University of the Philippines

000of Law
College

MOCK LAW APTITUDE EXAM

February 16, 2020

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VOCABULARY
35 items
30 minutes
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SYNONYMS

Directions: Choose the letter of the word which is most nearly similar in meaning
to the word in capital letters.

1. OBSTREPEROUS 6. BURGEONING
a. Colorful a. Aching
b. Large b. Growing
c. Disgusting c. Fading
d. Unruly d. Violent

2. DUPLICITOUS 7. CAPITULATE
a. Dishonest a. Insist
b. Outspoken b. Include
c. Fierce c. Emphasize
d. Repetitive d. Surrender

3. ELEEMOSYNARY 8. PROPITIATE
a. Lucky a. Practice
b. Charitable b. Appease
c. Educational c. Begin
d. Modern d. Follow

4. INIMICAL 9. DEFAMATION
a. Encouraging a. Assertion
b. Adverse b. Denigration
c. Satisfying c. Misrepresentation
d. Burdensome d. Dishonesty

5. PEDANTIC 10. ILLICIT

a. Terse a. Illegal
b. Related b. Hidden
c. Erudite c. Clandestine
d. Informal d. Guilty
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ANTONYMS

Directions: Choose the letter of the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to
the word in capital letters.

11. LABILE 16. FETTER

a. Changing a. Encumber
b. Constant b. Commit
c. Strong c. Acquiesce
d. Energetic d. Trammel

12. PARAGON 17. PECULATE

a. Archetype a. Give
b. Exemplar b. Receive
c. Flawed c. Defalcate
d. Perfect d. Misuse

13. ONEROUS 18. INHIBIT

a. Burdensome a. Stultify
b. Laborious b. Reserve
c. Gratuitous c. Allow
d. Distinct d. Smother

14. PROPITIOUS 19. INVETERATE

a. Auspicious a. Accustomed
b. Brave b. Fleeting
c. Uncertain c. Fragile
d. Inopportune d. Sporadic

15. SOLICITOUS 20. PERSPICUOUS

a. Attentive a. Obscure
b. Ardent b. Comprehensible
c. Keen c. Lethargic
d. Easy-going d. Strenuous
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ANALOGY

Directions: Choose the pair that best analogizes the first pair of words given.

21. Ubiquitous : Present ; ___ : ___ 26. Adroit : Adept ; ___ : ___
a. Trivialization : Burden a. Crude : Refined
b. Inquisitive : Knowing b. Sinister : Benevolent
c. Adequate : Sufficient c. Raucous : Loud
d. Abstain : Absent d. Bare : Equipped

22. Cows : Herd ; ___ : ___ 27. Immediate : Delayed ; ___ : ___
a. Elephants : Memory a. Archaic : Modern
b. Raccoons : Robbery b. History : Record
c. Doves : Innocence c. Strategy : Plan
d. Bananas : Bunch d. Brave : Reckless

23. Insomnia : Sleep ; ___ : ___ 28. Contract : Terminate ; ___ : ___
a. Blind : Eyes a. Document : Rewrite
b. Dyslexia : Read b. Expire : Food
c. Fracture : Bone c. Tire : Inflate
d. Disturbance : Focus d. Meeting : Adjourn

24. Purpose : Fulfill ; ___ : ___ 29. Proselytize : Convert ; ___ : ___
a. Future : Certain a. Digress : Deviate
b. Sleep : Snooze b. Reveal : Expound
c. Attention : Distract c. Condone : Condemn
d. Test : Pass d. Stride : Stroll

25. Fatigue : Rest ; ___ : ___ 30. Period : Stop ; ___ : ___
a. Emotion : Repression a. Siren : Lure
b. Science : Math b. Perplex : Astound
c. Feel : Touch c. Caret : Insert
d. Hunger : Food d. Comma : Relax
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WORD PLAY

Directions: Select the word which is most unlike the other in each set.

31. Inchoate, Developing, Preliminary, Incipient

A B C D

32. Abstruse, Elusive, Pedantic, Recondite

A B C D

33. Languish, Aver, Fret, Repine

A B C D

34. Decrease, Degenerate, Suppurate, Deteriorate

A B C D

35. Mephitic, Baneful, Irksome, Noisome

A B C D
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GRAMMAR
30 items
40 minutes
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COMPLETE THE SENTENCE

Directions: Choose the letter of the word/s to complete the sentence.

1. In such a plight ___________ that we had no choice but to radio for help.
a. we ourselves found
b. did we find ourselves
c. we found ourselves
d. did we ourselves find

2. He crept in ________ his parents should wake up

a. lest
b. unless
c. otherwise
d. whereby

3. ________ you to change your mind about handing in your notice, we would be happy
for you to stay with us.
a. If
b. Should
c. Unless
d. Were

4. The old lady came near to ________ of pneumonia but to everyone’s amazement she
pulled through.
a. death
b. dying
c. die
d. being dead

5. If you can win his attention _______ for you.

a. the better so much
b. so much the better
c. the so much better
d. so much better

6. We were at a disadvantage _____ that we did not have a very good knowledge of the
language the others were using.
a. by
b. with
c. in
d. for
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7. Try as I _______, I couldn’t turn the key.

a. could
b. might
c. should
d. would

8. No offense intended ______ I think you haven’t understood the problem correctly.
a. when
b. if
c. as
d. but

9. By the time you’re my age, you _______ your mind.

a. will probably have changed
b. would probably change
c. will probably change
d. are probably changing

10. I had no sooner told her what I thought of her ______ I wished I’d held my tongue.
a. when
b. that
c. as
d. than
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SPOT THE ERROR

Directions: If there is an error, select the letter of the underlined part that must be
changed to make the sentence correct. If there is no error, choose E.

11. They were already to leave for church when Willy’s car broke down; they were forced
A B C D
to take public transportation instead. No error.
E

12. By order of the University President, the wearing of hot pants by we girls in school
A B C
has been prohibited. No error.
D E

13. Each participant in the show require a special kind of diet. No error.
A B C D E

14. One obstacle facing the investigators was the reluctance of the witnesses to give their
A B C
testimonies; they have been intimidated so much so that they cannot hardly say
D
anything to the police. No error.
E

15. Had I been in his shoes, I would not have allowed him to participate in such an
A B C
exhausting and painful activity. No error.
D E

16. Leandro Locsin, who is one of the Philippines’ most notable architects, have designed
A B C
many important structures like the Cultural Center of the Philippines. No error.
D E

17. This generation of students prefers watching PowerPoint presentations than listening to
A
lectures because they feel awkward for the presentation of lessons in a non-oral form.
B C D
No error.
E
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18. There was so much commotion in behind of me that I couldn’t hear the actors on the
A B C D
stage. No error.
E

19. This selection is too easy; it has no significance to us whatsoever. No error.

A B C D E

20. Although the shoeboxes are altogether on the shelf, they are not arranged in any kind of
A B C D
order. No error.
E
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EFFECTIVE SENTENCE CONSTRUCTION

Directions: Some or all parts of the following sentences are underlined. Choose the answer
which will produce the most effective sentence.

21. The judge is neither encouraged to be biased or to be partial with his decision.
a. Neither encouraged to be biased or to be partial
b. Neither encouraged to be biased nor to be partial
c. Either encouraged to be biased or to be partial
d. Either encouraged to be biased nor to be partial
e. Not encouraged either to be critical or to examine

22. The process by which society control the actions of its members is known as social
control.
a. Control the actions of its members
b. Had control the action of its members
c. Controlling the actions of its members
d. Controls the actions of its members
e. Controlled the actions of its members

23. Intensity being recognized as an important factor in winning several key competitions.
a. Intensity being recognized
b. By recognizing intensity
c. Their recognizing intensity
d. Recognition of it being
e. Intensity is recognized

24. Using it wisely, cooperative learning promotes creativity and better memory retention.
a. If it is used wisely
b. Using it wisely
c. Having used it wisely
d. Because of its wise use
e. Because of its usefulness

25. In reinforcing the competitive instincts of the individual, new strategies and techniques
are afforded by training to the body and to the mind.
a. New strategies and techniques are afforded by training to the body and to the
mind
b. There are afforded new strategies and techniques to the body and to the mind
c. Training affords new strategies and techniques to the body and to the mind
d. By training the body and the mind are afforded new strategies and techniques
e. To the body and to the mind afford new strategies and techniques by training
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LOGICAL SENTENCE CONSTRUCTION

Directions: Read the sentences carefully and determine their most logical order.

Paragraph 1

(A) So she took a deep breath and mouthed a silent prayer to whatever higher being there
is out there.
(B) Then, she steeled her resolve and proceeded to do the steps that were necessary
before she made the jump.
(C) Megan knew that whatever she does will decide the outcome of this event.
(D) She took one step, and then another and every little step took her closer and closer to
the edge.
(E) Then, Megan jumped into the vast expanse.

26. What should be the first sentence?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

27. What should be the third sentence?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

28. What is the best order?

a. DBACE
b. CBADE
c. CBAED
d. CABDE
e. DCBAE
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Paragraph 2

A. He made his way to the bartender and ordered a whiskey sour

B. He picked up the glass, downed it straight and slammed the empty glass on the bar.
C. Startled, the lady beside him looked at him wide-eyed and wisely moved away.
D. The stranger looked at the bartended and signalled to pour him another one.
E. Everyone stopped what they were doing when the stranger entered the bar.

29. What should be the fourth sentence?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

30. What should be the best order?

a. EDCBA
b. EABCD
c. ABCDE
d. EACBD
e. DABCE
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READING
COMPREHENSION
20 items
20 minutes
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Passage 1

An upsurge of new research suggests that animals have a much higher level of brainpower
than previously thought. If animals do have intelligence, how do scientists measure it? Before
defining animals' intelligence, scientists defined what is not intelligence. Instinct is not
intelligence. It is a skill programmed into an animal's brain by its genetic heritage. Rote
conditioning is also not intelligence. Tricks can be learned by repetition, but no real thinking is
involved. Cuing, in which animals learn to do or not to do certain things by following outside
signals, does not demonstrate intelligence. Scientists believe that insight, the ability to use tools,
and communication using human language are all effective measures of the mental ability of
animals.

When judging animal intelligence, scientists look for insight, which they define as a flash of
sudden understanding. When a young gorilla could not reach fruit from a tree, she noticed
crates scattered about the lawn near the tree. She piled the crates into a pyramid, then climbed
on them to reach her reward. The gorilla's insight allowed her to solve a new problem without
trial and error.

The ability to use tools is also an important sign of intelligence. Crows use sticks to pry
peanuts out of cracks. The crow exhibits intelligence by showing it has learned what a stick can
do. Likewise, otters use rocks to crack open crab shells in order to get at the meat. In a series of
complex moves, chimpanzees have been known to use sticks and stalks in order to get at a
favorite snack—termites. To make and use a termite tool, a chimp first selects just the right stalk
or twig. He trims and shapes the stick, then finds the entrance to a termite mound. While
inserting the stick carefully into the entrance, the chimpanzee turns it skillfully to fit the inner
tunnels. The chimp attracts the insects by shaking the twig. Then it pulls the tool out without
scraping off any termites. Finally, he uses his lips to skim the termites into his mouth.

Many animals have learned to communicate using human language. Some primates have
learned hundreds of words in sign language. One chimp can recognize and correctly use more
than 250 abstract symbols on a keyboard. These symbols represent human words. An amazing
parrot can distinguish five objects of two different types. He can understand the difference
between the number, color, and kind of object. The ability to classify is a basic thinking skill. He
seems to use language to express his needs and emotions. When ill and taken to the animal
hospital for his first overnight stay, this parrot turned to go. "Come here!" he cried to a scientist
who works with him. "I love you. I'm sorry. Wanna go back?"

The research on animal intelligence raises important questions. If animals are smarter than
once thought, would that change the way humans interact with them? Would humans stop
hunting them for sport or survival? Would animals still be used for food, clothing, or medical
experimentation? Finding the answer to these tough questions makes a difficult puzzle even for
a large-brained, problem-solving species like our own.
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1. Crows use sticks to pry peanuts out of cracks. Which of the following is the kind of
intelligence or conditioning the situation describes?
a. rote learning
b. tools
c. communication
d. instinct

2. The underlined word upsurge, as it is used in the first paragraph of the passage, most
nearly means
a. an increasingly large amount.
b. a decreasing amount.
c. a well-known amount.
d. an immeasurable amount.

3. The concluding paragraph of this passage infers which of the following?

a. There is no definitive line between those animals with intelligence and those
without.
b. Animals are being given opportunities to display their intelligence.
c. Research showing higher animal intelligence may fuel debate on ethics and
cruelty.
d. Animals are capable of untrained thought well beyond mere instinct.

4. According to the passage, which of the following is true about animals communicating
through the use of human language?
a. Parrots can imitate or repeat a sound.
b. Dolphins click and whistle.
c. Crows screech warnings to other crows.
d. Chimpanzees and gorillas have been trained to use sign language or geometric
shapes that stand for words.

5. In paragraph 3, what conclusion can be reached about the chimpanzee's ability to use a
tool?
a. It illustrates high intelligence because he is able to get his food and eat it.
b. It illustrates instinct because he faced a difficult task and accomplished it.
c. It illustrates high intelligence because he stored knowledge away and called it up
at the right time.
d. It illustrates high intelligence because termites are protein-packed.
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Passage 2

She was one of those pretty, charming women who are born, as if by an error of Fate,
into a petty official's family. She had no dowry,1 no hopes, nor the slightest chance of being
loved and married by a rich man—so she slipped into marriage with a minor civil servant.
Unable to afford jewels, she dressed simply: But she was wretched, for women have neither
caste nor breeding—in them beauty, grace, and charm replace pride of birth. Innate refinement,
instinctive elegance, and wit give them their place on the only scale that counts, and these make
humble girls the peers of the grandest ladies.

She suffered, feeling that every luxury should rightly have been hers. The poverty of her
rooms—the shabby walls, the worn furniture, the ugly upholstery caused her pain. All these
things that another woman of her class would not even have noticed, made her angry. The very
sight of the little Breton girl who cleaned for her awoke rueful thoughts and the wildest dreams
in her mind. She dreamt of rooms with Oriental hangings, lighted by tall, bronze torches, and
with two huge footmen in knee breeches made drowsy by the heat from the stove, asleep in the
wide armchairs. She dreamt of great drawing rooms upholstered in old silks, with fragile little
tables holding priceless knickknacks, and of enchanting little sitting rooms designed for tea-
time chats with famous, sought-after men whose attentions all women longed for.

She sat down to dinner at her round table with its three-day-old cloth, and watched her
husband lift the lid of the soup tureen and delightedly exclaim: "Ah, a good homemade beef
stew! There's nothing better!" She visualized elegant dinners with gleaming silver and gorgeous
china. She yearned for wall hangings peopled with knights and ladies and exotic birds in a fairy
forest. She dreamt of eating the pink flesh of trout or the wings of grouse. She had no proper
wardrobe, no jewels, nothing. And those were the only things that she loved—she felt she was
made for them. She would have so loved to charm, to be envied, to be admired and sought after.

1dowry: property a woman brought to her husband in marriage. This passage was adapted from
"The Necklace," by Guy de Maupassant

6. Which word best describes the actual living conditions of the couple in the selection?
a. destitute
b. poor
c. comfortable
d. wealthy
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7. Which line best demonstrates the couple's true economic standing?

a. She had no dowry, no hopes, not the slightest chance of being married by a rich
man …
b. The poverty of her rooms—the shabby walls, the worn furniture, the ugly
upholstery caused her pain.
c. She sat down to dinner at her round table with its three-day old cloth, and
watched her husband lift the lid of the soup tureen …
d. The very sight of the little Breton girl who cleaned for her awoke rueful thoughts
and the wildest dreams in her mind.

8. According to the selection, what can be stated about the marriage of this woman?
a. She married but was ashamed of the insignificant position her husband held.
b. She married on the rebound after a wealthy suitor had abandoned her.
c. She married for love without realizing the consequences to her social standing.
d. She never loved her husband.

9. What can be inferred about the values of both husband and wife?
a. They share the same values.
b. The husband values family and simple comforts of home, whereas his wife views
these comforts as cause for her anguish.
c. The husband has ceased to enjoy the simple things and only strives to quench his
wife's insatiable desire for luxury.
d. The husband believes that a wholesome meal can solve all problems, while his
wife believes it is the presentation of the meal that counts.

10. The main idea of the passage is

a. to have the reader feel great sympathy for the wife.
b. to have the reader feel great sympathy for the husband.
c. to show the class distinctions that were so obvious during the setting of the story.
d. to show the reader how selfish and self-centered the wife is.
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Passage 3
xxx
The separation of powers is a fundamental principle in our system of government. It obtains not
through express provision but by actual division in our Constitution. Each department of the
government has exclusive cognizance of matters within its jurisdiction, and is supreme within
its own sphere. But it does not follow from the fact that the three powers are to be kept separate
and distinct that the Constitution intended them to be absolutely unrestrained and independent
of each other. The Constitution has provided for an elaborate system of checks and balances to
secure coordination in the workings of the various departments of the government. For example,
the Chief Executive under our Constitution is so far made a check on the legislative power that
this assent is required in the enactment of laws. This, however, is subject to the further check
that a bill may become a law notwithstanding the refusal of the President to approve it, by a
vote of two-thirds or three-fourths, as the case may be, of the National Assembly. The President
has also the right to convene the Assembly in special session whenever he chooses. On the other
hand, the National Assembly operates as a check on the Executive in the sense that its consent
through its Commission on Appointments is necessary in the appointments of certain officers;
and the concurrence of a majority of all its members is essential to the conclusion of treaties.
Furthermore, in its power to determine what courts other than the Supreme Court shall be
established, to define their jurisdiction and to appropriate funds for their support, the National
Assembly controls the judicial department to a certain extent. The Assembly also exercises the
judicial power of trying impeachments. And the judiciary in turn, with the Supreme Court as
the final arbiter, effectively checks the other departments in the exercise of its power to
determine the law, and hence to declare executive and legislative acts void if violative of the
Constitution.

But in the main, the Constitution has blocked out with deft strokes and in bold lines, allotment
of power to the executive, the legislative and the judicial departments of the government. The
overlapping and interlacing of functions and duties between the several departments, however,
sometimes makes it hard to say just where the one leaves off and the other begins. In times of
social disquietude or political excitement, the great landmarks of the Constitution are apt to be
forgotten or marred, if not entirely obliterated. In cases of conflict, the judicial department is the
only constitutional organ which can be called upon to determine the proper allocation of
powers between the several departments and among the integral or constituent units thereof.
As any human production, our Constitution is of course lacking perfection and perfectibility,
but as much as it was within the power of our people, acting through their delegates to so
provide, that instrument which is the expression of their sovereignty however limited, has
established a republican government intended to operate and function as a harmonious whole,
under a system of checks and balances, and subject to specific limitations and restrictions
provided in the said instrument. The Constitution sets forth in no uncertain language the
restrictions and limitations upon governmental powers and agencies. If these restrictions and
limitations are transcended it would be inconceivable if the Constitution had not provided for a
mechanism by which to direct the course of government along constitutional channels, for then
the distribution of powers would be mere verbiage, the bill of rights mere expressions of
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sentiment, and the principles of good government mere political apothegms. Certainly, the
limitation and restrictions embodied in our Constitution are real as they should be in any living
constitution. In the United States where no express constitutional grant is found in their
constitution, the possession of this moderating power of the courts, not to speak of its historical
origin and development there, has been set at rest by popular acquiescence for a period of more
than one and a half centuries. In our case, this moderating power is granted, if not expressly, by
clear implication from section 2 of article VIII of our constitution.

The Constitution is a definition of the powers of government. Who is to determine the nature,
scope and extent of such powers? The Constitution itself has provided for the instrumentality of
the judiciary as the rational way. And when the judiciary mediates to allocate constitutional
boundaries, it does not assert any superiority over the other departments; it does not in reality
nullify or invalidate an act of the legislature, but only asserts the solemn and sacred obligation
assigned to it by the Constitution to determine conflicting claims of authority under the
Constitution and to establish for the parties in an actual controversy the rights which that
instrument secures and guarantees to them. This is in truth all that is involved in what is termed
"judicial supremacy" which properly is the power of judicial review under the Constitution.
Even then, this power of judicial review is limited to actual cases and controversies to be
exercised after full opportunity of argument by the parties, and limited further to the
constitutional question raised or the very lis mota presented. Any attempt at abstraction could
only lead to dialectics and barren legal questions and to sterile conclusions unrelated to
actualities. Narrowed as its function is in this manner, the judiciary does not pass upon
questions of wisdom, justice or expediency of legislation. More than that, courts accord the
presumption of constitutionality to legislative enactments, not only because the legislature is
presumed to abide by the Constitution but also because the judiciary in the determination of
actual cases and controversies must reflect the wisdom and justice of the people as expressed
through their representatives in the executive and legislative departments of the governments
of the government.
xxx
Angara v. Electoral Commission (1942)

11. Which of the following statements is in consonance with the ruling laid down in the
above-cited case?
a. The power of judicial review extends to the amendment of statutes passed by the
Legislature when it sees that it does not address the exigencies of the times.
b. It is the judiciary which is called upon to correct the rules and regulations issued by
the Executive department which are not in consonance with the Constitution.
c. The power of judicial review includes the determination of the allocation of powers
of each branch of the Government.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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12. In exercising the power of judicial review:

a. The cause of action must be a constitutional question.
b. There is an actual case or controversy.
c. The Judiciary can overturn the issuances of the Executive Department, if it finds that
it is not in accordance with the right against unreasonable searches and seizures.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

13. Which statement best expresses the ruling in Angara v. Electoral Commission?
a. When the Court allocates constitutional boundaries, it neither asserts supremacy, nor
annuls the acts of the legislature. It simply carries out the obligations imposed upon
it by the constitution to determine conflicting claims and to establish for the parties
the rights which the constitution grants to them.
b. Judicial power includes the duty of courts of justice to settle actual controversies
involving rights which are legally demandable and enforceable, and to determine
whether or not there has been a grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or
excess of jurisdiction on the part of any branch or instrumentality of the government.
c. The Constitution must ever remain supreme. All must bow to the mandate of this
law. Expediency must not be allowed to sap its strength nor greed for power debase
its rectitude.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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Passage 4

Article 1825, Civil Code. When a person, by words spoken or written or by conduct, represents
himself, or consents to another representing him to anyone, as a partner in an existing
partnership or with one or more persons not actual partners, he is liable to any such persons to
whom such representation has been made, who has, on the faith of such representation, given
credit to the actual or apparent partnership, and if he has made such representation or
consented to its being made in a public manner he is liable to such person, whether the
representation has or has not been made or communicated to such person so giving credit by or
with the knowledge of the apparent partner making the representation or consenting to its
being made:
(1) When a partnership liability results, he is liable as though he were an actual member of the
partnership;
(2) When no partnership liability results, he is liable pro rata with the other persons, if any, so
consenting to the contract or representation as to incur liability, otherwise separately.
When a person has been thus represented to be a partner in an existing partnership, or with one
or more persons not actual partners, he is an agent of the persons consenting to such
representation to bind them to the same extent and in the same manner as though he were a
partner in fact, with respect to persons who rely upon the representation. When all the members
of the existing partnership consent to the representation, a partnership act or obligation results;
but in all other cases it is the joint act or obligation of the person acting and the persons
consenting to the representation.

In the following instances, when is the partnership liable?

14. Cocoy, Momoy, Popoy and Associates is an existing professional partnership. With the
authority of Cocoy, he enters into a contract on behalf of the partnership.
a. When Totoy tells Nonoy that he is a partner in Boboy and Cocoy Carinderia. Totoy
then enters into a contract of sale for 60 kilos of chicken breast with Nonoy on behalf
of Boboy and Cocoy Carinderia, an existing partnership.
b. When Boboy, Cocoy, and Totoy announce on the Philippine Daily Inquirer, a
publicly circulated newspaper, that Popoy is a partner in BCT Gotohan. Momoy
enters into a contract of sale for 50 kilos of twalya with Popoy on behalf of BCT
Gotohan.
c. Momoy extends credit to Popoy, on the mistaken presumption that he is a partner in
Boboy, Nonoy, and Associates.
d. All of the above
e. None of the Above
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15. A person to whom another has represented himself as a partner in an existing

partnership always has recourse to the partnership.
a. Absolutely True
b. Sometimes True
c. Never True
d. Absolutely False

16. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Cocoy told Momoy that he is a partner in Boboy, Nonoy, Popoy Pares House, when
in fact he is not. Cocoy will be personally liable to Momoy for all transactions that he
enters into on behalf of Boboy, Nonoy, Popoy Pares House.
b. Cocoy bought 20 kilos of liver for Momoy and Popoy Pansiteria, an existing
partnership. Momoy and Popoy, the partners, later promised Cocoy that they would
pay him when the Pansiteria turns a profit. Cocoy is will be considered a partner in
Momoy and Popoy Pansiteria when the Pansiteria does not turn a profit.
c. Momoy announces to the whole barangay that he has formed a partnership with
Popoy and Nonoy, a nonexistent partnership. Popoy and Nonoy, who were there
when the announcement was made, did not object. Popoy and Nonoy will not be
liable for the future transactions that Momoy will enter into on behalf of their
partnership.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
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Passage 5

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her husband,
Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and studied uranium
and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie's amicable collaboration later helped to
unlock the secrets of the atom.

Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics. At an
early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great exuberance for
learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She became disgruntled,
however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was closed to women. Determined to
receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French
university, where she earned her master's degree and doctorate in physics.

Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists of her
day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and spent many
productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time after they discovered
radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie was stunned by this horrible
misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish. Despondently she recalled their close
relationship and the joy that they had shared in scientific research. The fact that she had two
young daughters to raise by herself greatly increased her distress.

Curie's feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her husband
as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a professorship at
the world-famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in chemistry for isolating
radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness from her long exposure to
radium, she never became disillusioned about her work. Regardless of the consequences, she
had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the mysteries of the physical world.

17. The Curies' _________ collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom
a. friendly
b. competitive
c. courteous
d. industrious
e. chemistry

18. Marie had a bright mind and a ______ personality.

a. strong
b. lighthearted
c. humorous
d. strange
e. envious
 25

19. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt _________.
a. hopeless
b. annoyed
c. depressed
d. worried
e. None of the above

20. Marie _________ by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the Sorbonne.
a. challenged authority
b. showed intelligence
c. behaved
d. was distressed
e. Answer not available
 26

QUANTITATIVE
REASONING
40 items
35 minutes
 27

Directions: Choose the letter that corresponds to the correct answer.

1. Identify the missing number.

4 14 11 31
35 26 73 ?

a. 51
b. 56
c. 45
d. 55
e. 52

2. Identify the missing number: 98, 94, ?, 70, 38

a. 89
b. 85
c. 86
d. 87
e. 88

3. It costs RPC Manufacturing Company X pesos per component to make the first 1,000
components. All subsequent components cost X/3 each. When X=P1.50, how much will it
cost to manufacture 4,000 components?
a. P3,500
b. P3,000
c. P4,000
d. P3,250
e. P4,500

4. A train travelling at 60 mph enters a tunnel that is 5 miles long. The train is one mile
long. How many minutes does it take for the whole train to pass through the tunnel?
a. 7
b. 4
c. 10
d. 5
e. 6
 28

5. In the local elections for municipal mayor of Pandan, Antique, Ronaldo received one
and a half times as many votes as Donato. Donato received one third more votes than
Marissa. 900 votes were cast for Marissa. How many votes were cast for Ronaldo?
a. 900
b. 1400
c. 1600
d. 1000
e. 1800

6. Anna and John both drive to their new home 400 miles away. Anna drives the family car
at an average speed of 60 mph. John drives the rented truck at an average speed of 50
mph. During the journey, Anna stops for a total of 1 hour and 20 minutes, John stops for
half as long. What is the difference in minutes between their arrival times?
a. 60
b. 55
c. 40
d. 90
e. 80

7. A total of 800 copies of a CD were sold. 60% were sold at 50% discount, 20% were sold at
30% discount and the remainder were sold at the full price of $8.95. What was the
approximate total revenue in dollars?
a. 4,679
b. 4,579
c. 4,779
d. 4,499
e. 4,521

8. In a survey, 3/16 of the respondents said that they preferred to use self-service gas
stations. 5/8 said that they preferred not to pump their own gas. The remaining
75respondents said that had no clear preference. How many people preferred self-
service?
a. 75
b. 125
c. 100
d. 133
e. 150

9. What is ½ of 2/3 of 3/5?

a. ¼
b. 1/5
c. 2/15
d. 6/30
 29

10. It is given that: (x – 2y) (x + 2y) = 4

Quantity A: x2 – 4y2
Quantity B: 8

Which of the following describes the relationship between Quantity A and Quantity
B?
a. A is greater.
b. B is greater.
c. The two quantities are equal.
d. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

11. What fraction of the clock face is in between the two hands of a clock if the clock
shows 4:00?
a. 1/2
b. 1/3
c. 1/4
d. 1/6

12. At the age of 10 days, a baby elephant eats 5 candies. From this age onwards, its
appetite grows, and each day it eats twice the number of candies it ate the previous
day. How may candies will the baby elephant eat at the age of 14 days?
a. 40
b. 80
c. 100
d. 120

13. A restaurant offers 3 different first courses and 4 different main courses. In
addition to the first course and the main course, it also offers a choice of soup or
dessert. How many different combinations of three-course meals can be put
together at this restaurant?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 18
d. 24
 30

14. A gambler with initial money of P20, 000 bets all his money in a game where he
earns 30% of his bet when he wins and gives 40% of his bet when he loses. He
loses on the first game and wins on the second game. How much money does the
gambler have after the two games?
a. P15, 600
b. P18, 000
c. P19, 600
d. P22, 000

15. The price of an article is cut by 20%. By how much must the new price be
increased to restore to its former value?
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 40%

16. A new number is seven less than twice a number. If x represents a number,
which of these expressions represents the new number?
a. 7 - 2x
b. 2x – 7
c. 7x – 2
d. 2 – 7x

17. Roy leaves home and walks to school at a rate of 60 meters per minute. Ten
minutes later, his brother Don leaves home and walks at a faster pace of 100
meters per minute. If the school is 900 meters away, who reaches the school
earlier, and by how many minutes is he earlier than his brother?
a. Roy by 4 minutes
b. Don by 4 minutes
c. Roy by 6 minutes
d. Don by 6 minutes

18. Students receive a degree only after passing all their tests and submitting all their
papers. Out of 300 students, 250 passed all their tests and 215 submitted all their
papers. How many students received a degree?
a. At least 215
b. No more than 185
c. Exactly 215
d. At least 165
 31

19. If p is a negative number and 0 < s < |p|, which of the following must also be a
negative number?
a. ( p + s )2
b. ( p – s )2
c. ( s – p )2
d. s2 – p2

20. If x and y are the tens digit and the units digit, respectively, of the product of
725,278 and 67,066, what is the value of x + y?
a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. None of the above.

21. K is an even number and P is an odd number. Which of the following statements
is NOT correct?
a. P – K – 1 is odd.
b. P + K + 1 is even.
c. PK + P is odd.
d. P2 + K2 + 1 is even.

22. Belinda’s teacher was to randomly pick three students from their class of 25 to
participate in a survey. The class is composed of 15 boys and 10 girls. If the first
two students picked were a girl and a boy, what is Belinda’s chance of being
picked for the third slot?
a. 1/8
b. 1/9
c. 1/10
d. 1/23
 32

23. Refer to the following figures:

Which of the following is the correct statement about the area of these figures?

a. The area of ABCD is greater than the area of EFGH.

b. The area of EFGH is greater than the area of ABCD.
c. The areas of ABCD and EFGH are equal.
d. The area of the figures cannot be determined from the information given.

24. The accompanying figure shows right triangle ABC and isosceles triangle ABD
(AB=AD). Based on this information and the information in the figure, what is
the value of α?

a. 60˚
b. 45˚
c. 30˚
d. 25˚
 33

25. The accompanying figure shows a circle whose center is O and whose radius is
10 centimeters long. The shaded region equals 1/6 the area of the circle. Based on
this information and the information in the figure, what is the length (in cm) of
the arc shown in bold?

a. 30π
b. (40/3)π
c. (20/3)π
d. 20π

26. Which of the following illustrates the associative property of addition?

a. 2x + x3 = x3 + 2x
b. 3x + 2x = 2 x + 3x
c. (x + 2) + x3 = x + (2 + x3)
d. 2x3 + (-2x2)= 0

27. 100 is to 64 as 10 is to
a. 8
b. 7
c. 6
d. 5

28. 2, 6, 4, 12, 6, 18, 8, 24, 10, __

a. 44
b. 32
c. 53
d. 30
 34

29. 9 ¾ expressed as improper fraction is

a. 27/4
b. 39/4
c. 3/36
d. 12/1

30. A couple plans to have a vacation on an island. They have the option to travel
directly to the island by ship or by Concorde jet. Or they can travel to a town
near the island by car, train, or bus. From the town, they can either take a ferry or
a Cessna plane. In how many different ways can they travel to the island?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 9
d. 12

31. Evaluate: 2/3 x 4% x 15/8

a. 1/2
b. 9/8
c. 1/20
d. 9/80

32. The measures of two angles in a trapezoid are in the ratio of 2:4. The measure of
the larger angles is twenty-four degrees less than three times the smaller angle.
What is the measure of the larger angle?
a. 24 degrees
b. 48 degrees
c. 72 degrees
d. 85 degrees

33. Jose is 10 years older than Paula. Ten years ago, Jose’s age is thrice that of
Paula’s. How old is Paula ten years from now?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
 35

34. What fraction of the clock face is in between the two hands of a clock if the clock
shows 4:00?
a. 1/3
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 1/6

35. What is 1/2 of 2/3 of 3/5?

a. 1/4
b. 1/5
c. 2/16
d. 6/30

36. A flight of stairs has 15 steps, not counting the first floor but counting the second
floor as a step. If the distance between the two steps is five inches, and each step
is two inches thick, how high is the second floor from the first floor?
a. 8 ft., 4 in.
b. 8 ft., 7 in.
c. 8 ft., 9 in.
d. 8 ft., 13 in.

37. Tracy needs to read 4 chapters of her Criminal Law book that run from page 184
to page 321. How many pages does she need to read?
a. 137
b. 138
c. 147
d. 148

38. 5/8 is to .63 as 6/7 is to

a. .96
b. .77
c. .67
d. .86
 36

39. A gambler with an initial money of P20,000 bets all his money in a game where
he earns 30% of his bet when he wins and gives 40% of his bet when he loses. He
loses on the first game and wins on the second game. How much money does the
gambler have after the two games?
a. P19, 600
b. P 18, 000
c. P 15, 600
d. P 22, 000

40. In the Inter-Westeros games, House Lannister received a total of 25 medals, 24%
of these were gold and 32% were silver. How many bronze medals did the
House Lannister win?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11
 37

VERBAL
REASONING
10 items
10 minutes
 38

Directions: Choose the letter that corresponds to the best answer.

1. Pedro goes either hunting or fishing every day. If it is snowing and windy, then Pedro
goes hunting. If it is sunny and not windy, then Pedro goes fishing. Sometimes it can be
snowing and sunny. Which of the following statements must be true?
a. If it is not sunny and it is snowing, then Pedro goes hunting.
b. If it is windy and Pedro does not go hunting, then it is not snowing.
c. If it is windy and not sunny, then Pedro goes hunting.
d. If it is windy and sunny then Pedro goes hunting.
e. If it is snowing and sunny, then Pedro goes hunting.

2. If Judy comes to the party, then Sally leaves the party. If Sally leaves, then either
Christine or Clara asks Philip to dance. If Philip is asked to dance by either Christine or
Clara, and Sally leaves the party, Philip accepts. If Philip is asked to dance by either
Christine or Clara, and Sally does not leave the party, Philip does not accept. If Sally
does not leave the party, which of the following statements can be logically deduced
from the information above?
a. Christine asks Philip to dance
b. Clara asks Philip to dance
c. Judy does not come to the party
d. Philip dances with either Christine or Clara
e. Philip leaves the party

The refectory opens at 6:30 am to serve breakfast which must be ordered by 9:30 am. Lunch is
served between 11:45 am and 2:30 pm. Dinner is served between 6:00 pm and 8:30 pm. Guests
can be accommodated at lunchtimes and dinnertimes provided that 24 hour-notice has been
given. Vegetarian options are always available but vegans should notify the catering
coordinator at the beginning of each term as should anyone with special dietary requirement.
This includes nut, gluten and soybean allergies etc.

3. You can order lunch at 9:45 if you wish

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say

4. Guests cannot be accommodated at breakfast time.

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
 39

5. Vegetarians should notify the catering coordinator.

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say

6. Someone allergic to eggs should notify the catering coordinator.

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say

A power of attorney or letter of attorney in common law systems or mandate in civil law
systems is an authorization to act on someone else’s behalf in a legal or business matter. The
person authorizing the other to act is the “principal” or “grantor”, and the one authorized to act
is the “agent” or “attorney-in-fact”. The attorney-in-fact acts “in the principal’s name,” signing
the principal’s name to documents and filing suit with the principal’s name as plaintiff, for
example.

As one kind of agent, an attorney-in-fact is a fiduciary for the principal, so the law requires an
attorney-in-fact to be completely honest with and loyal to the principal in their dealing with
each other. If the attorney-in-fact is being paid to act for the principal, the contract is a separate
matter from the power of attorney itself, so if that contract is in writing, it is a separate
document, kept private between them, whereas the power of attorney is intended to be shown
to various other people.

The power of attorney may be oral, such as asking someone else to sign your name on a check
because your arm is broken, or may be in writing. Many institutions, such as hospitals and
banks, require a power of attorney to be in writing before they will honor it, and they usually
want to keep an original for their records.

7. The agent grants the principal the power to act on behalf of the grantor.
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say

8. All contracts between the principal and the agent must be made public.
a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say

9. The power of attorney may be granted verbally.

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
 40

10. Only a legal professional can be granted the power of attorney.

a. True
b. False
c. Cannot say
 41

CRITICAL
THINKING
20 items
30 minutes
 42

1. In a nationwide survey, 80% of dermatologists use Radiance facial soap. Which one of
the following would most weaken this endorsement for facial soap?
a. Only ten dermatologists were surveyed.
b. The dermatologists endorsed the product for free.
c. Only five dermatologists do not use the product.
d. Radiance facial soap smells better than the other brands.
e. Radiance facial soap comes in a better packaging than the other brands.

2. In Mary and Susan’s science class, everyone likes chemistry or biology or both, but
Susan does not like biology. Which of the following statements cannot be true?
a. Susan likes chemistry and biology.
b. Mary only likes chemistry.
c. Susan hates chemistry and biology.
d. None of the students like biology.
e. Students who do not like chemistry like biology.

3. Floyd: The big race is tomorrow and I’m still behind Alberto. I suppose I’ll just have to
take this synthetic testosterone. I am well aware of the risks and implications if I get
caught, but I absolutely have to win.
Lance: I don’t think that would bode well for you. Have you ever thought of what that
will do to your career? Just ride as much as you are able. You may or may not win, but
one thing you will never lose is respect.

Lance attacks Floyd’s argument by

a. Attacking his character
b. Applying personal pressure
c. Implying that good triumphs over evil
d. Presenting another alternative
e. Suggesting a positive approach

4. Given that this car is a dud, it must be a lemon.

The foregoing conclusion can be properly drawn if it is true that

a. Lemons are generally serviceable.
b. Only lemons are duds.
c. Other lemons are not totally duds.
d. Few other lemons are duds.
e. Most other duds are lemons.
 43

For questions 5 to 6:

“Even the smallest café in Paris serves better coffee than the largest coffee chain in Seattle,” the
visiting connoisseur said. He was complaining about the quality of the coffee being served in
Seattle. “I was trained in France,” he added, “so I know coffee very well. But in America, you
only have baristas. You can tell just by looking at the people who drink coffee. In Seattle, people
line-up, buy their coffee and go. But in France, people take the time to relax and savor the
flavour of coffee.”

5. The connoisseur’s conclusions depend on all the following EXCEPT:

a. If the coffee is good, people will stay and savor the flavour.
b. All good coffee connoisseurs are trained in France.
c. The norm for good coffer is France.
d. The quality of the coffee can be determined by the quality of the café.
e. Nobody hangs out in coffee chains in America.

6. All of the following are errors in the reasoning of the speaker in the passage above
EXCEPT:
a. The speaker claims that he knows how to make great coffee.
b. The argument takes as fact what is unproven personal opinion.
c. The argument assumes that the largest coffee chain in Seattle represents
American coffee.
d. The speaker claims complete knowledge of a large number of cafes in Paris.
e. The examples the speaker cites of good and bad coffee are vague and unspecific.

7. The presence of the gas X is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition, for the
existence of life on the planet O. On the basis of the foregoing, which of the following
would also be true?
a. If no life exists on O, X is the only gas present.
b. If no life exists on O, X cannot be present.
c. If life exists on O, then the gas X may or may not be present.
d. If life exists on O, then only the gas X is present.
e. If life exists on O, then the gas X is present.

8. The absence of the liquid Y is a sufficient condition for the cessation of life on the planet
M, but it is not a necessary condition. On the basis of the foregoing, which of the
following would also be true?
a. If life on M ceased to exist, there would have been an absence of the liquid Y.
b. If all liquid Y were removed from M, life there would surely perish.
c. If all liquid Y were removed from M, life there may or may not cease.
d. If all liquid Y were removed from M, the cessation of life would depend upon
other conditions.
e. Life on M cannot cease as long as Y is present.
 44

9. Gilas Pilipinas practices twice a day and simulates game situations to minimize their
errors come game time. This statement is an example of which one of the following
assumptions?
a. Practice makes perfect.
b. To err is human.
c. Practice allows one to prepare for real conditions.
d. People make mistakes; that’s why they put erasers on pencils
e. Simulation is the same as the actual event.

10. For the post-election party, no actor or actress was invited to Malacanang Palace unless
he or she was more than 30 years old. No one older than 30 was both an actor/actress
and invited to the palace. Which one of the following conclusions can be logically drawn
from the statements above?
a. No one but actors or actresses were invited to the palace.
b. Only persons older than 30 were invited to the palace.
c. No one over 30 was invited to the palace.
d. No actor or actress was invited to the palace.
e. Some actors or actresses over 30 were invited to the palace.

11. No one who is a member of the basketball team takes any banned substance. No first-
rate athlete takes banned substances. Therefore, only first-rate athletes become members
of the basketball team.

The reasoning here is in error since the conclusion does not allow for the possibility of
a. A non-substance abuser on the basketball team who is a second-rate athlete
b. A first-rate athlete who doesn’t play basketball
c. An ex-substance abuser who is a first-rate athlete
d. A non-substance abuser who is not a first-rate athlete
e. A substance abuser who is a first-rate basketball player

12. Joaquin: Crop circles are turning up all over the place with the designs too intricate to be
done by human hands. Strange lights have been seen in the sky on the night before the
crop circles were discovered, and no human suspects have ever been found. They must
be created by aliens.

Mel: Maybe it’s some weird cult or some misfits playing a prank. I don’t know all the
facts of the story, and I have no certain explanation myself, but it is unlikely that extra-
terrestrial beings would go to the extent of making useless crop circles.
 45

Mel responds to Joaquin’s explanation by

a. Demonstrating that his conclusion is inconsistent with the evidence that is advanced
in its support
b. Questioning the accuracy of the evidence on which his argument depends.
c. Providing evidence that contradicts his conclusion
d. Refusing to deal with the logic of his argument
e. Offering counter-explanations

13. If people would use soap and water instead of toilet paper, less paper would be
manufactured. So we should replace toilet paper with soap and water, and the forests of
the world will not be consumed so rapidly. This argument depends on which one of the
following assumptions?
a. Using soap and water will consume resources less valuable than forests.
b. The cost of soap and water may be less than toilet paper.
c. The pace at which the forests is being consumed should be reduced.
d. The economic advantages of using soap and water outweigh those of using toilet
paper.
e. People are rarely willing to give up a convenience for an advantage that is not
immediately perceptible.

14. Teacher: Have you studied for this test?

Student: Yes. I spent at least two hours on logarithms alone.
Teacher: And you have reviewed derivatives as well?
Student: I studied that lesson thrice.
Teacher: You aren’t being honest here. If you’d studied, you wouldn’t have confused
basic facts like Lagrange’s notation with Leibniz’s notation.

The professor’s reasoning is flawed for each of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a. It does not consider the possibility that lack of concentration can cause poor
retention.
b. It assumes the study regimen mentioned by the student would be effective.
c. It connects repeated reading with retention.
d. It assumes the basic facts are easy to remember.
e. It ignores the possibility that the student may have been ill or tired during the exam,
causing poor performance.
 46

15. Left-handed people have above-average IQ. Popoy is left-handed. Therefore, Popoy has
above average IQ. The pattern of reasoning in the argument is flawed most similarly to
which of the following arguments?
a. Wolves leave scent trails for the rest of their pack to follow. Scent trails are
common among social animals. Therefore, all social animals are wolves.
b. Rice is not a good plant to grow in containers. Grain is not a good plant to grow
in containers. Therefore, rice is grain.
c. Narra is solid and sturdy. Rubber wood is less sturdy but also less expensive.
Therefore, rubber wood is the choice of furniture makes.
d. School staff and custodians often belong to unions. Jack wants to become a
custodian. Therefore, Jack will probably join a union.
e. Banana trees provide fruit for wildlife. Wildlife has many food sources.
Therefore, banana trees are not necessary as wildlife food source.
 47

IDENTIFY THE LOGICAL FALLACY

16. A book is pornographic if and only if it contains pornography.

a. Argument from Ignorance
b. Circular Reasoning
c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
d. Hasty Generalization

17. Since scientists cannot prove that global warming will occur, it probably won't.
a. Argument from Ignorance
b. Questionable Analogy
c. Circular definition
d. Slippery Slope

18. Protesting against racial injustice only causes more of it to occur.

a. Questionable analogy
b. Slippery Slope
c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
d. Confusing Cause and Effect

19. Immigration to California from Mexico increased. Soon after, the welfare rolls increased.
Therefore, the increased immigration caused the increase in welfare rolls.
a. Begging the Question
b. Circular Definition
c. Post Hoc Ergo Propter Hoc
d. Hasty generalization

20. Turing thinks machines think.

Turing lies with men.
Therefore, machines don't think.
a. Slippery Slope
b. Ad Hominem
c. Hasty Generalization
d. Begging the Question
 48

NON-VERBAL THINKING
25 items
20 minutes
 49

1. Which figure completes the series?

2. Which figure completes the series?

3. Which figure completes the series?

4. Which figure completes the series?

5. Which figure completes the series?

 50

6. Which figure completes the statement?

7. Which figure completes the statement?

8. Which figure completes the statement?

9. Which figure completes the statement?

 51

10. Which figure completes the statement?

11. Which figure is the odd one out?

12. Which figure is the odd one out?

13. Which figure is the odd one out?

14. Which figure is the odd one out?

 52

15. Which figure is the odd one out?

16. Which figure completes the series?

17. Which figure completes the series?

 53

18. Which figure belongs in neither group?

19. Which figure belongs in neither group?

 54

20. Which figure is next in the series?

21. Which figure is next in the series?

 55

22. Which figure completes the grid?

23. Which figure completes the grid?

 56

24. Which figure is the odd one out?

25. Which figure is the odd one out?

 57

GENERAL
INFORMATION
25 items
5 minutes
 58

1. Where was Grace Poe abandoned as an mustard and seasonings then

abandoned newborn baby? mounded or piped into the white
a. On the footsteps of a Church in of the boiled egg.
Jaro, Iloilo City b. Eggs are stirred together with
b. Outside the gates of Fernando Poe vegetables such as bean sprouts
Jr.’s house and scallions, then quickly cooked
c. In a trash bin in a public market in in a hot skillet or deep-fried in oil,
Jaro, Iloilo City and served with gravy.
d. Outside the gates of an orphanage c. Two halves of an English muffin,
topped with ham or bacon,
2. Which of the following films did not poached eggs, and Hollandaise
win Best Picture at the Academy sauce
Awards? d. An egg fried within a hole in a slice
a. Madagascar of bread.
b. 12 Years A Slave
c. Dallas Buyers Club 7. Which of the following is NOT a breed
d. Moonlight of dog?
a. Lhasa Apso
3. Which Supreme Court Justice has never b. Bichon Frise
been the subject of an impeachment c. Akita
complaint? d. Scottish Fold
a. Renato Corona
b. Hilario Davide 8. Which of the following countries is a
c. Mariano del Castillo, Jr. permanent member of the United
d. Teresita Leonardo de Castro Nations Security Council?
a. China
4. Which newly appointed Supreme Court b. Kazakhstan
Justice replaced Martin Villarama, Jr.? c. Philippines
a. Marvic Leonen d. Sweden
b. Alfredo Caguioa
c. Estelito Mendoza 9. Who is not a Victoria’s Secret Angel?
d. Antonio Adaza a. Sara Sampaio
b. Elsa Hosk
5. Who is the director of the MMFF entry c. Liu Wen
Oro? d. Lais Ribeiro
a. Jose Javier Reyes, Jr.
b. Alvin Yapan 10. Which of the following is NOT a wife of
c. Erik Matti Henry Tudor VIII?
d. Peque Gallagas a. Catherine of Lancaster
b. Catherine Parr
6. How is the dish Eggs Benedict made? c. Catherine of Aragon
a. Yolks of hard-boiled eggs are d. Anne of Cleves
mashed with cream or mayonnaise,
 59

11. Which is NOT a novel by Haruki 16. Which of the following is not a Moirai
Murakami? (Greek Fates)?
a. Hard Boiled Wonderland and the a. Clotho
End of the World b. Portho
b. Pinball, 1973 c. Lachesis
c. Run, Dance, Run d. Atropos
d. Colorless Tsukuru Tazaki and His
Years of Pilgrimage 17. Tequila Sunrise is a cocktail made of:
a. Gin, orange juice, pomegranate
12. Which is NOT an album by the popular b. tequila, orange juice, rum
grunge band Nirvana? c. tequila, orange juice, grenadine
a. Nevermind d. Vodka, orange juice, grenadine
b. Bleach
c. Lithium 18. While inside the chrysalis, what form
d. In Utero does a caterpillar take?
a. Liquid
13. Which of these is not a part of a camera? b. Gas
a. Flash c. Larva
b. Shutter d. Caterpillar
c. Hoist
d. Mode Dial 19. Which of the following is not a berry?
a. Strawberry
14. A duck-billed platypus is: b. Blueberry
a. A reptile c. Banana
b. An amphibian d. Orange
c. A mammal
d. A fish 20. Which food can stay edible indefinitely?
a. Wheat
15. How did Moana restore the heart of Te b. Sugar
Fiti in the movie Moana? c. Soy
a. Moana offered it to Te Fiti at the foot d. Chicharon
of her mountain.
b. The ocean gave her a path to Te Ka, 21. “An unexamined life is not worth living.”
and she placed the heart onto Te Ka
Who said this?
which transformed Te Ka into Te Fiti.
a. Archimedes
c. Maui drove his fishhook into Te Ka,
which gave Moana enough time to
b. Herodotus
place the heart on to Te Ka, c. Socrates
transforming her into Te Fiti d. Thales
d. Moana sang a song which led Te Fiti
towards her, giving Maui enough time
to drive his fishhook into Te Fiti’s
heart.
 60

22. Which of the following elements did not

derive their atomic symbol from Latin?
a. Gold
b. Mercury
c. Silver
d. Vanadium

23. How many Adrians have become Popes

of the Roman Catholic Church?
a. 0
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6

24. Which of the following streets are not

eponymous, i.e. not named after people?
a. Africa Street (UP Diliman)
b. Legarda Street (Sampaloc)
c. Pablo Ocampo Street (Malate)
d. Victoria Street (Intramuros)

25. What is the name of the daughter of the

Tsar of Russia who was initially thought
to have survived the murder of her
family by the Bolsheviks?
a. Anastasia
b. Maria
c. Olga
d. Tatiana
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