Chapter 15 Practice Test 7Reading Test 65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS ‘Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. Diesen Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on whatis stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or graph), 2 Questions 1-10 are based on the following passage. “The passage Is adapted from Saki, "The Background’ (xiginally published in 1911, “That woman's art-jargon tires me” said Clovis to his journalist friend, “She’ so fond of talking of certain pictures as ‘growing on one} as though they were a sort of fungus” “That reminds me” said the journalist, “of the story of Henri Deplis. Have lever told it to you?” Clovis shook his head. “Henri Deplis was by birth a native of the Grand Duchy of Luxemburg. On maturer reflection he became a commercial traveller. His business activities frequently took him beyond the limits of the Grand Duchy, and he was stopping in a small town of Northern Italy when news reached him from home that a legacy from a distant and deceased relative had fallen to his share, “It was not a large legacy, even from the modest standpoint of Henri Deplis, but it impelled him towards some seemingly harmless extravagance. In particular it led him to patronize local art as, represented by the tattoo-needles of Signor Andreas Pincini, Signor Pincini was, perhaps, the most brilliant ‘master of tattoo craft that Italy had ever known, but his circumstances were decidedly impoverished, and for the sum of six hundred francs he gladly undertook to cover his client’s back, from the collar-bone down to the waist-line, with a glowing representation of the Fall of Icarus. The design, when finally developed, 566 | 9Practie Tests othe SAT 30 35 0 45 50 55 ‘was a slight disappointment to Monsieur Deplis, who hhad suspected Icarus of being a fortress taken by ‘Wallenstein in the Thirty Years’ War, but he was more than satisfied with the execution of the work, which ‘was acclaimed by all who had the privilege of seeing it as Pincin’s masterpiece. “Ie was his greatest effort, and his last. Without even ‘waiting to be paid, the illustrious craftsman departed this life, and was buried under an ornate tombstone, whose winged cherubs would have afforded singularly litle scope for the exercise of his favourite art. There remained, however, the widow Pincini, to whom the six hundred francs were due, And thereupon arose the great crisis in the life of Henri Deplis, traveller of commerce. The legacy, under the stress of numerous litle calls on its substance, had dwindled to very insignificant proportions, and when a pressing wine bill and sundry other current accounts had been paid, there remained little more than 430 francs to offer to the widow. The lady was properly indignant, not ‘wholly, as she volubly explained, on account of the suggested writing-off of 170 francs, but also at the attempt to depreciate the value of her late husband’ acknowledged masterpiece. In a week's time Deplis ‘was obliged to reduce his offer to 405 francs, which circumstance fanned the widow's indignation into a fury. She cancelled the sale of the work of art, and a fev days later Deplis learned with a sense of consternation that she had presented it to the municipality of Bergamo, which had gratefully accepted it, He left the EaI neighbourhood as unobtrusively as possible, and was genuinely relieved when his business commands took ‘@ him to Rome, where he hoped his identity and that of the famous picture might be lost sight of. “But he bore on his back the burden of the dead ‘man’s genius. On presenting himself one day in the steaming corridor of a vapour bath, he was at once 145 hustled back into his clothes by the proprietor, who was a North Italian, and who emphatically refused toallow the celebrated Fall of Icarus to be publicly ‘on view without the permission of the municipality of Bergamo, Public interest and offical vigilance 7» increased as the matter became more widely known, and Deplis was unable to take a simple dip in the sea or river on the hottest afternoon unless clothed up to the collar-bone in a substantial bathing garment. Later ‘on the authorities of Bergamo conceived the idea that 7s salt water might be injurious to the masterpiece, and a perpetual injunction was obtained which debarred the muchly harassed commercial traveller ftom sea bathing under any circumstances. Altogether, he was fervently thankful when his firm of employers found him a new range of activities in the neighbourhood of Bordeaux. His thankfulness, however, ceased abruptly at the Franco-ltalian frontier. An imposing array of official force barred his departure, and he was sternly. reminded of the stringent law which forbids the {4 exportation of Italian works of art. * Li © Which choice best summarizes the passage? | A) Aman is unable to display a work of art. B) A manis forced to consider whether or not to obey the law. ©) Aman finds his choices restricted because of the result of an unpaid debt. D) A man tries to steal art to please a deceased. relative. 4 ‘The passage most clearly suggests that Henri Deplis’ financial status before receiving the legacy was A) chaotic. B) meager. ©) wealthy. D) destitute. ‘Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 8-9 (“Henri Deplis... Luxemburg") B) Lines 16-18 (“It was... extravagances”) ©) Lines 21-25 (“Signor Pincini ... back’ D) Lines 42-44 (“The legacy ... proportions”) In line 38, “exercise” most nearly means A) express beliefs. B) increase strength. ©) practice repeatedly. D) ability to perform. The journalist implies that the cherubs on Pincini’s tombstone were A) artistic subjects. B) religious icons, ©) particularly tiny D) plain stone. E> practice est? | 567j1 ‘The journalist indicates that Deplis reduced his offer to 408 francs because he A) thought he could trick Pincin’s widow. B) could no longer afford the 430 francs. ©) wanted to annoy the widow. D) thought she would accept a lower offer. ‘The author's statement that the widow “cancelled the sale of the work of art” (line 54) chiefly serves to A) show that Deplis had to return the art. B) preview Deplis'inability to travel ©) demonstrate the unpleasant temper of the widow. D) introduce an unexpected shift in perspective In line 67, “celebrated” most nearly means A) welcomed. B) famous. C) decorated, D) endless. S68 | 9Practie Tests forthe SAT ‘As presented in the passage, the trouble Henri Deplis encountered due to his tatoo is most accurately described as A) socially awkward but well intended, B) well-deserved but clearly cruel. ©) obviously absurd but persistently troublesome. D) uncomfortably restrictive but secretly flatering. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 57-61 (“He left... of") B) Lines 62-63 ("But he... . genius") ©) Lines 78-81 (‘Altogether, he... Bordeaux”) D) Lines 82-85 (‘An imposing... art”)j1 Fa 20 as Questions 11-20 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. This passage is excerpted from Marianne Lavelle, “Forcing {Gas Out of Rock With Water."© 2010 by National Geographic News Harlan Shober remembers how cars lined Hickory Ridge Road in the spring of 2008 with curiosity seekers hoping for a glimpse of the first Marcellus shale gas flare in Chartiers Township, Pennsylvania, “Llive on an opposite hill, where I could see the top of the flare, and my house was rumbling, it was that oud,” recalls Shober, president of the township board of supervisors. “It was overcast, and the flame would bounce up against the clouds. You could see the glow from Pittsburgh,” 25 miles away. ‘The eerie sight heralded the arrival of a new phase of life inthis rural community of 7,200 people—one of the hottest spots in Pennsylvania Marcellus shale boom, with more than 40 natural gas wells drilled here in the past two years. But the fiery scene that takes place above ground after wells are completed in certain circumstances—a controlled burn-off of. initial gas for several days—is not as dramatic as what is happening more than a mile beneath the surface. There, a new combination of old oil industry technologies has unlocked a giant resource geologists ‘thought was unattainable for 75 years. ‘The conventional way to produce natural gas is to drill and extract it out of “traps. or folds and pockets in underground sandstone layers. Scientists, have Long known there was also natural gas in the soft rock layer called shale, formed by millions of years of heat and pressure from dead algae that mixed ‘with mud at the deep bottom of ancient seas that ‘once covered land in Pennsylvania and elsewhere. Geologists believe the gas found in sandstone traps seeped out of this rich source rock. When it became clear that gas companies were successfully tapping the largest such rock formation in North America, the Marcellus shale, in December 2007, Pennsylvania State University geologist Terry Engelder did the calculations based on 54,000 square miles (14 million hectares) of rock he gauged to be the right geological age for gas prospecting. “I remember thinking, ‘Merry Christmas, America, you dor't know what's out there,” he says. “Its going to be areal treat.” But in this well, which had seemed such a good prospect, 4 50 55 65 70 0 | the drillers came up with nothing, “Well, nobody likes a dry hole, but it was an expensive dry hole,” Zagorski says, “We were kind of ata crossroads on what to do.” In 2002, a bigger firm, Devon Energy, had purchased Mitchells company. Now, a year later, Devon attacked the shale by combining fracking with another technique that was its specialty—horizontal drilling. The results were stupendous. By continuing to drill sideways after a vertical well had reached its ‘geological target, it was possible to reach far more rock surface area. Long touted as a method that reduced the environmental footprint on the surface, horizontal drilling also allowed a company to reach hhuge volumes of gas from just one well. Due to numerous uncertainties, estimates of the total potential of the Marcellus shale formation range from 50 trillion cubic feet to 500 trillion cubic feet. Even at the low end of that large range, it would be one of the most significant reservoirs of natural gas, in the world, Zagorski marvels at the Marcellus, together with the other shales around the United States: Barnett in Texas, Haynesville in Louisiana, Fayetteville in Arkansas. “The gas shales—these have been the most significant oil and gas finds I've ever seen in my whole career.” he says. Hes confident that similar shales will be found elsewhere in the world, possibly in Europe, which for many years has been dependent on Russia for imports of natural gas. “The township has had public meetings to learn about the fracking process, and is reviewing its ordinances aimed at minimizing disturbance to neighbors. Although Shober still fields complaints about noisy compressors and the like, he feels the township's residents have welcomed the gas industry. “Any time change comes in, the fist thing is you are fearful,” he says, “But once you understand, and you have the knowledge and you know what’s going ‘on, you tend to accept the change and you move forward” E> practice est | 568 a1 1] US, Natural Gas Production in 2014 a Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 11-15 (“The eerie... years”) B) Lines 43-45 (“Well, nobody... says”) C) Lines 66-68 (“The gas... . career”) D) Lines 68-71 (“He's confident ... gas”) Which choice best supports the conclusion that horizontal drilling is not a completely new technique? A) Lines 1-4 (“Harlan Shober ... Pennsylvania”) B) Lines 20-22 (“There, a... years") ©) Lines 51-54 (“By continuing... area”) D) Lines 75-77 (“Although Shober ... industry") World's Top Producers of Natural Gas in 2014 ‘As used in line 33, “tapping” most nearly means A) beating B) drumming. D) opening. ‘The central idea of the third paragraph (lines 23-46) is that ‘A) the Marcellus shale is one of the most significant reservoirs of natural gas in the world. B) natural gas is produced by underground sandstone layers. Data from US. Energy Information Administation oi ©) gas deposits, even when plentiful, arent always Which choice does the author explicitly cite as a easy to reach. known location of shales? D) the geography of present-day Pennsylvania has A) Russia changed significantly over the past million years B) Europe ©) North Carolina D) Pennsylvania Kn 570 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SATWhich choice provides the best evidence for the © answer to the previous question? © A) Lines 25-30 (“Scientists have ... elsewhere”) B) Lines 32-39 ("When it... prospecting”) ©) Lines 41-43 ("But in... nothing”) D) Lines 61-63 (“Even at... world”) ‘What function does the fourth paragraph (lines 47-57) serve in the passage as a whole? A) It provides additional details about a single method mentioned in the previous paragraph. B)_ It describes a drilling method that is more effective than a previously described method, ©) Itoffers context forthe environmentalist argument against a particular drilling technique. D) It champions an alternate drilling technique that taps fewer reserves of natural gas. ‘As used in Line 75, “fields” most nearly means A) stops B) returns. ©) handles D) retrieves I ‘Which choice is supported by the data in the first figure? A) Louisiana and Pennsylvania combined produce ‘more gas than Texas. B) Four states produce more than half of the country’s gas. ©) No individual state produces more than a quarter of the country’s natural gas. D) Texas produces less gas than Wyoming, ‘Oklahoma, and Louisiana combined. ‘The two figures together suggest that ‘A) Oklahoma and Iran produce the same amount of natural gas. B) Texas and Pennsylvania combined produce more gas than any country except for the United States and Russia ©) two countries produce exactly half of the world’ natural gas. D) Canada and Iran combined produce the same amount of natural gas as Pennsylvania, E> proctze est? | 571l1 2s 20 3s 372 Questions 21-30 are based on the following passage. This passage is adapted from Virginia Hughes, "Like in Humans, Genes Drive Half of Chimp Intelligence, Study Finds © 2014 by National Geographic. Chimpanzees and other great apes are known for their intelligence: They can learn words, play with objects, and even seem to mourn the deaths of their friends. But just as for humans, cognitive abilities vary from one animal to the next. ‘Now, in one of the largest studies ever conducted con chimp cognition, researchers report that those individual differences are due in no small part to genetic makeup. Genes determine about half ofthe variability in chimp intelligence and environmental factors the other half, according to primatologist William Hopkins, ofthe Yerkes National Primate Research Center in Atlanta, Georgia, and colleagues. Research on animal learning has been focused almost entirely on the contribution from the ‘environment. For most of the 20th century, scientists held that animals were like robots, behaving in predictable ways based only on environmental cues, such as reward and punishment, This new study adds to growing evidence that animals are not passive machines but rather are sharp, active thinkers. Chimps can be surprising in their cognitive abilities, Hopkins noted. Several decades ago, a chimpanzee Hopkins was studying figured out that he could watch real-time video of himself on a nearby television monitor. A video camera was recording the chimps actions. The chimp, named Austin, opened his mouth wide to look at his teeth, but couldnt see them well. “So he went and gota flashlight and shined it into his mouth to see farther down his throat,’ said Hopkins. ‘Austin was the smartest chimp Hopkins ever encountered, he said, But he also saw a lt of variability ‘among the animals. “When you're out there working with them all the time, you definitely form some ‘opinions about whether you think they're smart or not so smart” he said. To find out how much of that variability is due to genetics, Hopkins and his team assessed the cognitive abilities of 99 captive ‘9Practie Tests forthe SAT 50 55 70 7% Ea 1] chimpanzees. They used a battery of 13 tests measuring various manifestations of intelligence, such as how the animals dealt with the physical world, reacted to sound, and used tools. “The group of chimps tested had an expansive family tree, ranging from full siblings to fourth and fifth cousins. This allowed the researchers to calculate hhow well scores on cognitive traits aligned with genetic relatedness. “Two categories of tasks were significantly heritable those related to spatial cognition, such as learning physical locations, and those that required social cognition, such as grabbing a person’ attention. Some chimps are quite clever, making kissing sounds or clapping their hands to draw an experimenters attention, Hopkins said. “This one isa real measure of intelligence and innovative behavior” ‘That the study found spatial cognition to be heritable also makes sense, noted Josep Call, a ‘comparative psychologist at the University of St Andrews in Scotland, who was not involved in the study. “Thinking ebout space is extremely important for a number of animals. Its evolutionarily ancient! he said. Puzzlingly, though, the study found that other cognitive skills, such as understanding causality and using tools, are not particularly heritable. “Why do they find it for space, why do they find it for social cognition, but they dont find it for tool use?” Call wondered. The ability to use tools, afterall, would have also been an important skill for survival. Although Hopkins and colleagues found a strong genetic component to chimp intelligence, there were equally strong effects from environmental influences, which are malleable over time. ‘These results are similar to those in human studies, noted Ajit Varki, distinguished professor of medicine at the University of California, San Diego, who was not part of the new study. What's more, the power of the environment may be underestimated by studies like these, Varki said. “In the impoverished and stereotyped setting of long-term captivity.” he said, “the critical influence of environmental variability could be markedly blunted” [continue J\0 ‘Which choice best describes the organization of the information presented in the passage? A) An outline of an area of study is presented; research proving exceptions to an earlier assumption is described and analyzed. B) A discrepancy is revealed and explored scientifically; perspectives both supporting and rejecting the findings are described, and new theories are provided. ©) A general overview of atopic is provided along with specific examples; a study exploring that topic is described, and implications are briefly discussed in broader context. D) Anattempt to answer a difficult evolutionary question is rejected: a study is described that explains why some elements of evolutionary theory will remain a mystery. As used in line 18, “held” most nearly means A) grasped, B) embraced. ©) restrained, D) contended. Inthe fourth paragraph (Lines 23-32), the description AA) describe a humorous action to lighten the tone. B) illustrate a relatable action that conveys a surprising level of intelligence. ©) introduce a significant subject in the subsequently described study. D) show Hopkins’ basis for his later study's hypothesis 1 i Which statement most accurately reflects an assumption underlying the research performed by Hopkins’ team? A) Chimpanzees’ use of human-made tools indicates a higher level of intelligence. B) Chimpanzee extended-family relationships can be statistically compared to those same relationships in human families. ©) Environmental factors have a much greater impact, on intelligence than genetic factors. D) Tests performed on animals that cannot speak can nonetheless provide insight into some aspects of the animals’ mental capabilities. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 38-41 (“To find... chimpanzees”) B) Lines 41~44 (“They used... tools”) ©) Lines 45-47 (“The group ... cousins”) D) Lines 71-75 (‘Although Hopkins... time") According to the passage, researchers were able to compare cognitive scores with “genetic relatedness” (lines 48-49), because the researchers had A) observed surprisingly intelligent behavior in some of the specific chimpanzees. B) tested chimpanzees with a broad variety of genetic relationships. ©) used 13 different tests to study the chimpanzees intelligence. D) found that both spatial and social cog ‘genetically heritable Ea» Practice test? | 573,]1 “The passage presents which of the following as an. indication of a task related to social cognition? A) Making a sound to draw attention B) Reactions to sounds produced by human researchers ©) The use of flashlights D) Recognition of a video image ‘As used in line 68, “find” most nearly means A) show. B) locate ©) prove D) search, 574 | Practice Tests forthe SAT 1 ‘The passage most clearly implies which of the following statements about animals in captivity? A) They are likely to have close contact with extended family members. B) They display more social cognition than do animals in the wild. ©) Studies on them may not reveal elements which may play significant roles. 1D) Inferences drawn from studies on them can be easily applied to wild animals. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? |A) Lines 17-20 ("For most B) Lines 45-47 ("The group ©) Lines 58-62 ("That the D) Lines 81-84 ("In the punishment”) cousins") study”) blunted”)j1 Questions 31-41 passages. ¢ based on the following Passage | is adapted froma letter from Thomas Jefferson to John Adams, October 281813, Passage 2is adapted from a letter from John Adams to Thomas Jefferson, November 15" 1813. Jefferson and Adams are discussing whether aristocracy isinherited. Passage 1 For I agree with you that there is a natural aristocracy among men. The grounds ofthis are virtue and talents. tne ‘There is also an artificial aristocracy founded on. '5 wealth and birth, without either virtue or talents; for with these it would belong to the fist class. The natural aristocracy I consider as the most precious gift of nature, for the instruction, the trusts, and government of society. And indeed it would have te been inconsistent in creation to have formed man for the social state, and not to have provided virtue and wisdom enough to manage the concerns of the society ‘May we not even say that that form of government is, the best which provides the most effectually for a pure ‘is selection of these natural aristi into the offices of © government? The artificial aristocracy is a mischievous ingredient in government, and provision should be made to prevent its ascendancy. I think the best remedy is exactly that provided by “2 all our constitutions, to leave to the citizens the free lection and separation of the aristoi from the pseudo- | aristoi, of the wheat from the chaff. In general, they will elect the really good and wise. In some instances, | wealth may corrupt, and birth blind them; but not | in sufficient degree to endanger the society. But even © in Europe a change hes sensibly taken place in the |. mind of Man. Science had liberated the ideas of those who read and reflect, and the American example had kindled feelings of right in the people. An insurrection 8 has consequently begun, of science, talents and courage against rank and birth, which have fallen into © contempt. F This however we have no right to meddle with. Ef Iesuffices for us, ifthe moral and physical condition [> of our own citizens qualifies them to select the able |_ and good for the direction of their government, with recurrence of elections at such short periods as will enable them to displace an unfaithful servant before the mischief he meditates may be irremediable. “s 50 ss “o s ” 1s Ed 1] ‘We are now explicitly agreed, in one important point, that “there isa natural aristocracy among men; the grounds of which are virtue and talents?” ; But though we have agreed in one point, in words, itis not yet certain that we are perfectly agreed in sense. Fashion has introduced an indeterminate use of = the word “talents” Education, wealth, strength, beauty, stature, birth, marriage, graceful attitudes and motions, ‘ait, air, complexion, and physiognomy are talents, as ‘well as genius and science and learning. Any one of these talents, that in fact commands or influences true votes in society, gives to the man who possesses it the character of an aristocrat, in my sense of the word. Your distinction between natural and artificial aristocracy does not appear to me well founded. Birth and wealth are conferred on some men as imperiously by Nature, as genius, strength or beauty. The heir is honors and riches, and power has often no more | merit in procuring these advantages than he has in obtaining a handsome face or an elegant figure. | ‘When aristocracies are established by human laws, and honor, wealth, and power are made hereditary by municipal laws and political institutions, then 1 acknowledge artificial aristocracy to commence: but this never commences, till corruption in elections ‘becomes dominant and uncontrollable. But this artificial aristocracy can never last. The everlasting envies,jealousies, rivalries and quarrels among them, their cruel rapacities upon the poor ignorant people their followers, compel these to set up Caesar, a demagogue to be a monarch and master. Here you have the origin of all artificial aristocracy, which is the origin of all monarchy. And both artificial aristocracy, and monarchy, and civil, military, political and hierarchical despotism, have all grown out of the natural aristocracy of “virtues and talents” Your distinction between the aristoi and pseudo aristoi, will not help the matter. I would trust one as soon as the other with unlimited power. The law wisely refuses an oath as a witness in his own cause to the saint as wel as to the sinner. E> Proce tes? | $781 ‘As used in line 20, “free” most nearly means A) complimentary. B) available. C) unrestricted. D) gratuitous. Itcan be inferred that the author of Passage 1 believes the best way to prevent the rise of the artificial aristocracy is to 'A) allow those with power to pass that power to their children. B) run America the same way the Europeans run their countries. ) require voters to vote only for the best and wisest candidates. D) allow voters to choose their own leaders. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? ‘A) Lines 4-6 (“There is... class’) B) Lines 16-18 (“The artificial... ascendancy”) C) Lines 19-22 ("I think... chaff”) 1D) Lines 25-27 ("But even .. . Man’) ‘As used in line 45, “fashion” most nearly means A) convention, B) demeanor. ©) model D) construction. 576 | 9Pacice Test forthe SAT ul According to the author of Passage 2, an artificial aristocracy begins only when |A) Jaws give one group power over another. B) all people are given the right to vote. ©) ademocracy turns into a monarchy. 1D) those who are virtuous and talented control the government. In Passage 2, the author claims that political advantages come mainly from A) birth and wealth, B) awide range of characteristics. ©) physical atributes. 1D) municipal laws and political institutions. ‘Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? |A) Lines 40-42 ("We are... talents”) B) Lines 49-52 (‘Any one... word") ©) Lines 54-86 ("Birth and ... beauty”) D) Lines 60-65 (“When ... and uncontrollable”) In lines 76-80, the author of Passage 2 refers to a statement made in Passage 1 in order to |A) question the working vocabulary of the author of Passage 1 B) argue against the central theme of Passage ©) agree with the logic ofthe proposal outlined in Passage 1 D) point out a perceived flaw in the argument made in Passage 1 RoeWhich best describes the overall relationship between Passage 1 and Passage 2? ‘A)_ Passage 2 further develops a distinction presented in Passage | B) Passage 2 disagrees with a key assumption of Passage 1 ©) Passage 2 considers the historical context of statements made in Passage 1 D) Passage 2 redefines key terms used in the argument in Passage 1 ‘The authors of both passages would most likely agree with which of the following statements about advantages people may have over each other? A) Those born talented and virtuous have an advantage over those who aren't. B) Wealth and power are more important than beauty and talent. ©) Advantages one gains later in life are more powerful than those one is born with. D) ‘There is a clear distinction between those who earn their power and those who have it handed to them. uy How would the author of Passage 1 most likely respond to the points made in Passage 2 (lines 60-75)? A) Passing power down through families will lead to governments run like those in Europe. B) Although a few who are unfit may be elected, leaving the decisions in the hands of the voters will ultimately keep the system balanced. ©) Rank and birth are more highly prized than science and talent. D) The setup of the American system could allow for an unfaithful leader to cause irremediable damage. En» practice est | 77[1 tne x» 3s Questions 42-52 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. “This passage is adapted from Nicolaas Bouwes etal, “Ecosystem Experiment Reveals Benefits of Natural and Simulated Beaver Dams to a Threatened Population of ‘Steelhead (Oncorhynchus mykiss)" © 2016 by Scientific Reports. Beaver in Eurasia and North America were once abundant and ubiquitous. Their dense and barbed fur has great felting properties, and as early as the 1500s, intense trapping to provide pelts mainly for ‘making hats occurred throughout Eurasia. When Lewis and Clark explored the Pacific Northwest in 1805, salmon and steelhead coexisted with beavers in very high densities. When the British and United ‘States jointly occupied the Oregon Territories (which included the Columbia River Basin), the Hudson Bay ‘Company implemented their “scorched earth’ or “fur desert” policy to eliminate all fur-bearing animals, in an attempt to discourage American settlement. Asa result, beaver were nearly extirpated from the region by 1900, ‘Around this time, a decrease in the great harvests of Pacific salmon and steelhead was first perceived. ‘Anadromous salmon and steelhead populations have since declined precipitously in the Columbia River Basin, leading to their lsting under the US. Endangered Species Act (ESA). Human activities, including the removal of beaver, have exacerbated the occurrence of stream channel incision, where a rapid down-cutting of the stream bed disconnects the channel from its floodplain. We hypothesized that beaver dams or simulated beaver dams that we ‘construct (referred to as beaver dam analogs or BDAS) can greatly accelerate the incision recovery process. BDAs were built by pounding wooden fence posts vertically into the channel bed and potential floodplain ‘surfaces. Willow branches were woven between the posts, and bed sediment was used to plug the base of structures. The addition of BDAs into Bridge Creek led to an immediate and rapid increase in the number of natural beaver dams, not only in our treatment arcas but throughout much of Bridge Creek. Whether their dam-building activities increased because of ‘a demographic or behavioral response is somewhat immaterial, because the modification of the stream ecosystem, rather than the beavers themselves likely ‘caused the fish population response. 578 | Practice Tests forth SAT 1] BDAs and beaver dams led to large changes in both fish and beaver habitat, and the steelhead population response largely followed our hypothesized pathways. 45 We found compelling evidence that beavers increased the quantity of juvenile habitat Increasing habitat complexity may also partially ‘explain the observed increase in total juvenile abundance, survival and productivity. Increased 50 habitat complexity provides fish a greater selection of | locations at which to forage, rest, and avoid predation and high flow events, while reducing migration distances required to conduct these activities for multiple life-stages. Thus, we suspect that an increase 55 in habitat complexity is partly responsible for the observed positive steelhead population responses. ‘Number of Dams Over Time 207 —— Bide Cece | Hesinerteates zoo] == Gita Nunberof BDASao ‘Natural Beaver Dares os 200m STO Panel represents the total numberof dams forthe Bridge Creek dotted Tine, the sum of al treatment (so ie) and al control (dashed fine) teaches. block vertical ine present when BOAS were intially installed ‘Asused in line 22, “removal” most nearly means the |A) significant reduction of a population. B) surgical extraction of an item. ©) complete extinction of a species. D) physical relocation of an individual beaver. mEIn line 56, the authors state that certain hypothesized results were largely consistent with “steelhead population responses.” According to the passage, which of the following best represents the broader hypothesis the authors tested in order to obtain those results? ‘A) Artificial beaver dams can be constructed by the placement of wooden posts and cross- woven willow branches without obstructing the development of natural dams. 8B). Reconnecting a streamis channel and floodplain can occur more quickly through the construction of natural or artificial beaver dams. ©) The removal of an animal from its habitat can lead to unexpected results throughout an ecosystem. 1D) Stream channel incision, caused by the rapid down-cutting of a stream bed, is exacerbated by the presence of unexpectedly large numbers of beaver dams. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 16-17 (Around this B) Lines 21-25 ("Human activities... floodplain”) ©) Lines 25-28 ("We hypothesized D) Lines 29-31 (“BDAS were... surfaces”) = perceived") process”) 1 ‘The primary purpose of the third paragraph (ines 29-41) isto A) illustrate methods and results of research to determine the impact of beaver dams on stream ecosystems, B) detail the findings of research designed to investigate beaver responses to competition from other dams. ©) describe the plan that will be followed by the hypothetical experiment referenced in the fifth paragraph (lines 47-56). D) suggest a method by which a potential experiment could be carried out in the future in order to test the strength of beaver dams. ‘The passage most clearly indicates that the authors’ Bridge Creek BDA building efforts had which of the following indirect effects? A) ‘They temporarily disturbed the local wildlife populations. B) They reduced the downstream water flow. ©) They prompted beavers to build more natural dams. D) They increased local beaver populations. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question? A) Lines 13-15 (‘Asa.... 1900") B) Lines 33-36 (“The addition C) Limes 36-41 (“Whether their D) Lines 49-54 (“Increased habitat Creek”) response”) life-stages") E> Praia Test? | 578[1 The words “partially,” “suspect,” and “partly” in the fifth paragraph (Lines 47-56) have which effect on the tone of the paragraph? |A) They indicate an insecure tone that displays the depth of the authors’ nervousness about how the new research will be received B) They indicate an objective tone that states facts ‘while also allowing for the possibility that other factors may be important. ©) They indicate a conceding tone that grudgingly accepts unwelcome results of the conducted research on the effects of artificial dams. D) ‘They create a suspicious tone that suggests the authors are afraid that they may have missed crucial implications of their research ‘An unstated assumption of the experiment described in the passage is that habitat complexity |A) was at its greatest before 1900. B) is always increased by the addition of dams. ©) is detrimental to most types of predator populations in stream-based ecosystems. 1D) was not maximized before the construction of the BDAs, ‘According to the data in the figure, what was the ‘greatest number of dams on Bridge Creek during the twenty years prior to the installation of BDAs? A) 105 dams B) 125 dams ©) 150 dams D) 225 dams 1 Based on the data in the figure, which ofthe following ‘years represents the last year during which a control reach had a greater number of dams than a treatmen, reach? A) 1995 B) 2000 c) 2007 D) 2012 Does the graphic support the author’ claim that increasing the number of real or simulated beaver dams leads to an increase in steelhead populations? |A) Yes, because the initial construction of BDAS led directly and significantly to steep increases in ‘natural dams along all the treated stream systems B) Yes, because the data in the figure indicate that the construction of BDAs led to an increase in the steelhead populations. ©) No, because the data do not provide a link between the number of dams and the quality of steelhead habitats 1D) No, because the data do not show that floodplain access is significantly increased by the presence of dams. STOP ityou h before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. 580 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SATNo Test Material On This Page Practice Test7 | 581Writing and Language Test 35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. Cia Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions. Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage asa whole. Aiter reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English, Many questions include a*NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage asitis. Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. Paternal Instincts: The Case for Paternity Leave From high-rise office buildings to massive ‘manufacturing plants, the main focus in any workplace is generally on what employees are being paid to do, but, [EB the personal needs of workers must also be addressed _ for a moder n company to maximize its potential for success, Afterall, itis no longer the dawn ofthe Industral Age. paid days off are commonplace, and a safe working children are no longer used as part of the workforce, environment is the rule rather than the exception, Contemporary employers [BMJ of today understand that providing for the safety and security of an employee, and an employee’ family, can improve not only quality of life, but also the company’s production. 82 | Sprain Tests forthe SAT Which choice provides the most appropriate introduction to the passage? A) NO CHANGE ) work isnt the only thing ©) many companies also care about profit as wel. D) companies could do everything possible to make all employees happy. (A) NO CHANGE B) today ©) of ight now D) DELETE the underlined portion. Ko“There is no more important event for a family than "ye birth of a child, and many companies offer paid uate leave to mothers in order to ease the natural yurden that families experience during this time. However, sigifcanty fewer companies offer the male equivalent — aid paternity leave. A 2012 study conducted IM fom “the United States Department of Labor found that only 13 percent of men who took paternity leave recéived pay compared to 21 percent of women who took maternity eave. The same study found that maternity leave averages § xto twelve weeks in length. Of the men who reported taking leave following the birth ofa child, 70 percent «indicated that they took a paternity leave [EM they ae at “most ten days ong, pan 4) 8) © D) A) B) ° D) NO CHANGE by of DELETE the underlined portion. NO CHANGE that was they were those being. Ea» Protest? | 5882 ‘This pronounced deficit in leave [EJ is important for two reasons. The first is that companies might not only increase the happiness oftheir workforce, but also retain high-skilled workers who could be tempted to leave for another company offering better paternity benefits. A 2014 study by the US. Bureau of Labor and Statistics found that nine out of ten men considered paternity leave to be a factor of atleast marginal importance when considering employment opportunities. i] Others considered it to be less important, fj Clearly, this is becoming amore important issue to the newest additions to the workforce. 504 | 9Fractie Tests orth SAT A) NO CHANGE B) are ©) isbeing D) had been Which choice best supports the statement made in the previous sentence? A) NO CHANGE B) But not as important as mothers having time of C) But others did not seem to think it mattered. D) Six out often considered it to be extremely important, At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence, ‘The younger a male respondent was, the more likely he was to rate the issue of paternity leave as important when considering employment. Should the writer make this addition? A) Yes, because it provides a reason for the assertion, ‘made in the last sentence of the paragraph. B)_ Yes, because it supplies qualitative data that is. challenged in the remainder of the paragraph. ©) No, because it interrupts the discussion of what i important to older fathers. D) No, because it does not take into account whethet workers were actualy fathers or not.© BB However paternity leave is not just about what _ potential employees want. There isa second reason that [paternity leave polices areso important; they bring {paternity ortant; they bring, tention to a larger societal issue. Not enough emphasis ‘Bhas been placed on the importance of both IE parent's {being involved in the earliest stages of a chil’ lif. © paternity leave allows fathers to bond with their children © earlier, participate in the household more ise children with a greater sense of gender equality. in other words, paternity leave not only benefits alone ely, and, “employee and his or her family—it improves society as a | whole, g In context, which choice best combines the underlined sentences? A) However, another reason that paternity eave is so important is that they bring attention to a larger societal issue that is also what potential employees want. B) However, a second reason is about what potential employees want and paternity leave having an impact on an entire society. ©) Beyond being something potential employees desire, paternity leave policies are also important because they highlight a larger societal issue. D) Employees want paternity leave, so another important reason to take it seriously in our society is that these policies involve a larger societal issue. A) NO CHANGE B) parent's being involved in the earliest stages of a childs life ©) parents being involved in the earliest stages of a child’ life D) parents being involved in the earliest stages’ of a childs life A) NO CHANGE B) active, and raise children ©) actively, and raise children D) actively and raising A) NO CHANGE B) Otherwise, ©) Completely, D) Alternatively, mn» Practe est? | 885| J2 ‘The Divided Elections of America “The cyclical nature of American federal elections is one aspect of American life common to all fifty states. However, once you move past the cycle and look at the voting mechanisms themselves, similarities are hard to come by [BY One major difference among the states pertaining to elections for federal offices, for example presidential or congressional [EJ candidates. Is whether 1 state holds a primary or a caucus. These two systems, primaries and caucuses, are meant to accomplish the same goal; nominate major-party candidates for office. 586 | 9Practice Tests forthe SAT 2| Which choice provides the most logical introduction to the sentence? A) NO CHANGE B) Al states vote for the same offices on the same cycle ©) The main questions for all democratic nations ang their elections, D) DELETE the underlined portion, and begin the sentence with a capital letter. NO CHAN candidates: candidates; is candidates, is A) NO CHANGE, B) goal nominate © goal, and D) goal:2 Because the goal of each ofthese systems is the same, sgean be surprising how fundamentally different primaries © apd caucuses are. Caucuses, for example, ae strictly ‘|imited to the members of a single political party. Ifa « qucusiis the preferred method of election, these state-level party members will convene a meeting, called a caucus, to select candidates or decide policy. At this caucus, members ofthat single political party meet in person at an appointed time and location to discuss the candidates and debate their merits based on the party platform. [EI The voting for candidates then happens manually Primaries, on the other hand, involve an election that narrows the field of major-party candidates before an election for office. Additionally, primaries may be | declared as “open which means that they are not limited {o paticipation by a single political party as caucuses are. In primaries, non-affiliated and affliated voters may present BJ themselves at their respective precincts and. cast their votes privately. 2] The writer is considering revising the underlined sentence to read: ‘The voting for candidates then happens manually, either by a raised hand count or by separating into groups for a tal. ‘Should the writer add this information here? A) Yes, because it provides examples of why caucuses are more effective than primaries. B) Yes, because it further explains the assertion made in the sentence. ©) No, because it should be placed later in the passage. D) No, because it contradicts the main claim of the passage. A) NO CHANGE, B) himself or herself C) their selves D) oneself E> Practice est | 587 k || J2 Historically, caucuses made a great deal of practical sense. [J In the late eighteenth century it was dificult for candidates to share information with potential voters or campaign on a large geographical scale, [EJ Much_ of the voting population had limited, if any, knowledge of the candidates or party platforms before traveling to designated centers to actually cast a vote. Caucuses allowed voters who were limited in their knowledge to learn firsthand from representatives of the candidates what the party platform was and what positions the candidates had on issues within that platform. Voters then selected representatives who were pledged to the candidate the voters had chosen. a8 | 9 Practice Tasts for 2 ‘The writer is considering deleting the previous sentence. Should the writer make this change? A) Yes, because it does not logically follow from the previous paragraph. B)_ Yes, because it introduces information that is, irrelevant at this point in the passage. ©) No, because it provides a specific example in support of arguments made elsewhere in the passage. D) No, because it provides a logical introduction to the paragraph. A) NO CHANGE B) Much of the voting population, had limited if any knowledge ©) Much of the voting population had, limited, if any, knowledge 1D) Much ofthe voting population had limited if any knowledge, Which choice most logically follows the previous sentence? A) ‘The man who received the most votes would become president B) Ofcourse, not everyone who came voted in the same way. ©) Functionally, voters directly voted for their caucus representatives, not the actual candidates. 1D) Local elections rarely used this system because candidates were always well known,[2 (Overtime, especially in this era of mass and social media, primaries have been steadily surpassing caucuses in popularity. Out ofthe fifty voting states and commonvealts, only 13 currently hold caucuses. This is due in part to the BIJ horrid nature of caucuses in comparison to primaries. Not only are they dificult to keep organized, BHM itis also difficult to keep civil. In addition, caucuses have come to be perceived as less democratic because isan election of representatives rather than direct elections of candidates. 2i Which choice best maintains the tone established in the passage? A) NO CHANGE B) deplorable ©) Iitigious D) inconvenient A) NO CHANGE, B)_butalso they are ©) but. also, they can be D) also they were a A) NO CHANGE, B) ithasbeen an clection ©) they are elections D) those have been an election E> prctce Test? | 589{2 2 Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage and supplementary material. NO CHANGE that which ‘The Sloth: Nature's Layabout or Eficient Mammal? ‘Many people believe that the sloth is an extremely = lazy animal. This popular image of the sloth has its roots, in both history and etymology. European explorers in a A) NO CHANGE ‘one of the “Seven Deadly Sins.” BEY Recently, the sloth’s B) careless image is reinforced by Blue Sky Studios 2002 movie ©) inactive ems D) slothful However, while its true that the sloth typically moves g slowly and spends a significant portion of Bits Which choice mos effectively combines the sleeping, this slow rate of activity is not due tolaziness. ;—=—=—_underlined sentences? Rather, the sloth has evolved this lifestyle in order to adapt A) Sid, a sloth in the 2002 movie Ice Age, sleeps through the migration of his community and is nearly left behind, which reinforces the sloth’s high in the rainforest canopy. i image recently by Blue Sky Studios. B) Blue Sky Studios’ 2002 movie Ice Age reinforces this image by featuring a sloth, Sid, who sleeps through the migration of his community and is nearly left behind. ©) Blue Sky Studios Sid, a sloth, sleeps through the migration of his community and is nearly eft behind recently in Ice Age, reinforcing the sloths image, D) A.sloth, Si, sleeps through Blue Sky Studios’ 2002 movie Ice Age, reinforcing the sloths image and being left behind through the migration of his, community. to the particular challenges of consuming leaves located. A) NO CHANGE, B) its ©) there D) their 590 | 9Fractice Tost forthe SAT2 [1] The sloth is categorized asa folivore because the sulk ofits diet consists of the leaves, buds, and tender © shoots of Cercropia, EH that isa tree found in the tropical regions of Central and South America. [2] Take the sloth’ BEY stomach for example, itis very large with multiple compartments. [3] These compartments contain bacteria © that break down the leafy material. [4] It may take a sloth cover month to digest a meal of Cercropia leaves. (5 eR © However, leaves and other non-fruit parts of trees are nutritionally poor, so the sloth has various adaptations to © help it thrive on this diet. [6] Another, perhaps even more | amazing dietary adaptation is the sloths unusually low © body temperature. 127 | A) NO CHANGE B) itis C) being D) DELETE the underlined portion. ‘A) NO CHANGE, B) stomach, for example, ©) stomach. For example, D) stomach, for example: To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5 should be placed A) where itis now. B) after sentence 1, ©) after sentence 3. D) after sentence 6. E> Practice Test? | 581Most mammals regulate their body temperature in part by creating heat through metabolic processes. ‘Through normal body processes, heat is generated (more in the core organs than in the extremities), and this heat is spread throughout the body. This process of heat generation requires nutrition, and, as mentioned above, the sloth survives predominantly on tree products that are poor in nutrition. As the graph shows, this in part explains why the sloth has a body temperature B) approximately five degrees Celsius lower than the other mammals shown, even when active. Furthermore, the sloth does not keep its body temperature in as limited a range as, for instance, a dog BI has. A healthy dog’s temperature will remain within 0.4 degrees Ci s ofits average, whereas a healthy sloth’ temperature can be as much as 2 degrees Celsius warmer or cooler than its average body temperature when a healthy sloth active bod temperature can be greater than that of a healthy dog. active. This means tha ‘This lower body temperature helps the sloth thrive on a nutritionally poor diet. The sloths slow and steady lifestyle is therefore not the result of laziness, but rather the result popular cultures stereotypes about this animal as seen through the movie Ice Age. Average Body Temperature of ‘Various Mammals 36337 —38—3 HIT Sloth Elephant Human Horse Dog Goat «s ——_ 40 “Temperature (degrees Celsius) (active) ‘Adapted from Gary Meisner, “Golden Ratio in Body Temperatures” Criginally published May 13,2012 by Goldennumber net. 592 | 9Practce Tests for the SAT 2 Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of data in the graph? A) NO CHANGE B) approximately equal to ©) approximately five degrees greater than D) approximately half that of gi A) NO CHANGE B) will. ©) did, D) does, Which choice offers an accurate interpretation of the data in the graph? A) NO CHANGE, B) ahealthy dog’ body temperature is greater than that of any mammal shown in the graph, ©) healthy dogs body temperature will be greater than that ofa sloth, even when the sloth is active D) ahealthy, active sloth will have a body temperature equal to that of a healthy dog. “The writer wants a conclusion that conveys how the sloth’ inactivity is the result of adaptations to its diet Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE, B) the unfortunate name given to the sloth by Europeans exploring the South American rainforest ©) keeping its body temperature lower than that of most other mammals. 1D) needing to survive off of a food source that, while abundant, is not a rich source of nutrients. ml»[2 ‘questions 34~44 are based on the following passage. “Milton Babbitt: A Punny Composer Typically, a pun is a form of word play suggesting that there are multiple interpretations of a word or phrase, Some puns—Oscar Wilde's “The Queen is not a subject” for example use words that have multiple meanings. Other puns, such as the comedian George CCarlin’s observation that ‘Atheism is a non-prophet, © organization? EJ relies on words with different definitions, but that sound alike. From Shakespeare's plays to Abbott and Costello's Who’ on First? to even the as le, wordsmiths have used puns for humorous and shetorical effect. However, puns arent just limited towords. One ‘Babbitt, has imported the use of puns into music. punster, American composer, Milton A) 8) °) D) 4) B) ° D) A) B) ° D) 4) B) ° D) NO CHANGE subject” for example, subject” for example; subject? for example— NO CHANGE rely has relied relying NO CHANGE Bible. These wordsmiths Bible, Wordsmiths Bible; these wordsmiths NO CHANGE punster, American composer Milton Babbitt, unster, American composer, Milton Babbitt punster American composer Milton Babbitt, El» Prien Test? | 888‘Two of Babbitt’ works for percussion, Homily and. Beaten Paths, show how he EI writes effectively for the i dynamics (how loudly or softly a note is played) and timbre (the “color” of the note, changed by using different struments chosen. Homily, for snare drum, uses drumsticks) to change how similar musical phrases are modified in such a way that different interpretations of the phrase audibly perceived. The musical phrase is are possible, much in the same way that verbal puns rely ‘on concurrent interpretations of a word. Similarly, Beaten Paths, for marimba, also uses dynamics to create different 8s 594 | 9Practice Tests for the SAT 2 Which choice most effectively sets up the examples that follow? A) NO CHANGE 'B)_has fun with the music in his compositions. ©) creates puns in music by using the same musical idea in multiple ways D) shows the absurdity of translating ideas from one type of work to another. A) NO CHANGE B) twisted ©) doctored D) refinedeaten Paths uses pitch to not only create repeated musical potifs, but also EM] reshaped the audience's perception “ofthe music. EJ Beyond his music, Babbitt’ use of puns ven EB extends tothe tes of works. AN z go A) NO CHANGE B) reshape ©) have reshaped { D) reshaping At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence. Babbitt was one of the first to work in electronic music, producing his Composition for Synthesizer in 1961. Should the writer make this addition here? AA) Yes, because it helps to explain Babbitt interest in puns. B) Yes, because it links Babbitt’s music to literature, ©) No, because it provides background information, that is irrelevant to the paragraph. D) No, because it fails to indicate whether Babbitt ‘wrote for other instruments besides the synthesizer. ‘The writer wants to link the second paragraph to the {ideas that follow. Which choice best accomplishes this goal? A) NO CHANGE B)_helps his listeners understand his musical ideas. )_ makes his music both funny and persuasive D) makes similar sounding ideas mean different things. E> practza est? | 598[1] Beaten Paths refers both to the repetition of ‘musical ideas and the use of the marimba, which is struck to create sound. (2] The pun contained in Homily isa bit less obvious. [3] The music of both Beaten Paths and Homily originate in another work of Babbitt’, My Complements to Roger, the ttle of which contains @ pan on the word “compliments"/"complements.” [4] A homily is a religious sermon, and a quote from a homily by St. John ‘Chrysostom is included in the score: “And why, itis asked, are there so many snares? That we may not fly low, but seek the things that are above.” [5] Other works by Babbitt also contain puns, such as All Set, About Time, and Autobiography of the Eye. [6] Milton Babbitt, by using percussion instruments in novel ways, enhances listener enjoyment through the creation of different layers of meaning STOP 2 A) NO CHANGE, B) playing around with the meanings of words, ©) using puns in both the music and titles of his, compositions, D) having his performers use dynamics and timbre in unusual ways, ‘To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 4 should be placed A). where itis now. B) after sentence 1 C) after sentence 2. D) after sentence 5, I you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. 596 | Practice Tests forthe SATNo Test Material On This Page Practice Test? | 897i Math Test - No Calculator 25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS ‘Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. For questions 1-15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fil in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16-20, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use any available space in your test booklet for scratch work. The use of a calculator is not permitted, All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated, Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated. Allfigures lie in a plane untess otherwise indicated, Uniess otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function fis the set of all real numbers x for which fx) is areal number. fone ‘The number of degrees of arc ina circle is 360. ‘The number of radians of arc ina circle is 2r. ‘The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles ofa triangle is 180. 598 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SAT[3 Which of the following is equal to m?, for all values ofm? a) vn nn ©) Yn? D) Vm A sealcoating company will seal d driveways with the same size and shape in a subdivision using a specific type of sealant. The company’s fee can be calculated by the expression dClw, where d is the number of driveways, Cis a constant with units in dollars per ‘square meter, ls the length of each driveway in meters, and wis the width of each driveway in meters. Ifthe homeowners’ association asks the company to use a less expensive type of sealant, which of the factors in the expression would change? Al B) d Ow D) Cc If 4x = 20, what is the value of 12x ~ 42 AS B) 36 ©) 56 D) 60 ae z If = = ——,, whats the value of = ? 2 2+a 2 Ayu B) 7 ° D) Ea» Practice Test? | 5993r-5s=-17 Sr-3s=-7 1£ (43) isa solution to the system of equations above, isthe value of r~ 5? ‘The number of scripted shows produced for streaming services between 2012 and 2013 is triple the number of scripted shows the services produced between 2009 and 2010. If24 scripted shows were produced between 2012 and 2013 and s shows were produced between 2009 and 2010, which of the following equations is true? A) 3s=24 B) 24s=3 ©) 5=%4 D) s+24=3 600 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SAT K 3] ‘The line y= cx-2, where cis a constant, is graphed in the xy-plane. Ifthe line contains the point (m,n), ‘where m #0 and n # 0, what is the slope of the ling, in terms of mand n? m4? ° n42 p) = go Bx-2y=5 ex-Ty=12 In the system of equations above, cis a constant and xand y are variables. For what values ofc will the system of equations have no solution? a 2 2 36 By -3 » 5 36 o = De 2a geeenoerreen: alwlelol» | ‘The function p is defined by a polynomial. Some values of x and p(x) are shown in the table above. Which of the following must be a factor of p(x)? A) x1 B) x-2 ©) x-3 D) x-4 y= alx~3)(+5) In the quadratic equation above, a is a nonzero constant. The graph of the equation in the xy-plane is parabola with vertex (5). Which of the following is equal tot? A) 2a B) -10a ©) ~15a D) 16a 3| In the xy-plane, the parabola with equation (x - 9° intersects the line with the equation y = 36 at two points, Fand G. What isthe length of FG ? A) 10 B) 12 ©) 15 D) 25 (Note: Figure not drawn to scale In the figure above, three ines intersect at a point ina circle If1+m = +o, which of the following statements must be true? Mm.p A) Lonly B) Monly ©) Mand I only D) 1,1, and It E> Prectea est? | 60113 Li What are the solutions to 2x? + 12x + 8=02 a») 328 2 B) 3445 ©) 845 Dd) -8i8V5 | a 5 D=2eR-F rac ) ‘The equation above shows how a temperature F, measured in degrees Fahrenheit, relates to the temperature D, measured in degrees Delisle. Based on the equation, which of the following must be true? L.A temperature increase of degree Fahrenheit i equivalent to temperature decrease of 1 degree Delisle. IL. A temperature increase of 1 degree Delisle is ‘equivalent to a temperature decrease of 1.2 degrees Fahrenheit. IIL. A temperature increase of | degree Fahrenheitig decrease of 7 degree Delisle is equivalent to a temperature A) Tlonly B) Monly ©) Wand Ul only D) LU,and lt 602 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SAT ( a EB 36y? + 43y - 25 theequation 2° +97=25 gg 97 ky-3 ky -3 is true for all values of ¥ * , where kis a constant, ‘What is the value of k? A) 27 B) 4 oO -4 D) -27a 8 13 p t Answer: 2 Answer: 2.5 For questions 16-20, solve the problem and 2 center your answer in the grid, as described below, Write | ri PLE onthe answer sheet answer ath Fraction |p Iq7 inboxes. line Boia decimal 1. Although not required, itis suggested that oS Bw point ‘you write your answer in the boxes at the top | Ree PIDicplen} ofthe columns to help you fillin the circles Bee Rese accurately. You will receive credit only if the DoH | Dw Dea circles are filled in correctly BOs ee 2, Mark no more than one circle in any column, e2ee 2 eae 3, No question has a negative answer. DOD DOGS 44. Some problems may have more than one NDIDIOID VI correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer. 5. Mined mumberssuch as 33 mustbesridded ——_accepableways toga ae a A is entered into 283501722. oP the ord t willbe interpreted as 3!,notas Ze] | 4 Depp) 33) BIB 6. Decimal Anewers you obtain a decimal Beoe answer with more digits than the grid can is Sk accommodate it may be either rounded or Seee truncated, butt mustillthe entire grid. BRB NOTE: You may start your answers in any column, space permitting, Columns you don't need to Use should be left blank. [CONTINUE Practice Test7 | 603 eeewhat is the value of 2? In triangle LMN, the measure of ZM is 90°, LN = 26, and MN = 24. Triangle OPQ is similar to triangle LMN, where each side of triangle OPQ is. ; the length of the corresponding side of triangle LMN and vertices O, P, and Q correspond to vertices L, M, and N, respectively. What is the value of cos 0? 604 | 9Prctie Tests forthe SAT 3| ‘At a bakery, each pecan braid has 30 more milligrams of sodium than each chocolate pastry. If3 pecan braids and 4 chocolate pastries have a total of 1840 milligrams of sodium, how many milligrams of sodium does a pecan braid have? a'(a? — 25) = -144a Ifa > 0, what is one possible solution to the equation above?ne Note: Figure not drawn to scale, ‘Two isosceles triangles are shown above. If 180 ~ f= 2g and g= 65, what is the value of h ? STOP Ifyou finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. Practice Test? | 605Math Test - Calculator 55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS ‘Tum to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section. DIRECTIONS For questions 1-30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices provided, and fillin the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet, Please refer to the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use ‘any available space in your test booklet for scratch work. (od ‘The use of a calculator is permitted. ‘All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated. . Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated. Allfigures le n a plane unless otherwise indicated Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function fis the set ofall real numbers x for which fx) isa real number. fice 2 45> ‘The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. ‘The number of radians of arcin a circle is 2n. “The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180. eo 606 | 9Pracive Tests forthe SAT4| ‘he graph below shows the balance of Jerry's bank Total | account, in thousands of dollars, for each month from | January through December of 2012. 2 | To. Jerry's Bank Account Balance in 2012 | 6 50 | Bot gio ‘The table above shows the number of marbles of £ S501 different colors and sizes in a bag of 50 marbles. Ifa 2 fool marble is chosen from the bag at random, what is the a probability that the marble selected will be either a 2 a small, red marble ora large, blue marble? STP PTTPSe Tp hh ‘Months since Jan : ths since January 2012 as 50 Based on the graph, which of the following best ” describes the general trend of Jerry’s bank account. ; a> balance in 2012? A) ‘The balance generally decreased each month in 4 21 2012. 4 oz 7 50 FB) Thebalance generally decreased until July, then increased. 37 i . bp) = ©) The balance was generally constant throughout 50 2012. D) ‘he balance generally increased each month in 2012. Ea» Prato ast? | 607 eaeHot Air Balloon Ride 2,000 —$ 1 ee ! 9.004 10-0006 11-004. 12:00, 1:00e34. 2:00? Altitude (Feet) ‘The graph above shows the altitude of a hot air balloon over the course ofa 5-hour flight. During the flight, the balloon floated ata constant altitude for 1 hour in order to best view a historic landmark. Based con the graph, what time did the hot air balloon begin, viewing the historic landmark? A) 1030 am. B) 1130 Aa © 12300m. D) 1:00 ex. Every spring, Lowland High School administers «a standardized test that includes only math and science questions at various levels of difficulty. On the standardized test, approximately 6 percent of the ‘math questions and 9 percent of the science questions are categorized as very difficult questions. Ifthe test included 153 math questions and 267 science questions, which of the following i the closest to the total number of very difficult questions on this standardized test? Ay 9 B) 17 om D) 33 9 Practoe Tests for the SAT ‘What is the sum of 6)" ~ 3y? +7 and 5y? - 2y°~ 32 A) Lipsy B) Lyf esyt4 © Uys +4 D) Lipsy +4 3 0 2 Cee ‘The table above shows some values of the linear function g. Which ofthe following defines g? A) ga)=x-6 B) g(x)=2x-8 ©) gx) =3x-10 D) gx) =4x-125 Paul can run 144 meters in 72 seconds. Ifhe runs at this same rate, which of the following is closest to the distance he can run in 16 minutes? A) 200 meters B) 500 meters €) 1,000 meters D) 2,000 meters » what is the value of 2? B) 2 gla vie gz ain al Each year, the average number of legal cases per attorney at Gary's law firm can be modeled by the equation y = 1.74x-+ 15.3, where x represents the number of years that Gary's firm has been in operation since it opened in 2000, and y represents the average number of legal cases per attorney. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the number 1.74 in the equation? A) The average number of cases per attorney in 2000 B) The approximate increase in the average number of legal cases per attorney each year C) The total number of legal cases that Gary's firm handled in 2000 D) The approximate difference between the number of legal cases Gary’s firm handled in 2000 and in 2005 ia» Proto Test? | 609 i {[4 ‘The function m has 4 distinct zeros. Which of the following graphs could represent the graph of m in the ay-plane? Are TWY AOV 610 | Prac Tests forthe SAT al yy Questions 11 and 12 refer to the following information. 3 ong (2 a i ee oS ngs 1 Spring #4 a 47 Spring #5 6 " Spring #6: 7 a aH “The chart above shows the spring constants in newtons per meter (2) {for 7 different springs in a laboratory. The force requited to stretch a spring can be found by using the formula F= kom, where Fis the aplied force measured in newtons, kis the spring constant measured in x vand mis the distance that spring is stretched measured in. meters. What is the force, in newtons, required to stretch Spring #2 a distance of 5 meters? A) 35 B) 45 O55 D) 6514 I i ‘A force of 7 newtons is applied to stretch Spring #4. |. Which spring would stretch the same distance when a force of $ newtons is applied? A) Spring #3 B) Spring #5 ©) Spring #6 D) Spring #7 A secretarial business bills corporations $0.30 per minute to type reports, Which of the following equations represents the total bill b, in dollars, for a corporation needing ¢ hours of typing? Ay B) ° & D) b= 930 Graphs of the functions j and k are shown in the xy-plane above. For which of the following values of xcdoes j(x) + k(x) =0? al B) 2 o 3 Dd) 4 = 0.5my? + 10mh ‘The equation above gives the approximate energy ¢ in joules associated with a rollercoaster cart that has mass m in kilograms, speed v in meters per second, and height 4 in meters. Which of the following gives fh, interms of e, mand v? Protec Tet? | 6x8A group of effectiveness of pesticide P at eradicating aphids from rose gardens. From a large group of botanists, 400 participants with aphid-infested rose gardens ‘were randomly selected to participate in the study. Half of the 400 botanists sprayed their rose gardens with pesticide P, and the other half did not. The data showed that the rose gardens sprayed with pesticide P had significantly fewer aphids as compared to those that were not sprayed with pesticide P. Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion of the study? |A) Pesticide P will decrease the number of aphids in any rose garden. B) Pesticide P is the best pesticide available for decreasing the number of aphids in a garden, ©) Pesticide P will likely decrease the number of, aphids in aphid-infested rose gardens. D) Pesticide P will kill substantial numbers of aphids present ina garden 612 | 9Pvacize Tests forthe SAT “ | y Questions 17 and 18 refer to the following information. Cx) = 3x4 75 R(x) = 8x “The cost of manufacturing a product and the revenue ‘generated by that product are functions of the number of products manufactured and sold. The functions above are the cost and revenue functions for a certain product. The function C(x) gives the cost, in dollars, of manufacturing x products and the function R(x) gives the revenue, in dollars, generated when those x products are sod. How many units of product must be manufactured and sold in order for the cost of manufacturing a product to equal the revenue generated by selling the product? A) 8 B) 10 or D) 5 How will the cost of manufacturing change if 5 additional units of product are manufactured? A) The cost will decrease by $15. B) The cost will increase by $3 ©) The cost will increase by $15. D) The cost will increase by $75 A E>oe ‘Number of Bacteria Colonies versus Temperature TET | 8 ‘Number of Colonies & 2090) 10 50 070 ‘Temperature (°C) Sixteen samples of bacteria were each incubated for 24 hours. The scatterplot above shows the number of, colonies present at the end of the incubation period and the temperature of the incubator. The line of best fit for the data is also shown. For the sample incubated at 40°C, the actual number of colonies was about how many more than the number predicted by the line of best fit? Ao B) 10 O20 D) 40 BOSE ergpenresee tres Of the following four geographically distinct communities, which community would exhibit exponential growth of the population? ‘A) Each successive year, the community increases by 5% of the original population. B) Each successive year, the community increases by 4% of the original population and 300 new individuals are added to the community. ©) Bach successive year, 300 new individuals are added to the community. D) Each successive year, the community increases by 39% of the current population. 4| ‘Glucose, which isan important component of growth media for cultured cells, is so energy rich thet 1 milliliter can feed up to 9 Petri dishes of cells. Ifa Petr dish hasan area of approximately 77 square centimeters, about how many square centimeters of cells could 115 milliliters of glucose feed? A) 40 B) 1,000 ©) 6,500 D) 7,500 n In the triangle shown above, sin(*) = cos(d"). If c= 6m ~9and d = 8m ~6, what is the value of me? A) 54 B) 75 © 105 D) 35 Ro» Proton Test? | 612 SSE14 ‘A behavioral biologist has a bag containing ¢ treats that she is using to train a group of animals. Ifshe gives 4 treats to each animal, she will have 6 treats left over. In order to give each animal 5 treats, she will need an additional 8 treats. How many animals are in the behavioral biologists training group? A) 2 B) 8 Qo D) 16 ‘The sum of three numbers is 738. One of the numbers, k, is 20% less than the sum of the other two numbers. ‘What is the value of k? A) 328 B) 267 ©) 215 D) 144 614 | 9Prectce Tests forthe SAT 4] In the xy-plane, line passes through the origin and contains points (4, r) and (r, 16). Which of the following could be the value of r? A) 12 B) 8 o4 D) 0 wa * ‘A triangle was modified by increasing its base by 20 percent and decreasing its height by h percent. If these modifications decreased the area of the triangle by 28 percent, what is the value of h ? A) 48 B) 40 ©) 30 D) 28‘A time capsule is constructed from two rectangular pyramids and a rectangular solid with measurements indicated in the figure above. Of the following, which is the closest to the volume of the time capsule, in cubic inches? A) 1,386 B) L173 ©) 960 D) 426 2avx=4a-8 2b+y=4b-8 In the equation above, x and y are constants. Ifxis yminus ; which of the following is true? A) aisb minus 1 2 1 4 B) ais minus ©) aisbminus + 3 1 D) aisbplus + ) ais bplas 4 4| In order to plan for his family’s future, Michael has decided to invest some of his money into a mutual fund that, starting from the present, his broker estimates will increase by 15 percent every 4 years. If ‘Michael invests $20,000 into the mutual fund, which of the following expressions represents his broker's estimate of his mutual fand’s worth t years from now? A) 20,000(1.15) B) 20,000(0.15) ©) 20,000(1.15)* D) 20,000(0.15)* “Varsity [Varsity — i Soccer Basketball Juniors a Seniors Total 108, 32 ‘The unfinished table above shows the number of, juniors and seniors at Woodsfield High School ‘who participate in either varsity soccer or varsity basketball. There are 4 times as many junior varsity soccer players as there are junior varsity basketball players, and there are 3 times as many senior varsity soccer players as there are senior varsity basketball players. Ifthere is a total of 108 varsity soccer players and 32 varsity basketball players at Woodsfield High, which of the following is closest to the probability that a randomly chosen varsity basketball player is ‘ajunior? (Note: Assume that no student plays both varsity soccer and varsity basketball) A) 0.086, B) 0.134 © 0247 D) 0375 mi» rrctie est | 6184 Bica For questions 31-38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as described below, on the answer sheet. 1. Although not required, itis suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top of the columns to help you fil in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly. Mark no more than one circle in any column. No question has a negative answer. ‘Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer. 5, Mixed numbers such as 3 must be gridded 253501772. WALA Q? | is emeredinto the grid, it will be interpreted as 33, not as 3}) 6. Decimal Answers: f you obtain a decimal answer with more aigits than the ard can Sceammodate, tt may be either rounded or truncated, but t must fil the entire gr Answers Z Answer: 25 write [7 [7 [a]; -+|7{ 7142 | answer qc] fraction eat 4 7 inboxes. oe ine RS a (OOo point [inne 1 pees Gridin+d KB result. eel RRR ooee ID DDDD| ‘Answer: 201 - either position is correct NOTE: You may start your answers in any column, space permitting. Columns you dorttneed to use should be left blank 616 | 9Practice Tests for the SAT' Ad (Enrollment per Course at Riverview College— Jasmine’ algebra teacher gives pop quizzes that are t Spring Semester of 2001 | scored between 0 and 50 points inclusive, After the : os first 5 quizzes, jasmine’ quiz average acithmetic eT Number oe mean) is 35. What is the lowest score Jasmine can ©) course | cents} COU e | cuudents receive on the 6th quiz and still be able to have an | eat a average of at least 45 for the frst 20 quizzes Sociology | 98 [US History Psychology | 37 _| Anthropology Economics | 85 68 Calculus | 45 79 Science HI {Biology Linguists 16 a Accounting | _64_| Chemistry ao Ifthe expression above is rewritten in the form ‘The above table lists the number of students enrolled az! + bz + c, where a b and cate constants, whats in 12 different courses at Riverview College during the value of b? its spring semester of 2001, According to the table, what is the mean class size of these selected courses at Riverview College in the spring semester of 2001 ? (Round your answer to the nearest tenth.) A fruit stand sells pints of blueberries for $3 each. and pints of strawberries for $5 each. If John spends atleast $23 but no more than $27 on b pints of blueberries and 1 pint of strawberries, what is one possible value of b? E> prota est? | 6174 a ye 12x +384 yeax In the xy-plane, if point with coordinates (fg) lies in the solution set ofthe system of inequalities above, what is the minimum value of g? In circle with center C, central angle XCY has a measure of 3% radians. The major arc XY formed 2 by central angle XCY is what fraction of the circumference of the circle? 618 | 9 Practice Tests forthe SAT 4| or Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following information. In telecommunication networks, the transmission time is the amount of time required for a message to bbe successfully transmitted fom beginning to end. Ifa message is transmitted ata rate ofr bytes per second with a transmission time of T seconds, then the size of the ‘message in b bytes can be found by the formula b = “The CEO of Relay Communications estimates that the average global transmission time of a message is 2.5 seconds and that the average transmission rate is 1,000 bytes per second. The CEO uses the above formula to estimate thatthe average global message size at his company is 2,500 bytes. ‘The CEO of Relay Communications decides to study transmission times in a rural geographical region that his company serves. In this region, the CEO estimates that the average transmission rate rises to 75,000 bytes per minute and that the average transmission time is 1.6 seconds. The average message size in this region is what percent less than the average global. message size? (Note: Ignore the percent symbol when centering your answer. For example, if the answer is 24.1%, enter 24.1). é ‘Transmission times can vary depending on population, geographical region, or the type of ‘material used in the telecommunication wires. The CEO realizes that in a heavily populated city, the transmission rate drops to 45,000 bytes per minute. If the average transmission time of a message being transmitted in this heavily populated city is 4.2 seconds, what is the average size of a message transmitted by Relay Communications in this heavily populated city? STOP Ityou finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only. Do not turn to any other section in the test. Practice Tost 7 619