CPA Examinations

Winter-2017
December

Student Name: Specialization

Course Code
Registration Number:

Exam Center: SP-602

Advanced Auditing and Assurance

SOLUTION

Notes:

Time allowed 1. Attempt all questions. All questions carry

equal marks. .
2. Highlight the correct answer. Do not
1 hour
reproduce the questions.
3. Return the exam paper on time, late
submission would not be accepted.
 1. As a result of analytical procedures, the auditor determines that the gross profit
percentage has declined from 30% in the preceding year to 20% in the current year.  The
auditor should:

A. Express a qualified opinion due to inability of the client company to continue as a going concern
B. Evaluate management's performance in causing this decline
C. Require footnote disclosure
D. Consider the possibility of a misstatement in the financial statements

2. After a CPA has determined that accounts receivable have increased as a result of slow
collections in a "tight money" environment, the CPA will be likely to

A. Increase the balance in the allowance for bad debt account

B. Review the going concern ramifications
C. Review the credit and collection policy
D. Expand test of collectability

3. In connection with the review of key ratios, the CPA notes that Pyzi had accounts
receivable equal to 30 days' sales at December 31, 2008, and to 4 days' sales at December
31, 2009.  Assuming that there have been no changes in economic conditions, clientele,
or sales mix, this change most likely will indicate

A. A steady increase in sales in 2009

B. An easing of credit policies in 2009
C. A decrease in accounts receivable relative to sales in 2009
D. A steady decrease in sales 2009

4. The negative form of accounts receivable confirmation request is useful except when

A. Internal control surrounding accounts receivable is considered to be effective

B. A large number of small balances are involved
C. The auditor has reason to believe the persons receiving the requests are likely to give them
consideration
D. Individual account balances are relatively large

 
 5. The return of a positive confirmation of accounts receivable without an exception attests
to the

A. Collectability of the receivable balance

B. Accuracy of the receivable balance
C. Accuracy of the aging of accounts receivable
D. Accuracy of the allowance for uncollectible accounts

6. In confirming a client's accounts receivable in prior years, an auditor found that there
were many differences between the recorded accounts balances and the confirmation
responses.  These differences, which were not misstatements, required substantial time to
resolve.  In defining the sampling unit for the current year's audit, the auditor will most
likely choose

A. Individual overdue balances

B. Individual invoices
C. Small account balances
D. Large account balances

7. When evaluating the adequacy of the allowance for uncollectible accounts, an auditor
reviews the entity's aging of receivables to support management's balance-related
assertion of

A. Existence
B. Completeness
C. Valuation and allocation
D. Rights and obligations

8. Which of the following audit procedures will best uncover an understatement of sales and
accounts receivables?

A. Test a sample of sales transactions, selecting the sample from pre-numbered shipping
documents
B. Test a sample of sales transactions, selecting the sample from sales invoices recorded in the
sales journal
C. Confirm accounts receivable
D. Review the aged receivable trial balance

9. Mr. Murray decides to use stratified sampling.  The reason for using stratified sampling
rather than unrestricted random sampling is to
 A. Reduce as much as possible the degree of variability in the overall population
B. Give every element in the population an equal chance of being included in the sample
C. Allow the person selecting the sample to use personal judgment in deciding which elements
should be included in the sample
D. Allow the auditor to emphasize larger items from the population

10. In an audit of financial statements, a CPA will generally find stratified sampling
techniques to be most applicable to

A. Re-computing net wage and salary payments to employees

B. Tracing hours worked from the payroll summary back to the individual time cards
C. Confirming accounts receivable for residential customers at a large electric utility
D. Review supporting documentation for additions to plant and equipment

11. From prior experience, a CPA is aware that the accounts receivable trial balance contains
a few unusually large balances.  In using statistical sampling, the CPA's best course of
action is to

A. Eliminate any unusually large balances that appear in the sample

B. Continue to draw new samples until no unusually large balances appear in the sample
C. Stratify the accounts receivable population so that the unusually large balances are reviewed
separately
D. Increase the sample size to lessen the effect of the unusually large balances.

12. A number of factors influence the sample size for a substantive test of details of an
account balance.  All other things being equal, which of the following would lead to a
larger sample size?

A. Greater reliance on internal control

B. Greater reliance on analytical procedures
C. Smaller expected frequency of errors
D. Smaller measure of tolerable misstatement

13. An auditor uses audit sampling to perform tests of controls in the acquisition and
payment cycle.  Those tests indicate that the related controls are operating effectively. 
The auditor plans to use audit sampling to perform tests of details of balances for
accounts payable.  The auditor's acceptable risk of incorrect acceptance (ARIA) for the
test of details of balances for accounts payable will most likely be

A. The same as the ARACR for test of controls

 B. Greater than the ARACR for tests of controls
C. Less than the ARACR for tests of controls
D. Totally independent from the ARACR used for test of controls

14. Which of the following sample planning factors will influence the sample size for a test
of details of balances for a specific account?

EXPECTED AMOUNT MISSTATEMENTS

MEASURE OFOF TOLERABLE MISSTATEMENT

A. No, No
B. Yes, Yes
C. No, Yes
D. Yes, No

15. A client erroneously recorded a large purchase twice.  Which of the following internal
control measures would be most likely to detect this error in a timely and efficient
manner?

A. Footing the purchases journal

B. Reconciling vendors' monthly statements with subsidiary payable ledger accounts
C. Tracing totals from the purchases journal to the ledger accounts
D. Sending written quarterly confirmations to all vendors

16. Budd, the purchasing agent of Lake Hardware Wholesalers, has a relative who owns a
retail hardware store.  Budd arranged for hardware to be delivered by manufacturers to
the retail store on a COD basis, thereby enabling his relative to buy at Lake's wholesale
prices.  Budd was probably able to accomplish this because of Lake's poor internal
control over

A. Purchase requisitions
B. Purchase orders
C. Cash receipts
D. Perpetual inventory records

17. Which of the following is an internal control that will prevent paid cash disbursement
documents from being presented for payment a second time?
 A. The date on cash disbursement documents must be within a few days of the date that the
document is presented for payment
B. The official signing the check compares with the documents and should deface the documents
C. Unsigned checks are prepared by individuals who are responsible for signing checks
D. Cash disbursement documents are approved by at least two responsible management officials.

18. In auditing accounts payable, an auditor's procedures most likely will focus primarily on
management's assertion of

A. Existence
B. Realizable value
C. Completeness
D. Valuation and allocation

19. Which of the following audit procedures is best for identifying unrecorded trade accounts
payable?

A. Examining unusual relationships between monthly accounts payable balances and recorded cash
payments
B. Reconciling vendors' statements to the file of receiving reports to identify items received just
prior to the balance sheet date
C. Reviewing cash disbursements recorded subsequent to the balance sheet date to determine
whether the related payables apply to the prior period
D. Investigating payables recorded just prior to and just subsequent to the balance sheet date to
determine whether they are supported by receiving reports

20. When using confirmations to provide evidence about the completeness assertion for
accounts payable, the appropriate population most likely is

A. Vendors with whom the entity has previously done business

B. Amounts recorded in the accounts payable subsidiary ledger
C. Payees of checks drawn in the month after year-end
D. Invoices filed in the entity's open invoice file

21. Which of the following controls most likely will justify a reduced assessed level of
control risk concerning plant and equipment acquisitions

A. Periodic physical inspection of plant and equipment by the internal audit staff
B. Comparison of current-year plant and equipment account balances with prior-year balances.
 C. Review of pre-numbered purchase orders to detect unrecorded trade-ins
D. Approval of periodic depreciation entries by a supervisor independent of the accounting
department

22. Which of the following is not an internal control deficiency related to factory equipment?

A. Checks issued in payment of acquisitions of equipment are not signed by the controller
B. All acquisitions of factory equipment are required to be made by the department in need of the
equipment
C. Factory equipment replacements are generally made when estimated useful lives, as indicated
in depreciation schedules, have expired
D. Proceeds from sales of fully depreciated equipment are credited to other income

23. With respect to an internal control measure that will ensure accountability for fixed asset
retirements, management should implement controls that include

A. Continuous analysis of miscellaneous revenue to locate any cash proceeds from sale of plant
assets
B. Periodic inquiry of plant executives by internal auditors as to whether any plant assets have
been retired
C. Continuous use of serially numbered retirement work orders
D. Periodic observation of plant assets by the internal auditors

24. Which of the following comparisons will be most useful to an auditor in auditing an
entity's income and expense accounts?

A. Prior year accounts payable to current year accounts payable

B. Prior year payroll expense to budgeted current year payroll expense
C. Current year revenue to budgeted current year revenue
D. Current year warranty expense to current year contingent liabilities

25. The controller of Excello Manufacturing, Inc. wants to use analytical procedures to
identify the possible existence of idle equipment or the possibility that equipment has
been disposed of without having been written off.  Which of the following ratios will best
accomplish this objective?

A. Depreciation expense/book value of manufacturing equipment

B. Accumulated depreciation/book value of manufacturing equipment
C. Repairs and maintenance cost/direct labor costs
D. Gross manufacturing equipment cost/units produced
 

26. Which of the following analytical procedures should be applied to the income statement?

A. Select sales and expense items and trace amounts to related supporting documents
B. Ascertain that the new income amount in the statement of cash flows agrees with the net
income amount in the income statement
C. Obtain from the proper client representatives the beginning and ending inventory amounts that
were used to determine costs of sales
D. Compare the actual revenues and expenses with the corresponding figures of the previous year
and investigate significant differences

27. In testing for unrecorded retirements of equipment, an auditor most likely will

A. Select items of equipment from the accounting records and then locate them during the plant
tour
B. Compare depreciation journal entries with similar prior-year entries in search of fully
depreciated equipment
C. Inspect items of equipment observed during the plant tour and then trace them to the
equipment master file
D. Scan the journal for unusual equipment additions and excessive debits to repairs and
maintenance expense.

28. Analysis of which account is least likely to reveal evidence related to unrecorded
retirement of equipment?

A. Accumulated depreciation
B. Insurance expense
C. Property, plant and equipment
D. Purchase returns and allowances

29. In connection with the audit of the prepaid insurance account, which of the following
procedures is usually not performed by the auditor?

A. Re-compute the portion of the premium that expired during the year
B. Prepare experts of the insurance policies for audit documentation
C. Confirm premium rates with an independent insurance broker
D. Examine support for premium payments

 
 30. Which of the following audit procedures is least likely to detect an unrecorded liability?

A. Analysis and re-computation of interest expense

B. Analysis and re-computation of depreciation expense
C. Mailing of standard bank confirmation forms
D. Reading of the minutes of meetings of the board of directors

31. Which of the following best describes the independent auditor's approach to obtaining
satisfaction concerning depreciation expense in the income statement?

A. Verify the mathematical accuracy of the amounts charged to income as a result of depreciation
expense
B. Determine the method for computing depreciation expense and ascertain that it is in
accordance with GAAP
C. Reconcile the amount of depreciation expense to those amounts credited to accumulated
depreciation accounts
D. Establish the basis for depreciable assets and verify the depreciation expense

32. Before expressing an opinion concerning the audit of income and expenses, the auditor
will best proceed with the audit of the income statement by

A. Applying a rigid measurement standard designed to test for understatement of net income
B. Analyzing the beginning and ending balance sheet inventory amounts
C. Making net income comparisons to published industry trends and ratios
D. Auditing income statement accounts concurrently with the related balance sheet accounts

33. In a company with materials and supplies that include a great number of items, a
fundamental deficiency in control requirements will be indicated if

A. The cycle basis for physical inventory taking was to be used

B. Minor supply items were to be expensed when acquired
C. A perpetual inventory master file is not maintained for items of small value
D. The storekeeping function were to be combined with production and record keeping

34. For control purposes, the quantities of materials ordered may be omitted from the copy of
the purchase order that is

A. Returned to the requestor

B. Forwarded to the receiving department
C. Forwarded to the accounting department
 D. Retained in the purchasing department's files

35. Which of the following procedures will best detect the theft of valuable items from an
inventory that consists of hundreds of different items selling for $1 to $10 and a few
items selling for hundreds of dollars?

A. Maintain a perpetual inventory master file of only the more valuable items with frequent
periodic verification of the validity of the perpetual
B. Have an independent CPA firm prepares an internal control report on the effectiveness of the
administrative and accounting controls over inventory
C. Have a separate warehouse space for the more valuable items with sequentially numbered tags
D. Require an authorized officer's signature on all requisitions for the more valuable items

36. When an auditor tests a client's cost accounting records, the auditor's tests are primarily
designed to determine that

A. Costs have been correctly assigned to finished goods, work-in-process, and cost of goods sold
B. Quantities on hand have been computed based on acceptable cost account techniques that
reasonable approximate actual quantities on hand
C. Physical inventories are in substantial agreement with book inventories
D. The internal controls are in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and are
functioning as planned

37. The accuracy of perpetual inventory master files may be established, in part, by
comparing perpetual inventory records with

A. Purchase requisitions
B. Receiving reports
C. Purchase orders
D. Vendor payments

38. When evaluating inventory controls with respect to segregation of duties, a CPA will be
less likely to

A. Make inquiries
B. Inspect documents
C. Observe procedures
D. Consider policy and procedure manuals

 
 39. An auditor will be most likely to learn of slow-moving inventory through

A. Inquiry of sales personnel

B. Inquiry of store personnel
C. Physical observation of inventory
D. Review of perpetual inventory mater files

40. An inventory turnover analysis is useful to the auditor because it may detect

A. Inadequacies in inventory pricing

B. Methods of avoiding cyclical holding costs
C. The existence of obsolete merchandise
D. The optimum automatic reorder points

41. A CPA auditing inventory may appropriately apply attributes sampling to estimate the

A. Average price of inventory items

B. Percentage of slow-moving inventory items
C. Dollar value of inventory
D. Physical quantity of inventory items

42. The audit step most likely to reveal the existence of contingent liabilities is

A. A review of vouchers paid during the month following the year-end

B. An inquiry directed to legal counsel
C. Accounts payable confirmations
D. Mortgage-note confirmation

43. When obtaining evidence regarding litigation against a client, the CPA will be less
interested in determining

A. The period in which the underlying cause of the litigation occurred

B. The probability of an unfavorable outcome
C. An estimate of when the matter will be resolved
D. An estimate of the potential loss

 
 44. When a contingency is resolved subsequent to the issuance of audited financial
statements, which correctly contained disclosure of the contingency in the footnotes
based on information available at the date of issuance, the auditor should

A. Take no action regarding the event

B. Insist that the client issue revised financial statements
C. Inform the audit committee that the report cannot be relied on
D. Inform the appropriate authorities that the report cannot be relied on

45. A principal purpose of a letter of representation from management is to

A. Serve as an introduction to company personnel and an authorization to examine the records

B. Discharge the auditor from legal liability for the audit
C. Confirm in writing management's approval of limitations on the scope of the audit
D. Confirm in writing management's approval of limitations on the scope of the audit
E. Remind management of its primary responsibility for financial statements

46. The date of the management representation letter should coincide with the

A. Balance sheet date

B. Date of the auditor's report
C. Date of the latest subsequent event referred to in the notes to the financial statement
D. Date of the engagement agreement

47. Management's refusal to furnish a written representation on a matter that the auditor
considers essential constitutes

A. Prima facie evidence that the financial statements are not present fairly
B. A violation of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
C. An uncertainty sufficient to preclude an unqualified opinion
D. A scope limitation sufficient to prelude an unqualified opinion

48. Subsequent events for reporting purposes are defined as events that occur subsequent to
the

A. Balance sheet date

B. Date of the auditor's report
C. Balance sheet date but before the date of the auditor's report
D. Date of the auditor's report and concern contingencies that are not reflected in the financial
statements
 

49. An example of an event occurring in the period of the auditor's field work subsequent to
the end of the year being audited that normally will not require disclosure in the financial
statements or auditor's report is

A. Serious damage to the company's plant from a widespread flood

B. Issuance of a widely advertised capital stock issue with restrictive covenants
C. Settlement of a large liability for considerably less than the amount recorded
D. Decreased sales volume resulting from a general business recession

50. Kar has audited the financial statements of Lurch Corporation for the year ended
December 31, 2016.  Karr's field work was completed on February 27, 2017; Karr's
auditor's report was dated February 28, 2017, and was received by the management of
Lurch on March 5, 2017.  On April 4, 2017, the management of Lurch asked that karr
approves inclusion of this report in their annual report to stockholders, which will be
included unaudited financial statements for the first quarter ended March 31, 2017.  Karr
approved the inclusion of the auditor's report in the annual report to stockholders.  Under
the circumstances, Karr is responsible for inquiring as to subsequent events occurring
through

A. February 27, 2017

B. February 28, 2017
C. March 31, 2017
D. April 4, 2017