AIMCAT 1807

VARC

Q1.   DIRECTIONS for question 1: The sentences given below, when

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled
with a number (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5). Decide on the proper order for the sentences
and key in the correct sequence of five numbers as your answer in the input
box given below the question.

1. Netflix might be one such offering; Amazon another.

2. In a decade or so, TVs will once again have only a few channels,
but each will run miles deep, with content that can be viewed on demand.

3. And other rich tech firms may join them.

4. Imagine a television which, as in the old days, has only a handful

of channels to choose from instead of hundreds, as a typical cable set-up
might offer today.

5. Both firms are spending billions making and buying TV shows to

sell directly to viewers to watch when they like, and on devices other than
the box in the corner of the room.

Q2.   DIRECTIONS for question 2: In the following question, there are

sentences or fragments of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the
sentence(s) or fragments of sentence(s) that is /are correct in terms of
grammar and usage, including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency.
Enter the number corresponding to the sentence(s) or fragments of
sentence(s) in the input box provided below the question. [Note: Enter your
answer in increasing order only. For example, if you think that the fragments
(2) and (4) are correct, then enter 24 (but not 42) in the input box.]

1. Ravensbruck was a concentration camp 50 miles north of Berlin.

It has received far little an attention than Auschwitz

2. and other Nazi death camps. What happened there was covered.

3. The buildings (and files) were burned as Allies drew near in 1945.
In the late 1960s, some historians even started to question the existence of
the gas chambers there.

4. Yet Ravensbruck deserves to be remembered. It was Hitler's only

concentration camp specifically for women.

5. Towards the end of the war as other camps emptied it became

the engine of the Nazi killing machine on the orders of Heinrich Himmler.

DIRECTIONS for questions 3 to 8: The long passage given below is followed

by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

The United States has a long history of critical intellectuals, but Chomsky
does not quite fit into any American tradition of protest. He is not part of that
long line of critics who bemoaned America's betrayal of its promise. He does
not accept a vision of America as a well-intentioned, morally inclined power
whose ideals embody the best aspirations of mankind. No American dream
is part of his beliefs. Chomsky's analysis of America's most popular and
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omnipresent self-images is thorough and devastating. His careful scrutiny

reveals them to be neither accurate nor rational. Rather, they are part of an
ideological ethos whose function is comparable with what all great powers
require: an ideological rationale for their wealth and power. They manifest an
adamant refusal to see that the United States secretes its own way of seeing
the world, shaped to the needs of quite specific, powerful interests. …
Lamentations about “American innocence” fit snugly with ruthless pursuit of
self-interest by powerful institutions and individuals throughout US history.

What is particular about Chomsky's perspective is that he does not merely

ask why this is so, but why we should ever have expected otherwise given
the world we live in. Why expect societies to expose their actual inner
workings when suitable rationalizations serve powerful interests far more
effectively? Why are we shocked that that great powers manufacture the
rationales for their self-interested pursuits using the most noble-sounding
rhetoric? Why are we surprised that nations themselves, rather than
powerful, specific interests within them, are depicted as acting for the well-
being of society in foreign affairs?

Chomsky's view is that the United States is not exempt from what is so
reasonably expected from others. A rational approach will begin by looking
for what is reasonable to expect of all nations. Chomsky expects to find
great powers cloaking their aggressive self-interested quests in clouds of
inspiring rhetoric, while all along a chorus of its supporters insist that it is
uniquely exempt from the aggressive pursuits so easily depicted in its
enemies. He suggests that a reasonable way to understand the foreign
policy of any state begins by studying the domestic social structure. Who
sets foreign policy? What interests do they represent? On what is their
domestic power based? The policy that evolves can reasonably be expected
to reflect the specific interests of those who shape it.

Further it is only reasonable to expect that the harsh facts of political life will
be mystified if they threaten the faith; groups will emerge to disguise the
obvious, to obfuscate the workings of power, to spin a web of mystification
through transcendent, benign goals that allegedly guide national policy.
Quite understandably, such people will not see themselves as a caste of
propagandists or as indoctrinators. They prefer to think of themselves as
educators, religious leaders, often as fervent apostles of truth which place
them in conflict with the state.

Yet to see just what the shared consensus is in a society, Chomsky

suggests, look at what the “influential critics” do not challenge. There the
extent to which they are submissive and obedient to the state can be
expected to reveal itself.

Ferocious debates are not indications that consensus values are questioned.
Doves and hawks can reasonably be expected to differ on the exact nature
of the evil practices, real or imagined, of current enemies of the state, but the
debates will go on within a quite expectable narrow set of patriotic premises.
Both speak of the nation as the active agent in international affairs, not
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specific groups within it. Both tend to argue that the “national interests” as
articulated reflect such common interests as might be generally shared
within society.

Chomsky skillfully demonstrates how this process works. Debates about

Vietnam between hawks and doves might heatedly dispute whether the war
was a costly mistake, an error or even a great tragedy. But responsible
debate simply excludes from serious consideration that the war was wrong
in principle or an act of aggression. Like George Orwell, Chomsky has an
uncanny ability to suggest the ideological message in all its blatancy just
beneath the apparently objective facade of argument. His statements startle
– such as when he calls America's presence in South Vietnam an invasion.
But his masterful use of comparisons exposes the ideological character
underlying our political debate. Thus Chomsky compares South Vietnam and
Afghanistan to show how little difficulty US observers have in spotting a
Russian invasion of a country. If a puppet regime in Kabul requests Soviet
military aid, there is no question that aggression is taking place. But when a
puppet regime in South Vietnam requests US military aid, no aggression or
invasion is even at issue.

Q3.   Doves and hawks are terms applied to people based upon their views
about a military conflict and the differences in their views play out ....

 a) within a broad set of patriotic premises, speaking of the nation as the

active agent in international affairs.    

 b) within a broad set of patriotic premises, speaking of the nation being the
inactive agent in international affairs.    

 c) within a narrow set of patriotic premises, both speaking of the special

groups in the nation as the active agent.    

 d) within a narrow set of patriotic premises, both speaking of the nation as a

whole as an active agent in international affairs.    

Q4.   Which of the following can be understood from the passage?

 a) Because Chomsky does not belong to any intellectual school he is free to

analyze as he thinks right.    

 b) Being well-versed with the domestic social structure of a country is a

justifiable way to comprehend foreign policy of any state.    

 c) Chomsky's radical analysis of his country is tinged by remorse as he

somehow identifies with the popular image portrayed by America.    

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 d) Chomsky is happy with the fact that debates on the Vietnam war took
into consideration not only the cost and economic losses that occurred but
also acknowledged the fact that the act of war was wrong in principle or an
act of aggression.    

Q5.   Where can the sentence given below be inserted in the passage?

“Quite the contrary.”

 a) Between sentences 1 and 2 of para 1.    

 b) At the end of para 7.    

 c) At the end of para 4.    

 d) At the end of para 3.    

Q6.   With which of the following would Chomsky not agree?

1. The foreign policy of the US is determined by the self-interests of

those who shape it.

2. Often the US is guilty of the same offence that it accuses its

enemies of.

3. The US stance on an issue is determined by powerful forces

working within the US.

4. Their actions in pursuance of foreign policy point to the

differences in intent between the US and the Soviet.

5. Ferocious debates on a subject are a means to divert attention

from the main issue.

 a) a and e    

 b) b and c    

 c) c and d    

 d) Only d    

Q7.   Why does the author regard Chomsky's approach to be 'rational'?

 a) Because he has no dreams for America and does not decry America's
betrayal of its promise.    

 b) Because Chomsky reveals that all great nations including his, work in the
same manner.    

 c) Because Chomsky is of the view that all nations, including his, should be
judged by the same yardstick.    

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 d) Because he does not think that America is a moral power having good
intentions towards others.    

Q8.   The only “shared consensus” in a society according to Chomsky is

Identify all that apply and enter the corresponding number in the input box
given below. You must enter your answer in increasing order only. For
example, if you think (2) and (4) apply, then enter 24 (but not 42) in the input
box.

1. The so called ideological values of the state which are not

questioned by the critic.

2. The values held dear which trigger controversies among

members of a society.

3. The idiosyncratic factors that lie just below the surface in any
argument.

4. The controversial aspects regarding which ferocious debates are

voiced.

5. The implied agreement to protect national interest at the cost of

other nations.

Q9.   DIRECTIONS for question 9: Five sentences related to a topic are

given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and
coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as
your answer and key it in.

1. But its creators, a bunch of cryptography researchers, have

tweaked it.

2. Competition between currencies is the stuff libertarian dreams

are made on – and central bankers’ nightmares too.

3. Zcash is the newest crypto-currency and it is based on Bitcoin’s

code.

4. The new digital cash is minted more quickly and the system can
handle more transactions.

5. This makes for more liquidity and shorter transaction times.

Q10.   DIRECTIONS for question 10: The sentences given below, when

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled
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with a number (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5). Decide on the proper order for the sentences
and key in the correct sequence of five numbers as your answer in the input
box given below the question.

1. They are packed with sensors, particularly accelerometers and

GPS tracking devices, which can record movement, exercise, heart rate,
pulse rate, weight etc.

2. Nor do they understand the strengths and weaknesses of

existing treatments for Parkinson’s – nor even the unmet needs of people
who have the disease.

3. Smartphones, and other mobile devices worn or carried almost

continuously by many, offer a way to do so.

4. Those researchers might understand better, though, if they were

able to track the day to day symptoms of large numbers of people who
suffer from Parkinson's.

5. Researchers do not really understand why people living with

Parkinson’s disease have good days and bad ones.

DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 16: The long passage given below is

followed by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Timothy Fridtjof "Tim" Flannery (born 28 January 1956) is an Australian

mammalogist, palaeontologist, environmentalist and global warming activist.
He was the Chief Commissioner of the Climate Commission, a Federal
Government body providing information on climate change to the Australian
public. His sometimes controversial views on shutting down conventional
coal-fired power stations for electricity generation in the medium term are
frequently cited in the media. He is an environmental celebrity. His 2005
book, “The Weather Makers”, about climate science and global warming,
was a bestseller. His latest is his most ambitious book so far. The publisher
calls “Here on Earth” a twin biography, of humanity and the planet it inhabits,
but that description is inadequate. Mr Flannery's subject is the likely fate of
humankind, and whether the powers granted to modern civilisation by
science and technology will prove to be its downfall or its salvation.

He muses on whether humanity counts as a superorganism (a classification

usually reserved for bees and ants), why we have yet to discover intelligent
aliens, the poorly understood effects of dumping industrial chemicals into the
environment, the power of planet-watching networks of satellites and the
benefits of aboriginal scrub-burning. There is an effort to organise the
chapters around two competing models of human behaviour, a co-operative,
far-sighted wisdom that Mr Flannery dubs the “Gaian” approach and a
reckless, ultimately destructive short-termism that he calls “Medean”, after
the bloodthirsty enchantress of Greek myth.

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The trouble is that the subject is far too big to fit comfortably into a book a
little more than 300 pages long. Mr Flannery is a respected biologist with
plenty of published papers to his name, but the book feels dilettantish, with a
dizzying array of concepts introduced, briefly discussed, then dispensed
with before the reader has had time to digest them. The question of whether
modern democracies can successfully resist populist tyranny is raised and
then abandoned within two paragraphs. A discussion of decarbonising the
world's transport networks flashes by in a handful of pages. Fewer examples
more deeply explored might have added up to a more convincing case, and
an easier read.

That is a shame, because much of the material would repay a deeper look.
The “Gaia” theory, which is the subject of the opening chapters, starts with
the surprising observation that such things as the Earth's surface
temperature and the salinity of its oceans have fluctuated remarkably little
over billions of years despite, for instance, a significant increase in the power
of the sun. James Lovelock, who first proposed the Gaia theory, used an
analogy with living organisms, all of which can, to some degree, regulate
conditions within their own bodies. The theory brings to mind New Age
crankery, and some of the research Mr Flannery cites to underpin it is
speculative at best. For example, he mentions a scientific paper that
suggests that lichens, bacteria and the like may have been a driving force
behind prehistoric geology and the formation of continents. Mr Flannery
admits that the idea is “controversial”. But having shown the reader a
glimpse of this fascinating byway, he speeds straight past, impatient to reach
the next intellectual stop, while the tentative theory is simply accepted.

If the book is not all it could be, it is still worth reading, though less for
answers than for its interesting hypotheses. It is healthy to be reminded of
the various ways in which humans are influencing their environment – most
of them malign – and to recognise that even in an age of high technology,
our prosperity and well-being depend on our natural environment, which
furnishes us with air, water, food and the natural resources on which
industrial civilisation relies.

Q11.   Which of the following is inconsistent with the information presented

in the passage?

 a) The Gaia Theory essentially deals with whether the biosphere can
regulate the environment to suit itself, preventing the planet from freezing or
boiling.    

 b) Mr. Flannery succeeds in thumbing down the fundamentals of the “Gaia

theory” in his book.    

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 c) The “Gaia Theory” forms an introductory part of the book “Here on

Earth”.    

 d) The Gaian approach adopted by Flannery helps draw attention to

positive, cooperative possibilities in human behaviour.    

Q12.   What does 'that' stand for in “That is a shame... ?” (para 4)

 a) The author's reluctance to discuss matters more deeply.    

 b) The author presenting two contrasting views without taking a stand.    

 c) The author's failure to delve deep into the subject he has just touched
upon.    

 d) The author's selection of a subject that is not amenable to be covered in

a 300 page book.    

Q13.   Which of the following about the book “Here an Earth” is not true?

1. The book focuses on what man might do to himself and his

environment through the power he has acquired.

2. This is the first book of the author to become popular and make
him well known.

3. The book ponders on some of men's actions without explaining

them in totality.

4. The book looks at man in two contradictory roles.

5. It portrays the author as being a little wary because of the

confusion and contradictions in the topic of discussion and unwilling to take
sides in a debatable issue.

 a) b and e    

 b) c, d and e    

 c) a and e    

 d) b and d    

Q14.   Tim Flannery, as per the passage, is all of the following EXCEPT?

1. A person who studies living beings, life processes, mammals and

past geological periods as revealed by fossil remains.

2. An author who comes across as 'rambling' to a reader perusing

his book “Here on Earth”.

3. A person who wonders whether the planet can be saved through

science and technology.

4. A person who, though unsure about the validity of the Gaian and
Medean approaches, uses them anyway, to explain the larger picture on
Earth.

 a) Only d    

 b) a and b    

 c) c and d    

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 d) b and d    

Q15.   What, according to the reviewer, are the shortcomings of the book

“Here on Earth”?

 a) The book deals perfunctorily with a wide range of topics.    

 b) The book presents two models of humans that are at odds with each
other.    

 c) The book fails to account for man's inability to discover aliens.    

 d) The book is difficult to read as it has only a few examples to illustrate

difficult concepts.    

Q16.   In the final analysis, the reviewer's take on the book under review is
that

 a) it falls short of expectations, not answering any of the questions raised.    

 b) though cursory, it makes for an interesting read.    

 c) it should be read as the book is a fitting reminder of our dependence on

the environment.    

 d) it should be avoided as the book cannot cover all the nuts and bolts of a
broad scientific discipline.    

Q17.  DIRECTIONS for question 17: The following question has a paragraph

from which a sentence has been omitted, leaving the paragraph incomplete.
From the given options, choose the one that completes the blank in the
paragraph in the most appropriate way. Enter the number alongside the
correct answer choice in the input box given below the question.

The world of biology lies far beyond the naivety of selfish genes and their
supposedly lonely pursuits of self-replication and self-immortalisation.
Nature is not solely an arena for competitive and selfish replicators, even
though everyone is busy looking for the next meal or the next mate. In all
probability there has been, from the origin of life onwards, an intimate
interaction between consenting genes and proteins as they learned the trick
of producing successful, autonomously reproducing cells and organs.
_________________________________

1. The recent discoveries in biology are challenging how we think

about biological evolution.

2. Evolution is the name of this game.

3. Development then proceeded along predictable lines.

4. Genes are born to cooperate.

5. Our studies of these biological units have been facilitated by this

understanding.

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Q18.   DIRECTIONS for question 18: Five sentences related to a topic are

given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and
coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as
your answer and key it in.

1. But if governments wish to reverse the inequality big firms

foment, reforms to the labour market are unlikely to do the trick.

2. Thomas Piketty's "Capital in the Twenty-First Century" has

ignited a furious debate about inequality in the rich world.

3. Yet that disparity is ballooning, too: in America, for instance, the

best paid 1% of workers earned 191% more in real terms in 2011 than they
did in 1980, whereas the wages of the middle fifth fell by 5%.

4. He focuses on the increasingly unequal distribution of wealth,

and pays less attention to the growing disparity in wages over the past three
decades.

5. Similar trends can be observed all over the world, despite widely
varying policies on tax, the minimum wage and corporate pay.

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 24: The long passage given below is

followed by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question.

Indian culture has nurtured great management thinkers. Much has been
written recently by both management thinkers and other observers about the
uniquely Indian characteristics of successful business leaders operating in
India. These characteristics include, it is claimed, a commitment to inclusive
growth, a long-term perspective on business objectives, and the much
vaunted proclivity for jugaad – the improvisational ability to find workable
solutions around seemingly intractable problems in the business and
academic space.

Indian thinking about management, leadership, or global strategy has been

shaped by classical Indian literature such as the Bhagavad Gita. The
Bhagavad Gita is a wise and wonderful poem, with much thoughtful
commentary about both the conduct and the examination of life. The
philosophical ideas it encapsulates have had a pervasive influence on Indian
culture through the centuries and it is astonishing that a work of literature
composed two and a half millennia ago should have such resonance today.
While many Indians can recite a few shlokas from the Gita, and even aspire
to some of its wisdom, the custom of attributing one's inspiration for ideas to
the Gita seems to me to cheapen the influence, if for no other reason than
the fact that most of these ideas are unlikely to match either the grandeur or
the longevity of the Gita! Having said that, as far as India is concerned, if
there is one source which distills the Indian ethics and values, it is the
Bhagavad Gita. (Meeting the challenge of management depends on the
value perceptions of the individual which in turn are in tune with societal
values. Organizational culture is very much affected by values and ethos of a
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given society). In fact, to understand Hindu thinking and management

practices, there is no better guide than the Gita.

Every manager today has to operate in an environment of uncertainty and

turbulence, the degree of which is enhanced by the fact that we have given
up the permit-licence raj. In the era of licensing, competition was not so
severe but in the era of economic liberalization, practically in every area there
is going to be greater competition. The Indian economy is getting linked with
the global economy. Competition and uncertainty are increasingly becoming
a part of the management of enterprises in India.

The Bhagavad Gita becomes an excellent guide for any aspiring manager
who wants to be successful. The manner in which the Bhagavad Gita was
preached first is typical of the challenge faced by the manager. Arjuna was in
the field facing a difficult war. There were ethical issues as well as issues of
uncertainty regarding the outcome of the war. The first chapter of the Gita
begins with a highly demoralized Arjuna but at the end of the 18th chapter of
the Gita, Arjuna realizes the different dimensions of how he has to perform
his duty and goes ahead to perform that task. So, from a purely practical
point of view, the Bhagavad Gita can be studied every day by every manager
who is looking for inspiration, because he will find echoes of the problems
we are facing today in the verses of the Gita and find proper solutions
through inspiration.

In today's uncertainty, the most important characteristic, required of any

manager is the capacity for originality and creativity. One has to be a
contrarian. One must be able to visualize things which others are not
considering at the moment and it is by taking such a perspective that
perhaps one can identify new niche markets. One must challenge the
existing assumptions and conclusions so that one can arrive at new
solutions. ...

Civil servants can also look upon themselves as managers in the public
service and they must maintain the highest standards of excellence. The
verse in the second chapter of the Gita brings out the fact that excellence in
work is yoga. The concept of karma yoga is very much articulated by the
Gita and shoddy work has no role to play. As the competition becomes
severe, everybody is talking about the 'quality' jargon. Quality is nothing but
a quest for perfection and excellence.

Q19.   Why is the comparison of the modern day managers with Arjuna apt
as can be surmised from para 4 of the passage?

 a) Today's manager is as demoralized as was Arjuna at the start of the

war.    

 b) Today's manager faces issues of unpredictability and of right and wrong

as did Arjuna.    

 c) Today's manager is in the world of cut-throat competition resembling a

war.    

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 d) Today's manager has to be on the morally correct side as Arjuna had to

be.    

Q20.   Which of the following correctly represents the view of the author on

'jugaad' as expressed in the first para of the passage?

 a) It is a gnomic term whose meaning can be interpreted as per the context
and situation.    

 b) It is the trait among persons of Indian origin that is most responsible for
their success abroad.    

 c) It is a positive aspect inherent to Indians that enables them to avoid

difficult problems and find quick solutions.    

 d) It is a characteristic that has set Indians apart from other nationals in their
business and academic achievements.    

Q21.   What does the author mean when he says that a manager has to be a
'contrarian' (para 5)?

 a) He must always weigh the pros and cons of an action before undertaking
it and should not be open to taking unncessary risks.    

 b) He must be flexible enough to accept contrary viewpoints.    

 c) He must think in a way different from the common thinking.    

 d) He must think neither think originally nor creatively.    

Q22.   Which of the following resonates with the point(s) of view(s) of the

author in the second para of the passage?

 a) India’s culture plays a role in the preponderance of influential Indian

management thinkers.    

 b) The Bhagavad Gita does not in any way influence the decision making
process of Indian Managers.    

 c) The Bhagavad Gita is primarily responsible for the ethos governing Indian
managers.    

 d) The Bhagavad Gita has not satisfactorily shaped the ethical foundation of
Indian leaders.    

Q23.   Which of the following is true about the Bhagavad Gita as can be

inferred from the passage?

1. The Bhagavad Gita helps management in achieving its goals by

reflecting the values of Indian society.

2. The Bhagavad Gita enables one to develop a sense of

detachment while performing his or her duty.

3. The advice contained in the Gita to a civil servant is that he must

be unbaised and must do his or her duty without worrying about the results.

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4. The Gita exhorts a civil servant to always strive for excellence in

his or her work.

 a) a and d    

 b) b and d    

 c) a and c    

 d) b and c    

Q24.   According to the passage, what is /are responsible for competition

becoming severe now?

1. Globally, competition has become the indispensable feature of

business enterprises.

2. The era of 'permit licence raj' has given place to the era of
'economic liberalization'.

3. Indian economy is fast becoming a part and parcel of global

economy.

4. People's awareness enriched by the media.

 a) Only c    

 b) a and b    

 c) b and c    

 d) b, c and d    

Q25.  DIRECTIONS for question 25: The sentences given below, when

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled
with a number (1, 2, 3, 4 or 5). Decide on the proper order for the sentences
and key in the correct sequence of five numbers as your answer in the input
box given below the question.

1. It is tempting to think that in a different era, Eleanor Roosevelt

could have become president of the United States.

2. She was also fierce in support of her causes and she tirelessly
lobbied her husband, Franklin Delano Roosevelt, to embrace her projects
too.

3. FDR encouraged her independence and when he silenced her

did so for reasons of state.

4. Widely loved, the longest-serving first lady was on the right side
of history on virtually every subject, including civil rights, acceptance of
European refugees and the ending of empires.

5. Theirs was one of history’s most powerful and enduring

partnerships; she understood his needs and embarked on her own
independent career.

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Q26.   DIRECTIONS for question 26: In the following question, there are

sentences or fragments of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the
sentence(s) or fragments of sentence(s) that is /are correct in terms of
grammar and usage, including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency.
Enter the number corresponding to the sentence(s) or fragments of
sentence(s) in the input box provided below the question. [Note: Enter your
answer in increasing order only. For example, if you think that the fragments
(2) and (4) are correct, then enter 24 (but not 42) in the input box.]

1. It began with a grove of sycamores. Since months

environmentalists had been protesting against a government-backed plan

2. to chop the trees down to make rooms for a shopping and

residential complex in Istanbul’s Taksim Square.

3. They organised a peaceful sit-in with tents, singing and dancing.

On May 31st, riot police staged a pre-dawn raid,

4. dousing up the protesters with jets of water and tear gas and
setting fire to their encampment. Images for the brutality –

5. showing some protesters bloodied, others blinded by plastic

bullets – spread as wildfire across social media.

DIRECTIONS for questions 27 to 29: The short passage given below is

followed by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each
question.

One of the most influential historians of the blues is Amiri Baraka who,
writing as Leroi Jones in his first book Blues People, explores the African-
American experience of the US through music. The blues, he explains, is the
response of African abductees to their American enslavement, a cultural
outpouring developed from work songs and spirituals which represents in
microcosm the entire range and nuance of a people’s adaptation to a foreign
land they were given no choice but to make into a home. ...

Both Baraka and Albert Murray, another prominent African-American

historian of uniquely American music, tell the story of jazz in such a way as
to underscore its birth out of the blues. For Baraka, one of the more coherent
ways of defining jazz is as a synthesis of European instrumentation and the
African-derived polyrhythms that, fundamentally, are the blues – even as jazz
developed its own trajectory. Murray’s tracing of this history
in Stomping the Blues reiterates this common heritage but concentrates so
much on jazz and jazz musicians that a reader who comes to his book
looking for an analysis of the blues may feel shortchanged. ...

Frank Kofsky tells the story of jazz through a narrative reminiscent of Thomas
Kuhn's Structure of Scientific Revolutions, a story of problem-solving within
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paradigms that finally break down and must be replaced. He too endorses
the thesis that music and socio-political relations go hand in hand, arguing
that we can see in the free jazz that emerged in the early 1960s a kind of
“proto-nationalism” which presaged the black nationalist messages of
Malcolm X, the Black Panthers, and other “do for self” movements in
African-American communities during the 1960s. These movements stressed
the need for community self-sufficiency in the face of a systemically racist
white majoritarian society and although the black nationalist (black
separatist) message was often simplistically opposed to the integrationism
attributed to Martin Luther King and the Civil Rights Movement, their
community development efforts – after-school arts programs for children,
musical benefits to feed people struggling with food insecurity,
“neighborhood watch” security efforts – still stand as tangible models for
grassroots solidarity. The self-sufficiency message Kofsky finds in jazz proto-
nationalism is a celebration of a unique African-American aesthetic, one that
contested the aesthetic imperialism of the white critics who promoted the
value and determined the negotiating power of the mostly black musicians
within the system of white-owned recording and performance institutions. At
the height of the free jazz movement, self-sufficiency imperatives were the
driving force behind the independent recording facilities and cooperatively
owned performance venues with which Coltrane and Coleman
experimented.

Q27.   Which of the following choices correctly captures the stance adopted

by Baraka and Murray as can be inferred from the passage?

 a) Baraka focussed on jazz emphasizing its origin out of the blues while
Murray concentrated on jazz without emphasizing its origin out of the
blues.    

 b) Murray thought of blues as an amalgamation of European instruments

and African music while Baraka concentrated on jazz without analyzing the
blues.    

 c) While both Baraka and Murray initially focussed their attention on the
birth of jazz out of the blues, they both finally embraced free jazz.    

 d) Both Baraka and Murray looked at jazz as being born out of the blues
which was an amalgamation of European instruments and African music but
Murray later focussed all of his attention on jazz alone.    

Q28.   What is the style of the passage?

 a) Narrative.    

 b) Descriptive.    

 c) Analytical.    

 d) Argumentative.    

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Q29.   All of the following are true of the “self-sufficiency” that Frank Kofsky
speaks of in jazz protonationalism EXCEPT?

 a) It rejected the Eurocentric ideal of the original jazz in favor of an

understanding that one makes an original contribution when one adds one’s
own perspective to an existing cultural product.    

 b) It challenged the aesthetic imperialism of the racist white majoritarian

society who controlled the black musicians in their recording and
performance institutions.    

 c) It led to the development of independent recording facilities and

cooperatively owned performance venues in a white dominated society.    

 d) It is at variance with the integrationism attributed to Martin Luther King

and the Civil Rights Movement only in its approach.    

Q30.   DIRECTIONS for question 30: Five sentences related to a topic are

given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and
coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as
your answer and key it in.

1. The new venue, by Jean Nouvel, cost €386m ($460m) and is in

the unfashionable 19th arrondissement in the north-east of the city.

2. Construction of the Philharmonie, which began in 2011, has been

anything but simple.

3. Until a few weeks ago, Parisians wanting to hear a great classical

pianist or a world-class orchestra would head for the Salle Pleyel near the
Champs Elysées.

4. Instead, from January 14th, top-tier orchestras and musicians,

including Pleyel’s resident ensemble, the Orchestre de Paris, will move to the
Philharmonie de Paris.

5. That option is no longer available as the venue will now be used

for other kinds of music.

Q31.   DIRECTIONS for question 31: The following question has a paragraph

from which a sentence has been omitted, leaving the paragraph incomplete.
From the given options, choose the one that completes the blank in the
paragraph in the most appropriate way. Enter the number alongside the
correct answer choice in the input box given below the question.

Every novel function in nature can be viewed as an interesting mix of

adaptations, exaptations and adoptations. In our current state of knowledge
we are not in any position to quantify the relative contributions of any of
these three processes and their products for any given function. We are
beginning to acquire the experimental tools to tease out the contribution of
one or the other process in one or other function, which could help us relieve

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some of our deepest ignorance of the world around us.

_____________________

1. This only shows how presumptuous we are in our assessment of

our scientific abilities.

2. There are realms of nature that will always remain beyond our
ken.

3. There can be no expansion of knowledge until we rid ourselves of

this ignorance.

4. However, researchers can hold their heads high, knowing that we

are on the right track.

5. We face an exhilarating prospect for the future, but cannot arrive

at easy answers for the present.

DIRECTIONS for questions 32 to 34: The short passage given below is

followed by a set of three questions. Choose the best answer to each
question.

Do the languages we speak shape the way we think? Do English,

Indonesian, Russian and Turkish speakers end up understanding and
remembering their experiences differently simply because they speak
different languages?

Take "Humpty Dumpty sat on a..." Even this nursery rhyme reveals how
much languages can differ from one another. In English, we have to mark the
verb for tense; we say "sat" rather than "sit." In Indonesian you need not
change the verb to mark tense. In Russian, you would have to mark tense
and also gender (changing the verb if Mrs. Dumpty did the sitting) and
decide if the sitting event was completed or not. In Turkish, you would have
to include in the verb how you acquired this information.

The question of whether languages shape the way we think goes back
centuries; Charlemagne proclaimed that "to have a second language is to
have a second soul." But the idea went out of favour with scientists when
Noam Chomsky proposed that there is a universal grammar for all human
languages which don't really differ from one another. It made no sense to ask
whether linguistic differences led to differences in thinking.

Of course, just because people talk differently doesn't necessarily mean they
think differently. In the past decade, cognitive scientists have begun to
measure not just how people talk, but also how they think, asking whether
our understanding of even such fundamental domains of experience as
space, time and causality could be constructed by language.

Patterns in language offer a window on a culture's dispositions and priorities.

For example, English sentence structures focus on agents, and in our
criminal-justice system, justice has been done when we've found the
transgressor and punished him or her accordingly (rather than finding the
victims and restituting appropriately, an alternative approach to justice). So
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does the language shape cultural values, or does the influence go the other
way, or both?

To demonstrate the causal role of language in shaping thoughts, one needs

studies that directly manipulate language and look for effects in cognition. It
turns out that if you change how people talk, that changes how they think.
When bilingual people switch from one language to another, they start
thinking differently. If you take away people's ability to use language in a
simple nonlinguistic task, their performance can change dramatically, making
them look no smarter than rats or infants. New research shows us that the
languages we speak not only reflect or express our thoughts, but also shape
the very thoughts we wish to express.The structures that exist in our
languages profoundly shape how we construct reality, and help make us as
smart and sophisticated as we are.

Q32.   Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

 a) When we study language, we are uncovering in part what makes us

human, getting a peek at the very nature of human nature.    

 b) New cognitive research suggests that language profoundly influences the

way people see the world.    

 c) In English and in Russian, we need to mark the verb for tense but not
necessarily so in Indonesian and Turkish.    

 d) New evidence supports the growing belief that a cause-effect relationship

exists between language and differences in thought.    

Q33.   Which of the following best captures the relationship between culture

and language as can be understood from the passage?

 a) Language rules dictate how connotations of words need to vary greatly

from culture to culture or from country to country.    

 b) Language defines whole societies and can explain how a culture is

caught in a vicious cycle of newness and obsolescence.    

 c) Language can influence a culture's conceptions of justice, its inclinations

and its values.    

 d) Culture is the fruit of human language which discusses the importance

given to human actions in a given culture.    

Q34.   What can be inferred from the statement “If you take away people's
ability to use language in a simple nonlinguistic task, their performance can
change dramatically, making them look no smarter than rats or infants.”
given in the last para of the passage?

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 AIMCAT 1807

 a) Language is evolutionary and words can influence our performance.    

 b) Language has shaped human consciousness.    

 c) There is a universal language common to all humans; which when taken

away makes us no better than rats or infants.    

 d) Devoid of language, humans would be incapable of interpreting and

organizing reality.    

DILR

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

On a particular day, exactly six persons – Amar, Bhanu, Chetan, Dinesh,

Gaurav and Jitesh – visited a doctor for consultation, not necessarily in the
same order. Each person paid a different amount to the doctor as
consultation fee and each person consulted the doctor at a different time. At
the end of the day, the doctor noticed that, except for the first two persons,
the rest of the persons paid a consultation fee, which was equal to the
average of the consultation fees paid by the previous two persons. The
following information is known about the fees paid and the order in which
they consulted the doctor:

1. The consultation fee paid by each person (in Rs.) was not
necessarily an integer and no person paid more than Rs.2500.

2. Bhanu paid Rs.1000, which was the lowest among all the six
persons, and she consulted the doctor immediately before Gaurav, who did
not pay the highest amount.

3. Amar paid Rs.100 more than Dinesh, who consulted the doctor
before both Amar and Jitesh.

Q1.   DIRECTIONS for question 1: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

What is the highest amount (in Rs.) paid for consultation by any of the six
persons?

Q2.   DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

Who was the last person to consult the doctor?

 a) Jitesh    

 b) Gaurav    

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 AIMCAT 1807

 c) Amar    

 d) Chetan    

Q3.   DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

What is the total amount paid by all the six persons combined?

 a) Rs.8550    

 b) Rs.8150    

 c) Rs.6750    

 d) Rs.7950    

Q4.   DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 4: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

Who among the six persons paid the second lowest amount for
consultation?

 a) Chetan    

 b) Dinesh    

 c) Gaurav    

 d) Jitesh    

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

An ancient tribe living in a Central African forest uses apples, oranges and
bananas as their currency for all their transactions. Each apple is worth a
certain number of oranges and each orange is worth a certain number of
bananas. Any member of the tribe can exchange any number of the apples,
oranges or bananas that he/she has with an equivalent number of other
fruits. The three fruits are always traded whole, i.e., they are never cut into
parts for the purpose of exchanging. The tribe does not have access to any
other types of fruits.

On a particular day, Xio’tole, a member of this tribe, had with him four
apples, three oranges and five bananas. He first exchanged one apple with
one orange and three bananas. Later, he exchanged three oranges and one
banana with two apples.

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 AIMCAT 1807

Q5.   DIRECTIONS for question 5: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

Today morning, Xi’jaee, the brother of Xio’tole, exchanged exactly one fruit
and ended up with equal number of apples, oranges and bananas. What is
the minimum total number of fruits that he could have had before he
exchanged the fruit?

Q6.   DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

If, immediately after Xio’tole exchanged the fruits, he purchased a boat, the
maximum possible price of the boat is equivalent to

 a) 3 apples, 3 oranges, 8 bananas.    

 b) 5 apples, 2 oranges, 5 bananas.    

 c) 1 apple, 9 oranges, 4 bananas.    

 d) 4 apples, 2 oranges, 10 bananas.    

Q7.   DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

Xigumbe, a member of this tribe, had with him 6 apples, 11 oranges and 9
bananas. What is the total number of fruits that he can exchange in order to
be left with an equal number of apples, oranges and bananas?

 a) 3    

 b) 4    

 c) 5    

 d) More than one of the above    

Q8.   DIRECTIONS for question 8: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

De’yshan, a member of this tribe, had with her at least one fruit of each type.
First, she exchanged two oranges and then she exchanged two apples. After
this, she exchanged a certain number of bananas for exactly one apple and
she ended up with an equal number of apples, oranges and bananas. What
is the minimum number of fruits that she had with her after she exchanged
the fruits?

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 12: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

Exactly 100 students attempted a test which had two parts – Part A and Part
B. Each part of the test has a different cut-off mark and the test also has a
Page 21
 AIMCAT 1807

total cut-off mark. Any student is said to have cleared the cut-off of a part of
the test only if his score in that part is greater than or equal to the cut-off
mark of that part. Any student is said to have cleared the test only if he
cleared the cut-offs in both the parts and his total score in the test is greater
than or equal to the total cut-off mark. Any student who scored less than any
of the three cut-off marks is said to have failed the test. The following
information is known about the number of students who cleared the cut-offs
in each part of the test:

1. The number of students who cleared the cut-off in Part A is one-

third the number of students who failed the test.

2. The number of students who did not clear the cut-off only in Part
B is the same as the number of students who cleared only the total cut-off.

3. The number of students who did not clear the cut-off only in Part
A is thirty less than the number of students who did not clear exactly two of
the three cut-offs.

4. The number of students who cleared the cut-off only in Part B is

two times the number of students who did not clear the cut-off only in Part
A.

5. Exactly 34 students cleared at least two of the three cut-offs and

exactly 87 students failed the test.

6. The number of students who did not clear any of the three cut-
offs is 6 more than the number of students who cleared all the three cut-offs.

Q9.   DIRECTIONS for question 9: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

How many students did not clear exactly two of the three cut-offs?

Q10.   DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If the cut-off for Part A was 20 and the cut-off for Part B was 10, what is the
minimum number of students who would have scored at least 30 marks in
the test?

 a) 16    

 b) 13    

 c) 6    

 d) 3    

Q11.   DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

What is the difference between the number of students who passed the test
and the number of students who failed the test?

 a) 48    

 b) 61    

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 AIMCAT 1807

 c) 74    

 d) 87    

Q12.   DIRECTIONS for questions 10 to 12: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Which of the following is the highest?

 a) The number of students who cleared the cut-off in Part A.    

 b) The number of students who cleared the cut-off in Part B.    

 c) The number of students who cleared the total cut-off.    

 d) The number of students who did not clear any of the three cut-offs.    

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 16: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

Hari works in a parking lot. On a particular day, he found that there were
three types of vehicles parked in the parking lot – Cars, Bikes and Vans.
Further, he also noticed that the colour of each vehicle was red, black, blue
or yellow. The table below provides the number of vehicles by type of vehicle
parked in the parking lot and the pie chart provides the percentage breakup
of the number of vehicles by colour of the vehicle.

Q13.   DIRECTIONS for question 13: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

If the number of red cars, black bikes and yellow vans are in the ratio 17 : 5 :
4, the number of blue bikes is at least

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 AIMCAT 1807

Q14.   DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 16: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If x% of cars and x% of bikes are blue in colour, what is the maximum
possible value of x (there cannot be fraction of a car and bike)?

 a) 38.8%    

 b) 37.5%    

 c) 35%    

 d) 25%    

Q15.   DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 16: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If half of the bikes are of one colour and the other half of them are of another
colour, what is the maximum possible number of blue cars in the parking lot?

 a) 2    

 b) 4    

 c) 40    

 d) 45    

Q16.   DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 16: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

For any type of vehicle, if there are an equal number of black, blue, red and
yellow vehicles of that type, they are said to be equally distributed. Which of
the following statements is definitely false?

 a) Only cars are equally distributed.    

 b) Only bikes are equally distributed.    

 c) Both cars and bikes are equally distributed.    

 d) None of the above.    

DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

The city of Fleecewood conducted elections for electing four posts – Mayor,
Councilman, Administrator and Commissioner. Each of five persons – Adam,
Ben, Chris, George and Michael – contested for all the four posts. There are
nine wards – Ward 1 through Ward 9 – in Fleecewood. Further, each citizen

Page 24
 AIMCAT 1807

casts exactly one vote, favouring any one of the five persons. After all the
citizens voted, the four officials are elected based on the following criteria:

1. The candidate who received the highest number of votes across

the nine wards combined is elected the Mayor.

2. For a candidate to be elected as the Councilman, he should have

received at least 15% of the votes polled in a ward for each ward. Among
the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate with the highest
number of votes is elected the Councilman.

3. For a candidate to be elected as the Administrator, he should

have received at least 15% of the votes polled in that ward for at least 6
wards. Among the candidates who satisfy this condition, the candidate
who topped * the maximum number of wards in elected the Administrator.

4. For a candidate to be elected as the Commissioner, he must

have topped* the maximum number of wards.

The same person can be elected to two or more posts.

*A candidate is said to have topped a ward if he received a maximum

number of votes across the five candidates in that ward

The following table provides the votes received by the five candidates in
each ward of the city:

Q17.   DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

What is the difference between the number of votes received by the Mayor in
Ward 6 and the number of votes received by the Administrator in Ward 9?

 a) 45    

 b) 95    

 c) 52    

 d) 28    

Q18.   DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Who will be elected for more than one post?

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 AIMCAT 1807

 a) Ben    

 b) Adam    

 c) George    

 d) None of them    

Q19.   DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

What is the difference between the total number of votes received by the
Commissioner and the total number of votes received by the Councilman?

 a) 14    

 b) 97    

 c) 100    

 d) 83    

Q20.   DIRECTIONS for questions 17 to 20: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If the total number of votes received by the Mayor, Councilman,

Administrator and the Commissioner as a percentage of the total number of
votes polled is a%, b%, c% and d%, which of the following is true?

 a) a > d > c > b    

 b) a > c = d > b    

 c) a > b = c > d    

 d) a = d > c > b    

DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

Ankit, a Marketing professor, has twelve students – A through L – enrolled in

his class. He wanted to form study groups of these students, in the following
manner, based on the marks that they scored in an examination:

For each study group that he wants to form, he first identifies the monitor of
the study group. Any student whose marks fall within a 10% range of the
marks of the monitor can be in the study group of that monitor. The monitors
of the study groups can be any of the twelve students.

The size of a study group includes the monitor and all the members of the
study group. Further, the size of each study group must be at least two and
the size of all the study groups need not be the same. Each student must be
a part of exactly one study group.

The following table provides the marks scored by the twelve students in the
examination:

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 AIMCAT 1807

Q21.   DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

The students given in which of the following options can be the only
students in a study group?

 a) A, B, D, F    

 b) C, F, G, L    

 c) C, I, J, L    

 d) F, G, I, J    

Q22.   DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Who among the following will definitely be in the same study group?

 a) A and C    

 b) B and K    

 c) D and I    

 d) B and H    

Q23.   DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If Ankit wanted all the study groups to have the same number of students,
what is the minimum number of study groups that he must form?

 a) 2    

 b) 3    

 c) 4    

 d) 6    

Q24.   DIRECTIONS for questions 21 to 24: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If D, G and L must be in the same group, who among the following cannot
be a monitor?

 a) D    

 b) A    

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 AIMCAT 1807

 c) E    

 d) L    

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

Himesh, the manager of a gym, has six different weighing machines –

Machine A through Machine F – in his gym. However, except for one, none of
the machines display the correct weight. On a particular day, Himesh
measured his weight on each of the six machines and each machine
displayed a different weight among 50 kg, 53 kg, 58 kg, 61 kg, 64 kg and 70
kg, in no particular order. The following information is known about the
weights displayed by the machines:

1. The weight displayed by Machine A was more than that

displayed by Machine D but neither of them displayed the correct weight.

2. The weight displayed by Machine F was 3 kg more than the

correct weight of Himesh.

3. The machine that displayed the correct weight did not record the
lowest weight among the six machines.

4. The weight displayed by Machine C was 6 kg more than that

displayed by Machine B, which did not record the correct weight.

Q25.   DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input

box provided below the question.

What is the correct weight (in kg) of Himesh?

Q26.   DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input

box provided below the question.

What is the difference (in kg) between the weight displayed by Machine D
and that displayed by Machine C?

Q27.   DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input

box provided below the question.

What was the weight (in kg) displayed by Machine A?

Q28.   DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 28: Type in your answer in the input

box provided below the question.

If the error (in kg) in measurement of each machine is constant, what will be
the weight displayed by Machine B for a dumbbell weighing 20kg?

DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Answer these questions on the basis of

the information given below.

Eight delegates – A through H – attended a conference on climate change

and were seated around a circular table with eight equally spaced chairs. Of
the eight delegates, there were two delegates from each of China, India and
USA and there was one delegate from Britain and one from France. The eight
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 AIMCAT 1807

delegates were asked to cast a vote on a proposal and each delegate voted
either ‘Yes’ or ‘No’. Further, no two delegates from the same country were
sitting adjacent to each other and no two delegates from the same country
casted the same vote for the proposal.

The following information is known about their positions, the countries they
are from and their votes:

1. One of the delegates from China was sitting opposite F, who is

from neither France nor India.

2. G was sitting adjacent to A, who is from USA and both of them

cast the same vote.

3. B, who is from Britain, was sitting opposite H, who, in turn, is

from India and H voted ‘Yes’.

4. No three persons sitting consecutively cast the same vote.

5. No delegate from China was sitting adjacent to a delegate from

Britain.

6. D, who is from China, is sitting opposite a delegate from India,

who, in turn, cast the same vote as both C and D.

7. The delegate who is from France was sitting two places to the
left of the delegate who is from Britain.

Q29.   DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

How many delegates voted Yes?

 a) 3    

 b) 4    

 c) 5    

 d) 6    

Q30.   DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Which country is C from?

 a) USA    

 b) India    

 c) France    

 d) China    

Q31.   DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Who among the following is sitting two places away from G and is not from
China?

 a) C    

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 b) B    

 c) E    

 d) F    

Q32.   DIRECTIONS for questions 29 to 32: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

For how many delegates can it be said that at least one of the delegates
sitting adjacent to them voted the same as them?

 a) 8    

 b) 7    

 c) 5    

 d) 3    

QA

Q1.   DIRECTIONS for question 1: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

The units digit of each of two natural numbers, X and Y, when expressed in

the number system to the base n is a. If the units digit of   when
expressed to the base n is either 2 or 5, find n.

Q2.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

Yadav was using the following algorithm on his computer. In the algorithm,
the function Rem (x /t) gives the remainder when x is divided by t.

If at the end of the program, sum = 7, which of the following could be a

possible value of x?

 a) 960    

 b) 840    

 c) 3600    

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 d) 1800    

Q3.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

When a new person is included, the average weight of a group increases by

1 kg. Instead, if the new person replaces one of the persons in the group, the
average weight of the group decreases by 1 kg. If the weight of the replaced
person is 50 kg, then which of the following statements is/are definitely true?

1. Twice the weight of the new person is more than the initial
average weight of the group.

2. The initial number of members in the group is odd.

3. The magnitude, in kg, of the weight of the new person is an odd

number.

4. The magnitude, in kg, of the initial average weight of the group is

an odd number.

 a) Only II and IV    

 b) Only II and III    

 c) Only I and IV    

 d) Only I and III    

Q4.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

If A = {x : x ≤ 10 and x   N}, B = {2} and C = {7} and S is a subset of A such

that n(S ∩ B) = 1 and n(S ∩ C) = 0, how many such subsets are possible?

 a) 1023    

 b) 255    

 c) 818    

 d) 256    

Q5.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

A trader marked a watch 40% above the cost price and then gave a discount
of 10%. If he made a net profit of Rs.468 after paying a tax of 10% on the
gross profit, find the cost price of the watch.

 a) Rs.1,800    

 b) Rs.1,200    

 c) Rs.2,000    

 d) Rs.2,200    

Q6.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

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There are two concentric circles. P, Q and R are three distinct points on the
circumference of the outer circle such that PQ and PR are tangents to the
inner circle. If the area of the outer circle is 36 sq.cm. and that of the inner
one is 4 sq.cm., the area (in sq.cm) of the triangle PQR is

 a)      

 b)      

 c)      

 d)      

Q7.  DIRECTIONS for questions 2 to 7: Select the correct alternative from

the given choices.

Three friends A, B and C have decided to complete a work together. The

time taken by A, working alone, to the complete the work is 12.5% more
than the time taken by B and C, working together, to complete the work. The
time taken by B, working alone, is 426/7% more than the time taken by A
and C, working together, to complete the work. If C, working alone, takes 63
days to complete the work, find the time taken by all three of them together
to complete the work.

 a)   days    

 b)   days    

 c)   days    

 d) None of the above    

Q8.   DIRECTIONS for question 8: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

Find the number of ordered pairs of positive integers (x, y) which satisfy the
equation xy = y60.

Q9.   DIRECTIONS for question 9: Select the correct alternative from the

given choices.

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In the equation (x – m) (x – n) – 4 = 0, if m is greater than n, which of the

following is true about the roots of the equation?

 a) Both the roots lie in [n, m].    

 b) One root is in (–   , n) and the other root is in (m,   ).    

 c) Both the roots are non-real.    

 d) Both the roots lie in (n + 4, m + 4).    

Q10.   DIRECTIONS for question 10: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

A square of the greatest possible area is cut out from a rectangle, leaving
behind a smaller rectangle. If the ratio of the length and the breadth of the
smaller rectangle is equal to that of the original rectangle, then how many
times the area of the smaller rectangle is area of the square cut out?

Enter your answer accurate upto three decimal places.

Q11.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

There are 12 numbers, p1, p2, ……., p12, satisfying the

condition p1 > p2 > p3 …… p10 > p11 > p12. How many sets of the form
(a, b, c), where a > b > c, can be formed from these 12 numbers?

 a) 120    

 b) 150    

 c) 180    

 d) 220    

Q12.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

In a four-digit number, the sum of the first two digits is four-fifths of the sum
of the last two digits, while the sum of the first digit and the last digit equals
the sum of the other two digits. If the first digit is less than the second digit,
how many such four-digit numbers exist?

 a) 2    

 b) 3    

 c) 4    

 d) More than 4    

Q13.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

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 AIMCAT 1807

A single rail track exists between two stations, X and Y. A superfast train, S,
leaves station X for station Y, at 8:00 a.m., and when it reaches Y, a
passenger train, P, immediately starts from Y and reaches X by 9:30 a.m. The
speed of the superfast train, S, is double that of another express train, E,
which, in turn, is double that of the passenger train, P. On a particular day,
due to a technical snag, the superfast train starts at X, 30 minutes behind the
normal schedule. However, in order to maintain the schedule, both S and P
increase their speeds. If S doubles its speed, what should be the ratio of the
new speeds of the passenger train and the superfast train such that the
passenger train reaches X exactly at the scheduled time on that day?

 a) 1 : 5    

 b) 2 : 11    

 c) 3 : 17    

 d) 4 : 25    

Q14.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If logn 54 = a and logn 72 = b, find logn 1728, in terms of a and b.

 a)      

 b)      

 c)      

 d)      

Q15.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

A and B went to a market and found that the only fruits available there were
bananas and mangoes. A purchased 23 mangoes more than the number of
mangoes purchased by B. After that, both A and B purchased certain
number of bananas as well. If A and B purchased a total of 30 and 40 fruits
respectively and spent an equal amount of money on the fruits, find the price
of a mango (in Rs.), given that it is Rs.10 more than that of a banana.

 a) 23    

 b) 43    

 c) 33    

 d) 86    

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 AIMCAT 1807

Q16.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If the non-reflex angle subtended by a chord of a circle at its centre equals

the angle subtended by the chord on the minor arc, what is the ratio of the
radius of the circle and the distance between two such parallel chords?

 a) 1 : 1    

 b)   : 1    

 c) 1 :      

 d)   :      

Q17.  DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 17: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Three filling pipes, R, S and T, together, can fill an empty tank in two hours. S
can fill the tank four times faster than T. Initially, R alone is opened and after
exactly x hours, it is closed and immediately S and T are opened together.
The tank is full after exactly another y hours. If the tank was filled in a total of
4 hours, and x ≠ y, find the time (in hours) that T alone would take to fill the
tank.

 a) 6    

 b) 12    

 c) 20    

 d) 24    

Q18.   DIRECTIONS for question 18: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

What is the sum of all the odd numbers less than 1000 that can be formed
using only the digits 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, with repetitions being allowed?

Q19.  DIRECTIONS for question 19: Select the correct alternative from the

given choices.

If |x – 4| = |x| + |x − 3|, how many distinct values of x are possible?

 a) 1    

 b) 2    

 c) 3    

 d) 4    

Q20.   DIRECTIONS for question 20: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

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 AIMCAT 1807

Find the number of integral values of x, that satisfy the

inequality 

Q21.  DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

How many prime numbers are there which when divided by another prime
number, give a quotient which is the same as the remainder?

 a) 0    

 b) 1    

 c) 2    

 d) More than 2    

Q22.  DIRECTIONS for questions 21 and 22: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

In a nuclear reaction, two species A and B are formed at different times. A

reference time to (t0 = 0) is selected. At time t equal to –2 μs (microseconds),
the age of A is 18 μs more than three times that of B. When is the age of A
exactly three times that of B?

 a) t = –7 µs    

 b) t = 7 µs    

 c) t = –9 µs    

 d) t = 9 µs    

Q23.   DIRECTIONS for question 23: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

What is the maximum number of planes that can be flying in a squadron of

fighter planes, such that each plane in the squadron is equidistant from every
other plane in the squadron?

Q24.   DIRECTIONS for question 24: Select the correct alternative from the

given choices.

In a 100 metre race, A can beat B by 10 m and C by 20 m. In a certain 500 m

race, if A starts from a point 50 m behind the starting line, B starts from the
starting line and C starts from a point 50 m ahead of the starting line, who
finishes the race first?

 a) A    

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 AIMCAT 1807

 b) B    

 c) C    

 d) All three finish the race at the same time.    

Q25.   DIRECTIONS for question 25: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

The product of the lengths of the sides of a right-angled triangle is 33600. If

its perimeter is 112, find the length of its hypotenuse.

Q26.  DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 29: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

If a^(p – q). b^(q – r). c^(r – p) = 1, and a, b, c, p, q and r are rational

numbers, then which of the following statements is necessarily true?

 a) a, b and c must all be equal.    

 b) p = q = r    

 c) Either (A) or (B)    

 d) None of the above    

Q27.  DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 29: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

The expression 54R – 44R, where R is an even number, is always divisible by

which of the following numbers?

(i) 9

(ii) 41

(iii) 881

 a) Only (i)    

 b) Only (i) and (ii)    

 c) (i), (ii) and (iii)    

 d) None of the above    

Q28.  DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 29: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

D is a point on side BC of triangle ABC, while E is a point on AD. Find the

ratio AE : ED, if the area of triangle ABC is 87.5% greater than that of triangle
AEC and CD is twice BD.

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 AIMCAT 1807

 a) 1 : 1    

 b) 2 : 1    

 c) 3 : 1    

 d) 4 : 1    

Q29.  DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 29: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

In a school, 20 students play cricket, 30 play basketball and 50 play hockey.

If the number of students who play exactly one game is 30 and the number
of students who play exactly two games is 20, find the number of students
who play all the three games.

 a) 15    

 b) 10    

 c) 16    

 d) Cannot be determined    

Q30.   DIRECTIONS for question 30: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

If y =   and x < 0, what is the greatest integer value that y can

assume?

Q31.  DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 33: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Of 64 boxes of apricots, each box contains at least 60 and at most 81

apricots and not more than three boxes have the same number of apricots.
What is the least number of apricots that can be there in all the boxes
together?

 a) 4,532    

 b) 4,391    

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 AIMCAT 1807

 c) 4,491    

 d) 4,492    

Q32.  DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 33: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

Chandrakanth took a loan of Rs.50,000, at an interest rate of 10% per

annum, interest being compounded annually. If he repaid Rs.10,000 at the
end of the first year and an equal amount at the end of each of the second,
third and the fourth years, find the amount he has to pay at the end of the
fifth year to repay the entire loan.

 a) Rs.20,050    

 b) Rs.22,275.5    

 c) Rs.26,795    

 d) Rs.29,474.5    

Q33.  DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 33: Select the correct alternative

from the given choices.

The base radius and height of a right circular cone C1 are equal to the height
and radius of a cylinder L1 respectively. The height and radius of C1 are
interchanged to get another cone C2 and similarly the height and radius of
L1 are interchanged to get another cylinder L2. If the volume of L1 is 9 times
the volume of C1, what is the ratio of the volumes of L2 and C2?

 a) 1 : 9    

 b) 1: 3    

 c) 1 : 1    

 d) 3 : 1    

Q34.   DIRECTIONS for question 34: Type in your answer in the input box

provided below the question.

Find the remainder when 2^1783 is divided by 73.

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