Aakash Physics Study Package 3 Solutions
Aakash Physics Study Package 3 Solutions
net
Chapter 8
Gravitation
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
et
(2) Elliptical orbits around the sun with sun at exact centre e .n
(3) Straight lines with constant velocity
iv
at
(4) Elliptical orbits around the sun with sun at one of its foci
re
Law of Orbits : All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.
w
w
w
2. The minimum and maximum distances of a planet revolving around sun are r and R. If the minimum speed of
planet on its trajectory is v0, its maximum speed will be
v 0R v 0r v 0R 2 v 0r 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
r R r2 R2
mvmaxr = mv0R
v0R
v max
r
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3. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass M in an elliptical orbit. The maximum and minimum
distances of the planet from the sun are r1 and r2 respectively. The time period of the planet is proportional
to
(1) r13/2 (2) r23/2 (3) (r1 + r2)3/2 (4) (r1– r2)3/2
Sol. Answer (3)
Law of periods : The square of the time period of revolution of a planet is proportional to the cube of the
semi-major axis of the ellipse traced out by the planet.
T 2 a3
where,
T = Time period of revolution of a planet.
a = Semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit traced by the planet.
r1 a ae Alternatively, (–ae, 0)
(–a, 0) (a, 0)
r2 a ae From figure, r1 r2 2a s (0, 0)
3
⎛r r ⎞
r1 r2 2a ⇒ T 2 ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
3
r r1
⎛ r r ⎞ 3/2
⇒ T ⎜⎜ 1 2 ⎟⎟
2
⇒ T r1 r2
⎝ 2 ⎠
3/2
⇒ T r1 r2
et
e .n
4. In a satellite if the time of revolution is T, then PE is proportional to
iv
at
T2 r3
w
w
r = radius of orbit
w
GMm
Potential energy (PE) =
r
GMm
PE
2/3
T
PE T–2/3
Since = 180°, = 0
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et
(1) Point masses only (2)
e .n Any arbitrary shaped masses
iv
9. Force of gravitation between two masses is found to be F, in vacuum. If both the masses are dipped in water
w
10. Two point masses m and 4m are separated by a distance d on a line. A third point mass m0 is to be placed
at a point on the line such that the net gravitational force on it is zero.
m d 4m
The distance of that point from the m mass is
d d d d
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 3 5
Sol. Answer (3)
r (d – r)
Gmm0 m0
Force of gravitation on m0 due to m F1
r2 F1 F2
m d 4m
G 4mm0
Force of gravitation on m0 due to 4m F2
(d r )2
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Net force = 0
F1 = F2
Gmm0 4Gmm0
2
r (d r )2
(d – r)2 = (2r)2
d – r = 2r
d = 3r
d
Thus, r
3
11. A large number of identical point masses m are placed along x-axis, at x = 0, 1, 2, 4, ........ The magnitude
of gravitational force on mass at origin (x = 0), will be
y
x
m m m m.........
x=0 x=1 x=2 x = 4 and so on
4 2 5
(1) Gm2 (2) Gm 2 (3) Gm 2 (4) Gm 2
3 3 4
et
.n
Sol. Answer (2)
e
iv
Let, F1, F2 , F4, F8 …… be the forces of gravitation due masses 'm' at x = 1, 2, 4, 8 … respectively.
at
re
2
F1 Gm
nc
12
ar
.le
Gm2
F2
w
22
w
w
Gm2 m m m m m m
F4 x = 0 x = 1 x = 2 x = 4 x = 8 x = 16
42
Gm2
F8
82
⎛1 1 1 1 ⎞
F1 F2 F4 F8 Gm2 ⎜
1 4 16 64 ⎟⎠
⎝
1
infinite G.P. with common ratio =
4
⎛ a ⎞
For an infinite G.P, sum = ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 1 r ⎠
a is the first term
r is the common ratio
1
⎛4⎞
Sum ⎜ ⎟
1 ⎝3⎠
1
4
4
F1 F2 F4 F8 Gm 2
3
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m
A
L L
B C
m L m
Gm 2 Gm 2 Gm Gm
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 2 (4) 3
L2 L2 L2 L2
Sol. Answer (4) m
A
At this moment,
L L
Forces acting on particle at A can be shown,
B C
m L m
2
where, F Gm 60°
L2
F F
Net force will be resultant of both,
3 Gm2
at
Fresultant
re
L2
nc
ar
F 3 Gm
.le
a
m L2
w
w
w
13. Two planets have same density but different radii. The acceleration due to gravity would be
(1) Same on both planets (2) Greater on the smaller planet
(3) Greater on the larger planet (4) Dependent on the distance of planet from the sun
Sol. Answer (3)
GM
Acceleration due to gravity at the surface of a planet, g
R2
where M is the mass of planet,
R is the radius of the planet,
Also, M = pV
G ⎛4 ⎞
g ⎜ GR 3 ⎟
2 ⎝3 ⎠
R
4
Thus, g GR
3
Thus g Radius of the planet,
Thus, acceleration due to gravity would be greater on the larger planet.
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14. If the radius of earth shrinks by 1.5% (mass remaining same), then the value of gravitational acceleration
changes by
(1) 2% (2) –2% (3) 3% (4) –3%
Sol. Answer (3)
Alternate method:
GM GM
g g'
2
R (R R )2
GM
g' g ' GM (R R )2
2
(0.985 R )
2
GM GM ⎛ R ⎞
g ' (1.0306) g' 1
2 ⎜⎝ R ⎟⎠
R2 R
R
for 1, we can use binomial and approximately,
R
GM ⎛ 2R ⎞
⇒ g ' 1.0306 g g' ⎜1 ⎟
R2 ⎝ R ⎠
⇒ Acceleration changes by
2R
g ⇒ g' g g
100 3% R
g
g 2R ⎛ 1.5 ⎞ 3
⇒ 2 ⎜ ⎟ 3% [g ' g g ]
et
g R ⎝ 100 ⎠ 100
.n
e
iv
15. If density of a planet is double that of the earth and the radius 1.5 times that of the earth, the acceleration
at
3
(1) times that on the surface of the earth (2) 3 times that on the surface of the earth
ar
4
.le
4
w
(3) times that on the surface of the earth (4) 6 times that on the surface of the earth
w
3
w
GM
given by, g
R2
M Mass of the planet
R Radius of the planet
4
Also, M R 3
3
G 4 4
g R 3 GR
2 3 3
R
Density of the planet.
Acceleration due to gravity R
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet is 3 times that on the surface of earth.
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2h
0.98 1
Re
2h
0.02
Re
h = 0.01 Re
= 0.01 × 6400 km
= 64 km
17. During motion of a man from equator to pole of earth, its weight will (neglect the effect of change in the radius
of earth)
(1) Increase by 0.34% (2) Decrease by 0.34%
(3) Increase by 0.52% (4) Decrease by 0.52%
et
Sol. Answer (1) .n
e
weq = mg – m2Re
iv
at
wp = mg
re
nc
w p w eq m2R
ar
w eq mg m2R
.le
w
w
2R
w
w 0.0337
0.3447 102
w eq 9.81 0.0337
w
100 0.3447
w eq
Increases by 0.34%
18. If earth suddenly stop rotating, then the weight of an object of mass m at equator will [ is angular speed of
earth and R is its radius]
(1) Decrease by m2R (2) Increase by m2R (3) Decrease by mR2 (4) Increase by mR2
Sol. Answer (2)
At the equator,
Apparent weight, w' = w – m2R
If Earth stops rotating, w' will be equal to .
Thus, the weight of an object of mass m at equator will increase by m2R.
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19. If R is the radius of earth and g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface. Then mean density
of earth is
et
20. The value of g at the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s2. Then the value of ‘g’ at a place 480 km above the surface
e .n
of the earth will be nearly (radius of the earth is 6400 km)
iv
at
(1) 9.8 m/s2 (2) 7.2 m/s2 (3) 8.5 m/s2 (4) 4.2 m/s2
re
2
⎡ R ⎤
gh g ⎢
.le
⎥
⎣R h ⎦
w
w
⎡ 6400 ⎤
w
2
gh 9.8 ⎢ ⎥ 8.48 m/s
⎣ 6400 480 ⎦
21. If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is same as at a depth x below
it, then (x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth)
h
(1) x = h (2) x = 2h (3) x (4) x = h2
2
Sol. Answer (2)
⎛ 2h ⎞
gh g ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ Re ⎠
⎛ x ⎞
g x g ⎜1 ⎟
⎝ R e⎠
⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ x ⎞
g ⎜ ⎟ g⎜ ⎟
⎝ Re ⎠ ⎝ Re ⎠
x = 2h
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23. What should be the angular speed with which the earth have to rotate on its axis so that a person on the
3
equator would weigh th as much as present?
5
2g 2R 2 R 2g
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5R 5g 5g 5R
et
Sol. Answer (1)
e .n
w' = w – m2R
iv
at
mge = mg – m2R
re
nc
3
ar
mge = mg
5
.le
w
2
w
2
m R mg
w
2g
5R
24. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 1.96 m/s2. If it is safe to jump from a height of 3 m on the earth,
the corresponding height on the planet will be
(1) 3 m (2) 6m (3) 9m (4) 15 m
Sol. Answer (4)
It is safer to jump from a height of 3 m on earth,
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25. Which of the following graph represents the variations of acceleration due to gravity(g) with distance r from the
centre of earth?
g g g g
1 r=R r
at
g 2
re
r
nc
ar
.le
26. An object is taken to height 2R above the surface of earth, the increase in potential energy is [R is radius of
w
earth]
w
w
GMm 2R
Potential energy at surface
R
GMm
Potential energy at height, 2R R
3R
GMm GMm
Change in potential energy
3R R
GMm ⎛ 1 3 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
R ⎝ 3 ⎠
2 GMm
3 R
2 ⎛ GM ⎞
⎜ ⎟ mR
3 ⎝ R2 ⎠
2
mgR
3
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⎛ n ⎞ ⎛ n ⎞ ⎛ n2 ⎞
(1) mgR ⎜ ⎟ (2) nmgR (3) mgR ⎜ ⎟ (4) mgR ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟
⎟
⎝ n 1⎠ ⎝ n 1⎠ ⎝ n 1⎠
Sol. Answer (3)
GMm
Potential energy at the surface
R
m
GMm
Potential energy at height, nR nR
(n 1)R
GMm GMm R
Change in potential energy
(n 1)R R
GMm ⎛ 1 n 1⎞
⎜ ⎟
R ⎝ n 1 ⎠
⎛ n ⎞ ⎛ GM ⎞
⎜ mR
⎝ n 1⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ R 2 ⎟⎠
⎛ n ⎞
mgR ⎜
⎝ n 1⎟⎠
et
e .n
iv
28. A stationary object is released from a point P at a distance 3R from the centre of the moon which has radius
at
R and mass M. Which of the following gives the speed of the object on hitting the moon?
re
nc
P
ar
Moon
.le
w
w
w
R
3R
12 12 12 12
⎛ 2GM ⎞ ⎛ 4GM ⎞ ⎛ GM ⎞ ⎛ GM ⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ ⎟ (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 3R ⎠ ⎝ 3R ⎠ ⎝ 3R ⎠ ⎝ R ⎠
Sol. Answer (2)
Conserving mechanical energy between points P and S,
GMm 1 GMm
mv 2
3R 2 R
1 GMm GMm
mv 2 Moon S P
2 3R R
GMm ⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜ 1⎟⎠
R ⎝ 3
R
1 2GMm
mv 2 3R
2 3R
4GM
v
3R
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29. Four particles A, B, C and D each of mass m are kept at the corners of a square of side L. Now the particle
D is taken to infinity by an external agent keeping the other particles fixed at their respective positions. The
work done by the gravitational force acting on the particle D during its movement is
m m
A B
m m
D L C
Gm 2 Gm 2 Gm 2 ⎛ 2 2 1⎞ Gm 2 ⎛ 2 2 1⎞
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4) ⎜ ⎟
L L L ⎜ 2 ⎟ L ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
Sol. Answer (4)
Work done by the gravitational force acting on the particle D during its movement
= – U
= – (Ufinal – Uinitial)
m m
= Uinitial – Ufinal A B
Now, when the particle is at infinity, U = 0
D C
Ufinal = 0 m L m
Work done = Uinitial
Gm 2 Gm 2 Gm 2
et
.n
Uinitial
e
L L 2L
iv
at
re
Gm 2 ⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜⎝ 2
nc
⎟
L 2⎠
ar
.le
Gm 2 ⎛ 2 2 1⎞
w
w
L ⎜⎝ ⎟
2 ⎠
w
30. If an object is projected vertically upwards with speed, half the escape speed of earth, then the maximum height
attained by it is [R is radius of earth]
R R
(1) R (2) (3) 2R (4)
2 3
Sol. Answer (4)
2 GM
Ve
R
M mass of earth
R Radius of earth
Now, conserving potential energy at the surface of earth and highest point,
2
GMm 1 ⎛ 1 2GM ⎞ GMm
m⎜ ⎟
R 2 ⎝2 R ⎠ r
3GMm GMm
4R r
4R
r
3
4R
Rh
3
R
h ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟
⎝ 3⎠
31. The total mechanical energy of an object of mass m projected from surface of earth with escape speed is
GMm GMm
(1) Zero (2) Infinite (3) (4)
2R 3R
2GM
Vescape
R
et
e .n
1 2 GM GMm
iv
=0
ar
.le
32. A body is thrown with a velocity equal to n times the escape velocity (ve). Velocity of the body at a large
w
1 GMm 1
m(nve ) 2 mv 2
2 R 2
2GM
Also, ve
R
2GMm 2
(n 1) mv 2
R
2GM 2
v (n 1)1/2
R
v ve n 2 1
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33. The escape velocity of a body from earth is about 11.2 km/s. Assuming the mass and radius of the earth to
be about 81 and 4 times the mass and radius of the moon, the escape velocity in km/s from the surface of
the moon will be
(1) 0.54 (2) 2.48 (3) 11 (4) 49.5
Sol. Answer (2)
GM
Vescape
R
V escape Earth Me Rm 81 ⎛ 9 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
Vescape moon Re M m 4 ⎝2⎠
2
Vmoon 11.2 2.48 km/s
9
34. If M is mass of a planet and R is its radius then in order to become black hole [c is speed of light]
GM GM 2GM 2GM
(1) c (2) c (3) c (4) c
R 2R R R
Sol. Answer (3)
A planet can become a black hole if its mass and radius are such that it has an immense force of gravity
on its surface. The force of attractum has to be so large that even light cannot escape from its surface.
et
Speed of light = c
e .n
iv
2GM
at
ve
re
R
nc
If ve c
ar
.le
Even light can't escape from the surface of such planet making it appear black.
w
w
35. The atmosphere on a planet is possible only if [where vrms is root mean square speed of gas molecules on planet
w
36. A small satellite is revolving near earth’s surface. Its orbital velocity will be nearly
(1) 8 km/s (2) 11.2 km/s (3) 4 km/s (4) 6 km/s
Sol. Answer (1)
For a satellite revolving near earth's surface,
GM e
v0 gR e
Re
9.8
v0 6400 7.92 km/s 8 km/s
1000
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T T
(1) 4T (2) (3) 8T (4)
4 8
Sol. Answer (3)
Using Kepler's third law,
T2 R3
T 2 ⎛ 4R ⎞ 3/2
⎜
T ⎝ R ⎟⎠
T2 = T × 23
= 8T
38. When speed of a satellite is increased by x percentage, it will escape from its orbit, where the value of x is
(1) 11.2% (2) 41.4% (3) 27.5% (4) 34.4%
Sol. Answer (2)
For a satellite near Earth's surface,
GM e 2GM e
et
v0 , ve
Re Re .n
e
iv
ve 2 v0
at
re
nc
⎛ ⎞
% increase, x = ⎜ 2 1⎟ 100 = 41.4%
ar
⎝ 1 ⎠
.le
w
w
39. If potential energy of a satellite is –2MJ, then the binding energy of satellite is
w
GMm
P.E
r
1 GM GMm
K.E m
2 r 2r
GMm
T.E
2r
GMm
Binding energy T.E Alternate method,
2r
P.E
1 MJ Binding energy = – T.E
2
P.E
2
= 1 MJ
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41. If a satellite of mass 400 kg revolves around the earth in an orbit with speed 200 m/s then its potential energy
is
(1) –1.2 MJ (2) –8.0 MJ (3) –16 MJ (4) –2.4 MJ
Sol. Answer (3)
For a satellite,
GMm
P.E
r
m = mass of satellite
r = radius of orbit
1 GMm P.E
K.E mv 2
2 2r 2
P.E = – mv2
= – 400 × 4 × 104
et
.n
= – 16 MJ
e
iv
at
42. An artificial satellite revolves around a planet for which gravitational force(F) varies with distance r from its centre as
re
Gravitational force (F) provides the necessary centripetal force to keep the satellite in orbit,
w
w
mv 02
F
r
mv 02
r2
r
v0 Orbital speed
r Radius of orbit
v0 r 3/2
43. The mean radius of earth is R, and its angular speed on its axis is . What will be the radius of orbit of a
geostationary satellite?
2
Time period of rotation of earth
(Duration of one day)
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2
Geostationary satellite has same time period, T . Let r be the radius of orbit of satellite
2r 3/2
Time period of satellite
GMe
GM e
Also, g
R e2
2 r 3/2 2 r 3/2 2
T
g (R e ) Re g
Re
r 3/2 g
1/2
⎛ R2 ⎞
r ⎜ e g⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
44. A satellite of the earth is revolving in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. If the gravitational force suddenly
disappears, the satellite will
et
e.n
iv
For a satellite revolving in a circular orbit, gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force. If the
gravitational force suddenly disappears, the satellite will move with a velocity v, tangentally to the original orbit.
v
45. The relay satellite transmits the television signals continuously from one part of the world to another because
its
(1) Period is greater than the period of rotation of the earth
(2) Period is less than the period of rotation of the earth
(3) Period has no relation with the period of the earth about its axis
(4) Period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis
Sol. Answer (4)
A relay satellite transmits the television signals continuously from one part of the world to another bacause
its period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth about its axis.
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46. If height of a satellite from the surface of earth is increased, then its
(1) Potential energy will increase (2) Kinetic energy will decrease
(3) Total energy will increase (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
For a satellite orbiting at height h from earth,
GM e m s
P.E
(R e h )
GM e m s
K.E
2(R e h )
GM e m s
T.E
2(R e h )
47. The gravitational force on a body of mass 1.5 kg situated at a point is 45 N. The gravitational field intensity
at that point is
et
(1) 30 N/kg (2) 67.5 N/kg
e
(3)
.n
46.5 N/kg (4) 43.5 N/kg
iv
Gravitation force = mg
re
nc
45 = 1.5 × g
.le
w
45
w
g 30 N/kg
1.5
w
48. A uniform sphere of mass M and radius R is surrounded by a concentric spherical shell of same mass but
radius 2R. A point mass m is kept at a distance x (>R) in the region bounded by spheres as shown in the
figure. The net gravitational force on the particle is
m
M x
M
R
2R
GMm
The gravitational force on the point mass m due to uniform sphere .
x2
The gravitational force on the point mass due to the outer spherical shell is zero because gravitational force
of attraction on a point mass due to various rejoins of the spherical shell cancels each other completely as
their vector sum is zero.
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V0 2 V0 3V0
(1) (2) V0 (3) (4)
2 3 3 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Gravitational potential on the surface,
GM e
V0
Re
GM e
Vn
⎛ Re ⎞
⎜⎝ R e ⎟
2 ⎠
2 GM e
3 Re
2
V0
3
et
.n
50. Two point masses having mass m and 2m are placed at distance d. The point on the line joining point masses,
e
iv
2d 2d
nc
(1) from point mass "2m" (2) from point mass "2m"
3 1 3 1
ar
.le
d
w
d
(3) from point mass "m" (4) from point mass "m"
w
1 2 1 2
w
r d-r
m 2m
Gravitational field intensity will be zero,
Gm 2 Gm
2
r (d r ) 2
1 2
r d r
d r 2r
r 1 2 d
d
r
1 2
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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. The ratio of kinetic energy of a planet at perigee and apogee during its motion around the sun in elliptical orbit
of eccentricity e is
2 2
1 e ⎛ 1 e ⎞ ⎛ 1 e ⎞
(1) 1 : e (2)
1 e
(3) ⎜ 1 e ⎟ (4) ⎜ 1 e ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
1
K.E of a planet = mv2
2
1
K.E at perigee = mvP2
2
vA
1 (–a, 0) (–ae, 0) (0, 0) (a, 0)
K.E at apogee = mvA2
2 P A
rP rA
Using conservation of angular momentum at P and A vP
mvP rP = mvArA
et
e .n
iv
vP r a (1 e )
at
A
re
vA rP a (1 e )
nc
ar
K.E P v P2 ⎛ 1 e ⎞ 2
.le
⎜ ⎟
w
K.E A vA2 ⎝ 1 e ⎠
w
w
2. An earth satellite X is revolving around earth in an orbit whose radius is one-fourth of the radius of orbit of a
communication satellite. Time period of revolution of X is
(1) 3 hrs (2) 6 hrs (3) 4 days (4) 72 days
Sol. Answer (1)
Time period of a communication satellite = 24 hours.
Using kepler's third law,
T2 r 3
3/2
Tc ⎛ r c ⎞
T x ⎜⎝ r x ⎟⎠
24
(4) 3/2
Tx
24
Tx 3 hrs
8
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3 2 1 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 3 3 3
Sol. Answer (1)
A
Areal velocity, L vA
t 2m
L is the angular momentum of satellite, m is the mass of satellite,
vA1 L ⎛ 3⎞
1 ⎜ ⎟
vA2 L 2 ⎝ 4⎠
4. When a satellite moves around the earth in a certain orbit, the quantity which remains constant is
(1) Angular velocity (2) Kinetic energy (3) Areal velocity (4) Potential energy
Sol. Answer (3)
The path of a satellite moving around sun in a certain orbit is not exactly circular but elliptical with low value
of eccentricity, e. Thus only areal velocity is constant.
et
5. Consider a planet moving around a star in an elliptical orbit with period T. The area of the elliptical orbit is
.n
proportional to
e
iv
at
4 2 1
re
Area of ellipse
w
w
A = r1r2
w
O
∵ r1 = a – ae = a(1 – e) S x
F1 ae ae F
2
and r2 = a + ae = a(1 + e)
A = {a(1 – e)} {a(1 + e)} a a
=a2 (1 – e) (1 + e) r1 r2
=a2(12 – e2)
∵ e2 << a2 then
A = a2
So, a A1 2 (1)
According to Keplar’s III law
T2 a3
1 ⎤ 3
⎡
T 2 ⎢( A) 2 ⎥
⎣ ⎦
T 2 A3 2
A (T 2 )2 3
A T4 3
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6. A body weighs 72 N on surface of the earth. When it is taken to a height of h = 2R, where R is radius of earth, it
would weigh
(1) 36 N (2) 18 N (3) 9N (4) 8N
Sol. Answer (4)
GM
Weight on earth = mg m 72 N
R2
⎛ GM ⎞ GM GMm 72
Weight at height, h = 2R will be mg m ⎜ 2 ⎟ m 2 8N
⎝ r ⎠ (R 2R ) 9R 2 9
7. If all objects on the equator of earth feel weightless then the duration of the day will nearly become
(1) 6.2 hr (2) 4.4 hr (3) 2.2 hr (4) 1.41 hr
Sol. Answer (4)
Weq = mg – m2R
mg – m2R = 0
2R = g
g
R
Time period of rotation, i.e., duration of the day,
et
.n
2 R
2 1.41 hr
e
g
iv
at
re
GM
nc
8. A body is projected vertically upwards with a speed of (M is mass and R is radius of earth). The body will
R
ar
.le
attain a height of
w
R 5 3R
w
2 4 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Conserving mechanical energy at earth surface and at the maximum height attained by the body,
P.Ei + K.Ei = P.Ej + K.Ej
GMm 1 ⎛ GM ⎞ GMm
m⎜ ⎟ 0
R 2 ⎝ R ⎠ r
GMm GMm
2R r
r = 2R
R + h = 2R
h =R
9. If the gravitational potential energy of two point masses infinitely away is taken to be zero then gravitational
potential energy of a galaxy is
(1) Zero (2) Positive (3) Negative (4) Can have any value
Sol. Answer (3)
A galaxy is a bounded system, for a bounded system or closed system like planet-sun, satellite Earth, electron-
nucleus etc. total energy and the potential energy both are negative.
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(1) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a height h = R on both sides
(2) Motion of the particle is periodic
(3) Motion of the particle is simple harmonic
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
1 m
When the particle is outside the tunnel force acting on it is where, r
r 2 R
is the distance from the centre of the earth.
1 R
et
When the particle is inside the tunnel force acting on it is .n where, r is
r
e
the distance from the centre of the earth.
iv
at
In both cases, force is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
re
nc
11. The particles A and B of mass m each are separated by a distance r. Another particle C of mass M is placed
.le
at the midpoint of A and B. Find the work done in taking C to a point equidistant r from A and B without
w
acceleration (G = Gravitational constant and only gravitational interaction between A, B and C is considered)
w
w
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12. The magnitude of potential energy per unit mass of an object at the surface of earth is E, then the escape
velocity of the object is
GMm
P.E of an object on earth surface
R
⎛ GM ⎞
Magnitude of potential energy per unit mass ⎜ E
⎝ R ⎟⎠
2GM
Vescape
R
2E
13. The orbital speed of a satellite revolving around a planet in a circular orbit is v0. If its speed is increased by
10%, then
(1) It will escape from its orbit
(2) It will start rotating in an elliptical orbit
et
e .n
(3) It will continue to move in the same orbit
iv
at
(4) It will move in a circular orbit of radius 20% more then radius of initial orbit
re
nc
When the orbital speed of a satellite revolving around a planet is increased by 10%, it corresponds to the case
.le
14. If L is the angular momentum of a satellite revolving around earth in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v,
then
GM
Also, v
r
GM
Lm r
r
Thus, L r
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mv 2 GMm
r r
v GM
Independent of mass of satellite and radius of orbit.
v1 1
v2 1
16. A satellite of mass m is revolving close to surface of a planet of density d with time period T. The value of
universal gravitational constant on planet is given by
1 3
(1) 2d 2T (2) dT 2 (3) (4)
et
e 2
d T
.n dT 2
T
v GM
.le
w
w
4 2 R 3
w
T2
GM
4
M R 3 d
3
4 2R 3
T2
4
G R 3 d
3
3
G
dT 2
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GMm
K.E
2r
GMm
P.E
r
M mass of planet
m mass of satellite
r radius of orbit
When r is decreased,
Kinetic energy increases,
Potential energy decreases (becomes more negative).
19. Two point masses having m and 4m are placed at distance at r. The gravitational potential at a point, where
et
gravitational field intensity zero is e .n
9GM 2GM 3GM 6GM
iv
r 3r r 5r
re
nc
Gm 4 Gm
w
2
d r -d
(r d ) 2
w
d
×
m O 4m
2
(r d )
4 r
d2
r d
2
d
r – d = ± 2d
r
d , r (d = – r, not possible)
3
Taking the +ve value of d,
Calculating gravitational potential at O,
Gm 4Gm
V
r /3 2r /3
3Gm 6Gm
r r
9Gm
r
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21. If potential at the surface of earth is assigned zero value, then potential at centre of earth will be
(Mass = M, Radius = R)
GM 3GM 3GM
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
2R 2R 2R
Sol. Answer (2)
The concept involved here is that,
Gravitational potential difference between any two points in a gravitational field is independent of the choice
of reference. When potential at the infinity is assigned zero value,
GM
Potential at the surface Vs
R
3GM
et
Potential at the centre Vc .n
2R
e
iv
GM 3GM GM
Vs Vc
at
R 2R 2R
re
nc
Vs – Vc = Vs' – Vc'
.le
GM GM
w
2R 2R
w
Here, Vs' and Vc' are the new values of potential at the sum and centre respectively.
1 GM
22. An object is projected horizontally with speed , from a point at height 3 R [where R is radius and M
2 R
is mass of earth, then object will]
(1) Fall back on surface of earth by following parabolic path
(2) Fall back on surface of earth by following hyperbolic path
(3) Start rotating around earth in a circular orbit
(4) Escape from gravitational field of earth
Sol. Answer (3)
At height 3 R, i.e at distance 4 R from the centre of the earth,
GM
Vorbital
r
GM 1 GM
Here, r = 4 R V0 ,
4R 2 R
1 GM
Thus, an object taken to a height 3 R if projected horizontally with speed , will start rotating around
2 R
earth in a circular orbit.
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23. If acceleration due to gravity at distance d[< R] from the centre of earth is , then its value at distance d above
the surface of earth will be [where R is radius of earth]
R 2 R d R 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(R d )3 2d (R d )2 d (R d )2
GM
Here, g d d , d < R ...(1)
R3
GM
gd , d>R ...(2)
(R d )2
R 3
Using (1), GM
d
R 3
gd
d (R d )2
24. If potential energy of a body of mass m on the surface of earth is taken as zero then its potential energy at
height h above the surface of earth is [R is radius of earth and M is mass of earth]
Gravitational potential energy difference between any two points in a gravitational field is independent of the
ar
choice of reference.
.le
GMm
w
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
U s U h GMm ⎜ ⎟
⎝ R Rh⎠
⎛ R h R ⎞
GMm ⎜
⎝ R (R h ) ⎟⎠
GMmh
R (R h )
Now, when potential at the surface is taken zero, Let Us', Uh' be the new values of potential energy at the surface
and height h respectively,
And, Us – Uh = Us' – Uh'
GMmh
0 Uh
R (R h )
GMmh
Uh
R (R h )
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(1) (iˆ jˆ kˆ ) N/kg (2) 2(iˆ ˆj kˆ ) N/kg (3) 3(iˆ ˆj kˆ ) N/kg (4) 4(iˆ ˆj kˆ ) N/kg
Sol. Answer (1)
Let I denote the gravitation intensity at any point,
⎡ v v ˆ v ˆ ⎤
As we know, I ⎢ iˆ j k
⎣ x y z ⎥⎦
I (2,2,2) ⎣⎡ iˆ jˆ kˆ ⎦⎤ iˆ ˆj kˆ N/kg
4g R e
26. A particle is projected vertically up with velocity v from earth surface. The velocity of particle at height
3
equal to half of the maximum height reached by it
g Re g Re 2g Re
(1) (2) (3) g Re (4)
2 3 3
Sol. Answer (2)
Conserving mechanical energy at the surface of earth and the maximum height attained,
et
GMm 1 4GM GMm
m Re 0
.n
2
Re 2 3R e r
e
iv
at
Re 3R e r
.le
w
1 GMm GMm
w
w
3 Re r
r = 3Re
Re + h = 3Re
h = 2Re
Now, let us calculate the velocity of the particle at height equal to half of the maximum height i.e at h = Re
Again using mechanical conservation of energy,
P.Ei + K.Ei = P.Ej + K.Ej
GMm 1 4 GM GMm 1
m 2
Re mv 2
Re 2 3 Re 2R 2
1 GMm GMm 1
mv 2
3 Re 2Re 2
GMm 1
mv 2
6Re 2
GM GM Re gRe
v
3Re Re2 3 3
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small compared
to the mass of the earth. Then, [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth
(2) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains
constant
(3) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time
(4) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude
Sol. Answer (1)
2. A remote-sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the surface
of earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms–2, then the orbital speed of the satellite is
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 6.67 km s–1 (2) 7.76 km s–1 (3) 8.56 km s–1 (4) 9.13 km s–1
Sol. Answer (2)
et
3. Kepler's third law states that square of period of revolution (T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to third
e .n
power of average distance r between sun and planet, i.e., T2 = Kr3, here K is constant. If the masses of
iv
sun and planet are M and m respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation force of attraction between
at
GMm
re
[AIPMT-2015]
.le
w
1
w
4. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what
approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg) have to be compresed to be a black hole?
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) 10–9 m (2) 10–6 m (3) 10–2 m (4) 100 m
Sol. Answer (3)
5. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field ( E ) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly
respresented by [AIPMT-2014]
E E E E
R R
O O r O O r
(1) r (2) R (3) r (4) R
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2 1
(1) mgR (2) 3mgR (3) mgR (4) mg2R
3 3
Sol. Answer (1)
GMm
P.E at surface of earth
R
GM
mR
R2
⎡ GM ⎤
Uin = –mgR ⎢⎣g R 2 ⎥⎦
GMm
P.E at height, h = 2R
3R
GM
mR
3R 2
et
mgR .n
Uf
3
e
iv
at
mgR
re
2mgR
.le
w
3
w
w
8 4
(1) – G (2) – G (3) – 4G (4) –G
3 3
Sol. Answer (3)
8. A spherical planet has a mass Mp and diameter Dp. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this
planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity, equal to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) GMp / Dp2 (2) 4GMpm / Dp2 (3) 4GMp / Dp2 (4) GMpm / Dp2
Sol. Answer (3)
GM p
Acceleration due to gravity, near surface gp
R p2
Here, Dp = 2Rp
4 GM p
gp
D p2
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9. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the
radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of the earth
is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
6
(1) 6 2 (2) (3) 5 (4) 10
2
Sol. Answer (1)
Time period of a geostationary satellite = 24 hours.
Using Keplers third law,
T2 r3
T1, time period of geostationary satellite (6R)3/2 thus T2 (3R)3/2
3/ 2
T 2 ⎛ 3R ⎞
⎜ ⎟
T1 ⎝ 6R ⎠
1 24
T 2 24 6 2 hours.
2 3/ 2 2 2
1
10. The height at which the weight of a body becomes th, its weight on the surface of earth (radius R), is
16
et
.n [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
e
(1) 3R (2) 4R (3) 5R (4) 15R
iv
at
⎛ GM ⎞
m⎜ 2 ⎟
.le
⎝ Re ⎠
w
w
GM
w
W 1 Re2
W 16 (Re h )2
Re + h = 4Re
h = 3Re
11. If ve is escape velocity and vo is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close to the earth’s surface, then these are
related by [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
2GM
ve
R
GM
vo
R
v e 2 vo
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F F F F
GM
For a thin spherical shell gravitational field for r > R is given by F
r2
Thus, most suitable plot is
F
et
.n
13. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away at a distance
e
v1
iv
of r2. If v1 and v2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio v is
at
2
re
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
nc
ar
2 2
r1 ⎛ r1 ⎞ r2 ⎛ r2 ⎞
.le
2 ⎝ r2 ⎠ ⎝ r1 ⎠
w
w
2
P A
s
1
r1 r2
1 r2
2 r1
14. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude
a
of the gravitational potential at a point situated at distance from the centre, will be [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
2
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15. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius
of the earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant and g is acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not return back to earth, is
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
GMm 1
mv e2 0
R 2
2GM
ve
R
16. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of
satellite A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
3V 3V
(1) (2) 6V (3) 12 V (4)
4 2
Sol. Answer (2)
et
.n
GMe
e
V0
iv
r
at
r radius of orbit
re
nc
VA rB
ar
VB rA
.le
w
w
3V 1
VB = 6 V
w
VB 4
17. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational
a
potential at a point situated at distance from the centre, will be [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
2
GM a/2
Vspherical shell V1
a M
a
GM 2GM
Vmass M V2
a /2 a
3GM
Vtotal
a
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⎛ 1 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 1 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
(1) GmM ⎜ 2 2 ⎟ (2) GmM ⎜ ⎟ (3) 2GmM ⎜ ⎟ (4) GmM ⎜ ⎟
R
⎝ 1 R 2 ⎠ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠ 2 R
⎝ 1 R2 ⎠
GMm ⎡ 1 1 ⎤
K.Eadditional
2 ⎢⎣ R1 R2 ⎥⎦
et
.n
19. The dependence of acceleration due to gravity g on the distance r from the centre of the earth, assumed to be
e
a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figures below
iv
at
re
nc
ar
g g
.le
g g
w
r r r
w
R R r R
R
GM
ginside r i.e., for r < R
R3
GM
g outside i.e., for r > R
r2
g 1
r
r2
R r
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20. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area
SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from A to B then
m v
B C
S
A D
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) t1 = 4t2 (2) t1 = 2t2 (3) t1 = t2 (4) t1 > t2
Sol. Answer (2)
According to Kepler's law of Areas : The line that joins any planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal
intervals of time
A
i.e is constant.
t
ASCD tSCD ⎛ t1 ⎞
et
Using, ⎜ ⎟
ASAB tSAB ⎝ t 2 ⎠ .n
e
iv
t1 = 2t2
at
re
nc
21. Two satellites of earth S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2.
ar
(1) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
w
w
GM e
v0 , r is the radius of the orbit.
r
22. The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the
Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv, where v is its escape velocity from the surface
of the Earth. The value of f is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
1 1 1
(1) 2 (2)
2
(3)
3
(4)
2
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GMm 1
m(ve)2 0
2R 2
GM
ve
R
2GM
From surface of earth, v e
R
1
v e v e fv
2
1
Thus, f
2
23. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size.
If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g’,
then [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
et
g
.n
(1) g= 3g (2) g= (3) g= 9g (4) g= 27g
e
9
iv
at
4GR
ar
g
3
.le
w
4G(3R )
w
g
w
⎛ 4GR ⎞
3⎜ ⎟ 3g
⎝ 3 ⎠
24. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is :
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
1 1
(1) 2 (2)
2
(3)
2
(4) 2
GMm
P.E
R
GMm
K.E
2R
K.E 1
P.E 2
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25. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth. Both have almost equal average mass-densities. If VP and
VE are escape velocities of the planet and the earth, respectively, then
(1) VE = 1.5VP (2) VP = 1.5VE (3) VP = 2VE (4) VE = 3VP
Sol. Answer (3)
⎛ 8GP ⎞
Vescape R ⎜ ⎟⎟
⎜ 3
⎝ ⎠
VP
2
VE
VP = 2VE
26. A particle of mass 'm' is kept at rest at a height 3R from the surface of earth, where 'R' is radius of earth and
'M' is mass of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be projected, so that it does not return back,
is (g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth)
et
for minimum speed, we take total energy zero, .n
e
GMm 1
iv
mv 2 0
at
4R 2
re
nc
GM
ar
v
.le
2R
w
w
w
27. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of acceleration due to gravity g with depth h from the surface
of the earth?
g g g g
h h h h
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28. At what altitude (h) above the earth’s surface would the acceleration due to gravity be one fourth of its value
at the earth’s surface?
(1) h = R (2) h = 4R (3) h = 2R (4) h = 16R
Sol. Answer (1)
GM
At altitude (h) above the earth's surface, g h
(R h ) 2
GM R2
gh
R 2 (R h ) 2
et
e .n
R2
iv
gh g
at
(R h ) 2
re
nc
1 R2 1 R
ar
,
4 (R h ) 2 2 (R h )
.le
w
R + h = 2R
h =R
29. If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to 1/R (and not as 1/R2), where R is the
distance between them, then a particle in a circular path (under such a force) would have its orbital speed
v, proportional to
(1) R (2) R0 (independent of R)
1 1
(3) 2 (4)
R R
Sol. Answer (2)
Gravitational force provides the necessary centripetal force for a particle to move in the circular path.
mv 2 K ⎡ K ⎤
⎢not 2 ⎥
R R ⎣ R ⎦
K
v
m
Thus independent of R.
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30. The distance of two planets from the sun are 1013 m and 1012 m respectively. The ratio of time periods of
the planets is
T1
103/2 10 10
T2
31. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of Mars is 3200 km. The mass of the earth is about
10 times the mass of Mars. An object weighs 200 N on the surface of Earth. Its weight on the surface of
mars will be
(1) 20 N (2) 8N (3) 80 N (4) 40 N
Sol. Answer (3)
et
Re = 6400 km
e .n
iv
RM = 3200 km
at
re
Me
10
nc
MM
ar
.le
GMe
w
We m mge
w
Re2
w
GMM
WM m mgM
RM2
2
We ⎛ Me ⎞ ⎛ RM ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
WM ⎝ MM ⎠ ⎝ Re ⎠
2
200 ⎛ 1⎞ 200 4
10 ⎜ ⎟ WM 80 N
WM ⎝2⎠ 10
32. The earth (mass = 6 × 1024 kg) revolves around the sun with an angular velocity of 2 × 10–7 rad/s in a
circular orbit of radius 1.5 × 108 km. The force exerted by the sun on the earth, in newtons, is
(1) 36 × 1021 (2) 27 × 1039 (3) Zero (4) 18 × 1025
Sol. Answer (1)
The force of gravitation exerted by sun provides the necessary centripetal force = m2r
Fg = 6 × 1024 × 4 × 10–14 × 1.5 × 1011
= 36 × 1021 N
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1 Gm 4Gm 1 1 Gm
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 R R 2R Gm 2R
m m
R R
Gm 2 mv 2
2
(2R ) r
Gm 1 Gm
v
4R 2 R
et
.n
34. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth are related by which of the following
e
iv
relations? (where G is the gravitational constant and R is the radius of the earth.)
at
re
3g 3g 4 gR 2 4 gR 3
nc
GM
w
g
R2
4 G 4
M R 3 ⇒ g 2
R 3
3 R 3
3g
Thus,
4GR
35. What will be the formula of mass of the earth in terms of g, R and G?
R2 R2 R R
(1) G (2) g (3) g2 (4) G
g G G g
GM
g
R2
R2
Mass of earth g
G
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36. The period of revolution of planet A around the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from the sun is
how many times greater than that of B from the sun?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3
Sol. Answer (1)
Using kepler's third law,
T2 r3
3/2
TA ⎛ rA ⎞
⎜ ⎟
TB ⎝ rB ⎠
⎛r ⎞
(8)2/3 ⎜ A ⎟
⎝ rB ⎠
rA = 4rB
37. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s mass increases to twice
its present value and radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity becomes
(1) 22.4 km/s (2) 44.8 km/s (3) 5.6 km/s (4) 11.2 km/s
Sol. Answer (1)
et
.n
2GM
Ve
e
iv
R
at
re
2G(2M )
nc
Ve
R /2
ar
.le
w
2GM
w
2
w
22.4 km/s
38. The escape velocity of a sphere of mass m from the surface of earth is given by (G = Universal gravitational
constant; M = Mass of the earth and Re = Radius of the earth)
2GM
ve
Re
GMm 1
mv e2 0
Re 2
2GM
ve , independent of the mass of sphere.
Re
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mGM
Gravitational force on body mgs 72 N
R2
R mGM
Gravitational force at height, h mg 2
2 ⎛ 3R ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
mGM 4 4
72 32 N
R2 9 9
40. A planet has mass equal to mass of the earth but radius one fourth of radius of the earth. Then escape
velocity at the surface of this planet will be
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s (3) 5.6 km/s (4) 44.8 km/s
et
Sol. Answer (2) e .n
iv
GM
Ve 11.2 km/s
at
R
re
nc
ar
GM GM
Vp 2 22.4 km/s
.le
R /4 R
w
w
w
41. With what velocity should a particle be projected so that it attains a height equal to radius of earth?
GMm 1 GMm
mv 2
R 2 2R
1 GMm ⎛ 1 ⎞
mv 2 ⎜ 1⎟
2 R ⎝ 2 ⎠
1 GMm
mv 2
2 2R
GM
v
R
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42. A body of mass m is placed on earth surface which is taken from earth surface to a height of
h = 3R, then change in gravitational potential energy is
mgR 2 3 mgR
(1) (2) mgR (3) mgR (4)
4 3 4 2
GMm
R
GM
Rm
R2
Ui = –mgR
Potential energy of the body at height,
GMm
h = 3R
4R
mgR
Uf
et
4 e .n
Change in P.E = Uf – Ui
iv
at
mgR
re
mgR
4
nc
ar
.le
3
mgR
w
4
w
w
43. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man
jumps to a height of 2 m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on the planet
B?
(1) 2/9 m (2) 18 m (3) 6m (4) 2/3 m
Sol. Answer (2)
Maximum height to which man jumps on A,
v2
hA
2g A
v2
hB
2gB
hA gB 2 1
⇒
hB g A hB 9
hB = 18 m
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45. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface
of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, then the radius of the
planet would be
1 1
(1) 2R (2) 4R (3) R (4) R
4 2
GM
g
R2
G 4
et
2
R 3 .n
R 3
e
iv
at
4GR
re
3
nc
ar
Ree = Rpp
.le
w
R × e = Rp × 2e
w
w
R
Rp
2
46. A ball is dropped from a spacecraft revolving around the earth at a height of 120 km. What will happen to
the ball?
(1) It will fall down to the earth gradually
(2) It will go very far in the space
(3) It will continue to move with the same speed along the original orbit of spacecraft
(4) It will move with the same speed, tangentially to the spacecraft
Sol. Answer (3)
A ball dropped from a spacecraft revolving around the earth will have zero relative velocity with respect to the
aircraft.
But with respect to the centre of the earth its speed will be equal to the speed of the aircraft i.e the orbital
speed.
Thus, it will continue to move with same speed along the original orbit and force of gravitation of earth will
provide it the necessary centripetal force.
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SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
2. A : The acceleration due to gravity for an object is independent from its mass.
GM
g , independent of mass of object.
R2
M Mass of planet.
et
e.n
3. A : If angular speed of the earth increases, the effective value of g will decrease at all places on earth.
iv
at
At poles = 90°
4. A : The gravitational field intensity is zero everywhere inside a uniform spherical shell.
R : The net force on a point mass inside a uniform spherical shell is zero everywhere.
Gravitational force of attraction on a point mass due to various regions of the spherical shell cancels each other
completely as their vector sum is zero.
5. A : The value of potential energy depends on the reference taken for zero potential energy.
Potential at a point depends on the choice of reference. Potential difference is independent of the choice of
reference.
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6. A : When a satellite is orbiting then no energy is required to keep moving in its orbit.
R : The total mechanical energy of a satellite is conserved.
Sol. Answer (1)
Total mechanical energy of the system is conserved, since the dissipative forces are absent or negligible.
7. A : An astronaut in a satellite may float in the free space outside and inside the satellite.
R : An astronaut in a satellite is in weightless state.
Sol. Answer (1)
The force of gravitation provides the necessary centripetal force, for an astronant in a satellite, the F.B.D can
be drawn,
F.B.D
Fg
N Fg
mv 02
Fg N
r
et
e.n
GM
v 0 orbital speed
iv
r
at
re
nc
GMm ⎛ m ⎞ GM
ar
2
N ⎜ ⎟
r ⎝r ⎠ r
.le
w
w
GMm GMm
w
N
2
r r2
P rmin A
At perihelion r is minimum,
Thus speed of planet is maximum.
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9. A : Kepler's third law of planetary motion is valid only for inverse square forces.
R : Only inverse square forces are always central.
Sol. Answer (3)
T2 r3
Is valid only for inverse square forces, for a planet going in a circular orbit,
2r
T
v
GM
v is the orbital speed
r
T 2r 2 r 3/2
GM GM
r
Also, it is not true that,
Only inverse square forces are always central.
et
R : Asteroids and comets do not revolve around sun under its gravitational force.
.n
e
Sol. Answer (4)
iv
at
Kepler's laws can be used for asteroids and comets. All the 3 laws can be proved from the Newton's universal
re
nc
law of gravitation.
ar
11. A : During orbital motion of planet around the sun work done by the centripetal force is not zero at all points
w
on the orbit.
R : Planet is revolving around the sun in elliptical orbit.
Sol. Answer (1)
During motion of a planet around sun, the centripetal force is not always perpendicular to the velocity of planet
in an elliptical orbit. Thus work done is not zero. Although, incase of circular orbits centripetal force is always
perpendicular to velocity.
dL
Also, 0, Angular momentum is constant.
dt
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v
Gravitation field, I
r
V is constant everywhere.
14. A : Field created by the point mass in its surroundings is a non-uniform gravitational field.
GM
R : Since the field is E and it is dependent on r, hence Non-uniform.
r2
GM
Field due to point mass, E
r2
et
e.n
iv
at
re
nc
ar
.le
w
15. A : If the force of gravitation is inversely proportional to the distance r rather than r2 given by Newton, then
orbital velocity of the satellite around the earth is independent of r.
GMm mv 2
R:
r r
So, v= GM
Hence independent of r.
GMm mv 2
r r
v GM
Independent of r.
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16. A : Work done by the gravitational force is positive when the two point masses are brought from infinity to
any two points in space.
R : Gravitational potential energy increases during the above process.
Sol. Answer (3)
Force of gravitation is attractive, thus when masses are brought from infinity to any two points in space,
displacement of masses is in the direction of force.
Work done is positive.
Also, Wgravity = – U = Ui – Uf
During this process potential energy decreases.
et
e.n
iv
at
re
nc
ar
.le
w
w
w
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Chapter 9
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
et
(3) Remains constant (4) May increase or decrease
.n
e
Sol. Answer (4)
iv
at
It depends on the elastic property of impurities if they themselves more elastic, elasticity will increase. If they
re
Shear strain is possible in solids only, as only solids have a definite surface.
3. The ratio of radii of two wires of same material is 2 : 1. If these wires are stretched by equal force, the ratio
of stresses produced in them is
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:1
Sol. Answer (3)
We know,
⎧S Stress ⎫
Force ⎪F Force ⎪
Stress = ⎪ ⎪
Area ⎨ ⎬
⎪ A Area ⎪
So, Stress × Area = Force ⎪⎩r radius ⎪⎭
S×A=F
⎧ Where ⎫
∵ (Since) Force applied on the wires is equal we can ⎪ ⎪
⎪S1 Stress in 1 wire ⎪
st
relate two conditions as
⎪ ⎪
⎪ A1 Area of 1 wire ⎪
st
S1A1 = S2A2
⎪ ⎪
⎨r1 Radius of 1 wire ⎬
st
S1 A2 r22 ⎪ ⎪
⎪S2 Stress in 2 wire ⎪
nd
S2 A1 r12
⎪ ⎪
⎪ A2 Area of 2 wire ⎪
nd
S1 r2 r2 1
⎪r Radius of 2nd wire ⎪
S2 (2r )2
4r 2 4 ⎩2 ⎭
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Force Length
Young's Modulus
Area of cross-section elongation
20 3
Y
1
10 6 1 10 3
4
20 3 4
Y
3.14 109
et
7.48 × 1010 Nm–2 = Y
e .n
iv
at
FL
So from the formulae we know Y
A L
If we put L = 0
We get Y as
7. The breaking stress of aluminium is 7.5 × 107 Nm–2. The greatest length of aluminium wire that can hang vertically
without breaking is (Density of aluminium is 2.7 × 103 kg m–3)
(1) 283 × 103 m (2) 28.3 × 103 m (3) 2.83 × 103 m (4) 0.283 × 103 m
Sol. Answer (3)
Breaking stress = × g × L
Substitute values from the question
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7.5 107
L
2.7 103 9.8
2.83 × 103 m = L
8. The stress strain graphs for two materials A and B are shown in figure. The graphs are drawn to the same
scale. Select the correct statement
Q
P P
Stress
Q
Stress
et
(3) Material B is brittle (4) All of these
.n
Sol. Answer (4)
e
iv
at
Q
re
P P
nc
Q
Stress
Stress
ar
.le
A B
w
(A) (B)
w
Slope of stress strain curve (tan ) gives the value of young's modulus for given material
tan = y
And from the graph we can clearly see
tan A > tan B
So material A has greater young's modulus
P to Q distance in material A is greater than P to Q distance in material B
Which implies more deformation is possible in A as compared to B
Hence we can say A is ductile, B is brittle.
9. A steel wire of diameter 2 mm has a breaking strength of 4 × 105 N. What is the breaking force of similar
steel wire of diameter 1.5 mm?
(1) 2.3 × 105 N (2) 2.6 × 105 N (3) 3 × 105 N (4) 1.5 × 105 N
Sol. Answer (1)
We know
Force Length ⎧ FL ⎫
elongation ⎨ x ⎬
Area young's modulus ⎩ Ay ⎭
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⎛ x y ⎞
F ⎜ ⎟A
⎝ L ⎠
⎛ x y ⎞ 2
F ⎜ ⎟d
⎝ L 4⎠
We can say F d 2
So we can use
F2 = 2.3 × 105 N
10. A steel wire is 1 m long and 1 mm2 in area of cross-section. If it takes 200 N to stretch this wire by 1 mm,
how much force will be required to stretch a wire of the same material as well as diameter from its normal
length of 10 m to a length of 1002 cm?
et
(1) 1000 N (2) 200 N (3)
e .n
400 N (4) 2000 N
iv
FL
x
nc
AY
ar
.le
We can say
w
w
FL x
F2 = 400 N
11. A wire 2 m in length suspended vertically stretches by 10 mm when mass of 10 kg is attached to the lower
end. The elastic potential energy gain by the wire is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 0.5 J (2) 5J (3) 50 J (4) 500 J
Sol. Answer (1)
1
Potential energy per unit volume stress strain
2
1 F L
2 A L
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1 F L
AL {Volume = Length × cross-sectional area}
2 AL
1
U F L
2
⎧⎪F 10 10 N
Substituting values ⎨ 3
⎪⎩L 10 mm 10 10 m
1 10
U 100
2 1000
U = 0.5 J
12. A wire of length L and cross-sectional area A is made of material of Young’s modulus Y. The work done in
stretching the wire by an amount x is
et
1
W Fx
∵
.n
2
e
iv
at
FL
and Y
re
Ax
nc
ar
YAx
.le
F
L
w
w
w
1 ⎛ YAx ⎞
W x
2 ⎜⎝ L ⎟⎠
1 YAx 2
W
2 L
13. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.01% when subjected to a normal uniform pressure of 100 atm. The
Bulk modulus of its material is
(1) 1.01 × 1011 Nm–2 (2) 1.01 × 1012 Nm–2 (3) 1.01 × 1010 Nm–2 (4) 1.0 × 1013 Nm–2
Sol. Answer (1)
V P
We know
V B
Substituting values
0.01
V
100 100
1.01 105 {1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa or Nm–2}
V B
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14. What is the percentage increase in length of a wire of diameter 2.5 mm, stretched by a force of 100 kg wt?
Young’s modulus of elasticity of wire = 12.5 × 1011 dyne/cm2
(1) 0.16% (2) 0.32% (3) 0.08% (4) 0.12%
Sol. Answer (1)
FL L F
Y Percentage increase 100 100
AL L AY
2.5
Diameter = 2.5 mm d m
1000
d 2 ⎧1 dyne 0.1 N ⎫
Area Y = 12.5 × 1011 dyne/cm2 ⎨ ⎬
4 ⎩ cm2 m2 ⎭
(2.5)2
A F = 100 × 10 = 1000 N
4
1000 L L
100
3.14 (2.5)2 L
12.5 1011 0.1
4 (1000)2
et
= 0.16% e .n
15. Two exactly similar wires of steel and copper are stretched by equal forces. If the total elongation is 2 cm,
iv
then how much is the elongation in steel and copper wire respectively? Given, Ysteel = 20 × 1011 dyne/cm2,
at
re
(1) 1.25 cm; 0.75 cm (2) 0.75 cm; 1.25 cm (3) 1.15 cm; 0.85 cm (4) 0.85 cm; 1.15 cm
ar
.le
FL
x
AY
∵ F, A, L are same only material is different
We can say
1
x
Y
Y2 x1 ⎧ Where
⎪
Y1 x2
⎪Y2 Ysteel
⎪
Substituting values ⎨Y1 Ycopper
⎪
⎪ x1 elongation in copper x
20 1011 x ⎪⎩ x 2 x
11
2
12 10 2x
x = 1.25 cm
So xcopper = 1.25 cm, xsteel = 0.75 cm
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Stress
Stress
Stress
Stress
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Strain Strain
Strain Strain
Sol. Answer (3)
In elastomers stress varies exponentially with strain e.g. Rubber
Stress
Strain
17. A steel rod has a radius 10 mm and a length of 1.0 m. A force stretches it along its length and produces a
strain of 0.32%. Young’s modulus of the steel is 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2. What is the magnitude of the force stretching
the rod?
(1) 100.5 kN (2) 201 kN (3) 78 kN (4) 150 kN
Sol. Answer (2)
Strain = 0.32% We know
et
.n
L FL
e
100 0.32 L
iv
L AY
at
re
L 0.32 ⎛ L ⎞
F ⎜ ⎟ A Y
nc
L 100 ⎝ L ⎠
ar
2
⎛ 10 ⎞
.le
⎝ 1000 ⎠
w
w
2
0.32 ⎛ 10 ⎞ 11
Y = 2 × 1011 Nm2 F 3.14 ⎜ ⎟ 2 10
100 ⎝ 1000 ⎠
F = 201 kN
18. The proportional limit of steel is 8 × 108 N/m2 and its Young’s modulus is 2 × 1011 N/m2. The maximum
elongation, a one metre long steel wire can be given without exceeding the elastic limit is
(1) 2 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 1 mm (4) 8 mm
Sol. Answer (2)
At proportional limit
Stress strain
Stress = Y × strain {Y = Young's Modulus}
L ⎧Stress 8 108 N/m2
Stress = Y × ⎪⎪
L 11 2
⎨Y 2 10 N/m
Substituting values ⎪L 1 m
⎪⎩
8 108 1
L
2 1011
4 mm = L
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19. In a series combination of copper and steel wires of same length and same diameter, a force is applied at
one of their ends while the other end is kept fixed. The combined length is increased by
2 cm. The wires will have
(1) Same stress and same strain (2) Different stress and different strain
(3) Different stress and same strain (4) Same stress and different strain
Sol. Answer (4)
F L
Stress = Strain =
A L
et
(4) Elastic forces are not conservative
.n
Sol. Answer (1)
e
iv
at
Since at every value of force material is not able to gain its shape. Therefore elastic forces are not always
re
conservative.
nc
ar
21. A metallic rod of length l and cross-sectional area A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the rod
.le
1 1
(1) y (2) (3) y2 (4)
y y2
1 ⎧ L
W= × force × elongation ⎨Force AY
2 ⎩ L
1 L
W= A Y L
2 L
1 AY
W= L2
2 L
W L2
22. The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease in
the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is
(1) 1% (2) 2% (3) 2.5% (4) 4%
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Lateral strain
∵ A r2
Longitudinal strain
r / r A 2 r
0.5 So
l / l A r
4 r
Substitute r/r = 2/100 2
100 r
l 4 2 r
l 100 100 r
l
% increase 100 4%
l
23. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of same length and the same material is shown in figure. The
thinnest wire is represented by line
Load
D C
B
et
A .n
e
iv
O
Elongation
at
re
nc
For the same load wire with maximum elongation has minimum cross-section area
w
w
w
FL D
As x
Load (F)
AY C
B
1 A
F, L, Y are fixed so x
A
O
OA is the thinnest. Elongation (x)
24. A rod of uniform cross-sectional area A and length L has a weight W. It is suspended vertically from a fixed
support. If Young’s modulus for rod is Y, then elongation produced in rod is
WL WL
(1) (2)
YA 2YA
WL 3WL
(3) (4)
4YA 4YA
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L
Center of mass is at distance from top so it can be assumed for easy calculation that W weight is hanged
2
L
to a length string
2
L/2
FL
Now use L L
AY
W
W L
L
2 AY
25. If in case A, elongation in wire of length L is l, then for same wire elongation in case B will be
L
W W
B
W
et
A
.n
(1) 4l (2) 2l (3) l (4) l/2
e
iv
Since tension in both cases is same and all other parametrs (Y, A, L) are also same
nc
26. In the given figure, if the dimensions of the two wires are same but materials are different, then Young’s modulus
w
is
w
w
A
Load
Extension
(1) More for A than B (2) More for B than A (3) Equal for A and B (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
At same value of load
A
A has less elongation than B ...(1)
Load B
FL ⎧∵ L, A are same ⎫
L ⎨ ⎬ L
AY ⎩ F Load is also taken same ⎭
EA EB
1
So L ...(2) Extension
Y
Using conditions (1) and (2)
We can say
YA > YB {Young's modulus of A greater than B}
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⎡1 1⎤ P ⎧ Where
⎢ ⎥ ⎪ 8 2
⎣ 2 1 ⎦ B ⎪P 2 10 N/m
⎪ 9 2
⎨B 8 10 N/m
Substitute value's ⎪ 11.4 g/cc
⎪ 1
⎡1 1 ⎤ 2 108 ⎪2 ?
⎢ ⎥ ⎩
⎣ 2 114 ⎦ 8 109
28. Two wires A and B of same material have radii in the ratio 2 : 1 and lengths in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of
the normal forces required to produce the same change in the lengths of these two wires is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2:1 (3) 1:2 (4) 1:4
Sol. Answer (1)
et
.n
FL
x {∵ x, Y same}
e
From
iv
AY
at
L L
re
We using F 2
nc
A r
ar
2
.le
F L r2 ⎛ L ⎞ ⎛r ⎞
So 1 21 2 ⎜ 1 ⎟ ⎜ 2 ⎟
w
F2 r1 L2 ⎝ L2 ⎠ ⎝ r1 ⎠
w
w
F1 1
We get or F1 : F2 : : 1 : 1
F2 1
29. For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times its modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 1.2 (4) 2.4
Sol. Answer (1)
Y = 3B [1 – 2] ...(1) ⎧ Where
⎪Y Young's modulus
Y = 2.4B (given) ...(2) ⎪
⎨
Using both (1) and (2) ⎪B Bulk's modulus
⎪⎩ Poisson's ratio
2.4 B
1 2
3B
0.2 =
30. When the temperature of a gas is 20°C and pressure is changed from P1 = 1.01 × 105 Pa to P2 = 1.165 ×
105 Pa, then the volume changes by 10%. The Bulk modulus is
(1) 1.55 × 105 Pa (2) 1.01 × 105 Pa (3) 1.4 × 105 Pa (4) 0.115 × 105 Pa
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V P
⎧V 10% of V (∵ Pressure increases volume must
V B ⎪
⎪ decreases by 10% so we will use a +ve sign)
Substituting the values ⎪⎪If V 100 cc
⎨⇒ V 10 cc
10 (1.165 106 1.01 106 ) ⎪
⎪P P2 P1
100 B ⎪
⎪⎩ 1.165 105 1.01 105
1 .155 105
10 B
B = 1.55 × 105 Pa
31. The stress versus strain graph for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA and YB
are the Young’s moduli of the materials, then
y
A
Stress
60° 30°
x
et
Strain .n
e
iv
Y = tan
ar
= 3 1/ 3
w
w
YA = 3YB
33. The length of wire, when M1 is hung from it, is l1 and is l2 with both M1 and M2 hanging. The natural length of
wire is
M2
M1
M1 M 2 l1 M1l 2 l1 l 2
(1) (l1 l 2 ) l1 (2) (3) (4) l1l 2
M2 M1 M 2 2
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FL
Using l
AY
M1 g l
(l1 l ) ...(1)
AY
(M1 M2 ) g l
(l 2 l ) ...(2)
AY
l1 l M1
l 2 l M1 M2
et
M1
l (l1 l 2 ) l1
.n
M2
e
iv
at
re
34. When a load of 10 kg is suspended on a metallic wire, its length increase by 2 mm. The force constant of
nc
the wire is
ar
(1) 3 104 N/m 2.5 103 N/m 5 104 N/m 7.5 103 N/m
.le
Force F ⎧F 10 kg 100 N
Force constant (K) ⎨
Elongation x ⎩ x 2 mm 0.002 m
Substituting values
100
K 5 10 4 N/m
0.002
35. A rod of length l and radius r is held between two rigid walls so that it is not allowed to expand. If its
temperature is increased, then the force developed in it is proportional to
(1) L (2) 1/L (3) r2 (4) r–2
Sol. Answer (3)
(L) Thermal expansion = L Q
Where L = Length original
radius = r
= Coeffcient of linear expansion
Q = Change in temperature L
Or we can say
L L
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L
F AY ∵ Y is constant
L
L
So F r2
L
Also L L
So F only proportional to r2
36. If the temperature of a wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1 cm2 is increased from 0° C to 80°C
and is not allowed to increase in length, then force required for it is {Y = 1010 N/m2, = 10–6/°C}
(1) 80 N (2) 160 N (3) 400 N (4) 120 N
Sol. Answer (1)
Thermal expansion would be = L T
Where L = original length
= coefficient of linear expansion
T = Change in temperature
So substituting values
et
L = 2 × 10–6 × 80
e .n
iv
L = 1.6 × 10–4 m
at
re
FL
Now L
nc
AY
ar
.le
L AY
w
F
L
w
w
Substitute values
1.6 10 4 1010 1
F
2 10000
80 N = F
37. Energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire having Young’s modulus Y and stress ‘S’ is
YS S 2Y S2 S
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2Y 2Y
Sol. Answer (3)
1
U stress strain
2
1 stress
stress {∵ Stress = Y strain}
2 Y
1 S2
2 Y
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1
Elastic potential energy = × force × elongation
2
1 1
200 0.1 J
2 1000
39. Work done by restoring force in a string within elastic limit is –10 J. Maximum amount of heat produced in
the string is
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 5J (4) 15 J
Sol. Answer (1)
Within elastic limit there is no loss of energy in deforming because no permanent deformation.
We can say
Work done by external force = heat produced
Or (–)ve of work done by restoring force = heat produced
–1 × –10 J = H
10 J = H
et
e .n
iv
40. The work done per unit volume to stretch the length of area of cross-section 2 mm2 by 2% will be
at
re
[Y = 8 1010 N/m2]
nc
W = F x.... ⎧ AY ⎫
⎨F x ⎬
⎩ L ⎭
AY
W= × x2
L
Multiply and divide by L
We get
Volume Y
W x 2
L2
Cross multiply (L A) volume
2
W ⎛ x ⎞
Y ⎜ ⎟
LA
⎝ L ⎠
2
⎛ 2 ⎞
8 1010 ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 100 ⎠
= 32 MJ/m3
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43. Figure shows graph between stress and strain for a uniform wire at two different temperatures. Then
et
.n
T2
e
Stress
iv
at
T1
re
nc
ar
.le
(0, 0) Strain
w
w
44. Two different types of rubber are found to have the stress-strain curves as shown. Then
Stress
Stress
A B
(1) A is suitable for shock absorber (2) B is suitable for shock absorber
(3) B is suitable for car tyres (4) None of these
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P
Ratio
P
7
of diatomic gas 1.4
5
et
46. A uniform cubical block is subjected to volumetric compression, which decreases its each side by 2%. The
e .n
Bulk strain produced in it is
iv
at
Volume = (side)3
.le
v = (a)3
w
w
v 3a a
w
⎧ ⎫
So ⎨given 2%⎬
v a ⎩ a ⎭
v
3 2 Side decreases so we used (–)ve sign
v
= –6%
We know
v P
v B
Substituting value of v/v
6 P
100 B
47. When a rubber ball is taken to the bottom of a sea of depth 1400 m, its volume decreases by 2%. The Bulk
modulus of rubber ball is [density of water is 1 g cc and g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 7 108 N/m2 (2) 6 108 N/m2 (3) 14 108 N/m2 (4) 9 108 N/m2
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2 14000000
100 B
B = 7 × 108 N/m2
48. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.02%, when subjected to a normal uniform pressure of
50 atmosphere. The Bulk modulus of its material is
(1) 1 × 1011 N/m2 (2) 2 × 1010 N/m2 (3) 2.5 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 1 × 1013 N/m2
Sol. Answer (3)
v P ⎧ v 0.02 ⎫
⎨ ⎬
v B ⎩v 100 ⎭
P = 50 atm = 50 × 1.01 × 105 Pa or N/m2
100
So B = 50 × 1.01 × 105 ×
et
0.02 e .n
= 2.5 × 1010 N/m2
iv
at
49. A steel plate of face area 1 cm2 and thickness 4 cm is fixed rigidly at the lower surface. A tangential force
re
nc
F = 10 kN is applied on the upper surface as shown in the figure. The lateral displacement x of upper surface
w.r.t. the lower surface is (Modulus of rigidity for steel is 8 × 1011 N/m2)
ar
.le
x
w
F x
w
w
4 cm
(1) 5 × 10–5 m (2) 5 × 10–6 m (3) 2.5 × 10–3 m (4) 2.5 × 10–4 m
Sol. Answer (2)
Force Length FL
Modulus of rigidity (G)
Area Lateral displacement A x
F = 10 kN = 10 × 103 N
L = 4 cm = 0.04 m
A = 1 cm2 = 1 × 10–4 m2
G = 8 × 1011 N/m2
Substituting values A = 1 cm2
x
F
10 103 0.04
8 1011 h = 4 cm
1 10 4 x
10 103 0.04
x 5 10 6 m
1 10 4 8 1011
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51. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 3 × 10–3, what will be
percentage increase in volume?
(1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 5% (4) 0%
Sol. Answer (4)
Lateral strain
0.5
Longitudinal strain
et
v
0
be different as both quantities cannot increase
.n
v
e
iv
No change in volume
at
re
52. When a uniform metallic wire is stretched the lateral strain produced in it is . If and Y are the Poisson’s
nc
ratio and Young’s modulus for wire, then elastic potential energy density of wire is
ar
.le
2 2 2
2 2
w
1
Elastic potential energy density = × Y × (strain longitudinal)2 ...(1)
2
Lateral strain
Also Poisson's ratio
Longitudinal strain
Longitudinal strain
Longitudinal strain
Substituting the value in equation (1)
2
1 ⎛⎞ 1Y 2
E.P.E = Y ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝⎠ 22
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(1) Change in shape – Longitudinal strain (2) Change in volume – Shear strain
nc
ar
(3) Change in length – Bulk strain (4) Reciprocal of Bulk modulus – Compressibility
.le
w
B = bulk modulus
1
and is defined as compressibility
B
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. Two wires of equal length and cross-sectional area are suspended as shown in figure. Their Young's modulii
are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s modulii will be
Y1 Y2 Y1 Y2
(1) Y1 + Y2 (2) (3) (4) Y1 Y2
Y1 Y2 2
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2. A uniform rod of length L has a mass per unit length and area of cross-section A. If the Young’s modulus
of the rod is Y. Then elongation in the rod due to its own weight is
et
M = L .n L
e
iv
FL / 2 1 L2 g
x
at
AY 2 AY A,Y
re
nc
ar
3. When a small mass m is suspended at lower end of an elastic wire having upper end fixed with ceiling. There
.le
is loss in gravitational potential energy, let it be x, due to extension of wire, mark correct option
w
(1) The lost energy can be recovered (2) The lost energy is irrecoverable
w
w
x x
(3) Only amount of energy is recoverable (4) Only amount of energy is recoverable
2 3
Sol. Answer (3)
U (loss in gravitational potential energy) = mg × l
U = x (given) ⎧ Where
⎪
So x = mg × l ⎨m mass suspended
⎪l elongation in wire
⎩
1
Elastic potential energy gained Force Elongation
2
1
Mg l
2
1
Mg l ∵ Mg l x
2
1
x
2
x
So only amount of energy is recoverable which is stored as elastic potential energy in wire.
2
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4. A solid sphere of radius R made of a material of bulk modulus B surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical
container. A massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid. Find the fractional decrease in the
⎛ R ⎞
radius of the sphere ⎜ ⎟ when a mass M is placed on the piston to compress the liquid
⎝ R ⎠
Mg Mg Mg Mg
(1) (2) (3) (4)
AB 4 AB 3 AB 2 AB
Force Mg Mg Piston
P ...(1)
Area A
And we know, R
V P
V B
V Mg ⎡ Mg ⎤ ⎧ V
⎢∵ P A ⎥ ...(2) ⎪ Where V Fractional decrease in volume
V AB ⎣ ⎦ ⎪
⎨ P Pressure increased
⎪
et
4 3 ⎧ Where ⎫ B Bulk modulus
Volume of a sphere is V r ⎨ ⎬ ⎪ .n
3 ⎩r is radius ⎭ ⎩
e
iv
at
V 3R
re
nc
V R
ar
Using (2)
.le
w
Mg R
w
Mg
Fractional decrease in radius is
3 AB
5. A sphere contracts in volume by 0.01% when taken to the bottom of sea 1 km deep. Find Bulk modulus of
the material of sphere
(1) 9.8 × 106 N/m2 (2) 1.2 × 1010 N/m2 (3) 9.8 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 9.8 × 1011 N/m2
Sol. Answer (3)
Pressure at bottom of sea = wgh
w = 1000 kg/m3 = 1 g/cc, g = 9.8 m/s2, h = 1000 m
P = 103 × 9.8 × 1000 N/m2
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So F
L
YA 2
(L x 2 )1/2 L
et
⎧⎛ 1/2 ⎫
⎪ x2 ⎞ ⎪ .n
YA ⎨⎜ 1 2 ⎟ 1⎬
⎜ ⎟
e
L ⎠
⎩⎪⎝ ⎪⎭
iv
at
re
YA ⎨1 2 1⎬ ⎪ 2
⎨ x
ar
⎩⎪ 2L ⎪⎭ ⎪ 2 1
⎩ L
.le
w
w
YAx 2 ⎛
1/2
x2 ⎞ x2
F
w
2L 2 So ⎜ 1 2 ⎟ 1
⎜ L ⎟⎠ 2L2
⎝
⎧in OBC
YAx 2 ⎪
Mg 2 ⎨x Mg
2L2 ⎪⎩ L tan
YAx 2 x
Mg 2 2
∵ is small, tan sin
2L L
We get,
1/3
⎛ MgL3 ⎞ x
⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ x So
⎝ YA ⎠ L
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7. A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported symmetrically by three wire each of 2 m long. These at each end are
of copper and middle one is of steel. Young’s modulus of elasticity for copper and steel are 110 × 109 N/m2
and 190 × 109 N/m2 respectively. If each wire is to have same tension, ratio of their diameters will be
11 19 30 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
19 11 11 30
Sol. Answer (2)
Tension is same (given)
From free body diagram 2 m Copper Steel Copper
3T = 150 N
T = 50 N 15 kg
Since the bar has to be supported symmetrically
Therefore extension in each wire will be same T T T
FL
We know x
AY
Compare 1 copper wire with another steel wire
150 N
FL FL
⎧ Where,
ACYC ASYS ⎪
⎪ AC Area of copper wire
⎪
et
AS YC ⎨YC Young's modulus copper
.n
AC YS ⎪ A Area of steel wire
e
⎪ S
iv
ar
9
4 dC2 190 10
.le
4
w
dS 11
w
⎨
dC 19 ⎩dC diameter of copper wire
dC 19
dS 11
8. A solid cube of copper of edge 10 cm subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7 × 106 pascal. If Bulk modulus
of copper is 140 GPa, then contraction in its volume will be
(1) 5 × 10–8 m3 (2) 4 × 10–8 m3 (3) 2 × 10–8 m3 (4) 108 m3
Sol. Answer (1)
Initial volume V = (side)3 = (10 × 10–2)3
P = 7 × 106 Pa
B = 140 × 109 Pa
We know
V P
{–V = Contraction in volume}
V B
V 7 106
10 3 140 109
–V = 5 × 10–8 m3
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13 Fl Fl 9Fl 3Fl
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 AY AY AY AY
Fl 2Fl 3Fl
x1 , x2 , x3
AY 2 AY 3 AY
3Fl
So x
AY
10. A force F is applied along a rod of transverse sectional area A. The normal stress to a section PQ inclined
to transverse section is
P
F
Q
et
F sin F
.nF F
cos sin2 cos2
e
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A A 2A A
iv
at
P F1 = F cos
P
ar
.le
F A F
w
O Q
w
w
O Q
Fnormal F
Stress 1 Crossectional area PO = A
Area Area
F cos PO A
Crossectional area of PQ
A / cos cos cos
F
cos2
A
11. The strain energy stored in a body of volume V due to shear strain is (shear modulus is )
2V V 2 2V 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) V
2 2 2
Sol. Answer (4)
Shear stress
Shear modulus
Shear stress
Shear stress
= Shear stress
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1
Strain energy per unit volume = × shear stress × shear strain
2
Strain energy 1
(Cross multiply volume)
Volume 2
1 2
Strain energy = V
2
12. A vertical hanging bar of length l and mass m per unit length carries a load of mass M at lower end, its upper
end is clamped to a rigid support. The tensile stress a distance x from support is (A area of cross-section
of bar)
Mg mg (l x ) Mg Mg mgl (M m ) gx
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A A A Al
Sol. Answer (1)
Tension at point
Tensile stress =
Area
x
Tension at distance x from top would be the amount of force
acting due to all the weight below it l
M
at
m(l x )g Mg
re
So Tensile stress
nc
A
ar
.le
13. A metal wire having Poisson’s ratio 1/4 and Young’s modulus 8 1010 N/m2 is stretched by a force, which
w
produces a lateral strain of 0.02% in it. The elastic potential energy stored per unit volume in wire is
w
[in J/m3]
w
(1) 2.56 × 104 (2) 1.78 × 106 (3) 3.72 × 102 (4) 2.18 × 105
Sol. Answer (1)
Lateral strain
Poisson's ratio
Longitudinal strain
⎧Y (Young's modulus)
0.02 / 100 1 ⎪ 10
⎪⎪ 8 10 (given)
l / l 4
⎨ 1
⎪Poission's ratio (given)
l 0.08 ⎪ 4
⎪⎩Lateral strain 0.02% (given)
l 100
1
U (Elastic potential energy per unit volume = × Y × (Longitudinal strain))
2
Substituting values
2
1 ⎛ 0.08 ⎞
U 8 1010 ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 100 ⎠
U = 2.56 × 104 J/m3
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P
(1) P (2) (3) P (4) (1 – )P
Sol. Answer (1)
P
B ⎧ Where,
V / V ⎪P increase in pressure
⎪
V ⎪⎪ V {∵ P V }
B V
V / V ⎨
⎪ B Bulk modulus
And V = P ⎪V Change in volume
⎪
So B = P ⎪⎩ V Initial volume
15. Which of the following curve represents the correctly distribution of elongation (y) along heavy rod under its
own weight L length of rod, x distance of point from lower end?
y y y y
⎧ Where,
at
⎪
nc
2Y ⎪
⎨Y Young's modulus
.le
⎪
w
⎪
⎩ x Distance of point from lower end
y
Elongation
x
Length
16. The length of a metal wire is l1, when tension in it is T1 and l2 when its tension is T2. The natural length of
the wire is
l1T2 l 2T1 l 2T2 l1T1 l1 l 2
(1) l1 l 2 (2) (3) (4)
T2 T1 T1 T2 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Let natural length of wire = l
Case I : when tension in wire is T1
T1l ⎧ FL ⎫
l1 l ...(1) ⎨l ⎬
AY ⎩ AY ⎭
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T2 l
l2 l ...(2)
AY
Dividing (2) by (1)
l 2 l T2
l1 l T1
l1T2 l 2T1
l
T2 T1
17. A wire can sustain a weight of 15 kg. If it cut into four equal parts, then each part can sustain a weight
(1) 5 kg (2) 45 kg (3) 15 kg (4) 30 kg
Sol. Answer (3)
F
Stress
A
1
et
So Stress .n
A
e
iv
Since, we are not reducing the crossectional area of the wire. Therefore each part can still sustain same force
at
i.e, 15 kg weight.
re
nc
18. Two wire A and B are stretched by same force. If, for A and B, YA : YB = 1 : 2, rA : rB = 3 : 1 and lA : lB = 4 : 1,
ar
.le
⎛ l A ⎞
w
FL
x
AY
For wire A For wire B
F LA F LB
LA ...(1) LB ...(2)
rA2 YA rB2 YB
2
LA F L r 2 Y L ⎛r ⎞ Y
2 A B B A ⎜ B ⎟ B
LB rA YA F LB LB ⎝ rA ⎠ YA
2
LA 4 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 2 8
⎜ ⎟
LB 1 ⎝3⎠ 1 9
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3F 2F F
l l
3F 2F F
l l
Net force L (F 2F )L FL
x1 x2
AY AE AE
(3 2)FL
AE
5FL
et
.n
AE
e
iv
So net elongation
at
x = x1 + x2
re
nc
5FL FL 4FL
ar
AE AE AE
.le
w
w
20. A metal ring of initial radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted onto a wooden disc of radius
w
AYR AY (R r ) Y ⎛R r⎞ Yr
(1) (2) (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4)
r r A⎝ r ⎠ AR
Sol. Answer (2)
r – radius of metal ring
R – radius of wooden disc
Given
R>r
So 2R > 2r
To get the metal ring fitted on wooden disc the circumfrence should be increased by (2R – 2r) of metal ring
L = 2(R – r)
F = tension developed in ring
T (2r ) ⎛ FL ⎞
2(R r ) ⎜ L AY ⎟
AY ⎝ ⎠
AY (R r )
T
r
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21. The normal density of gold is and its modulus is B. The increase in density of piece of gold when pressure
P is applied uniformly from all sides
P B P B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2B 2P BP BP
Sol. Answer (3)
We know
⎧V Change in volume
⎪
V P ⎨P Pressure applied
...(1) ⎪B Bulk modulus
V B ⎩
M
And ...(2) ⎧ Density
V ⎪
⎨M Mass
From (2) ⎪V Volume
⎩
M M
V V V
M V
V V V
1
V [From eq. (2)]
1
et
V .n
e
1
iv
B
at
P
nc
P
ar
.le
BP
w
w
22. A wire of length 5 m is twisted through 30° at free end. If the radius of wire is 1 mm, the shearing strain in
w
the wire is
(1) 30° (2) 0.36 (3) 1° (4) 0.18°
Sol. Answer (2)
r
⎧ Where
L
⎪ Angle of shear
⎪⎪
1 10 3 30 ⎨ Angleof twist
⎪r Radius of rod
5
⎪
= 6 × 10–3 ⎪⎩l length or rod
= 0.36'
23. One end of uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached rigidly to a point in roof and a weight W1 is
3L
suspended from the lower end. If A is area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in the wire at a height
4
from its lower end is
⎛ W⎞ ⎛ 3W ⎞
W1 ⎜ W1 ⎟ ⎜ W1 ⎟ W1 W
⎝ 4 ⎠ ⎝ 4 ⎠
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A A A A
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Tension at point
Stress
Area of cross-section
24. Two wires A and B of same length and of same material have radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their one end is
fixed with a rigid support and at other end equal twisting couple is applied. Then ratio of the angle of twist at
the end of A and the angle of twist at the end of B will be
et
4
.n
A (rB )4 ⎛ r2 ⎞
e
⎜ ⎟
iv
B (rA )4 ⎝ r1 ⎠
at
re
25. A uniform wire of length L and radius r is twisted by an angle . If modulus of rigidity of the wire is , then
nc
2L2 4L 4L2 2L
w
Sr 4 2 ⎧ Where,
Work done ⎪
4L ⎨ Angle of twist
⎪S Modulus of rigidity = 4
Substituting values ⎩
r 4 2
U
4L
26. What is called the ratio of the breaking stress and the working stress?
(1) Elastic fatigue (2) Elastic after effect (3) Yield point (4) Power of safety
Sol. Answer (4)
Breaking stress
n
Working stress
n = power of safely
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27. If is the depression produced in a beam of length L, breadth b and thickness d, when a load is placed at
the mid point, then
1 1
(1) L3 (2) 3
(3) (4) All of these
b d
WL3
4Y bd 3
W
So we can say L3
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area of cross
section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of
the wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio
of [Re-AIPMT-2015]
et
.n
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1:2 (3) 2:1 (4) 4:1
e
iv
2. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and density
ar
of water is 103 kg/m3. What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?
.le
w
[AIPMT-2015]
w
w
(1) 1.4 × 10–2 (2) 0.8 × 10–2 (3) 1.0 × 10–2 (4) 1.2 × 10–2
P V P
B ⇒
V / V V B
V hdg
V B
2700 103 10
1
45.4 1011
= 1.2 × 10–2
3. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant force F, the extension
produced in the wire is l . Which of the following graphs is a straight line? [AIPMT-2014]
1 1
(1) l versus (2) l versus l 2 (3) l versus (4) l versus l
l l2
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FL2
L
VY
L L2
Thus, L versus L2 is straight line.
4. The following four wires of length L and radius r are made of the same material. Which of these will have the
largest extension, when the same tension is applied? [NEET-2013]
(1) L = 400 cm, r = 0.8 mm (2) L = 300 cm, r = 0.6 mm
(3) L = 200 cm, r = 0.4 mm (4) L = 100 cm, r = 0.2 mm
Sol. Answer (4)
We know
FL FL
x
et
AY r 2Y .n
e
L
iv
x
at
r2
re
nc
x directly proportional to L
ar
L 400 10
6250
r2 (0.8)2
L 300 10
8333.33
r2 (0.6)2
L 200 10
2
12,500
r (0.4)2
L 100 10
2
25,000
r (0.2)2
L
For option (4) we are getting maximum value of
r2
x also maximum for L = 100 cm and r = 0.2 mm
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5. A rope 1 cm in diameter breaks, if the tension in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that may be given
to similar rope of diameter 3 cm is
(1) 500 N (2) 3000 N (3) 4500 N (4) 2000 N
Sol. Answer (3)
⎡ FL ⎤
Tension (radius)2 ⎢ x 2 ⎥
⎣ r Y ⎦
2
T1 ⎛ r1 ⎞
⎜ ⎟ So T r2
T2 ⎝ r2 ⎠
x = 4500 N
T2 = 4500 N
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6. A wire of length L and radius r fixed at one end and a force F applied to the other end produces an extension
et
l. The extension produced in another wire of the same material of length 2L and radius 2r by a force 2F, is
e .n
iv
l
at
⎡ FL ⎤
w
FL
L ⎢ x AY ⎥
w
...(1)
r 2Y ⎣ ⎦
w
2F 2L
L
(2r )2Y
FL ⎧ FL ⎫
⎨∵ l from equation 1⎬
r 2Y ⎩ r 2Y ⎭
L' = L
7. The increase in pressure required to decrease the 200 L volume of a liquid by 0.008% in kPa is (Bulk modulus
of the liquid = 2100 MPa is)
(1) 8.4 (2) 84 (3) 92.4 (4) 168
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0.008
200 0.016 L
100
B = 2100 MPa = 21 × 108 Pa
We know
V P
V B
0.016 P
200 21 108
168 × 103 Pa = P
168 kPa = P
et
Y = 2(1 + ) .n
⎧ Where,
e
⎪Y Young's modulus
iv
⎪
⎨
at
⎪ Shear modulus
re
9. A 5 m long aluminium wire (Y = 7 × 1010 Nm–2) of diameter 3 mm supports a 40 kg mass. In order to have
w
the same elongation in the copper wire (Y = 12 × 1010 Nm–2) of the same length under the same weight, the
w
w
FL 4FL
x1 ⎧F 400 N
AY d 2Y ⎪L 5 m
⎪
⎨
Substituting values ⎪d 3 mm
⎪Y 7 1010 Nm2
4 400 5 ⎩
x1 ...(1)
(3)2 7 1010
4 400 5 4 400 5
2 10
(3) 7 10 d 2 12 1010
21
d 2.3 mm
2
10. Two wires of same material and radius have their lengths in ratio 1 : 2. If these wires are stretched by the
same force, the strain produced in the two wires will be in the ratio
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1:1 (3) 1:2 (4) 1:4
Sol. Answer (2)
l
Strain
l
We know
FL
l
AY
l F F
et
.n
l AY r 2Y
e
iv
For wire 1
at
l1
re
F
S1 strain 2 ...(1)
nc
L r Y
ar
For wire 2
.le
l 2
w
F
S2 strain ...(2)
w
2L r 2Y
w
Therefore,
S1 F r 2Y 1
Ratio of strains
S2 r 2Y F 1
1:1
11. A steel wire of cross-sectional area 3 10–6 m2 can withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. Young’s modulus
of steel is 2 × 1011 Nm–2. The maximum mass the wire can hold is (take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 40 kg (2) 60 kg (3) 80 kg (4) 100 kg
Sol. Answer (2)
l F
Strain ⎧Given,
l AY ⎪ l
Substituting values ⎪⎪ 103
⎨ l
F ⎪ A 3 106 m2
103 ⎪
3 10 6
2 1011 ⎪⎩Y 2 1011 Nm2
600 N = F
F 600
Therefore maximum mass 60 kg
g 10
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And
C = restoring couple per unit twist for solid cylinder
S r 4
C
2L
C r22 r12
1
et
Hence hollow cylinder more stronger than solid one.
C r22 r12 .n
e
iv
at
We know
w
w
V P
V B
P V
B
V
V (Change in volume) = 0
Put V = 0
B = (Infinity)
14. A copper rod length L and radius r is suspended from the ceilling by one of its ends. What will be elongation
of the rod due to its own weight when ρ and Y are the density and Young’s modulus of the copper respectively?
L
wire of length , Young's modulus Y,
2
= density of wire, W = Mg = × r2L × g L/2, Y
et
Less stretchable means more elastic
e .n
So, steel is least stretchable
iv
at
Most elastic.
re
nc
16. When a wire of length 10 m is subjected to a force of 100 N along its length, the lateral strain produced is
ar
0.01 10–3 m. The Poisson’s ratio was found to be 0.4. If the area of cross-section of wire is 0.025 m2, its
.le
Young’s modulus is
w
w
(1) 1.6 × 108 Nm–2 (2) 2.5 × 1010 Nm–2 (3) 1.25 × 1011 Nm–2 (4) 16 × 109 Nm–2
w
Lateral strain
Poisson's ratio
Longitudinal strain
l F
l
AY
Longitudinal
strain
Substituting values
0.4 100
Y 3
1.6 108 Nm2
0.01 10 0.025
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mgl FL ⎤ Wire 1
⎡
l1 ⎢ x AY ⎥
r 2Y ⎣ ⎦
Let elongation in wire 2 be = l 2 Wire 2
mg 2l
l 2 Mg
(2r 2 )Y
mgl mgl
2
r Y 2r 2Y
3mgl
et
.n
2r 2Y
e
iv
at
18. A cube of side 40 mm has its upper face displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of 8 kN. The shearing
re
modulus of cube is
nc
(1) 2 109 Nm–2 (2) 4 109 Nm–2 (3) 8 109 Nm–2 (4) 16 109 Nm–2
ar
.le
F h
w
⎪
Substituting values ⎪F 8 kN 8000 N
⎪ 6 2
⎨ A 40 40 1600 10 m
8000 40 10 3 ⎪ 3
⎪ x 0.1 mm 0.1 10 m
1600 10 6 0.1 10 3 ⎪h 40 103 m
⎩
= 2 × 109 Nm–2
l r
19. A rod of length l and radius r is joined to a rod of length and radius of same material. The free end of
2 2
small rod is fixed to a rigid base and the free end of larger rod is given a twist of θ°, the twist angle at the
joint will be
5 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 6 9
Sol. Answer (4)
Torque will be same
× Restoring couple per unit twist will be same for both the rods
Sr 4
2L
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We can use
Sr14 Sr24
1 2
2L1 2L2 ⎧given
⎪
⎪r1 r
⎪
r14 r4 ⎨r2 r / 2
1 2 2 ⎪l l
L1 L2
⎪l
Substituting values ⎩⎪l 2 l / 2
r4 (r / 2)4
1 2
L l /2
2
1
8
Also 1 + 2 = (given)
2
2
8
8
2
9
et
20. The Young’s modulus of the material of a wire is 2 × 1010 Nm–2. If the elongation strain is 1%, then the energy
e .n
stored in the wire per unit volume is Jm–3 is
iv
at
1
U Y (strain)2
.le
(given)
2
w
w
⎛ l 1 ⎞
w
21. A wire is stretched under a force. If the wire suddenly snaps, the temperature of the wire
(1) Remains the same (2) Decreases
(3) Increases (4) First decreases then increases
Sol. Answer (3)
We know
FL ⎧ Where,
L and L = L ⎪ Change in temperature
AY ⎪⎪
⎨ Coefficeince of linear expansion
Equating both ⎪L Elongation
⎪
FL ⎪⎩L Original length
= L F
AY
So whenever stretching is there will be (+)ive hence temperature will increase.
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1 YA 2 1 YA 2 1 YI 2 1 YA 2
(1) x (2) x (3) x (4) x
2 l 3 l 2 A 2 l2
Sol. Answer (1)
1
Energy density per unit volume (strain)2 Y
2
⎧ Where,
Volume = length × area of cross-section ⎪ x
⎪
⎨Strain
⎪ l
1
Energy (total) (strain)2 Y L A ⎪⎩Y Young's modulus
2
1 x2
Y LA
2 L2
1 YA 2
E x
2 L
23. When a force is applied on a wire of uniform cross-sectional area 3 × 10–6 m2 and length 4 m, the increase
in length is 1 mm. Energy stored in it will be (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)
(1) 6250 J (2) 0.177 J (3)
et
0.075 J (4) 0.150 J
e .n
Sol. Answer (3)
iv
at
1
re
2
ar
1
.le
= × F × x
w
2
w
w
1 YA ⎡ YAx ⎤
= x x ⎢F L ⎥
2 L ⎣ ⎦
Substituting values
24. If in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, longitudinal strain X is produced then the potential energy stored in its unit
volume will be
(1) 0.5 YX2 (2) 0.5 Y2X (3) 2 YX2 (4) YX2
Sol. Answer (1)
1
Potential energy per unit volume × (strain)2 × Young's modulus
2
Substituting data from question
We get
1 2
U X Y
2
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25. A uniform metal rod of 2 mm2 cross-section is heated from 0°C to 20°C. The coefficient of the linear expansion
of the rod is 12 × 10–6/°C. Its Young’s modulus of elasticity is 1011 Nm–2. The energy stored per unit volume
of the rod is
(1) 1440 Jm–3 (2) 15750 Jm–3 (3) 1500 Jm–3 (4) 2880 Jm–3
Sol. Answer (4)
We know
L = L
L
L
L
Also strain
L
Strain = ...(i)
1
Energy stored per unit volume (strain)2Y
2
1
2 2 Y [Using eqn. (i)]
2
1
Substituting values (12 106 )2 (20)2 1011
2
= 2880 Jm–3
et
e .n
iv
26. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, then the
at
re
Lateral strain
0.50
Longitudinal strain
r / r 1
L / L 2
2r L
...(1)
r L
Volume = area × length
V A L
V A L
⎡A r 2 ⎤
V 2r L ⎢ ⎥
⎢ A 2 r ⎥
V r L
⎢⎣ A r ⎥⎦
Using equation (1)
We get
V
0
V
V
So 100 0%
V
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1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) –
2 2 4 4
V 2r L
V r L
V
0 [given]
V
2r L
...(1)
r L
r L
Poisson's ratio ...(2)
r L
et
Using equation (1) in (2) .n
e
iv
r ⎛ r ⎞
2⎜
at
r ⎟
⎝ r ⎠
re
nc
ar
1
.le
2
w
w
w
28. If Young’s modulus of elasticity Y for a material is one and half times its rigidity coefficient η, the Poisson’s
ratio σ will be
2 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 4 3
3
Y [given]
2
=?
And we know
Y = 2(1 + )
3
2(1 )
2
Solving we get
1
4
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SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : Hooke’s law is obeyed only for small values of strain.
R : The deformation beyond elastic limit is called plasticity.
Sol. Answer (2)
Statement (A) is true
Statement (R) is also true
But (R) is not the correct explaination of (A)
Because correct reason is Hooke's law is obeyed in elastic limit only.
et
(R) Is false because strain is change in dimension by original dimension.
.n
e
iv
R : When same deforming force is applied diamond deforms less than rubber.
nc
(A) Is true because modulus of elasticity is more for diamond so less deformation in diamond than rubber when
w
5. A : The railway bridges are declared unfit after their use for a long period.
R : Due to repeated strain the elasticity of material decreases.
Sol. Answer (1)
(A) Is true because after a long use the material weakens and shows dangerous deformation when load is
applied because its elasticity has decreased gradually over the time.
(R) Is true and correct explanation for (A)
6. A : Spring balances show wrong readings after they have been used for a long time.
R : Spring in spring balance temporary losses elasticity due to repeated alternating deforming force.
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Eadiabatic
R: .
Eisothermal
Eadiabatic
at
1
(R) False depression
width
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12. A : Lateral strain is directly proportional to the longitudinal strain within the elastic limit.
R : Poisson’s ratio for a given material at a constant temperature is constant.
Sol. Answer (1)
(A) Is true because,
Lateral strain
Longitudinal strain
13. A : Equal amount of work is done when two identical springs of steel and copper are equally stretched.
R : Both springs have same spring constant.
et
Sol. Answer (4) .n
(A) Is wrong because amount of work done is not same because the spring constants are different.
e
iv
at
(R) Is wrong.
re
nc
R : The graph between potential energy of molecules and separation between them is asymmetric.
w
(A) Is true because when we increase the temperature the average distance between the molecules tend to
increase hence decreasing the modulus of elasticity.
(R) Is true and correct explanation.
15. A : It is the breaking stress and not the breaking strength which depends on the material.
Breaking stress
R : Breaking strength = .
Area
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Chapter 10
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
et
(3) A mixture of liquid and gas only (4) Both liquids and gases
.n
e
Sol. Answer (4)
iv
at
Substances that can flow is called fluid. Thus both liquids and gases are fluids.
re
nc
3. Gauge pressure
(1) May be positive (2) May be negative (3) May be zero (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Gauge pressure depends on the reference chosen, it can be positive, negative or zero.
4. Figure shows two containers P and Q with same base area A and each filled upto same height with same
liquid. Select the correct alternative
A
A
px py
(P) (Q)
(1) px = py (2) px > py (3) py > px (4) Cannot say
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(1) P is equal to p
(2) P is less than p
(3) P is greater than p
(4) P may be less or greater than p depending on the mass of the confined air
Sol. Answer (2) P
Pressure at point A = P (Hydrostatic paradox)
h A p p
and P + wgh = pressure at A = p air
P = p – wgh
et
So, P < p e .n Water
Figure shows a container filled with a liquid of density . Four points A, B, C and D lie on the diametrically opposite
iv
6.
at
points of a circle as shown. Points A and C lie on vertical line and points B and D lie on horizontal line. The
re
incorrect statement is (pA, pB, pC, pD are absolute pressure at the respective points)
nc
ar
.le
A
w
B D
w
w
C
pC p A pC pA
(1) pD = pB (2) pA < pB = pD < pC (3) pD pB (4) pD pB
2 2
Sol. Answer (3)
Points at same height have same pressure, points with height difference say 'h' will have difference of gh.
Let radius of circle is r
pA = p0 + hg p0
pB = pD = p0 + (h + r)g
A h
pC = p0 + (h + 2r)g r
B D r
Then, C
pC + pA = [p0 + (h + 2r)g] – [p0 + hg]
= p0 + hg + 2rg + p0 + hg
= 2[p0 + (h + r)g]
pC pA
p0 (h r )g
2
pC pA
pB pD
2
i.e., option (1), (2) and (4) gives correct statement but incorrect statement is (3)
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75
mercury g water g h
100
m 75
h
w 100
40 75 ⎡ m 40 ⎤
h ⎢∵ (given)⎥
3 100 ⎣ w 3 ⎦
h = 10 m
et
e .n
8. A beaker containing a liquid of density moves up with an acceleration ‘a’. The pressure due to the liquid at a
iv
at
⎛g a⎞
.le
9. A barometer kept in an elevator reads 76 cm when it is at rest. If the elevator goes up with some acceleration, the
reading will be
(1) 76 cm (2) > 76 cm (3) < 76 cm (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (3)
When elevator goes up with some acceleration upward, due to pseudo force acting downwards. Value of g
increases to g'.
If g increases to g', i.e., g' = g + a
∵ P = gh = (9 + a)h' = constant
Then, h' < h
i.e., h' < 76 cm
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10. In a hydraulic jack as shown, mass of the car W = 800 kg, A1 = 10 cm2, A2 = 10 m2. The minimum force F required
to lift the car is
W
F
A2
A1
⎪⎧Take ⎪⎫
et
.n
F = 0.8 N ⎨ 2⎬
e
⎪⎩g 10 m/s ⎪⎭
iv
at
re
11. A wooden cube just floats inside water with a 200 gm mass placed on it. When the mass is removed, the cube
nc
floats with its top surface 2 cm above the water level. What is the side of the cube ?
ar
200 × g = L2 (2 × w × g)
100 = L2 {∵ w = 1} 200 gm L
2 cm
10 cm = L
From the two figures we can see that the 200 gm block L (L –2) cm
is provided with required buoyant force but a part of
cube which is afloat in 2nd figure. L
12. A block of steel of size 5 × 5 × 5 cm3 is weighed in water. If relative density of steel is 7, its apparent weight is
(1) 6 × 5 × 5 × 5 g wt (2) 4 × 4 × 4 × 7 g wt
(3) 5 × 5 × 5 × 7 g wt (4) 4 × 4 × 4 × 6 g wt
Sol. Answer (1)
⎧ Where,
Apparent weight = s vb g – w vb g ⎪ density of steel
⎪ s
= vbg (s – w ) ⎨
⎪w density of water
⎪v volume of block
⎡w 1 ⎩ b
= 5 × 5 × 5 × g × (7 – 1) ⎢ (side side side)
⎣s 7 (given)
= 6 × 5 × 5 × 5 × g wt
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4
13. A block of wood floats in water with th of its volume submerged, but it just floats in another liquid. The density
5
of liquid is (in kg/m3)
(1) 750 (2) 800 (3) 1000 (4) 1250
Sol. Answer (2)
⎧ Where,
4 ⎪v volume of block
v × w × g = vb × b × g ⎪ b
5 b ⎨ 3
⎪w density of water 1000 kg/m
⎪ density of block
w 5 ⎩ b
b 4
4
b 1000 800 kg/m3
5
et
.n
14. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with one fourth of its volume immersed in the liquid. If whole of the system
e
iv
accelerates upward with acceleration g/4, the fraction of volume immersed in the liquid will be
at
re
Upward acceleration just causes the acceleration due to gravity increases by some value, but since the term of 'g'
w
15. A body of density is dropped from rest from a height h into a lake of density , where > . Neglecting all
dissipative forces, the maximum depth to which the body sinks before returning to float on surface
h h h h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 2
P0 gh v gh P0 [P0 = atmospheric pressure]
2 h
2 v 2gh
gh' + gh = gh' ⎡∵ v 2gh ⎤
⎣ ⎦
h
h 3
So, h
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16. A boat carrying a number of stones is floating in a water tank. If the stones are unloaded into water, the water level
in the tank will
(1) Remain unchanged
(2) Rise
(3) Fall
(4) Rise or fall depends on the number of stones unloaded
Sol. Answer (3)
Previously when stones are on the boat they are increasing the weight on the boat and to balance this weight boat
needs to generate buoyancy force by displacing more water, but when stones are removed the boat starts displacing
less amount of water hence the level of water in tank falls.
Decrease in level
17. A block of ice is floating in a liquid of specific gravity 1.2 contained in a beaker. When the ice melts completely, the
level of liquid in the vessel
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remain unchanged (4) First increases then decreases
et
Sol. Answer (1) .n
e
Density of ice is less than water and density of liquid is more than water. So even when ice melts the level will rise.
iv
at
18. Two liquids having densities d1 and d2 are mixed in such a way that both have same mass. The density of the
ar
mixture is
.le
w
d1 d 2 d1 d 2 d1d 2 2d1d 2
w
2 d1d 2
Mmix M M 2d1d 2
dmix
Vmix ⎛ M ⎞ ⎛ M ⎞ d1 d 2
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ d1 ⎠ ⎝ d 2 ⎠
19. A barometer tube reads 75 cm of Hg. If tube is gradually inclined at an angle of 30° with horizontal, keeping the
open end in the mercury container, then find the length of mercury column in the barometer tube
(1) 86.7 cm (2) 150 cm (3) 75 cm (4) 92.5 cm
Sol. Answer (2)
∵ We are not changing the atmospheric pressure, so
height of Hg from the surface should not change.
75 x 75 cm
cos 60 60°
x 30°
x = 150 cm
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⎧ Where,
⎪F Force of Buoyancy
⎪ B
T ⎪⎪L Density of liquid
L v,M ⎨
⎪M Density of metal
⎪M Mass of sphere
⎪
FB ⎪⎩T Tension in string
Mg
T = Mg – Buoyant Force
⎛ M⎞
T = MVg – LVg ⎜ M V ⎟
⎝ ⎠
= (M – L) Vg
3
(10 0.8) 10
10
T = 9.2 × 3 = 27.6 N
et
e .n
iv
21. A rectangular block is 10 cm 10 cm 15 cm in size is floating in water with 10 cm side vertical. If it floats with
at
re
Mass of block remains same, volume displaced of water will also remain same so level of water will not change.
22. Two cubical blocks identical in dimensions float in water in such a way that 1st block floats with half part immersed
in water and second block floats with 3/4 of its volume inside the water. The ratio of densities of blocks is
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3:4 (3) 1:3 (4) 1:4
Sol. Answer (1)
3 1 ⎧ Where,
V 2 g V 1 g ⎪V Volume of block
4 2 ⎪
⎨
2 2 ⎪1 density of liquid 1
⎪⎩2 density of liquid 2
1 3
23. On putting a capillary tube in a pot filled with water, the level of water rises upto a height of
4 cm in the tube. If a tube of half the diameter is used instead, the water will rise to a height of nearly
(1) 2 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 8 cm (4) 11 cm
Sol. Answer (3)
For capillary tube
2T
h
r g
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We can say
1 1
h or h
r d
h1 d 2
So,
h2 d1
4 d
x 2d
x = 8 cm
24. A flat plate of area 0.1 m2 is placed on a flat surface and is separated from it by a film of oil 10–5 m thick whose
coefficient of viscosity is 1.5 N sm–2. The force required to cause the plate to slide on the surface at constant
speed of 1 mm s–1 is
(1) 10 N (2) 15 N (3) 20 N (4) 25 N
Sol. Answer (2)
v
F A
l
et
Substituting values, .n
e
iv
1 10 3
at
1.5 0.1
10 5
re
nc
= 15 N
ar
.le
25. A ball of density and radius r is dropped on the surface of a liquid of density from certain height. If speed of ball
w
w
does not change even on entering in liquid and viscosity of liquid is , then the height from which ball dropped is
w
2 2
⎡ ( )r ⎤ 2g ( )2 r 2 2( )gr 2 ⎡ ( )r 2 ⎤
(1) 2g ⎢ ⎥ (2) (3) (4) 2g ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 9 ⎦ 9 9 ⎢⎣ 9 ⎥⎦
2r 2
v Terminal ( )g
9
Equating both
2r 2
2gh ( )g
9
2
⎡ ( )r 2 ⎤
h 2g ⎢ ⎥
⎣⎢ 9 ⎦⎥
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V
F A
d
⎧ Where,
⎪F Drag Force
⎪⎪
⎨ Viscosity of fluids
⎪ A Area size of body
⎪
⎪⎩V Velocity
27. The terminal velocity of a small sized spherical body of radius r falling vertically in a viscous liquid is given by the
proportionality
1 1
(1) v (2) v r2 (3) v (4) vr
r2 r
et
.n
2r 2
e
vT [ ] g
iv
9
at
re
So, vT r 2
nc
ar
.le
28. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of viscous liquid. The speed v of the ball varies as function of time as
w
w
w
v v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(0, 0) t (0, 0) t (0, 0) t (0, 0) t
VTerm.
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30. Water is flowing through a channel (lying in a vertical plane) as shown in the figure. Three sections A, B and C are
shown. Sections B and C have equal area of cross section. If PA, PB and PC are the pressures at A, B and C
respectively then
B
A
C
(1) PA > PB = PC (2) PA < PB < PC
(3) PA < PB = PC (4) PA > PB > PC
Sol. Answer (2)
Solution by using Bernoulli's principle and equation of continuity
Comparing points A and B
AAvA = ABvB {equation of continuity}
∵ AA < AB
vA > vB
1 1
et
.n
PA VA2 gh PB VB2 gh {Bernoulli's equation}
e
2 2
iv
at
∵ vA > vB
re
nc
1 1
VA2 VB2
ar
2 2
.le
PA < PB ...(1)
w
w
AB = AC vB = vC [equation of continuity]
1 1
PB V 2 ghB PC V 2 ghC
2 2
PB + ghB = PC + ghC
∵ hB > hC then ...(2)
PB < PC
Using (1) and (2)
We can say, PA < PB < PC
31. A liquid flows in the tube from left to right as shown in figure. A1 and A2 are the cross-sections of the portions of the
v1
tube as shown. The ratio of speed will be
v2
v1 A1 A2,v2
A1 A2 A2 A1
(1) A (2) A1 (3) A1 (4) A2
2
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v1 A2
So,
v 2 A1
32. Water ( = 1000 kg/m3) and kerosene ( = 800kg/m3) are filled in two identical cylindrical vessels. Both vessels
have small holes at their bottom. The speed of the water and kerosene coming out of their holes are v1 and v2
respectively. Select the correct alternative
33. A tank is filled with water to a height H. A hole is made in one of the walls at a depth D below the water surface. The
distance x from the foot of the wall at which the stream of water coming out of the tank strikes the ground is given
by
(1) x = 2 [D (H – D)]1/2 x = 2 (gD)1/2 x = 2 [D (H + D)]1/2
et
(2) (3) (4) None of these
.n
Sol. Answer (1)
e
iv
D
ar
1 ⎧ Where, v
Using s ut at 2 H
.le
2 ⎪s H D
⎪
w
⎨
⎪u 0
w
We get,
w
⎪⎩a g x
2(H D )
't '
g
Now, x = v × t
Substituting the values
2(H D )
x 2gD
g
x = 2[D (H – D)]1/2
34. A tank is filled with water and two holes A and B are made in it. For getting same range, ratio of
h /h is
1 1
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 1
2 3
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h
1
h
et
.n
35. Water is filled in a tank upto 3 m height. The base of the tank is at height 1 m above the ground. What should be
e
iv
the height of a hole made in it, so that water can be sprayed upto maximum horizontal distance on ground?
at
re
nc
ar
.le
3m
w
w
w
1m
Velocity of efflux 2g (3 h )
R = 2[(h + 1) (3 – h)]1/2 [R = Range proved in Q. 33]
R = 2(– h2 + 2h + 3)1/2
dR
2h 2
dh
dR
If 0, then range would be more for corresponding height
dh
So, 0 = – 2h + 2 h=1
Height from the ground = 1 + 1 = 2 m
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Soap helps cleaning clothes because, it decreases the surface tension of water thus water molecules penetrate
easily into dirt and oil.
On increasing the temperature energy increases hence surface tension decreases. Because surface tension is
nothing but some extra energy required by surface molecules to stay at the place.
et
.n
38. The raincoats are made water proof by coating it with a material, which
e
iv
at
(3) Increase the angle of contact (4) Decreases the density of water
ar
Raincoats are coated with material which increase the angle of contact, so water does not penetrates inside the
w
layer.
w
39. An iron needle slowly placed on the surface of water floats because
(1) It displaces water more than its weight
(2) The density of material of needle is less than that of water
(3) Of surface tension
(4) Of its shape
Sol. Answer (3)
F sin
F sin
F F
O O
F cos F cos
Mg
Needle floats due to surface tension of water which balances the weight of needle.
In equilibrium 2F sin = mg
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40. Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger droplet. In this process
(3) Energy is neither liberated nor absorbed (4) Some mass is converted into energy
Work is done when we break a drop into 'n' drops equal to 4R2(n1/3 – 1)
41. The radius of a soap bubble is r. The surface tension of soap solution is ‘S’. Keeping temperature constant, the radius
of the soap bubble is doubled. The energy necessary for this will be
et
.n
So energy required to expand a bubble from r to 2r will be equal to E2r – Er
e
iv
at
Substituting values
re
nc
We get,
ar
42. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If a film is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2, its surface energy is about
w
= 5 × 0.02 × 2
= 2 × 10–1 J
43. Two soap bubbles having radii 3 cm and 4 cm in vacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. The radius of the
new bubble is
5 cm = r
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4S
Excess pressure in soap bubble =
R
Let for first bubble,
4S ⎧S Surface tension
P ⎨
R ⎩R Radius
For second bubble,
4S ⎧S Surface tension
2P ⎨
x ⎩ x Radius
Substitute value of P
4S 4S
2
R x
R
x
2
R/2 1
Ratio of Radii
et
R 2 .n
e
So, Ratio of volume = (Ratio of Radii)3
iv
at
3
⎛ 1⎞ 1
re
⎜ ⎟
⎝2⎠ 8
nc
ar
.le
45. The work done to break a spherical drop of radius R in n drops of equal size is proportional to
w
w
1 1
1 1
w
4 4
i.e., R 3 n r 3
3 3
R
Radius of each new droplet
n1/3
Work done to break into 'n' drops = S [n × 4r2 – 4R3]
= S × 4R2 [n1/3 – 1]
48. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in a liquid and mass of liquid, which rises up in it is M. If the radius of tube
is doubled, then the mass of liquid which will rise in capillary tube will be
(1) 2 M (2) M (3) M/2 (4) M/4
Sol. Answer (1)
M = v
⎧ Area r 2
Mass volume of tube ⎪
⎪ 1 ⎛ 2S ⎞
Mass height × Area ⎨Height ⎜h ⎟
r ⎝ rgh ⎠
⎪
⎪ Where r radius of cube
1 2 ⎩
Mass r
r
Mass r
et
If radius doubles, mass of liquid that rises up also doubles.
e .n
iv
at
49. A massless inextensible string in the form of a loop is placed on a horizontal film of soap solution of surface
re
tension T. If film is pierced inside the loop and it convert into a circular loop of diameter d, then the tension
nc
produced in string is
ar
.le
w
d 2T
Td d2T
w
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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. The atmospheric pressure at a place is 105 Pa. If tribromomethane (specific gravity = 2.9) be employed as
the barometric liquid, the barometric height is
(1) 3.52 m (2) 1.52 m (3) 4.52 m (4) 2.52 m
Sol. Answer (1)
1 atm 105 Pa = 76 cm of Hg ⎧Hg density of Hg
⎪
⎪hHg height of Hg
Density of Hg = 13.6
⎪
Hg × g × hHg = TBM × g × hTBM ⎨TBM density of
⎪ tribromomethane
Substituting values ⎪
⎪hTBM height of tribromomethane
13.6 × 76 = 2.9 × h ⎩
3.52 m = h
2. A large vessel of height H, is filled with a liquid of density , upto the brim . A small hole of radius r is made
at the side vertical face, close to the base. The horizontal force is required to stop the gushing of liquid is
(1) (gH)r2 (2) gH (3) gHr (4) gr2
et
Sol. Answer (1)
.n
Pressure close to the base = gH
e
iv
3. A vertical U-tube of uniform cross-section contains water in both the arms. A 10 cm glycerine column
ar
(R.D. = 1.2) is added to one of the limbs. The level difference between the two free surfaces in the two limbs
.le
will be
w
w
4. The pressure at the bottom of a water tank is 4 P, where P is atmospheric pressure. If water is drawn out till
3
the water level decreases by th, then pressure at the bottom of the tank is
5
3P 7P 11 P 9P
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 6 5 4
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3 2
∵ water taken out th water is left to exert pressure
5 5
2
P P w gh
5
2
P P 3P [From eq. (1)]
5
11 P
P
5
5. A air bubble rises from bottom of a lake to surface. If its radius increases by 200% and atmospheric pressure
is equal to water coloumn of height H, then depth of lake is
(1) 21 H (2) 8H (3) 9H (4) 26 H
Sol. Answer (4)
Let initial radius be = r
P = gH
Final radius = r + 200% of r
P (1)
= 3r 3r
4 4
re
3 3
ar
4 4 4
.le
3 3 3
w
w
6. A piece of gold weighs 10 g in air and 9 g in water. What is the volume of cavity?
(Density of gold = 19.3 g cm–3)
(1) 0.182 cc (2) 0.282 cc (3) 0.382 cc (4) 0.482 cc
Sol. Answer (4)
Vg Vc ⎧ Where,
⎪V volume of cavity
⎪ c
When dipped in water ⎪Vg volume of gold
⎪
Wapp = Wair – FB ⎪⎪Wapp 9 gm
9 gm × g = 10 gm × g – FB ⎨
⎪Wair 10 gm
1 × g = FB ⎪F force of buoyancy
⎪ B
Now (total volume displaced) × w × g = 1 × g ⎪w density of water 1
⎪
(Vc + Vg) × 1 = 1 ⎪⎩g density of gold 19.3
Mass of gold in air 10
Vc 1 1 0.482 cc
g 19.3
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8. An object suspended by a wire stretches it by 10 mm. When object is immersed in a liquid the elongation in
10
wire reduces by mm. The ratio of relative densities of the object and liquid is
3
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2:1
Sol. Answer (1)
FL ⎧Let density of liquid
L
AY ⎪
⎨Let density of object
Elongation force and force is due to weight ⎪Mass of object M
⎩
So elongation weight
L1 weight ...(1) {When not submerged in liquid}
L2 apparant weight ...(2) {When submerged in liquid}
Dividing (1) by (2)
10 Mg
10 Mg
et
10 Mg
.n
3
e
iv
at
1 1
re
1
1 1
nc
3
ar
1
w
3
w
9. Water flows in a stream line manner through a capillary tube of radius a. The pressure difference being P and the
a
rate of flow is Q. If the radius is reduced to and the pressure is increased to 4P, then the rate of flow becomes
4
Q Q
(1) 4Q (2) (3) Q (4)
2 64
Sol. Answer (4)
Rate of flow pressure difference × (radius)4
Q P × a4 ⎪⎧ Pr 4 ⎪⎫
⎨∵ Q ⎬
⎪⎩ 8L ⎪⎭
Q1 P1 a14
So,
Q2 P2 a24
Q1 P a4 64
4
Q2 ⎛a⎞ 1
4P ⎜ ⎟
⎝4⎠
Q1 Q
Q2
64 64
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10. A vessel contain a liquid has a constant acceleration 19.6 m/s2 in horizontal direction. The free surface of water
get sloped with horizontal at angle
⎡ 1⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤ ⎡ 2 ⎤
(1) tan1 ⎢ ⎥ (2) sin1 ⎢ ⎥ (3) tan1 ⎡ 2 ⎤ (4) sin1 ⎢ ⎥
⎣2⎦ ⎣ ⎦ ⎣ 5⎦
⎣ 3⎦
Sol. Answer (4)
a 19.6 a
tan 2
g 9.8
tan = 2 a
2 ⎡ 2 ⎤ g
sin ⇒ sin1 ⎢ ⎥
5 ⎣ 5⎦
11. A cylinder containing water, stands on a table of height H. A small hole is punched in the side of cylinder at
its base. The stream of water strikes the ground at a horizontal distance R from the table. Then the depth of
water in the cylinder is
et
.n
So velocity (v) of efflux 2gx
e
x
iv
at
2H
ar
g H
.le
Range = v × t
w
R
w
2H
w
R 2gx
g
R2
x
4H
12. Air streams horizontally past an air plane. The speed over the top surface is 60 m/s and that under the bottom
surface is 45 m/s. The density of air is 1.293 kg/m3, then the difference in pressure is
(1) 1018 N/m2 (2) 516 N/m2 (3) 1140 N/m2 (4) 2250 N/m2
Sol. Answer (1)
Applying Bernoullis equation
1 2 1
P1 + gh + v1 = P2 + gh + v22
2 2
1
× [v12 – v22] = P2 – P1 = P
2
1
× 1.293 [(60)2 – (45)2] = P
2
1018 N/m2 P
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1 1
(3) times that of Q (4) times that of Q
2 4
Sol. Answer (1)
Rate of flow through both pipes will be same
i.e., Q1 = Q2
V1 V2
t t
r12 l1 r22 l 2
t t
⎛ l1 l2 ⎞
⎜ Where t VP and t VQ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
d12 d 2
VP 2 VQ
et
4 4 .n
e
iv
2
⎛d ⎞
at
VP ⎜ 2 ⎟ VQ
re
⎝ d1 ⎠
nc
ar
2
⎛ 4 10 2 ⎞
.le
VP ⎜ ⎟⎟ VQ
⎜ 2 102
w
⎝ ⎠
w
w
VP = 4VQ
14. At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal to pressure head of 40 cm of mercury?
(1) 2.8 m/s (2) 10.32 m/s (3) 5.6 m/s (4) 8.4 m/s
Sol. Answer (2)
1
V 2 = mercury gh
2 water
mercury
V 2 g h
water
40
2 13.6 9.8
100
V = 10.32 m/s
15. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5
kg/m3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid.
(1) 0.2 m/s (2) 0.4 m/s (3) 0.1 m/s (4) 0.133 m/s
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2a 2
Vterminal ( ) g ⎧ Where
9 ⎪
⎨ density of material
⎪ density of liquid
VT ( – ) ⎩
L L r r
16. Three capillaries of length L, and are connected in series. Their radii are r, and respectively. Then
2 3 2 3
if stream-line flow is to be maintained and the pressure across the first capillary is P, then
(1) The pressure difference across the ends of second capillary is 8P
et
(2) The pressure difference across the third capillary is 43P .n
e
(3) The pressure difference across the ends of second capillary is 16P
iv
at
L L/2 L/3
w
w
P1 = P (given)
w
r r/2 r/3
∵ Rate of flow will be same across all pipes
⎧rate of flow of liquid (Q )
⎪
So, pressure across the pipe
length ⎨ Pr 4
⎪ Q
(radius)4 ⎩ 8 L
P1
L /r 4
1
P2 ⎛ L /2 ⎞ 8
⎜ ⎟
⎜ r /2 4 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
ThenP2 = 8P1
17. A large open tank has two holes in its wall. One is a square of side a at a depth x from the top and the other
is a circular hole of radius r at depth 4x from the top. When the tank is completely filled with water, the
quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are the same. Then r is equal to
a a
(1) 2a (2) a (3) (4)
2
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18. If T is the surface tension of a fluid, then the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R into 64 equal
drops is
(1) 6R2T (2) R2T (3) 12R2T (4) 8R2T
Sol. Answer (3)
Work done = surface tension × change in area
Since volume will remain equal
et
Let us assume radius of new drop = r each
e .n
iv
4 4
at
R 3 64 r 3
re
3 3
nc
ar
R
r
.le
4
w
w
W = T A
w
= T [n × 4r2 – 4R2]
⎡ 2 ⎤
⎛R ⎞
T ⎢ 64 4 ⎜ ⎟ 4R 2 ⎥ 12R 2T
⎣⎢ ⎝4⎠ ⎦⎥
19. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water is four times that of another drop. Then their respective
mass ratio is
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 1 : 64 (3) 1:4 (4) 1:8
Sol. Answer (2)
2T
P
R ⎧ Where,
⎪P Excess pressure
⎪ 0
⎨
Pressure
1 ⎪T Surface tension
Radius ⎪⎩R Radius
P1 R2
P2 R1
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4P R2
P R1
4R1 = R2
R1 1
R2 4
M=V× ⎧ Where,
⎪M Mass
And V R3 M R3 ⎪
⎨
is same for both ⎪V Volume
⎪⎩ Density
M R3
3 3
M1 ⎛ R1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ 1
So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
M2 ⎝ R2 ⎠ ⎝4⎠ 64
20. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of 10 cm radius is (surface tension of soap solution is
0.03 N/m).
(1) 37.68 × 10–4 J (2) 75.36 × 10–4 J (3) 126.82 × 10–4 J (4) 75.36 × 10–3 J
Sol. Answer (2)
et
Work done = surface tension × change in area × number of free surfaces = S × A × 2
e .n
iv
= 75.36 × 10–4 J
re
nc
ar
21. A glass capillary tube of inner diameter 0.28 mm is lowered vertically into water in a vessel. The pressure to
.le
be applied on the water in the capillary tube so that water level in the tube is same as that in the vessel is
w
(surface tension of water = 0.07 N/m and atmospheric pressure = 105 N/m2).
w
w
(1) 103 (2) 99 × 103 (3) 100 × 103 (4) 101 × 103
Sol. Answer (4)
2T
Height of liquid in capillary h ⎧ Where,
r g ⎪T Surface tension
⎪⎪
Pressure we need to apply = gh + P0 ⎨r Radius of capillary
Substitute value of h ⎪ Density of liquid
⎪
⎪⎩P0 Atmospheric pressure
2T 2T 4T
P g P0 P0 P0
r g r d
4 0.07 ⎧Given,
P P0 = 1000 Nm–2 + 105 Nm–2 ⎪
(0.28 103 ) ⎨T 0.07 N/m
⎪d 0.28 mm
⎩
P = (103 + 105) Nm–2 = 101 × 103 Nm–2
22. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in a capillary tube and mercury falls to a depth of 3.42 cm in the same
capillary tube. If the density of mercury is 13.6 kg/m3 and angle of contact is 135°, the ratio of surface tension
for water and mercury is (angle of contact for water and glass is 0°).
(1) 1 : 0.5 (2) 1:3 (3) 1 : 6.5 (4) 1.5 : 1
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2T cos
h
r g
For water,
2 Tw cos0
10 cm ...(1) {Tw – Surface tension of water
r 1 g
For mercury,
2 TM cos135
3.42 cm ...(2) {TM – Surface tension of mercury
r 13.6 g
Dividing Eqn (1) by (2)
10 2 Tw 1 r 13.6 g
3.42 1
r 1 g 2 TM
2
10 T
2 13.6 w
3.42 TM
10 T
et
w .n
3.42 1.41 13.6 TM
e
iv
at
1 T
w
re
6.5 TM
nc
ar
23. A spherical drop of water has 1 mm radius. If the surface tension of water is 75 × 10–3 N/m, then difference
.le
(1) 35 N/m2 (2) 70 N/m2 (3) 140 N/m2 (4) 150 N/m2
w
2T ⎧T surface tension
Excess pressure ⎨
R ⎩R radius
2 75 10 3
1 10 3
= 150 N/m2
24. A capillary tube is dipped in water and it is 20 cm outside water. The water rises upto 8 cm. If the entire
arrangement is put in freely falling elevator the length of water column in the capillary tube will be
(1) 20 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 8 cm
Sol. Answer (1)
If entire arrangement is in free fall then the weight of water in capillary will be balanced by pseudo force which
would be equal to the weight of water.
Hence, surface tension has no weight to balance so full capillary will be filled with water.
25. If the excess pressure inside a soap bubble is balanced by an oil column of height 2 mm, then the surface
tension of soap solution will be (r = 1 cm, density of oil = 0.8 g/cm3)
(1) 3.9 N/m (2) 3.9 × 10–2 N/m (3) 3.9 × 10–3 N/m (4) 3.9 × 10–1 N/m
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0.08 103
Pressure due to oil column = oil × g × hoil 9.8 2 103 15.68
(102 )3
4 T
15.68
1 102
T = 3.92 × 10–2 N/m
26. There is small hole in a hollow sphere. The water enters in it when it is taken to a depth of 40 cm under water.
The surface tension of water is 0.07 N/m. The diameter of hole is
(1) 7 mm (2) 0.07 mm (3) 0.0007 mm (4) 0.7 m
Sol. Answer (2)
Let take g = 10 m/s2
For water to enter the sphere, pressure required is = gh
40
1 10 1000
et
( = 1000 kg/m3)
100 .n R
e
N
iv
m2
re
nc
2T
.le
2 0.07
4000
R
2R = 0.07 × 10–3 m
d = 0.07 mm
27. Two equal drops are falling through air with a steady velocity of 5 cm/second. If two drops coalesce, then new
terminal velocity will be
5
(1) 5 × (4)1/3 cm/s (2) 5 2 cm/s (3) cm/s (4) 5 × 2 cm/s
2
Sol. Answer (1)
VTerminal r2
If initial radius = r, let new radius = R
4 3 4
Then 2 × r = R3
3 3
(2)1/3 r = R
VT R2
(2)2/3 r 2 (For bigger drops)
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5 1
x (2)2/3
5 × (2)2/3 = x
5 × (4)1/3 cm/s = x
28. A small drop of water falls from rest through a large height h in air; the final velocity is
29. A spring balance reads 200 gF when carrying a lump of lead in air. If the lead is now immersed with half of
its volume in brine solution, what will be the new reading of the spring balance? specific gravity of lead and
brine are 11.4 and 1.1 respectively
(1) 190.4 gF (2) 180.4 gF (3) 210 gF (4) 170.4 gF
et
Sol. Answer (1) .n
e
W ' = W – FB
iv
⎧ Where,
at
v ⎪W apparent weight
v g g ⎪⎪
re
⎛ ⎞ ⎪
v g ⎜ 1
.le
⎛ 1.1 ⎞
w
W 200 ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ 11.4 2 ⎠
= 190.35 gF
30. A liquid mixture of volume V, has two liquids as its ingredients with densities and . If density of the mixture
is , then mass of the first liquid in mixture is
V [ 1] V [ ] V ( ) V [1 ]
(1) (2) (3) (4)
[ ] [ ] [ ]
Now,
Total mass (M1 M2 )
Total volume ⎛ M1 ⎞ ⎛ M2 ⎞
⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
Substituting value of M2 from equation (1)
M1 (V M1 )
M1 (V M1 )
Solving this we get
V ( )
M1
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the
speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
V 2R VR 2 VR 2 VR 2
et
(1) (2) (3) (4)
nr n2r 2 nr 2
.n n3 r 2
e
Sol. Answer (3)
iv
at
re
2. Water rises to a height h in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the surface of water is made
nc
(2) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a fountain
w
w
(3) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing
w
(4) Water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there
Sol. Answer (3)
3. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming
that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the
direction of the force will be (Pair = 1.2 kg/m3) [AIPMT-2015]
(1) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards (2) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards
(3) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards (4) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
Sol. Answer (4)
1 2 1
P1 v 1 P2 v 22
2 2 P2 = P
V2 = 40 m/s
1
2
v 22 v 12 P1 P2
V1 = 0
1
2
v 22 v 12
F
A
P1 = P0
1
2
1.2 402 02
F
250
F = 2.4 × 105 N, upward (because P1 > P2)
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1 1 ⎛1 1⎞
(1) Energy = 4VT ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟ is released (2) Energy = 3VT ⎜ ⎟ is absorbed
⎝r R⎠ ⎝r R⎠
⎛1 1 ⎞
(3) Energy = 3VT ⎜ ⎟ is released (4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
⎝r R⎠
Sol. Answer (3)
Let n drops of radius r coaslece to form a big drop of radius R
4 3 4
n r R 3 V
3 3
n × 4r3 = 4R3 = 3V ...(1)
Energy = T.A
= T [n × 4r2 – 4R2]
⎡ n 4r 3 4R 3 ⎤
T
= ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ r R ⎥⎦
⎡ 3V 3V ⎤
et
= T⎢
⎣ r R ⎥⎦
e .n
iv
⎡1 1 ⎤
at
= 3VT ⎢ ⎥
⎣r R ⎦
re
nc
ar
(2) Density
w
6. The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If the cork is pressed with a force
12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is
(1) 30 N (2) 150 N (3) 300 N (4) 600 N
Sol. Answer (3)
Pressure applied on 1 point in a liquid spreads equally 3 cm
P1
So let P1 be pressure at neck, P2 be pressure at bottom
P1 = P2
F1 F2 ⎡ F⎤
⎢∵ P A ⎥
A1 A2 ⎣ ⎦ P2
12 F2 15 cm
9 225
300 N = F2
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7. A liquid X of density 3.36 g cm–3 is poured in a U-tube, which contains Hg. Another liquid Y is poured in left
arm with height 8 cm, upper levels of X and Y are same what is density of Y?
Y X
8 cm
10 cm
(1) 0.8 gcc–1 (2) 1.2 gcc–1 (3) 1.4 gcc–1 (4) 1.6 gcc–1
Sol. Answer (1)
et
Solving this we get
e .n
iv
Y = 0.8 g cc–1
at
re
nc
8. A wooden ball of density D is immersed in water of density d to a depth h below the surface of water and
ar
then released. Upto what height will the ball jump out of water?
.le
w
⎛d ⎞
w
d
(1) h (2) ⎜ D 1⎟ h (3) h (4) Zero
w
D ⎝ ⎠
v 2 2 Vg [d D] h ⎡ d ⎤
h' (height above water) ⎢ 1⎥ h
2g 2 gVD ⎣D ⎦ VDg
9. A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in a liquid. The relative density of the solid and
that of the liquid are respectively
3 3 3
(1) 3, 2 (2) 2, (3) ,2 (4) 3,
4 2 2
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⎡ ⎤ ⎧ Where,
w w ⎢1 ⎥ ⎪
⎣ ⎦ ⎨ density of liquid
⎪ density of body
Inside water ⎩
⎡ ⎤
80 120 ⎢1 water ⎥
⎣ solid ⎦
solid = 3 [∵ water = 1]
Inside liquid
⎡ liquid ⎤
60 120 ⎢1 ⎥
⎣ solid ⎦
Using solid = 3
3
We get liquid
2
10. A solid sphere of volume V and density ρ floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities ρ1 and
ρ2 respectively. If ρ1 < ρ < ρ2, then the ratio of volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and lower liquids is
et
e .n
2 1 2 1 2
iv
1 2 1
re
nc
V ( 1 )
x
(2 1 ) ⎧ Where,
⎪
⎨V x volume of sphere in upper liquid
V x 2 ⎪ x volume of sphere in lower liquid
So ⎩
x 1
11. Ice pieces are floating in a beaker A containing water and also in a beaker B containing miscible liquid of
specific gravity 1.2. When ice melts, the level of
(1) Water increases in A (2) Water decreases in A
(3) Liquid in B decreases (4) Liquid in B increases
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12. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g cm–3) over mercury (density 13.6 g cm–3). A homogenous sphere floats
with half volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in g
et
cm–3 is
e .n
iv
V
Let density of sphere be FBoil oil g
ar
2
.le
And volume be v
w
HgVg oil Vg
Vg Mercury
2 2
13.6 0.8 V
2 2 Vg FBHg Hg 2 g
= 7.2 g cm–3
13. Two solid pieces, one of steel and the other of aluminium when immersed completely in water have equal
weights. When the solid pieces are weighed in air
(1) The weight of aluminium is half the weight of steel (2) Steel peice will weigh more
(3) They have the same weight (4) Aluminium piece will weigh more
Sol. Answer (4)
Apparent weight = weight in air – FBuoyancy
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14. A piece of wood is floating in water. When the temperature of water rises, the apparent weight of the wood
will
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) May increase or decrease (4) Remain same
Sol. Answer (3)
When temperature of water is raised from 0 to 4°C, its density increases and after 4°C density decreases and
apparent weight FBuoyancy density of water
et
e .n
iv
15. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in the figure. The distances h and l
nc
are shown there. After some time, the coin falls into the water, then
ar
.le
Coin
w
w
l
w
16. An iceberg is floating in water. The density of ice in the iceberg is 917 kg m–3 and the density of water is
1024 kg m–3. What percentage fraction of the iceberg would be visible?
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 12% (4) 8%
Sol. Answer (2)
ice × volume of ice × g = water × volume of ice inside water × g
917 × volume of ice = 1024 × volume of ice inside water
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⎛ 917V ⎞
⎜ V 1024 ⎟
⎜ ⎟ 100
⎝ V ⎠
⎛ 1024 917 ⎞
⎜ 1024 ⎟V
⎝ ⎠ 100
V
= 10%
17. A piece of wax wieghs 18.03 g in air. A piece of metal is found to weigh 17.3 g in water. It is tied to the wax
and both together weigh 15.23 g in water. Then, the specific gravity of wax is
et
Sol. Answer (3) e .n
Weight of wax in air = 18.03 g
iv
at
= 17.3 + Vmetal × g
w
w
Mass of wax ⎡ M⎤
g 20.1 ⎢∵ V ⎥
density ⎣ ⎦
18.03 ⎡ weight ⎤
g 20.1 ⎢Mass
g ⎣ g ⎥⎦
18.03
So specific gravity of wax 0.897 ∼ 0.9
20.1
⎛ 18.03 ⎞
⎜ 0.9 ⎟
⎝ 19.83 ⎠
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4 3 4
So, 8 r R 3
3 3
2r = R
And we know,
VTerminal r 2
VT smaller r2 r2
2
VT bigger R 4r 2
10 1
[∵ VT = 10 cms–1 (given)]
VT bigger 4 smaller
et
.n
VT = 40 cms–1
e
bigger
iv
at
19. A small spherical ball falling through a viscous medium of negligible density has terminal velocity . Another
re
nc
ball of the same mass but of radius twice that of the earlier falling through the same viscous medium will have
ar
terminal velocity
.le
w
4 2
w
vT = 4
2
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21. An air bubble of radius 10–2 m is rising up at a steady rate of 2 × 10–3 ms–1 through a liquid of density 1.5 × 103
kg m–3, the coefficient of viscosity neglecting the density of air, will be (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 23.2 units (2) 83.5 units (3) 334 units (4) 167 units
Sol. Answer (4)
2a 2 ⎧ Where given is
VT g ( ) ⎪ 3 1
9 ⎪VT 2 10 ms
⎪ 2
Substituting values ⎪a 10 m
⎨ 3 3
⎪ 1.5 10 kg m
2 10 4 10 1.5 103 ⎪ ∼ 0
2 10 3
9 ⎪
⎪⎩g 10 ms2
167 units
vd
et
Given by Reynolds number .n
n
e
iv
23. A boat carrying a number of large stones is floating in a water tank. What would happen to the water level, if
at
(1) Rises
ar
(2) Falls
.le
w
(4) Rises till half the number of stones are unloaded and then begins to fall
Sol. Answer (2)
Previously when stones are on the boat they are increasing the weight on the boat and to balance this weight
boat needs to generate buoyancy force by displacing more water, but when stones are removed the boat starts
displacing less amount of water hence the level of water in tank falls.
Decreases in level
24. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d1 when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes
constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d2, the viscous force acting on the ball is
⎛ d ⎞ d1
(1) Mg ⎜ 1 2 ⎟ (2) Mg (3) mg(d1 – d2) (4) mgd1d2
⎝ d1 ⎠ d2
⎛ d ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞
Fv mg Fv vd1g vd 2 g vd1g ⎜ 1 2 ⎟ mg ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
⎝ d1 ⎠ ⎝ d1 ⎠ FB
mg
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= 2gA
= 1000 × 10 × 0.01 × 2
= 200 N
26. A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled with water (density 1000 kg/m3). If the total pressure at the
bottom of the tank is 3 atm (1 atm = 105 N/m2), then the velocity of efflux is
1 2 ⎧Given
nc
gH
2 v constant
P ⎨
⎩Total pressure 3 atm
ar
Total pressure
.le
1 2
w
1 2
At point 2, 1 atm + v = constant ...(ii) v
2
v 400 m/s
27. A horizontal pipe line carries water in stremline flow. At a point where the cross-sectional area is 10 cm2 the
water velocity is 1 ms–1 and pressure is 2000 Pa. The pressure of water at another point where the cross-
sectional area is 5 cm2, is
(1) 200 Pa (2) 400 Pa (3) 500 Pa (4) 800 Pa
Sol. Answer (3)
10 cm2
5 cm2
1 ms
–1
v
P = 2000 Pa
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28. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes 10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its bottom. How much time
will it take to be emptied when half filled with water?
(1) 9 min (2) 7 min (3) 5 min (4) 3 min
Sol. Answer (2)
Let time taken by height 'x' to get reduced by dx = dt
volume A dx
dt {A is area of cross-section}
efflux speed 2gx
T h A dx
∫0 dt ∫0 2g x
et
.n
A
e
A 2h
iv
T
at
a g dx
re
nc
T h x
ar
.le
So we can use
a
w
w
T1 h1
w
T2 h2
10 min h
t min h/2
10
t ∼ 7 min
2
29. A metal plate of area 103 cm2 rests on a layer of oil 6 mm thick. A tangential force 10–2 N is applied on it to
move it with a constant velocity of 6 cms–1. The coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is
(1) 0.1 poise (2) 0.5 poise (3) 0.7 poise (4) 0.9 poise
Sol. Answer (1)
⎧ Where,
F = A
v ⎪F Force
d ⎪
⎪⎪ Coefficient of viscosity
⎨
6 10 2 ⎪ A Area
10 2 (103 10 4 ) 0.01 poiseuille
6 10 3 ⎪v Velocity
⎪
= 0.1 poise ⎪⎩d Thickness of layer
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31. Determine the energy stored in the surface of a soap bubble of radius 2.1 cm if its tension is 4.5 10–2 Nm–1.
(1) 8 mJ (2) 2.46 mJ (3) 4.93 × 10–4 J (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Energy = surface tension × surface area × number of free surfaces
= (4.5 × 10–2) × 4 × (2.1 × 10–2) × 2
= 4.98 × 10–4 J
32. A mercury drop of radius 1.0 cm is sprayed into 106 droplets of equal sizes. The energy expended in this
process is (surface tension of mercury is equal to 32 × 10–2 Nm–1)
et
(1) 3.98 × 10–4 J (2) 8.46 × 10–4 J (3) 3.98 × 10–2 J
.n (4) 8.46 × 10–2 J
e
Sol. Answer (3)
iv
at
3
4 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 4
.le
⎜ ⎟ 106 r 3
3 ⎝ 100 ⎠ 3
w
w
w
1/3
⎡ ⎛ 1 ⎞3 1 ⎤
⎢⎜ ⎟ 6⎥ r [Let radius of small drops = r]
⎣⎢⎝ 100 ⎠ 10 ⎦⎥
10–4 m = r
⎡⎛ 1 ⎞2 6 ⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎤
2
So increase in surface area 4 ⎢⎜ ⎟ 10 ⎜ 100 ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣⎝ 10000 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎥⎦
⎡ 1 1 ⎤
4 ⎢ ⎥
⎣100 10000 ⎦
A 4 0.99
100
4 0.99
Energy 32 10 2 [∵ Surface tension = 32 × 10–2 (given)]
100
= 3.98 × 10–2 J
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33. When a glass capillary tube of radius 0.015 cm is dipped in water, the water rises to a height of
15 cm within it. Assuming contact angle between water and glass to be 0°, the surface tension of water is
[ρwater = 1000 kg m–3, g = 9.81 ms–2]
(1) 0.11 Nm–1 (2) 0.7 Nm–1 (3) 0.072 Nm–1 (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
2 S cos
h
rg ⎧ Where,
⎪S surface tension ?
⎪
Substituting values ⎪⎪h height of water in capillary 15 cm
⎨
⎪r radius of capillary 0.015 cm
15 2 S 1 100 ⎪ angle of contact 0
100 1000 0.015 9.81 ⎪ 2
⎪⎩g 9.8 ms
S = 0.11 Nm–1
34. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the angle of contact is
(1) Obtuse (2) 90° (3) Acute (4) Zero
Sol. Answer (1)
et
Solid will not get wet if the liquid has high surface tension (example mercury) and liquids with high surface
.n
e
tension have obtuse angle of contact.
iv
at
re
35. Two drops of equal radius coalesce to form a bigger drop. What is ratio of surface energy of bigger drop to a
nc
smaller one?
ar
4 3 4
2 r R 3
3 3
36. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water is frour times that of another drop. Then their respective
mass ratio is
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 8:1 (3) 1:4 (4) 1 : 64
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P1 r2 4 ⎡ P1 1 ⎤
⎢∵ ⎥
P2 r1 1 ⎣ P2 4 ⎦
V r3
3 3
V1 ⎛ r1 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ 1
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
V2 ⎝ r2 ⎠ ⎝4⎠ 64
M = V × then
M1 V1 1
M2 V2 64
37. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should be
removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a?
2ma 2ma ma ma
(1) (2) (3)
et (4)
g a g a
e .n
g a g a
iv
N
re
nc
ar
.le
m
w
w
w
a mg
mg – N = ma ..... (1)
Let m mass remove from ballon
N
(m –m)
(m –m)g
N – (m – m)g = (m – m)a ..... (2)
After addition of equation (1) & (2), then
2ma
m'
g a
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SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : Hydraulic lift is based on Pascal’s Law.
R : Hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantity
Sol. Answer (2)
A : is true
R : is true
But reason is not the correct explanation. Correct explanation is, change in pressure is transferred, undiminished
from one point to the other.
A : is true
w
6. A : If air blows over the roof of a house, the force on the roof is upwards.
R : When air blows over the roof, the pressure over it from out side decreases.
Sol. Answer (1)
A is true, R is true and correct explanation.
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8. A : Bernoulli’s theorem holds good only for non-viscous and incompressible liquid.
R : Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the conservation of energy.
Sol. Answer (2)
A : is true
R : is true
Correct explanation of 'A' is Bernoulli's equation does not take into account the elastic energy of the fluids.
9. A : At high altitudes (mountains), it is very difficult to stop bleeding from a cut in the body.
R : At high altitude the atmospheric pressure is less than the blood pressure inside the body.
Sol. Answer (1)
A : is true
et
R : is true and correct explanation.
e.n
iv
at
10. A : When liquid drops merge into each other to form a large drop, energy is released.
re
R : When liquid drops merge to form large drop surface tension decreases.
nc
ar
A : is true
w
w
R : is false, because when large drop is formed, surface area gets reduced. Hence surface energy gets reduced
w
4T
11. A : Excess pressure inside a soap bubble is (symbols have their usual meanings).
r
2T
R : The pressure difference across a curved surface of radius of curvature r is . There are two surfaces in a
r
soap bubble.
Sol. Answer (1)
A : is true
R : is true and correct explanation.
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13. A : Equation of continuity is A1v11 = A2v22 (symbols have their usual meanings).
R : Equation of continuity is valid only for incompressible liquids.
Sol. Answer (3)
A : is true
R : is false,
15. A : The spiders and insects can run on the surface of water.
R : Buoyant force balances the weight of insects.
Sol. Answer (3)
A : true
et
R : is false, surface tension balances the weight of insect.
e.n
iv
at
re
nc
ar
.le
w
w
w
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Chapter 11
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
1. Temperature is a measure of
(1) Hotness or coldness (2) Heat possessed by a body
et
(3) Potential energy (4) Thermal energy
.n
e
Sol. Answer (1)
iv
at
2. The readings of a bath on Celsius and Fahrenheit thermometers are in the ratio 2 : 5. The temperature of the
ar
bath is
.le
⎧ where ⎫
⎪⎪ ⎪⎪
TC T 32 ⎨TC temperature in Celcius ⎬
F
100 180 ⎪ ⎪
⎩⎪TF temperature in Fahrenheit ⎭⎪
TC : TF given as 2 : 5
Let TC = 2x
TF = 5x
2 x 5 x 32
10 18
160
x
7
320
So, 2 x ~ 45.7C
7
3. The pressure of a gas filled in the bulb of a constant volume gas thermometer at temperatures 0°C and 100°C are
27.50 cm and 37.50 cm of Hg respectively. At an unknown temperature the pressure is
32.45 cm of Hg. Unknown temperature is
(1) 30°C (2) 39°C (3) 49.5°C (4) 29.6°C
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P P0 x x0 T T0
P100 P0 x100 x0 T100 T0
32.45 27.50 T O
37.50 27.50 100 0
T = 49.5°C
4. A graph is plotted by taking pressure along y-axis and centigrade temperature along x-axis for an ideal gas at
constant volume. x intercept of the graph is
et
e .n
–273.15°C Temperature
iv
at
re
5. A hole is drilled in a copper sheet. The diameter of hole is 4.24 cm at 27.0°C. Diameter of the hole when it
nc
is heated to 35°C is
ar
.le
Thermal expansion in this case can be imagined as a photographic enlargement, hence the diameter of hole
will also increase.
7. On heating a uniform metallic cylinder length increases by 3%. The area of cross-section of its base will
increase by
= 2
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9. If in winter season the surface temperature of lake is 1°C, the temperature at the bottom of lake will be
(1) 1°C (2) 0°C
(3) 4°C (4) All values less than 1°C are possible
Sol. Answer (3)
Temperature of the surface is the lowest and it should increase as we go down to the bottom.
Temperature > 1°C
et
e .n
10. A uniform copper rod of length 50 cm and diameter 3.0 mm is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface at 20°C. The
iv
coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 2.0 × 10–5 K–1 and Young’s modulus is 1.2 × 1011 N/m2. The copper rod is
at
re
hence no tensions
11. A seconds pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock shows correct time at 25°C. How much time does
the clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature is increased to 35°C?
(steel = 1.2 × 10–5 / °C)
(1) 321.5 s (2) 3.828 s (3) 82.35 s (4) 36.28 s
Sol. Answer (4)
T 1
T 2
1
1.2 105 10
2
T
6.0 105
T
Hence time lost in 1 week = 6.0 × 10–5 × T
= 6.0 × 10–5 × 7 × 24 × 3600
= 36.28 s
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12. The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when heated in a brass vessel is X and when heated in a
tin vessel is Y. If is the coefficient of linear expansion for brass, the coefficient of linear expansion of tin is
X Y 3 X 3 Y X Y 2 ( X Y 2 )
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Coefficient of expansion of liquid = [Apparent coefficient of expansion + Coefficient of expansion of vessel]
Let coefficient of expansion of liquid be = x
Then
x = X + 3 brass
x = Y + 3 tin
X + 3 brass = Y + 3 tin
3 brass Y X 3 Y X
tin
3 3
13. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 49 × 10–5 K–1. The fractional change in the density on a
30°C rise in temperature is
(1) 1.47 × 10–2 (2) 1.47 × 10–3 (3) 1.47 × 10–1 (4) 1.47 × 10–4
Sol. Answer (1)
et
2 = 1(1 – T)
e .n
iv
2 1
at
1 1
nc
ar
14. A solid cube is first floating in a liquid. The coefficient of linear expansion of cube is and the coefficient of volume
.le
expansion of liquid is . On increasing the temperature of (liquid + cube) system, the cube will sink if
w
w
w
15. A steel tape is calibrated at 20°C. On a cold day when the temperature is –15°C, percentage error in the tape will
be [steel = 1.2 × 10–5 °C–1]
(1) –0.035% (2) –0.042% (3) 0.012% (4) –0.018%
Sol. Answer (2)
L
% error 100
L
L T
100
L
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18. The thermal capacity of 100 g of aluminum (specific heat = 0.2 cal/g°C) is
(1) 0.002 cal/°C (2) 20 cal/°C (3) 200 cal/°C (4) 100 cal/°C
Sol. Answer (2)
Thermal capacity = m.C
= 100 × 0.2 = 20 cal/°C
et
.n
19. Select correct statement related to heat
e
iv
20. A block of ice at –12°C is slowly heated and converted into steam at 100°C. Which of the following curves
best represents the event?
T T T
T
0°C
–12°C Q
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21. The water equivalent of 20 g of aluminium (specific heat 0.2 cal g–1 °C–1 ), is
(1) 40 g (2) 4g (3) 8g (4) 160 g
Sol. Answer (2)
0.2 × 20 = 4 [Thermal Capacity]
Water equivalent numerically equal to thermal capacity
So W = 4 g
22. 100 g of ice (latent heat 80 cal g–1, at 0°C) is mixed with 100 g of water (specific heat 1 cal g–1 °C–1) at 80°C.
The final temperature of the mixture will be
(1) 0°C (2) 40°C (3) 80°C (4) < 0°C
Sol. Answer (1)
100 g ice 0°C + 100 g water 80°C
Qrequired = mL if T = 80 [Qf becomes = 0°]
= 100 × 80 Qavailable = mCT
= 8000 cal = 100 × 1 × 80 = 8000 cal
[Required to melt whole ice]
Since Qrequired = Qavailable
et
Whole system will be water at equillibrium and temperature would be 0°C
.n
e
iv
23. 200 g of ice at –20°C is mixed with 500 g of water at 20°C in an insulating vessel. Final mass of water in vessel is
at
= 10,000 cal
Heat required to raise the temperature of ice upto 0°C
Q2 = 200 × 0.5 × 20
= 2000 cal
Q1 – Q2 = 8000 cal
Melts the ice
8000 = m × 80
m = 100 g
So, mass of water is 500 + 100 = 600 g.
24. Which of the following material is most suitable for cooking utensil?
(1) Low conductivity and low specific heat (2) High conductivity and low specific heat
(3) Low conductivity and high specific heat (4) High conductivity and high specific heat
Sol. Answer (2)
For cooking high conductivity and low specific heat because we do not want to waste heat energy in heating
up the vessel it self also we want the vessel to absorb as much as heat is available.
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L
R
KA
[R] = [M–1 L–2 T3 K]
27. Two ends of a rod of non uniform area of cross-section are maintained at temperature T1 and T2 (T1 > T2) as
shown in the figure
T2
T1
et
e .n
If I is heat current through the cross-section of conductor at distance x from its left face, then the variation of
iv
at
I I I I
ar
.le
t t t t
28. Four rods of same material with different radii r and length l are used to connect two reservoirs of heat at
different temperatures. Which one will conduct maximum heat?
(1) r = 1 cm, l = 1 m (2) r = 2 cm, l = 2 m
(3) r = 1 cm, l = 1/2 m (4) r = 2 cm, l = 1/2 m
Sol. Answer (4)
K r 2
H T2 T1
L
1
H r 2 and H
L
r2
So the rod with maximum ratio will conduct maximum heat.
L
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29. Two walls of thickness d1 and d2, thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are in contact. In the steady state if the
temperatures at the outer surfaces are T1 and T2, the temperature at the common wall will be
30. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner
radius R and outer radius 2R made of a material of thermal conductivity K2. The two ends of the combined system
are maintained at two different temperatures. There is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the
system is in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of the system is
K 1 3K 2 K 1K 2 3K 1 K 2
et
(1) K1 + K2 (2) (3) .n (4)
4 K1 K 2 4
e
iv
L
nc
R [R is thermal resistance]
KA
ar
.le
1 1 1
w
Reff R1 R2 L
K2
K eff 2R
2
2
K1 R
K 2 4R 2 R 2 R K1
L L L
K1 3K 2
K
4
31. Four rods of same material and having the same cross section and length have been joined, as shown. The
temperature of the junction of four rods will be
0° 30°
60°
90°
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32. Why it is more hotter for same distance over the top of a candle than it in the side of its flame?
(1) Conduction of heat in air is upward
(2) Heat is maximum radiated in upward direction
(3) Radiation and conduction both contribute in transferring heat upwards
(4) Convection takes more heat in upward direction
Sol. Answer (4)
On the sides heating is only due to Radiation but over the top heating is due to Radiation as well as convection.
et
Sol. Answer (2) e .n
For heat transfer through convention presence of gravity is a must requirement.
iv
at
re
(3) The volumetric specific heat of carrying medium (4) The thermal conductivity of carrying medium
w
w
The thermal conductivity of carrying medium does not affects convection process.
35. A polished plate with rough black spot is heated to a high temperature and then taken to a dark room, then
(1) Spot will appear brighter than the plate (2) Spot will appear darker than the plate
(3) Both will appear equally brighter (4) Both will not be visible
Sol. Answer (1)
Rough black spot will act like a black body so radiations absorbed as well as emitted by the spot would be
more than the other parts of the plate.
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38. The rate of radiation of energy from a hot object is maximum, if its surface is
(1) White and smooth (2) Black and rough (3) Black and smooth (4) White and rough
Sol. Answer (2)
Black and rough surfaces absorb maximum amount of radiation and than radiate the same amount of radiations.
39. Two balls of same material and same surface finish have their diameters in the ratio 1 : 2. They are heated to the
same temperature and are left in a room to cool by radiation, then the initial rate of loss of heat
(1) Will be same for the balls
(2) For larger ball is half that of other ball
(3) For larger ball is twice that of other ball
(4) For larger ball is four times that of the other ball
Sol. Answer (4)
et
By Stefan-Boltzmann's law
.n
H eA T 4 T04
e
iv
at
re
H A r2
nc
40. A black body, which is at a high temperature T K, thermal radiation emitted at the rate of E W/m2. If the
w
E1 T14
E2 T24
4
E T 4
4
E2 T4
E
E2
256
41. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all made of the same mass and finish are heated to a temperature
of 200°C. Which of these objects will cool slowest, when left in air at room temperature?
(1) The sphere (2) The cube
(3) The circular plate (4) All will cool at same rate
Sol. Answer (1)
Objects with more surface area cool faster [Stefan Boltzmann law].
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⎛ T T ⎞
ln ⎜ 1 0 ⎟ Kt
⎝ T2 T0 ⎠
⎛ 80 30 ⎞
ln ⎜ ⎟ K 10 …(1)
⎝ 60 30 ⎠
⎛ 60 30 ⎞
ln ⎜ ⎟ K 10 …(2)
⎝ T 30 ⎠
5 30
ln ln
et
3 T 30 .n
e
30 × 3 = 5T – 5 × 30
iv
at
T = 48°C
re
nc
43. Two bodies A and B of same mass, area and surface finish with specific heats SA and SB (SA > SB ) are allowed
ar
.le
B
B A
(1) B A (2) A (3) B (4) A
44. Instantaneous temperature difference between cooling body and the surroundings obeying Newton’s law of cooling
is . Which of the following represents the variation of ln with time t?
ln ln ln ln
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(0,0) t (0, 0) t (0, 0) t (0, 0) t
⎛ T T0 ⎞
ln ⎜ f ⎟ Kt
⎝ T T0 ⎠
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⎛ 0 ⎞
ln ⎜ i ⎟ Kt
⎝ 0 ⎠ ⎧ initial temperature ⎫
⎪ i ⎪
ln (i – 0) – ln ( – 0) = KT ⎨ ⎬
⎪⎩0 temperature of surrounding⎪⎭
ln ( – 0) = – Kt + ln (i – 0)
Comparing to
y = mx + C
We get a negative slope, so graph will be a straight line with decreasing slope.
In
(0, 0) t
45. Two metal spheres have radii r and 2r and they emit thermal radiation with maximum intensities at wavelengths
and 2 respectively. The respective ratio of the radiant energy emitted by them per second will be
et
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1:4 (3)
e .n 16 : 1 (4) 8:1
iv
1
T
nc
T1 2 2
So, T 2
w
w
2 1
w
and H eAT 4 ⇒ H AT 4
H1 4r 2 T4 1 4
1 2 4
H2 4 2r 2 T24 4
H1 : H2 :: 4 : 1
46. If temperature of sun is decreased by 1 % then the value of solar constant will change by
(1) 2% (2) –4% (3) –2% (4) 4%
Sol. Answer (2) ⎡ 2 ⎤
⎡R ⎤
Solar constant T 4 ⎢∵ S ⎢ ⎥ T 4 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎣r ⎦ ⎥⎦
S 4 T
S T
T
and 1% [given]
T
S
So 4%
S
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2
⎡R ⎤ 4
Value of solar constant ⎢ ⎥ T
⎣r ⎦
Where,
R = Radius of sun
r = Distance of earth from sun
= Stefan's constant
T = Temperature of sun
R
4.65 103 radians
r
= 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2K–4
T = 5800 K
So substituting values we get
et
S = (4.65 × 10–3)2 × 5.67 × 10–8 × (5800)4
e .n
1360 Wm–2
iv
at
SECTION - B
.le
w
1. A uniform thermometre scale is at steady state with its 0 cm mark at 20°C and 100 cm mark at 100°C.
Temperature of the 60 cm mark is
(1) 48°C (2) 68°C (3) 52°C (4) 58°C
Sol. Answer (2)
T 20 60 0
100 20 100 0
T 20 60
80 100
T = 48 + 20 = 68°C
2. Two uniform rods AB and BC have Young’s modulii 1.2 × 1011 N/m2 and 1.5 × 1011 N/m2 respectively. If
coefficient of linear expansion of AB is 1.5 × 10–5/°C and both have equal area of cross section, then
coefficient of linear expansion of BC, for which there is no shift of the junction at all temperatures, is
C
A B
(1) 1.5 × 10–5/°C (2) 1.2 × 10–5/°C (3) 0.6 × 10–5/°C (4) 0.75 × 10–5/°C
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3. Coefficient of linear expansion of a vessel completely filled with Hg is 1 × 10–5/°C. If there is no overflow of
Hg on heating the vessel, then coefficient of cubical expansion of Hg is
(1) 4 × 10–5/°C (2) > 3 × 10–5/°C (3) 3 × 10–5/°C (4) Data is insufficient
Sol. Answer (3)
Expansion in Hg volume expansion in container.
et
e .n
Volume coefficient of Hg 3 × Linear coefficient of expansion of vessel
iv
at
3 × 1 × 10–5/°C
re
Hg 3 × 10–5/°C
nc
ar
.le
4. A metallic tape gives correct value at 25ºC. A piece of wood is being measured by this metallic tape at 10ºC.
The reading is 30 cm on the tape, the real length of wooden piece must be
w
w
6. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystalline substance in one direction is 2 × 10–4/°C and in every direction
perpendicular to it is 3 × 10–4/°C. The coefficient of cubical expansion of crystal is equal to
(1) 5 × 10–4/°C (2) 4 × 10–4/°C (3) 8 × 10–4/°C (4) 7 × 10–4/°C
Sol. Answer (3)
1 + 2 + 3 =
2 × 10–4 + 3 × 10–4 + 3 × 10–4 =
8 × 10–4/°C =
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R
Cp Cv
M
because Cp and Cv are given per unit mass.
8. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant
pressure to that at constant volume is
9 7 8 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 5 7 7
Sol. Answer (2)
7
Cp R
2
Cv Cp R
5
R
2
et
e .n
iv
Cp 7
at
Cv 5
re
nc
ar
9. A bullet of mass 10 g moving with a speed of 20 m/s hits an ice block of mass 990 g kept on a frictionless
.le
floor and gets stuck in it. How much ice will melt if 50% of the lost KE goes to ice? (initial temperature of
w
1 1 10 20 20
1J
2 2 1000
1
Amount of ice that melts 0.003 g
80 4.2
10. 50 g ice at 0°C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 100 g water at 30°C. If thermal capacity of calorimeter
is zero then amount of ice left in the mixture at equilibrium is
(1) 12.5 g (2) 25 g (3) 20 g (4) 10 g
Sol. Answer (1)
Heat required to bring 100 g of water from 30°C to 0°C will be
Q = 100 × 1 × 30 = 3000 cal
3000
Amount of ice that get melted = 37.5 g
80
So amount left = 12.5 g
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11. Heat is being supplied at a constant rate to the sphere of ice which is melting at the rate of 0.1 gm/
s. It melts completely in 100 s. The rate of rise of temperature thereafter will be
(1) 0.4°C/s (2) 2.1°C/s (3) 3.2°C/s (4) 0.8°C/s
Sol. Answer (4)
dQ dm
L ∵ Q mL
dt dt
dQ
0.1 80 8 cal/gs
dt
also, Q = mst
dQ dT
So ms
dt dt
dT
8 10 1 [∵ It melts in 100 s so total mass of sphere = 0.1 × 100 = 10 g]
dt
dT
8C/s
dt
12. In a calorimeter of water equivalent 20 g, water of mass 1.1 kg is taken at 288 K temperature. If steam at
temperature 373 K is passed through it and temperature of water increases by 6.5°C then the mass of steam
condensed is
et
(1) 17.5 g (2) 11.7 g (3) 15.7 g
.n (4) 18.2 g
e
Sol. Answer (2)
iv
at
Steam at 100°C
re
nc
ar
.le
6.5°C
w
Let mass of steam that gets condenced while the temperature of water is raised by 6.5°C = x g
So, heat released by steam = 540x cal + x × 1 × 78.5 [Q = mL + msT]
This heat goes to the water + calorimeter system
Q required by water = 1100 × 1 × 6.5 = 7150 cal
Q required by calorimeter = 20 × 1 × 6.5 = 130 cal
Qreleased = Qrequired
78.5 x + 540 x = 7150 + 130
x 11.7 g
13. Heat energy at constant rate is given to two substances P and Q. If variation of temperature (T) of substances
with time (t) is as shown in figure, then select the correct statement.
T
P
Q
t
(1) Specific heat of P is greater than Q (2) Specific heat of Q is greater than P
(3) Both have same specific heat (4) Data is insufficient to predict it
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dT
(slope) less means more specific heat.
dt
14. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which
the rate of energy production is Q? ( stands for Stefan's constant.)
1/ 4 1/ 4 1/ 2
⎛ 4R 2Q ⎞ ⎛ Q ⎞ Q ⎛ Q ⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ 2 ⎟ (3) (4) ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ 4R ⎠ 4R 2 ⎝ 4R ⎠
1/4
⎡ Q ⎤
T ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 4r 2 ⎦
et
e .n
16. Which of the following processes is reversible?
iv
at
In isothermal compression
w
17. Solar constant (S) depends upon the temperature of the Sun (T) as
(1) S T (2) S T2 (3) S T3 (4) S T4
Sol. Answer (4)
2
⎡R ⎤
S ⎢ ⎥ T 4
⎣r ⎦
S T4
18. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as shown, with
their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The temperature of their junction is
50°C
2K
3K
100°C
K
0°C
200 100
(1) 75°C (2) °C (3) 40°C (4) °C
3 3
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200
3
19. If wavelength of maximum intensity of radiation emitted by Sun and Moon are 0.5 × 10 –6 m and
10–4 m respectively, then the ratio of their temperature is
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 100 (4) 200
10 50
et
0.5 × 10–6 × T1 = 10–4 × T2 e .n
T1
iv
200
T2
at
re
nc
20. The three rods shown in figure have identical dimensions. Heat flows from the hot end at a rate of 40 W in
ar
the arrangement (a). Find the rates of heat flow when the rods are joined as in arrangement (b).
.le
0°C Al Cu Al 100°C
(a)
Al
0°C Cu 100°C
Al
(b)
L
R
KA
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L L L
K Al A KCu A K Al A
L 5
Reff [∵ KAl = 200, KCu = 400]
A 400
T 100
H1
Reff L 5 …(1)
A 400
(b) When rods are connected in parallel
1 1 1 1
Reff R1 R 2 R3
L
Reff 800
A
100
H2
L …(2)
800
A
et
.n
Dividng (2) by (1)
e
iv
at
40 400
⇒ H2 400 W
re
H2 800 5
nc
ar
21. Two bodies A and B of equal masses, area and emissivity cooling under Newton’s law of cooling from same
.le
temperature are represented by the graph. If is the instantaneous temperature of the body and 0 is the
w
w
log(– 0)
A
B
t
(1) SA = SB (2) SA > SB (3) SA < SB (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Body loosing its temperature soon means low specific heat
SA > SB
22. Two spheres of same material and radius r and 2r are heated to same temperature and are kept in identical
surroundings, ratio of their rate of loss of heat is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:6 (4) 1:8
Sol. Answer (2)
Heat loss Area (Radius)2
2 2
H1 ⎡ r1 ⎤ ⎡r ⎤ 1
So ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
H2 ⎣ r2 ⎦ ⎣ 2r ⎦ 4
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23. Assume that Solar constant is 1.4 kW/m2, radius of sun is 7 × 105 km and the distance of earth from centre
of sun is 1.5 × 108 km. Stefan’s constant is 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 K– 4, find the approximate temperature of sun
(1) 5800 K (2) 16000 K (3) 15500 K (4) 8000 K
Sol. Answer (1)
2
⎡R ⎤
S ⎢ ⎥ T4
⎣r ⎦
2
⎡ 7 105 ⎤ 8
1.4 103 ⎢ ⎥ 5.67 10 T
4
8
⎣⎢ 1.5 10 ⎦⎥
T = 5800 K
24. If a graph is plotted by taking spectral emissive power along y-axis and wavelength along x-axis then the area
below the graph above wavelength axis is
(1) Emissivity (2) Total intensity of radiation
(3) Diffusivity (4) Solar constant
Sol. Answer (2)
∫0 e d area under the graph of e and
et
also it gives total radiated average power per unit surface area which is called total intensity of radiation.
.n
e
iv
25. A spherical black body with radius 12 cm radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius is halved and
at
Power radiated r2 T4
w
w
2 4
w
P1 ⎡ r1 ⎤ ⎡ T1 ⎤
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
P2 ⎣ r2 ⎦ ⎣T2 ⎦
2
450 ⎡⎢ r ⎤⎥ ⎡ T ⎤
4
1
P2 ⎢ r ⎥ ⎢⎣ 2T ⎥⎦
⎣ 2⎦
P2 = 1800 W
26. Three rods of same material, same area of cross-section but different lengths 10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm are
connected at a point as shown. What is temperature of junction O?
20ºC
20 cm
10
cm cm
30 O
30ºC 10ºC
(1) 19.2°C (2) 16.4°C (3) 11.5°C (4) 22°C
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KA KA KA
30 20 10
30 20 10
30 20 10
3 2 1
30 20 2 20
3 2
60 – 2 = 9 – 120
180
11
16.36°C =
1 1
27. If transmission power of a surface is , reflective power is , then what is its absorptive power?
9 6
18 13 3 15
(1) (2) (3) (4)
et
13 18 15
.n 3
e
Sol. Answer (2)
iv
at
t + r+a=1
re
a = 1 – (t + r)
nc
ar
⎛ 1 1⎞
1 ⎜ ⎟
.le
⎝9 6⎠
w
w
13
a
w
18
28. A solid cylinder of length L and radius r is heat upto same temperature as that of a cube of edge length a. If
both have same material, volume and allowed to cool under similar conditions, then ratio of amount of radiations
radiated will be (Neglect radiation emitted from flat surfaces of the cylinder)
a 2a a2 a2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3r rL rL 2rL
Sol. Answer (1)
∵ Both have same volume
a3 = r2L …(1)
Amount of radiation Surface area [∵ Temperature, material are same for both]
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29. A very thin metallic shell of radius r is heated to temperature T and then allowed to cool. The rate of cooling
of shell is proportional to
1
(1) rT (2) (3) r2 (4) r0
r
directly proportional.
at
re
nc
31. Two diagonally opposite corners of a square made of a four thin rods of same material, same dimensions are at
ar
temperature 40°C and 10°C. If only heat conduction takes place, then the temperature difference between other
.le
32. Bottom of a lake is at 0°C and atmospheric temperature is –20°C. If 1 cm ice is formed on the surface in
24 h, then time taken to form next 1 cm of ice is
(1) 24 h (2) 72 h (3) 48 h (4) 96 h
Sol. Answer (2)
Time intervals to change thickness from 0 to x from x to 2x are in ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 ……
t1 : t2 = 1 : 3
= 24 : 24 × 3
t2 = 72 hours
33. The power received at distance d from a small metallic sphere of radius r(<<d) and at absolute temperature
T is P. If temperature is doubled and distance reduced to half of initial value, then the power received at that
point will be
(1) 4p (2) 8p (3) 32p (4) 64p
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T4
Solar constant
r2
Solar constant equivalent to power received so
P1 T14 r22
P2 r12 T24
2
P T 4 r / 2
P2 r 2 (2T )4
P2 = 64p
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional change in the density
of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 0.010 (2) 0.015 (3) 0.020 (4) 0.025
et
Sol. Answer (3) .n
e
iv
2. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat flow in the
at
re
rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200°C and 210°C, the rate of heat flow
nc
will be [AIPMT-2015]
ar
(1) 4.0 J/s (2) 44.0 J/s (3) 16.8 J/s (4) 8.0 J/s
.le
w
3. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R , it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum
in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red
colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q
and R then it can be concluded from the above observations that [AIPMT-2015]
(1) TP < TQ < TR (2) TP > TQ > TR (3) TP > TR > TQ (4) TP < TR < TQ
Sol. Answer (3)
4. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass
of water present will be:
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1°C–1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g–1] [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 24 g (2) 31.5 g (3) 42.5 g (4) 22.5 g
Sol. Answer (4)
5. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next
5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 45°C (2) 20°C (3) 42°C (4) 10°C
Sol. Answer (1)
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6. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to
white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using [NEET-2013]
(1) Wien's displacement law (2) Kirchoff's law
(3) Newton's law of cooling (4) Stefan's law
Sol. Answer (1)
According to Wien's displacement Law, if temperature rises than decreases.
Which explains change of colour.
7. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which
one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Temperature
Temperature
Temperature
Temperature
(1) (2) (3) (4)
et
be represented as .n
e
iv
w Temperature
at
re
nc
ar
.le
Time
w
w
8. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the
rate of energy production is Q? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
1/ 4 1/ 4 1/ 2
⎛ 4R 2Q ⎞ ⎛ Q ⎞ Q ⎛ Q ⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ 2 ⎟ (3) (4) ⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ 4R ⎠ 4R 2 ⎝ 4R ⎠
1/4
T ⎛⎜ Q ⎞⎟
⎝ 4R 2 ⎠
9. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 m is exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100°C. A
block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal
conductivity of slab is (Given, latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1) [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) 1.24 J/m/s/°C (2) 1.29 J/m/s/°C (3) 2.05 J/m/s/°C (4) 1.02 J/m/s/°C
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KA
Heat supplied per second T
L
K = 1.24 J/m/s/°C
10. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to
be 80 cal/°C, is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 293 cal/K (2) 273 cal/K (3) 8 × 104 cal/K (4) 80 cal/K
Sol. Answer (1)
Heat absorbed
Change in entropy S
Temperature at that instant
Q
S [Q = mL1]
et
T e .n
1000 80
iv
S
at
273
re
nc
S = 293 cal/K
ar
.le
11. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of
w
heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original
w
w
rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs
in time t? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) 2Q (4)
4 16 2
KR 2
Q
L
KR 2 Q
Q2
4 4 L 16
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12. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the
centre of a star of radius r, whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature T K is given by
(where is Stefan’s constant) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
r 2T 4 r 2T 4 r 4T 4 4r 2T 4
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4)
R2 4r r4 R2
Sol. Answer (1)
Q
P 2
, Q 4r 2 T 4
4R
r 2T 4
P
R2
13. The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T1 and T2
dQ
(T1 > T2). The rate of heat transfer, , through the rod in a steady state is given by
dt
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
et
Sol. Answer (3) .n
e
dQ kA(T1 T2 )
iv
H
at
dt L
re
nc
14. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cals/cm2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat
ar
.le
4
R1 ⎛ T1 ⎞
So ⎜ ⎟
R2 ⎝ T2 ⎠
4
7 ⎛ 500 ⎞
x ⎜⎝ 1000 ⎟⎠
x = 112 cal/cm2s
15. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water
are 39° W and 239° W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature
of 39° C on the Celsius scale? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) 139° W (2) 78° W (3) 117° W (4) 200° W
Sol. Answer (3)
39 0 T 39
100 0 239 39
117°W = T
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Q
P , Q = 4r2(t + 273)4
4R 2
r 2 (t 273)4
P
R2
17. A black body is at 727°C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) (727)4 (2) (727)2 (3) (1000)4 (4) (1000)2
Sol. Answer (3)
E T4
So E (727 + 273)4
(1000)4
et
.n
18. A black body at 1227°C emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 Å. If the temperature
e
iv
of the body is increased by 1000°C, the maximum intensity will be observed at : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
at
re
⎡ 1⎤
⎢ T ⎥
w
Wien's law
⎣ ⎦
w
w
T1 2
T2 1
1500 K
2500 K 5000 Å
3000 Å =
19. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose
ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (2) r = 2r0; l = l0 (3) r = r0; l = l0 (4) r = r0; l = 2l0
Sol. Answer (2)
A r2 ⎧ A⎫
Rod with more ratio or ratio will conduct more heat ⎨∵ H ⎬
L L ⎩ L⎭
20. The coefficients of linear expansion of brass and steel are 1 and 2 respectively. When we take a brass rod
of length l1 and steel rod of length l2 at 0°C, then difference in their lengths (l2 – l1) will remain the same at
all temperatures, if
(1) 12l1 = 22l2 (2) 1l2 = 2l1 (3) 1l1 = 2l2 (4) 1l22 = 2l12
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21. The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m3 and at 40°C 992 kg/m3. The coefficient of volume expansion of water
is
(1) 10–4/°C (2) 3 × 10–4/°C (3) 2 × 10–4/°C (4) 6 × 10–4/°C
Sol. Answer (2)
2 = 1 (1 – T)
992 = 998 (1 – × 20)
3 × 10–4/°C
22. If 1 g of steam at 100°C steam is mixed with 1 g of ice at 0°C, then resultant temperature of the mixture is
(1) 100°C (2) 230°C (3) 270°C (4) 50°C
et
Sol. Answer (1)
e .n
iv
23. Heat is flowing through two cylindrical rods of the same material. The diameters of the rods are in the ratio
1 : 2 and the lengths in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between the ends is same, then ratio of
the rate of flow of heat through them will be
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 8:1 (3) 1:1 (4) 1:8
Sol. Answer (4)
d2 ⎡ KA ⎤
H ⎢H L ( T )⎥
L ⎣ ⎦
2
H1 ⎡ d1 ⎤ ⎡ L2 ⎤
So ⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
H2 ⎣ d 2 ⎦ ⎣ L1 ⎦
2
⎡ 1⎤ 1 1
⎢ ⎥
⎣2⎦ 2 8
H1 1
H2 8
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Q1 Q1
(1) 4Q1 (2) 2Q1 (3) (4)
4 2
KA K r 2
Q1 (T2 T1 ) (T2 T1 )
L L
K (2r 2 ) 2K r 2
and Q2 (T2 T1 ) (T2 T1 ) 2Q1
(2L ) L
25. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have same temperature difference between their ends. Their thermal
conductivities are K1 and K2 and cross sectional areas A1 and A2, respectively. If the rate of heat conduction
in 1 is four times that in 2, then
(1) K1A1 = K2A2 (2) K1A1 = 4K2A2 (3) K1A1 = 2K2A2 (4) 4K1A1 = K2A2
Sol. Answer (2)
∵ T is same for both the rods and lengths are also same
et
H .n
constant
KA
e
iv
at
H1 H2
re
So K A K A
nc
1 1 2 2
ar
.le
H1 K1A1 ⎡ H1 ⎤
w
⎢∵ 4⎥
H2 K 2 A2 ⎣ H2
w
⎦
w
4K2A2 = K1A1
26. Consider two rods of same lengths and different specific heats (S1, S2), conductivities (K1, K2) and area of
cross-sections (A1, A2) and both having temperatures T1, and T2 at their ends. If rate of flow of heat due to
conduction is equal, then
K 1 A1 K 2 A2 K 2 A1 K 1 A2
(1) K1A1 = K2A2 (2) (3) K2A1 = K1A2 (4)
S1 S2 S2 S1
K1A1 K A
(T2 T1 ) 2 2 (T2 T1 )
L L
K1A1 = K2A2
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28. Consider a compound slab consisting of two pieces of same length and different materials having equal
thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2 K, respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab
is
30. A black body is at a temperature of 500 K. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
(1) (500)3 (2) (500)4 (3) 500 (4) (500)2
et
Sol. Answer (2) .n
E T4
e
iv
So, E (500)4
at
re
nc
32. For a black body at temperature 727°C, its rate of energy loss is 20 watt and temperature of surrounding is 227°C.
If temperature of black body is changed to 1227°C then its rate of energy loss will be
320
(1) 304 W (2) W (3) 240 W (4) 120 W
3
dH
T 4 T04
dt
20 1000 4 5 4
x 1500 4 5 4
320
x W
3
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80C
t
75C
t
70C
t
65C
1 2 3
T1 T0
ln kt
T2 T0
Where T0 is temperature of surroundings and T1 and T2 are initial and final temperature so more difference
between T1, T2 and T0 less is the time taken to reach T2 from T1
t3 > t2 > t1
34. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns
to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using
(1) Wien's displacement Law (2) Kirchoff's Law
(3) Newton's Law of cooling (4) Stefan's Law
Sol. Answer (1)
et
.n
35. The Wien’s displacement law expresses the relation between
e
iv
36. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region
(2) The radiation is emitted only during the day
(3) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
(4) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
Sol. Answer (1)
Wavelength lies in infra-red region as temperature of human body is very low.
37. If m denotes the wavelength at which the radiative emission from a black body at a temperature T K is
maximum, then
(1) m T 4 (2) m is independent of T (3) m T (4) m T–1
Sol. Answer (4)
Wien's displacement Law
m T = b
1
So m
T
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38. A black body has wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity m at 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at
3000 K will be
3 2 16 81
(1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m
2 3 81 16
Sol. Answer (2)
1
[Wien's Law]
T
1 T2
So T
2 1
m 3000
2000
2
m
3
39. The radiant energy from the sun, incident normally at the surface of earth is 20 kcal/m2 min. What would have
been the radiant energy, incident normally on the earth, if the sun had a temperature, twice of the present one?
(1) 320 kcal/m2 min (2) 40 kcal/m2 min (3) 160 kcal/m2 min (4) 80 kcal/m2 min
et
.n
Sol. Answer (1)
e
iv
E T4
at
re
4
20 ⎛ T ⎞
nc
E ⎜⎝ 2T ⎟⎠
ar
.le
SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
2. A : A solid and a hollow sphere of same diameter and same material when heated for the same temperature rise, will
expand by the same amount.
R : The change in volume is independent of the original mass but depends on original volume.
Sol. Answer (1)
A : is true
R : is true and correct explanation of Assertion.
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4. A : Material used for making cooking utensils is the one having high specific heat and high conductivity.
R : Low conductivity means high specific heat.
Sol. Answer (4)
A : is false, material used for making cooking utensils is the one having low specific heat and high conductivity.
R : is false.
5. A : The value of the absorptive power and the emissivity has the same value for a single body at a particular
temperature.
R : Value of absorptive power is 1 for a black body.
Sol. Answer (2)
A : is true
et
R : is true
.n
But the correct reason is black body radiate as much as it absorbs.
e
iv
at
A : is true
w
w
10. A : The thermal conductivity of a body depends on its material and dimensions.
R : Thermal conductivity is proportional to length and inversely proportional to area cross-section of body.
Sol. Answer (4)
A : False, Thermal conductivity depends only on material
R : False, Thermal conductivity is constant for a given material
12. A : The rate of growth of ice on the surface of a lake decreases with increase in thickness of ice layer.
R : Ice is poor conductor of heat energy.
Sol. Answer (1)
A : True
R : True and correct explanation.
et
13. A : Natural convection is not possible in an orbiting satellite.
e.n
R : Natural convection is not possible in gravity free space.
iv
at
A : True
ar
w
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Chapter 12
Thermodynamics
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
1. In thermodynamics the Zeroth law is related to
(1) Work done (2) Thermal equilibrium (3) Entropy (4) Diffusion
Sol. Answer (2)
et
Zeroth law related to thermal equilibrium. .n
e
iv
3. Select the incorrect relation. (Where symbols have their usual meanings)
w
w
R Pf Vf – PV
i i R
(1) CP = (2) CP – CV = R (3) U = (4) CV =
–1 1– –1
5. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas the fractional change in its pressure is equal to
V dV dV dV
(1) – (2) – (3) (4) –
dV V V V
Sol. Answer (4)
∵ PV = constant So, P V–
P ⎛ dV ⎞
Then, ⎜ ⎟
P ⎝ V ⎠
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7. Select the correct statement for work, heat and change in internal energy.
(1) Heat supplied and work done depend on initial and final states
(2) Change in internal energy depends on the initial and final states only
(3) Heat and work depend on the path between the two points
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
All statements are correct.
8. Morning breakfast gives 5000 cal to a 60 kg person. The efficiency of person is 30%. The height upto which the
person can climb up by using energy obtained from breakfast is
(1) 5 m (2) 10.5 m (3) 15 m (4) 16.5 m
et
.n
Sol. Answer (2)
e
iv
∵ W = JQ So, mgh = JQ
at
re
nc
⎛ 30 ⎞
4.2 5000
JQ ⎜⎝ 100 ⎟⎠
ar
h = 10.5 m
.le
mgh 60 10
w
w
w
9. Select the incorrect statement about the specific heats of a gaseous system.
(1) Specific heat at no exchange condition, CA = 0 (2) Specific heat at constant temperature, CT =
R R
(3) Specific heat at constant pressure, CP (4) Specific heat at constant volume, CV
1
P0
(0, 0) V
V0 3V0
22
(1) 4P0V0 (2) –4P0V0 (3) P0V0 (4) –13P0V0
7
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⎛ 3P P0 ⎞ ⎛ 3V0 V0 ⎞
⎜ 0 ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
22
P0V0
7
11. In following figures (a) to (d), variation of volume by change of pressure is shown in figure. The gas is taken
along the path ABCDA. Change in internal energy of the gas will be
P
(a) P (b) P (c) P (d) D
D
D C C
D C C
A B
A V
B A B O
A B V V
V O O
O
et
(1) Positive in all cases from (a) to (d) .n
(2) Positive in cases (a), (b) and (c) but zero in case (d)
e
iv
at
(3) Negative in cases (a), (b) and (c) but zero in case (d)
re
12. In a thermodynamic process pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas
releases 20 J of heat when 8 J of work was done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was
30 J, then the final internal energy will be
(1) 2 J (2) 18 J (3) 42 J (4) 58 J
Sol. Answer (2)
We know by 1st Law of Thermodynamics
Q = U + W
– 20 J = U – 8 J
∵ U = Ufinal – Uinitial
U = – 12 J
So, Ufinal = Uinitial + U
= 30 + (–12) = 18 J
13. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by absorbing 8 × 105 joule and doing 6.5 × 105 joule of external
work. If it is taken from same initial state A to final state B in another process in which it absorbs 105 J of
heat, then in the second process work done
(1) On gas is 105 J (2) On gas is 0.5 × 105 J
(3) By gas is 105 J (4) By gas is 0.5 × 105 J
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14. Figure shows two processes a and b for a given sample of gas. If Q1, Q2 are the amount of heat absorbed
by the system in the two cases; and U1, U2 are changes in internal energy respectively, then
a
P
b
(0,0) V
(1) Q1 = Q2; U1 = U2 (2) Q1 > Q2; U1 > U2
(3) Q1 < Q2; U1 < U2 (4) Q1 > Q2; U1 = U2
et
.n
Sol. Answer (4)
e
iv
U1 = U2 P
nc
Area under 'a' > area under 'b' i.e., W1 > W2 b
ar
(0,0) V
w
15. A gas undergoes a change at constant temperature. Which of the following quantities remain fixed?
(1) Pressure (2) Entropy
(3) Heat exchanged with the system (4) All the above may change
Sol. Answer (4)
When temperature change = 0 then,
P1V1 = P2V2 = constant
Rest may change.
16. Following figure shows P-T graph for four processes A, B, C and D. Select the correct alternative.
D
P C
A
(0, 0) T
(1) A – Isobaric process (2) B – Adiabatic process
(3) C – Isochoric process (4) D – Isothermal process
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17. An ideal gas with adiabatic exponent is heated at constant pressure. It absorbs Q amount of heat. Fraction
of heat absorbed in increasing the temperature is
1 1
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (2)
Heat absorbed in increasing temperature = U = Q – W = nCV T
Heat absorbed
Fraction of heat absorbed =
Total heat
nCV T
nCP T
et
.n
C 1
V
e
CP
iv
at
re
nc
18. A certain amount of an ideal monatomic gas needs 20 J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 10°C at
ar
constant pressure. The heat needed for the same temperature rise at constant volume will be
.le
Q = nCP T
20 = nCP × 10 ...(1)
U = nCV T
CP
U n T ∵ mono 5 / 3
U = 12 J
19. Two cylinders contain same amount of ideal monatomic gas. Same amount of heat is given to two cylinders.
If temperature rise in cylinder A is T0 then temperature rise in cylinder B will be
A B
Heat Heat
4 T0 5
(1) T0 (2) 2T0 (3) (4) T0
3 2 3
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CP 5
T T0 T0 T0
CV 3
20. A sample of an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion. If dQ, dU and dW represent the amount of heat
supplied, the change in internal energy and the work done respectively, then
(1) dQ = +ve, dU = +ve, dW = +ve (2) dQ = +ve, dU = 0, dW = +ve
(3) dQ = +ve, dU = +ve, dW = 0 (4) dQ = –ve, dU = –ve, dW = –ve
Sol. Answer (2)
dQ = positive, dU = zero, dW = positive
∵ dQ = dU + dW
et
.n
21. In the diagram shown Qiaf = 80 cal and Wiaf = 50 cal. If W = –30 cal for the curved path fi, value of Q for
e
path fi, will be
iv
at
re
P
nc
a f
ar
.le
w
i
w
w
V
(0, 0)
(1) 60 cal (2) 30 cal (3) –30 cal (4) –60 cal
Sol. Answer (4)
From process iaf
Find U first, Q = W + U
a f
80 = 50 + U
30 cal = U
i
Use this U for process if
Q = W + U
Q = – 30 + (–30) = – 60 cal
1
22. A mass of dry air at N.T.P. is compressed to th of its original volume suddenly. If = 1.4, the final pressure
32
would be
1
(1) 32 atm (2) 128 atm (3) atm (4) 150 atm
32
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PV K
P1V1 P2V2
⎛V ⎞
P2 P1 ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ V2 ⎠
7/5
⎛ V1 ⎞
P2 (1 atm) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ V1 / 32 ⎠
P2 = 1 atm × (25)7/5
= 128 atm
23. Two samples A and B of a gas initially at the same temperature and pressure, are compressed from volume
V
V to (A isothermally and B adiabatically). The final pressure
2
et
(1) PA > PB (2) PA = PB (3)
e .n
PA < PB (4) PA = 2PB
iv
P
re
nc
PB
ar
B
.le
PA
A
w
w
w
V
V V
2
i.e., PA < PB
1
26. A mixture of gases at NTP for which = 1.5 is suddenly compressed to th of its original volume. The final
9
temperature of mixture is
(1) 300°C (2) 546°C (3) 420°C (4) 872°C
Sol. Answer (2)
TV –1 = constant
T1V1–1 = T2V2–1
1
⎛V ⎞
T2 T1 ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ V2 ⎠
1.5 1
⎡ V ⎤
T2 (273 K) ⎢ 1 ⎥
⎣V / 9 ⎦
T2 = (273 K) × 3
= 819 K
= 546°C
et
27. In which process P-V diagram is a straight line parallel to the volume axis?
.n
e
(1) Isochoric (2) Isobaric (3) Isothermal (4) Adiabatic
iv
at
V
w
28. The P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown in the figure. The graphs
1 and 2 should correspond respectively to
1
2
V
(0, 0)
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D C
V
et
e .n
iv
at
30. The figure shows P-V diagram of a thermodynamic cycle. Which corresponding curve is correct?
re
nc
P
ar
B C
.le
w
w
A D
w
(0, 0) V
P P C P P
B C D A D D C
A A
(1) D (2) A B (3) C (4) B
B
O T O T O T O T
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R
P T
V
31. During the thermodynamic process shown in figure for an ideal gas
(1) T = 0 Q = 0
et U > 0
(2) (3)
e .n
W<0 (4)
iv
P
nc
increases [PV T]
.le
w
So T 0
w
V
w
32. For P-V diagram of a thermodynamic cycle as shown in figure, process BC and DA are isothermal. Which
of the corresponding graphs is correct?
P A B
D
V
A B D C
P A B V C B
P V
C B
C A
(1) D (2) (3) A (4)
D D
(0,0) (0,0) T (0,0) T (0,0) T
T
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So P T
V
B(30 kPa, 25 cc)
et
(1) 1 J (2) 1.5 J (3)
e .n 4.5 J (4) 0.3 J
iv
v
w
re
B
1
ar
2
10 cc
w
A
P
w
= 0.3 J
w
34. During which of the following thermodynamic process represented by PV diagram the heat energy absorbed
by system may be equal to area under PV graph?
P P P
A A A
P P P
A A A
BT B T BT
V V V
O O O
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R R R R R R R R
(1) (2) (3) – (4) –
–1 N –1 1– 1– N –1 N –1 1– 1– N
R R R
∵ C CV
1 N 1 N 1
36. For a certain process, pressure of diatomic gas varies according to the relation P = aV 2, where a is constant.
What is the molar heat capacity of the gas for this process?
R
∵ C CV
1 N
et
.n
e
R R 7
iv
of diatomic
at
1 1 N 5
re
nc
R R
ar
⎛ 7 ⎞ 1 ( 2)
.le
⎜ 1⎟
⎝5 ⎠
w
w
w
5R R 17R
2 1 2 6
37. In a thermodynamic process two moles of a monatomic ideal gas obeys P V 2 . If temperature of the gas
increases from 300 K to 400 K, then find work done by the gas (where R = universal gas constant).
(1) 200 R (2) –200 R (3) –100 R (4) –400 R
Sol. Answer (2)
P V–2
PV2 = constant Compare with PVN = constant then N = 2
⎛ R ⎞
W ⎜ ⎟ T
⎝ 1 N ⎠
R
W (T2 T1 )
1 N
2 R(400 300)
(1 2)
= –200 R
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39. If during an adiabatic process the pressure of mixture of gases is found to be proportional to square of its
absolute temperature. The ratio of CP /CV for mixture of gases is
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.67 (4) 2.1
Sol. Answer (1)
P T2
⎛ ⎞
PT–2 = constant compare with PT ⎜ ⎟ constant
⎝ 1 ⎠
CP
2
CV
et
40. If the efficiency of a carnot engine is , then the coefficient of performance of a heat pump working between
.n
the same temperatures will be
e
iv
1 1
at
1
(1) 1 – (2) (3) (4) 1+
re
nc
ar
1 1
w
41. In a Carnot engine, when heat is absorbed from the source, temperature of source
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant (4) Cannot say
Sol. Answer (3)
Even when heat is taken out temperature stays the same. i.e., heat capacity of surface is infinite.
42. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K has a work output of 800 J per cycle. The amount of heat
energy supplied to engine from the source in each cycle is
(1) 800 J (2) 1600 J (3) 3200 J (4) 6400 J
Sol. Answer (2)
W = 800 J
W T
1 2
Q T1
800 300
1
Q 600
1600 J = Q
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43. An ideal heat engine operates on Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cal at the higher
temperature. The amount of heat converted into work equals to
(1) 4.8 × 104 cal (2) 3.5 × 104 cal (3) 1.6 × 104 cal (4) 1.2 × 104 cal
Sol. Answer (4)
W 400
1
4 500
6 10
W = 1.2 × 104 cal
T1
(3) 1
T2
⎛ T ⎞
(4) Dependent upon the temperature of source (T1) and sink (T2) and is equal to ⎜⎜1 2 ⎟⎟
⎝ T1 ⎠
Sol. Answer (4)
et
T
1 2 .n
T1
e
iv
45. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
nc
ar
(1) Equal to its input temperature (2) Less than its input temperature
.le
T
∵ 1 2
T1
If exhaust temperature zero kelvin then = 100%.
46. A reversible engine and an irreversible engine are working between the same temperatures. The efficiency of
the
(1) Two engines are same (2) Reversible engine is greater
(3) Irreversible engine is greater (4) Two engines cannot be compared
Sol. Answer (2)
Efficiency of reversible engine is greater, because there is no loss of heat.
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1
is less than 1 so 1
1
1 0
>0
48. The temperature inside and outside a refrigerator are 273 K and 300 K respectively. Assuming that the
refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be nearly
(1) 11 J (2) 22 J (3) 33 J (4) 50 J
Sol. Answer (1)
T 273 9
1 2 ; 1
T1 300 100
1 100 91
1 ∼ 11 J
9 9
Q
W
For W = 1 J
Q=
et
.n
Q = 11 J
e
iv
at
50. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of
source be increased to as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency?
(1) 150 K (2) 250 K (3) 300 K (4) 450 K
Sol. Answer (2)
40 300
1 50% increase in efficiency
100 T1
150
T1 500 K 0.4 0.6
100
60
new efficiency = 0.6 =
100
60 300
1
100 T1
T1 750 K
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. A container is filled with 20 moles of an ideal diatomic gas at absolute temperature T. When heat is supplied
to gas temperature remains constant but 8 moles dissociate into atoms. Heat energy given to gas is
(1) 4RT (2) 6RT (3) 3RT (4) 5RT
Sol. Answer (1)
Heat supplied = U = Ufinal – Uinitial
5 5 3
Uinitial 20 RT , Ufinal 20 8 RT 2 8 RT
2 2 2
U 8 RT
2
= 4RT
Heat energy given is 4RT.
2. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which
one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time?
et
.n
Temperature
Temperature
Temperature
Temperature
e
iv
at
re
Temperature
3. For an isobaric process, the ratio of Q (amount of heat supplied) to the W (work done by the gas) is
⎛ C ⎞
⎜⎜ P ⎟⎟
⎝ CV ⎠
(1) (2) – 1 (3) (4)
1 1
Q CP CP 1 ⎡ CP ⎤
So, ⎢∵ ⎥
W R CP CV C 1 ⎣ CV ⎦
1 V
CP
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3 3
(1) RT ln 2 (2) 3RT ln 2 (3) RT (4) 3RT
2 2
Sol. Answer (4)
W = PV
= PV
= nRT
= 3RT
5. Two moles of a gas at temperature T and volume V are heated to twice its volume at constant pressure. If
Cp
then increase in internal energy of the gas is
Cv
RT 2RT 2RT 2T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 1 3( 1) 1
Sol. Answer (2)
Q = U + W
et
.n
Q – W = U
e
iv
at
W W U
re
1
nc
ar
⎝ 1⎠
w
w
w
6. A triatomic, diatomic and monatomic gas is supplied same amount of heat at constant pressure, then
(1) Fractional energy used to change internal energy is maximum in monatomic gas
(2) Fractional energy used to change internal energy is maximum in diatomic gas
(3) Fractional energy used to change internal energy is maximum in triatomic gases
(4) Fractional energy used to change internal energy is same in all the three gases
Sol. Answer (3)
U nCV T C 1
V
Q nCP T CP
⎛ U ⎞ 1 3
⎜ ⎟
⎝ Q ⎠mono mono 5
⎛ U ⎞ 1 5
⎜ ⎟
⎝ Q ⎠dia dia 7
⎛ U ⎞ 1 3
⎜ ⎟
⎝ Q ⎠tria tria 4
Fractional energy used to change internal energy is maximum in Triatomic gas.
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7. 105 calories of heat is required to raise the temperature of 3 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from
30°C to 35°C. The amount of heat required in calories to raise the temperature of the gas through the range
⎛ Cp ⎞
(60°C to 65°C) at constant volume is ⎜⎜ 1.4 ⎟⎟
⎝ Cv ⎠
(1) 50 cal (2) 75 cal (3) 70 cal (4) 90 cal
Sol. Answer (2)
At constant pressure heat absorbed = Q = nCP T …(1)
At constant volume heat absorbed = U = nCV T …(2)
Dividing (1) by (2),
Q CP 105
1.4 ⇒ 1.4
U CV U
UV = 75 cal
8. To an ideal triatomic gas 800 cal heat energy is given at constant pressure. If vibrational mode is neglected,
then energy used by gas in work done against surroundings is
(1) 200 cal (2) 300 cal (3) 400 cal (4) 60 cal
Sol. Answer (1)
et
Heat at constant pressure
.n
Q = nCP T
e
iv
W = nRT
re
nc
W nR T
ar
Then
.le
Q nCP T
w
w
W ⎛ 1 ⎞
w
800 ⎝⎜ ⎠⎟
W 1
1
800
W 3
1
800 4
W = 200 cal
9. A closed cylindrical vessel contains N moles of an ideal diatomic gas at a temperature T. On supplying heat,
temperature remains same, but n moles get dissociated into atoms. The heat supplied is
5 5 1 3
(1) (N n )RT (2) nRT (3) nRT (4) nRT
2 2 2 2
Sol. Answer (3)
5
Total internal energy initially = NRT [Only diatomic gas is present]
2
Total internal energy when
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5 3
'n' moles get dissociated = N n RT 2n RT [diatomic and monoatomic both are present]
2 2
⎧5 3 ⎫ 5
U ⎨ N n RT 2n RT ⎬ NRT
⎩ 2 2 ⎭ 2
Solving this we get
1
U nRT
2
1
Heat supplied is nRT .
2
10. Figure shows the isotherms of a fixed mass of an ideal gas at three temperatures TA, TB and TC, then
1 A
V B
O P
et
.n
(1) TA > TB > TC (2) TA < TB < TC (3) TB < TA < TC (4) TA = TB = TC
e
iv
∵ PV = RT 1 A
B
nc
V
RT
ar
P C
.le
V
w
w
1
w
11. An ideal monatomic gas at 300 K expands adiabatically to 8 times its volume. What is the final temperature?
(1) 75 K (2) 300 K (3) 560 K (4) 340 K
Sol. Answer (1)
Adiabatic expansion
5
for monoatomic gas
3
1
⎛V ⎞
T2 T1 ⎜ 1 ⎟
⎝ V2 ⎠
5/3
⎛V ⎞ 300
300 ⎜ 1 ⎟ 75 K
⎝ 8V1 ⎠ 4
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5
12. Slope of isotherm for a gas (having ) is 3 × 105 N/m2. If the same gas is undergoing adiabatic change
3
then adiabatic elasticity at that instant is
(1) 3 × 105 N/m2 (2) 5 × 105 N/m2 (3) 6 × 105 N/m2 (4) 10 × 105 N/m2
Sol. Answer (2)
Adiabatic elasticity = P
5
3 105 5 105 N/m2
3
13. A gas may expand either adiabatically or isothermally. A number of P–V curves are drawn for the two
processes over different range of pressure and volume. It will be found that
(1) An adiabatic curve and an isothermal curve may intersect
(2) Two adiabatic curves do not intersect
(3) Two isothermal curves do not intersect
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Slope for isothermal and adiabatic are not same so they will intersect.
et
14. The variation of pressure P with volume V for an ideal monatomic gas during an adiabatic process is shown
.n
in figure. At point A the magnitude of rate of change of pressure with volume is
e
iv
P
at
re
nc
ar
A
.le
3 P0
w
w
V
w
O 2 V0
3 P0 5 P0 3 P0 5 P0
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 V0 3 V0 2 V0 2 V0
5 3 P0 V
O 2 V0
3 2 V0
5 P0
2 V0
⎛ dP ⎞ 5 P0
Then ⎜ ⎟
⎝ dV ⎠ 2V0
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TV 1 K
logT 1 logV 0
logT 1 logV
y = – ( – 1) x
y 24
1 slope =
x 4 1
et
2
.n
– ( – 1) =
e
3
iv
at
5
re
3
nc
Monoatomic.
ar
.le
w
16. A cyclic process on an ideal monatomic gas is shown in figure. The correct statement is
w
w
P
B C
A
V
(1) Work done by gas in process AB is more than that in the process BC
(2) Net heat energy has been supplied to the system
(3) Temperature of the gas is maximum at state B
(4) In process CA, heat energy is absorbed by system
Sol. Answer (2)
It is a cyclic system U = 0
and work done is (+)ive, so heat is supplied to system.
17. A diatomic gas undergoes a process represented by PV1.3 = constant. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) The gas expands by absorbing heat from the surroundings
(2) The gas cools down during expansion
(3) The work done by surroundings during expansion of the gas is negative
(4) None of these
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P2V2 PV
1 1
W ∵ N > 1, so W is negative.
1 N
Heat supplied by surrounding heat goes to do work.
Down when expands.
18. If a gas is taken from A to C through B then heat absorbed by the gas is 8 J. Heat absorbed by the gas in
taking it from A to C directly is
P (kPa)
20 C
10 B
A
10 200
re
U 8 6
nc
1000
ar
W + U = Q
w
w
w
19. The process CD is shown in the diagram. As system is taken from C to D, what happens to the temperature
of the system?
P
3p0 C
p0 D
v0 V
3v0
(1) Temperature first decreases and then increases (2) Temperature first increases and then decreases
(3) Temperature decreases continuously (4) Temperature increases continuously
Sol. Answer (2) P
T3 > T2 > T1 T1T2 T3
So from C D
Temperature first increases then decreases.
V
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B
D
A
O T
21. A hydrogen cylinder is designed to withstand an internal pressure of 100 atm. At 27°C, hydrogen is pumped
into the cylinder which exerts a pressure of 20 atm. At what temperature does the danger of explosion first
sets in?
et
(1) 500 K (2) 1500 K (3) 1000 K
.n (4) 2000 K
e
Sol. Answer (2)
iv
at
PV = nRT
nc
ar
P1 P2
.le
T1 T2
w
w
20 100
w
300 T2
T2 = 1500 K
22. An ideal gas of volume V and pressure P expands isothermally to volume 16 V and then compressed
adiabatically to volume V. The final pressure of gas is [ = 1.5]
(1) P (2) 3P (3) 4P (4) 6P
Sol. Answer (3)
Isothermal expansion
P1V1 = P2V2
PV = 16 V × P'
P
P'
16
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23. The pressure P of an ideal diatomic gas varies with its absolute temperature T as shown in figure. The molar
heat capacity of gas during this process is [R is gas constant]
P
T
(1) 1.7 R (2) 3.25 R (3) 2.5 R (4) 4.2 R
Sol. Answer (3)
5
CV of diatomic = R
2
24. An ideal gas expands according to the law P 2V = constant. The internal energy of the gas
(1) Increases continuously (2) Decreases continuously
(3) Remain constant (4) First increases and then decreases
Sol. Answer (1)
P2V = K
or PV–2 = K
N = –2
et
R
C CV positive quantity .n
1 N
e
iv
C>0
at
re
T > 0
w
w
So U = CT > 0
It will increase continuously.
25. The variation of pressure P with volume V for an ideal diatomic gas is parabolic as shown in the figure. The molar
specific heat of the gas during this process is
P
O V
9R 17R 3R 8R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 6 4 5
Sol. Answer (2)
P = aV–2 So, PV2 = constant then N = 2
R R
C ∵ = 1.4
1 1 N
17R
C
6
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1 1 P2V2
PV [for isothermal]
PV P ' 2V
P
P'
2
P 5/3 5/3
2V P2 V [ for neon = 5/3 ]
2
2/3
P P2 . 2
2/3
P P P2 P2 . 2
Fractional decrease 2 1 22/3
et
P2 P2 .n
e
iv
at
27. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0° C, the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice
re
to be 80 cal/°C is
nc
(1) 293 cal/K (2) 273 cal/K (3) 8 × 104 cal/K (4) 80 cal/K
ar
.le
⎛ Q ⎞ ⎛ mlf ⎞
w
∵ Entropy ⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
⎝ T ⎠ ⎝ T ⎠
1000 80
y 293 cal/K
273
28. Carnot cycle is plotted in P-V graph. Which portion represents an isothermal expansion?
P A
B
D C
V
29. Efficiency of a heat engine working between a given source and sink is 0.5. Coefficient of performance of the
refrigerator working between the same source and the sink will be
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
Sol. Answer (1)
1
1
1
0.5
1
=1
30. A heat engine rejects 600 cal to the sink at 27°C. Amount of work done by the engine will be
(Temperature of source is 227°C & J = 4.2 J/cal)
(1) 1680 J (2) 840 J (3) 2520 J (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
T W
1 2
T1 Q1
300 W
1
500 Q1
et
W 2
.n
e
Q1 5
iv
at
re
5W
Q1
nc
2
ar
∵ W = Q1 – Q2
.le
w
Then Q2 = Q1 – W
w
w
5W 3W
Q2 W
2 2
2Q2 2 600
Then W = 400 cal = 400 × 4.2 J = 1680 J
3 3
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0
JK–1 mol–1. If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure
is (Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1 (3) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
Sol. Answer (2)
2. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, the temperature
of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) 21°C (2) 31°C (3) 41°C (4) 11°C
Sol. Answer (2)
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4. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure
P (in kPa)
A
5
2 B
4 6
3
V (in m )
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) –12 kJ (2) 20 kJ (3) –20 kJ (4) 20 J
Sol. Answer (3)
U = nCVT
⎛ R ⎞
n⎜ ⎟ (T2 T1 )
⎝ 1⎠
et
P (kPa)
.n A
n[RT2 RT1 ] 5
e
iv
1
at
2 B
re
n(P2V2 PV
1 1)
nc
1 4 6
ar
O 3
V (m )
.le
w
7 / 5 1
w
8 103
20 103
2/5
= –20 kJ
1
5. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of = as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done
10
on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is
[AIPMT-2015]
(1) 1 J (2) 100 J (3) 99 J (4) 90 J
Sol. Answer (4)
1 Q
∵ 1 2
W
1 Q
1 2
(1/ 10) 10
Q2
(10 1)
10
Q2 = 90 J
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6. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. In process AB,
400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat
absorbed by the system in the process AC will be [AIPMT-2015]
P
4
6 × 10 Pa
B C
4 A
2 × 10 Pa
–3 3 –3 3
V
2 × 10 m 4 × 10 m
Q = U + W
at
re
⎡1 ⎤
nc
= 380 + 80
w
w
= 460 J
w
7. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically
to a volume 16V. the final pressure of the gas is: (take = 5/3) [AIPMT-2014]
(1) 64P (2) 32P (3) P/64 (4) 16P
Sol. Answer (3)
In isothermal process
P1V1 = P2V2
PV = P2(2V)
P
P2 ...(1)
2
In adiabatic process
P2V2 = P3V3
⎛P ⎞
⎜ ⎟ (2V ) P3 (16V )
⎝2⎠
5/3
P ⎛ 2v ⎞ P ⎛ 1⎞ P
P3 ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 16V ⎠ 2 ⎝8⎠ 64
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P
C B
3 P0
2 P0
P0 D
A
V0 2V0 V
P0V0
(1) P0 V0 (2) 2P0 V0 (3) (4) Zero
2
Sol. Answer (4)
W = area enclosed by AODA + by area enclosed OBCO
P
C B
⎡1 ⎤ ⎡ 1 ⎤ 3 P0
⎢ (2V0 V0 ) P0 ⎥ ⎢ (2V0 V0 )P0 ⎥
⎣2 ⎦ ⎣ 2 ⎦ O
2 P0
⎧ AODA is a clockwise P0 D
=0 ⎨ A
⎩ while DBCO is anticlockwise V0 2V0 V
et
e .n
9. A gas is taken through the cycle A B C A, as shown. What is the net work done by the gas?
iv
at
P(105 Pa)
re
nc
7
6 B
ar
5
.le
4
w
3
w
A
2 C
w
1
0 V(10–3 m3)
1 2 4 6 8
[NEET-2013]
(1) 1000 J (2) Zero (3) – 2000 J (4) 2000 J
Sol. Answer (1)
∵ Cyclic curve is clockwise i.e., W = +ve
W = area enclosed
1
5 103 4 105
2
= 1000 J
10. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv respectively.
Cp
If and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is equal to [NEET-2013]
Cv
R ( 1) 1
(1) (2) (3) R (4)
( 1) R 1
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Cp
Cv
We know Cp – Cv = R
R
So Cv
1
11. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature.
Cp
The ratio of for the gas is: [NEET-2013]
Cv
5 3 4
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3
et
⎛ ⎞ .n
⎜ ⎟
Compare with PT ⎝ 1 ⎠ constant
e
iv
at
re
Then, 3
nc
1
ar
.le
3
w
2
w
w
12. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2? [NEET-2013]
V
P2
P1
2
1
T
(1) P2 > P1 (2) P2 < P1 (3) Cannot be predicted (4) P2 = P1
Sol. Answer (2)
∵ PV = RT
⎧∵ Slope of V -T graph ⎫
V R ⎪ ⎪
tan ⎨ V ⎬
T P ⎪⎩ m tan ⎪⎭
T
1
i.e., P
tan
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A A B A
V 3V V 3V V 3V V 3V
V V V V
Sol. Answer (2)
P
B
V 3V
V
t
14. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during
the cycle is ne [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
e.
tiv
D C
2P
r ea
nc
w Pressure
ar
.le
P
w
A B
w
V 3V
Volume
1
(1) PV (2) PV (3) 2 PV (4) 4 PV
2
Sol. Answer (3)
Heat rejected = workdone by surrounding = area of PV graph = P × 2V = 2PV
15. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P-V diagram
A 1
2
P 3 B
V
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1, U2, U3 indicate
the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3 (2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 = U2 = U3
(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and U1 > U2 > U3 (4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and U1 > U2 > U3
Sol. Answer (1)
Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and U1 = U2 = U3
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16. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does –150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies
that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
(2) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
(3) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(4) No heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
Sol. Answer (2)
It implies 150 J heat has been removed from the gas.
17. A mass of diatomic gas ( = 1.4) at a pressure of 2 atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its
temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the gas in the final state is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) 256 atm (2) 8 atm (3) 28 atm (4) 68.7 atm
Sol. Answer (1)
⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟
1 then, PT ⎝ 1 ⎠ constant
P T C
P2 ⎛ T1 ⎞ 1
⎜ ⎟
P1 ⎝ T2 ⎠
1.4
et
.n
P2 ⎛ 300 ⎞ 11.4
e
2 ⎜⎝ 1200 ⎟⎠
iv
at
re
7
nc
P2 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 2
2 ⎜⎝ 4 ⎟⎠
ar
.le
w
P2 26 256 atm
w
w
18. If U and W represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a
thermodynamical process, which of the following is true? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) U = – W, in a isothermal process (2) U = – W, in a adiabatic process
(3) U = W, in a isothermal process (4) U = W, in a adiabatic process
Sol. Answer (2)
In adiabatic process Q = 0
So U = – W [∵ Q = W + U]
19. If Cp and Cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M, where R is the
molar gas constant [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Cp – Cv = R/M2 (2) Cp – Cv = R (3) Cp – Cv = R/M (4) Cp – Cv = MR
Sol. Answer (3)
R
Cp Cv
M
Because Cp & Cv are given per unit mass
And Cp – Cv = R is for 1 mole
So here we use R/M where M is molecular mass.
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21. In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
(2) In an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
(3) In an adiabatic process PV = constant
(4) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings
Sol. Answer (1)
In isochoric processes volume remains constant.
22. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 Kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is
et
.n
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
e
iv
dU = 7900 J
w
w
23. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed
w
24. At 10°C the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At 110°C this ratio
is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
283 383 10
(1) x (2) x (3) x (4) x
383 283 110
Sol. Answer (1)
x at 10°C
P
M
x
PV
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283
x x
383
25. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled.
Temperature of the source is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) 99°C (2) 124°C (3) 37°C (4) 62°C
Sol. Answer (1)
1 T 62
1 L
3 TH
1 5 62 ⎡ TL 5 ⎤
1 ⎢ ⎥
3 6 TH ⎣TH 6 ⎦
et
TH = 372° K = 99°C
e .n
iv
TL = 37°C
at
re
26. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of
nc
source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50% of original efficiency? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
ar
.le
300
So 0.4 1
T1
T1 = 500 K
Now, is increased by 50%.
150 15
0.4 0.6
100 10
To maintain same sink temperature new source temperature is
300
0.6 1
T1
T1 = 750 K
Increase in temperature = 750 – 500 = 250 K
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7 8 5 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 7 7 7
7 R
CP R
2
7
5
29. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cal of heat at
re
nc
(1) 2.4 × 104 cal (2) 6 × 104 cal (3) 1.2 × 104 cal (4) 4.8 × 104 cal
.le
w
30. A system is taken from state a to state c by two paths adc and abc as shown in the figure. The internal energy
at a is Ua = 10 J. Along the path adc the amount of heat absorbed Q1 = 50 J and the work obtained W1 =
20 J whereas along the path abc the heat absorbed Q2 = 36 J. The amount of work along the path abc is
d c
a b
V
(1) 6 J (2) 10 J (3) 12 J (4) 36 J
dQabc = 36 = 30 + dWabc
dWabc = 6 J
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31. Consider two insulated chambers (A, B) of same volume connected by a closed knob, S. 1 mole of perfect
gas is confined in chamber A. What is the change in entropy of gas when knob S is opened? R = 8.31 J
mol–1K–1.
S
A B
(1) 1.46 J/K (2) 3.46 J/K (3) 5.46 J/K (4) 7.46 J/K
Sol. Answer (3)
V
S 2.303 nR loge 2
V1
If initially volume is taken as V, then final volume = ZV, as volume of both chambers is given to be same.
2V
S 2.303 1 8.31 loge
V
S 5.46 J/K
32. A Carnot engine has efficiency 25%. It operates between reservoirs of constant temperatures with temperature
et
difference of 80°C. What is the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir?
.n
(1) –25°C (2) 25°C (3) –33°C (4) 33°C
e
iv
TL
nc
1
TH
ar
.le
1 T
1 L
w
4 TH
w
w
4
TH TL
3
also TH – TL = 80
TL = 240 K = –33°C
33. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and temperature of a monatomic gas are related as
P Tc, where c equals
3 5 2 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 5 2
Sol. Answer (4)
P T C ⇒ PT C K
⎛ ⎞
⎜ ⎟
And compare with PT ⎝ 1 ⎠ constant [condition from adiabatic process]
Then, C
1
5/3 5/3 5
C
1 5 / 3 2 / 3 2
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40 T
1 2
100 500
T2 = 300 K
If = 50%
50 300
1
100 T1
T1 = 600 K
35. A monatomic gas initially at 18°C is compressed adiabatically to one eighth of its original volume. The
temperature after compression will be
(1) 1164 K (2) 144 K (3) 18 K (4) 887.4 K
et
Sol. Answer (1)
e .n
∵ TV–1 = constant
iv
at
re
1
⎛V ⎞
nc
T1 ⎜ 1 ⎟ T2
ar
⎝ V2 ⎠
.le
w
291 × (8)2/3 = T2
w
w
T2 = 291 × 4 = 1164 K
36. An ideal gas, undergoing adiabatic change, has which of the following pressure temperature relationship?
(1) PT1– = constant (2) P1–T = constant (3) P–1T = constant (4) PT–1 = constant
Sol. Answer (2)
PV constant
⎧∵ PV RT ⎫
⎪ ⎪
⎛T ⎞ ⎨ ⎛ RT ⎞⎬
P ⎜ ⎟ constant ⎪ V ⎜ ⎟⎪
⎝P ⎠ ⎩ ⎝ P ⎠⎭
P 1 . T constant
37. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. The amount of work done by the gas is greatest, when the
expansion is
(1) Adiabatic (2) Equal in all cases (3) Isothermal (4) Isobaric
Sol. Answer (4)
Work done is maximum in isobaric process
W = P.V = P(V2 – V1) = nR(T2 – T1)
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38. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of 100°C and – 23°C will be
⎡ Where ⎤
T ⎢ ⎥
1 2 ⎢T2 sink temperature ⎥
T1 ⎢⎣T1 reservoir temperature ⎥⎦
373 250
373
39. We consider a thermodynamic system. If U represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work
done by the system, which of the following statements is true?
(1) U = –W in an isothermal process (2) U = W in an isothermal process
(3) U = – W in an adiabatic process (4) U = W in an adiabatic process
Sol. Answer (3)
et
As Q = zero for adiabatic process .n
e
So U = –W for adiabatic process
iv
at
re
40. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is , the change in internal
nc
energy of a mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P, is
ar
.le
PV R PV
w
P (2V V ) PV
1 1
41. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to 8/27 of its original volume. The rise in temperature is (Take
= 5/3)
(1) 275 K (2) 375 K (3) 475 K (4) 175 K
Sol. Answer (2)
∵ TV –1 = constant
T1V11 T2V21
1
⎡V ⎤
T1 ⎢ 1 ⎥ T2
⎣V2 ⎦
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5 1
⎡ 27 ⎤ 3
300 ⎢ ⎥ T2
⎣8 ⎦
2
⎡3 ⎤
300 ⎢ ⎥ T2
⎣2⎦
9
300 T2
4
675 K = T2
T = 675 – 300 = 375 K
42. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The engine A receives heat from the source at temperature
T1 and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature T. The second engine B receives the heat at temperature
T and rejects to its sink at temperature T2. For what value of T the efficiencies of the two engines are equal?
T1 T2 T1 T2
(1) (2) (3) T1T2 (4) T1T2
2 2
Sol. Answer (4)
A = B
et
⎛ TL ⎞ ⎛ TL ⎞
.n
⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
e
⎝ TH ⎠ A ⎝ TH ⎠B
iv
at
re
T T2
nc
T1 T
ar
.le
T 2 T1T2 ⇒ T T1T2
w
w
w
43. The (W/Q) of a Carnot engine is 1/6. Now the temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, then this ratio becomes
twice, therefore the initial temperature of the sink and source are respectively
(1) 33°C, 67°C (2) 37°C, 99°C (3) 67°C, 33°C (4) 97K, 37K
Sol. Answer (2)
1 T
1 L ...(1)
6 TH
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ T 62 ⎞
2 ⎜ ⎟ 1 ⎜ L ⎟
⎝6⎠ ⎝ TH ⎠
1 T 62
1 2
3 TH
1 5 62
1
3 6 TH
TH = 372°K = 99°C
TL = 37°C
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44. A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat engine which works at source temperature 127°C and sink
temperature 27°C is 26%, then
(1) It is impossible (2) It is possible but less probable
(3) It is quite probable (4) Data are incomplete
Sol. Answer (1)
TL 300
1 1 25%
TH 400
45. The efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500 K. If temperature of source is kept
constant and its efficiency raised to 60%, then the required temperature of sink will be
(1) 100 K (2) 600 K (3) 400 K (4) 500 K
Sol. Answer (3)
1 500 6 T
1 1 L
2 TH 10 103
TH 103 TL 4 102 400 K
46. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher
temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to
(1) 4.8 (2) 3.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.2
Sol. Answer (4)
et
e .n
iv
W T
1 L
at
Q1 TH
re
nc
W 400
1 1.2 J
ar
6 500
.le
w
w
47. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of
w
specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas
will be
(1) (T + 2.4) K (2) (T – 2.4) K (3) (T + 4) K (4) (T – 4) K
Sol. Answer (4)
nR T2 T1 ⎡ 5⎤
W
1
dU ⎢ 3 ⎥
⎣ ⎦
Tfinal T 4 K
48. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from T1 K to T2 K is
3 3 3 ⎛T ⎞ 3
(1) Na kB (T2 T1 ) (2) Na kB (T2 T1 ) (3) Na kB ⎜ 2 ⎟ (4) Na k B (T2 T1 )
2 4 4 ⎝ T1 ⎠ 8
3
Na K B T2 T1 Q
8
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50. According to C.E. van der Waal, the interatomic potential varies with the average interatomic distance (R) as
(1) R–1 (2) R–2 (3) R–4 (4) R–6
Sol. Answer (4)
According to van der Waal's formulae, interatomic potential is inversely proportion to R6.
So, U R –6
51. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the molecules is halved and their speed is doubled,
then the resultant pressure will be
(1) 4P (2) 2P (3) P (4) P/2
Sol. Answer (2)
1
MnV 2 et
P
.n
3
e
iv
at
re
1 M 2 1
P' n 2V 2 MnV 2 2P
nc
3 2 3
ar
.le
52. The mean free path of collision of gas molecules varies with its diameter (d) of the molecules as
w
w
1
d2
54. The value of critical temperature in terms of van der Waals’ constants a and b is given by
8a 27a a a
(1) TC (2) TC (3) TC (4) TC
27Rb 8Rb 2Rb 27Rb
8a
TC
27Rb
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2 1 2 1
(1) f (2) f (3) f (4) f
1 2 1 1
fR
∵ CV
2
2CV 2CV 2 2
Then, f
R CP CV CP 1
1
CV
et
57. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will
e .n
be (where R is the gas constant)
iv
at
5 5 5
re
2
ar
⎛m⎞
w
∵ PV nRT ⎜ ⎟ RT
w
⎝M ⎠
5
PV RT
32
SECTION - D
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
1. A : Work done by a gas in isothermal expansion is more than the work done by the gas in the same
expansion adiabatically.
R : Temperature remains constant in isothermal expansion and not in adiabatic expansion.
Sol. Answer (2)
A : is true
R : is true, but not correct explanation
correct explanation is, in isothermal expansion.
∵ T = 0 so U = 0
Q = W
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et
e.n
4. A : Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is always greater than 1.
iv
at
A : is false.
.le
w
R : is false
w
w
1
1 1
1
A : is true
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A : is true
R : is false
7. A : The change in internal energy does not depend on the path of process.
R : The internal energy of an ideal gas is independent of the configuration of its molecules.
A : is true
R : is true, but not the correct explanation, because internal energy depends on the temperature of the gas.
8. A : Heat supplied to a gaseous system in an isothermal process is used to do work against surroundings.
A : true
at
re
A : is true
R : Heat supplied to a system in the cyclic process converts into internal energy of the system.
A : is false, in cyclic process, work done is not zero, internal energy change is zero.
R : is false, heat supplied converts to work as initial state is equal to final state.
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