NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY

CUM ENTRANCE TEST

NEET (UG), 2017
BOOKLET CODE-D
(APRA)
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�-
1. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one 5. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
What is the fundamental frequency of the system? (Kelvin) and mass m, is:
(1) 30 Hz
2h
(2) 40 Hz (1)
(3) 10 Hz -J3mkT
� 20 Hz 2h
(2)
2. AU tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is JmkT
partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible
with water, is poured into one side until it stands at h
a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the (3) JmkT
other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm
from its original level (see diagram). The density of h
the oil is

Pa Pa
6. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
··---------iF
-- ·:10 mm
---�------ -__ .:;,_Final water level
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy
65mm of resulting system:
' -----o-::.. -:- --- Ini'haI water I eveI
---X·
(1) remains the same
65mm
B (2) mc-rt:u!>es by a factor of 2
- Water (3) increases by a factor of 4
(4) decreases by a factor of 2
(1) 800 kg m-3
(2) 928 kg m-3
(3) 650 kg m-3 7. Which one of the following represents forward
bias diode?
(4) 425 kg m-3
3. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion (1)
_- 2_V_[>'>II - _ R +2V
with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at
>
2 cm trom the mean position, the magnitude of its
�-is equal to that of its accel�ag_on. Then its R 5V
_3 v [>-I _
(2) ---1
time period in seconds is:
41r ov -2V
---IC>1:,l--
R
(1) Js
�; -� V
-4V R
(4) - ·Wv'•/'/-----

(3)
Js
8. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is
3250x10 -10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected
(4) from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of
wavelength 2536x 10-10 m is:
4. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free · (Given h=4.14x 10-15 eVs and c=3xl08 ms-1)
space,after having lost contact with their space$ip.
The two will .(1) ""61 x 103 ms- I
(1) move away from each other.
will become stationary. (2) ""0.3xlQ6 ms-1
(2) /

(3) keep floating at the same distance between (3) ""6 x 105 ms-1
them.
(4) move towards each other. (4) ""0.6x106 ms-1
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9. Two cars moJlng in oppos1 uections approach 12. An arrangemeM�h three parallel straight wires
each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn same current T along the same direction is shown
having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard in Fig. Magnitude of force per unit length on the
by the driver of the second car is [ v J
, of
ocisound middle wire B' is given by :
1

340 m/s]:
d C
(1) 411 Hz
(2) 448 Hz
(3) 350 Hz
A
� 361 Hz .fi.µ 0 i2
(1)
'Tl'd
E\s�rt> sf-tows 11 circuit that cont"in, three identical
resistors with resistance R = 9.0 n each, two
'l

µ01·
(2)
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH ✓2 -rrd
each, and an ideal battery with emf E=18 V. The
current 'i' through the battery just after the switch µoi 2
dosed is,..... (3) 2,rd

+
2µ 0 i2
(4) ird
l R R
13. Young's double slit experiment is first performed in

'-L_R�-�---L--C
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
that 8 th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5 th
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the
(1) 2A medium is nearly:
(2) 0 ampere (1) 1.69
(2) 1.78
(3) 2mA
(3) 1.25
(4) 0.2A (4 ) 1.59

14. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of

11. A beam of light from a sou.rce Lis incident normally ratio 1 : 2 : 3 . They are connected in series and the
on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from new force constant is k'. Then they are connected in
the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on a parallel and force constant is k". Then k' : k" is :
scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror (1) 1: 11
is rotated through a small angle e, the spot of the
(2) 1: 14
light is found to move through a distance yon the
scale. The angle 8 is given by : (3) 1:6
(4) 1:9
· X
(1) 2y 15. A thin prism having refracting angle 10 ° is made of
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
X with another thin prism of glass of refractive index
(2) 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without
y deviation. The refracting angle of second prism
should be:
(3) JL (1) go
2x
(2) 10 °
'i.. (3) 4
°

(4) °
X
(4) 6
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16. A gas mixture cons.is ts of 2 moles of 02 and 4 moles 20. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the
of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational following diagram.
modes, the total internal energy 0f the system is :
p
(1) 9 RT
(2) 11 RT

(3) 4 RT

(4) 15 RT

t'0'. Match the following:

17. Consider a drop of rain water having mass lg falling
from a height of 1 km: It hits the ground with a Column-I Column-2
speed of 50 m/s. Take 'g' constant with a value
10 m/s2 . The work done by the (i) gravitational P. Process I a. Adiabatic
furce and the (ii) resistive torce of air is : Q. Process IT b. Isobaric
(1) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J R. Process ill C, lsochoric
(2) (i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J S. Process IV d. Isothermal

(3) '(i) -10 J , (ii) -8.25 J (1) P➔c,

(2) P➔d, Q ➔ b, R➔a, S➔c
(4) (i) 1.25 J (ii) -8,25 J
(3 ) P➔a, Q -H, R➔d, S➔b

18. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time

arex = St- 2t2 andy= l0t respectively, where x and
P-tc, Q ➔ a, R➔d, S ➔ b ...
y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of 21. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If it is
the particle at t = 2s is : subjected to uniform pressure 'p', the fractional
decrease in radius is
(1) -4m/s2 �

(2) -8 m/s2

o V
(1)
(3)
(2) _E___
(4) 5 m/s2 3B

(3) .!:
19. Two d.iscs of same moment of inertia rotating about 8
their regular axis passing through centre and
perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
( )
velocities w1 and cJ)2. They are brought into contact 4 3p
face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
expression for loss of energy during this process is:
22. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km
above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the
surface of earth. Then:

3
(1) d::;:-km
(2)

(2)
(3 )
]
(3) d=-km
2
(4)
(4) d=lkm
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23. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials. 26. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
radiates 450 watt power at 500 K If the radius were

J�}
V 10 V 30V 40 V
halved and the temperah1re doubled, the powe.r
A�: radiated in watt would be:
A B
(1 ) 1000
(2) 1800
10 V 30V IOV 30V 20 V 40V
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) 225
A posiUve charge is moved from A to B in each (4) 450
diagram.
(1) Minimum work is required to move q in 27. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded
ugu1e (a). to geth:r ii.� c;l1('l"ln in figure. Thei-:- tl,<:rmai
(2) Maximum work is required to move q in conductivities are K1 and K 2. The thermal
figure (b). conductivity of the composite rod will be:
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in
figure (c) .
(4) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
24. Preeli reached the metro station and found that the
d
escalator was not working. She walked up the
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
remains stationary 011 the moving escalator, then \)!J K1 +K2
the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken 2(K 1 +K:J
(2)
by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be:
� K1 +K2
(1) t2 + t1 (3)
2
(2 ) t1 - t2
3(K1+K2 )
(4) 2
�t2
2
28. One end of string of length I is connected to a particle

·'?
� of mac;s 'm' and the other end is connected to a small
t 2-t1 peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle
25. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively moves in circle with speed 'u', the net force on the
are connected by a massless and inextensible string. particle ( d ireded towards center ) will be
The whole system is suspended by a massless (T represents the tensionjn the string)
spring as shown in figure. The mag1litudes of 2
mv
acceleration of A and B immediately after the string (1) T---
is cut, are respectively
(2) Zero

(3) T
mv2
(4) T+--

29. In A co1111n11n t'm itter transic;tor acri;,Lifi.er thP audio

0- signal vol.tage across the collec1bf-is 3 V. The
(1) g,g resistance of collector is 3 kH. If current gain is 100
g g and the base resistance is 2 kO, the voltage and
(2) 3'� power gain of the amplifier is:
(1 ) 150 and 15000
g
(3)
�' 3 (2) 20 And 2000
g (3) 200 and WOO
(4) 3' g (4) 15 and 200
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30. Which of the following statements are correct 7 34. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
slightly. One of them is - e, the other 1S(e + .le). l!
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force
with the centre of gravity of the body. between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then
the total gravitational torque on the body is /le is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen
zero. mh = 1.67 X 10- 27 kg]
(c) A couple on a body produce both (1) 10-37 C
translational and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one (2) 10-47 c
means that small effort can be used to lift a
(3) 10-20 C
large load.
(1) (b) and(c) (4) 10-23 C

(2) (c)and(d)
(3) (b)and(d) 35.
(4) (a) and (b)

31. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass

3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular (1)
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
a force of 30 N 7 (2) NaJ'gate
(1) 25 rad/s2 (3) AND gate
(2) 5 m/s2
\ __oo..--- 0R gate
(3) 25 m/s2
(4) 0.25 rad/ s2
36. A camot engine having an efficiency of lO-� heat
32. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 104 turns engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coiJ of the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis from the reservoir at lower temperature is:
coinciding with the solenoid ax.is. The current in
the solenoid reduces at a 1..onst.;111t rMe to OA from (1) 99 J
4 A in 0,05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 'IT2n,
the total charge flowing through the coil during this (2) 100 J
time is:
(3) 1J
(1) 32 µ. C
(2) 16 'IT µ.C \r4/ 90J

. .
\['
(3) 32 7r µ.C
(4) 16 µ. C 37. In an electromagnetic wave in free spac��th�bt
mean squar e value of the electric field is
Enns= 6V/ m. The peak value of the magnetic field
33. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer is:
series and the last line of Lyman series is:
(1) o.;ox10 °8 T
(1) 4
(2) 4.23x10-8 T
(2) 0.5
(3) 1.41 x-:�-s T

1 2.83 X 10-8 T
38. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis 42. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that�
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light Io is e2
incident on P 1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in can be formed out of c, G and - is [c is vil�ity
between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 4 '!TE()
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and
45° with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
e is charge] :

2.[_.±_l½
through P2 is.

(1)
!Q. (l)
8 C ') G 41, l.Q J

_!Q_ 1 e2
-G--
(2) 16 (2) c 411'E:Q ;\

(3)
(3)
1
-G--
2
[
e 2
]½ �
c 4,,.eo

]½
(4)
••/ c2 [G 2
� 4:eo
39. U 81 and 82 be the apparent angles of dip observed
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, 43. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8 J\'
then the true angle of dip 8 is given by . and material 'B' has decay constant ''>-..'. Initially
they have same number of nuclei. After what time,
(1) cot26 = cot29-i - cot282
the ratio of number of nuclei of material 'B' to that
(2) tan2e = tan 2e1 - tan 2e2
'A' will he
1
c'
-
(�) cot2fl =- rut2a1 + cot 28L
1
(4) tan 26 = tan2e1 + tan2 8 (1) 8'>-..
2
1
-
40. A 250 - Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and (2)
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 µ.A and 9 J\
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T Work
done for rotating the coil by 180° against the torque (3) J\
is:
1
(1)
(2)
2.3 µ. J
1.1 5 µ. J
f 7"A

44. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device

(3) 9.1 µ. J to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because
the method involves
(4) 4.55 µ. J
(1) a condition of no current flow through the
galvanometer
41. The resLc;tance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted � a rntnlnnal.tun of cells, galvanometer and
a.,.i .,,1 etc!ti.:d. ro 'n' times 11:s original length, its new resistances
resistance will be
(3) cells
(4) potential gradients
(1) n2R
45. The ratio of resolving powers of an o�tical
microscope for two wavelengths J\ 1 = 4000 A and
(2)
� J\2 =6000 is: A
(1) 3: 2
(3) nR
c2) 16 : 81

/'
R (3) 8 : 27
n 9 4
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46. A disease caused by an autosomal primary 52. Good vision depends on adeq uate intake of carot-ene­
non-disjunction is rich food.
( 1) Turner'sSyndrome Select the best option from the following statements.

(2) Sickle CeU Anemia V (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from
c,v-otenP.
(3) Down1 sSyndrome
( b) The photopigments are embedded in the
( 4) Klinefelter'sSyndrome membrane discs of the inner segment.

0
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A.
A dioedous flowering plant prevents both (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of an the
(1) Geitonogamy and xenogamy visual photopigments.
Options:
(2) Oeistogamy and xenogamy
(1 ) (a) and(�
Autogamy and xenogamy�
(2 ) (b),(c) and (d)
(4) Autogamy and geitonogarny
(3) (a) and (b )

48. Attractants and rewards are required for: (4) (�), (Q_and (d) ✓
(1) Hydrophily 53. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experitnents on
(2) Cleistogamy
pea?
(3) Anemophily
(1) Seed - GJee1, or Yellow
1141 Entomophily Pod - ln11ated or Constricted
(2)
(3) Stem- Tall or Dwarf
Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first
ti.me: ( 4) Trichomes - Glandular or non-glandular- ✓
(1) Species area relationships
54. The association of histone Hl with a nucleosome
(2) Population Growth eguation indicates:

(3) Ecological Biodiversity (l) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin

Fibre.
(4) Laws of limiting factor
(2) The DNA double helix is exposed.
(3) Tramcription is occurring.
50. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible
for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form (4) DNA replication is occurring. i..,.
ATP?
55. The pivot jomt between atlas and axis i.s a type ot :
1b)' Chloroplast
(1) synovial joint
(2) Mit6chondrion
(2) saddle joint V
(3) Lysosome
(3) fibrous joint
(4) Ribosome
( 4) cartilaginous joint

51. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of: 56. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:
Funaria (1) tips of axons
�
(2) Chlamyd?mortas (2) post-synaptic membrane
(3) Marcha11tia (3) membranes of synaptic vesicles
(4 ) F11cus (4) pre-synaptic membrnne,V-
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57. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in 62. Which of the following facilitates opening of
reproduction, acts on : stomata! <1perture?
Ra£al c ne:�tation of cellulose microfibrils in
(1) posterior pituitary gland and shmulales �
the cell wall of guard cells
secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(2) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose
(2 ) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
secretion of LH and relaxin.
(3) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells J_
(3) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates (4) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells ,,._
secretion of LH and oxytocin.
63. Select lhe mismatch:
anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and FSH. (1) Salvi11ia Heterosporous
2
() Equisetum Homosporous
Pinus Dioecious
58. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adu Its does 14>

not cause further increase in height, because: (4) Cycas Dioecious

(1) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth 64. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve IS obtained
Hormone in adults. when:
r.1uscle fibr� do not gww i,, size after birth. (1) K'> N
( 2) K<N
(3) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.··
(3) The value of' r' approaches zero
.JjY Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence . (4) K=N
65. The process of separation and purification of
59. Select the mismatch expressed protein before marketing is called
(1) Anllbaena Nitrogen fixer (1) Bioproccssing
(2) Postproducti'on processing
--J2}- Rl11zobiu111 Alfalfa
Upf>tream processing
(3)
(3) Frankia A/,1Us $ Downstream processing
( 4) Rhodosptrillum Mycorrhiza
66. The water potential of pUie water is:
(1) More than zero but less than one
60. Which one of the foUowmg statements is not valid More than one
(2)
for aerosols?
'-.� Zero
{1) fhey cause increast!d agricultural (4 ) Less than zero
productivity
They have negative impact on agricultural The function of copper ions in copper releasing
67
IUD's is:
land
(1) They make uterus unsuitable for
(3) They are harmful to human health implantation.
They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns �They inhibit ovulation.
(4)
0
,b They �uppress sperm motility and fertilising
capaaty of sperms.
61. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
conservation of threatened animals and plants? ( 4) They inhibit gametogenesis.

(1) Amazon rainforest 68. Double fertilization is exhibited by:

(1) Fungi
(2) Himalayan region
� Angiosperms
(3) Wildlife Safari parks Gymnosperms
(3)
-�
l� ll1udiversity hot spots (4)
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69. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical 76. Wh..ich statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?
layers depending on their height can be seen best l)uring conversion of succinyl CoA to
(1)
in. succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is
(1) Grassland synthesised
(2) Temperate Forest (2) The cycle stdrts with condensation of acetyl
TropicaJ Savannah group (acetyl CoA ) v:ith pyruvic acid to yield
(3)
c1lric acid
(4) Tropical Rain Forest ... /
\JD) There are three poinls in the cycle where
NAO + is reduced to 1\IAT1H + H +
70. Which ecosystem hac, thL maxio1um biomass?
(4) There is one point in the cycle where FAD +
(1) Pond ecosystem
is reduced to FADH2
(2) Lake ecosystem
(3) Forest ecosystem 77. Anaphase Promollng Complex (APC) is a protem
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
(4) Grassland ecosystemV
of animal cells. U APC is defective in a human cell,
which of the following is expected to occur?
71- Root hairs develop from the region of:
Root cap
(1) Chromosomes will not segregate V
(1)
(2) Recombination of chromosome arms will
(2) Meristematic activity v occur
(3) Maturation (3) Chromosomt>s will nol condense
(4) Elongation (4) Chromosomes will be fragmented

72. DNA replication in bacteria occurs 78. Which of the following options best represents the
(1) Prior to fission enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?
(2) Just before tramcriptio11 (1) rcrtidt1se. anwlase, r,:"�i11, rl"11n;, ,'
(3) During S phase (2) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen,
V procarboxypeptidase
(4) Within nucleorus
(3) amylase, pepbdase, trypsinogen, rennin
73. Homozygous purelines in cattle cai1 be obtained (4) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maJtase
by:
(1) rnabng of individuals of different breed. 'f- 79. Life cycle of Ectocarp11s and F11c11s respectively
are:
(2) mating of individuals of different species�
Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
mating of related individuals of same breed.
(2) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(4) mating of unrelated individuals of same
(3) Haplontic, Diplontic
brc._-ed.
(4) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
74. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of .
80. Which of the following is made up of dead cells ?
(1) Stem '--"'
(1) Phellem
(2) Leaf
(2) Phlucm
(6) Stipules
Adventitious root
(3) Xylem parenchyma v
(4)
(4) Collcnchyma
75. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause
81. Which of the following is correctly matched for the
the release of
product produced by them?
(1) Aldosterone
(1) Pe11icillium 11otntz1111 : Acetic acid
(2) ADH
(3) Rerun
(2) Sncchro111yccj cerev1s1ne : Ethanol "-/
(3) Acetobacter n.ceti · Antibiotics
(4) Atrial Natriureb.c Factor t/ / (4) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
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82. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented 89. If there are �es in an RNA that codes for a
by the application of: protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
y{1) Auxins position 9,0�eted such that the length of the
RNA becomes 998J,A.SeS, how many codons will be
(2) Gibberellic acid altered?
(3) Cytokinins (1) 33
(4) Ethylene
(2) 333
83. Viroids differ from viruses in having. \Pr'
(1) RNA molecules with protein coat (4) 11
(2) RNA molecules without protein coat
90. A gene whose expression helps to 1dent1f y
(3) DNA molecules with protein coat
transformed cell is known as
yYDNA molecules without protein coat
\_ (1) Plasmid
• "1·.1s1 0f •!lL tc,llowing .me> not p"ly10,,ric ? (2) c;lrth t, 1r,1l g.?nP
(1) PolysaccharidesV (3) Selectabl(' marker-V
(2) Lipids (4) Vector
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Proteins 91. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
conditions ?
85. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body (1) Cyanobactena
is: (2) Mycobacteria
(1) Corpus luteum �
(3) Archaebacteria �
(2) Corpus allatu.m
(4) Eubacteria
(3) Pineal gland
(4) Corpus cardiacum 92. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' patrs are
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
86. Phosphocnol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO 2 values of X andY and provides their explanation:
acceptor in.
(1) X,.. 2. 1, Y - 7 True ribs dre J on,dlly
(1) C2 plants attached to vertebral column
(2) Cs and C4 plants but are free on ventral side.
(3) C3 plants (2) X = 24, Y = 12 Tru e ribs are dorsally
attached to vertebral column
(4) C4 plants �
but are free on ventral side.
87. Plants which prod uce characteristic \.,,@} X=12, Y=7 True ribs are attached
pne umatophores and show vivipary belong to· _,,. dorsally to vertebral column
and ventrally to the stern um.
(1) Psaaunophytes �
(4) X=l2,Y=S Tru e ribs are attached
(2) Hydrophytes
dorsally to vertebral column
(3) Mesophytes and sternum on the two ends.
(4) Halophytes
93. MALT constitutes about ____ percent of the
88. Mycorrhizae are the exai;nple of: lymphoid tissue in human body.
(1) Anl1biosis (1) 70 °'�
(2) Mutualism V- (2) 10%
(3) Fungistasis (3) 50%
(4) Amensalism _.J4t- 20%
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94. Which one from those given below is the period for
Mendel's hybridization experiments? p
99. Which one of the following statements is correct,
with reference to enzymes?
( 1) 1857 -1869 (1 ) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(2) 1870 -1877
(2) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
1856 -1863
(4) 1840 -1850 �) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
95, Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the .__J{
following statement(s ) is/ are most appropriate
explanation for this feature? 100. DNA fragments are:
(a) They do not rn.-Cti lo 1ept\)duce
(1) Neutral
(b) They are somatic cells
(2) Either positively or negatively charged
(c) They do not metabolize"
depending on their size
(d) All their intemaJ space is available for oxygen
transport (3) Positively charged
Options: ,/ Negatively charged
(1) ( a ), (c) and (d)
(2) (b ) and ( c) 101. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
(3) Only (d) can be visualised after staining with
\/4 Only (a )
�
Aniline blue

Myelin sheath is produced by: (2) Ethidium bromide

9�
(1) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts (3) Bromophenol blue
(2) Osteoclasts and <\strocy�es
(4) Acetoc&rmine
(3) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocyte\/
(4) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
102. Which among the following are the smallest living
97. Which of the following statements is correct? cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
(1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is to plants as well as animals and can survive without
permeable to water. oxygen?
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is Mycoplasma -._...;:,-
(1 )
permeable to electrolytes. .x
¼ The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water.
(2) Nostoc

(3) Bncilltts
(4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water . .x (4) Pseudomo11as

98. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are

used to elongate: 103. ThP morphological nature of the edible part of
coconut is:
(1) The leading strand away from replication
fork.
The lagging strand away from the replication
(1) Endosperm v
(2) (2) Pericarp
fork
(3) The leading strand towards replication fork. (3) Perisperm

\!If' The lagging strand towards replication fork. (4) Cotyledon

 D
104. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in 109. Flowers which have single ovule t.n the ovary and
male frogs: are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated
Testes➔ Vasa efferentia ➔ Bidder's canal by:
(1)
➔ Ureter ➔ Cloaca (1) Wind �
Testes ➔ Vasa efferentia ➔ Kidney ➔ (2) Bat
Bidder's canal ➔ Urinogeni�uct ➔ � Water
Cloaca
(4) Bee
(3) Testes➔ Bidder's canal➔ Kidney➔ Vasa
efferentia ➔ Urinogenital duct➔ Cloaca 110. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
(4) Testes ➔ Vasa effere�➔ Kidney ➔ share with Chordates is
Seminal Vesicle ➔ Urinogenital duct ➔ ( 1) pharynx with gill slits
Cloaca pharynx without gill slits V
(2)
10� Identify the wrong statement in context of (3) absence of notochord
\1 heartwood : (4) ventral tubularnerve cord
(1) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
It comprises dead elements with highly 111. Which of the following options gives the correct
(,2) sequence of events during mitosis?
V lignified walls
(3) Organic compounds are deposited in it (1) condensation ➔ crossing over ➔ nuclear
membrane disassembly ➔ segregation ➔
(4) It is highly durable
telophase
106. Transplantation of tissues/ organs fails often due (2) condensation➔ arrangement at equator➔
to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type centromere division ➔ segregation ➔
of immune-response is responsible for such telophase
rejections ?
(3) condensation ➔ nuclear membrane
(1) Hormonal immune response disassembly ➔ crossing over ➔
"
l ?.) rhysi.ologicaJ immune response segregation➔ telophase
(3) Autoimmune response condensation ➔ nuclear membrane
(4) Cell - mediated immune response� disassembly ➔ arrangement at equator ➔
centromere division ➔ segregation ➔
107. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally telophase
protected and where no human activity is allowed
is known as: 112. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
(1) Transition zone from the experiments of:
(2) Restoration zone (1) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Core zone� (2) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Buffer zone (3) Griffith
(4) Hershey and Chasev
108, Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select
the correct statement. 113. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
(1) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules. (1) Prn,itivclv charged fragments move to farther
end
(2) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecuJes. (2) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(3) The largeT the fragment size, the fartheT it
zy
· ,,,_\/ Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis. moves
(4) Both are due to a quantitative defectinglobin (4) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
chain synthesis. moves
D
114. With reference lo factors dffectmg the rate of 118. Functional megaspore man angiosperm c!e..,elopi.
photosynthesis, which of the following statements into.
is not correct?
(1) Embry o sac V
{I ) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures (2) Embryo
with enhanced photosynthesis while
C4 plants have much lower temperature (3) Ovule
optimum
(4) Endosperm
Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO 2 - enriched atmosphere for 119. Which of the following components provides sticky
higher yield character to the bacterial cell?
(3 ) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at (1) Plasma membrane
10% of full sunlight
(2) Glycocalyx\/
(4) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration (3) Cell wall
up to 0.05% can enhance CO 2 fixation rate
(4) :--Jurlenr membrnnc

115. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher 120. Which among U1ese is the correct combination of
milk output represents· aquatic mammals?
(1) disruptive as it splits the population into two,
one yielding higher output and the other
J>Y Whales, Dolphins, Seals
.......... ---1
lower output. (2) Trygo11, Whales, Seals
(3 ) Seals, Do!.£.._hins, Sharks
(2 ) stabilizing followed by disruptive as it
stabilizes the population to produce higher (4) D�ins, SeaJs, Tn;go11
yielding cows.

(3 ) stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this 121. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
character in the population. (1) Caballus
(4) directiona 1 as it pushes the mean of the (2) Ferus
character in one direction.
� Equidae
(4) Perissodactyla
116. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
suspended solids ?
122. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They
(1) Primary treatment do not collapst? even after forceful expiration,
because of:
(2 ) Sludge treatment
(1) Tidal Volume
(3) Tertiary treatment
✓i
(2) Expiratory Reserve Volume
✓ Secondary treatment Residual Volume
(4) lnspiratory Reserve Volume
117. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:
123. Capacitation occurs in:
(1) AnimaJs �
(1) Vas deferens
, }21 Bacteria (2) Female Reproductive tract
(3) Plants \ � Rete testis
(4) Fungi � Epididymis
 D
124. Which of the following RNAs should be most 128. Match the following sexually transmitted
abundant in animal cell? diseases (Column - I) with their causc).tive agent
(Column -11) and select the correct option.
(1) m-RNA
Column -I Column-TI
(2) mi-RNA (a) Gonorrhea, (i) HIV
r-RNA (b) Syphilis {li) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
� t-R'\JA
(d) AIDS (iv) Human
Papilloma - Virus
125. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete Options:
antibacterial lysozyme?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Zymogen cells (1) (iv) (li ) (iii) (i )
(2) Kupffer cells¥" (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i )

Argentaffin cells (iii ) (iv) (i)

(3) ��
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) ( ii)
(4) Paneth cells
129. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are JAJ B and
!Ai.
126. In case of a couple where the male is having� very
low sperm count, which technique will be suiiable Among the blood types of their children, how many
for fertilisation ? different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1 ) 4 t;l!noty pe�, 3 phenotypes
(1) Artificial Insemination

(2) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection v (2 )

(3)
4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
(3) Intrauterine transfer �genotypes; 4 phenotypes
.._____,
(4) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
130. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from :
(1) Kidneys
127. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues '4ffl.) Intestine
to beat for sometime.
(3) Heart
Select the best option from the following statements.
� Stomach
( a) Frog is a poikilotherm.
131. Coconut fruit is a .
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(1) Nut
\L) Hc.ut is "myogenic:'' in nature. (2) Cc1p:.ule
(d) Heart is autoexdtab!e. (3) Drupe

Options: � Berry

(1 ) ( a) and( b) 132. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

. ..-v<1) Secondary xylem
(2) (c) and(d )
(2) Peridcrm
Only(c)
(3) Phellodem1
( 4) Only(d ) (4) Primary phloem
D
133. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with 138. Predict the correct intermediate and product in tl
flagellated cells callc-d fnllowing reaction
(1) choanocytes
H20, H2S04
(2) mesenchymal cells H3C-CsCH intermediate- produc
HgS04
(A) (8)
(3) ostia

(4) oscula
(1) A: H3C-C-CH3 8: H3C-CaCH
II

134. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school

and passes through a dent.al check - up. The dentist

✓
observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth
were absent? A: H 3C-C=CH 2 B: H 3C-C-CH 3
I II
� Pre-molars
OH r .,..
0 J.--

(2) Molars
(3) A: H3C-C=CH2 B: H3C-C-CH3
I
(1) Incisors
504
II
0
(4) Canines

(4) A: H 3C-C=CH2 B: H3C-C=CH2

An example of colonial alga is
135.
so,
I I
OH
(1) Ulothrix

(2) Spirogyra
\

(3) Chlorella ✓ 139. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the vaJenCE

shell to participate in bonding that:
(4) Volvox
(1) Sn2+ and Pb 2+ are both oxidising anc
136. � example of a si$'ma bonded organometallic reducing
compound is :
(2) Sn4 + is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
(1) Ferrocene \.,.....
(2) Cobaltocene (3) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb'++ is oxidising

(3) Ruthenocene
(4) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb 4 + is reducing
(4) Grignard's reagent

137. \-\'hich one is the correct order of acidity 7 140. lonic mobility of which of the foJJowing alkali metal
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts
(1) CHsCH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 - C=CH > are put under an electric field?
CH1-CH3

(2) CH3 - CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3-C-=CH > (1) Rb
CH=<:H

• (3) CH2= CH2 > CH3 -CH=CH 2 > CH3 -C = (2) Li

CH>CH = CH
(3) Na
CH :=: CH � CH'.' - C = CH > CH2=CH2 >
CH3-CH3 (4) K
 D
l41. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I 144. In the electrochemical cell :
with the geometry in column U and assign the correct
ZnlZnS04 (0.01 M)II Cu.504 (1.0 M)ICu, the emf of
code.
this Daniel cell is E 1. When the concentration of
Column I Columnll ZnSO 4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of Cu504
changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the
(,\) >.X (i) T- shape followings, which one is the relationship between

£i and E2? (Given, RT =0.059)

( b) (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal F
(1) E,_ > E2
(c) XX5 (ill) Linear
(2) *
Ei = 0 Ei

(d) XX7 (iv) Square - pyramidal (3) £i =E 2

(4) E,. < Ei
(v) Tetrahedral
Code: 145. The correct statement regarding electrophile is:
(1) Electrophiles are generally neutral species
(a) (b) (c) (d) and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
(1) (v) (iv) (w) (ii) electrons from a nucleophile
(2) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) charged species and can form a bond by
(� tiv) (i) (ii) accepting a pair o f electrons from a
nucleophile
( iii ) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Electrophile is a negatively charged species
and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
electrons from a nucleophile
142. Which is the incorrect statement?
(4) Electrophile is a negatively charged species
(1) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, and can form a bond by accepting a pair of
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric electrons from another electrophile
crystal.
(2) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic 146. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCI
compounds in which sizes of cation and formed when AgNO3 in excess is 4eated
anions are almost equal. with the complexes : CoC13.6 NH 3, C0Cl 3.5 NH3,
CoC13.4 NH3 respectively is :
FeOo 98 has non stoichiometric metal
deficiency defect (1) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(2) 2 AgCI, 3 AgG, 1 AgCJ
Density decreases in case of crystals with
Schottky's defect. (3) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(4) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCI, 2 AgO
143. Which one of the following statements is not
,etaJ correct? 147. The lUPAC name of the compound
salts
(1) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical
reactions.
(2) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of
enzyme.
(1) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
(3) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.
(2) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
� The value of equilibrim
u constant is changed
� 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at
equilibrium. (4) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
D 18
148. The species, having bond angles of 120 is:°
153. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recent
It will belong to which of the following family/ gro
(1) NC13
and electronic configuration?
(2) BCl3
(1) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5£14 6d10 7s2 7p4
(3) PH3
Nitrogen family, [Rn) 5£14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(2)
(4) C lF3
� Halogen family, [Rnj 5f14 octlll 7s- ?p:>
149. The equilibrium constants of the following are: (4) Carbon family, [Rn] 5(14 6d10 7s2 7p2
N2+3 H2 .= 2NH3 K1
154. Mechanism of a hypothetical reacti,
N 2+02.=2NO K2 X2 + Y2➔ 2 XY is given below:
1 (i) X2➔ X + X (fast)
H2+ 202➔ H2 O IS
(ii) X + Y2 r= XY+Y (slow)
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction:
(iii) X+ Y➔ XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be :
(1) 0
(1)
(2) 1.5
(2) (3 ) 1
(4) 2
(3)
155. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the vah
(4) of molal depression constant (Kr) will be:
(1) tripled
150. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified
KMnO4 solution: (2) unchanged
(1) NO 2 (3) doubled
(2) P2 0 5 � halved
(3) CO2
156. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which,
(4) 502 the following statements is true 7

151. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 (1) Both bond angle and bond length change
mixture of ortho and para - nitrophenols is: (2) Both bond angles and bond length remab
(1) Crystallisation same
(2) Steam distillation (3) Bond angle remains same but bond lengi
changes
(3) Sublimation
(4) Chromatography v (4) Bond angle changes but boQd length remaii
same

,,
152. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in
157. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with !­
actinoids is attributed to: ,"-..
� produces.
(1) Sf, 6d and 7s levels having comparable
energies (1) phenol

(2) 4f and Sd levels being close in energies (2) benzene

(3) the radioactive nature of actinoids· (3) ethyl chlorides
(4) actinoid contraction (4) iodobenzene
 D
The C'OD'ed increasing order of basic strength for 162. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :
the foUov.;ng compounds is :
i
(1) antpyretic

(2) antibiotic
� �
5 (3) analgesic
N02 CH3
(I) (II) (III)
� antiseptic
(1) ID <II<I
(2) n<I< m
(3) IT < ill < I 163. For a given reaction, 6.H = 35.5 kJ moJ-1 and
(4) Irr< I < Il 6.S = 83.6 JK-1 mo1-1. The reaction is spontaneous
159. ln which pair of iom both the species contain S-S at : (Assume that 6.H and 6.S do not vary with
bond? temperature)

(1) S20�-, �o�- ,, (1) all temperatures

(2) S40t, SzO�- ">
(2) T>298 K
(3) S20�-, 5:20f"
(3) T<425K
� S4ot, 5:2ot
160. Which of the followi ng is dependent on (4) T>425K
temperature?
(1) Mole fraction
(2) Weight percentage
(3) Molality,V- 164. HgCI2 and 12 both when dissolved in water
(4) Molarity containing I - ions the pair of species formed is :
,61. Of the following, wruch is the product formed when
cydohexanone undergoes aldol condensation (1) Hgit, Ii
followed by heating ?

(2) J IgiJ2, I -

(lJ
OH

(2)
0 0
165. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
0 10 - 2 sec -1. How much time will it take for 20 g of
the reactant to reduce to 5 g ?

(3) (1) 346.5 sec

OH
(2) 693.0 sec

I (4) (3) 238.6 sec

(4) 138.6 sec

 20

6
D
166. Which one is the most acidic compound ? 170. Identify A and predict the type of reacti
0CH3
NaNH2
A

6
Br

0CH 3
Br
(1) and cine snb/ltitutirin re'\rtic•

6
(2)
OCH3

and cine substitution reaction

6 �
O CH3

NH2
and substitution reaction

167. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of

(4) u
� NH
2 and elimination add .itic

absorption in the visible region for the complexes of reaction

Co3+ is:
(1) [ Co (H2O)&)3+, [ Co (NH3)613 +, [ Co (en)3]3+
Which of the following reactions is appropriate fl
[ Co (NH3)6]3 + , [ <:;o (en)J]3+, [ Co (r½O)J3
171.
(2) +
converting acetamide to methanam.ine?
(3) [ Co (en)J]3+, [ Co (NH 3)cJ3+, [ Co (HP)cJ3 +
·' ·. (4) [ Co (Hi0)6]H, [ Co (en ):,]3+, [ Co ( NH3)J3+ (1) Stephens reaction
168. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated (2) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
solution of Ag2 C2 O4 is 2.2x 10 -4 mol �, l . (3) Carbylamine reaction
Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is:
(1) 4.Sxto-11 Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
�
( 2) 5.3x10-12
(3) 2.42 X 10-8 172'. Which of the following pairs of compounds
X 10 -12 isoelectronic and isostructural ? 1
( 4 ) 2.66
169. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO 2(g) at TBr2, XeF2
pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is � IFv XeF2
now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted
(3 ) BeC12, XeF 2
in the container. The maximum volume of the
container, when pressure of CO2 attains its (4) Tel2, XeF2
maximum value, will be
( Given that : SrCO 3(s) ;::. SrO( s ) + CO 2( g ), 173. Which of the foUowing is a sink for CO?
Kp=l.6atm) (1) Oceans
(1) 4 litre ( 2) Plants
( 2) 2 litre
(3 ) 5 litre � Haemoglobin
(4 ) 10 litre (4 ) Micro organisms present in the soil
 D
114. \,\'hi.ch one of the following rcactid - of species have 178. Pick out the correct statement with respect to
the same bond order? [Mn(CN)J3-
(1) cx-,co � It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
(2) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
(3 ) lt is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
(3) co, �o (4) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
(4) 02,No-
179. Which one is the wrong statement?
-r.:..
l"-> A gas is aUowed to expand in a well insulated (1) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
container against a constant external pressure of stability due to greater exchange energy,
2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final greater symmetry and more balanced
volume of 4.50L The change in internal energy �U arrangement.
of the gas in joules "'ill be :
(2) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
(l) -503 J of 21-1 orbital in ..:c1se of Hydrogen like atoms.

(2) +505 J
de-Broglie's wavelength is given by >,, = �,
(3) 1136.25 J
(3)
where m = mass of the particle, v = group
II\V

(4) -SOOJ velocity of the particle.

Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with

CN - ion. Silver is later recovered by :
l76.

(1) zone refining 180. Which of the following statements is not correct 7
(1) Blood proteins thrornbin and fibrinogen are
(2 ) displacement with Zn
involved i.n blood dotting.
( 3) liquation ¥ Den.aturation makes the proteins more active.
( 4) distillation (3) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of
a human body.
�n. Consider the reactions: (4) Ovalbwnin is·a simple food reserve in egg•
white.

Silver mirror observed

Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,
Z-Semica.rbazone.
(2) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone,
Z..Hydrazone.
(3) A-t-.l�thoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid,
Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine.
(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic
acid, Z-Semicarbazide.