TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

Directions. Read each questions carefully. Then, encircle the letter of the best answer.

1. Mr. Reyes wants to test students' ability to work with and relate to people. Which will be the most
authentic assessment procedure to give to his students?
A. Writing an essay on how to develop human relation
B. Writing articles on working and relating to people
C. Organizing a community project
D. Conducting home visitation

2. While teaching how to compute the area of quadrilaterals, Teacher Joana checks whether her
students understand what she is teaching. What is Teacher Joana engaged in?
A. Criterion – reference evaluation
B. Norm – referenced evaluation
C. Summative evaluation
D. Formative evaluation

3. Mrs. Zamora discovered that her pupils ore weak in comprehension. To further determine in which
particular skill(s) her pupils are weak, which test should she give?
a. Placement Test c. Standardized Test
b. Diagnostic Test d. Aptitude lest
4. Quiz is to formative test while periodic is to
a. criterion-rendered test b. norm-reference fest c. summative test d. diagnostic
test
5. What type of test is given to determine the admission and non-admission of a student to the program?
a. Aptitude b. Placement c. Diagnostic d. Achievement
6. Teacher J discovered that her pupils are weak in comprehension. To further determine in which
particular skill(s) her pupils are weak; which test should teacher J give?
a. Aptitude test c. Diagnostic test
b. Placement test d. Standardized test
7. On the first day of class after initial introductions, the teacher administered a
Misconception/PreConception Check, She explained that she wanted to know what the class as a whole
already knew about the Philippines before the Spaniards came. The Misconception/Preconception check
is a term of a
a. diagnostic test c. achievement test
b. placement test d. criterion-referenced test
8. I want to find out how wet my students can speak extemporaneously. Which valid assessment
procedure should I use?

a. performance test displaying speeches delivered

b. quiz on how to deliver extemporaneous speech
c. performance test in extemporaneous speaking
d. test asking students to write speeches

9. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?

a. Portfolio assessment is a dynamic assessment.
b. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.
c. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.
d. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.
10. Some students who are high the scholastic aptitude test have failed in college. Some who are below
the standards set for admission, but who, for various reasons were admitted, attained satisfactory
standings. This proves that
a. human beings are certainly predictable
b. aptitude tests can be perfectly relied on
c. admission tests are not accurate, hence should not be used
d. aptitude tests do r rot measure all factors important for success
11. Which statement on IQ test is WRONG?

a . Measures fixed potential

b. Measures current performance
c. Can be advanced by maturational changes
d. Can be enriched by environmental experiences

12. Which are direct measures of competence?

a. Personality test c. Standardized tests
b. Performance tests d. Paper-and-pencil tests

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

13. Teacher A discovered that his pupils are very good in dramatizing. Which tool must have helped him
discover his pupils’ strength?
a. Performance test c. Portfolio assessment
b. Journal entry d. Paper-and-pencil test
14. Teacher B wants to diagnose in which vowel sound (s) her students have difficulty. Which tools most
appropriate?
a. Journal entry b. Performance test c. Portfolio assessment d. Paper-and-pencil test
15. Which one can best evaluate students’ attitudinal development?
a Portfolio b. essay c. Observation d. Short answer test
16. Which is an advantage of teacher uses in correcting student’s errors?

a. Better adapted to the needs of the pupils

b. more objectively scored
c. highly reliable
d. highly valid

17. Which is a good practice that a teacher uses in correcting student's errors?
a. Encourage the students to read books and .magazines to improve their spelling
b. Readily correcting the error upon utterance to distract the students flow of thought.
c. Ignore the mistakes; anyway -he will commit the same error in the future.
d. Noting students' error and dealing with them after the class activities.
18. Which term refers to the collection of students' products and accomplishments for a period for
evaluation purposes?
a. Diary b. Portfolio c. Anecdotal record d. Observation report
19. I want diagnose my student's difficulties in written communication skills. Which one should I use?
a. Short written response c. Performance task
b. teacher observation d. Oral reports
20. Which assessment tool shows evidence of a student writing
a. Project c. Daily journal
b. Portfolio d. Critiquing sessions
21. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
a. It emphasizes merely process.
b. It stresses on doing, not only knowing.
c. It accentuates on process as well as product.
d. Essay tests are an example of performance-based assessments
22. Which can effectively measure students writing values?
a Projective techniques c. Moral dilemma
b. Anecdotal record d. Likert scales
23. Which term refers to the collection of student's products and accomplishments for a period for
evaluation purposes?
a. Observation report c. Portfolio
b. Anecdotal record d. Diary
24. These are significant information about a student, gathered through the use of various techniques,
assembled, summarized and organized in such .a way that they may be used effectively. What is referred
to?
a. Cumulative record c. Test profiles
b. Personal inventory d. Case studies
25. Which is a norm-referenced statement?
a. Danny spelled 35 words out of 50 correctly.
b. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly.
c. Danny performed better in spelling than 60% of his classmate.
d. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words correctly and spelled 35 out of 50 correctly.
26. Which holds true to norm-referenced testing?
a. Comparing individual's performance to the average performance of a group
b. Constructing test items in term of instructional objectives
c. Identifying an acceptable level of mastery in advance
d. Determining task reflect instructional objectives
27. In a criterion-referenced testing, what must you do to ensure that your test is fair?
a. Make all of the questions true or false.
b. Ask each student to contribute one question.
c. Use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction.
d. Make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choice.
28. The following demands criterion-referenced test. EXCEPT

a. Personalized System of Instruction

b. Outcome based-education
c. Collaborative learning
d. Mastery learning

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

29. In which subjects can learning outcomes be best evaluated by criterion-referenced tests?
a. In all subjects
b. in subjects where objects are hierarchically arranged
c. In subjects where speed and accuracy of learner's response are emphasized
d. In subjects where the acquisition of cognitive and psychomotor abilities are emphasized
30. Teacher Z is engaged in a criterion-referenced interpretation of scores. Which of the following does
she do?
a. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the performance of the age group of
student.
b. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the clearly defined learning task.
c. She uses a specified population of persons as its interpretative frame of reference.
d. She compares every individual student performance with the performance of the test.
31. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT
fall under
a. criterion-referenced test c. intelligence test
b. norm-referenced test d. aptitude test
32. For mastery learning, which type of testing will be most fit?
a. Aptitude testing c. Norm-referenced testing
b. Formative testing d. Criterion-referenced testing
33. Teacher Lawrence wants to cheek whether or not his students learned what he intended to teach and
so he formulated a quiz that should be based on his
a. topic(s) c. students' ability
b. extra readings d. instructional objectives
34. Which test has broad sampling of topics as strength?
a. Short answer test c. Problem type
b. Objective test d. Essay test
35. With specific details in mind, which one has (have)a stronger diagnostic value?

a. Multiple choice test .

b. Restricted essay test
c. Non-restricted essay test
d. Restricted essay lest and non-restricted essay test

36. Which multiple choice type of test has options that are based on a graphical presentation of data or on
paragraph or picture?
a. Structured response test c. Contained-options lost
b. Setting and option test d. Stem-and-options test
37. Which type of test measures higher order thinking skills?
a. Enumeration c. Matching
b. Completion d. Analogy
38. Teacher gives this item to his class for assessment: CORE IS TO EARTH AS NUCLEUS IS TO
ATOM. THEN SHE ASKS THE STUDENTS TO EXPLAIN HOW THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN CORE
AND EARTH IS SIMILAR TO THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ODOMETER AND DISTANCE. What
classroom assessment technique is this called?
a. Webbing c. Metaphor
b. Analogy d. Simile
39. The strongest disadvantage of the alternate-response type of test is

a. the encouragement of role memory

b. the demand for critical thinking
c. the high possibility of guessing
d. the absence of analysis
40. Which does NOT belong to the group?
a. Matching c. Multiple choice
b. Completion d. Alternate response
41. With type of test format does NOT belong to the group?
a. essay c. multiple choice
b. completion d. matching type
42. If a teacher wants to test student's ability to organize ideas, which type of test should she form late?
a. Essay c. Multiple-choice type
b. Short answer d. Technical problem type
43. With synthesizing skills in mind which one has the highest diagnostic value?
a. Essay test c. Performance test
b. Completion test d. Multiple choice test
44. Which does NOT belong to the group?
a. Completion b. Short answer c. Multiple choice d. Restricted-response essay
45. With specific details in skills, which one has a stinger diagnostic value?
a. Performance test b. Multiple choice test c. Restricted essay lust d. Non-restricted essay test

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

46. To evaluate teaching skills, which is the most authentic tool?

a. Observation c. Short answer test
b Non-restricted lest d. Essay test
47. What criterion (a) is (are) applied by a principal who evaluates teachers based on the result of
achievements tests of pupils?
a. Product attitude b. Process c. Product d. Attitude
48. Which is the best source of information on teacher’s performance?
a. Self-evaluation c. Student's evaluation
b. Peer evaluation d. Supervisory evaluation
49. When is a test item valid?

a. When it measures the ;rail that it intends to measure.

b. When it covers a broad scope of subject matter
c.When the test is easy to administer
d.When scores are reliable

50. Teacher F wanted to teach the pupils the skill to do cross stitching. Her check up quiz was a written
test on the steps of Cross stitching. Which characteristic of a good test does it lack?
a. Scorability c. Objectivity
b. Reliability d. Validity
51. If your Licensure Examination (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the syllabi, it
can be saia that the LET possesses validity.
a. Concurrent c. Construct
b. Predictive d. Content
52. What type of validity is needed if a test must cover course objectives and scope?
a. Content c. Construct
b. Criterion d. Concurrent
53. Which characteristic of a good test will pupils be assured of when a teacher conducts a table of
specifications tor test construction purposes?
a. Construct validity c. Reliability
b. Content validity d. Scorability
54. Mr. Lopez constructed a table of specifications for the Achievement Test of his students. What does
he want to establish?
a. reliability c. content validity
b. scorability d. construct validity
55. Concurrent validity requires
a. item analysis b. item difficulty c. correlation study d. peer consultation
56. If all the passers of 2006 Licensure Examinations for Teachers will turn out to be the most effective in
the Philippine school system, it can be said that this LET possesses _____ validity
a. Content c. Predictive
b. construct d. Concurrent
57. When a significantly greater number from t he lower group gets a test item correctly, this implies that
the test item
a. is highly reliable b. is not very valid c. is not highly reliable d very valid
58. A test is considered reliable if

a. It is easy to score
b. It Is easy to administer
c. It is consistent and stable
d. it served the purpose for which it is constructed

59. Which characteristic of a good test is threatened when significantly greater number from the lower
group gets a test item correctly?
a. Reliability b. Scorability c. Objectivity d. Administrability
60. Danny tokes on IQ test thrice and each time, he earns a similar score. The test is said to possess
a. Validity b. reliability c. Objectivity d. Storability
61. Below is a list of method used to establish the reliability of the instrument. Which method is
questioned for its reliability due to practice of familiarity?
a. Split half b. Test-retest c. Equivalent form d. Kuder Richardson
62. Which error do teachers commit when they tend to overrate the achievement of students identified by
aptitude test as gifted because they expect achievement and giftedness to go together?
a. Central tendency error b. Generosity error c. Severity error d. Logical error
63. Writing an original essay is an example of which level of objective in the cognitive domain?
a. Analysis b. Synthesis c. Evaluation d. Application
64. A test has an instruction "Group the following items according to their habitat". What thinking skill is
this testing?
a. Inferring b. Classifying c. Standardized Test d. Aptitude Test

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

65. A test in English contained a validity index of 0.59 and a reliability index of 0.65. Which of the
following statements is TRUE about the text?
A. The test is valid but not reliable C. The test is not valid but reliable
B. The test is valid and reliable D. The test is not valid and not reliable
66. Test construction, what does TOS mean?
a. Table of Specifications b. Table of Specific Items c. Terms of Specification d. Table of
Specifics
67. Which is the first step in planning an achievement test?

a. Define the instructional objective.

b. Select the type of test items to use
c. Decide on the type of the test.
d. Build a table of specifications.

68. The first thing to do in constructing a periodic test is for a teacher to

a. decide on the number of items for the test

b.go back to her instructional objectives
c. decide on the type of test to construct
d. Study the content
69. In constructing achievement tests. the first step is to ____________
a. assess the teaching capability of teachers
b. determine the characteristics of the test takers.
c. determine the content and skills covered by test.
d. determine the highest rating to be given to students.
70. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely B, C, and D no pupil chose D as an answer,
This implies that D is
a. A vague distracter b. A plausible distracter c. an effective distracter d. ineffective
distracter
71. Which multiple choice type test has options that are based on a graphical presentation of
data or on paragraph or picture?
a. Structured response test b. Setting and option c. Contained-options test d. Stem-and-options
test
72. When a significantly greater number from the lower group gets a test item correctly, this implies that
the test item
a. is highly reliable b. is not very valid c. is not highly reliable d. very valid
73. Read this test item then answer the question: PHYSICIAN IS TO HUMAN BEINGS AS
VEERENARIAN IS TO _
QUESTION: The above test item is an example of
a. stimulus b. analogy c. Exercise d. Puzzle
74. Teacher gives this item to his class for assessment: CORE IS TO EARTH AS NUCLEUS IS TO
ATOM. THEN SHE ASKS THE STUDENTS TO EXPLAIN HOW THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN CORE
AND EARTH IS SIMILAR TO THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN ODOMETER AND DISTANCE. What
classroom assessment technique is this called?
a. Webbing b. Analogy c. Metaphor d. Simile
75. STUDY THIS MATCHING TYPE TEST THEN ANSWER THE QUESTION
Column A Column B
___ 1. Equilateral A. With 3 equal sides
___2. Right B. With 5 equal sides
___3. Octagon C. Has a 90-.degree angle
___4. Pentagon D. Means many
___5. Heptagon E. will
___6. Poly F. With 8 slides
QUESTION: WHICH DEFECT DOES THE MATCHING TEST ABOVE HAVE?

a. An obvious pattern is followed the answering

b. It is an imperfect type of matching type
c. The items are NOT homogeneous
d. The items are quite easy

76. Which is a characteristic of an Imperfect type of matching test?

a. The test items in the light and left columns are unequal in number
b. An item may have no answer at all
c. There are two or mare distracters
d. An answer may be repeated
QUESTION: WHICH DEFECT DOES THE MATCHING TEST ABOVE HAVE?

a. An obvious pattern is followed the answering

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

b. It is an imperfect type of matching type

c. The items are NOT homogeneous
d. The items are quite easy

77. Test Norms are established in order to have a basis for

a. Planning effective instructional devices

b. Establishing learning objectives
c. Identifying pupil’s difficulties
d. Comparing test scores

78. Ms. Reynes constructed a matching type test. In her columns of items, she combined events, people,
and places. Which of the following guidelines in constructing a matching type of test did she VIOLATE?

a. Options should be alphabetically arranged.

b . Options should be homogeneous.
c. Options should be heterogeneous.
d .Options should include distracters.

79. Which is a characteristic of an Imperfect type of matching test?

a. The test items in the light and left columns are unequal in number
b. An item may have no answer at all
c. There are two or mare distracters
d. An answer may be repeated

80. Here is a sample of TRUE-False test item: ALL WOMEN HAVE A LONGER LIFE SPAN THAN MEN.
What is wrong with the test item?

a. A specific determiner gives clue to the answer.

b. The test is quoted verbatim from a textbook.
c. The test item contains trivial detail.
d. The test item is vague.

81. What is wrong with this true - false test item: "Mayon Volcano is the most beautiful volcano in the
whole world"?

a. A specific determiner is used.

b. It highlights trivial information.
c. The test item is a textbook jargon
d. It is not definitely true nor definitely false

82. What improvement should be done in this completion test, item: An example of dicot is

a. The blank should be short only.

b. The item should give more clues.
c. There should only be one correct answer
d. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentence
83 What is wrong with the completion test item: "is an example of an amphibian.”?

a. It is very elementary.
b. It is a very short item.
c It is an insignificant test item.
d. It has a blank at the beginning of the sentence.

84. Which guideline In test construction is NOT observed in this item: Jose Rizal wrote _________ .

a. The central problem should be packed in the stem.

b. Alternatives must have grammatical parallelism.
c. There must be only one correct answer
d. The alternative must be plausible

85. Here's a test Item: "Jose Rizal was born in Calamba, Laguna on June ____, 1861." What is WRONG
with the item?

a. The blank is very short.

b. The blank is near the end.
c. It concerns itself with trivia.
d. It is open to more than one correct answer

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

86. Which Is Included in item analysis?

a. Determining the percentage equivalent to the cut score.

b. Determining the effectiveness of distracters.
c. Determining the cut off score
d. Identifying the highest score

87. What does a facility index of a test item 0.50 mean?

a. easy item c. very difficult item
b. very easy item d. item with moderate difficulty
88. A test item has a difficulty index of 0.85 and a discrimination index of 0.54. What should the teacher
do with this test item?
a. Reject the item b. Retain the item c. make it a bonus item d. exclude the
item
89. A test item has a difficulty index of .81 and discrimination index of .13. What should the test
constructor do?
a. Make it a bonus item c. Revise the item
b. Retain the item d. exclude the term
90. The index of difficulty of a particular test item is .10. What does this mean? My students_______

a. were hard up in that item

b. gained mastery over than item
c. performed very well against expectation
d. found that test was either easy nor difficult

91. In which competency did my students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of
a. 0.1 b. 1.0 c. 0.9 d. 0.5
92. A test with discrimination index of 0.10 is ______
a. neither good or bad b. reasonably good c. very good d. poor
93. A positive discrimination index means that
a. The test item could not discriminate between the lower and upper groups. b. More from the upper
group got the item correctly
c. More from the lower group got the item correctly
d. The test item has low reliability
94. What does a negative discrimination index mean?
a. There are more from the upper group that got the item right.
b. There are more from the lower group who got the item right.
c. The test item is quite difficult.
d. The test item is quite easy.
95. A negative discrimination index means that
a. less from the lower group got the test item correctly
b. more from the lower group answered the test item correctly
c. more from the upper group answered the test item correctly
d. the test item could not discriminate between the lower and the upper group
96. In her conduct of item analysis. Teacher Cristy found out that a significantly greater number from the
upper group of the class got lost item #5 correctly. This means that the test Item

a. Is easy
b. Is valid
c. Has negative discriminating power
d. Has positive discriminating power

97. In her item analysis, Teacher Gie found out that more from the upper group got test item #6 correctly.
What conclusion can be drawn. The test item has a _______
a. High facility index b. High difficulty index c. Positive discrimination index d. Negative
discrimination index
98. A new test of reading vocabulary was administered to a random to a sample of 3,000 third grade
pupils and readministered two weeks later. The correlation of the scores from the two test administrations
was 27. From the information given the most defensible conclusion to be drawn is that the test is
__________.
A. insignificantly reliable C. insignificantly valid
B. valid but not reliable D. reliable and valid

99. Which of the following is NOT a factor in errors in measurement?

a. The test questions may get outdated.
b. The students may take the test for granted.
c. The practice effect may increase a student's score.
d. Administering the test twice may measure different attributes.

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

100. Which is a good practice that a teacher uses in correcting student's errors?
a. Encourage the students to read books and magazines to improve their spelling
b. Readily correcting the error upon utterance to distract the students flow of thought.
c . Ignore the mistakes; anyway she will commit the same error in the future.
d. Noting students' error and dealing with them after the class activities.

101 – 105. Read and analyze the Rubric below and answer the questions that follow:

Rubric for Rating a Book Review

4 – Outstanding 3 – Good 2 – Fair 1 – Poor

Criteria 4 3 2 1
Review was
Review was Review was Review was
Content based on
based on laws based on based on
(10%) comparative
and theories personal feelings hearsays
analysis
Completeness All parts were 2 parts are 3 or more parts
1 part is lacking
(20%) present lacking are lacking
Several parts
All parts were Few parts were Many parts were
Organization were not
properly not properly not properly
(15%) properly
sequenced sequenced sequenced
sequenced
1-2 sentences 3-4 sentences 5 or more
All sentences are
Grammar are are sentences are
grammatically
(15%) grammatically grammatically grammatically
correct
incorrect incorrect incorrect
Bibliography 7 or more
5-6 references 3-4 references 1-2 references
(10%) references
Date of Submitted on or Submitted 1 day Submitted 2
Submitted 3 days
Submission before the after the days after the
after the deadline
(30%) deadline deadline deadline

101. The Rubric above is an example of:

A.) Analytic Rubric
B.) Brief Rubric
C.) Detailed Rubric
D.) Holistic Rubric

102. How many criterions do this rubric contains?

A.) 2
B.) 4
C.) 6
D.) 8

103. Is there any part that violates the general rule in formulating a rubric?
A.) No. All parts were written properly and appropriate descriptions matched the desired
criterion.
B.) No. The rating range is statistically suited the specific criterion.
C.) Yes. Date of Submission is not essential and must be removed.
D.) Yes. Some parts of the description of the criterion cannot be measured.

104. Is there any changes to be done to improve this rubric?

A.) No. The rubric was excellently written and well organized.
B.) No. All aspects in rating a book review are covered by specific criterion.
C.) Yes. A larger percentage must be given to the Content.
D.) Yes. Numbers like 1, 2, 3, and 4 must be replaced by descriptions only to rate the
specific criterion fairly.

105. What kind of assessment is being measured by a rubric?

A.) Criterion-referenced assessment
B.) Norm-referenced assessment

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

C.) Performance-based assessment

D.) Traditional assessment

106. What do you mean by the abbreviation TOS?

A.) Table of Specifications
B.) Table of Specifics
C.) Terms of Specifications
D.) Terms of Specifics
107. Teacher Roy wanted to teach his students the skill of baking cake. His check-up test was
an objective test on the steps in baking cake. What characteristic of a good test construction
does it lack?
A.) Content validity
B.) External validity
C.) Face validity
D.) Predictive validity

108. After a 50-item Periodic Test, Gerald received the following scores in various subjects:
Social Studies - 40
Filipino - 38
Mathematics - 42
English - 24
Science - 31

Based on the aforementioned scores, which of the following statements is true?

A.) English is easier than Filipino.
B.) Gerald seems to excel in Social Studies.
C.) Mathematics appears to be the easiest.
D.) Science is the most difficult subject for Gerald.

109. Which of the following group of scores is least varied?

A.) 0.05 SD
B.) 0.10 SD
C.) 0.65 SD
D.) 0.80 SD

110. A test taker whose score is within x – SD belongs to which group?

A.) Above Average
B.) Average
C.) Below Average
D.) Superior

111. In a bimodal score distribution, which of the following descriptions is true?

A.) The scores are high
B.) The scores are low
C.) There is no repetition of scores
D.) There are two different group tested

112. Item no.2 in a Summative Test has a difficulty index of 1. It can be inferred that:
A.) Item no.2 is properly constructed
B.) Nobody got item no.2 correctly
C.) The test item is very difficult
D.) The test item is very easy

113. In a score distribution, the range is very high. This implies that:
A.) Everybody got a high score in the test.
B.) Many students scored poorly in the test.
C.) The difference between the highest and the lowest score is high.
D.) The difference between the highest and the lowest score is low.

114. A positive discrimination index connotes that:

A.) All the students answers the test correctly.
B.) More students from the lower group answers the test correctly.

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 TEST ITEMS IN ASSESSMENT AND EVALUATION OF LEARNING (310 items)

C.) More students from the upper group answers the test correctly.
D.) No students commit a mistake in taking the test.

115. In a qualifying examination for Mathematics majorship, Alfred got a Percentile Rank of 25.
What could possibly happen to Alfred?
A.) Alfred will be admitted to Mathematics majorship
B.) Alfred will have a 50-50 chance to be admitted for Mathematics majorship
C.) Alfred will have 75 percent chance to be admitted for Mathematics majorship
D.) Alfred will not be admitted for Mathematics majorship

116 – 119. Mr. Pangilinan gave a mid-term examination to his Laboratory students.
The following scores were obtained:
51, 52, 40, 56, 58, 56, 69, 68, 64, 68, 60, 49, 49, 68, 62
116. In the measurement of central tendencies, the score 58 represents:
A.) Mean
B.) Median
C.) Mean and Median
D.) Mode

117. In the given scores, what kind of mode can be seen?

A.) No mode
B.) Unimodal
C.) Bimodal
D.) Trimodal

118. What is the mode?

A.) 49
B.) 56
C.) 49 and 56
D.) 68

119. What is the mean?

A.) 54.2
B.) 56
C.) 58
D.) 61.4

120. How many percent of the cases fall between -3 and +3 SD units from the mean?
A.) 68%
B.) 84%
C.) 95%
D.) 99%

121. Mean is to Central Tendency as Standard Deviation is to:

A.) Reliability
B.) Scorability
C.) Validity
D.) Variability

122. What is the very first step that I should take in constructing an achievement test?
A.) Choose the number of items.
B.) Decide on the type of test to construct.
C.) Formulate a TOS.
D.) Look into the instructional objectives.

123. What is faulty in this test item:

Cory Aquino is ____________________.

A.) Born in Tarlac
B.) The first female President of the Philippines
C.) The mother of Philippine democracy
D.) The wife of former Senator Ninoy Aquino

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A.) Item has no distracter.

B.) It has several correct answers.
C.) Options are not logically arranged.
D.) The stem is very short.

124 – 126. Read and analyze the kind of Test given below:

Direction. Match Column A with Column B.

Column A Column B
1. Angkor Wat A.) The summer capital of the Philippines
2. Riyadh B.) National hero of the Philippines
3. May 1 C.) Capital City of Saudi Arabia
4. Jose P. Rizal D.) The day we celebrate Labor Day
5. Baguio City E.) A tourist spot in Cambodia

124. What kind of test is the example above?

A.)Analogy Test
B.) Matching Type Test
C.) Multiple Choice Test
D.) Supply Test

125. What rule is/are violated in the above test item?

I - Avoid trivial and broad statements
II - Include unequal number of responses and premises
III - Present direction clearly
IV - Shorter responses must be placed on the right
V - Use homogenous matter

A.) I, II, III, V

B.) I, III, IV, V
C.) II, III, IV, V
D.) I, II, III, IV, V

126. How can you improve the above test item?

A.) Add two more responses
B.) Avoid inclusion of multiple facts
C.) Rephrase the premises and responses
D.) Revised the alternatives to be grammatically consistent

127. What can be inferred with a negatively skewed score distribution?

A.) Mean, median, and mode are equal
B.) Most of the scores are high
C.) Most of the scores are low
D.) Score distribution is in the average

128. Which of the following measures does not belong to the group?
A.) Mode
B.) Range
C.) Quartile Deviation
D.) Variance

129. What is the most reliable measure of central tendency to be utilized in the following raw
score in a Unit test: 3, 8, 23, 69, 72, 78, 81, 85, 86, 88, 91, 96, 98, 99
A.) Mean
B.) Median
C.) Mean and Median
D.) Mode

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130. Study the following group of test which was employed with the following results, then
answer the question:

Subject Mean SD Mary’s Score

Physical Education 21 18 23
Music 81 16 75
Mathematics 35 10 52
English 70 26 72

On the basis of Mary’s scores, what type of learner is Mary?

A.) Bodily-kinesthetic type
B.) Linguistic type
C.) Logical type
D.) Musical type

131. Here is a test item.

From the data presented in the table, form generalizations that are supported by the data.
Under what type of question does this item fall?
A. Convergent
B. Evaluative
C. Application
D. Divergent

132. Here is a test item:

The improvement of basic education should be the top priority of the Philippine government. Defend or
refute this position.
Under what type of question does this item fall?
A. Low-level
B. Evaluative
C. Analysis
D. Convergent
133. Which of the following steps should be completed first in planning an achievement test?
A. Define the instructional objectives.
B. Set up a table of specifications.
C. Select the types of test items to use.
D. Decide on the length of the test.

134. The computed r for scores in Math and Science is 0.92. What does this mean?
A. Math scores is positively related to Science score.
B. The higher the Math score, the lower the Science score.
C. Math score is not in anyway related to Science score.
D. Science score is slightly related to Math score.

135. Which type of tests is most appropriate if Teacher Y wants to measure student’s ability to organize
thoughts and ideas?
A. Short answer type of test
B. Extended response essay
C. Modified alternative response
D. Limited response essay

136. With assessment of affective learning in mind, which does NOT belong to the group?
A. Cloze test
B. Moral dilemma
C. Reflective writing
D. Diary entry
137. I want to test my students’ synthesizing skills. Which has the highest diagnostic value?
A. Multiple choice test
B. Performance test

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C. Essay test
D. Completion test

138.
__________ is an example of a leafy vegetable.

Why is this test item poor?

I. The test item does not pose a problem to the examinee.
II. There are varieties of possible correct answers to this item.
III. The language used in the question is not precise.
IV. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence.
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I and IV
D. I and II

139.
What follows is a multiple choice type of test.
Some test items __________.
A. are to difficult
B. are objective
C. are poorly constructed
D. have multiple defensible answers

What makes the multiple choice type of test poor?

A. The options are not grammatically connected to the stem.
B. The stem fails to present a problem.
C. There are grammatical clues.
D. The options are not parallel.

140. If a teacher wants to measure her students’ ability to discriminate, which of these is an appropriate
type of test item as implied by the direction?
A. “Outline the Chapter on The Cell.”
B. “Summarize the lesson yesterday.”
C. “Group the following items according to shape.”
D. “State a set of principles that can explain the following events.”

141. A test item has a difficulty index of .89 and a discrimination index of 0.44. what should the teacher do?
A. Reject the item.
B. Retain the item.
C. Make it a bonus item.
D. Make it a bonus item and reject it.

142. Which form of assessment is consistent with saying “The proof of the pudding is in the eating”?
A. Contrived
B. Authentic
C. Traditional
D. Indirect

143.
Who is best admired for outstanding contribution to world peace?
A. Kissinger
B. Clinton
C. Kennedy
D. Mother Teresa

What is wrong with this item?

A. Item is overly specific.
B. Content is trivial.
C. Test-item is opinion-based.
D. There is a cue to the right answer.

144. Students’ scores were as follows: 82, 82, 83, 84, 86, 88, 84, 83, 85. The score 86 is the _____?

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A. mode
B. average
C. median
D. mean

145. Which test form would you choose if you want to have a valid and reliable test based on the table
below?
Test Form Validity Index Reliability Index
A .47 .68
B .87 .57
C .20 .86
D .40 .41
E .63 .07

A. A only
B. B only
C. A and D
D. B and E

146. A mathematical test was given to all Grade V pupils to determine the contestants for the Math Quiz
Bee. Which statistical measure should be used to identify the top 15?
A. Mean Percentage Score
B. Quartile Deviation
C. Percentile Rank
D. Percentage Score

147. Nellie’s score is within X + 1 SD. To which of the following groups does she belong?
A. Below average
B. Average
C. Needs Improvement
D. Above average

148. Use the box below to answer the question that follows:
Percent Grades for Final Examination

40 70 80 90 100

Which of the following statement is TRUE about the plot of grades above?
A. The median is a score of 80 and the range is 60.
B. The median is a score of 70 and the range is 60.
C. The median is a score of 80 and the range is 20.
D. The median is a score of 70 and the range is 20.

149. What can be said of Arielle who obtained a score of 75 out of 100 items in a Grammar objective test?
A. She performed better than 25% of her classmates.
B. She answered 75 items in the test correctly.
C. Her rating is 75.
D. She answered 75% of the test items correctly.

150. The criterion of success in Teacher D’s objective is that “the pupils must be able to spell 90% of the
words correctly.” Anna and 24 others in the class spelled only 40 out of 50 words correctly while the
rest scored 45 and above. This means that Teacher D __________.
A. attained her lesson objective
B. did not attain her lesson objective because of the pupils’ lack of attention
C. failed to attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 pupils are concerned
D. attained her lesson objective because of her effective spelling drill

151. If the scores of your test follow a negatively skewed score distribution, what should you do? Find out
__________.

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A. why your items were easy

B. why most of the scores are high
C. why most of the scores are low
D. why some pupils scored high

152. Principal A is talking about “grading on the curve” in a faculty meeting. What does this expression refer
to?
A. A student mark compares his achievement to his effort.
B. A student’s grade or mark depends on how his achievement compares with the achievement
of other students in a class.
C. A student’s grade determines whether or not a student attains a defined standard of
achievement.
D. A student mark tells how closely he is achieving to his potential.

153. Which tests determine whether students accept responsibility for their own behavior or pass on
responsibility for their own behavior to other people?
A. Thematic tests
B. Sentence-completion tests
C. Stylistic tests
D. Locus-of-control tests

154. Which is one weakness of self-supporting personality checklists?

A. Many personality measures have built-in scales.
B. They lack stability.
C. They may not get true information because individuals can hide or disguise feelings.
D. They have poor internal consistency.

155. Which of these can measure awareness of values?

A. Sociogram
B. Moral dilemmas
C. Projective techniques
D. Rating scales

156. Marking on a normative basis means that __________.

A. the normal distribution curve should be followed
B. some should fail
C. some get high marks
D. the grading is based on a preset criteria

157. Which process enhances the comparability of grades?

A. Using table of specifications
B. Determining the level of difficulty of the test
C. Giving more HOTS (higher order thinking skills)
D. Constructing departmentalized examinations for each subject area
SITUATIONAL

Situation 1 – In a faculty meeting, the principal told his teachers: “We need to improve our school
performance in the National Achievement Test. What should we do?

The teacher gave varied answers as follows:

1. Let’s give incentives and rewards to students who get a rating of 85%.
2. Let’s teach them to accept complete responsibility for their performance.
3. Let’s make the school environment conducive for learning.
4. Let’s make use of the experimental methods of teaching.

158. Which response/s come/s from a behaviourist?

A. #2 and #4
B. #1 and #2
C. #3 and #4
D. #1 and #3

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159. On which educational philosophy is response #1 anchored?

A. Existentialism
B. Essentialism
C. Progressivism
D. Behaviorism

160. If you lean toward a progressivist philosophy, with which response would you agree?
A. #2
B. #3
C. #4
D. #1

Situation 2 – One principle in the utilization of technology for the classroom is appropriateness of
material or activity.

161. Teacher C wants his students to master the concept of social justice. Which series of activities will be
most effective?
A. Pre-test – teaching – post-test
B. Pre-test – teaching – post-test – re-teaching for unlearned concepts – post-test
C. Review – pre-test – teaching – post-test
D. Teaching – post-test

162. Teacher A likes to show how the launching of spaceships takes place. Which of the following materials
available is most fit?
A. Model
B. Mock-up
C. Replica
D. Realia

163. Teacher B likes to concretize the abstract concept of an atom. She came up with a concrete
presentation of the atom by using wires and plastic balls. How would you classify Teacher B’s visual
aid?
A. Chart
B. Replica
C. Model
D. Realia

Situation 3 – After reading and paraphrasing Robert Frost’s “Stopping by the Woods on a Snowy
Evening,” Mr. Sales asked the class to share any insight derived from the poem.

164. The class was asked to share their insights about the poem. The ability to come up with an insight
stems from the ability to __________.
A. analyze the parts of a whole
B. evaluate the worthiness of a thing
C. relate and organize things and ideas
D. comprehend the subject that is being studied

Situation 4 – Mr. Santos gave a Periodic Test to his freshman students. The following
scores were obtained:
51, 52, 40, 56, 58, 56, 69, 68, 64, 68, 60, 49, 49, 68, 62
165. In the measurement of central tendencies, the score 58 represents:
A. Mean and Median
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Mean

166. What is the mean?

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A. 61.4
B. 54.2
C. 56
D. 58

167. In the given scores, what kind of mode can be seen?

A. Bimodal
B. No mode
C. Trimodal
D. Unimodal

168. What is the mode?

A. 68
B. 49
C. 56
D. 49 and 56

169. Mean is to Central Tendency as Standard Deviation is to:

A. Validity
B. Variability
C. Reliability
D. Scorability

Situation 5 – Study the matching type of test then answer the 3 questions that follow:

Column A Column B
_____ 1. equilateral triangle A. With 3 equal sides
_____ 2. right triangle B. With 5 equal side
_____ 3. octagon C. Has a 90-degree angle
_____ 4. pentagon D. Means many
_____ 5. heptagon E. With 7 sides
_____ 6. poly F. With 8 sides

170. How can you make this item homogenous?

A. Increase the number of items in Column B.
B. All the items should be on polygon.
C. Remove the word triangle in items #1 and #2 in Column A.
D. The word “gon” must be included in Column B.

171. What is the main defect of this matching test?

A. The matching type is an imperfect type.
B. The items are NOT homogenous.
C. The items are quite easy.
D. An obvious pattern is followed in the answering.

172. Which should be done to improve the matching type of test?

A. Capitalize the items in Column A.
B. Items in Column A and B should be exchanged.
C. Drop #6 item in Column A.
D. The items in Column A should be increased.

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Situation 6 – Below is template for Scoring Rubric.

5 – Demonstrate complete understanding of the problem. All requirements of task

are included in response.
4 – Demonstrate considerable understanding of the problem. All requirements of
tasks are included.
3 – Demonstrate partial understanding of the problem. Most requirements of task
are included.
2 – Demonstrate little understanding of the problem. Many requirements of task
are missing.
1 – Demonstrate no understanding of the problem.
0 – No response / task not attempted.

173. Which of these is/are essential in constructing a scoring rubric?

I. Description of criteria to serve as standard
II. Clear descriptions of performance of each level
III. Levels of achievement (mastery)
IV. Rating scheme
A. I, II, III
B. I, II
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I only

174. Which statement is TRUE of the rubric?

A. It is developmental.
B. It is analytical.
C. It is both holistic and developmental.
D. It is holistic.

175. Which is TRUE of the scoring rubric?

I. It describes criteria of levels of achievement.
II. It has a rating scheme.
III. It limits itself to 4 levels of achievement.
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

Situation 7 – Study the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of
distracters based on the results of try-out test in Science. The letter marked with an
asterisk is the correct answer.

Item No.1 A B* C D E
Upper 27% 10 4 1 1 0
Lower 27% 6 5 2 2 0

176. The table shows that the test item analyzed __________.
A. has a positive discrimination index
B. has a negative discrimination index
C. is extremely easy
D. is extremely difficult

177. Based on the table, which is the most effective distracter?

A. Option D
B. Option A
C. Option C
D. Option B

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178. Based on the table, which group got more correct answer?
A. Upper group
B. It cannot be determined
C. Lower group
D. Data are not sufficient to give an answer

179. Which of the following steps should be completed first in planning an achievement tests?
a. Set up a table of specifications
b. Define the instructional objective
c. Select the types of test items to use
d. Decide on the length of the test

180. Which is the first step in planning an achievement test?

a. Determine the group for whom the test is intended
b. Go back to the instruction objective
c. Select the type of test item to use
d. Make a table of specification

181. In the context of multiple intelligences, which is one weakness of the paper-pencil test?
a. It puts non-linguistically intelligent pupils at a disadvantage
b. It requires paper and printing and is so expensive
c. It utilizes so much time
d. It lacks reliability

182. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely X, Y, and Z no pupil chose Z as an answer.
This implies that Z is______?
a. An effective distracter
b. A Plausible distracter
c. A vague distracter
d. An ineffective distracter

183. The Thematic Appreciation Test is an example of a (an)_____.

a. Self-report technique
b. Projective technique
c. Interest inventory
d. Socio-metric technique

184. For mastery learning and in line with the Outcome-Based Evaluation model is essentially good. This
view can help the teacher best when ______.
a. Construction and criterion-reference tests.
b. Non-provision of independent learning
c. Construction of norm-reference tests.
d. Inclusion of non-performance objectives

185. Writing an original essay is an example of which level of objective in the cognitive domain?
a. Evaluation
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis
d. Application

186. Which terms refers to the collection of student’s products and accomplishments for a period for
evaluation purposes?
a. Anecdotal record
b. Observation report
c. Diary
d. Porfolio

187. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?

a. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge
b. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score

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c. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score

d. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment

188. About what percent of the cases falls between +2 and -2 in a normal curve?
a. 99.8%
b. 95.4%
c. 43.1%
d. 68.2%

189. The criterion of success in Teacher’s objective is that “the pupils must be able to spell 90% of the
words correctly “. Luz and others in the class spelled only 40 out of 50 words correctly while the rest
scored 45 and above. This means that teacher______?
a. Did not attain her lesson objective because of the pupil’s lack of attention
b. Attained her lesson objective because of her effective spelling drill
c. Attained her lesson objective
d. Failed to attain her lesson objective as far as the 25 pupils are concerned

190. Principal is talking about “grading on the curve” in a faculty meeting. What does this expression refer
to?
a. A student’s grade determined whether or not a student attains a defined standard of achievement
b. A student mark compares his achievement to his effort
c. A student mark tells how closely he is achieving to his potential
d. A student grade or mark depends on how his achievement compares to other

191. Which statement on IQ and EQ is correct?

a. IQ has a greater contribution to performance that EQ
b. Blending of both IQ and EQ can make a difference in performance
c. EQ has a greater contribution to performance than IQ
d. The contribution of IQ and EQ to performance is dependent on factors like age and gender

192. When a significantly greater number from the lower group gets a test item correctly, this implies that
the test item:
a. Is not very valid
b. Is very valid
c. Is not highly reliable
d. Is highly reliable

193. Teacher adds the number of cases and 1 over 2 to obtain:

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Median and mode

194. Teacher C wants his students to master the concept of social justice. Which series of activities will
be most effective?
a. Teaching – posttest
b. Pretest – teaching – posttest
c. Review – pretest – teaching – posttest
d. Pretest – teaching – posttest – re-teaching for unlearned concept – posttest

195. Which of these can measure awareness of values?

a. Projective techniques
b. Rating scales
c. Moral dilemmas
d. Sociogram

196. Which test determine whether students accept responsibility for their own behavior or pass on
responsibility for their own behavior to other people?
a. Lotus of control tests
b. Sentence completion tests

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c. Thematic tests
d. Stylistic tests

197. Which process enhances the comparability of grades?

a. Giving more HOTS (higher order thinking skills)
b. Determining the level of difficulty of the test
c. Using a table of specifications
d. Constructing departmentalized exam for ea. Subject area

198. Which skills should be taught if teacher wants to equip his students with the skills to organize
information gathered?
a. Note-taking, outlining, using the library
b. Outlining, summarizing, using the card catalogue
c. Note-taking, outlining, summarizing
d. Summarizing, note-taking using the library

199. All the examinees obtain scores below the mean. A graphic representation of the score distribution
will be:
a. Perfect normal curve
b. Negatively skewed
c. Positively skewed
d. Leptokurtic

200. In a normal distribution curve a T-score of 70 is:

a. Two SDs below the mean
b. Two SDs above the mean
c. One SDs below the mean
d. One SDs above the mean

201. The following are trends in making and reporting system, EXCEPT.
a. Supplementing subjects grades will checklist on traits
b. Conducting parent-teacher conferences as often as needed
c. Raising the passing grade from 70 to 80
d. Indicating strong points as well as those needing improvement

202. Which is a type of graph in which lines represent each score or set of scores?
a. Histogram
b. Scattergram
c. Scatterplot
d. Frequency polygon

203. The grades made valid indicators of student achievements which process should be observed?
a. Explaining the meaning of marks and grades
b. Defining the course objectives as intended learning outcomes
c. Adopting letter grades such as A,B,C, and D
d. Giving objective type of tests

204. When you use the overhead-projector for topic presentation, point to the______?
a. OHP slide
b. OHP light
c. OHP screen
d. Projection wall

205. Where do you make the correction of your notes while using the overhead projector?
a. On the overhead projector
b. On the projector wall
c. On the screen
d. On the slide

206. For a discussion of a topic from various perspectives, it is BEST to hold______.

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a. Brainstorming
b. Symposium
c. Debate
d. Panel Discussion

207. Which is a major advantage of a curriculum- based assessment?

a. It tends to focus on anecdotal information on student progress
b. It is based on a norm-referenced measurement model.
c. It is informal in nature
d. It connects testing with teaching

208. Which assumption underlies the teacher's use of performance objectives?

A. Not every form of learning is observable.
B. Performance objectives assure the blearier of learning.
C. Learning is defined as a change in the learner's observable performance.
D. The success of learner is based on teacher performance.

209. The principle of individual differences requires teachers to __________.

A. gives greater attention to gifted learners
B. provide for a variety of learning activities
C. treats all learners alike while in the classroom
D. prepare modules for slow learners in class

210. Which are direct measures of competence?

A. Personality tests B. Performance tests
C. Paper-and-pencil tests D. Standardized test

211. The test item "Group the following items according to shape" is a thought test item on __________.
A. creating B. classifying
C. generalizing D. comparing

212. In the context on the theory on multiple intelligences, what is one weakness of the paper-pencil
test?
A. It is not easy to administer.
B. It puts the non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage
C. It utilizes so much time.
D. It lacks reability.

213. With synthesizing skills in mind, which has the highest diagnostic value?
A. Essay test B. Performance test
C. Completion test D. Multiple choice test

214. Which one can best evaluate students' attitudinal development?

A. Essay test B. Portfolio
C. Observation D. Short answer test

215. With specific details in mind, which one has (have) a stronger diagnostic value?
A. Multiple choice test B. Non-restricted essay test
C. Restricted essay test D. Restricted and non-restricted essay tests

216. Teacher A discovered that his pupils are very good in dramatizing. Which tool must have helped him
discover his pupils' strength?
A. Portfolio assessmentB. Performance test
C. Journal entry D. Paper-and-pencil test

217. Which can effectively measure students' awareness of values?

A. Projective techniques B. Moral dilemma
C. Likert scales D. Anecdotal record

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218. Teacher F wanted to teach the pupils the skill to do cross stitching. Her check up quiz was a written
test on the steps of cross stitching. Which characteristic of a good test does it lack?
A. Scorability B. Reliability
C. Objectivity D. Validity

219. If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the
syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses __________ validity.
A. concurrent B. Construct
C. content D. Predictive

220. "In the light of the facts presented, what is most likely to happen when ... ?" is a sample thought
question on
A. inferring B. Generalizing
C. synthesizing D. Justifying

221. In a criterion-referenced testing, what must you do to ensure that your test is fair?
A. Make all of the questions true or false.
B. Ask each student to contribute one question.
C. Make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choice.
D. Use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction.

222. Which test has broad sampling of topics as strength?

A. Objective test B. Short answer test
C. Essay test D. Problem type

223. Which is the first step in planning an achievement test?

A. Define the instructional objective.
B. Decide on the length of the test.
C. Select the type of test items to use.
D. Build a table of specification.

224. The first thing to do in constructing a periodic test is for a teacher to __________
A. decide on the number of items for the test
B. goes back to her instructional objectives
C. study the content
D. decide on the type of test to construct

225. In the parlance of test construction what does "TOS" mean?

A. Table of Specifics
B. Table of Specifications
C. Table of Specific Test Items
D. Team of Specifications

226. Shown a picture of children in sweaters inside the classroom, the students were asked this
question: "In what kind of climate do these children live?" This is a thought question on __________
A. inferring B. Applying
C. creating D. Predicting

227. Which guideline in test construction is NOT observed in this test item Jose Rizal wrote __________.
A. The central problem should be packed in the stem.
B. There must be only one correct answer.
C. Alternatives must have grammatical parallelism.
D. The alternates must be plausible.

228. Quiz is to formative test while periodic is to __________

A. criterion-reference test B. Summative test
C. norm-reference test D. Diagnostic test

229. If teacher wants to test students' ability to organize ideas, which type of test should she formulate?
A. Multiple-choice type B. Short answer

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C. Essay D. Technical problem

230. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely B, C, and D, no pupil chose D as answer.
This implies that D is __________
A. an ineffective distracter B. A vague distracter
C. an effective distracterD. A plausible distracter

231. Study this group of tests which was administered with the following results, then answer the
question

Subject Mean SD Ronnels's Score

Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Ronnel perform best in relation to the group's performance?
A. Physics and Math B. English
C. Physics D. Math

232. Study this group of tests which was administered with the following results, and then answer the
question.

Subject Mean SO Ronnel's Score

Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Ronnel perform most poorly in relation to the group's performance?
A. English B. English and Math
C. Math D. Physics

233. What can be said of Peter who obtained a score of 75 in a Grammar objective test?
A. He answered 75 items in the test correctly.
B. He answered 75% of the test items correctly.
C. His rating is 75.
D. He performed better than 5% of his classmates.

234. In his second item analysis, Teacher H found out that more from the lower group got the test item #
6 correctly. This means that the test item ______.
A. has a negative discriminating power
B. has a lower validity
C. has a positive discriminating power
D. has a high reability

235. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and
NEAT fall under __________.
A. intelligence test B. Aptitude test
C. criterion-referenced test
D. norm-referenced test

236. Teacher Y does norm-referenced interpretation of scores. Which of the following does she do?
A. She describes group performance in relation to a level of mastery set.
B. She uses a specified content as its frame of reference.
C. She compares every individual student’s scores with others' scores.
D. She describes what should be their performance.

237. Test norms are established in order to have a basis for __________.
A. establishing learning goals
B. interpreting test results

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C. computing grades
D. identifying pupils' difficulties

238. Which is most implied by a negatively skewed score distribution?

A. The scores are evenly distributed from left to the right
B. Most pupils are achievers
C. Most of the scores are low
D. Most of the scores are high

239. Which holds true to standardized tests?

A. They are used for comparative purposes
B. They are administered differently
C. They are scored according to different standards
D. They are used for assigning grades

240. Students' scores on a test were: 72, 72, 73, 74, 76, 78, 81, 83, and 85. The score 76 is the ______.

A. mode B. average C. mean D. median

241. Are percentile ranks the same as percentage correct?

A. It cannot be determined unless scores are given.
B. It cannot be determined unless the number of examinees is given.
C. No D. Yes

242. In which competency do my students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of
_________
A. 0.1 B. 0.9 C. 0.5 D. 1.0

243. Study this group tests which was administered wit the following results, then answer the question

Subject Mean SD Runnel’s Score

Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) were the scores most homogenous?

A. Math B. English
C. Physics D. Physics and Math

244. Which measure(s) of central tendency separate(s) the top half of the group from the ¬bottom half?
A. Median B. Mean
C. Median and Mean D. Mode

245. Which applies when skewness is zero?

A. Mean is greater than the median
B. Median is greater than mean
C. Scores have three modes
D. Scores are normally distributed

246. Standard deviation is to variability as mode to __________.

A. level of difficulty
B. discrimination
C. correlation
D. central tendency

247. What is the mean of this score distribution: 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10?

A. 7 B. 6 C. 8.5 D. 7.5

248. Standard deviation is to variability as mean is to __________.

A. coefficient of correlation

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B. central tendency
C. discrimination index
D. level of difficulty

249. What measure of central tendency does the number 16 represent in the following data: 14, 15, 17,
16, 19, 20, 16, 14, and 16?
A. Mode B. Median
C. Mode and median D. Mean

250. Which one can enhance the comparability of grades?

A. Using common conversion table for translating test scores in to ratings
B. Formulating tests that vary from one teacher to another
C. Allowing individual teachers to determine factors for rating
D. Individual teachers giving weights to factors considered for rating

251. Which describes norm-referenced grading?

A. The performance of the group
B. What constitutes a perfect score?
C. The students' past performance
D. An absolute standard

252. The search for related literature by accessing several databases by the use of a telephone line to
connect a computer library with other computers that have database is termed __________.
A. compact disc search
B. manual search
C. on-line search
D. computer search

253. Two students are given the WISE II. One has a full scale IQ of 91, while the other has an IQ of 109.
Which conclusion can be drawn?
A. The second student has significantly higher intellectual ability
B. The first student is probably below average, while the second has above average potential
C. Both students are functioning in the average range of intellectual ability
D. Another IQ test should be given to truly assess their intellectual potential

254. Which type of report refers to "on-the-spot" description of some incident, episode
or occurrence that is being observed and recorded as being of possible significance?
A. Autobiographical report
B. Biographical report
C. Value and interest report
D. Anecdotal report

255. Teacher A discovered that his pupils are very good in dramatizing. Which tool must have helped him
discover his pupils' strength?

A. Portfolio assessment
B. Performance test
C. Journal entry
D. Paper-and-pencil test

256. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT
fall under __________.

A. intelligence test
B. aptitude test
C. criterion-referenced test
D. norm-referenced test

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257. In his second item analysis, Teacher H found out that more from the lower group got the test item #
6 correctly. This means that the test item __________.

A. has a negative discriminating power

B. has a lower validity
C. has a positive discriminating power
D. has a high reability

258. Study this group of tests which was administered with the following results, then answer the
question.

Subject Mean SD Ronnels's Score

Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Ronnel perform most poorly in relation to the group's performance?

A. English
B. English and Math
C. Math
D. Physics

259. Teacher G's lesson objective has something to do with the skill of synthesizing? Which behavioral
term is most appropriate?

A. Test
B. Assess
C. Appraise
D. Theorize

260. Standard deviation is to variability as mean is to __________.

A. coefficient of correlation
B. central tendency
C. discrimination index
D. level of difficulty

261. Teacher Y does norm-referenced interpretation of scores. Which of the following does she do?

A. She describes group performance in relation to a level of mastery set.

B. She uses a specified content as its frame of reference.
C. She compares every individual students' scores with others' scores.
D. She describes what should be their performance.

262. What measure of central tendency does the number 16 represent in the following data: 14, 15, 17,
16, 19, 20, 16, 14, 16?

A. Mode
B. Median
C. Mode and median
D. Mean

263. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely B, C, and D, no pupil chose D as answer.
This implies that D is __________

A. an ineffective distracter
B. a vague distracter

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C. an effective distracter
D. a plausible distracter

264. Are percentile ranks the same as percentage correct?

A. It cannot be determined unless scores are given.

B. It cannot be determined unless the number of examinees is given.
C. No
D. Yes

265. Which one can enhance the comparability of grades?

A. Using common conversion table for translating test scores in to ratings

B. Formulating tests that vary from one teacher to another
C. Allowing individual teachers to determine factors for rating
D. Individual teachers giving weights to factors considered for rating

266. Which test has broad sampling of topics as strength?

A. Objective test
B. Short answer test
C. Essay test
D. Problem type

267. Which guideline in test construction is NOT observed in this test item: Jose Rizal wrote __________.

A. The central problem should be packed in the stem.

B. There must be only one correct answer.
C. Alternatives must have grammatical parallelism.
D. The alternates must be plausible.

268. Which applies when skewness is zero?

A. Mean is greater than the median
B. Median is greater than mean
C. Scores have three modes
D. Scores are normally distributed

269. Study this group of tests which was administered with the following results, then answer the
question.
Subject Mean SD Ronnels's Score
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) were the scores most homogenous?

A. Math
B. English
C. Physics
D. Physics and Math

270. What is the mean of this score distribution: 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10?

A. 7
B. 6
C. 8.5
D. 7.5

271. Which holds true to standardized tests?

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A. They are used for comparative purposes

B. They are administered differently
C. They are scored according to different standards
D. They are used for assigning grades

272. What rank should be assigned to 92 in the following distribution of grade point
averages of seven candidates for the Honor Roll?
97.5 90.5 93.5 92 95 91.5
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

273. Which of the items below will measures this objective. “The student would be
able to solve word problems using percent.”
A. Juan correctly answered 8 out of 12 questions on a test. What percent is this?
B. Is 0.02 = 20 percent TRUE or FALSE
C. Tricia ate ¾ of a pie. How much is left?
D. Maria received a 90 percent on her test.

274. An item has a discrimination index of 0.41 and a difficulty index of 35. What can
the teacher conclude about the item?
A. The item cannot discriminate between the poor and bright students.
B. The item is a very difficult one.
C. The item can highly discriminate between the poor and the bright students.
D. The item is a moderately difficult one.

275. Which of the different types of test cover a wide variety of objectives?
A. essay B. matching C. multiple choice D. true-false

276. Which of the following statement about the use of test is the best?
A. Grades should reward effort
B. Grades should be used as incentives
C. Grades should follow a strict curve
D. Grades should respect quality and quantity of performance.

277. In a multiple-choice test, keeping the options brief indicates _________.

A. plausibility and the attractiveness of the item
B. inclusion of items irrelevant clues such as the use in the correct answer of a word
found in the stem
C. inclusion in the item any word that must otherwise be repeated in each response.
D. non-inclusion of options that mean the same

278. The first step in constructing test is __________

A. outlining the subject matter content of the test C. defining the objective
B. preparing a table of specification D. writing the test items

279. The most difficult and significant stage in research work is ________.
A. subjects of the study C. problem identification
B. Statistical treatment D. research methods

280. To test if the student knows what a particular word mean which of the following is
best for her to ask the student to do?
A. Select the correct meaning C. Use it in a sentence
B. Define the word D. Identify its part of speech

281.
Performance in Mathematics Test
CLASS N MEAN STANDARD DEVIATION
A 40 57.30 8.92
B 35 57.08 10.17
C 40 58.12 11.85
D 39 58.25 10.28

Using the mean as basis for comparison, what can you say about the four classes in the above
table?
A. Class D showed the best performance
B. Classes B, C and D showed about the same performance

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C. Class D did better than Class C

D. Classes A and B have about the same performance

282. In psychology, what does “reciprocal modification” refer to?

A. forgetting B. physiological limit C. conditioned reflex D. transfer of training

283. The simplest measure of the spread of scores is the __________.

A. class interval B. range C. standard deviation D. variance

284. Below are objectives stated differently. Which one is stated as affective
objective?
a. After completing this unit, the teacher should be able to give two types of retention
problems associated with learning disabled children.
b. After reading this unit, the teacher should be able to write clear behavioral objectives
related to learning disabled children.
c. After reading this unit, the teacher should have a greater sensitivity to the characteristics
of learning disabled children.
d. After reading this unit, the teacher should be able to indicate a language problem
characteristic of learning disabled children

285. Which of the following describes a bi-modal distribution?

A. A group of score whose range of scores fall within the 68.26% of the normal curve.
B. A group of score with two different scores with the same lowest frequency.
C. A group of scores with two different scores with the same highest frequency.
D. A group of scores whose range of scores fall within the mean + 1 s.d. of the normal
curve.

286. Studies show that children who make exceptionally good records in elementary
grades also make superior in high school. What does this suggest?
A. Exposed elementary grade pupils to varied experiences.
B. Increase the appropriation for elementary schooling.
C. Promote all pupils in the elementary schools.
D. Strengthen the foundation in elementary education.

287. Mr. Juan noticed that one of his students is a drug dependent. What should Mr.
Juan do?
A. Report the student to the rehabilitation center.
B. Talk to the boy’s parent for rehabilitation purposes.
C. Ignore the problem.
D. Report the problem to the principal for proper action.

288. Students who make higher scores in a college entrance examination generally
get better marks in college than those who got lower scores in the same year.
Evident, the test that was administered to them possesses what type of validity?
A. Construct B. Content C. Predictive D. Concurrent

289. Which of the following does an aptitude test attempt to predict?

A. An individual’s general knowledge
B. Probable success in a given course
C. Level of efficiency of an individual
D. An individual capacity for improvement without training

290. When a parent makes an appointment to visit a teacher to complain the progress
of her son, which of these should the teacher do?
A. Carefully study the complete school record of her son and present these to the
parent.
B. Point out that her son obtained low marks in previous curricular year.
C. Tell the parent that many students in the class are failing.
D. Ask the parent if she has supervised her son’s homework.

291. Which of these criteria is the most important in test construction?

A. The stem should contain the central problem.
B. Items should be congruent with the objectives.
C. A table of specification should be prepared.
D. Options should be almost of the same length.

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292. Consider the following data:

TEST IN ALGEBRA TEST IN BIOLOGY
Total number of items 80 100
Susan’s score 74 94
Mean 50 70
Standard deviation 12 10

293. What can you say about Susan’s performance relative to other test takers?
A. The given information is not sufficient to make any interpretation about Susan’s
performance.
B. Susan performed better in Algebra than in Biology.
C. Susan performed better in Biology than in Algebra
D. Susan performed equally well in both.

294. Questions can be directed towards either convergent or divergent thinking. It is

directed towards diverging thinking if _________.
A. it is prescriptive C. it calls for varied responses
B. there is only one correct answer D. the behavior is not observable

295. Problems of discipline and class management should be considered in the light
of which the following principles?
A. Interests of the school and the individual pupil is identical.
B. The child is the center of all activities and the school is nothing.
C. Interest of any individual must always give way before those of the group of which he
is member.
D. Interests of the school are supreme and must be maintained.

296. Which of these terms cannot be used by itself to interpret individual score on an
intelligent test?
A. Standard deviation B. Stanine C. Percentile D. Standard score

297. A completely stated objective should contain the following elements: object,
behavior, conditions, performance level, target individual and time. Below, you
will find an objective. Read it carefully and identify the element in capital letters.
“Given a list of five passages, EIGHTY-FIVE PERCENT (85%) OF THE
STUDENTS will identify correctly three of the passages which means
compassion, after discussion.”
A. performance level B. behavior C. target individuals D. object

298. Generally speaking, the grade system adopted in our schools is appropriate in
______.
A. appraising present achievement and potential
B. indicating weak points as area for improvement
C. predicting success in the field of work and employment
D. identifying strong points for reinforcement purposes

299. In the achievement test of 1.50 items two students obtained the highest score of
143. What should be the rank of each score?
A. One will be ranked 1 and the other 1.5 C. Both will be ranked 1.5
B. Both will be ranked 1. D. One will be ranked 1 and the other 2.

300. Supposing a researcher wants to answer the question: “Will sing high ability
students to tutor low ability students increase the language skill of all students
involved?” What research method is appropriate to use?
A. historical B. experimental C. descriptive D. casual-comparative

301. A teacher using the results of a formative evaluation can ________.

A. compare his students relative standing in class C. improve his
instruction
B. give remedial instruction D. all of these

302. What percentage of a distribution of students falls into the highest quartile?
A. 10 B. 15 C. 50 D. 25

303. Which of the following is a limitation of the true-false type of objective test?
A. two or more ideas can be elicited

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B. answers come into a regular pattern or sequence

C. proportion of true or false statement are given
D. minor details receive as much credit as significant details

304. Which is the most obvious and familiar way of reporting variability?
A. distribution of raw scores C. standard deviation
B. range between highest and lowest scores D. standard error of the mean

305. Which type of test can assess the student’s ability to organize and express his
ideas?
A. essay B. Completion C. Multiple-choice D. Modified true-false

306. Which of the following can be classified as an evaluate question?

A. How would you distinguish a Filipino from a Chinese?
B. What is your concept of morality
C. What can be done to preserve our lakes and forest?
D. Are you in favor of legalizing divorce in our country?

307. In testing which of the following is referred to as cultural bias?

A. Test will show who is more cultured.
B. Test items are more familiar with some culture
C. Cultured people do better on tests.
D. Some culture do better on tests than others.

308. When can an item be said to have positive discriminating power?

A. When the pupils who answered correctly got higher total score in the test than those
who answered it incorrectly.
B. When the pupils who answered incorrectly got higher total score in the test than
those who answered it correctly.
C. When there is no significant difference between the general achievement of pupils
who answered it correctly.
D. When pupils who are low scores answered more items correctly than the high scores.

309. Which of the following test measures the learner’s attainment of specific
objectives at the end of a given period of time?
A. Standardized test C. Summative test
B. Norm-referenced test D. Criterion-referenced test

310. Lee obtained a percentile rank of 30% on a Mathematics test. Lee’s parents will learn that
A. Lee got 30% of the test items correct
B. Lee obtained a score higher than 30% of the students in the class
C. Lee got 70% of the items correct
D. Lee obtained a score higher than 70% of the students in the class

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