27/03/2020 Phase-I

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Crash Course for NEET - 2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test – 1

Topics covered in various subjects :

Physics : Units and Measurements, Motion in a straight line, Motion in a Plane-I : Motion in a plane
with constant acceleration, projectile motion
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements & Periodicity
in Properties
Botany : The living world, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom-I : Salient features and
classification of plants into major groups, Algae-Comparative study of green, brown and red
algae; Bryophytes-Salient and distinguishing features and examples
Zoology : Animal Kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals
Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 3. Which of the following pairs of physical quantities
1. Dimensional formula of pressure is have same dimensional formula?
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML–1T–2] (1) Work and torque
(3) [M–1L2T–2] (4) [ML2T–2] (2) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
2. Position of a particle travelling along a straight (3) Stress and Strain
line is given by x = At – Bt2, where A and B are (4) Both (1) and (2)
A 4. If L, C and R represents inductance, capacitance
dimensional constant. Dimensional formula of and resistance respectively, then which of
B
will be following quantity has not the dimensional
formula of time?
(1) [M0L0T–2]
L
(2) [M0L0 T–1] (1) RC (2)
R
(3) [M0L2T–3]
L
(4) [M0L0T] (3) LC (4)
C
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Test-1 Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I)

5. The respective number of significant figures in 11. Two trains each 100 m long are travelling in
the numbers 48.052, 0.0012 and 3.2 × 10–3 are opposite direction with velocity 20 m/s and
30 m/s. Time taken by trains in crossing each
(1) 5, 4, 2 (2) 2, 2, 3
other will be (in second)
(3) 5, 2, 2 (4) 4, 2, 5
(1) 2
6. A car moves for 3 second with speed 20 m/s and (2) 3
for 4 second with speed 40 m/s. The average
(3) 4
speed of the particle for whole journey is
(4) 7
approximately
12. If a freely falling body travels a distance in last
(1) 31.4 m/s (2) 26.7 m/s second of its journey which is equal to the
(3) 34 m/s (4) 38 m/s distance travelled by it in the first three second,
7. Initial and final positions of three students A, B then time of flight of the body is
and C on the x-axis are given as? (1) 3 second
(2) 5 second
A → (– 4, 6), B → (6, –2), C → (– 8, –5)
(3) 7 second
Which student has negative displacement
(4) 4 second
(1) A, B (2) B
13. A physical parameter x can be determined by
(3) A, C (4) A, B and C measuring the parameters a, b, c and d using the
2 ab 2
8. A car travels th of the total distance with speed relation x = . If maximum errors in the
5 cd 3
v1 and remaining distance with speed v2. measurement of a, b, c and d are a1%, b1%, c1%
Average speed of the car for the total distance is and d1% respectively, then the maximum error in
1 calculation of x will be given by
(1) vv
2 1 2  c 
(1)  a1 + 2b1 − 1 − 3d1 %
 2 
v1 + v 2
(2)
2  c 
(2)  a1 + 2b1 + 1 + 3d1 %
5v1v 2  2 
(3)
3v1 + 2v 2 (3) (a1 + b1 + c1 + d1)%

−5v 2v1 (4) (a1 + b1 – c1 – d1)%

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2v1 + 3v 2 14. In a Vernier calipers, one main scale division is
equal to N cm and n division of the Vernier scale
9. A body moves in (x – y) plane, so that the
coincides with (n – 1) division of the main scale.
displacement along the x and y axis are given by The least count (in cm) of the calipers is
x = 2t3 m and y = 4t2 m. The speed of body at
N N
t = 1 sec is (1) (2)
n −1 n +1
(1) 14 m/s (2) 10 m/s
N Nn
(3) 24 m/s (4) 12 m/s (3) (4)
n n −1
10. The motion of a particle along a straight line is 15. A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u
described by the equation x = 4 – 12t + 3t3, and at the same instant another ball B is
where x is in metre and t is in second. released from a height h. At time t, speed of A
Acceleration of the particle at t = 2 second will be relative to B is (both the balls are in air)
(1) 18 m/s2 (1) u – gt
(2) – 18 m/s2 (2) u + gt

(3) 36 m/s2 (3) u 2 + g 2t 2

(4) – 36 m/s2 (4) u

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Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I) Test-1

16. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a 18. A ball is projected horizontally with a velocity of
straight line is given as 10 m/s from the top of a building 20 m high. How
long will the ball takes to hit the ground?
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 3 second (2) 4 second
(3) 2 second (4) 1 second
19. The horizontal range of a projectile is double that
of the maximum height attained by it. The angle
of projection of the projectile with horizontal is
Position-time graph of the particle may be given
by (1) θ = tan–1(2) (2) θ = tan–1(4)
 1
(3) θ = 45° (4) θ = tan−1  
 2

(1) (2) 20. For which of the following projection angle, range
of a projectile thrown on a level ground, is
maximum? (Speed is same in all cases)
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 75° (4) 48°
(3) (4) 21. A projectile is fired with initial velocity 20 m/s at
some angle θ has a range R. If it is thrown with
17. Which of the following graphs cannot possibly speed 30 m/s at same angle, then the range will
represent one dimensional motion of a particle? be
(1) 1.25R (2) 3.5R
(3) 2.25R (4) R
(i) 22. A particle of mass m is projected from level
ground with velocity v making an angle of 60°
with the horizontal. When the particle lands on
the level ground the magnitude of the change in
its momentum will be
(ii) (1) 3 mv (2) 2 mv

(3) mv (4) – 3 mv
 
23. Two vectors A and B are such that
     
A + B = A − B . The angle between A + B and

A may be
(iii) (1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 60° (4) All of these
24. The magnitude of (iˆ + 2 jˆ ) + (3kˆ ) is equal to

(1) 14 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 6
(iv) 25. A body is moving with velocity

v = (3t i + 2t j ) m/s . Initial acceleration of the
2 
particle has magnitude (in m/s2)
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) Only (ii) and (iii) (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) Only (ii) and (iv) (4) All four (3) 8 (4) Zero

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Test-1 Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I)

26. A physical quantity Z is defined by the formula (1) 4y = 3x2 – 8x

Iv 2L (2) y = 12x + 10x2
Z= , where I is moment of inertia, v is
2FW (3) 8y – 10x2 + 12x = 0
velocity, L is length, F is force and W is work. (4) 10x2 – 12x + 8y = 0
The dimensional formula of Z is
33. A ball of mass 1 kg is projected with kinetic
(1) [ML–2T–2] (2) [M–1L3T–2] energy E at angle 30° with the vertical from
(3) [M–1L2T2] (4) [ML–2T3] ground. Minimum kinetic energy of the ball during
27. Dimensional formula of magnetic flux is its motion will be
(1) [ML2T–2A–1] (2) [M0L–2T2A2] E 3E
(1) (2)
(3) [M–1L2T2A–1] (4) [M2L–2T2A–1] 2 4
28. Which of the following can be a set of E
(3) (4) Zero
fundamental quantities in an imaginary system of 4
units? 34. The equation of motion of a projectile are given
(1) Mass, length, time by x = 24t m and y = 32t – 10t2 m. The angle of
(2) Length speed, mass projection with horizontal is
(3) Mass, time, frequency (1) 53° (2) 37°
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) 45° (4) 60°
29. Percentage error in the measurement of radius of 35. A particle is projected with speed 40 m/s at an
a sphere is 2%. Relative error in the calculation angle 37° with the vertical. Its speed when it
of surface area of sphere will be moves at an angle 37° with the horizontal will be
(1) 4 (2) 0.4 (1) 40 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(3) 0.04 (4) 40 (3) 20 m/s (4) 10 m/s
30. Which of the following relation is correct in 36. A stone is thrown at an angle of 53° with
corresponding with dimensional consideration? horizontal at a speed of 50 m/s from the top of a
20 m high building speed of the stone when it
R3 GM reach the ground will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) T = K (2) T = K
GM R3
(1) 75 m/s (2) 70 m/s
2
R GM (3) 10 27 m/s (4) 10 29 m/s
(3) T = K (4) T = K
GM R2
37. The position-time graph of a moving particle is
31. Velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object is shown in the given figure. The instantaneous
shown in the figure. The net displacement of the velocity of the particle is negative at the point
object, during the time interval when there is non
zero acceleration, will be

(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d
38. The mass of a body is 10.000 g and its volume is
(1) 9 m (2) 18 m
10.00 cm3. If the measured values are expressed
(3) 6 m (4) 12 m up to the correct significant figures, then
32. A projectile is given an initial velocity of maximum error in calculation of density of body
(2i + 3 j ) m/s , where i is along horizontal and j will be

is along the vertical. The equation of trajectory of (1) 0.001 g cm–3 (2) 0.021 g cm–3
projectile in (g = 10 m/s2) (3) 0.0001 g cm–3 (4) 0.0011 g cm–3

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Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I) Test-1

39. The vector P makes an angle of 120° with the (1) 20 m (2) 40 m

x-axis and the vector Q makes angle of 30° with (3) 15 m (4) 10 m
the y-axis. Their result will be 43. At any instant of time during its motion
acceleration of a particle is along negative y-axis.
(1) P + Q (2) P 2 + Q2 We can certainly say

(3) P 2 − Q2 (4) P + 3 Q (1) Particle is moving along negative y-axis

(2) Particle is moving along positive y-axis
40. A vector of magnitude ‘r’ is turned through an
angle θ about its tail. Change in position vector of (3) Particle is moving along x-axis
its head will be (4) None of these
 θ 44. A car moves along a straight line (x-axis) such
(1) r (2) r cos  
 2 that its position at any time t is given by
x = 20 + 12t – t3, where x is in m and t is in
 θ  θ
(3) 2r sin   (4) r sin   second. Time taken by the particle to come
 2  2
momentarily at rest is
41. The coordinates of an insect moving in x-y plane
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s
with time are given by x = at3 and y = bt3.
Acceleration of the particle at time t = 1 is (3) 3 s (4) 4 s
45. Two balls are dropped from same height at
(1) 6(a + b) unit (2) 3 a3 + b3 unit 2 second interval of time. The separation
between the two balls after 3 second of the drop
(3) 6 a 2 + b 2 unit (4) a 2 + b 2 unit
of 2nd ball is (g = 10 m/s2)
42. A body is fired vertically upward. At half of the
maximum height the speed of the body is 10 m/s. (1) 60 m (2) 80 m
The maximum height raised by the body is (3) 20 m (4) 48 m
(g = 10 m/s2)

CHEMISTRY
46. Which has the maximum number of molecules 50. Concentration term which is independent of
among the following? temperature is
(1) 24 g O3 (2) 20 g CH3COOH (1) Molarity (2) Normality
(3) 2 g H2 (4) 33 g CO2 (3) Molality (4) g/L concentration
47. 6.02 × 1021 molecules of glucose are present in 51. Equivalent mass of a metal is 9, hence,
250 mL of its solution. Concentration of the equivalent mass of its oxide is
solution is (1) 25 (2) 34
(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.02 M (3) 27 (4) 17
(3) 0.03 M (4) 0.04 M M M
48. 5.6 g of nitrogen and 2 g of hydrogen were 52. 75 mL of HCl is mixed with 50 mL of
5 5
heated in a closed steel vessel. Amount of NaOH, normality of reactant left in resulting
maximum ammonia produced in this reaction can solution is
be
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.04
(1) 6.8 g
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.005
(2) 8.5 g
53. Number of valence electrons in 4 g O2– ion is
(3) 3.4 g (NA is the Avogadro’s number)
(4) 4.25 g (1) NA (2) 2NA
49. Mole fraction of urea in its aqueous solution
NA N
containing 10% urea (w/w) is (3) (4) A
2 4
2 1
(1) (2) 54. How much water should be added to 250 mL of
15 20 0.1 M C2H5OH solution to make it 0.02 M?
1 5 (1) 1000 mL (2) 500 mL
(3) (4)
31 24 (3) 1250 mL (4) 750 mL

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Test-1 Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I)

55. Total number of neutrons in 18 mL water (density 65. Mass of proton = n (mass of electron), value of n
of water = 1 g/mL), (NA is the Avogadro’s is
number) (1) 1837 (2) 9100
(1) NA (2) 10 NA (3) 1667 (4) 6023
(3) 2 NA (4) 8 NA 66. Radius of nucleus is about
56. The number of significant figures in 1.24 × 108 is (1) 10–5 m (2) 10–10 m
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 10–15 m (4) 10–21 m
(3) 8 (4) 11 67. Number of wavelength per unit length is given by
the term (where λ represents wavelength and ν;
57. An element, X has following isotopic composition frequency)
40X : 80 %, 42X : 20 %. The average atomic mass
1
of X is (1) λ (2)
λ
(1) 40.4 u (2) 41.8 u
1
(3) 40.9 u (4) 42.2 u (3) ν (4)
ν
58. Volume of O2(g) required to burn completely 1L
68. Kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on
of butane gas at 0°C and 1 atm pressure, is
(1) Frequency of light
(1) 2 L (2) 7 L
(2) Intensity of light
(3) 6 L (4) 6.5 L
(3) Threshold frequency of the metal
59. A mixture of gases contains CH4 and He gases in
(4) Both (1) and (3)
1 : 1 (w/w). What is the ratio of moles of these
69. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
gases in the given mixture?
valence electron of potassium atom (Z = 19) is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
1 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1 (1) 4, 1, 0, + (2) 4, 0, 0, +
2 2
60. Equivalent weight of H3PO4 (molar mass M) for
1 1
the given reaction, (3) 3, 1, 0, − (4) 4, 0, 1, +
2 2
H3PO4 + 2 NaOH → Na2HPO4 + 2H2O is
70. Al3+ is isoelectronic with
M M (1) Mg2+ (2) K+
(1) (2)
2 3 (3) Li+ (4) Be+
3 71. Number of orbitals in a subshell is given by the
(3) M (4) M
2 expression
61. Millikan oil drop experiment was done to (1) l2 (2) 2l
calculate (3) 2l + 1 (4) 2l2
(1) Mass of electron (2) Charge on electron 72. Number of nodal plane(s) for a px orbital is/are
(3) Mass of neutron (4) Charge on proton (1) Zero (2) 1
40 (3) 2 (4) 3
62. Which of the following is/are isobar(s) of 20 Ca
73. Maximum number of electrons that can be
42 40 associated with the set of quantum numbers
(1) 20 Ca (2) 19 K
n = 2,l = 1 is
40
(3) 18 Ar (4) Both (2) and (3) (1) 2 (2) 3
63. Number of electrons present in a phosphate ion (3) 5 (4) 6
is 74. The shape of an atomic orbital is governed by
which of the following quantum numbers?
(1) 47 (2) 50
(1) n (2) l
(3) 48 (4) 26
(3) m (4) s
64. Electromagnetic radiation which has longest
75. Which of the following is not permissible set of
wavelength is
quantum numbers of electrons in an atom?
(1) γ-rays (2) Visible light (1) n = 4, l = 2, m = – 1 (2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 2
(3) Microwave (4) Radio wave (3) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 (4) n = 2, l = 1, m = –1

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76. Number of unpaired electrons(s) in Cr3+ ion is 85. The first ionization energies (in kJ/mol) of
(1) 2 (2) 3 nitrogen and oxygen atoms respectively are
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 545, 678 (2) 801, 1086
77. Any two electrons of an atom can have how (3) 1402, 1314 (4) 1681, 2080
many of the quantum numbers(s) identical?
86. IUPAC name of element having atomic number
(1) 1 (2) 2
106 is
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Unnilbium (2) Unnilhexium
78. An element has its electronic configuration as
[Ar] 3d84s2. It belongs to which of the following (3) Ununhexium (4) Unniloctium
group numbers? 87. Chalcogens are elements belonging to
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) Noble gases
(3) 9 (4) 10 (2) Transition elements
79. Most electropositive element among the following
(3) Representative elements
is
(1) Cl (2) O (4) Inner-Transition elements
(3) Al (4) Be 88. The general electronic configuration of inner
80. Be has diagonal relationship with transition elements is
(1) Mg (2) Na (1) ns2
(3) Al (4) Si (2) ns2np1
81. F , O , N ions have their ionic radii in order as
– 2– 3–
(3) (n – 2)1–14(n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2
(1) F– > O2 > N3– (2) N3– > O2– > F– (4) (n – 2)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1 ns2
(3) N3– > F– > O2– (4) O2– > N3– > F– 89. Which of the following is correct order of the size
82. The most electronegative element has the of carbon species?
following electronic configuration
(1) C4– > C3– > C2–
(1) ns2np1 (2) ns2np3
(2) C2– > C3– > C4–
(3) ns2np5 (4) ns2np6
(3) C3 –> C2 –> C4–
83. Which of the following has highest value of
negative electron gain enthalpy? (4) C4– > C2– > C3–
(1) O (2) S 90. According to the Bohr theory, which of the
(3) Se (4) Te following transition in H-atom will emit the most
84. The acidic oxide among the following is energetic photon?
(1) Na2O (1) n = 4 to n = 2
(2) MgO (2) n = 3 to n = 1
(3) BeO (3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) CO2 (4) n = 4 to n = 3

BOTANY
91. All of the following features are found in all living (3) Scientific names should be printed in italics to
organisms, except indicate their Latin origin.
(1) Cellular organisation (2) Consciousness (4) Genus starts with a capital letter.
(3) Reproduction (4) Metabolism 93. The common taxonomic category for man and
92. Select the odd one w.r.t rules of nomenclature of housefly is
biological names. (1) Order
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin
(2) Class
(2) The first word in a biological name represents
(3) Phylum
the species while the second component
denotes the generic epithet (4) Kingdom

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94. ICBN stands for 102. Methanogens

(1) Indian Code of Biological Nomenclature (1) Are archaebacteria
(2) International Code of Biological (2) Are responsible for production of methane
Nomenclature (3) Are wall less
(3) International Code for Bacterial (4) Both (1) and (2)
Nomenclature 103. The smallest living organisms
(4) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (1) Are parasitic to animals only
95. Which of the following taxonomical aids (2) Have double stranded circular DNA
preserves both plants and animals? (3) Are simple in structure but complex in
(1) Botanical garden (2) Museum behaviour
(3) Herbarium (4) Zoological parks (4) Have 80 S ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm
96. Fungi and plants cannot be differentiated on the 104. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. category of
basis of bacteria and their shapes
(1) Mode of nutrition (1) Coccus – Cylindrical shaped
(2) Presence of chlorophyll (2) Bacillus – Rod shaped
(3) Presence of cell wall (3) Vibrium – Comma shaped
(4) Composition of cell wall (4) Spirillium – Spiral shaped
97. Which of the following kingdoms has organisms 105. The mycobiont partner of lichens
with chemoautotrophic mode of nutrition? (1) Forms only 5% of total lichen body
(1) Protista (2) Plantae (2) ls photosynthetic
(3) Monera (4) Animalia (3) Absorb minerals from the soil
98. Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom (4) Prepares food for the other partner
Monera. They 106. Select the incorrect statement about
(1) Completely lack cell wall cyanobacteria

(2) All are heterotrophs (1) They may be aquatic or terrestrial

(2) They are gram negative prokaryotes
(3) Have true nucleus
(3) They perform oxygenic photosynthesis
(4) Have 70 S ribosomes
(4) They lack chlorophyll a but have chlorophyll b
99. In the five kingdom classification of Whittaker,
which of the following organisms cannot be put in 107. Heterocyst present in Nostoc
kingdom Protista? (1) Does not contain nitrogenase
(1) Amoeba (2) Chlamydomonas (2) Helps in nitrogen fixation
(3) Chlorella (4) Spirogyra (3) Contain PS l and PS II both
100. Lichens is a symbiotic association between (4) Evolves oxygen in the atmosphere

(1) Algae and roots of higher plants 108. A group of bacteria present in the gut of ruminant
animals are
(2) Algae and fungi
(1) Halophiles (2) Mycoplasma
(3) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(3) Methanogens (4) Cyanobacteria
(4) Bacteria and algae
109. In cyanobacteria, reproduction involves following
101. The agents which cause ‘mad cow disease’ methods, except
(1) Have RNA as genetic material (1) Binary fission
(2) Are devoid of proteins (2) Fragmentation
(3) Are proteinaceous infectious particles (3) Syngamy
(4) Were discovered by T.O.Diener (4) Hormogonia formation

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Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I) Test-1

110. Mycoplasma are insensitive to penicillin because 118. An intervening dikaryophase occurs in
(1) They are parasitic (1) Phycomycetes
(2) They are wall less and penicillin interferes in (2) Deuteromycetes
the synthesis of peptidoglycan (3) Ascomycetes
(3) They lack plasma membrane (4) Zygomycetes
(4) They do not reproduce 119. The asexual spores produced by members of
111. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. diatoms ascomycetes are
(1) They may be free floating (1) Conidia
(2) They are photosynthetic (2) Haploid
(3) Their cell wall is impregnated with silica (3) Ascospores
(4) They reproduce sexually only (4) Both (1) and (2)
112. Read the following statements regarding 120. Which of the following plants is a parasite?
dinoflagellates and select the correct option. (1) Bladderwort
Statement A : The cell wall has stiff cellulose (2) Venus fly trap
plates on the outer surface.
(3) Cuscuta
Statement B : These organisms are mostly
(4) Chlorella
marine and photosynthetic.
121. The most common type of asexual spores
(1) Only A is incorrect
produced in algae are
(2) Only B is incorrect
(1) Aplanospores
(3) Both A and B are correct
(2) Zoospores
(4) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Also found in red algae
113. Which of the following organisms lack cell wall?
(4) Diploid only
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
122. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(3) Nostoc (4) Chlamydomonas
(1) Marchantia – Free living gametophyte
114. Under suitable conditions, slime moulds form
(2) Funaria – Protonema stage
(1) Fruiting bodies
(3) Volvox – Colonial alga
(2) Plasmodium
(4) Polysiphonia – Isogamous reproduction
(3) Haploid spores
123. Liverworts may differ from mosses in having
(4) Sporangium filled with spores
(1) Photosynthetic gametophyte
115. Sleeping sickness causing organism
(2) Completely dependent sporophyte on
(1) Is saprophytic gametophyte
(2) Has pseudopodia for locomotion (3) Unicellular sex organs
(3) Is a flagellated protozoan (4) Rhizoids
(4) Is prokaryotic 124. Mark True (T) or False (F) for the following
116. Wheat rust causing organism statements and select the correct option.
(1) Is saprophytic A. The sporophyte of mosses is more developed
(2) Has coenocytic mycelium than Riccia
(3) Does not reproduce sexually B. Fucus is a brown alga
(4) Lack sex organs A B
117. The sexual cycle in fungi involves the following (1) T F
steps, except (2) F T
(1) Plasmogamy (2) Fragmentation (3) T T
(3) Karyogamy (4) Meiosis (4) F F

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125. Bryophytes differ from algae as the former have 130. All of the following features are true for
(1) Chlorophyll pigments protonema, except
(2) Archegonia (1) Green (2) Branched
(3) Vascular tissues (3) Filamentous (4) Diploid
(4) Sex organs 131. Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the
126. The feature common to both brown and green plant kingdom because
algae is presence of (1) These plants can live on soil but are
(1) Cellulosic cell wall dependent on water for sexual reproduction
(2) Fucoxanthin (2) They have multicellular sex organs
(3) Hydrocolloids (3) They lack pigments required for
(4) Stored food as laminarin photosynthesis
127. Funaria possesses (4) They lack vascular tissues
(1) Gemma cups 132. The statement which is wrong for Sphagnum is
(2) Two types of spores (1) It is also called peat moss
(3) Vascular tissues
(2) Used as packing material for trans-shipment
(4) Leafy stage of gametophyte of living material
128. Read the following statements and select the (3) It has water holding capacity
option with all correct statements.
(4) It is a component of lichens
A. Marchantia is dioecious plant
133. Agar, one of the commercial products obtained
B. Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes
from
place by fragmentation of thalli
(1) Chlorella and Chlamydomonas
C. Mosses along with lichens are the first
organisms to colonise rocks (2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(1) A and B only (2) A and C only (3) Gelidium and Chlorella
(3) B and C only (4) All A, B, C (4) Chlorella and Gracilaria
129. In mosses, after fertilisation 134. Select the odd one w.r.t. brown algae
(1) The zygote immediately undergoes meiotic (1) Ectocarpus (2) Dictyota
division
(3) Polytrichum (4) Sargassum
(2) The zygote develops into a sporophyte
135. The stored food in red algae is
(3) Haploid spores are formed immediately
(1) Floridean starch (2) Laminarin
(4) Antheridia and archegonia are formed on
sporophyte (3) Mannitol (4) Glucose

ZOOLOGY
136. Alveoli of lungs and blood vessels are lined by 138. Which of the following helps to stop substances
(1) Columnar epithelium from leaking across a tissue?
(2) Squamous epithelium (1) Tight junctions
(2) Adhering junctions
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Gap junctions
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium
(4) Basement membrane
137. All of the following are specialized connective
139. Collagen fibres are compactly packed in the
tissues except
fashion of parallel bundles in
(1) Bone
(1) Adipose tissue
(2) Cartilage (2) Areolar tissue
(3) Blood (3) Tendons
(4) Areolar tissue (4) Dermis of skin

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Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I) Test-1

140. Chondrocytes which remain enclosed in small 148. Cartilage is present in all of the following
cavities are associated with which tissue? sites/structure except
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone (1) Tip of nose
(3) Adipose tissue (4) Muscular tissue (2) Outer ear joints
141. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cardiac (3) Biceps
muscle fibres. (4) Limbs and hands in adults
(1) They are present only in the heart 149. Constituents of blood is best represented by
(2) Intercalated discs allow the cells of this tissue (1) Plasma + Mast cells + WBCs
to contract as a unit. (2) Plasma + Fibroblasts + Platelets + RBCs
(3) Cells of this tissue show striations (3) RBCs + WBCs + Plasma + Platelets
(4) Nucleus of a cardiac muscle cells is (4) RBCs + Plasma + WBCs only
peripheral in position 150. Unstriated, unbranched muscle fibres are present
142. A type of tissue which exerts greatest control in
over the body’s responsiveness to changing (1) Smooth muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
conditions is (3) Skeletal muscles (4) Voluntary muscles
(1) Specialised connective tissue 151. Histamine is secreted by
(2) Fluid connective tissue (1) Monocytes (2) Plasma cells
(3) Neural tissue (3) Mast cells (4) Fibroblasts
(4) Muscular tissue 152. A attach skeletal muscles to bone whereas
143. The hard and non-pliable ground substance of B attach one bone to another. Here A and B
bones is rich in salts of are
(1) Calcium (2) Potassium (1) A-Ligaments B-Tendons
(3) Magnesium (4) Silica (2) A-Tendons B-Ligaments
144. Choose the odd one w.r.t. exocrine secretions (3) A-Tendons B-Adipose tissue
(1) Mucus (2) Saliva (4) A-Cartilage B-Ligaments
(3) Earwax (4) Testosterone 153. Hepatic caecae in cockroach are
145. A type of epithelium which lines bronchioles and (1) 100 to 150 in number
helps to move dust particle or mucus in a specific (2) Present at the junction of foregut and midgut
direction over the epithelium is (3) Not involved in secretion of digestive juices
(1) Squamous epithelium (4) Yellow coloured fine thread like structures
(2) Ciliated epithelium 154. Which of the following mouthparts of cockroach
acts as a tongue?
(3) Compound epithelium
(1) Labrum (2) Mandible
(4) Glandular epithelium
(3) Maxilla (4) Hypopharynx
146. Goblet cells of the alimentary canal are
155. Read statements (a) to (d) w.r.t. female
(1) Involved in enzyme synthesis
cockroach and choose the option which contains
(2) Multicellular glands only incorrect statement(s).
(3) Unicellular glands (a) Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal
(4) Involved in hormone production ommatidia
147. Select the incorrect match (b) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th
(1) Fibroblasts – Secrete fibres segment which opens into the genital
chamber
(2) Dense irregular – Skin
(c) Two large ovaries lie laterally in 7th – 8th
connective tissue
abdominal segments
(3) Bone marrow – No role in blood (d) Nephrocytes and urecose glands help in
formation excretion
(4) Neuroglia – Protect and support (1) (a) and (c) (2) (c)
neurons (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)

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Test-1 Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I)
156. The development of P. americana is 162. Which group of animals belong to the same
(1) Ametabolous (2) Hypermetabolous phylum?
(3) Holometabolous (4) Paurometabolous (1) Pila, Pinctada, Saccoglossus
157. Certain parts of alimentary canal of cockroach (2) Echinus, Cucumaria, Asterias
are labelled as A, B, C and D. Select the (3) Ophiura, Octopus, Dentalium
incorrect match w.r.t. their functions. (4) Echinus, Locusta, Pheretima
163. Select the odd member w.r.t. diploblastic
organisms
(1) Pleurobrachia (2) Ctenoplana
(3) Adamsia (4) Fasciola
164. Select the incorrect comparison of chordates
and non-chordates
Chordates Non-chordates

(1) Notochord is Notochord is

(1) A-Storing of food
present absent
(2) B-Excretion
(2) Gill slits are Pharynx perforated
(3) C-Storage of faeces
absent by gill slits
(4) D-Form chitinous plates called teeth
158. Flagellated cells which line the spongocoel and (3) Heart is ventral Heart is dorsal (if
the canals in sponges are called present)
(1) Choanocytes (2) Spicules
(3) Flame cells (4) Ostia (4) A post-anal part Post-anal tail is
159. Which of the following features is incorrect w.r.t. (tail) is present absent
phylum Annelida? 165. From the following statements, select the wrong
(1) Organ-system level of body organisation one
(2) Bilateral symmetry (1) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton are
(3) Segmentation is absent found in honey bee.
(4) Presence of longitudinal and circular muscles (2) Planaria possess high capacity of
which help in locomotion regeneration
160. Match Column-I with Column-II w.r.t. phylum of (3) Loligo possesses an unsegmented body
below given organisms and select the correct (4) Silver fish is representative of class
option Chondrichthyes
Column-I Column-II 166. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. members
(a) Taenia (i) Aschelminthes of class Osteichthyes
(b) Ancylostoma (ii) Platyhelminthes (1) Body is streamlined and possesses a bony
endoskeleton
(c) Culex (iii) Mollusca
(2) Mouth is mostly terminal
(d) Chaetopleura (iv) Arthropoda
(3) The skin is tough and contains minute
(1) (a)-ii, (b)-iii, (c)-i, (d)-iv
placoid scales
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iii
(4) They are mostly oviparous and development
(3) (a)-ii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-iii is direct
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iv 167. Which of the following is correctly matched?
161. Members of which phylum possess false coelom (1) Rana – Toad
with bilateral symmetry? (2) Bufo – Tree frog
(1) Ctenophora (2) Coelenterata (3) Exocoetus – Flying fish
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Mollusca (4) Betta – Angel fish

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Crash Course for NEET-2020(Phase-I) Test-1

168. Odd one w.r.t. poikilothermous animals is (1) Platyhelminthes – Dorso-ventrally

(1) Myxine (2) Scoliodon flattened body,
(3) Aptenodytes (4) Pristis acoelomate
169. A cartilaginous fish which possesses poisonous animals.
sting is
(2) Aschelminthes – Well developed
(1) Trygon (2) Carcharodon
muscular pharynx,
(3) Torpedo (4) Pristis
monoecious
170. Which among the following is not oviparous?
(3) Mollusca – File like rasping
(1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Testudo
organ called radula,
(3) Flying fox (4) Columba
171. All of the salient features of different phyla in the usually oviparous
animal kingdom presented in the below given (4) Hemichordata – Stomochord, open
table are generally correct except type of circulation
177. Read statements A and B and choose the
correct option
A : All sponges are marine
B : Lamprey and hagfish are jawless fish
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Statements A and B are correct
172. A reptile with four-chambered heart is
(4) Statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Chelone (2) Chameleon
178. The below given features are present in which of
(3) Calotes (4) Crocodilus
the following animals?
173. Choose the aquatic mammal among the
following. Pneumatic bones, Air sacs,
Oil glands at the base of the tail
(1) Felis (2) Equus
(3) Balaenoptera (4) Macropus Choose the animal from options below
174. How many of the following pairs are correctly (1) Corvus (2) Alligator
matched? (3) Naja (4) Vipera
a. Pavo – Sexes are separate 179. The largest and the second largest phylum of
b. Naja – Fertilisation is internal animal kingdom respectively are
c. Neophron – Mammary glands present (1) Chordata and Arthropoda
d. Salamandra – Limbless amphibian (2) Porifera and Mollusca
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
175. Complete the analogy w.r.t. function of following
180. A general character shared by chameleon and
organs by choosing the correct option.
frog is
Comb plates : Locomotion : : Nephridia : ___
(1) Moist skin without scales
(1) Excretion (2) Digestion
(2) Three-chambered heart
(3) Bioluminescence (4) Reproduction
(3) External fertilisation
176. The incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. given phyla
and their two general characteristics is (4) Viviparity

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