses of Michelson’s interferometer.

102
Unit V
1. Explain the terms i) spontaneous emission, iii) stimulated emission.
2. What is population inversion? How it is achieved?
3. Explain the characteristics of a laser beam.
4. State any four applications of lasers in engineering and industry.
5. Explain how the optical fibers are classified.
6. Explain briefly the basic principle of an optical fiber.
7. Write any four applications of optical fibers.
8. Explain the advantages of optical fibers in communication.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit I
1. a ) Explain angular momentum and the law of conservation of angular momentum.
b) Show that mechanical energy of a body is conserved under motion.
2. Classify the different types of forces in nature.
3. a) Explain central force and show that central force is conservative.
b) Write the main features of central force.

4. a) Explain Newton’s laws of motion.

b) Explain linear momentum and the law of conservation of linear momentum
5. a) Explain central force. Prove that F= - grad U.
b) Show that curl of a central force is conservative.
Unit II
1. Derive the displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion.
2. a) Derive energy and power dissipation in damped harmonic oscillator.
b) Explain quality factor.
3. a) Derive the deferential equation of damped harmonic system.
b) Discuss the conditions for over damping and critical damping of a system subjected to
damping force.
4. a) Derive the differential equation for forced vibrator.
b) Explain the two cases i) p << w ii) p = w, Where p is the angular frequency of the body
and the w is frequency of external periodic force.
5. a) Derive an equation for electrical oscillator.
b) Give electrical analogy to mechanical oscillator.
Unit III
1. Explain transverse wave. Derive the general wave equation of transverse wave.
2. Derive the equation for the velocity of transverse wave along a stretched string.
3. Derive the frequency of nth mode of vibration of stretched string clamped at both the ends.
Show that the ratio of all possible frequencies is integral multiples of fundamental
frequency.
4. Explain characteristic impedance. Derive an equation for it.

103
 5. a) Explain longitudinal wave. Derive an equation for the velocity of longitudinal wave
through a cylindrical cube of unit cross sectional area.
b) Distinguish between velocity of sound wave in open and closed pipe.

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Unit I
1. Inertial frames of reference are those in which ___________ laws holds good.
2. Earth is __________ frame.
3. The law of conservation of momentum helps in investigating the ____________ particles.
4. _______________ law is also applicable even at relativistic velocities.
5. If no external ____________acts on a system of particles, the angular momentum remains
constant.
6. In young’s modulus, the elastic force acting on the mass is expressed as____________
7. The general form of central force is represented by___________________
8. Central force is a _______________________ force
9. Under a central force the torque acting on the particle is always_________________
10. The work done by a conservative force along a closed path is _________________
11. The conservative force is equal to the negative ____________ of potential energy
12. For every action there is always an equal and ____________ reaction
13. Gravitational or elastic forces are examples of _______ force
14. Viscosity and friction are the examples of________ force
15. The gradient of the scalar is ______
16. Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent of Newton’s______ law
17. The angular momentum of a particle under the influence of a central force _____
18. The Newton’s first law of motion is also known as_______
19. A frame of reference is said to be inertial when bodies in this frame obey_____
20. The Newton’s second law equation is referred as the equation of motion of a _____ point.
21. When no external force acts on an isolated system of particles then the total linear
momentum of the system _____
22. The impulse is defined as the product of the average _____ multiplied with the duration of
impact.
Unit II
1. According to the essential condition of SHM _____________
2. Simple harmonic progressive waves are expressed as ____________
3. Usually sound waves are______________
4. ______________ Phenomena cannot take place with sound waves.
5. The phase difference between two waves represented by y= a sin (ωt-kx) and y=a cos (ωt-
kx) _________
6. When a body vibrate without the influence of external force, then its vibration is known as
___________
7. In damped vibration, amplitude of vibration___________
8. When a vibrating system is subjected to an external periodic force, it is said to be in a state
of________
9. At the condition of resonance, the frequency of impressed force is same as the_________
10. At resonance, the amplitude of vibration becomes____________
11. To and fro motion of a particle about the equilibrium position is known as____________
104
 12. The phase of an oscillating particle determines its ________ and _______ of motion at a
particular instant.
13. The expression for the _________ of damped oscillation is given as 𝜔 = √𝜔0 − (𝑏⁄2𝑚)2
14. Maximum value of displacement about the mean position is known as________
15. Number of oscillations per second is called as__________
16. In a __________ harmonic vibration, amplitude decrease continually.
17. Frequency depending on intrinsic properties of the body is known as__________
18. During resonance, the amplitude of vibration becomes_________
Unit III
1. In the transverse waves, the particles of the medium vibrate _________ to the direction of
wave propagation.
2. In the longitudinal waves, the particles of the medium vibrate _________ to the direction of
wave propagation.
3. The displacement equation of simple harmonic wave is given by ___________________.
4. Velocity of transverse wave formed on stretched string is ______________________.
5. ________________is the first harmonic frequency or fundamental frequency.
6. Total energy per unit ____________________ is called energy density.
7. ____________________ is the equation of energy density of transverse wave formed in
stretched string.
8. Total resistance offered by a string to the transverse wave is called _________________.
9. The ratio between amplitude of force and amplitude of wave velocity is called
___________________.
10. Stress means __________________ and its unit is ______________.
11. Strain means __________________ and its unit is ______________.
12. Modulus means ______________________.
13. Bulk modulus is the ratio of __________________ and _________________ .
14. _________________________ is the equation of acoustic wave in terms of pressure.
15. Velocity of sound wave is ________________.
16. ________________is the first harmonic frequency or fundamental frequency.
17. nth harmonic mode of frequency is ___________________.
18. Total energy per unit ____________________ is called energy density.
19. Total resistance offered by a string to the transverse wave is called _________________.
20. The ratio between amplitude of force and amplitude of wave velocity is called
___________________.
21. _________________________ is the equation of acoustic wave in terms of pressure.
22. Velocity of longitudinal wave is ______________.
23. Velocity of sound wave is ________________.
Unit IV
1. The resultant displacement is due to the presence of both the waves of displacements y1 and
y2 is given be y = y1 + y2. This is known as principle of _______________________.
2. Two waves are said to be ______________________ if their waves have same wavelength,
same amplitude and constant phase difference.
105
 3. Due to interference in thin films, if the film thickness is extremely small when compared to
λ, the film will appear _____________________.
4. Newton’s ring experiment, the radius of nth dark ring is given by _______________ where λ
is the wavelength of light and R is the radius of curvature of the lens.
5. The bending of light round the corners of obstacles is called _____________________.
6. Superposition of two separate wavefronts originating from coherent sources result in
_________________________.
7. In interference pattern fringes have __________________ width.
8. _____________________ is the equation of radius of curvature of planoconvex lens.
9. _________________________________ films were used as antireflection coatings.
10. Michelson’s interferometer works on _____________________ principle.
11. In diffraction pattern fringes have __________________ width.
12. With decrease of slit width in single slit, the width of the fringes ____________________.
13. In a grating, the combined width of a ruling and a slit is called ____________________.
14. Points on successive slits separated by a distance equal to the grating element are called
___________________________.
15. In Fraunhofer diffraction at a plane transmission grating, when white light source is used,
the angle of diffraction for violet is _________________ than that of red.
Unit V

1. The pumping process that is used in He-Ne lasers source is _____.

2. In He-Ne laser system, metastable levels are found for ____________ ions.
3. He-Ne laser is a good example for a ____________level system.
4. Wave length of emission of Nd-YAG laser is ____________.
5. Resonator mirrors in a laser provide ___________________ to the photons.
6. Emission of photon when an electron jumps from higher energy state to lower energy state
due to interaction with another photon is called____________ .
7. Fiber optic communication is based on ____________________ phenomenon.
8. R.I. of cladding has to be _______________than the R.I of core.
9. For total internal reflection to occur light must travel from __________ to ___________
medium.
10. Light launched at the fiber end within ____________ alone propagates to the other end.
11. The maximum acceptance angle is called _______________
12. In optical fibers attenuation is mainly due to two sources of losses namely ________ and
_________.
13. Numerical aperture of the fiber is related to the acceptance angle by __________
14. Intermodel dispersion is negligible in ______________ fibers.
15. Single mode fibers supports ________________
16. Propagation of light through the fiber core is due to __________________.

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 APPLIED PHYSICS
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
Unit- I
1. Describe Davisson and Germer’s experiment and explain how it enabled the verification of
wave nature of matter.
2. Derive time independent Schrödinger’s wave equation for a free particle and explain physical
significance of wave function.
3. Explain de Broglie hypothesis and derive an expression for de Broglie wave length.
4. Estimate the energy of a particle limiting to one dimensional potential well.
5. Write a short note on Heisenberg uncertainty principle and its consequences.

Unit-II
1. Explain the classification of materials into insulators, semiconductors and conductors on the
basis of band theory.
2. Explain the concept of effective mass of an electron.
3. Explain the Kronig - Penny model of solids and show that it leads to energy band structure.
4. Describe the formation of energy bands in solids.
5. What are Brillouin zones? Explain using E-k diagram.

Unit- III
1. Derive an expression for electron and hole concentrations in an intrinsic semiconductor.
2. How does the Fermi level change with temperature and concentration of dopants in extrinsic
semiconductor?
3. Derive an expression for Fermi energy in intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
4. Differentiate direct and indirect band gap semiconductors.
5. Explain Hall Effect and derive an expression for Hall coefficient. Give any two applications of
it.

Unit-IV
1. Differentiate the spontaneous emission and stimulated emission of radiation.
2. Explain the principle, construction and working of Nd-YAG laser.
3. Explain the construction and working of CO2 laser.
4. Define acceptance angle and numerical aperture. Derive the expressions for them.
5. Differentiate (i) step and graded index (ii) single and multimode optical fibres.

Unit- V
1. Derive an expression for ionic and electronic polarizabilities.
2. Derive an expression for internal field for a cubic dielectric crystal.
3. Derive an expression for Clausius-Mosotti equation.
4. Explain briefly different magnetic materials?
5. Explain in detail domain theory of ferromagnetism. What are hysteresis losses?
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SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Unit- I
1. What do you understand by blackbody radiation?
2. What is blackbody? Give Plank’s hypothesis.
3. Define photoelectric effect.
4. What do you understood dual nature of mater?
5. Explain the physical significance of wave function.
6. Write the de Broglie wavelength in terms of energy and temperature.
7. Write the properties of matter waves.
8. Explain the concept of de Broglie hypothesis.
9. What is a wave function?

Unit-II
1. Explain origin of energy band formation in solids.
2. What isE-k diagram and what do you infer from them?
3. What is meant by effective mass of electron?
4. Define valance band, conduction band and forbidden energy gap in the energy band structure.
5. What are the different conclusions given by Kronig - Penny model?

Unit- III
1. Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsicsemiconductors.
2. Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors.
3. Write any two differences between directandindirectbandgapsemiconductors.
4. Define Hall effect.
5. Derive an expression for Hall coefficient.
6. Write any four applications of Hall effect.
7. Explain the effect of temperature on the Fermi level in n-type semiconductors.
8. What is Hall voltage? Write an expression for it.
9. Explain the effect of temperature on the Fermi level in p-type semiconductors.
10. Explain the concept of Fermi level.
11. Explain the concept of hole in semiconductors.

Unit- IV
1. Explain the terms i) spontaneous emission, iii) stimulated emission.
2. What is population inversion? How it is achieved?
3. Explain the characteristics of a laser beam.
4. What is lasing action? How it is achieved?
5. State any four applications of lasers in engineering and industry.
6. What are the different losses in optical fibers?
7. Explain how the optical fibers are classified.
8. Explain briefly the basic principle of an optical fiber.
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9. Explain the terms numerical aperture and acceptance angle.
10. Distinguish between step index and graded index optical fibers
11. Write any four applications of optical fibers.
12. Explain the advantages of optical fibers in communication.

Unit- V
1. Define electric polarization.
2. What is polarization vector?
3. What are dielectrics? Define dielectric constant of a material?
4. What is orientational and space charge polarization?
5. Write any two applications of ferro and piezoelectric materials.
6. What is Bohr magneton and write its value?
7. What is hysteresis curve.
8. Explain dielectric susceptibility.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. What is a black body? What are the salient features of black body radiation?
2. Discuss Plank’s radiation law.
3. Explain why photoelectric effect is a frequency dependent phenomenon and not an intensity
dependent one.
4. Describe Davisson and Germer’s experiment and explain how it enabled the verification of
wave nature of matter.
5. Derive time independent Schrödinger’s wave equation for a free particle.
6. What is the significance of the wave function?
7. Estimate the energy of a particle limiting in one dimensional potential well.
8. What are matter waves? Explain their properties.
9. Write a short note on Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and its consequences.
10. Explain de Broglie hypothesis and derive an expression for de Broglie wave length.

Unit-II
1. Explain the concept of effective mass of an electron.
2. Explain Bloch’s theorem.
3. On the basis of band theory, how the crystalline solids are classified into metals,
semiconductors and insulators.
4. Describe the formation of energy bands in solids.
5. Explain the Kronig - Penny model of solids and show that it leads to energy band structure.
6. What are Brillouin zones? Explain using E-k diagrams.

109
Unit-III
1. Derive an expression for electron and hole concentrations in an intrinsic semiconductor.
2. Explain the variation of the Fermi level with temperature with neat diagram and impurity
concentration in p-type semiconductor.
3. Derive the expression for Fermi energy in extrinsic semiconductor.
4. Explain the classification of semiconductors.
5. Explain with neat sketch the variation of the Fermi level with temperature and impurity
concentration in case of n-type semiconductor.
6. Differentiate direct and indirect band gap semiconductors?
7. Explain Hall Effect and derive an expression for Hall coefficient. Give any two applications of
it.

Unit- IV
1. Explain the characteristics of a laser beam.
2. With the help of neat diagram describe the construction and working of He-Ne laser.
3. Derive the relation between the probabilities of spontaneous emission and stimulated emission
in terms of Einstein’s co-efficients.
4. Explain the principle, construction and working of Nd-YAG laser.
5. Explain the principle, construction and working of CO2 laser.
6. Explain total internal reflection phenomenon in an optical fibre.
7. Define acceptance angle and numerical aperture of an optical fibre and derive expressions for
them.
8. Differentiate (i) step and graded index (ii) single and multimode optical fibres.
9. What are the different losses in optical fibers?
10. Give the applications of optical fibers. Discuss fiber optic communication system using the
block diagram.

Unit-V
1. Derive an expression for ionic and electronic polarizabilities.
2. Derive an expression for internal field in a cubic dielectric crystal.
3. Distinguish between ferroelectricity and piezoelectricity.
4. Derive an expression for Clausius- Mosotti equation.
5. Define the terms (a) dipole moment (b) dielectric constant (c) dielectric susceptibility (d)
displacement vector
6. Write notes on different types of magnetic materials?
7. Explain in detail domain theory of ferromagnetism. What are hysteresis losses? Explain.
8. (a) Write the properties of antiferro and ferrimagnetic material.
(b) Differentiate soft and hard magnetic materials.

110
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Unit-I
1. ___________________________ phenomena cannot be explained by the classical theory.
2. ___________________________ phenomena show the particle nature of light.
3. The concept of matter waves was suggested by _________________________________.
4. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, ‘it is impossible to know both the exact
position and exact _____________________ of an object at the same time.
5. Lighter the particle,_____________________ the de Broglie wavelength associated with it.
6. Uncertainty principle was proposed by ______________________.
7. In terms of the kinetic energy of the material particle E, the de Broglie wavelength is given by
______________________.
8. If the electron is accelerated by a potential 90 volts, then its de Broglie wavelength is
_____________________.
9. Existence of matter waves was experimentally first demonstrated by __________________.
10. Velocity of matter waves is always __________________ than the velocity of light.
11. The expression for de Broglie wavelength associated with a moving particle is ____________.
12. The energy values of a particle in one dimensional potential well of width L are
En=________________.
13. Wavelength spread of matter waves resulted in ______________________principle.
14. According to uncertainty principle it is possible to measure both energy and
__________________ of a process very accurately simultaneously.
15. The wave function has no __________________________ meaning.
16. Normalized wave function for a particle moving in a three dimensional potential box (P)
=_______________________________________.
17. Schrödinger’s time independent wave equation is ________________________________.
18. Matter waves are associated with a ___________________ particle.
19. Photoelectric effect involves only _________________________.

Unit-II
1. The periodicity of the potential of zone theory of solids is given by ____________ theorem.
2. ______________model proposed a simpler potential in the form of an array of square wells.
3. The representation of permissible values of k of the electrons in one, two or three dimensions is
known as ________________________________.
4. In Kronig Penny model the width of the allowed bands _________________ and the width of
the forbidden band _______________ with increase of the energy αa.
5. When an electron in a periodic potential of lattice is accelerated by an electric field or magnetic
field, then the mass of the electron is called ___________________.
6. First Brillouin zone corresponds to k value extending from _______to _________.
7. When band gap energy is in the order of 1 eV in a solid, it behaves as a ________________.
8. Expression for electron effective mass m* =__________________.

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9. In zone theory of solids the potential is _____________near the positive ions and
________________ in between the positive ions.
10. Band theory of solids is mainly due to ______________________.
11. The second Brillouin zone is defined between the region __________________.
12. The discontinuities occur in E-k curve at____________________.
13. In the absence of potential barrier, the E-k curve is_____________________.
14. The effective mass of an electron may be _______________________.
15. The energy gap between the valance and conduction bands in a semiconductor is of the order of
_____________________.

Unit-III
1. At absolute 0K, a semiconductor behaves as _______________________.
2. With increase in temperature, the resistivity of a semiconductor ________________.
3. In a pure semiconductor, the electrical conductivity is governed by the motion of
___________________.
4. In comparison with an intrinsic semiconductor, the resistivity of an extrinsic semiconductor is
____________________.
5. As the temperature of semiconductor increases, the probability to find an electron in the
conduction band ____________________.
6. Electrical resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero temperature is ____________.
7. The electron vacancies in a valance band of a semiconductor will exist as ______________.
8. Hall coefficient is equal to _______________________.
9. To get p-type semiconductor ____________________type of atoms are added to Si.
10. To get n-type semiconductor ____________________ type of atoms are added to Ge.
11. The highest energy level of the filled energy state at 0K is called _____________________.
12. _____________________is an example for intrinsic semiconductors.
13. _____________________is an example for extrinsic semiconductors.
14. The effect which helps us in identifying the type of semiconductor is ___________________.
15. When current carrying conductor is placed in a transverse magnetic field, an electric field is
produced in a direction normal to both the current and the magnetic field. This phenomenon is
called _______________________.
16. In an intrinsic semiconductor always __________________number of electrons and holes will
present.
17. In p-type semiconductors _______________are the majority and _______________are the
minority charge carriers.
18. In n-type semiconductors _______________are the majority and ____________are the
minority charge carriers.
19. Pure semiconductors are called _______________________________.
20. Impure semiconductors are called _____________________________.

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Unit-IV
1. The pumping process that is used in He-Ne lasers source is __________________________.
2. In He-Ne laser system, __________________ ions give metastable levels.
3. He-Ne laser is a good example for a _____________level system.
4. Wave length of emission of Nd-YAG laser is _______________.
5. Resonator mirrors in a laser provide _______________ to the photons.
6. Emission of photon when an electron jumps from higher energy state to lower energy state due
to interaction with another photon is called___________________.
7. Fiber optic communication is based on ________________ phenomenon.
8. Refractive index of cladding has to be _____________than the refractive index of core.
9. For total internal reflection to occur light must travel from ____________ to ____________
medium.
10. Light launched at the fiber end within ______________ alone propagates to the other end.
11. The maximum acceptance angle is called ___________________.
12. In optical fibers attenuation is mainly due to two sources of losses namely __________ and
__________________.
13. Numerical aperture of the fiber is related to the acceptance angle by _________________.
14. Inter model dispersion is negligible in _________________ fibers.
15. Single mode fibers supports ____________________.
16. Propagation of light through the fiber core is due to _________________________.

Unit-V
1. The process of producing electric dipoles which are oriented along the field direction is called
_____________________ in dielectrics.
2. The displacement of cations and anions in opposite direction in ionic solids result in
_______________________polarization.
3. Induced dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric material is called ______________.
4. The time taken for a polarization process to reach 1/e of its maximum value is called
______________________.
5. The dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric material is called _________________.
6. Change in polarization per unit temperature change of the specimen is called
__________________________.
7. The process of producing electric dipoles which are oriented along the field direction is
called______________________ in dielectrics.
8. The property of becoming electrically polarized when mechanical stress is applied is known as
_____________________.
9. Clausius-Mosotti equation is ______________________.
10. _________________ and __________________polarizations are dependent on temperature.
11. __________________materials do not have permanent magnetic dipoles.
12. One Bhor magneton equals to____________________.
13. The unit of magnetic induction is _________________________.
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14. If the atoms of the material carry permanent dipoles and if they are line up in anti-parallel
direction, then the material is _____________________.
15. Area enclosed by the hysteresis loop represents_______________________.
16. Soft magnetic materials have _________________hysteresis loss.
17. Example of hard magnetic material is _____________________.
18. Ferromagnetic materials consists of a number of small regions which are spontaneously
magnetized is called ____________________.
19. The lag of magnetization behind the magnetizing field in ferromagnetic materials is known as
_______________________.
20. ___________________________ is the example of ferromagnetic material.

ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY

ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
Unit-I Molecular structure and Theories of Bonding
1. Mention the postulates of Molecular orbital theory and draw the molecular orbital energy level
diagram of N2.
2. Explain the crystal field splitting in octahedral complex [CO (NH3)6]3+, with neat diagram.
3. Explain the crystal field splitting in tetrahedral complex [CO (NH3)6]3+,with neat diagram.
4. Explain the magnetic properties of octahedral complexes.
5. Calculate CFSE for the following complexes
[CO (NH3)6]3+, [CO (CN)6]3+. [CO (F)6]3-, [Fe (H2O)6]2+,[CO(H2O)6]3+,
[Cr (NH3)6]3+, [Mn (H2O)6]3+, [Ni (NH3)6]2+, [Cu (NH3)6]+

Unit -II Water and its treatment

1. Explain Ion- exchange process with a neat labeled diagram.
2. Outline various steps involved in the treatment of potable water.
3. Explain Calgon and phosphate conditioning.
4. With the help of a neat diagram describe the reverse osmosis process.
5. Calculate the temporary and permanent hardness in degree French of water. Sample collected in
Medchal district. The analysis of water is as follows.
Ca(HCO3)2 =16.2 ppm, Mg(HCO3)2 =14.6 ppm , CaSO4 =13.6 ppm, MgSO4 =12,
MgCl2 =9.2 ppm.
Unit -III Electrochemistry and corrosion
1. What is reference electrode? Explain how pH is determined using quinhydrone electrode.
2. What are batteries?

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 3. Define corrosion. Explain the mechanism of wet or electro chemical corrosion.
4. i) How do the following factors influence the rate of corrosion?
a) Position in galvanic series b) Nature of Surface film
ii) Explain electroless plating of Nickel.
5. How a metal can be protected by sacrificial anodic and impressed current cathodic method.

Unit -IV Reaction Mechanisms and molecules of industrial importance

1. Write the mechanism involved in the oxidation of alcohols using KMnO4 and chromic acid.
Why tertiary alcohols do not get oxidized?
2. Explain SN1 and SN2 mechanism with an example for each.
3. What is Saytzeff rule? Explain E1 and E2 mechanism involved in dehydro halogenation of
alkylhalides.
4. Explain Markownikoff’s and anti Markownikoff’s addition products in addition of HBr to
propene.
5. Explain the mechanism of reduction of carbonyl compounds using LiAlH4& NaBH4.

Unit - V Spectroscopic techniques and applications

1. What is meant by the term absorption spectroscopy?
2. Which of the following set of molecules H2 , HCl , NH3& CO2 would exhibit a IR spectrum?
3. Mention any four applications of uv-vis spectroscopy.
4. Justify the use of tetramethylsilane as the most commonly used reference compound while
recording NMR spectrum.
5. CO2 exhibits four types of fundamental vibrations. One anticipates four peaks in the IR spectra
but only two were observed. Justify.

SHORT QUESTIONS
Unit I
1. Define atomic and molecular orbitals.
2. “Molecular orbitals are formed by the combination of atomic orbitals.”Explain with a neat
diagram.
3. What are bonding, nonbonding and anti-bonding orbitals?
4. Compare high spin and low spin complexes.
5. Define crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE).

Unit –II:
1. Write various units of hardness of water. Why do we express hardness of water in terms of
calcium carbonate equivalents?
2. Define colloidal conditioning.

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3. A sample of hard water contains 120mg/l of hardness. Express the hardness of water in degree
French and degree Clarke.
4. Write specifications of potable water.
5. Define break point chlorination

Unit III:
1. Define electrochemical series and its applications.
2. Write the half cell and net cell reactions of the following cell at250C
Zn/Zn+2(1M)//Cu+2 (1M)/Cu
3. Find the EMF of the cell given E0Zn/Zn+2 = -0.76V and E0Cu+2/Cu= 0.34V1M
4. Differentiate between primary and secondary cells.
5. Temperature increases rate of corrosion increases. Give reason.
6. What is the basic principle of cathodic protection method?
Unit IV
1. Write the mechanism involved in the oxidation of alcohols using KMnO4 and chromic acid.
2. Explain the mechanism of reduction of carbonyl compounds using LiAlH4& NaBH4.
3. Discuss various steps involved in the synthesis of of Paracetamol and Aspirin.
4. Write Structure and five pharmaceutical applications of Paracetamol and Aspirin.
5. How are polymers classified?
6. Write addition and condensation polymerization by taking one example for each.
7. Differentiate between addition and condensation polymerization.
Unit V
1. How many fundamental vibrational frequencies can be observed in the infrared absorption
spectrum of CO2?
2. What is the selection rule for the microwave absorption spectra?
3. What are the allowed transitions in UV-VIS spectroscopy?
4. How many signals would you expect in the NMR spectrum of ethanol .
5. What is the necessary condition for a molecule to absorb infrared radiation ?
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
Unit –I:
1. Ep (electron pairing energy) for Co3+ is 250 kJ/mol and Δo for the complex ion [Co(CN)6]3- is
345 kJ/mol. Is the complex paramagnetic or diamagnetic? Justify.
2. Explain distribution of electrons as stated in LCAO with pictorial representation.
3. Explain the crystal field splitting in octahedral complex [CO (NH3)6]3+, with neat diagram.
4. Explain the crystal field splitting in tetrahedral complex [CO (NH3)6]3+, with neat diagram.

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Unit –II:
1. How hard water can be converted to soft water? Classify them. State the ion-exchange process
for the removal of hardness of water.
2. Outline various steps involved in the treatment of potable water.
3. Explain the process of Reverse osmosis and its significance.
Unit –III:
1. Define standard electrode potential and explain the construction and applications of calomel
electrode and glass electrode.
2. Explain the various factors which affect on rate of corrosion.
3. Explain waterline, pitting and galvanic corrosion.

Unit -IV
1. Explain SN1 and SN2 mechanism with an example for each.
2. Explain Markownikoff’s and anti Markownikoff’s addition products in addition of HBr to
propene.
3. Write the mechanism involved in addition of Grignard reagent to carbonyl compounds.
4. What is Saytzeff rule? Explain E1 and E2 mechanism involved in dehydro halogenation of
alkylhalides.
5. Write the steps involved in Free radical polymerization.
6. Discuss various steps involved in the synthesis of of Paracetamol and Aspirin.
7. Write Preparation, properties and four engineering applications of PVC, Teflon and Nylon- 6, 6
Unit -V
1. Discuss the selection rules and types of electronic transitions for electronic spectra of molecules.
2. Mention any four applications of IR spectroscopy.
3. Explain the principle of NMR spectroscopy.
4. Explain the principle of IR spectroscopy and the types of stretching and bending vibrations with
suitable examples.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Unit –I:
1. The metal in a complex acts as _________________.
2. The groups satisfying the secondary valencies of a cation in a complex are called
_________________.
3. In complexes ligands are linked to central metal by_____________ bond.
4. In the formation of complex, the transition metal ion_________________ electron pair.
5. In an octahedral complex, among t2g and eg orbitals, _______ orbitals have lower energy.
6. The outer complexes are generally formed by___________ligands.
7. Spin only formula _______________________BM.
8. The energy of molecular orbital can be calculated by _____________________equation.
9.Bonding orbitals are _____________ in energy than anti-bonding orbitals.
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10. Among F- and CN-, ___________________ is a strong field ligand.

Unit –II:

1. The ______________of calcium and magnesium are decomposed by boiling the water.
2. Carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium causes ______________
3. EDTA forms _________________ with calcium and magnesium ions
4. One ppm of hardness is equal to ____ degree French.
5. Water coming out of hydrogen cation exchanger is highly _________.
6. EDTA is ______________________________.
7. Chemical name given to Calgon is __________________.
8. Sulphates and chlorides of calcium and magnesium causes _______________.
9. One ppm of hardness is equal to __________0Cl.
10. In the ion exchange process, the exhausted cation exchange resin can be regenerated by using
______________________.

Unit –III:
1. The Nernst equation for a general reduction reaction is _____________________
2. The relative corrosion tendencies of the metals and alloys can be known by using_______
3. The potential of calomel electrode depends on the concentration of ___________
4. Quinhydrone is 1:1 Molar compound of __________and _________________
5. Pb-Acid storage cell is an example of _________________
6. The greater the _______________ between the two metals in the actual contact, the faster will
be the corrosion
7. The active part of the metal becomes __________ and it gets corroded
8. _________________ is a method of protecting metals and alloys from corrosion by making
them completely cathodic.
9. The coating of the metal surface is done by using zinc is called _____________
10. In the __________ chemically more active metals are given higher place.

Unit IV
1. Write the reagent involved in the following reaction

2. Identify ‘α’ carbon , ‘β’ carbon and hydrogen in the following compound

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3. In alkyl halides, dehydrohalogenation follows ________________________ order.
4. The following reaction may be carried out using ______________________ reagents.

5. In E1 mechanism, the intermediate involves the formation of ______________.

6. Grignard reagent is _____________________.
7. Structure of Aspirin is _____________________.
8. Inversion takes place in _________________ mechanism.
9. _______________ is a good initiator for free radical polymerization.
10. Example for an addition polymer is _____________________________.

Unit V
1. Greater the de - shielding of protons ______________will be the value of δ.
2. _____________________ is generally employed as an internal standard in NMR spectroscopy.
3. The difference in the absorption position of the proton with respect to TMS signal is called
____________________
4. The region below 1500 cm-1 is called __________________ region.
5. The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is
_____________________
6. H1, C13, F19, P31 have nuclear spin equal to _______________________
7. Linear molecules have ________________ vibrational degrees of freedom whereas non-linear
molecules have _________________ vibrational degrees of freedom.
8. The range of infra -red radiations is ________________________________
9. __________ is the lowest energetic transition among all electronic transitions.
10.Electronic spectra is obtained due to the absorption of radiation in the
___________________________ regions.

COMPUTER PROGRAMMING
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Design a flow chart to find whether a given number is prime or not.
2. Draw a flowchart to find GCD of given two numbers.
3. Draw a flowchart that calculates the square of the digits of an three digit
integer.
4. Explain Constants with an example.
119
5. a. Explain different types of data types in C
b. Describe different control statements in C language with an example.
6. Explain an operator with an example. Explain different operators in C Language.
7. Illustrate all the possible ways of solving a problem.
8. Write a C program to implement a conditional operator.
9. State the rules for explicit type conversion while evaluating a n expression.

Unit-II
1. 1) The Fibonacci series is defined as n0 = 1, n1 = 1 ni+2 = ni+ni+1 for
i=0,1,2…… thus the First few Fibonacci numbers are 1,1,2,3,5,8,13… write a
complete C-program to compute and print the first m Fibonacci numbers, where m
is the input to the program.
2. Write a C program to find all the prime numbers between 1 and n(where n value is
supplied by the user).
3. Summarize the need of goto statement in C.

4. Write a C program to print the following output.

1
2 2
3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5. An electric power distribution company charges its domestic consumers as follows:
Consumption Units Rate of Charge
0-200 Rs. 0.50 per unit
201-400 Rs.100 plus Rs.0.65 per unit excess of 200
401-600 Rs.230 plus Rs.0.80 per unit excess of 400.
Write a C program that reads the customer number and power consumed and prints the amount to
be paid by the customer.
Unit-III
1. Explain the concept of Inter function communication with an example.
2. Interpret in your own words on why Fibonacci series is the best example for static variable
3. Write different ways of declaring global variables?
4. Explain Recursive function with an example. State its imitations
5. Illustrate different storage classes in C
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Unit-IV
1. Illustrate different ways of array initialization with an example program.
2. Write a C program to find the largest and smallest elements in a list of array elements. (Array
size should be declared at the time of execution)
3. Write a C program to find sum of even elements and odd elements in a list of array elements by
passing the complete array to a function.
4. Write a C program to add and multiply two matrices by taking one matrix as identity matrix?
5. Differentiate strspn() and strcspn().

Unit-V
1. Compare malloc() and calloc() functions with an example?
2. State the rules for pointer arithmetic?
3. Write a C program to find the sum of even and odd elements using pointer, array and functions.
4. State and Explain void pointer with an example.
5. a) State the need of call- by- reference with an example?
b) Write a C program to implement array of pointers?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit-I
1. Mention the need of Increment and decrement operators with an example.
2. List out the steps for creating and running a c program in Linux environment.
3. Differentiate between pseudo code and algorithm.
4. State and explain Precedence and Associativity with example.
5. What is data type? Explain different types of data types in c?

Unit-II
1. Write the syntax and flow chart of else-if ladder.
2. Write the syntax and flow chart of nested if.
3. Explain the need of nested for loop? Explain with an example.
4. Write a C program to implement the given number is multiple of 7 and 3.
5. Differentiate between entry-controlled loop and exit-controlled loop

Unit-III
1. What is a function?
2. How is a function defined in C?
3. What are the steps in writing a function in a program?
4. What is the purpose of the function main()?
5. Is it better to use a macro or a function?
6. What is built in function?
7. What is use of return statement?
8. What is recursive function?
9. What do you mean by call by value?

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 10. What do you mean by call by reference?
11. What are command line arguments?
12. Explain the functions with no arguments and no return values with an example.
13. State the purpose of Extern variables with syntax.
14. Explain the need of auto variables with syntax.
15. Illustrate the need of Recursive functions in C.
16. State the differences between automatic and static variable.

Unit-IV
1. Explain the process of passing an array to a function with an example.
2. Explain various ways of initializing an array in C.
3. What are the application areas of an array?
4. Write a C program to find sum of even numbers using an array.
5. State the differences between fixed-length and variable-length array.
6. List out all string functions in C.
7. Differentiate strstr() and strchr().

Unit-V
1. State the rules of pointer operations.
2. Discuss pointers and arrays with an example.
3. Illustrate pointers to functions with an example.
4. Mention pointer arithmetic with an appropriate example.
5. Explain pointer to pointer with an example program.
6. Compare static memory allocation and dynamic memory allocation.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

UNIT-I
1. Discuss the main idea behind Program Development Life Cycle with an example.
2. Draw a flowchart to find the maximum of three
numbers.
3. Draw a flowchart to find the sum of “n‟ natural numbers.
4. Write an algorithm to find the quadratic roots of an equation.
5. Explain the formatted input and output functions with an example
6. State and Explain Type conversions in C with appropriate examples
7. Explain the concept of expression evaluation with an example?
8. State the rules of identifiers with few examples?
9. Interpret in your own words the difference between bitwise-OR and bitwise-AND?
10. Illustrate with an examples the following operators
a. Ternary operator
b. Special operators
UNIT-II
1. Write the syntax for the selection statements with examples.
2. Differentiate between one way, two way and multi-way selection statements with examples.
3. Discuss about various repetitive statements with examples.
4. Write a c program to find Individual digits of a positive integer.

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 5. Write a c program to find the factorial of a given number.
6. Write a c program to print the sequence of n terms using Fibonacci series.
7. Write a c program to find sum of even numbers below 100.
8. Write a c program to determine whether the given number is Armstrong number or not.
9. Write a c program to solve the following sum
i. Sum=1+x+x2+x3+x4+……………..+xn (where x and n values are supplied by the user)
10. Write a c program to find all the prime numbers between 1 to n(where n
value is given by the user).

UNIT –III
1. Write a program to find largest between two numbers using functions.
2. What is recursion? Explain with a suitable example.
3. Explain Automatic storage class with a suitable example.
4. Explain Static storage class with suitable example. How are the data elements initialized in
the case of static type variable?
5. Explain Register storage class with a suitable example.
6. Explain Extern storage class with a suitable example.
7. What is function? How function is defined.
8. Explain the difference between calling function and called function with examples.
9. Explain void function.
10. Explain with an example function with arguments and return type .
11. List out the advantages of function.
12. What is the purpose of return statement? List out the rules used in return statement.
13. What is a register variable and the scope of it?
14. What is the storage class used in recursive function ?
15. What is a recursive function? List out their merits and demerits.
16. What is a function and list out advantages and disadvantages of functions?
17. What is function argument, function call and return value ?
18. What is auto variable and the use of it? How can data be initialized in the auto variable.
19. How is the #include directive is used?
20. Write a c program using recursion to find GCD of two given numbers.
21. Classification of functions with relevant examples.
22. State and explain storage classes with examples.
23. i) Write a c program using functions to construct a pyramid.
ii) Write a c program using functions to print Pascal triangle.
24. Write a c program to find factorial of a given number using non recursive and recursive
function.
UNIT –IV
1. Write a c program to find largest and smallest number in a list of array.
2. Write a c program to calculate i) addition of 2 matrices ii) Multiplication of 2 matrices.
3. Write a c program to sort the elements of an array in
ascending order.
4. Write a c program to search an element in a list of array.
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 5. Write a c program to read 10 integer elements and calculate their sum using arrays.
6. Explain the use of functions strcpy ( ) and strcmp ( )
7. Explain how strings are declared and initialized in C.
8. Write a C function to find the length of a string passed as an argument

UNIT –V
1. a. What is void pointer? Explain with an example.
b. What is NULL pointer? Explain with an example.
2. Explain call by value and call by reference with examples.
3. Write a c program to find the largest number in a list of elements using calloc () function.
4. Write a C program to find sum of even numbers and odd numbers using pointers and Arrays.
5. Explain the concept of array of pointers with an example
program.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
UNIT-1
1) Pseudo code is used for
(a) Denoting the program flow (b) To make structure chart
(c) For coding the program (d) To write program steps
2) What symbol is used to represent output in a flowchart
(a) Square (b) Circle (c) parallelogram (d) Triangle
3) Method which uses a list of well defined instructions to complete a task starting from a given
initial state from a given initial state to end state is calls as
(a)Program (b)Flowchart (c)Algorithm (d)A & B
4) The chart that contains only function flow and no code is called as
(a)flowchart (b)Structure chart (c)Both A and B (d)None
5) Which of the following is a program planning tool?
(a)Sequential (b)decision (c)Pseudo code (d)Both B and C
6) Flowcharts and Algorithms are used for
(a)Better Programming (b)Efficient Coding
(c)Easy testing and Debugging (d)All
7) An Algorithm represented in the form of programming languages is _________
(a)Flowchart (b)Pseudo code (c)Program (d)None
8) Which of the following is a pictorial representation of an algorithm?
(a)Pseudo code (b)Program (c)Flowchart (d)Algorithm
9) Which of the following symbol in a flowchart are used to indicate all arithmetic processes of
adding, subtracting, multiplying and dividing ?
(a)Input/output (b)terminal (c)Processing (d)Decision
10) A flowchart that outlines the main segments of program is called as
(a)Micro flowchart (b)Macro flowchart (c)Flowchart (d)Algorithm
11) Pseudo code is also known as
(a)Program Design Language (b)Software Language
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 (c)Hardware Language (d)Algorithm
12) Pseudo code emphasizes on
(a)Development (b)Coding (c)Design (d)Debugging
13) What is the standard terminal symbol for a flowchart?
(a) circle (b) rectangle (c) diamond (d) square
14) Which of the following is not a characteristic of good algorithm?
(a)Precise (b)Finite number of steps
(c)Ambiguous (d)Logical flow of control
15) The following pseudo code is an example of ________structure:
Get number
Get another number
Multiply numbers
Print result
(a)Sequence (b)Decision (c)Loop (d)Nested
16) Which of the following is not a principle of structured- programming?
(a)Design the program in top-down manner
(b)Write each program module as a series of control structure
(c)Code the program so that it runs correctly without testing
(d)Use good programming
17) Which of the following keyword is followed by an integer or character constant?
(a)switch (b)case (c)for (d)void
18) Which of the following enhances the versatility of the computer to perform a set of
instructions repeatedly?
(a)Function (b)Loop (c)header files (d)statement
19) The programming language that closely resembles the machine language is
(a)High-level languages (b)C language (c)FORTRAN (d)Assembly language
20) The tool used to convert a „C‟ program to machine language is called as
(a)Linker (b)Language translator (c)Compiler (d)Pre-processor
21) The programmer original program code is called as
(a)Object file (b)Source file (c)Executable file (d)Application file
22) Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a)int=123; (b)value=’ ’+5 (c)lime=20*’T’ (d)count+5=result
23) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a)rem=3%2; (b)rem=3.14%2.1; (c)rem=’a’ % ‘c’ (d)None of above
24) Which will be the output of following program?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()

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 {
int a;
printf(“%d\n” a)
}
(a) Error (b)0 (c)-1 (d)Garbage value
25) What is the result of16<<2?
(a) 4 b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 5
26) What is the result of the expression (10/3)*3+5%3?
(a)11 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 1
27) What will the value of c after execution of the program?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a,b,c;
a=9;
b=10;
c=(b<a || b>a);
printf(“\nc=%d”,c);
}
(a) c=1 (b) c=0 ( c) c=-1 (d) none of the above
28) What is the ASCII range for ATOZ letters?
(a) 65 to 90 (b) 48 to 57 (c) 97 to 122 (d) none of the above
29) The escape sequence ‘\t’ is a
( a) tab (b) nextline (c) backspace (d) none of the above
30) what will be the output of the following program?
main()
{
System(“”);

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 }
(a) control goes to the dos prompt ( b) syntax error
(c) bad command or file name (d) none of the above
UNIT-II
1) What will be the value of ‘x’ after the execution of following program?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int k;
float x=0;
clrscr();
for(k=0;k<10;k++)
x+=1;
printf(“\nx=%g”,x);
}
(a) x=1 (b) x=0 (c)x=1.1 (d) none of the above
2) How many while statements are possible in do…while loop?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none of the above
3) Why this program runs infinite times?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int i;
for(i=32200;i<=32768;i++)
{
printf(" The Value I %d",i);
}
}

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 (a) The range of Integer (b) It will not infinite (c) Error (d) None of above
4) Looping in a program means
(a)Branching to be specified branch or label in the program
(b)repeating a given set of instruction
(c)Both of above
(d)None of above
5) The difference between while and do-while statements is
(a) In the while statement the control first enters into the loop then condition is tested at
the end of first iteration
(b) In do while the condition is tested in first iteration and if the condition is true ,it
enters into of first iteration
(c) The do-while statement’s condition is used to decide whether to enter the loop or not
whereas the while statement’s condition is used to decide whether to exit the loop
(or) not
(d) The while statement’s condition is used to decide whether to enter the loop or not
whereas the do-while statement’s condition is used decide whether to exit the loop or
not
6) Observe the following block of code and determine what happens when x=2?
Switch(x)
{
Case 1: printf(“x is 1”);
Break;
Case 2:
Case 3: printf(“x is 3”);
break;
default: printf(”X is not within the range”);
break;
}
(a)Program jumps to the end of switch statement since there is nothing to do for x=2
(b)The code inside default will run since there is no task for x=2,so
(c)Will display x is 3,and then come outside the switch statement
(d)None of above
7) Which of the following is false for a “switch” statement in C?
(a)break statement is false is compulsory after each case
(b)default statement is compulsory
(c)There is a limit on the maximum number of cases
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 (d)None of the above
8) Find the output of the following program
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x=4;
float y=4.0;
if(x==y)
printf(“x and y are equal”);
else
printf(“x and y are not equal”);
}
(a)x and y are equal (b) x and y are not
(c)Unpredictable (d) No output
9) To repeat a set of the statements for 25 times , which kind of statement will be required?
(a)Iterative (b)Selective (c)Either (a) or (b) can be used (d)None of the above
10) The minimum number of update/increment/decrement allowed in a “for” loop are________
(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)None of above
11) The “ while” loop can be replaced by “for” loop in all the cases
(a)True (b)False (c)Depends on the condition (d)None of the above
12) “break ” statement when executed the control is transferred
(a)Outside the loop ,to the next statement after the loop
(b)beginning of the loop i.e. to the first statement in the loop
(c)outside the function, to the next function in the program
(d)beginning of the function i.e. to the first statement in the function
13) “continue ” statement when executed the control is transferred___________
(a)Outside the loop ,to the next statement after the loop
(b)beginning of the loop i.e. to the first statement in the loop
(c)outside the function, to the next function in the program
(d)beginning of the function i.e. to the first statement in the function
14) “goto ” statement transfers the control to___________
(a)Outside the loop ,to the next statement after the loop
(b)beginning of the loop i.e. to the first statement in the loop
(c)Label specified with the statement
(d)None of the above
15) Find the output of the following program
#include<stdio.h>
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 void main()
{
int i,j;
for(i=1;i<=2;i++)
{
for(j=1;j<=3;j++)
{
printf(“Hello”)
}
printf(“\n”)
}
}
(a)Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello
(b) Hello Hello Hello Hello
(c) Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello
(d)Hello Hello Hello Hello Hello
16) Select the correct statement if „n‟ is the number of times the loop is executed
(a)In a while loop the control conditional check is performed n times.
(b)In a do-while loop the control conditional check is performed n+1 times.
(c)Break is a keyboard used with if and switch case.
(d)None of these
17) The break statement is used to exit from a_______
(a)DO loop (b)FOR loop
(c)SWITCH statement (d)all of above
18) In which statements, does a CONTINUE statement cause the control to go directly to the test
condition and then continue the looping process?
(a)FOR and WHILE (b)WHILE and IF-ELSE
(c)DO-WHILE AND IF-ELSE (d)While and DO-WHIL

UNIT-III
1) The main() is a
(a)User –defined functions (b)Library function
(c) Keyword (d) None of the above
2) The function name itself is
(a) an address (b) value
(c) definition (d) None of the above
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3) What is the data type of variable m
void main()
{
int x=2;
qr (x);
}
Sqr(m)
{
Return (m*m);
}
(a) int (b) float (c) char (d) void
4) By default the function returns
(a) integer value (b) float value (c)char value (d) None of the above
5) A static variable is one that
(a)retains its value through the life of the program
(b) cannot be initialized
(c) is initialized once at the commencement the execution and cannot be changed at
the run time
(d) is same as an automatic variable but is placed at the end of the program
6) If a storage class is not mentioned in the declaration then default storage class is
(a) automatic (b) static (c) external (d)register
7) If CPU fails to keep the variables in CPU registers, in that case the variables are assumed
(a) Automatic (b) static (c) external (d) None of the above
8) What will be the values of variables x and y after execution of the following program?
#include<stdio.h>
#define p x++;
#define plus(x) p
void main()
{
int x=2,y;
clrscr();
y=pluse(x)

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 printf(“x=%d y=%d”x,y);
}
(a) x=3 y=2 (b)x=3 y=3 (c)x=2 y=2 (d) None of the above
9) What will be the value of y after execution of the following program?
#include<stdio.h>
#define plus(x) x;
#define minus(x)--x+pluse(x);
void main()
{
int x=8,y;
clrscr();
y=minus(x);
printf(“y=%d”,y);
}
(a) y=14 (b) y=15 (c) y=13 (d) None of the above
10) The following program will display the output
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x=2,*p=5;
p=&x;
#define p &p;
}
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 65500 (d) None of the above
11) Recursion is a process in which a function calls
(a) itself (b)another function (c) main() function (d) None of the above
12) The meaning of keyword void before the function name means
(a) Function should not return any value
(b) Function should return any value
(c) No arguments are passed

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 (d) None of the above
13) What will be the values of x and s on execution?
int x,s
void main(int);
void main(x)
{
Printf(“\nx=%d s=%d”,x,s);
}
(a) x=1 s=0 (b) x=0,s=0 (c) x=1 s=1 (d) none of the above
14) An external variable is one
(a) Which is globally accessible by all functions
(b) Which declared outside the body of any function
(c) Which resides in the memory till the end of the program
(d) None of the above
15) The following program will display
#include,stdio.h>
#define p &x
void main()
{
int x=2;
clrscr();
printf(“\t %u”,p);
}
(a) address (b) value (c) error message (d) None of the above
16) In the following example whether macro is treated as
#include<stdio.h>
#define s “This Book Teaches C
void main()
{
Printf(“%s”,s);
}

133
 (a) macro as well as array (b) only macro
(c) only array (d) None of the above
17) What will be the output after execution of the following program?
#include<stdio.h>
#define s “This Book Teaches C
void main()
{
Printf(“%s”,*(s+3));
}
(a) s (b) h (c) i (d) T
18) What is output of the program to call the function defined in “udf.c” file
#include<stdio.h>
#include “udf.c”
void main()
{
clrscr();
display();
}
(a) function return (b) function called
( c) both (a)&(b) (d) None of the above
19) What will be the value of variable x’ on execution of the following program
#include<stdio.h>
int x;
void main()
{
clrscr();
x++;
printf(“\n%d”,x);

134
 }
(a) x=1 (b) x=0 (c) garbage value (d) None of the above
20) A Function that calls itself is known as
(a)Inline Function (b)Nested Function
(c)Overloaded Function (d)recursive Function
21) In case of arguments passed by values when calling a function such as z=add(x,y)
(a) any modifications to the variables x and y from inside the function “add” will not
have any effect on the variables outside the function.
(b)The variables x y will be updated when any modification is done in the function “add”
(c)The variable x y will be modified as per modification in the function “add” but the
Variable y will not be updated as per the variation in the function “add”
(d)None of the above
22) If the type specifier of parameters of a function call is followed by an ampersand (&) and then
the variable names, that function call is
(a)pass by value (b)pass by reference
(c)pass by variable (d)none of above
23) In case of pass by reference
(a)The values of those variables are passed to the function so that it can manipulate them
(b)The address of variable in memory is passed to the function so that it can use the same
memory area for its processing
(c)Both of above (d)None of above

UNIT-IV
1) What will be the size of character array
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
Char x[]={‘s’,’a’,NULL};
Printf(“”/n %d”,sizeof(x));
}
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) none of the above
2) The correct syntax of declaring an array is
(a)[array_size]data_type array _name;
(b)array_name data_type [array_size];
(c)data_type array_name [array_size];
(d)data_type [array_size] array_name;
3) The memory space allocated to the array declared as: int a[10]; will be_____bytes

135
 (a)10 (b)30 (c)20 (d)40
4) To access an element of an array the ___________operator is used
(a),(comma) (b);(semi-colon)
(c)&(ampersand) (d)[] (square brackets)
5) The 10th element of an array „a‟ can be accessed as ___________
(a)a[10] (b)a[11] (c)a[9] (d)a[8]
6) The maximum number of dimensions an array can have is ___________
(a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)None of the above
7) In a two-dimensions an array can have is__________
(a)The element with row number ‘i’ and column number ‘j’
(b) The element with row number ‘j’ and column number ‘i’
(c) The element with row number (i-1) and column number (j-1)
(d) The element with element with row number (j-1) and column number(i-1)
8) An array of characters terminated with a null character is called as___________
(a)pointer (b)structure (c)string (d)none of the above
9) An array elements are always stored in ----------- memory locations.
(a) sequential (b) random (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none of above
10) What will happen if in a C program you assign a value to an array element whose
subscript exceeds the size of array?
(a) The element will be set to 0 (b) The compiler would report an error
(c) The program may get crashed if important data is overwritten
(d) The array size would appropriately grow
11) In C, if you pass array as an argument o a function, what actually gets passed?
(a) value of elements in array (b) first element of the array
(c) Base address of the array (d) Address of the last element of array
12) Strcat() function adds null character
a) Only if there is space
b) Always
c) Depends on the standard
d) Depends on the compiler
13) String operation such as strcat(s, t), strcmp(s, t), strcpy(s, t) and strlen(s) heavily rely upon.
a) Presence of NULL character
b) Presence of new-line character
c) Presence of any escape sequence
d) None of the mentioned
14) Which pre-defined function returns a pointer to the last occurence of a character in a string?
a) strchr(s, c);
b) strrchr(s, c);
c) strlchr(s, c);
d) strfchr(s, c);
15) Which of the following will return a non-zero value when checked with isspace(c)?
a) blank
b) newline
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 c) return
d) all of the mentioned
16)Which of the following function is used to find the first occurrence of a given string in another string?
a) strchr()

b) strrchr()

c) strstr()

d) strnset()
17. If a string is given as “AB_CD”, the length of this string is---------------------.
18. ------------------ function terminates as soon as it finds a white space.
19. Strcmp(str1,str2) returns 0 if____________________.
20. Strncat is used to_________________.
21. Char str[100]; can store maximum _________________ characters of a string.
22. _____________ function can be used to print a line of text on the screen.
23. The function strcat(s2,s1); appends __________ to __________________.
24. The library function used to find the last occurrence of a character in a string is____________.
25. __________ function is more appropriate for reading in a multi-word string.
26. In which stage the #include<stdio.h> gets replaced by the contents of the
file stdio.h____________.
27. The _____________ is also known as a macro.
28. _____________ preprocessor directive is used to check for the existence of macro definition.
29. Strspn returns______________.
30. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char t;
char *p1 = "India", *p2;
p2=p1;
p1 = "Bharat";
printf("%s %s\n", p1, p2);
return 0;
}
31. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
#include<string.h>
int main()
{
char str1[5], str2[5];
int i;
gets(str1);
gets(str2);
i = strcmp(str1, str2);
printf("%d\n", i);
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 return 0;}
32. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
char str[25] = "Geethanjali";
printf("%s\n", str+5);
return 0;
}
33. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
printf(6+"Geeth anjali\n");
return 0;
}
34. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
#include<string.h>
int main()
{
char str[] = "Geetha\0Anjali\0";
printf("%s\n", str);
return 0;
}
35. What is the output of the following program__________________
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
printf("Geetha", "Anjali\n");
return 0;
}
36. The ASCII code for ‘d’ _________and ‘D’ is______________.
37. The syntax of the strtok() function is______________________.
38. The atoi() function is part of the ________________ header file.
39. The string-to-line function is called as_________________ and line-to-string is __________
function.
40. __________________is a variable length character array.
41. No. of bytes required to store an empty string is_____________.
42. No. of bytes required to store a character literal is ___________and string literal is________
43. During concatenation ,____________situation will occur if the target string is of lesser space
than the two source strings.
44. ____________is used to print ‘\n’ inside a printf statement.

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UNIT-V
1) Which of the following statement is true after execution of the following program?
int a[5]={2,3},*c;
c=a;
(*c)--;
(a) the value of a[0] will be 1 (b) the value of a[0] will be 2
(c) the value of a[1] will be 2 (d) none of the above
2) Which is the correct way to declare a pointer?
(a) int *ptr (b) * int ptr (c) int ptr* (d) int_ptr*
3) What will be the value of variables a and b after execution?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a,*b=&a,**c=&b;
a=5;
**c=15;
*b=**c;
Clrscr();
Printf(“A=%d,B=-%d”,a,b);
}
(a) A=15,B=15 (b)A=15,B=5 (c)A=15,B=16 (d)none of the above
4) What will be the value of x after execution of the following program?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x,*p;
p=&x;
*p=2;

139
 Clrscr();
Printf(“\n value of x=%d”,x);
}
(a) x=2 (b) x=0 (c) x=65504 (d) none of the above
5) Pointer store__________
(a)value (b)address (c)both value and address (d)None of above
6) To declare a pointer for an ”int” type variable which if the following is correct statement
(a)int *p; (b)*int p; (c)float *p; (d)*float p;
7) Read the statements given bellow and select the correct statement
int a,*p,**p1;
p=&a; p1=%p;
(a)p1 is a pointer to pointer p (c)both (a) and (b)
(b)p is pointer to variable a (d)none of the above
8) The statement int **a;
(a) is illegal (b) is legal but meaningless
(c) is syntactically and semantically correct (d) None of above
9) The operator > and < are meaningful when used with pointers, if
(a) The pointer points to data of similar data type
(b) The pointer points to structure of similar data type
(c) The pointer points to elements of same array
(d) none of the above
10) The declaration
int (*p) [5] means
(a) p is one dimensional array of size 5, of pointers to integers.
(b) p is a pointer to a 5 elements integer array.
(c) same as int(*p) (d) none

ENGG.MECHANICS-I
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
UNIT - I

1) Two smooth spheres, each of radius r and weight Q, rest in a horizontal channel having
vertical walls, the distance between which is 90 cm. Find the pressures exerted on the walls and
floor at the points of contact A, B and D. The following numerical data are given: r =25cm, Q
=100N.

140
2) Find resultant of given system of forces as shown in figure

3) Determine the resultant of the three forces acting on the dam shown in the Figure and locate
its intersection with the base AB. For good design, the intersection should occur within the
middle third of the base. Does it.

4) Determine the amount and direction of smallest force P required to start the wheel over the
block. What is the reaction of the block as shown in figure?

5) A roller of radius r = 0.3 m. and weight Q = 2000 N is to be pulled over a curb of height h =
0.15 m. by a horizontal force P applied to the end of a string wound around the circumference
of the roller (Figure). Find the magnitude of P required to start the roller over the curb.

141
 6) A vessel is pulled by two ropes as shown in figure 1. Obtain the resultant force applied on
the vessel if the tension on each rope is 1000 N.

7) Determine the Resultant of four forces acting on a body shown in figure also determine its
direction and indicate it by a diagram.

8) The block shown in fig is acted on by its weight W = 400N,a horizontal force F = 600N and the
pressure ‘P’ exerted by the inclined plane. The Resultant ‘R’ of these forces is parallel to the
incline. Determine P and R.Does the block moves up or down to the incline?

9) In shown fig find the y coordinate of the point A so that the 361N force will have a clockwise
moment of 400N-m about ‘o’.also determine the Y intercept of the action line of force.

142
10) In shown fig the force ’ F’ passing through ‘C ‘produces a clockwise moment of 600Nm about
‘A’ and a counter clockwise moment of 300Nm about ‘B’.Determine the moment of ‘F’
about ‘O’.

11) A plate subjected to coplanar force system as shown in fig. The inscribed grid with each square
having a length of 1mt locates each force and its slope.Determine the resultant and its x and y
intercepts.

12) Fig shows a plate subjected to loads. Replace the loads by an equalent force through ‘C’ and a
couple acting through ‘A’ and ‘B’.solve if the forces of the couple are
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical

13) The beam AB in shown fig supports a load which varies uniformly from an intensity of 60N/mt
to 180N/mt.Calculate the position of the resultant load.

143
14) The resultant of four forces which three are shown in fig is 390N acting down to the right with
a slope of 5 to 12 through point ‘A’. if P = 150N and F = 130N Determine the missing force T
and its x intercept.

15) Determine the amount and position of the resultant of the loads acting on the truss shown in
below figure ?

16) Determine the resultant of three forces acting on the dam shown in fig and locates its
interception with base AB for good design the interception should occur within the middle
third of the base. Does it?

UNIT – II

Equilibrium of Forces

1) Determine the Normal reaction and angle for the cylinder shown in above figure.

144
2) Determine angle and the normal reaction between the Cylinder and the smooth inclined
surface which is at an angle 15o to the horizontal shown in below figure.

3) Determine the amount and direction of the smallest force P required to start the wheel over the
block. What is the reaction at the block?

4) Three cylinders are piled in a rectangular ditch as shown in fig. Neglecting the friction
determine the reaction between the cylinder and the vertical wall.

145
5) Two beams supported as shown in fig and separated by a roller at C, Jointly carry the indicated
loads. On CD, the load varies uniformly from an intensity of 100N/mt to 200N/mt, while AB
supports a concentrated load of 500N.Dtermine the values of the Reactions at A,B,C &D.

6) A 12Mt bar of negligible weight rests in a horizontal position on the smooth inclines in shown
fig. Determine the distance x at which the load T = 100N should be placed from point B to
keep the bar horizontal.

7) Find the distance x measured along AB at which a horizontal force 60N should be applied to
hold the uniform bar AB in the position shown in fig. Bar AB 10Mt long and weighs 140N.The
incline and the floor are smooth.

8) Bar AB Negligible weight is subjected to a vertical force of 600N and a horizontal force of
300N applied as shown in fig. Find the angle at which equilibrium exists.

146
UNIT – III

1) Bodies A and B are joined by a cord parallel to the inclined plane as shown in fig. Under body
A which weighs 200 N, A=0.20, while B = 0.50 under body B which weighs 300 N.
Determine the angle at which motion impends. What is the tension in the cord?

2) Find the least value of P that will just start the system of blocks shown in fig moving to the
right. The co-efficient of friction under each block is 0.30

3) The 100 N cylinder shown in fig is held at rest by a weight P suspended from a cord wrapped
around the cylinder. If slipping impends between the cylinder and incline, Determine P and the
co-efficient of friction.

4) Block A in shown fig weighs 120 N ,Block B weighs 200 N and the cord is parallel to the
incline. If the co-efficient of friction for all contact surfaces in contact is 0.25, Determine the
angle of the incline for which motion impends.?

147
5) The bodies shown in fig are separated by a uniform strut weighing 100 N which is attached to
the bodies with frictionless pins. The co-efficient of friction under each body is 0.30. Determine
the value of the horizontal force P that will start the system right ward.

6) In shown fig two blocks are separated by a uniform strut attached to each block with friction
less pins. Block A weighs 400 N ,Block B weighs 300 N and the strut AB weighs 200 N. If =
0.25 under B, Determine the minimum coefficient of friction under to prevent motion.

7) A horizontal bar of 10mt long and of negligible weight, rests on rough inclined plane as shown
in fig. If the angle of friction is 15o, how close to B may the 200 N force be applied before
motion impends?

8) A Uniform plank of weight W and total length 2L is placed as shown in fig. The angle of
friction is 15o.Dtermine the value of the angle at which slipping impends?
148
9) A plank of 12mt long and negligible weight is supported and carries the horizontal and vertical
loads as shown in fig. The coefficient of friction is 0.30.If T = 300N determine the value of P to
start motion downward?

10) A homogeneous cylinder 3mt in diameter and weighing 400N is resting on two rough inclined
surfaces as shown in fig. If the angle of friction is 15o find the couple C applied to the cylinder
that will start it rotating clockwise.?

LADDER FRICTION
11) A uniform Ladder of length L and weight W is placed with one end on the ground and the other
end against a vertical wall. The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 20 o.Find the
minimum angle at which the ladder can be inclined with the horizontal before slipping occurs.
12) A uniform ladder 0.6mt long and weighs 40N.It is so placed against a vertical wall at an angle
60o with the ground. How far along the ladder can a 160N man climb before the ladder is on the
verge of slipping? The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 15o?
WEDGE FRICTION
13) What force P must be applied to weightless wedges shown in fig to start them under the 1000N
block? The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 10o?

149
14) As shown in fig two blocks each weighing 200N are to be pushed apart by a 30 o wedge. The
angle of friction is 15o for all contact surfaces. what value of P is required to start movement of
the blocks?

15) Determine the force P Required to start the wedge shown in fig. The angle of friction for all
contact surfaces is 15o?

16) Determine the horizontal force P in shown fig to start the 400N wedge moving to the right. The
angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 20o?

UNIT – IV

1) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

150
2) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

3) The surface of a plate of uniform thickness is given by the shaded area in fig. If the plate is
suspended from a hinge at A what angle will line AB makes with the vertical?

4) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

5) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?
151
6) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

7) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

8) In order to fully utilize the different values of the compressive stress SC and tensile stress ST in
a cast iron beam, it is desirable to locate the centroidal axis so that the ratio of its distance to the
top of a section to its distance to the bottom equals SC/ST. Using the section shown in fig find
the dimension B to satisfy this criterion if SC/ST = 3.?

9) For the shaded area shown in fig find the length a so that the centorid is at ‘O’?

152
10) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

UNIT – V

1) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated X and Y axis?

2) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated horizontal X
axis?

3) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated X and Y axis?

153
4) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated Horizontal X
axis?

6) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the centroidal axis?

7) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the centroidal axis?

PRODUCT OF INERTIA

7) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated
X and Y axis?

8) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

154
9) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

10) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

11) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X and
Y axis?

155
Unit 1 & 2

1. Define the couple and what is the unique property of a couple?

2. State the parallelogram law.
3. Define the moment of a force and moment of a couple.
4. Define the lami’s theorem and state the triangle law of force.
5. State and derive the Varignons theorem?
6. Explain Resultant of a force and resolution of a force.
7. Write the equilibrium equations for a body in space.
8. What do you mean by coplanar concurrent force system?
9. What is a couple? Explain with neat diagram.
10. What is Lamis theorem?
11. Principle of transmissibility
12. Define Rigid Body.
13. Triangle law of forces.
14. Define free body diagram
15. Define resultant force system.
16. Define coplanar force system.
17. Define concurrent force system .
18. Write the Equilibrium equations for concurrent force system in space.
19. Write the equilibrium equations for a body in space.

UNIT-3

1. Distinguish between cone pulley and loose pulley drive.

2. Define centrifugal tension of belt drive.
3. Angle of friction
4. Limiting friction
5. Cone of friction
6. State laws of friction
7. Distinguish between initial tension and centrifugal tension in a belt

UNIT-4 & 5
1. Moment of inertia
2. Polar moment of inertia
3. Product of inertia
4. Differentiate between centroid and center of gravity.
5. Define radius of gyration.
6. State and prove second theorem of pappus
7. What are the applications of theorems of pappus?
8. State and prove parallel axis theorem

156
9. Under what situation centre of gravity is coincident with centroid of volume.
10. State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
11. Define static friction, limiting friction, Kinetic friction.
12. Define angle of friction
13. Explain Laws of friction?
14. Explain cone of friction?
1) Define centroids and center of gravity?
2) Determine the centroid of the arc of a circle and semicircle?
3) Determine the centriod of the area of a triangle?
4) Determine the centriod of the area of a circular sector and sector of a semicirle?
5) Determine the centriod of the area of a area of a parabolic segment?
6) State and explain the pappus theorems?
7) Determine the centorid of the surface of a right circular cone of altitude ‘h’?
8) Determine the centorid of the volume of a right circular cone of altitude ‘h’?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

UNIT-1
RESULTANT OF FORCES

1. (a) Two forces are acting at a point O as shown in figure. Determine the resultant in magnitude
and direction of the force.

2. (a) A ball of weight Q = 12 N rests in a right - angled trough, as shown in figure. Determine the
forces exerted on the sides of the trough at D and E if all surfaces are perfectly smooth.

(b) A pulley A is supported by two bars AB and AC which are hinged at points B and C to a
vertical mast EF as shown in figure. Over the pulley hangs a flexible cable DG which is
157
 fastened to the mast at D and carries at the other end G a load Q = 20 kN Neglecting friction
in the pulley, determine the forces produced in the bars AB and AC. The angles between the
various members are as shown in the figure

4) Ball of weight W rests upon a smooth horizontal plane and has attached to its center two strings
AB and AC which pass over friction less pullies at B and C and carry loads P and Q, respectively,
as shown in the figure. If the string AB is horizontal, find the angle α that the string AC makes with
the horizontal when the ball is in a position of equilibrium. Also find the pressure R between the
ball and the plane.

5. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant R of four concurrent forces acting as shown in
figure.

158
6. Two smooth spheres, each of radius r and weight Q, rest in a horizontal channel having vertical
walls, the distance between which is 90 cm. Find the pressures exerted on the walls and floor at
the points of contact A, B and D. The following numerical data are given: r =25cm, Q =100N.

7) If the X component is as shown in figure of P is 893 N, determine P and its Y component.

8. Determine tension in cable and horizontal and vertical component of reactions at pin A. The
pulley P is frictionless as shown in figure

10. Three bars lying in one plane hinged at their ends are shown in figure. They are subjected to
force P and Q applied at B and C. If P = 100 N, determine the value of force a necessary to keep
the system of bars in equilibrium.

159
11. (a) The hook shown in figure is connected to three cables. What is the resultant force on the
hook?

(b) body is subjected to a force F as shown in figure. If x component of force is 600 N, find the
component perpendicular to the plane.

12. A vertical mast CE in supported in a ball and socket joint at C by cables BD and AE as shown
in figure 2.

Find components of reaction at C. N

160
13. Find resultant of given system of forces as shown in figure

14. A load of 60kN is to be resisted by means of a shear leg arrangement as shown in figure.
Determine forces in legs AB, AC and rope AD.

15. Two smooth cylinders of 3 m diameter and 100 N weight are separated by a chord of 4m long.
They support another smooth cylinder of diameter 3m and 200N weight as shown in figure.
Find the tension in the chord.

16. Knowing that the particle A shown in figure is in equilibrium under the action of forces P 1 =
350 N, P2, P3 = 225N and P4 = 375N. Find the magnitudes of P2 and direction θ of P4.

161
17. Two identical rollers, each of weight 100 N, are supported by an inclined plane and a vertical
wall as shown in figure below. Assuming smooth surfaces, find the reactions induced at the
points of support A, B and C.

18. A smooth circular cylinder of weight Q and radius r is supported by two semicircular cylinders
each of the same radius r and weight Q/2, as shown in Figure. If the coefficient of static friction
between the flat faces of the semicircular cylinders and the horizontal plane on which they rest
is μ = 0.5 and friction between the cylinders themselves is neglected, determine the maximum
distance b between the centers B and C for which equilibrium will be possible without the
middle cylinder touching the horizontal plane.

19. Determine the resultant of the three forces acting on the dam shown in the Figure and locate its
intersection with the base AB. For good design, the intersection should occur within the middle
third of the base. Does it.

20. Determine the amount and direction of smallest force P required to start the wheel over the
block. What is the reaction of the block as shown in figure?

21. A roller of radius r = 0.3 m. and weight Q = 2000 N is to be pulled over a curb of height h =
0.15 m. by a horizontal force P applied to the end of a string wound around the circumference
of the roller (Figure). Find the magnitude of P required to start the roller over the curb.

162
22. A vessel is pulled by two ropes as shown in figure 1. Obtain the resultant force applied on the
vessel if the tension on each rope is 1000 N.

23) Determine the Resultant of four forces acting on a body shown in figure also determine its
direction and indicate it by a diagram.

24) The block shown in fig is acted on by its weight W = 400N,a horizontal force F = 600N and the
pressure ‘P’ exerted by the inclined plane. The Resultant ‘R’ of these forces is parallel to the
incline. Determine P and R.Does the block moves up or down to the incline?

25) In shown fig find the y coordinate of the point A so that the 361N force will have a clockwise
moment of 400N-m about ‘o’.also determine the Y intercept of the action line of force.

163
26) In shown fig the force ’ F’ passing through ‘C ‘produces a clockwise moment of 600Nm about
‘A’ and a counter clockwise moment of 300Nm about ‘B’.Determine the moment of ‘F’
about ‘O’.

27) A plate subjected to coplanar force system as shown in fig. The inscribed grid with each square
having a length of 1mt locates each force and its slope.Determine the resultant and its x and y
intercepts.

28) Fig shows a plate subjected to loads. Replace the loads by an equalent force through ‘C’ and a
couple acting through ‘A’ and ‘B’.solve if the forces of the couple are
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical

29) The beam AB in shown fig supports a load which varies uniformly from an intensity of 60N/mt
to 180N/mt.Calculate the position of the resultant load.

164
30) The resultant of four forces which three are shown in fig is 390N acting down to the right with
a slope of 5 to 12 through point ‘A’. if P = 150N and F = 130N Determine the missing force T
and its x intercept.

31) Determine the amount and position of the resultant of the loads acting on the truss shown in
below figure ?

32) Determine the resultant of three forces acting on the dam shown in fig and locates its
interception with base AB for good design the interception should occur within the middle
third of the base. Does it?

UNIT-2
Equilibrium of Forces

1) The 300N sphere in shown figure supported by the pull P and a 200 N weight passing over a
frictionless pulley. If =30o, determine the values of P and .

165
2) In shown figure if P is known to be 160 N, determine the values of and that maintain
equilibrium.

3) Determine the Normal reaction and angle for the cylinder shown in above figure.

4) Determine angle and the normal reaction between the Cylinder and the smooth inclined
surface which is at an angle 15o to the horizontal shown in below figure.

5) Determine the amount and direction of the smallest force P required to start the wheel over the
block. What is the reaction at the block?

166
6) Three cylinders are piled in a rectangular ditch as shown in fig. Neglecting the friction
determine the reaction between the cylinder and the vertical wall.

7) Two beams supported as shown in fig and separated by a roller at C, Jointly carry the indicated
loads. On CD, the load varies uniformly from an intensity of 100N/mt to 200N/mt, while AB
supports a concentrated load of 500N.Dtermine the values of the Reactions at A,B,C &D.

8) A 12Mt bar of negligible weight rests in a horizontal position on the smooth inclines in shown
fig. Determine the distance x at which the load T = 100N should be placed from point B to
keep the bar horizontal.

167
9) Find the distance x measured along AB at which a horizontal force 60N should be applied to
hold the uniform bar AB in the position shown in fig. Bar AB 10Mt long and weighs 140N.The
incline and the floor are smooth.

10) Bar AB Negligible weight is subjected to a vertical force of 600N and a horizontal force of
300N applied as shown in fig. Find the angle at which equilibrium exists.

11) The weight of the trapezoidal block is 7200N acting as shown in fig.The ground reaction varies
uniformly from an intensity of PA N/mt at A to PB N/mt at B.Determine PA and PB?

12) A Frame ABC is pin jointed at B and external force 1000N is applied horizontally as shown in
fig. Dtermine the force exerted in bar AB and AC.

168
13) A circular roller of weight 1000N and Diameter 40cm hangs by a tie rod AB = 40cm and rest
against a smooth vertical wall as shown in fig. Determine the tension in the rod and reaction
with the vertical wall.

14) A roller of 1000N rests on a smooth inclined plane. It is prevented from rolling down to the
plane by a string AC as shown in fig. Determine the tension in the string and reaction with the
inclined surface.

15) A cylinder of weight 100N in resting on smooth inclined surfaces which are 300 and 600 to the
horizontal as shown in fig. Determine the reactions at all contact surfaces.

16) Two identical rollers each weight 100N are supported by an inclined plane and a vertical wall
as shown in fig. Assuming the smooth surfaces and determine the reactions at all contact
surfaces.

169
17) Two cylinders each of diameter 100mm and each weighing 200N are placed as shown in fig.
Assuming the contact surfaces are smooth. Determine the reactions at all contact surfaces.

18) Two spheres A and B each weighing 500N and 200N respectively are placed as shown in fig.
The radius of A and B are 250mm and 200mm respectively.

UNIT-3

FRICTION

1) Find the least horizontal force P to start the motion of any part of the system of three blocks
resting up on one another as shown in fig. The weights of the blocks are WA = 300 N, WB =
100 N ,WC = 200 N. Between A and B = 0.30, Between B and C = 0.20, Between C
and Ground = 0.10

170
2) Bodies A and B are joined by a cord parallel to the inclined plane as shown in fig. Under body
A which weighs 200 N, A=0.20, while B = 0.50 under body B which weighs 300 N.
Determine the angle at which motion impends. What is the tension in the cord?

3) Find the least value of P that will just start the system of blocks shown in fig moving to the
right. The co-efficient of friction under each block is 0.30

4) The homogeneous block of weight W rests upon an inclined plane shown in fig. If the co-
efficient of friction is 0.30, Dtermine the greatest height h at which a force P parallel to the
incline may be applied so that the block will slide up the incline without tipping over?

5) The 100 N cylinder shown in fig is held at rest by a weight P suspended from a cord wrapped
around the cylinder. If slipping impends between the cylinder and incline, Determine P and the
co-efficient of friction.

171
6) Block A in shown fig weighs 120 N ,Block B weighs 200 N and the cord is parallel to the
incline. If the co-efficient of friction for all contact surfaces in contact is 0.25, Determine the
angle of the incline for which motion impends.?

7) The bodies shown in fig are separated by a uniform strut weighing 100 N which is attached to
the bodies with frictionless pins. The co-efficient of friction under each body is 0.30. Determine
the value of the horizontal force P that will start the system right ward.

8) In shown fig two blocks are separated by a uniform strut attached to each block with friction
less pins. Block A weighs 400 N ,Block B weighs 300 N and the strut AB weighs 200 N. If =
0.25 under B, Determine the minimum coefficient of friction under to prevent motion.

172
9) A horizontal bar of 10mt long and of negligible weight, rests on rough inclined plane as shown
in fig. If the angle of friction is 15o, how close to B may the 200 N force be applied before
motion impends?

10) A Uniform plank of weight W and total length 2L is placed as shown in fig. The angle of
friction is 15o.Dtermine the value of the angle at which slipping impends?

11) A plank of 12mt long and negligible weight is supported and carries the horizontal and vertical
loads as shown in fig. The coefficient of friction is 0.30.If T = 300N determine the value of P to
start motion downward?

12) A homogeneous cylinder 3mt in diameter and weighing 400N is resting on two rough inclined
surfaces as shown in fig. If the angle of friction is 15o find the couple C applied to the cylinder
that will start it rotating clockwise.?

173
LADDER FRICTION
13) A uniform Ladder of length L and weight W is placed with one end on the ground and the other
end against a vertical wall. The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 20o.Find the
minimum angle at which the ladder can be inclined with the horizontal before slipping occurs.
14) A uniform ladder 0.6mt long and weighs 40N.It is so placed against a vertical wall at an angle
60o with the ground. How far along the ladder can a 160N man climb before the ladder is on the
verge of slipping? The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 15o?
WEDGE FRICTION
15) What force P must be applied to weightless wedges shown in fig to start them under the 1000N
block? The angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 10o?

16) As shown in fig two blocks each weighing 200N are to be pushed apart by a 30 o wedge. The
angle of friction is 15o for all contact surfaces. what value of P is required to start movement of
the blocks?

17) Determine the force P Required to start the wedge shown in fig. The angle of friction for all
contact surfaces is 15o?

174
18) Determine the horizontal force P in shown fig to start the 400N wedge moving to the right. The
angle of friction for all contact surfaces is 20o?

175
UNIT-IV
CENTROIDS AND CENTERS OF GRAVITY

1) A slender homogeneous wire of uniform cross section is bent in to the form shown in fig.
Determine the position of the centroid of the wire with respect to the given axis.?

2) A slender homogeneous wire of uniform cross section is bent in to the form shown in fig.
Determine the position of the centroid of the wire with respect to the given axis.?
176
3) A slender homogeneous wire of uniform cross section is bent in to the form shown in fig.
Determine the position of the centroid of the wire with respect to the given axis.?

4) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

5) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

6) The surface of a plate of uniform thickness is given by the shaded area in fig. If the plate is
suspended from a hinge at A what angle will line AB makes with the vertical?

177
7) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

8) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

9) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

10) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

178
11) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?

12) In order to fully utilize the different values of the compressive stress SC and tensile stress ST in
a cast iron beam, it is desirable to locate the centroidal axis so that the ratio of its distance to the
top of a section to its distance to the bottom equals SC/ST. Using the section shown in fig find
the dimension B to satisfy this criterion if SC/ST = 3.?

13) For the shaded area shown in fig find the length a so that the centorid is at ‘O’?

14) Determine the position of the centroid of the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the given
X and Y axis. ?
179
Pappus theorems problems

15) The shaded area shown in fig is composed of a second degree parabola and a semicircle.
Determine the volume generated by rotating the area through one revolution about X-X axis and
Y-Y axis?

16) Determine the total volume generated for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the
indicated X-X axis and Y-Y axis?

17) Determine the total volume generated for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to the
indicated X-X axis and Y-Y axis?

18) The rim of a V belt drive pulley has the cross section shown in fig. If the rim made of steel
weighing 7860kg/m3 determine the weight of the rim?

180
181
UNIT-V
MOMENT OF INERTIA

182
1) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated X and Y axis?

2) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated horizontal X
axis?

3) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated X and Y axis?

4) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the indicated Horizontal X
axis?

5) Determine the distance d at which the two 20mm by 60mm rectangles shown in fig should be
spaced so that Ix = Iy

183
6) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the centroidal axis?

7) Determine the moment of inertia for the shaded area with respect to the centroidal axis?

PRODUCT OF INERTIA

7) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated
X and Y axis?

184
8) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

9) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

10) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X
and Y axis?

185
 11) Determine the product of inertia for the shaded area shown in fig with respect to indicated X and
Y axis?

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. _____ is the region which extends in all directions and contains everything in it.

2. ______ is measure of duration between successive event.

3. _______ is the quantity of matter contained in a body.

4. A physical quantity which requires only magnitude for its complete description is known as _

5. ____ is a matter having considerable mass but negligible dimension.

6. Mechanics is the branch of _________

(a) Physics (b) chemistry (c) Biology (d) Sociology

7. Mechanics of rigid body is the study of _____________

(a) Strength material (b) Theory of plasticity (c) Theory of elasticity (d) statics and dynamics

8. Study of effect of force system acting on particle or rigid body at rest is called as _______

(a) Dynamics (b) Kinematics (c) Statics (d) Kinetics

9. Study of geometry of motion with reference to the cause of motion means__________

186
(a) Statics (b) Kinematics (c) Kinetics (d) Strength of material

10. The relation F = ma is based on _______

(a) Newton’s 1st law (b) Newton’s 2nd law (c) Newton’s 3rd law (d) D’Alembert principle

11. Any object whose dimensions if not involved in analysis then it is assumed as ______

(a) Rigid body (b) deformable body (c) plastic body (d) particle

12. Principle of transmissibility of force if used_________ effect remains unchanged.

(a) Internal (b) external (c) internal and external (d) None of the above

13. The process of splitting the force into components having same effect is called as _______

(a) Composition of force (b) vector addition of force(c) resolution of force (d) decomposition of
force

14. A turning effect produced by force about a point is called as____________

(a) Moment of couple (b) Moment of torque (c) Moment of force (d) Moment of inertia

15. Couple is a _____ vector.

(a) Sliding (b) fixed (c) null (d) free

16. ______ and _______are equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and collinear in action.

17. Coplanar parallel forces are further sub grouped into__________parallel forces and ___ parallel
forces.

18. As per the right-hand- thumb rule sign convention anticlockwise moment is taken as _____ and
clockwise moment is taken as ___________

19. If the resultant of number of parallel forces is not zero, then the system can reduced to a
_______ force.

20. If the resultant of number of parallel forces is zero, then the system may have a resultant
_______ or may be in _________

21. A single force which replaces the given force system having same effect is called _______

(a) Equilibrant (b) resultant (c) resistant (d) equivalent

22. Concurrent force system means________________

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(a) Many forces passing through single point (b) Many forces passing through many points

(c) Single forces passing through single point (d) none of the above

23. Force is completely defined by its______________

(a) Magnitude (b) direction (c) point of application (d) all of these

24. In concurrent force system if resultant is horizontal then_______________

(a) ∑ Fx =0 (b) ∑ Fy =0 (c) ∑ M =0 (d) R = 0

25. For finding resultant of two concurrent forces one can use _______________

(a) Lami’s theorem (b) Varignon’s theorem (c) parallelogram law (d) Newton’s law

26. “The moment of resultant of all the forces in a plane about any point is equal to the algebraic
sum of moment of all the forces about the same point” is called the _____________

(a) Parallelogram law (b) Triangle law (c) Lami’s theorem (d) Varignon’s theorem

27. Position of resultant force in parallel force system is possible to determine by________

(a) Varignon’s theorem (b) Lami’s theorem (c) Newton’s law (d) Polygon theorem

28. If the resultant of parallel force system is both a single resultant force (R) and a single resultant
couple (M) then the system is said to perform______________

(a) Translation motion (b) rotational motion (c) plane motion (d) none of these

29. For finding resultant of general force system we use ____________ equation/s.

(a) One (b) two (c) three (d) four

30. If a system is in equilibrium and acted by two forces, then these two forces must be ______ in
magnitude, _________ in direction and collinear in action.

31. If three concurrent force system is in equilibrium, them the resultant of two forces should be
_____ and _________ to the third force.

32. Full form of UDL is ____________ and UVL is __________________

33. Fixed support is also named as ______________ support.

34. Tensile force of a straight member in F.B.D is represented by drawing an arrow___________

from joint or body.
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35. When the resultant of force system acting on a body is zero, the body is said to be in ______

(a) Rotating condition (b) translation condition(c) equilibrium condition (d) dynamic condition

36. Free body diagram represents ________________

(a) Active forces (b) Reactive forces (c) Geometrical dimensions (d) All of these

37. Principle of transmissibility is used to represent ___________ effect.

(a) Internal (b) external (c) internal and external (d) None of the above

38. Number of component of reaction at hinge support are __________________

(a) Zero (b) one (c) two (d) three

39. In F.B.D. a cable is always represented by____________________

(a) Spring (b) Compressive (c) tensile (d) normal

40. Freely sliding guide or collar is of ____________ category support.

(a) Fixed (b) hinge (c) roller (d) welded

41. Types of distributed load are __________

(a) Point load (b) uniformly distributed load (c) uniformly varying load (d) both (b) and (c)

42. “If three concurrent coplanar forces acting on a body having same nature are in equilibrium,
then each force is proportional to the sine of angle inclined between the other two forces”. This
is called_____________

(a) Newton’s law (b) parallelogram law (c) Varignon’s theorem (d) Lami’s theorem

43. If a member is connected to other member at its extreme end by pin and no external force or
couple is acting in between its end point then such member is identified as a _____member

(a) one-force (b) two-force (c) three-force (d) four-three

44. The tension on both side of cord for frictionless and massless pulley are___________

(a) Same (b) different (c) infinite (d) zero

45. Mass moment of inertia of a body is always [ ]
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. None of the above

189
46. The C.G. of a thin hollow right circular cone lies on the axis at a height of [ ]
A. Half of total height B. One third of total height
C. One fourth of total height D. None of the above
47. Mass moment of inertia of solid sphere of mass M and radius R is [ ]
A. 2MR2/5 B. 2MR2/7 C. 2MR2/9 D. 2MR2/11
48. Moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through
Its base (b = width at base and height = h) is [ ]
A. bh3/12 B. bh3/32 C. bh2/36 D. None of the above
49. The C.G. of solid right circular cone lies on the axis at a height [ ]
A. half of total height above base
B. one third of total height above base
C. one fourth of total height above base
D. none of the above
50. The point through which the whole weight of body acts is [ ]
A. center of gravity B. area moment of inertia
C. polar moment of inertia D. None of the above
51. Unit of mass moment of inertia is [ ]
A. Kg.m2 B. m4 C. Kg.m D. none of the above
52. Which of the following represents perpendicular axis theorem. (Generally) [ ]
A. Ix=Iy+Iz B. Iz=Ix+Iy C. Iy=Iz+Ix D. Iz=Ix-Iy
53. If first moment wrt any axis is zero, then the axis must be [ ]
A. centroidal axis B. co-ordinate axis
C. both a and b D. none of the above

54. Volumes of revolution is generated by revolving ______________ about

Fixed non intersecting axis [ ]

190
 A. line B. area C. volume D. none of the above
55. If an area has an axis of symmertry then [ ]
A. it first moment about the axis is zero B. its centroid lies on the axis
C. both (a) and (b) D. None of the above
56. The x or y co-ordinate of the centroid of a quarter circle are of radius r is [ ]
A. 4r/3 B. 3r/ C. 2r/ D. r/
13. The centre of gravity of a right circular cone of dia d and height h lies at a distance of
______________ from the base measured along the vertical radius [ ]
A. h/2 B. h/3 C. h/4 D. h/6
57. Moment of inertia of a semi circular area of radius R about a centroidal
axis parallel to it is [ ]
A. 0.11R4 B. 0.055R4 C. 0.66R4 D. 0.33R4
58. The unit of area moment of intertia is [ ]
A. m4 B. kgm2 C. kgm3 D. kgm
59. The mass moment inertia of circular disc with mass m and radius r
about any axis is [ ]
A. mr/4 B. mr2/4 C. mr3/4 D. mr4/4
60. The term centre of gravity applies to bodies with ______________ [ ]
A. Mass and weight B. Plane areas
C. Density D. None
61. The centroid of a triangle is at a distance ______________ from the base of the
triangle when ‘h’ is height of triangle [ ]
A. h/2 B. h/3 C. 2h/3 D. 4h/3
62. Polar moment of inertia of the circular area with respect to its center is [ ]
A. d4/64 B. d4/32 C. r4/64 D. r4/32
63. Which of the following represents perpendicular axis theorem [ ]
A. Ix=Iy+Iz B. Iy=Ix+Iy C. Iz=Ix+Iy D. Iz=Ix-Iy
64. Examples of body revolution is [ ]
191
 A. Sphere B. Cone C. Torus D. All of the above
65. Mass moment of inertia of solid sphere is [ ]
A. mr2/5 B. 2mr2/5 C. 3mr2/5 D. mr2/10
66. Moment of inertia of plane circular area of radius R about centroidal axis [ ]
A. 0.11R4 B. 0.33R4 C. 0.66 R4 D. 0.22 R4
67. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as [ ]
A. rolling friction B. dynamic friction
C. limiting friction D. static friction
25. coefficient of friction ( ) is equal to [ ]
A. = sin B. = cos C. = tan D. =
68. Routh’s rule is used for obtaining _____________________
69. Product of inertia of quarter circle of radius ‘r’ about its base line is ________________
70. The point through which the whole weight of body acts is ________________
71. Volumes of revolution is generated by revolving ________________ about fixed non
intersecting axis
72. The center of gravity of a semi circular are is at the central radius at a distance of _______.
73. The center of gravity of a thin hollow right circular cone lies on the axis at a height
________________
74. The C.G. of a uniform rod lies at its _____________________
75. The C.G. of a circle lies at its ________________
76. Moment of inertia of circular sectio of diameter ‘d’ is ________________
77. Moment of inertia of triangula section of base ‘b’ and height ‘h’ about an axis passing through
its C.G. and parallel to the base is ________________
78. Mass moment of inertia of a sphere about centroidal axis XX is __________________.
79. The C.G. of hollow pyramid lies on the central axis above base at a distance of _________
80. Centroidal distance between centroid and centroidal axes is __________________.
81. The plane figure have only area, but no mass, the centre of area of such figures is known as
_____________________

192
82. The _____________________ generated by rotating any plane curve about a non intersecting
axis in its plane is equal to the product of the length of the curve and the distance traveled by its
centroid.
83. The product of area and the square of the distance of the centre of gravity of the area from an
axis perpendicular to the plane of the area is known as ________________
84. The first moment of area is used to determine ________________ of the area
85. _____________ is the name given to the axis passing through the centroid
86. The other name of moment of inertia is ________________
87. The theorems of Pappus are very useful in calculating the surface area and volumes of various
bodies of _____________________
88. Units of mass moment of inertia _____________________
89. The term second moment of area is also known as ________________
90. Centroid of the circle is also its _____________________
91. _____________ is the distance which when squared and multiplied with total mass of the
body gives mass moment of inertia.
92. Center of gravity of right circular cone from its base where ‘h’ is height________________
93. Moment of inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane of an area is known as
________________
94. Product of inertia is given by _________________________
95. Product of inertia through the centroidal axis for a rectangle is ______________________
96. Product of inertia through the centroidal axis for a circle is ______________________
97. Product of inertia is through the centroidal axis for a quarter circle is _________________

Engineering Graphics
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
Unit –I
1. The distance of the focus from the directrix is 50mm. Construct a Parabola, draw a normal
and tangent at a point 30mm from the axis.
2. The distance of the focus from the directrix is 50mm and eccentricity e = 3/2. Construct a
hyperbola, draw a normal and tangent at any point.
3. Draw two branches of hyperbola keeping the distances between the foci as 120mm and
distances between the vertices as 80mm. Locate asymptotes and determine the included
193
 angle. Also draw the directrix of the hyperbola and Normal and Tangent at any point on the
curve.
4. A circle of 50mm diameter rolls along a straight line, half revolution horizontal and half
revolution vertical. Draw the curve traced out by a point ‘P’ on the circumference, for one
complete revolution of the circle. Consider the point ‘P’ on the top of the circle initially.
5. A circle of 50mm diameter rolls along a straight line, half revolution horizontal and half
revolution vertical. Draw the curve traced out by a point ‘P’ on the circumference, for one
complete revolution of the circle. Consider the point ‘P’ on the bottom of the circle initially.
6. An area of a 144Sq cm on a map represents an area of 36 Sq km on the field. Find the R.F
of the scale for this map and draw a plain scale to show kilometers and hectometers and to
measure up to 10kilometers.indiacte on the scale a distance of 7.5 km.
7. A Room of 1728 m3 volume is shown by a cube of 216cm3 volume. Find R.F and construct a
plain scale to measure up 42 m. Mark a Distance of 34m on the scale.
8. Draw comparative scales of R.F = 1/485000 to read up to 80 kilometers and 80 versts.1verst
= 1.067 km and compare a length of 30 km with versts scale.) Draw a scale of 1:60 to show
meters and decimeters and long enough to measure upto 6 meters and show a length of 4.7m
on it.
9. An area of a 144Sq cm on a map represents an area of 36 Sq km on the field. Find the R.F
of the scale for this map and draw a plain scale to show kilometers and hectometers and to
measure up to 10kilometers.indiacte on the scale a distance of 7.5 km.
10. A point P is 30mm and 50mm respectively from two straight lines which are at right angles
to each other. Draw a rectangular hyperbola from p with in 10mm distance from each line.
11. A ball thrown up in the air reaches a maximum height of 45 meters and travels a horizontal
distance of 75 meters. Trace the path of the ball assuming it to be parabolic.

UNIT – II
1. State the quadrants in which the following points are situated.

a) P, its top view is 40mm above xy, the front view is 20mm below the top view.
b) Q, its projections coincide with each other 40mm below xy.
2. A point P is 15mm above HP and 20mm infront of VP. Another point Q is 25mm behind the
VP and 40mm below the HP. Draw the projections of P & Q keeping the distance between
their projectors equal to 90mm. Draw the straight lines joining their top views and their front
views.

3. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to V.P and inclined at 30° to H.P, Its one end A is 20mm
above H.P & the line is 30mm in front of V.P. Draw its projections and determines its
traces.

4. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to H.P and inclined at 30° to V.P, Its one end A is 30mm in
front of V.P & the line is 20mm above H.P. Draw its projections and determines its traces.

5. A 100mm long line is parallel to and 40mm above H.P, its two ends are 25mm and 50mm in
front of V.P respectively. Draw its Projections and determine its inclination with the V.P.
194
 6. A line PQ 75mm long has its end P in the VP and the end Q in the HP. The line is inclined at
30° to the HP and at 60° to the VP. Draw its projections.

7. A line PQ 100mm long is inclined at 30°to the HP and at 45° to the VP. Its mid-point is in
the VP and 20mm above the HP. Draw its projections, if its end P is in the third quadrant
and Q is in the first quadrant.

8. The top view of a 75mm long line AB measures 65mm, while the length of its front view is
50mm. Its one end A is in the HP and 12mm in front of the VP. Draw the projections of AB
and determine its inclinations with the HP and VP.

9. A line AB, 65mm long, has its end A 20mm above the HP and 25mm in front of the VP.
The end B is 40mm above the HP and 65mm in front of the VP. Draw the projections of AB
and show its inclinations with the HP and the VP.

10. The front view of a line AB measures 65mm and makes an angle of 45° with the XY. A is in
the HP and the VT of the line is 15mm below the HP. The line is inclined at 30° to the VP.
Draw the projections of AB and find its true length and inclination with the HP, also locate
HT.

11. The top view of a 75mm long line CD measures 50mm, C is 50mm in front of V.P and
15mm below the H.P.D is 15mm in front of V.P and above H.P. Draw the front view of CD
and find its inclination with H.P and V.P. Show also its traces.

UNIT – III
1. A square ABCD of 50mm side has its corner A in the HP, its diagonal AC inclined at 30°to
HP and the diagonal BD is inclined at 45° to the VP and parallel to the HP. Draw its
projections.

2. A thin 30°-60° set- square has its longest edge in the VP and inclined at 30° to the HP. Its
surface makes an angle of 45° with the VP. Draw its projections.

3. Draw the projections of the regular pentagon of 40mm side, having its surface inclined at
30° to the HP and a side parallel to the HP and inclined at an angle of 60° to the VP.

4. A semi-circular plate of 80mm diameter has its straight edge in the VP and inclined at 45° to
the HP. the surface of the plate makes an angle of 30° with the VP. Draw its projections.

5. Draw the projections of a circle of 75mm diameter having the end A of the diameter AB in
the HP, the end B is in the VP and the surface inclined at 30° to the HP and at 60° to the
VP.

195
 6. Draw the projections of a circle of 50mm diameter resting in the HP on a point A on the
circumference , its plane inclined at 45° to the HP and
(a) The top view of the diameter AB making 30° angle with the VP.
(b) The diameter AB making 30° angle with the VP.

7. A circular plate of negligible thickness and 50mm diameter appears as an ellipse in the front
view, having its major axis 50mm long and minor axis 30mm long. Draw its top view when
the major axis of the ellipse is horizontal.

8. A thin rectangular plate of sides 60mm *30mm has its shorter side in the VP and inclined at
30° to the HP. Project its top view if its front view is a square of 30mm long sides.

9. A plate having a shape of an isosceles triangle has base 50mm long and altitude 70mm. it is
so placed that in the front view it is seen as an equilateral triangle of 50mm sides and one
side inclined at 45° to the XY. Draw its top view.
10. Draw the projections of a pentagonal prism, base 25mm side and axis 50mm long, resting on
one of its rectangular faces on the HP, with the axis inclined at 45° to the VP.
11. Draw the projections of the cylinder 75mm diameter and 100mm long, lying on the ground
with its axis inclined at 30° to the VP and parallel to the ground.
12. A hexagonal pyramid, base 25mm side and axis 50mm long, has an edge of its base on the
ground. Its axis is inclined at 30° to the ground and parallel to the VP. Draw its projections.
13. Draw the projections of a cone, base 75mm diameter and axis 100mm long, lying on the HP
on one of its generators with the axis parallel to VP.

UNIT – IV

1 a) A cone base diameter 50 mm axis height 60 mm long.

b) A pentagonalphyramid base edge 30 mm axis height 60 mm long.
c) A hexagonal prism base edge 30 mm axis edge 60 mm
d) A cylinder base dia 50 mm axis height 60 mm long
Draw isometric view (or) isometric projection.
a) When the axis as a vertical in position
b) When the axis as a Horizontal in position.
2 A frustum of cone base dia 50 mm axis height 60 mm long and top dia 30 mm, A sphere
having radius 10 mm located centrally one and the above, draw isometric view (or)
isometric projection for the given solids.
3 A frustum of square pyramid base edge 50 mm axis height 60 mm long top edge 30 mm, a
sphere having radius 10 mm located centrally one and the above.
Draw isometric view (or) isometric projection of given solids.

196
4 A square prism base edge 70 mm axis height 60 mm long, a frustum of cone base dia 50
mm axis height 6 mm long top dia 30 mm, asphere having radius 10 mm located centrally
one and the above. Draw isometric view, isometric projection for the given solids.
5 A cylinder of base dia 70 mm axis height 60 mm long, a frustum of a square pyramid base
edge 50 mm, axis height 60 mm long Top edge 30 mm a sphere having radius 10 mm
located centrally one and the above. Draw isometric view (or) isometric projection for the
given solids.

UNIT – V

1) Draw the isometric view for the given orthogonal views as shown in figure 1. All
dimensions are in mm.

2) Draw the elevation, plan and side view of the picture shown in the figure 2. All dimensions
are in mm

197
3) Draw the isometric view of the object whose orthographic projections are given in figure 1.
All dimensions are in mm.

4) Draw the front view, top view and side view for the picture shown in figure 2. All
dimensions are in mm.

5) Draw the isometric view of the given figure 1. All dimensions are in mm

198
 6) Draw the following figure 2. All dimensions are in mm
i)front view ii) top view iii) side view.

7) Draw the isometric view of the object whose orthographic projections as shown in figure 1.
All dimensions are in mm.

199
8) Draw the following as shown in figure 2:
i) Front view ii) Side view iii) Top view

.
9) Draw the elevation, top view and side view of the object shown in figure. All dimensions are
in mm.

200
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
UNIT – I
1) Draw the different lines used in engineering practice?\
2) Explain the different dimensioning methods used in engg drawing?
3) Define the term cycloid, Epi-cycloid, Hypo cycloid?
4) Define the term R.F? Mention its value for different scales?
5) Draw the regular polygons for the given side ode of 30mm by the general method?
6) Construct regular pentagon by the inscribing circle method when the diameter of
the circle is 50mm?
UNIT –II
1) Draw the symbolic representation for 1st angle projection and 3rd angle projection?
2) Define the term trace?

UNIT –III
1) Define the term oblique plane?
2) Mention different types of solids and give examples?
3) Define the term frustum and truncated of a solid and explain with neat sketches?
4) Explain the solids of revolution? Give examples.

UNIT –IV
1) Define the term isometric scale?
2) Define the term isometric lines and isometric planes?
3) Define the tern isometric axis?
4) Differentiate between the isometric view and isometric projection?

UNIT –V
1) What are the applications of transformations of projections?

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Unit - I
UNIT - I
Conical Curves
1. A Fixed point is 75mm from a fixed straight line. Draw the Locus of a point ‘P’ moving in such
a way that its distance from the fixed straight line is Twice its distance from a fixed point. Name
the curve.

201
2. A Fixed point is 75mm from a fixed straight line. Draw the Locus of a point ‘P’ moving in such
a way that its distance from the fixed straight line is equals its distance from a fixed point. Name
the curve.
3. The vertex of a hyperbola is 65mm from its focus. Draw the curve if the Eccentricity is 3/2.
Draw a normal and tangent at a point on the curve 75mm from the directrix.
4. The distance of the focus from the directrix is 50mm and eccentricity e = 2/3. Construct an
ellipse; draw a normal and tangent at a point 60mm from the directrix.
5. The distance of the focus from the directrix is 50mm. Construct a Parabola, draw a normal and
tangent at a point 30mm from the axis.
6. The distance of the focus from the directrix is 50mm and eccentricity e = 3/2. Construct a
hyperbola, draw a normal and tangent at any point.
7. Draw two branches of hyperbola keeping the distances between the foci as 120mm and
distances between the vertices as 80mm. Locate asymptotes and determine the included angle.
Also draw the directrix of the hyperbola and Normal and Tangent at any point on the curve.
8. Draw the rectangular hyperbola for a given point ‘P’ which is located 40mm from X-axis,
50mm from y-axis.
9. Draw the rectangular hyperbola for a given point ‘P’ which is located 40mm from X-axis,
50mm from y-axis when the angle between the conjugate axes is 70°.

Cylindrical curves
1. A circle of 50mm Diameter rolls along a straight line with out slipping. Draw the curve traced
out by a point ‘P’ on the circumference, for one complete revolution of the circle. Name the
curve. Draw a normal and tangent to the curve at a point 40mm from the line.
2. A circle of 50mm diameter rolls along a straight line, half revolution horizontal and half
revolution vertical. Draw the curve traced out by a point ‘P’ on the circumference, for one
complete revolution of the circle. Consider the point ‘P’ on the top of the circle initially.
3. A circle of 50mm diameter rolls along a straight line, half revolution horizontal and half
revolution vertical. Draw the curve traced out by a point ‘P’ on the circumference, for one
complete revolution of the circle. Consider the point ‘P’ on the bottom of the circle initially.
4. A Circle of 50mm diameter rolls on the circumference of another circle of 175mm Diameter and
outside it. Trace the locus of a point on the circumference of the rolling circle for one complete
revolution. Name the curve. Draw a normal and tangent to the curve 125mm from the center of
the directing circle.
5. Construct a hypocycloid, rolling circle 50 mm diameters and directing circle 175mm diameter.
Draw a normal and tangent 50mm from the center of the directing circle.
6. Show by means of drawing that when the diameter of the directing circle is twice that of the
generating circle, the hypocycloid is a straight line. Take the diameter of the generating circle is
50mm.
7. Draw an involute curve of a circle of 40mm diameter. Also draw a normal and a tangent to it at
a point 100mm from the centre of the circle.
8. Draw an involute curve of a regular Hexagon of 30mm side. Draw a normal and tangent at any
point on the curve.
9. Draw a path traced out by an end of a piece of thread when unwound to a length of 150mm from
a circle of 40mm diameter, the thread being kept tight when it is being unwound. Name the
curve traced out. Draw a normal and tangent at any point on the curve.
202
10. A circus man rides on a motor cycle, inside a globe of 4 m diameter. The motor cycle wheel is 1
m in diameter. Draw the locus of a point on the circumference of the wheel of motor cycle for
its one complete turn on the maximum circular path and name the curve.
11. A point P is 30mm and 50mm respectively from two straight lines which are at right angles to
each other. Draw a rectangular hyperbola from p with in 10mm distance from each line.
12. A ball thrown up in the air reaches a maximum height of 45 meters and travels a horizontal
distance of 75 meters. Trace the path of the ball assuming it to be parabolic.
13. A circle having a 50 mm diameter rolls within a circle with a 150 mm diameter with internal
contact. Draw the locus of a point lying on the circumference of the rolling circle for its
complete turn. Name the curve. Also draw a tangent and a normal to the curve, at a point that is
40 mm from the centre of the bigger circle.
14. Construct two branches of a hyperbola when its transverse axis is 50 mm long and foci are 70
mm apart. Locate its directrix and determine the eccentricity.
15. Draw the path that would be traced by an end of the string, when it is unwound from the
circumference of the disc, which is in the form of a square having a 30 mm side surmounted by
semicircles on opposite sides.
16. A football kicked from ground reaches the ground travelling a horizontal distance of 35m.
Maximum height reached by the ball is 18m. Trace the path of the ball and name the curve.
17. The vertex of a hyperbola is 5cms from directrix. Draw the curve if the eccentric‘s is 3/2. Draw
the normal and tangent at a point 50mm from axis.
18. A circle of 30mm diameter rolls on the concave side of generating circle of radius 30mm. Draw
the path traced by a point on the generating circle for one complete revolution.
19. The focii of an ellipse are 80mm apart and the minor axis is 60mm. Draw the ellipse by ores of
circles method.
20. A circle of 40mm diameter rolls on a horizontal line for one complete revolution without
slipping. Trace the path of a point on the circumference of circle. Name the circle and draw
Normal and Tangent from a point 30mm from the center line.

Scales

1. A train is running at a speed of 40 km/hr. Construct a plane scale to read up to a km and a

minute. The scale should measure up to 50 km. The RF of the scale is 1:25000. On the scales
show the distance covered by the train in 39 minutes.
2. Draw a vernier scale of R.F=5 to read 1/5cm and 1/25cm and to measure up to 5cm.Mark on
the scale distances of 2.12cm.
3. The distance between two stations is 130km. a train covers this distance in 2.5 hours.
Construct a plain scale to measure time up to a single minute. The RF of the scale is
1:260000. Find the distance covered by the train in 45 minutes.
4. The actual length of 300m is represented by a line of 10cm on a drawing. Draw a vernier
scale to read up to 500m. Mark on it a length of 367m.
5. Construct a scale of 1:4to show centimeters and long enough to measure up to 5 decimeters
and show a length of 3.7dm on it.
6. Draw a scale of 1:60 to show meters and decimeters and long enough to measure up to 6

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 meters and show a length of 4.7m on it.
7. An area of a 144Sq cm on a map represents an area of 36 Sq km on the field. Find the R.F
of the scale for this map and draw a plain scale to show kilometers and hectometers and to
measure up to 10kilometers.indiacte on the scale a distance of 7.5 km.
8. A Room of 1728 m3 volume is shown by a cube of 216cm3 volume. Find R.F and construct a
plain scale to measure up 42 m. Mark a Distance of 34m on the scale.
9. Draw comparative scales of R.F = 1/485000 to read up to 80 kilometers and 80 versts.1verst
= 1.067 km and compare a length of 30 km with versts scale.
10. On a road map a distance of 25 miles is shown by a line of 10cm long. Construct a scale to
read miles and to measure up to 40miles.construct a comparative scale, attached to this scale
to read kilometers up to 60kilometers.1mile = 1.609km and compare a length of 30km with
miles scale.
11. The distance between Bombay and Poona is 180km.A passenger train covers this distance in
6 hours. Construct a comparative scale to measure time up to a single minute. The RF of the
scale is 1/200000.Find the distance covered by the train in 36min.
12. Construct a Diagonal scale of 3:200 showing meters, decimeters and centimeters to measure
up to 6 meters. show a length of 4.56mt on the scale.
13. Construct a Diagonal scale of R.F = 1/4000 to show meters and long enough to measure up
to 500 meters. Represent 359m on it.
14. Construct a Diagonal scale of 1:2.5 showing centimeters and millimeters and long enough to
measure up to20 centimeters. Represent 18.3cm on it.
15. An Area of 144sq cm on a map represents an area of 36 sq km on the field. Find the R.F of
the scale for this map to read kilometers, hectometers and decameters. Indicate on the scale a
distance of 7Kilometers, 5 Hectometers and 6Decameters, if maximum length is 10km.
16. Draw a vernier scale of R.F = 1/25 to read centimeters up to 4 meters and on it, show lengths
representing 2.39m and 0.91m.
17. The actual length of 500m is represented by a line of 15cm on a drawing. Construct a vernier
scale to read up to 600m.mark on the scale a length of 549m.
18. Construct an angles of 350,1250 by the use of scale of chords.

UNIT-II

Projection of Points
1. Draw the projections of the following points

a) A, in the HP and 20mm behind VP.

b) B, 40mm above HP and 25mm infront of VP.
c) C, in the VP and 40mm above HP.
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 d) D, 25mm below HP and 25mm behind VP.
e) E, 15mm above HP and 50mm behind VP.
f) F, 40mm below HP and 25mm infront of VP.
g) G, in both HP and VP.
2. A point P is 50mm from both the reference planes. Draw the projections in all possible
positions.

3. State the quadrants in which the following points are situated.

a) P, its top view is 40mm above xy, the front view is 20mm below the top view.
b) Q, its projections coincide with each other 40mm below xy.
4. A point P is 15mm above HP and 20mm infront of VP. Another point Q is 25mm behind the VP
and 40mm below the HP. Draw the projections of P & Q keeping the distance between their
projectors equal to 90mm. Draw the straight lines joining their top views and their front views.

5. Projections of various points are given in the below figure. State the position of each point wrt
the planes of projections and their distances in millimeters.

6. Two points A and B are in the H.P. The point A is 30mm in front of the V.P while B is behind
the V.P. The distance between their projectors is 75 mm and line joining their top views makes
an angle of 45° with XY. Find the distance of the point B with the V.P.

7. A point 30mm above xy line is the plan view of two points P and Q. The elevation of P is 45mm
above the HP. While that of the point Q is 35mm below the HP. Draw the projections of the
points and state their positions wrt principal planes and the quadrant in which they lie.

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Lines inclined to one plane
1. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to the H.P & V.P and the line AB is 20mm above H.P &
30mm in front of V.P. Draw the projections if the distance between projectors is 40mm for the
1st 5 problems.

2. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to the V.P and perpendicular to the H.P. Its one end is 20mm
above H.P & line is 30mm in front of V.P.

3. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to H.P & perpendicular to V.P. Its one end A is 30mm in front
of V.P and line is 20mm above H.P.

4. A 70mm long line AB is in the H.P and parallel to V.P and the line is 30mm in front of V.P.

5. A 70mm long line AB is in the V.P and parallel to H.P and the line is 20mm above H.P.

6. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to V.P and inclined at 30° to H.P, Its one end A is 20mm
above H.P & the line is 30mm in front of V.P. Draw its projections and determines its traces.

7. A 70mm long line AB is parallel to H.P and inclined at 30° to V.P, Its one end A is 30mm in
front of V.P & the line is 20mm above H.P. Draw its projections and determines its traces.

8. A 100mm long line is parallel to and 40mm above H.P, its two ends are 25mm and 50mm in
front of V.P respectively. Draw its Projections and determine its inclination with the V.P.

9. A 90mm long line is parallel to and 25mm in front of V.P, its one end is in the H.P while the
other is 50mm above H.P. Draw its projections and find its inclination with the H.P.

10. The top view of a 75mm long line measures 55mm. the line is in the V.P, its one end A is 25mm
above H.P. Draw its projections.

11. The front view of a line inclined at 30° to V.P is 65mm long. Draw projections of the line, when
it is parallel to and 40mm above H.P. Its one end A is 30mm in front of V.P

12. The vertical line AB, 75mm long has its end A in the H.P and 25mm in front of V.P. A line AC,
100 mm long, is in the H.P and parallel to V.P. Draw the projections of line joining B & C,
determine its inclination with the H.P.

13. Two pegs fixed on the wall are 4.5mts apart. The distance between the pegs is measured parallel
to the ground is 3.6mts. If one peg is 1.5mts above the floor; find the height of the second peg
and inclination of line joining the two pegs with the floor.

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Lines inclined to both the planes

1. A 70mm long line AB is inclined at 30° to the H.P and 45° to the V.P, its one end A is 10mm
above H.P and 25mm in front of V.P. Draw its projections and determine its traces.
2. A line AB, 50mm long has its end A in both the HP and VP. It is inclined at 30° to the HP and
at 45° to the VP. Draw its projections.
3. A line PQ 75mm long has its end P in the VP and the end Q in the HP. The line is inclined at
30° to the HP and at 60° to the VP. Draw its projections.
4. A line PQ 100mm long is inclined at 30°to the HP and at 45° to the VP. Its mid-point is in the
VP and 20mm above the HP. Draw its projections, if its end P is in the third quadrant and Q is
in the first quadrant.
5. The top view of a 75mm long line AB measures 65mm, while the length of its front view is
50mm. Its one end A is in the HP and 12mm in front of the VP. Draw the projections of AB and
determine its inclinations with the HP and VP.
6. A line AB, 65mm long, has its end A 20mm above the HP and 25mm in front of the VP. The
end B is 40mm above the HP and 65mm in front of the VP. Draw the projections of AB and
show its inclinations with the HP and the VP.
7. A line AB, 90mm long, is inclined at 45° to the HP and its top view makes an angle of 60° with
the VP. The end A is in the HP and 12mm in front of the VP. Draw its front view and find its
true inclination with the VP.
8. A line AB, 90mm long, is inclined at 30° to the HP. Its end A is 12mm above the HP and 20mm
in front of the VP. Its front view measures 65mm. Draw the top view of AB and determine its
inclination with the VP.
9. A line AB, inclined at 40° to the VP, has its ends 50mm and 20mm above the HP. The length of
its front view is 65mm and its VT is 10mm above the HP. determine the true length of AB, its
inclination with the HP ant its HT.
10. The projectors of the ends of a line AB are 5cm apart. The end A is 2cm above HP and 3cm in
front of the VP. The end B is 1cm below HP and 4cm behind the VP. Determine the true length
and traces of AB and its inclinations with the two planes.
11. The front view of a line AB measures 65mm and makes an angle of 45° with the XY. A is in the
HP and the VT of the line is 15mm below the HP. The line is inclined at 30° to the VP. Draw
the projections of AB and find its true length and inclination with the HP, also locate HT.
12. The top view of a 75mm long line CD measures 50mm, C is 50mm in front of V.P and 15mm
below the H.P.D is 15mm in front of V.P and above H.P. Draw the front view of CD and find its
inclination with H.P and V.P. Show also its traces.
13. The front view of a line AB measures 65mm and its top view measures 50mm. the distance
between the end projectors is 40mm. Its one end A is 10mm above H.P and 25mm In front of
V.P. Draw its projections, find its true length and true inclinations with H.P & V.P by the
a) Rotating line method
b) Trapezoidal method
14. A line EF 85 long has its ends 25 mm above HP and 20 mm in front of V.P. The top and front
views of the line have lengths of 55 mm and 70 mm respectively. Draw the projections of the
line and find its true inclinations with the V.P and H.P.

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15. A regular hexagonal lamina with its edge 50 mm has its plane inclined at 45 to H.P and lying
with one of its edges in H.P. The plane of one of its diagonals is inclined at 45 to XY. The
corner nearest to VP is 15mm in front of it. Draw its projection.
16. The front view of a line AB 80 mm long measures 55 mm while its top view measures 70 mm.
End A is in both HP and VP. Draw the projections of the line and find its inclinations with the
reference planes. Also locate the traces.
17. The front view of a line AB measures 65mm and makes an angle of 45 with xy. A is in the H.P
and the V.T of a line is15 mm below the H.P. The line is inclined at 30 to the V.P. Draw the
projections of AB and find its true length and inclination with the H.P. Also locate its H.T.
18. Two points A and B are in the H.P. the point A is 30 mm in front of the VP. While B is behind
the V.P. The distance between their projections is 75 mm and line joining their top views makes
an angle of 45 with xy. Find the distance of the point B from the V.P.
19. The top view of a 75 mm long line AB measures 65 mm, while the length of its front view is 50
mm. Its one end A is in the H.P and 12 mm in front of the VP. Draw the projections of AB and
determine its inclinations with the H.P and the V.P.
20. A line PQ, inclined at 450 to the V.P., has a 60 mm long front view. The end P is 10 mm from
both the principal planes while the end Q is 45 mm above the H.P. Draw the projections of the
line and determine its true length and inclinations with the principal planes. Also, locate its
traces.
21. An equilateral triangular plane with a 60 mm side has a side inclined at 45 0 to the H.P. Its H.T.
is parallel to and 25 mm below xy and its V.T. does not exist. Draw its projections.
22. A 75 mm long line PQ is inclined at an angle of 300 to the H.P. The end P is 20 mm above the
H.P. and on the V.P. The end Q is 60 mm in front of the V.P. Draw the projections of the line
and locate its traces.
23. A 120 mm long line PQ, is inclined at 45 degrees to the H.P. and 300 to the V.P. A point M lies
on the line at a distance of 40 mm from P and its front view is 50 mm above the xy line and the
top view is 35 mm below the xy line. Draw its projections and locate its traces.
24. An 80 mm long line PQ, has its end Q both in the H.P. and the V.P. The line is inclined at 45
degrees to the H.P. and 30 degrees to the V.P. Draw its projections and locate its traces.
25. The front view of line inclined at 300 to V.P is 65mm long. Draw the projections of a line, when
it is parallel to and 40mm above H.P. and one end being 20mm in front of V.P.
26. A thin circular plate of 40mm diameter having its plane vertical and inclined at 40 degrees to
V.P. Its center is 30mm above H.P. and 35mm in front of V.P. Draw the projections.
27. A line AB 60mm long has its end A in both H.P and V.P. It is inclined at 30degrees to H.P and
45 to V.P. Draw the projections.

Projection of planes
1. A regular pentagon of 25mm side has one side on the ground. Its plane is inclined at 45° to the
H.P and perpendicular to V.P. Draw the projections.
2. Draw the projections of a regular hexagonal lamina of 30mm side resting on one of its base
edges on H.P with its plane perpendicular to H.P and inclined at 45 to V.P.
3. Draw the projections of a circle of 5cm diameter, having its plane vertical and inclined at 30° to
the V.P. Its centre is 3cm above the H.P and 2cm in front of V.P
4. Draw the projections of a regular hexagon of 25mm side, having one of its sides in the HP. And
inclined at 60° to the VP, and its surface making an angle of 45° with the HP.
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5. A regular hexagon of 40mm side has a corner in the HP. Its surface is inclined at 45° to the HP
and the top view of the diagonal through the corner which is in the HP makes an angle of 60°
with the VP. Draw its projections.
6. A square ABCD of 50mm side has its corner A in the HP, its diagonal AC inclined at 30°to HP
and the diagonal BD is inclined at 45° to the VP and parallel to the HP. Draw its projections.
7. A thin 30°-60° set- square has its longest edge in the VP and inclined at 30° to the HP. Its
surface makes an angle of 45° with the VP. Draw its projections.
8. Draw the projections of the regular pentagon of 40mm side, having its surface inclined at 30° to
the HP and a side parallel to the HP and inclined at an angle of 60° to the VP.
9. A semi-circular plate of 80mm diameter has its straight edge in the VP and inclined at 45° to the
HP. the surface of the plate makes an angle of 30° with the VP. Draw its projections.
10. Draw the projections of a circle of 75mm diameter having the end A of the diameter AB in the
HP, the end B is in the VP and the surface inclined at 30° to the HP and at 60° to the VP.
11. Draw the projections of a circle of 50mm diameter resting in the HP on a point A on the
circumference , its plane inclined at 45° to the HP and
(a) The top view of the diameter AB making 30° angle with the VP.
(b) The diameter AB making 30° angle with the VP.
12. A circular plate of negligible thickness and 50mm diameter appears as an ellipse in the front
view, having its major axis 50mm long and minor axis 30mm long. Draw its top view when the
major axis of the ellipse is horizontal.
13. A thin rectangular plate of sides 60mm *30mm has its shorter side in the VP and inclined at 30°
to the HP. Project its top view if its front view is a square of 30mm long sides.
14. A plate having a shape of an isosceles triangle has base 50mm long and altitude 70mm. it is so
placed that in the front view it is seen as an equilateral triangle of 50mm sides and one side
inclined at 45° to the XY. Draw its top view.
15. Draw the Projections of the Rhombus having diagonals 125mm and 50mm long, the smaller
diagonal of which is parallel to both the principal planes, while the other is inclined at 30°to the
HP.
16. Draw a rhombus of diagonals 100mm and 60mm long with the longer diagonal horizontal. The
figure is the top view of a square of 100mm long diagonals, with a corner on the ground. Draw
its front view and determine the angle which its surface makes with the ground.
17. A regular pentagon of 25mm side has one side on the ground. Its plane is inclined at 45° to the
H.P and perpendicular to V.P. Draw the projections.
18. Draw the projections of a circle of 5cm diameter, having its plane vertical and inclined at 30° to
the V.P. Its centre is 3cm above the H.P and 2cm in front of V.P.
19. Draw the projections of a regular hexagon of 25mm side, having one of its sides in the HP. And
inclined at 60° to the VP, and its surface making an angle of 45° with the HP.

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UNIT-III
Projection of solids, Section of Solids
Types of Solids:
a) Polyhedral
b) Solids of revolution

Polyhedral: It is defined as the solid bounded by planes or faces. When all the faces are equal and
regular, the polyhedral is said to be regular.
a) Tetrahedron: It has four equal faces, each are equilateral triangle.
b) Cube / Hexahedron: It has 6 faces, all equal squares.
c) Octahedron: It has 8 equal equilateral triangles as faces.
d) Dodecahedron: It has 12 equal and regular pentagons as faces.
e) Icosahedrons: It has 20 faces, all equal equilateral triangles.
f) Prism: It has 2 equal and similar faces called ends/ bases, parallel and joined by other faces
which are parallelograms.
g) Pyramid: It has a plane as a base, number of triangular faces meeting at a point called
vertex/ apex. Imaginary line joining apex to the centre of base is its axis.

Solids of revolution:
a) Cylinder: This is a solid generated by revolution of a rectangle about one of its side which
remains fixed.
b) Cone: It s a solid generated by revolution of a right angles triangle about its one of its
perpendicular sides.
c) Sphere: It is generated by revolution of a semicircle about its diameter as the axis.

1. Draw the projections of all regular solids when its axis perpendicular to one plane and parallel
to another plane for the following positions:
a) One of its base edges is parallel to one plane
b) One of its base edges is perpendicular to one plane
c) One of its base edges is inclined to one plane at an angle of 450

2. Draw the projections of pentagonal pyramid, base side 30mm and axis 60mm,rests on its base
on the H.P.with a side of the base
a) parallel to the V.P.
b) Perpendicular to the V.P. and
(c) Inclined at 300 to the V.P.

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 3. Draw the projections of a hexagonal prism, base side 30mm and axis is 70mm, resting on its
base on the H.P.such that a side of base is a) parallel to the V.P. b)perpendicular to the V.P. and
c)inclined at 450 to the V.P.
4.cylinder of base diameter 50mm and axis 65mm has its axis 40mm above H.P.andperpendicular
to V.P.Draw its projections when one of its bases being 10mm in front of the V.P.
5. Cube of edges 45mm is resting on the H.P.with a vertical face inclined at 30 0 to the V.P.Draw
its projections.
6.Draw the projections of the square prism, base side 40mm and axis 65mm,having its base in the
V.P. such that i)a rectangular face is parallel to the H.P. ii)two faces are inclined at 30 0 to the
H.P. and iii)all faces are equally inclined to the H.P.

7. A cone with base circle diameter 50mm and 60mm height is resting on the base in HP. It is cut
by a plane perpendicular to VP and 60 degrees inclined to HP and bisecting the axis of the
solid.
8.A pentagonal pyramid, having a base with a 30mm side and 60mm height is resting on the base
in HP such that one of the triangular faces is parallel to the VP. It is cut by a plane
perpendicular to VP and 45 degrees inclined to HP and bisecting the axis of the solid.

UNIT – IV
Isometric Projection, Development of surfaces
1. Draw the Isometric projection of following positions of solids:

e) A cone base diameter 50 mm axis height 60 mm long.

f) A pentagonal pyramid base edge 30 mm axis height 60 mm long.
g) A hexagonal prism base edge 30 mm axis edge 60 mm
h) A cylinder base dia 50 mm axis height 60 mm long
Draw isometric view (or) isometric projection.
c) When the axis as a vertical in position
d) When the axis as a Horizontal in position.

2. A frustum of cone base dia 50 mm axis height 60 mm long and top dia 30 mm, A
sphere having radius 10 mm located centrally one and the above, draw isometric view
(or) isometric projection for the given solids.

3 A square prism base edge 70 mm axis height 60 mm long, a frustum of cone base dia 50
mm axis height 6 mm long top dia 30 mm, a sphere having radius 10 mm located centrally
one and the above. Draw isometric view, isometric projection for the given solids.
4 A cylinder of base dia 70 mm axis height 60 mm long, a frustum of a square pyramid base
edge 50 mm, axis height 60 mm long Top edge 30 mm a sphere having radius 10 mm
located centrally one and the above. Draw isometric view (or) isometric projection for the

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 given solids.

5. Draw the isometric view of a pentagonal pyramid of base side 30mm and axis 50mm.the
pyramid is kept on its base on the a)H.P. b)V.P.

6.Draw the isometric view of a cylinder of base diameter 50mm,and axis 60mm.The axis of the
cylinder is perpendicular to the a)H.P. b)V.P.

7.Draw the isometric view of a cone of base diameter 50mm,and axis 60mm.The axis of the cone
is has its base on the a)H.P. b)V.P.

8.Draw the isomeric view of a circular lamina(plane)of diameter 50mm on all the three principal
planes.

9.A cone of base diameter 30mm and height 40mm rests centrally over a cube of sides
50mm.Draw the isometric projection of the combination of the solids.

10.Draw the isometric projection of the frustum of a hexagonal pyramid of base side 40mm,top
side 25mm and height 70mm.the frustum rests on the base on the H.P.

11.Draw the isometric view of a hexagonal prism of base side 30mm and axis 70mm.The prism
is resting on its base on the H.P.with an edge of the base parallel to the V.P.

12.A sphere of diameter 50mm is surmounted centrally on the top of a square block of side
60mm and thickness 20mm. Draw the isometric view of the arrangement.

13.A square pyramid of base side 25mm and axis 40mm rests centrally over a cylindrical block
of base diameter 50mm and thickness 20mm.Draw the isometric projection of the arrangement.
14. A pentagonal prism, having a base with a 30mm side and 60mm height is resting on the base
in HP such that one of the rectangular faces is parallel to the VP. It is cut by a plane
perpendicular to VP and 45 degrees inclined to HP and cutting the axis of the solid 10mm from
the top. Draw development of lateral surface of the bottom part of the solid.
15.A cone with base circle diameter 50mm and 60mm height is resting on the base in HP. It is
cut by a plane perpendicular to VP and 60 degrees inclined to HP and bisecting the axis of the
solid. Draw development of lateral surface of the bottom part of the solid.
16. A pentagonal pyramid, having a base with a 30mm side and 60mm height is resting on the
base in HP such that one of the triangular faces is parallel to the VP. It is cut by a plane
perpendicular to VP and 45 degrees inclined to HP and bisecting the axis of the solid. Draw
development of lateral surface of solid.
17. A cylinder of base diameter 50mm and 60mm height is resting on the base in HP. It is cut by
a plane perpendicular to VP and 45 degrees inclined to HP and cutting the solid at the top end of
generator. Draw development of lateral surface of the bottom part of the solid.

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UNIT – V
TRANSFORMATION OF PROJECTION

1. Draw the isometric view for the given orthogonal views as shown in figure 1. All
dimensions are in mm.

2. Draw the elevation, plan and side view of the picture shown in the figure 2. All dimensions
are in mm

3. Draw the isometric view of the object whose orthographic projections are given in figure 1.
All dimensions are in mm.

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4. Draw the front view, top view and side view for the picture shown in figure 2. All
dimensions are in mm.

5. Draw the isometric view of the given figure 1. All dimensions are in mm

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 6. Draw the following figure 2. All dimensions are in mm
i)front view ii) top view iii) side view.

7. Draw the isometric view of the object whose orthographic projections as shown in figure 1.
All dimensions are in mm.

8. Draw the following as shown in figure 2:

ii) Front view ii) Side view iii) Top view

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9. Draw the elevation, top view and side view of the object shown in figure. All dimensions are
in mm.

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