PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 427

1 ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ 1
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the passages that follow, some words passage, or about the entire passage. These questions
and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the will be identified either by an underlined portion or by
answer column, you will find alternatives for the words a number in a box. Look for the answer that clearly
and phrases that are underlined. Choose the alternative expresses the idea, is consistent with the style and tone
that you think is best, and fill in the corresponding of the passage, and makes the correct use of standard
bubble on your answer sheet. If you think that the written English. Read the passage through once before
original version is best, choose “NO CHANGE,” which answering the questions. For some questions, you
will always be either answer choice A or F. You will should read beyond the indicated portion before you
also find questions about a particular section of the answer.

PASSAGE I

The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most

logical order. You may be asked questions about the log-
ical order of the paragraphs, as well as where to place
sentences logically within any given paragraph.

The Reappearance of the Ivory-billed Woodpecker

[1]

In the spring of 1999, a university student—also an avid 1. A. NO CHANGE

1 B. spring, of 1999, a university
hunter—stalked wild turkeys in the woods of Louisiana’s C. spring of 1999 a university
D. spring of 1999; a university
Pearl River Wildlife Management Area. Turkey license in
hand, he did not expect to discover a far more rarer bird, 2. F. NO CHANGE
2 G. a bird that was even more rare, and also one that
one that had been declared extinct in 1994. The student’s was
2
H. a far more rare bird that had been
report of seeing a pair of ivory-billed woodpeckers J. a bird, which was far rarer, and that had been

eventually leading to an exhaustive search for the 3. A. NO CHANGE

3 B. would eventually lead
supposedly lost species in the vast 35,000-acre wilderness. C. was leading eventually
D. was eventually lead
[2]

Extensive logging and unregulated hunting in the 1800s

decimated the population of the ivory-billed woodpecker

in the native habitat of the Southeastern United States. 4. F. NO CHANGE

4 G. their
H. its
J. a
By the 1920s, the species, which is the ivory-billed 5. A. NO CHANGE
5 B. the species, ivory-billed woodpeckers
woodpecker, had been given up as extinct. By 1938, C. ivory-billed woodpeckers, the species,
5 D. the species
however, around 20 individuals were known to exist in an

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428 PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST

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isolated tract of old-growth forest in Louisiana. Despite
pleas from four state governments and the National
Audubon Society, logging began in the forest, and by 1944 6. F. NO CHANGE
6 G. Society, logging began in the forest; and
the last known ivory-billed woodpecker had disappeared H. Society, logging began, in the forest and,
J. Society logging, began, in the forest, and
from the ruined habitat. The only evidence of the

species survival before its rediscovery at the end of the 7. A. NO CHANGE

7 B. species’ survival
century was an unconfirmed recording of its distinctive C. survival of the species
D. surviving species’
call made in Texas in 1967.
[3]

[1] New hope of finding an ivory-billed woodpecker

arose from the 1999 sighting. [2] This hope led a team 8. Which of the alternatives best provides new, spe-
8 cific information about the search for the ivory-billed
of biologists to conduct an extensive search for the woodpecker?
8 F. NO CHANGE
elusive bird in 2002. [3] Evidence of active woodpeckers G. A group of biologists searched the woods where
8
was found in markings and large cavities in tree the ivory-billed woodpecker had been spotted for
almost a month in 2002.
trunks. [4] They made a sound recording originally H. After hearing of the sighting in 1999, Louisiana
State University’s biologists spent time searching
believed to be the distinctive double-tap sound of the for the ivory-billed woodpecker.
J. In 2002, biologists from Louisiana State University
spent nearly a month in the Pearl River Wildlife
Management Area searching for the bird.
elusive bird; but determined it later it was likely the 9. A. NO CHANGE
9 B. bird, but later determined
echoes from a gunshot. [5] In the end, existence of the C. bird but determined later that
D. bird. Later determined,
ivory-billed woodpecker could not be proven. 10 10. Which of the following sequences of sentences will
make Paragraph 3 most logical?
[4] F. NO CHANGE
G. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
[1] Subsequent deployment of remote listening devices H. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
and motion-sensing cameras finally gave scientists the J. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

evidence they needed to confirm existence of the

bird, so then in 2004, a large woodpecker was videotaped. 11. A. NO CHANGE
11 B. bird, in 2004
C. bird. In 2004
D. bird. It was in 2004
[2] Its wings, flight, and plumage were cited as evidence 12. F. NO CHANGE
12 G. wings, flight and plumage
that the bird was indeed an ivory-billed woodpecker. H. wings flight and plumage
J. wings, flight, and plumage,
[3] Furthermore, the Arkansas researchers noted evidence
of active woodpeckers in markings on trees, and they also

documented several bird sightings.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 429

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[4] Fearing birdwatchers flooding, further searches were 13. A. NO CHANGE
13 B. The birdwatchers flooding was a fear
conducted in secret, as was the rush by the privately funded C. Fearing a flood of birdwatchers
D. The fear of flooding birdwatchers
Nature Conservancy to purchase potential woodpecker
habitat in the Arkansas wilderness. [5] Additional audio
evidence was gathered to support the claim of the bird’s

existence, and in 2005, a detailed report of the findings

was published in a major scientific journal. [6] While there

remain skeptics, the ornithology community now generally
accepted the existence of the ivory-billed woodpecker. 14. F. NO CHANGE
14 G. accepts
[7] As such, it is no longer considered extinct, but rather H. is accepting of
J. accepting
extremely endangered.
15. The writer wants to add the following sentence to
Paragraph 4:
Approximately 15 sightings were reported in early
2004, all possibly of the same bird.
This sentence would most logically be placed:
A. before Sentence 1.
B. before Sentence 2.
C. after Sentence 2.
D. after Sentence 3.

PASSAGE II
A Medical Journal
Working as an editor for my university’s medical

journal is very demanding, and my fellow editors and 16. Which of the following alternatives would NOT be an
16 acceptable way to write the sentence?
F. NO CHANGE
G. demanding, my
H. demanding. My
J. demanding; my
I spent long hours year-round maintaining the various parts 17. A. NO CHANGE
17 B. I am spending
of the publication. C. I, spending
D. I spend
In late summer, the editorial board reconvenes in 18. F. NO CHANGE
18 G. In late summer, consequently, the
anticipation of the new fall semester. We develop a formal H. However, in late summer the
J. Later in the summer, as a result, the

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call for papers nationwide research institutions are 19. A. NO CHANGE
19 B. to which nationwide research institutions we dis-
distributed to, from which we gather a wide variety of tribute
19
C. that we distribute to research institutions nation-
papers and reports dealing with all areas of medicine, wide
D. that are distributing nationwide to research institu-
tions
human biology, and public health. Researchers, and 20. F. NO CHANGE
20 G. Researchers, and authors
authors, are notified of our calls for papers through our H. Researchers and authors
20 J. Researchers and authors,
web site, e-mail list, and the flyers that we mail.
They all receive submissions by the end of October 21. A. NO CHANGE
21 B. All submissions we receive
every year. Editors read each work carefully over the C. All the submissions received
D. We receive all submissions
following month and submit their critiques to the other 22. F. NO CHANGE
22 G. month, and are submitting
members of the board. H. month; submitting
J. month and then they submit
They always get as many bad papers as good ones. 23. A. NO CHANGE
23 B. There always are either
C. Always, they get
D. There are always
24 Those we have trouble deciphering are 24. At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence:
Some of the papers even come hand-written,
which makes it hard to tell the good from the bad.
Would this be a logical and relevant addition to the
essay?
F. Yes, because it serves to establish the tone for the
remainder of the passage.
G. Yes, because it provides additional details regard-
ing the journal submissions.
H. No, because the passage does not discuss the
relevance of the form of the submitted papers.
J. No, because it is ambiguous whether hand-writing
a paper is a good or bad thing.

immediately declining, and if the formatting is poor, 25. A. NO CHANGE

25 B. immediately declined
we insist on a revised copy from the author. The editors C. declining immediately
D. immediate declined
agree that each paper must reflect the professional

standards of the journal and the medical community.

For instance, they choose those works that they feel 26. F. NO CHANGE
26 G. In fact,
provide the most beneficial information for the journal’s H. Moreover,
J. However,
readers. Despite this policy, disagreements can still occur.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 431

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With passion, editors argue often for their choices. 27. A. NO CHANGE
27 B. Passionately and fervently, editors often argue for
By January, we have enough content to fill three their choices.
C. Editors often argue passionately for their choices.
monthly issues of the journal. Once we finalize the D. For their choices, editors argue passionately and
often.
layout, we send all three issues to the print shop. When the 28. F. NO CHANGE
28 G. layout, we’re sending
pallet-loads of journals arrive in our office, we hire some H. layout we send
J. layout we just send
undergraduates to address, sort, and bundle them for
mailing. In the intervening time, the editorial board meets 29. A. NO CHANGE
29 B. meet
again to plan the next three issues and to call for more C. meeting
D. has been meeting
papers. The sixth and final issue of the year appears in
June, and once all work is done, we take off to enjoy a few

months of vacation, well-earned. 30. F. NO CHANGE

30 G. well-earned vacation.
H. vacation, that is well-earned.
J. vacation earned well.

PASSAGE III

The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most

logical order. You may be asked questions about the log-
ical order of the paragraphs, as well as where to place
sentences logically within any given paragraph.

Maria Montessori’s Method

[1]

At the end of the 19th century, Maria Montessori

became Italys’ first modern woman physician. Early in her 31. A. NO CHANGE
31 B. the Italian
C. Italys
D. Italy’s
career, she struggled to advance by the male-dominated 32. F. NO CHANGE
32 G. for a
profession. As a member of the University of Rome H. in the
J. due to their
faculty, she was assigned to the city’s insane asylums to

experiment with the patients’ capacity to learn: a task 33. A. NO CHANGE

33 B. learn, a
considered menial by medical professionals at the time. C. learn a
D. learn

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Although her education was in the science of the human 34. At this point, the writer would like to provide spe-
34 cific information about Montessori’s education. Which
body, her interaction with mentally-disabled children drew alternative does that best?
34 F. NO CHANGE
her to study the processes of the mind and, specifically, G. anatomy and physiology
H. the way the human body works
J. science
how children learn. By 1906, she had resigned from the 35. A. NO CHANGE
35 B. the method by which children learn
university to pursue a career in child education. C. children learning
D. a child’s ways to learn
[2]

[1] Her observation of these children inspired her life’s

work in teaching and the pursuit of progressive educational

restructuring. [2] With the first children that were 36. F. NO CHANGE
36 G. She got her first sixty children that were working-
working class, numbering sixty, Montessori established a class, and
36 H. Starting with sixty working-class children,
“children’s house” in Rome to foster an environment J. She had sixty working-class children first, so
ideally suited for child development. [3] Her efforts led her
students—even those with supposed learning
disabilities—to excel at standardized examinations. [4] In

the children’s house, Montessori realized how

ready children learn from their environment. 38 37. A. NO CHANGE
37 B. children, readily
C. children ready
D. readily children
38. For the sake of logic and coherence, Sentence 1 should
be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. after Sentence 2.
H. after Sentence 3.
J. after Sentence 4.
[3]

At its core, the Montessori Method is a theory of 39. At this point, the writer would like to provide the
39 reader with a more specific definition of the Montessori
Method. Assuming all are true, which of the following
does that best?
A. NO CHANGE
B. a philosophy of teaching.
C. a means of fostering development and learning in
children.
D. a style of teaching utilized in many school districts.
child development. Comparison of a child’s development 40. F. NO CHANGE
39 40 G. childs’ development
to universal standards and norms is discouraged, since it is H. developing child
J. child that is developing

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PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 433

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believed that children naturally develop in different 41. A. NO CHANGE
41 B. different ways and acquire skills
ways, and acquire skills, at different times. Acknowledging C. different ways, and acquire, skills
41 D. different ways; and acquire skills
this, a Montessori educator closely observed the child and 42. F. NO CHANGE
42 G. is observing
provides him or her with the tools necessary for H. observes
J. can observe
independent learning. Adults avoid giving criticism for

mistakes and rewards for successes. The goal of these

steps is to ease the child into an environment of learning

without fear. Self-learning and self-correction are the
fundamental processes of the Montessori Method,
considering Maria Montessori showed will foster a lifelong 43. A. NO CHANGE
43 B. though
love of learning and joy in the pursuit of one’s goals. C. despite
D. which
[4]

Today, children are taught with the Montessori Method

in schools both public and private in the United States and 44. F. NO CHANGE
44 G. schools, both public, and private,
many countries around the world. With increasing pressure H. both public and private schools
J. public schools and private schools both,
on schools to provide quality education to a growing
population, Montessori’s visionary ideas of teaching

self-reliance and love of learning continue to gain

popularity. 45 45. Suppose the writer were to eliminate Paragraph 4. This
omission would cause the essay as a whole to lose
primarily:
A. relevant details about the current development and
utilization of Montessori education.
B. irrelevant details about the past development and
utilization of Montessori education.
C. information that distracts from the essay’s primarily
biographical tone.
D. a conclusion that reiterates the main purpose of the
passage.

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PASSAGE IV

The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most

logical order. You may be asked questions about the log-
ical order of the paragraphs, as well as where to place
sentences logically within any given paragraph.

The Paris Metro

[1]

If you ever travel to Europe, you will likely want to visit

the monuments and museums of Paris, one of the most

beautiful cities in the world. You immerse yourself in art, 46. F. NO CHANGE
46 G. You will
architecture, and the history of Western civilization. H. You were going to
J. OMIT the underlined portion.
The cultural treasures of France’s capital are awe-inspiring, 47. A. NO CHANGE
47 B. France’s capital has cultural treasures, they are
but the most amazing thing about visiting Paris is the ease awe-inspiring
C. The awe-inspiring treasures of France’s capital
with which you can tour the city using the extensive D. The treasures of France’s capital that inspire awe
subway network, in which the French call the 48. F. NO CHANGE
48 G. network that being which
Métropolitain, or simply the Metro. H. network, what
J. network;
[2]

The Metro was constructed in anticipation of the

1900 World Fair. Additional tunnels were excavated over

the following three decades making the Metro one of the 49. A. NO CHANGE
49 B. decades—making
world’s most extensive and most patronized subway C. decades, making
D. decades; making
systems. Second in size only to the New York City
subway, the Metros stations throughout Paris. 50. F. NO CHANGE
50 G. Metros’
H. Metro is
J. Metro has
51 Paris does have buses and taxis, but nothing is faster or 51. At this point in the paragraph, the writer wishes to
emphasize the expansiveness of the Metro system and
more convenient than catching a subway train. Not just a the coverage that it provides. Which of the following
sentences does that best?
useful resource for Parisians, the Metro is ideal for A. Each station serves a multitude of travelers.
B. Sometimes, you have to walk as far as nine or ten
blocks to get to the nearest Metro station.
C. If you cannot read or understand French, you might
have a hard time navigating yourself from station
to station.
D. You cannot walk anywhere along the streets of Paris
without encountering a staircase that descends to a
Metro station.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 435

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tourist travel (no matter what country you are from!). 52. F. NO CHANGE
52 G. (your country of origin aside)
All major sites in the city have a nearby station, most H. (even if you are not French!)
J. OMIT the underlined portion.

named by the attraction they are near. For example, the 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. named for
Louvre-Rivoli Station drops you off next door to the C. naming
D. names are
famous museum, and the Pont Neuf Station is at the foot of

the famous bridge across the River Seine. I love the feeling
of going underground at one attraction and coming back to 54. F. NO CHANGE
54 G. underground at one attraction, coming up
the surface in another famous place. The Metro is also fast, H. underground at one attraction, and come
J. underground at one attraction, and coming
with a train arriving at the station every few minutes.

Best of all, tourists can buy a day pass for unlimited

Metro trips, or a single ticket if just one trip is needed.
Swiping your ticket once and you may enter the network, 55. A. NO CHANGE
55 B. You swiped
including all transfers between lines. 56 C. Swipe
D. You will swipe
[3]
56. The writer wishes to add a relevant example to Para-
I would much rather use the Metro than rent a car graph 2 without straying from the purpose of informing
the reader as to how advantageous using the Metro is.
Which of the following alternatives does that best?
F. I once made a trip from the end of one line to
the end of another, with three transfers in between.
I can’t imagine how expensive such a taxi ride
would have been!
G. I always purchase a day pass for unlimited trips.
When I am in Paris, I want to cram as much
sightseeing as possible into my schedule.
H. I once accidentally got on a train going the wrong
direction, but I simply transferred trains and was
on my way to the Notre Dame.
J. If you buy an unlimited day pass, be careful not to
lose it. If you do, you will be forced to purchase a
whole new ticket!
in Paris. Beyond the stresses of city driving, and parking, 57. A. NO CHANGE
57 B. driving parking and the
and the high cost of fuel in Europe, the Metro keeps you C. driving, parking and the
57
D. driving, parking, and the
from ever getting lost. You can wander to your heart’s
content, discovering the corners of Paris tourists rarely see.

Metro travel couldn’t be easier!

[4]

People are accustomed generally to making 58. F. NO CHANGE

58 G. are generally accustomed
transportation arrangements ahead of time when traveling H. generally can be accustomed
J. generally accustom
to a new place. What I admire about the Paris Metro is the
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incredible freedom of movement that it provides. 59. A. NO CHANGE
59 B. provided by the Paris Metro.
C. the Paris Metro provides.
D. providing it.
As soon as you arrive at the airport, you can buy a pass

and head underground. The monuments and museums of Question 60 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.
Paris are amazing, but I am equally impressed by how easy

and cheap it is to travel between them beneath the city. 60. The writer wishes to include the following sentence in
the essay:
When you’ve had your fill, you can simply stride
right into the nearest Metro station, look at the
map, and head straight for home.
This sentence will fit most smoothly and logically into
Paragraph:
F. 1, before the last sentence.
G. 2, after the last sentence.
H. 3, before the last sentence.
J. 4, before the last sentence.

PASSAGE V
Peat: an Ancient and Modern Fuel
For the country of Ireland, peat is

an abundant and plentiful natural resource that has been 61. A. NO CHANGE
61 B. a plentifully abundant
heating stoves and homes since the 8th century. The soft C. an abundant
D. an abundant plentifully
organic material lies in huge bogs. Across 17 percent of 62. F. NO CHANGE
62 G. bogs across
the Irish countryside. The plant, fungus, and animal H. bogs—across
J. bogs: across
detritus that composes peat is kept from fully decomposing
among the acidic environment of these marshlands. When 63. A. NO CHANGE
63 B. for
C. in
D. with
peat is harvested, it can be dried and compressed to form a 64. F. NO CHANGE
64 G. harvested. It
solid fuel. Ancient inhabitants of Ireland relied on this H. harvested; it
J. harvested it
combustible material in areas of the island where trees

were scarce. Even today, stacks of freshly dug peat can be

seen dryer in rural Irish villages. Peat remains as useful as 65. A. NO CHANGE
65 B. drying
C. as dry
D. dry

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PRACTICE TEST 6 ENGLISH TEST 437

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ever for heat production and soil enrichment. Using 66. Which of the following alternatives provides the con-
66 trast most appropriate and relevant to the essay?
millions of stacks of dried peat each year, Ireland still F. NO CHANGE
66 G. Although the majority of its use is in smaller towns,
generates 13 percent of its power from peat-fired turbines. H. Even though no other countries use peat as a heat
Prior to the advent of heavy farming machinery, peat source,
J. In spite of modern coal, natural gas, and hydro-
farmers plowed trenches throughout a virgin bog to drain electric technologies,

the peat, which consist of about 95-percent water. 67. A. NO CHANGE

67 B. which consisted of about
Following the several years that it took for the peat to dry C. that is about
D. consistent with about
sufficiently, farmers would undertake the arduous task of
hand-carving peat blocks from the earth. Today, the Irish
peat industry is overseen by the state-owned company

Bord Na Móna. Which produces over four million metric 68. F. NO CHANGE
68 G. Móna; which
tons of peat every year. About three-quarters is used for H. Móna which
J. Móna, which
domestic energy production, while the remainder is 69. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to
69 write this sentence?
processed for horticultural applications. A. production; the remainder
B. production. The remainder
Modern peat harvesting is a four-stage process. First, C. production, the remainder
large tractors mill a thin layer of peat over a large area of D. production, and the remainder

bog. Over the next several days, a machine called a harrow 70. F. NO CHANGE
70 G. a harrow
passes over the milled peat, turning the crop several times H. a machine that they call a harrow
J. a harrow, the machine type used,
to expedite drying. During the next step, a ridging machine
passes over the dry peat, channeling it into straight rows
ready for collection. Finally, the harvester past its large 71. A. NO CHANGE
71 B. passed
C. passing
D. passes
vacuum over the ridges, drawing the peat into a large 72. F. NO CHANGE
72 G. the harvester draws the peat
collection bin. The peat is then taken to processing H. the peat is drawn by the harvester
J. and peat draws
facilities where it is further dried for briquette production

or use in power plants.

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With the history of abundance and renewability as 73. A. NO CHANGE
73 B. it’s
C. its
D. OMIT the underlined portion.

a fuel and nutrient source, peat remains an essential 74. The writer wants to link the essay’s opening and
74 concluding sentences. Which one of the following
part of Irish culture. alternatives to the underlined portion most successfully
74 achieves this effect?
F. peat will surely remain a part of Irish culture for
generations to come.
G. the renewability of peat will surely make peat last
as a power source for a long time to come.
H. modern peat harvesting has greatly simplified the
collection and utilization of peat.
J. peat is not as useful today as it was centuries ago.

Question 75 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

75. Suppose the writer had been assigned to write a brief

essay on the evolution of power sources. Would this
essay successfully fulfill the requirements?
A. Yes, because it describes an alternative power
source not usually considered by essayists.
B. Yes, because the writer describes clearly the histor-
ical development of peat.
C. No, because Ireland is a historically unimportant
country in the development of power sources.
D. No, because the writer only focuses on the evolu-
tion of a single power source from one specific
country.

END OF THE ENGLISH TEST.

STOP! IF YOU HAVE TIME LEFT OVER, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 439

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions

DIRECTIONS: Solve each of the problems in the time For this test you should assume that figures are NOT
allowed, then fill in the corresponding bubble on your necessarily drawn to scale, that all geometric figures lie
answer sheet. Do not spend too much time on any one in a plane, and that the word line is used to indicate a
problem; skip the more difficult problems and go back straight line.
to them later. You may use a calculator on this test.

1. The lowest temperature on a winter morning was −7◦ F. DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
Later the same day the temperature reached a high
of 21◦ F. By how many degrees Fahrenheit did the
temperature increase?
A. 32
B. 28
C. 21
D. 14
E. 7
2. Disregarding sales tax, how much will you save when
you buy a $12.00 video that is on sale for 20% off?
F. $0.24
G. $0.48
H. $1.20
J. $2.40
K. $3.60
3. As part of a school report on the cost of gasoline, Raquel
wants to find the average cost of purchasing a gallon of
regular unleaded gasoline from local gas stations. She
surveys 4 stations and finds the cost per gallon of regular
unleaded gas from the 4 stations to be $2.45, $2.50,
$2.49, and $2.56, respectively. Using this data, what
is the average cost of purchasing one gallon of regular
unleaded gasoline from these 4 gas stations?
A. $2.55
B. $2.53
C. $2.50
D. $2.49
E. $2.45
4. What is the volume, in cubic inches, of a cube whose
edges each measure 5 inches in length?
F. 15
G. 25
H. 50
J. 125
K. 500
5. If 3(a − 6) = −21, then a = ?
A. −9
3
B. −
2
C. −1
7
D.
3
E. 5

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440 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

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6. The price of a cantaloupe is directly proportional to DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
its weight. If a cantaloupe that weighs 3.0 pounds
costs $3.87, approximately how much will a 2.25-pound
cantaloupe cost?
F. $2.90
G. $2.65
H. $2.25
J. $1.87
K. $1.29
7. In the figure below, D is a point on segment AB, and the
segment CD is perpendicular to the segment AB. Based
on this information, which of the following conclusions
can be made?

A. Point C is equidistant from A to B.

B. Segments AD and DB are equal in length.
C. The segment CD bisects the segment AB.
D. Angle CDA is larger than angle CDB.
E. Angle CDA is congruent to angle CDB.
8. If 6x − 5 = 3x − 16, then x = ?
F. −11
G. −7
11
H. −
3
11
J.
3
K. 7
9. Which of the following is always equal to y(3 − y) +
5(y − 7) ?
A. 8y − 35
B. 8y − 7
C. −y2 + 8y − 7
D. −y2 + 8y − 35
E. 8y3 − 35

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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 441

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
10. The figure below shows part of a circle whose circum- DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
ference is 40. If arcs of length 4 and length s continue to
alternate around the entire circle so that there are 8 arcs
of each length, what is the degree measure of each of
the arcs of length s?

F. 6◦
G. 9◦
H. 12◦
J. 18◦
K. 36◦
11. In a poll, 44 people were in favor of constructing a new
high school, 58 were against it, and 8 people had no
opinion. What fraction of those people polled were in
favor of constructing a new high school?
1
A.
9
1
B.
5
2
C.
5
3
D.
5
4
E.
9
12. On the line segment below, the ratio of lengths AB to
BC is 1:4. What is the ratio of AB to AC?

F. 1:5
G. 1:4
H. 1:3
J. 5:1
K. Cannot be determined from the given information
13. If a board 9 feet 6 inches in length is cut into 2 equal
parts, what will be the length of each part?
A. 3 feet 8 inches
B. 4 feet 5 inches
C. 4 feet 8 inches
D. 4 feet 9 inches
E. 5 feet 2 inches

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442 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

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14. The speed of a car exceeds twice the speed of a truck DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
by 15 mph. If t is the speed of the truck, which of the
following expresses the speed, in miles per hour, of the
car?
F. t + 15
G. t + 30
H. t − 30
J. 2t + 15
K. 2t + 30
15. The circle shown below has a radius of 5 meters, and
the length of chord XY is 8 meters. If C marks the center
of the circle, what is the length, in meters, of segment
CZ?

√
A. 2 3
B. 3√
C. 13
D. 5
E. 9
16. What is the value of the expression 2x 3 − x 2 + 3x + 5
for x = −2?
F. −21
G. −13
H. 8
J. 11
K. 21
1
17. What is the next term after − in the geometric
3
1
sequence 9, −3, 1, − , . . .?
3
1
A. −
9
B. 0
1
C.
9
1
D.
6
1
E.
3

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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 443

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
1
18. On the blueprint for Roger’s house, inch represents an DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
4
actual length of 1 foot. What is the area, in square feet,
of Roger’s rectangular living room, which is 3 inches
1
by 4 inches on the blueprint?
4
F. 51
G. 104
H. 144
J. 204
K. 244
19. If m > 0 and n < 0, then m − n:
A. is always positive.
B. is always negative.
C. is always zero.
D. cannot be zero, but can be any real number
other than zero.
E. can be any real number.
2 8
20. If x + = , then x = ?
3 21
8
F. −
21
2
G. −
7
1
H. −
21
1
J.
21
2
K.
7
21. What is the slope of the line given by the equation
3x + 4y = −12 ?
A. −3
4
B. −
3
3
C. −
4
3
D.
4
E. 4
22. The length of a side of a square is represented as (3x − 2)
inches. Which of the following general expressions
represents the area of the square, in square inches?
F. 12x − 8
G. 9x 2 − 4
H. 9x 2 − 6x + 4
J. 9x 2 − 12x − 4
K. 9x 2 − 12x + 4
23. Which of the following is a polynomial factor of
x 2 − 2x − 24?
A. x − 4
B. x + 4
C. x + 6
D. 6 − x
E. x
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444 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
4
24. In the equation r = , k represents a positive DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
(2 + k)
integer. As k gets larger without bound, the value of r:
F. gets closer and closer to 4.
G. gets closer and closer to 2.
H. gets closer and closer to 0.
J. remains constant.
K. gets larger and larger.
25. While doing research on the climates of South American
countries, Andrea notices that all of the temperatures are
given in degrees Celsius. Because she is not as famil-
iar with the Celsius temperature scale, it is difficult for
her to know whether a location with an average temper-
ature of 25◦ C has a warm climate. Fahrenheit, F, and
# $
9
Celsius, C, are related by the formula F = C +32.
5
What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit of the
location with an average temperature of 25◦ C?
A. 103
B. 88
C. 83
D. 77
E. 69
26. The length of a rectangle is 5 inches longer than its
width. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 38 inches,
what is the width, in inches?
F. 5
G. 7
H. 12
J. 17
K. 28
27. What are all the solutions for x if 3x 2 − 2x − 21 = 0?
A. x = −21 only
B. x = −7 or x = 3
7
C. x = −3 or x =
3
7
D. x = − or x = 3
3
E. x = −3 or x = 7
28. In Sulema’s geography class, all tests count equally.
So far, Sulema has taken 2 of the 3 tests in geogra-
phy this marking period and earned scores of 88% and
79%, respectively. What is the minimum score Sulema
needs on the third test to have a test average of 87%?
F. 99%
G. 94%
H. 91%
J. 87%
K. 84%
29. If, a, b, and c are positive integers such that ab = m
and c2b = n, then mn = ?
A. (ac2 )b
B. (ac)3b
C. 2(ac)b
D. ac2b
E. ab c
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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 445

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
30. What is the area, in square inches, of a circle with a DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
diameter equal to 12 inches?
F. 144
G. 36
H. 12π
J. 36π
K. 144π
31. In Mrs. Hartley’s foreign language class, students must
take both a written exam and an oral exam. In the past,
85% of her students passed the written exam and 70% of
those who passed the written exam also passed the oral
exam. Based on these figures, about how many students
in a random group of 100 students would you expect to
pass both exams?
A. 85
B. 78
C. 70
D. 65
E. 60
3
32. If sin A = , then which of the following could be
5
tan A?
1
F.
4
3
G.
4
H. 1
4
J.
3
K. 4
33. If x is any number other than 3 and 6, then
(x − 3)(x − 6)
=?
(3 − x)(x − 6)
A. 18
B. 1
C. 0
D. −1
E. −18
√ √
34. 27 √ + 48 = ?
F. 5√3
G. 7√3 √
H. 3 √ 3+3 4
J. 12 3 √
K. 3 + 4 3
35. ! ABC is similar to ! XYZ. AB is 5 inches long, BC is
8 inches long, and AC is 3 inches long. If the longest
side of ! XYZ is 20 inches long, what is the perimeter,
in inches, of ! XYZ?
A. 16
B. 28
C. 40
D. 64
E. 88

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446 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

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36. Sides AB, BC, CD, and DA of square ABCD are broken DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
up by points W , X, Y , and Z as shown below. If AB is
6 inches long, what is the area, in square inches, of the
shaded region?

F. 36
G. 32
H. 20
J. 16
K. 12
37. In the figure below, AC is the diameter of the circle,
B is a point on the circle, AB is congruent to BC, and
D is the midpoint of AC. What is the degree measure
of angle ABD?

A. 30◦
B. 45◦
C. 60◦
D. 90◦
E. Cannot be determined from the given information

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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 447

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
38. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what are the coor- DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
dinates of the midpoint of a line segment with endpoints
(−1,3) and (2,5)?
F. (1,8)
G. (3,2)
# $
3
H. ,1
2
# $
1
J. ,4
2
# $
3
K. ,4
2
39. Maria posted a time of 37 minutes and 29 seconds for a
5-mile running course. About how many miles per hour
did she average during the run?
A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 7
E. 5
40. For the 2 functions f (x) and g(x), tables of values are
shown below. What is the value of g ( f (−1))?

F. −3
G. 0
H. 2
J. 3
K. 8
41. For positive real numbers x, y, and z, which of the
1 3 5
following expressions is equivalent to x 2 y 4 z 8 ?
-
A. 4 xy3 z5
-
B. 8 x 2 y3 z5
-
C. 8 x 4 y3 z5
-
D. 8 x 4 y6 z5
-
E. 14 xy3 z5

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448 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
1
42. The formula for the area of a trapezoid is A = h (b1 + DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
2
b2 ), where b1 and b2 are the lengths of the two parallel
sides and h is the height. Which of the following is an
expression for b1 ?
2A
F. − b2
h
2A
G.
h + b2
2h
H.
A − b2
J. 2(Ah − b2 )
1
K. Ah + b2
2
43. The line graphed below shows the predicted gasoline
use for a certain truck. Which of the following is the
closest estimate of this truck’s predicted rate of gasoline
use, in miles per gallon?

A. 25
B. 20
C. 16
D. 10
E. 8

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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 449

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
44. The graph of y = ax 2 + bx + c in the standard (x,y) DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
coordinate plane is shown below. When y = 0, which
of the following best describes the solution set for x?

F. 2 imaginary solutions
G. 1 double imaginary solution
H. 1 real and 1 imaginary solution
J. 1 double imaginary solution
K. 2 real solutions
45. If |x| = x + 12, then x = ?
A. −12
B. −6
C. 0
D. 6
E. 12
1 1
46. What fraction lies exactly halfway between and ?
3 2
3
F.
8
11
G.
24
5
H.
12
1
J.
6
2
K.
5
47. When entering information about the budget of her char-
ity ball, Laura records an expense of $20.00. However,
Laura accidentally enters the $20.00 as income instead
of an expense. The balance of the charity ball budget
now shows:
A. $40 less than it should.
B. $20 less than it should.
C. the correct amount.
D. $20 more than it should.
E. $40 more than it should.

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450 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

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48. Rebecca is trying to schedule volunteers to help at a DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
school carnival. There are 5 one-hour shifts to be filled
by 5 different volunteers. If each shift must have one and
only one volunteer, how many different arrangements
can the schedule have?
F. 5
G. 20
H. 25
J. 50
K. 120
49. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the
distance between the points (4,−7) and (−1,5)?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 26
50. A formula for the volume, V , of a right circular cylinder
is V = πr 2 h, where r is the radius and h is the height. If
a tanker truck has a tank as shown below with a diameter
of 3 meters and a length of 10 meters and is filled with
water, then the weight, in pounds, of the water cargo is:
(Note: 1 cubic meter of water weighs approximately
2,205 pounds.)

F. less than 75,000.

G. between 125,000 and 175,000.
H. between 175,000 and 225,000.
J. between 225,000 and 275,000.
K. more than 275,000.
51. In the figure below, line AB is parallel to the base of
the triangle and creates a smaller triangle inside of the
original triangle. If the lengths of segments are as shown
and the smaller triangle has an area of 8 cm2 , what is
the area, in centimeters, of the original triangle?

A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 64
E. 128

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PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST 451

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
52. The figure below is a regular hexagon. What is the DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
measure of one of the interior angles of the hexagon?

F. 108◦
G. 120◦
H. 135◦
J. 150◦
K. 720◦
53. It is estimated that, from the beginning of 1993 to the
end of 1997, the average number of CDs bought by
teenagers increased from 7 per year to 15 per year. Dur-
ing the same time period, the average number of video
games purchased by teenagers increased from 6 per year
to 18 per year. Assuming that in each case the rates or
purchase are the same, in what year did teenagers buy
the same average number of CDs and video games?
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1996
E. 1997
54. If x 2 − 45b2 = 4xb, what are the 2 solutions for x in
terms of b?
F. 15b or −3b
G. 5b or −9b
H. 15b or 3b
J. 45b or −4b
K. 9b or −5b
55. Which of the following is (are) equivalent to the math-
ematical operation a(b − c) for all real numbers a, b,
and c?
I. ca − ba
II. ab − ac
III. (b − c)a
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

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452 PRACTICE TEST 6 MATHEMATICS TEST

2 ! ! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
56. For values of x where sin x, cos x, and tan x are all DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
(cos x)
defined, =?
(tan x)(sin x)
cos2 x
F.
sin2 x
G. tan2 x
H. 1
J. sin2 x
K. sec x
57. If a is inversely proportional to b and a = 36 when
b = 12, what is the value of a when b = 48?
A. 0
1
B.
3
1
C.
4
D. 4
E. 9
58. For which of the following values of c will there be 2
distinct real solutions to the equation 5x 2 +16x+ c = 0?
F. 3
G. 12
H. 14
J. 15
K. 20
59. If the volume of a cube is 64, what is the shortest dis-
tance from the center of the cube to the base of the
cube?
A. 2
B. 4√
C. √2 4
D. 32
E. 16
60. What is the slope of a line that is perpendicular to the
line determined by the equation 5x + 8y = 17?
F. −3
5
G. −
8
17
H.
8
3
J.
17
8
K.
5

END OF THE MATHEMATICS TEST.

STOP! IF YOU HAVE TIME LEFT OVER, CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
PRACTICE TEST 6 READING TEST 453

3 3
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: This test includes four passages, each
followed by ten questions. Read the passages and choose
the best answer to each question. After you have selected
your answer, fill in the corresponding bubble on your
answer sheet. You should refer to the passages as often
as necessary when answering the questions.

PASSAGE I When we returned home, we unloaded all of the

PROSE FICTION: Extreme Dad supplies near the base of the tree. Looking up the
trunk, my friends and I realized we had a lot of cool
As I was growing up, each autumn brought with it building materials but no way to get them up the tree.
the excitement of a new school year and new friends. 50 At that moment, my dad emerged from the garage.
However, I did not look forward to the inevitable ques- “Here’s the last piece.” He held a climbing harness and
tion young boys pose to one another: “What does your rope in his hands. “Now I’m going to go up there
5 dad do?” Some people cannot remember being asked and build the structure, then two of you can come up
that question in school, but it bears special weight for and help with the rigging.” For the next hour, we sat
me. My father is recently retired from his career as 55 in stunned silence. My father threw one end of his
a Hollywood stunt performer. When I was a child, he rope around an upper limb, secured it, and started the
would do more death-defying tricks in a week than I’m slow process of drawing on the two mechanical ascen-
10 sure I will ever do in my lifetime. My father’s extreme ders. Before long, he had reached the notch in the tree,
career and energetic lifestyle made him the coolest dad braced himself, and sent down a length of cord to us.
in town, and I had to live up to him. 60 “Put a quarter-inch bit in the drill and send it up,”
For American boys, no piece of plywood is safe; he cried. We prepared the drill and tied it to the line.
it has “ramp” written all over. We would prop some My father hoisted it and bored the boltholes into the
15 plywood up on a cinderblock and see how high it could tree. We repeated this process with two-by-fours, bolts,
launch us on a bike or skates. That was sufficiently fun nuts, and finally the plywood square that would become
for years, but eventually my father’s reputation caught 65 the platform. My father built it with lightning speed.
up with me. Soon, my friends wanted to go bigger One of my friends gaped at how quickly my father
with the idea of a homemade launch pad. They urged could drive screws. Before long, Dad called down say-
20 me to seek my father’s help. At first, I resisted, since ing everything was finished and ready for “preliminary
I didn’t want to start a trend of hair-raising stunts on testing.” I didn’t know what he meant by that. “Stand
my neighborhood street. Who knows what the old lady 70 back, guys,” my dad called. We hastily obliged.
across the street would think? My father, already standing on the platform, looked
As it turned out, my father was more eager than strangely comfortable so high in the ponderosa tree.
25 I was to introduce some stunts to my group of friends. Granted, he was still in his harness roped to the tree, but
Instead of building a giant ramp, he suggested, why nerves have a funny way of ignoring appeals to logic.
not build a platform high in the ponderosa pine tree 75 Satisfied with his handiwork, my dad began bounc-
out back from which we could rappel to the ground? ing lightly on the balls of his feet. The platform didn’t
It sounded crazy to me, but I yielded to my father. budge. Next, he started jumping up and down violently.
30 He loved the cliché appeasement, “Trust me; I’m a This shook the platform and made the tree sway, but
professional.” So, that afternoon, my friends, father, everything seemed soundly built and tightly secured.
and I piled in the truck and headed for the lumberyard. 80 “All right, now we learn to rappel.”
By this time, I was starting to warm to the idea of a My father slid down his rope and called us to join
rappelling platform in my backyard. My friends could him in the attic of the garage. I had only seen what was
35 hardly contain their excitement. After all, they were up there a few times, and it mostly bored me. Behind
about to do something crazy under the supervision of an old armoire, though, was a dusty black trunk that
a real stuntman! 85 I had never seen before. My father began pulling ropes
My father cruised the aisles at the lumberyard with and harnesses from it, then carabiners and rappelling
amazing deftness and efficiency. As he waited for some devices. We eagerly grabbed the equipment and took it
40 plywood to be cut, he filled his cart with all kinds to the backyard. My father fit us for the harnesses and
of materials that little boys love: nails, screws, glue, began an impromptu lesson on the critical safety rules
chain, cable, nuts, and bolts. This would be the first 90 of climbing and rappelling.
time my friends and I had built anything out of shiny, In a few hours and after a little practice off the
new parts. No doubt this would be the most awesome roof of the house, we were all ready to tackle the huge
45 stunt in town! tree in the back yard.

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454 PRACTICE TEST 6 READING TEST

3 3
1. The passage establishes that the narrator and his father 6. Which of the following statements best describes the
have all of the following traits in common EXCEPT: way the fourth paragraph (lines 38–45) functions in the
A. an innate desire for danger. passage as a whole?
B. a taste for exhilarating activities. F. It reveals the reason for the narrator’s qualms about
C. a pleasant attitude toward others. asking his father for help, as expressed in the second
D. an awareness of the fun that boys like to have. paragraph.
G. It details the mundane task of shopping for materi-
als, which includes waiting for lumber to be cut and
finding the appropriate hardware.
H. It shows the reader that as the plan to build the rap-
2. Which of the following is NOT an accurate description pelling platform was moving forward, the narrator
of the passage? was warming to it.
F. A story about boys who endeavor to perform stunts J. It divides the passage into two parts, one about the
and are helped by a professional. narrator’s relationship with his father and the other
G. A glimpse at one boy’s change from being hesitant about tree climbing and rappelling.
about to being proud of his father’s occupation.
H. A look at how a group of boys had a great time,
despite some early misgivings. 7. The statement “eventually my father’s reputation caught
J. A portrait of a boy struggling to overcome the up with me” (lines 17–18) functions in the passage to
popularity of his father. support the narrator’s view that:
A. his father’s lifestyle made keeping boyhood friends
difficult.
B. his father’s unusual career pulled him into uncom-
mon adventures.
3. In both the first paragraph (lines 1–12) and the sec- C. his friends would have stopped building ramps if his
ond paragraph (lines 13–23) the author is portraying a father was not a stunt performer.
narrator who: D. his father disapproved of untrained boys performing
A. feels compelled to act differently from his father to stunts on bikes and skates.
avoid earning his negative reputation.
B. acts without caution in dangerous situations. 8. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage as a
C. hesitates to involve his father in activities involving whole that the narrator views his father’s reputation as
his friends. one that developed:
D. loathes the reputation that precedes his father. F. to a degree that was exceptional even in the
Hollywood stunt community, but not in his resi-
dential neighborhood.
G. to a degree that was common among all profession-
4. At the time of writing the story, the narrator is: als in the area and, therefore, unremarkable.
F. an adult reflecting on a difficult period he had as a H. to a lesser degree than those of the narrator’s friends’
youth. fathers, in spite of a clear status disparity between
G. a youth describing an example of the adventures he his family and theirs.
has with his father. J. to a degree that was based on his years of per-
H. an adolescent analyzing how his father embarrasses forming film stunts professionally, establishing his
him. popularity with neighborhood youth.
J. an adult reminiscing fondly about a childhood
memory. 9. As it is used in line 54, rigging most nearly means:
A. platform bracing.
B. branch trimming.
C. nuts and bolts.
5. The passage states that the narrator had to cope with his D. rope system.
father’s reputation as:
A. famously daring and socially engaging. 10. The narrator can most accurately be characterized as:
B. severe and unyielding to the narrator’s wishes. F. anxious and uncertain.
C. incorrigibly unmindful of the narrator and the nar- G. level-headed but fun-loving.
rator’s friends’ activities in the neighborhood. H. strong-willed but compassionate.
D. prone to reckless stunts and outlandish behavior. J. creative and enthusiastic.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 READING TEST 455

3 3
PASSAGE II 60 and quartered—this most exotic form of execution was
SOCIAL SCIENCE: The Gunpowder Plot intended as a lesson to the public: treason would not
be tolerated under any circumstances.
Remember, remember the 5th of November, Currently, on November 5 of each year, British
The gunpowder treason and plot. children burn effigies of Fawkes and recite the
I know of no reason why gunpowder treason 65 renowned poem as a way of remembering this influ-
Should ever be forgot. ential figure of the past. Guy Fawkes Day serves as a
chilling reminder to everyone, not just the British, that
5 This famous children’s poem speaks directly to if pressed hard enough, an individual will press back.
the Gunpowder Plot of 1605 in which a group of No brutal threat can stop the most committed believer
Roman Catholic coconspirators attempted to blow up 70 from rising in defense of his beliefs.
Westminster Palace during the formal opening of
Parliament. King James I of England (James VI
10 of Scotland) was in attendance to address the joint
assembly of the House of Lords and the House of 11. One of the points the author seeks to make in the
Commons. The failed bomb plot certainly could have passage is that some English Roman Catholics in 1605:
killed the King and potentially the rest of the English
Legislature; it would have been a near-complete A. were convicted of treason for supporting the king.
15 removal of the aristocracy. Guy Fawkes was instrumen- B. sought religious freedom by rebelling against the
tal in the final stages of the plot, but was apprehended current regime.
just prior to completing his work. Shortly thereafter, C. were forced into hiding by the powerful religious
Fawkes and his coconspirators were put to death for minority behind the monarchy.
treason and attempted murder. It has been said by D. gained notoriety by conspiring against the Roman
20 many—quite tongue-in-cheek—that Guy Fawkes was Catholic church.
the only man ever to enter Parliament with honest
intentions.
The plot, masterminded by Robert Catesby, had
surprising origins. He and Guy Fawkes, along with
25 several other Roman Catholics, were thought to be 12. The author asserts that the Gunpowder Plot coconspi-
denouncers of the king’s own Church of England. rators were generally:
Consequently, they risked civil and criminal penalties. F. capable and sufficiently covert.
In realizing that Spain, at the time a great Catholic
world power, was involved in too many wars to help G. inept but sufficiently covert.
30 the cause of English Catholics, Catesby decided that H. capable but insufficiently covert.
unless something was done from within, nothing would J. inept and insufficiently covert.
likely change.
Luck smiled upon the plotters when they stumbled
upon a cellar for rent beneath the House of Lords; the
35 original plan, to dig a mineshaft beneath Westminster,
proved remarkably difficult, the rock and debris 13. The author uses the description of the modern Guy
requiring removal in secret. Being able to rent a cel- Fawkes Day to point out that some acts are:
lar under Parliament expedited their efforts immensely, A. too powerful to let their lessons fade into history.
allowing them to fill the cellar with 1,800 pounds of B. so powerful that adults must make light of them for
40 gunpowder. their children’s sake.
The one crucial flaw in the plot, though, was C. more powerful for people today than they were at
that several conspirators had scruples over the potential
for harm to other Catholics likely to be in attendance the time they occurred.
during the opening address. One of the men wrote D. so powerful that children must be reminded of their
45 a letter of warning to Lord Monteagle, a fellow depravity.
Catholic, who received it on October 26. Learning
about the letter the following day, several conspira-
tors wished to abort the plan, yet the decision was
made to continue when Guy Fawkes confirmed that
50 nothing within the cellar had been discovered. Despite 14. When the author asserts that Guy Fawkes had honest
Fawkes’ confidence, Lord Monteagle took the letter intentions (lines 21–22), he most likely means that
seriously, and tasked the secretary of state with com- members of parliament are:
pleting a search of all spaces beneath Westminster. F. not concerned about their perception among the
Early in the morning on November 5, Fawkes was people.
55 apprehended in the cellar. Over the next few days,
he was tortured until he confessed the identities of G. too detached from average citizens to provide effec-
the other individuals who contributed to the plot. tive leadership.
On January 31, 1606, each man convicted of treason H. prepared to surrender power to religious minorities.
was taken to Old Palace Yard to be hanged, drawn, J. prone to exploiting their power by being deceitful.

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3 3
15. According to the passage, when are citizens most 18. The passage makes the claim that brutal threats from
pressed to act against the government? the government are not a solution to the risk of public
A. When parliament meets in joint session rebellion because:
B. When there is collusion between the monarch and F. harsh punishment of dissenters only breeds further
the judiciary contempt.
C. When personal beliefs are threatened G. there will always be certain individuals who risk the
D. When there are bad economic times punishment to overthrow a government.
H. weapons of assassination are too easily concealed
to provide reasonable security for government offi-
16. As it is used in line 60, the word exotic means:
cials.
F. alluring.
J. often the inciting rebels are impossible to locate.
G. mysterious.
H. unusual. 19. As it is used in lines 33–34, the phrase stumbled upon
J. foreign. most nearly means:
A. discovered.
17. According to the passage, under which of the follow- B. tripped over.
ing government actions would an uprising most likely C. walked on.
occur? D. sought.
A. Government troops are given permission to conduct
unwarranted searches of suspected dissidents. 20. The mineshaft in line 35 refers to:
B. An average-looking murder suspect at-large prompts F. a tunnel dug to facilitate extraction of a particular
police to round up for interrogation anyone who mineral.
looks like the perpetrator. G. a metaphorical deep pit from which nothing can
C. Sales and income tax rates are raised sharply at the climb out.
same time due to budget shortfalls. H. an underground space to be filled with explosives.
D. Chocolate, gold, and other precious commodities J. a crawlspace to permit clandestine observation of
are strictly rationed during wartime. Parliament.

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3 3
PASSAGE III 60 for the rest of her life. The fallout came when
HUMANITIES: Tennessee Williams: Celebrated Tennessee blamed his parents for authorizing the oper-
Southern Gothic Writer ation. In the 1960s, he wrestled with the notion that
American literature encompasses many unique he, too, would go insane. A decade of depression took
styles and genres, including Southern Gothic. As its hold. He would, at least nominally, overcome it, but
name implies, the literature reflects life in the American 65 Tennessee Williams’ family life would haunt him the
South. It maintains some of the characteristics of rest of his days.
5 Gothic writing, such as use of the supernatural or
the ironic; however, Southern Gothic does not focus
on creating tension and suspense as do other Gothic
genres. Instead, its storylines examine Southern people
and their postbellum social structure. 21. The main purpose of the passage can best be described
10 Writers in the genre generally spurn the pre-Civil- as an effort to:
War stereotype of the plantation gentleman and the A. explain how and why Tennessee Williams’ life
glamorous Southern belle. Instead, the authors develop suited writing in the Southern Gothic style.
characters that are sinister or reclusive and not par- B. illustrate what the South was like at the time
ticularly pleasant on the surface. Nevertheless, these Tennessee Williams was writing his body of work.
15 characters usually have redeeming qualities that allow C. discuss how Tennessee Williams’ life changed dur-
and encourage the reader to sympathize with their sit- ing his youth and young adulthood.
uations and dilemmas. It is through these immoral and
unhappy personalities that the Southern Gothic writer D. describe the different elements of Southern Gothic
is able to present and explore moral issues of the style present in Tennessee Williams’ works.
20 American South, such as slavery and bigotry, without
blatant accusations.
Many American authors are known for their
Southern Gothic style. Playwright Tennessee Williams
(1911–1983) is among the most celebrated. Williams’ 22. The author’s attitude toward the subject of the passage
25 long list of plays and novels include the Pulitzer Prize can best be characterized as:
winning stage dramas A Streetcar Named Desire (1948)
and Cat on a Hot Tin Roof (1955). Williams’ charac- F. amused tolerance.
ters are known to be modeled directly on members G. detached interest.
of his own family. For instance, it is speculated that H. warm appreciation.
30 the pitiable character Laura in The Glass Menagerie J. mild skepticism.
(1944) is modeled after Williams’ mentally disabled
sister Rose. In the same play, Amanda Wingfield is
said to mirror Williams’ own mother. Williams even
portrays himself in Suddenly, Last Summer (1958) and
35 The Glass Menagerie. His adult life, plagued with
depression and alcoholism, appears to play out in his 23. It can be reasonably inferred that the author believes
embroiled characters. Tennessee Williams’ first great success came from a play
If Tennessee Williams was a tormented man, it published in:
was due in no small part to his troubled family. A. 1944.
40 As a seven-year-old in Mississippi, Williams contracted B. 1948.
diphtheria and remained housebound for two years. C. 1955.
His mother, fearing for Tennessee’s mental wellbeing, D. 1958.
pushed him toward creative arts during his period of ill-
ness. It was she who bought him a typewriter at age 13,
45 which he heartily accepted.
Having already moved once, the Williams family
eventually relocated to St. Louis, where Tennessee’s
increasingly abusive father Cornelius squeaked out 24. According to the sixth paragraph (lines 55–66), com-
a living as a traveling shoe salesman. Tennessee’s pared to modern standards of medicine, the prefrontal
50 mother Edwina was a genteel sort prone to smother- lobotomy is described as:
ing. The most traumatic event in the young writer’s F. more apt to produce symptom improvement, but at
life, however, occurred when his sister Rose, described unacceptable risk to the patient.
as a slender, refined beauty, was diagnosed with G. more apt to cause discomfort to the patient, but in
schizophrenia.
55 Various treatments were unsuccessful during exchange for reduced mental anguish.
Rose’s years of residence in mental asylums. In 1943, H. less apt to diminish schizophrenia, and likely to
the Williams parents consented to the now-defunct pre- incapacitate the patient.
frontal lobotomy in an effort to treat her schizophrenia. J. less apt to treat mental disease, but with very
The operation was ruinous and Rose lay vegetative manageable side effects.

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3 3
25. As described in the passage, the effect Tennessee’s fam- 28. According to the author, the primary characteristic of
ily had on him can best be summarized by which of the the Southern Gothic genre is that it:
following statements? F. indirectly uses distant or malevolent characters to
A. His family’s impact can be safely overlooked raise issues of social justice.
because many other authors with less traumatic pasts G. incorporates the haunting religious themes of tradi-
have written in the Southern Gothic style. tional Gothic literature into 20th-century Southern
B. His family gave Tennessee his sense of melancholy, society.
which faded in his prosperous later years. H. is the first American genre to be able to set aside
C. His family problems directly influenced his decades the issue of slavery.
of writing and left Tennessee conflicted and dis- J. carefully avoids volatile characters, in spite of plots
traught. set in tumultuous time periods.
D. The destruction of the Williams family caused
Tennessee’s plays to turn to darker themes that did
not appeal well to audiences.

26. When the author states that Southern Gothic literature 29. The author calls some of Tennessee Williams’ characters
does not make “blatant accusations” (line 21), he most “embroiled” in line 37 most likely because they:
likely means that the genre avoids: A. exist in the sultry Southern climate at a time where
F. defending the abolition of slavery and other social dress was uncomfortably conservative.
reforms in the postbellum South. B. seem doomed to create continual problems for
G. explicitly stating who among the characters are themselves.
racist or otherwise morally corrupted. C. deal with daunting personal problems or over-
H. addressing any social problems in the South, prefer- whelming moral quandaries.
ring that the reader juxtapose his own opinion with D. bear a larger-than-life aesthetic that makes their
the facts of the plot. words and deeds uniquely impactful.
J. righteous characters who overtly decry bigoted
behavior of other characters.

27. The passage indicates that Tennessee Williams’ creative

streak began because: 30. The “social structure” mentioned in line 9 most directly
A. he was trapped in an abusive household where his refers to what the author sees as:
only refuge was in the fantasies he wrote. F. the remnants of racism and inequality in Southern
B. he was tortured by his sister’s condition and took to culture following the end of slavery.
writing as a way of searching for an explanation for G. the unspoken disparity between rich landowners and
her decline. poor farmhands at the turn of the 20th century.
C. he was severely ill as a boy and his mother took care H. the uncommon compassion and hospitality for
to engage him in creative pursuits when he could not which the South has become famous.
be physically active. J. the system of vigilante justice that arose as a con-
D. he was inspired by the success of other family sequence of inadequate policing following the Civil
members and wished to capture the feeling in prose. War.

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3 3
PASSAGE IV cowbird lays one egg in a warbler’s nest, generally only
NATURAL SCIENCE: Michigan’s Beloved Songbird one to three warbler chicks will survive. If two or more
cowbird chicks survive in a single warbler nest, none
Sometimes an object in nature is so rare that of the warblers will survive. To combat this dilemma,
it escapes mention in nature books. Such is the 65 government programs have been established to trap and
case with the delightful Kirtland’s warbler, a plump, eradicate cowbirds that attempt to nest in the warblers’
yellow-breasted bird that can be found nesting almost habitat. These efforts have greatly improved the sur-
5 exclusively in the northern half of Michigan’s Lower vival and proliferation of the Kirtland’s warbler over
Peninsula. Although this bird migrates to the Bahamas the past few decades.
for the winter, Michigan is its natural habitat. Unfortu- 70 The male Kirtland’s warbler is prized as a song-
nately, so few Kirtland’s warblers exist that the species bird, emitting a persistent, melodic song audible up to
is classified endangered. The remaining Kirtland’s a quarter-mile away. For researchers, counting these
10 warblers now enjoy living in stands of young Jack pines songs becomes important during mating season, since
located in protected Michigan forests. saving the warbler from extinction demands an annual
Interestingly, the Kirtland’s warbler nests on 75 census of the population to ensure that conservation
the ground in the jack pine forests, and not in the measures are effective.
trees themselves. Male warblers generally return to Debates periodically surface over whether to
15 Michigan in May to spend the summer. Females arrive replace the robin with the Kirtland’s warbler as
as the males stake out territory and choose a suitable Michigan’s state bird. Admirers of the Kirtland’s
nesting area. At the completion of the long journey 80 warbler argue that it is strictly a Michigan bird.
from the Bahamas to Michigan, female warblers begin Supporters of the robin point out that the Kirtland’s
to collect leaves and grass to build their nests. During warbler is only present in Michigan for, at most, half
20 this process, the female warblers’ mates provides food. of the year. Perhaps this debate will continue until more
Eventually, female Kirtland’s warblers each lay four residents have a chance to see the beautiful and elusive
to five speckled eggs. The eggs hatch in two to three 85 Kirtland’s warbler, which calls Michigan home.
weeks, and both the male and female warblers tend to
the chicks. Five weeks after they hatch, the fledglings
25 are prepared to survive on their own.
Kirtland’s warblers are extremely fastidious about
their habitat. This is probably why these birds have
become endangered. Kirtland’s warblers insist on liv-
ing in expansive areas of Jack pine forest rooted in
30 Grayling sand, which percolates quickly to prevent
flooding of nests built on or near the ground. Grayling 31. In the context of the passage as a whole, it is most
sand also supports the type of plant material that the reasonable to infer that the phrase “jack pine areas are
warblers prefer for their diet and nest building. currently managed on a rotating basis” (lines 46–47)
If not for ongoing human conservation efforts, means that:
35 this special habitat and this rare bird would probably A. resources are limited, so work must be done on one
not exist today. As the massive 19th-century logging small section of forest at a time.
boom faded in Michigan, natural forest fires increased, B. forests are occasionally burned to encourage new
fueled by the burgeoning undergrowth. Jack pine num- tree growth.
bers increased dramatically, since the tree depends on
40 regular fires to expose the seeds within its tough cones. C. lumber is harvested only as fast as tree re-growth
The early 1900s, though, saw natural fires suppressed permits.
by new forest management policies and, consequently, D. efforts to restore the Kirtland’s warbler habitat are
Jack pine forests quickly diminished. This greatly detrimental to other species.
reduced the number of nesting areas available for the
45 Kirtland’s warbler.
To correct this problem, Jack pine areas are cur-
rently managed on a rotating basis. This ensures an
appropriate number of nesting sites, which encour-
ages warblers to return and reproduce annually. The
50 protected Jack pine forests are also home to the white-
tailed deer, the black bear, the Eastern bluebird, the 32. The passage suggests that the population of the
upland sandpiper, and the snowshoe hare. Unfortu- Kirtland’s warbler declined in the past because forest
nately, for the Kirtland’s warbler, the brown-headed management policies:
cowbird is also prevalent in these woods. This brood F. failed to account for unforeseen ecological conse-
55 parasite is well known for its tendency to steal the
nests of other birds by replacing the original bird’s quences of fire prevention.
eggs with its own eggs. When the chicks are hatched, G. permitted excessive logging of nesting trees.
the warblers raise the young cowbirds as their own. H. aimed to eliminate the jack pine.
This, of course, negatively impacts the population of J. catered exclusively to the powerful industrial estab-
60 the Kirtland’s warbler. Studies have shown that when a lishment.

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460 PRACTICE TEST 6 READING TEST

3 3
33. What does the passage offer as evidence that Kirtland’s 37. The passage states that the habitat needs of the
warblers have environmental sensitivities? Kirtland’s warbler, as compared to those of other birds,
A. Cowbird eggs incubating at the expense of warbler are:
eggs A. less specific.
B. Males and females arriving in Michigan at different B. more specific.
times of year C. equally specific.
C. Long period during which hatchlings need to stay D. little understood.
in the nest
D. Nests requiring an uncommon environment

34. It can be inferred that the author feels Michigan, not

the Bahamas, is the Kirtland’s warbler’s natural habitat 38. According to the passage, which of the following
because the birds: correctly states the relationship of the Jack pine to fire?
F. inhabit very specific parts of Michigan. F. Fire is the mechanism by which cones release their
G. migrate from the tropics a great distance to summer seeds.
in Michigan. G. Fire stimulates the jack pine to produce seed-bearing
H. are protected by endangered species laws in the cones.
United States. H. Fire destroys small, weak trees, leaving room for
J. mate and raise offspring in Michigan. jack pine seeds to grow to maturity.
J. Fire expands through jack pine forests particularly
35. According to the passage, what is the reason jack pine fast.
forests declined in the early 1900s?
A. Logging in the 1800s decimated mature jack pines,
which produce hearty seeds.
B. Logging in the 1800s left room for low-growing 39. The author states that the main reason for the Kirtland’s
shrubs that accelerated the spread of many forest warbler’s decline is:
fires. A. its rapid life cycle.
C. Forest management focused on eradication of the B. cowbird infestations.
wildfires necessary for jack pine proliferation. C. strain on its habitat.
D. Forest management placed a higher value on some D. logging of jack pines in the past.
trees than others.

36. What does the author suggest in lines 54–55 by stating

that the cowbird is a “brood parasite?”
F. The cowbird exploits the nesting instincts of the 40. As it is used in lines 30–32, the term Grayling sand
Kirtland’s warbler. most nearly means:
G. The cowbird feeds on the eggs of Kirtland’s war- F. grey or silver soil, which is rich in ore deposits.
blers. G. highly permeable soil suitable for some vegetation.
H. The cowbird shows wanton disregard for the sur- H. nutrient-poor sandy soil that occurs along salt water
vival of the Kirtland’s warbler. beaches.
J. The cowbird’s appearance is marked by unappealing J. dry riverbed soil that once supported a population
plumage. of Grayling fish.

END OF THE READING TEST.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 461

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
SCIENCE REASONING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: This test includes seven passages, each
followed by several questions. Read the passages and
choose the best answer to each question. After you have
selected your answer, fill in the corresponding bubble
on your answer sheet. You should refer to the passages
as often as necessary when answering the questions.
You may NOT use a calculator on this test.

PASSAGE I (a hydrogen ion from one end and a hydroxide ion from
the other end). The reaction rate is the factor by which the
Amino acids are considered the building blocks of protein protein is able to build itself up through the combination
in the body. Amino acids combine with each other to of peptides. Figures 1–3 show the effects that changes in
form chains called peptides, which then combine to form temperature, water volume, and residue concentration have
proteins. The human body requires twenty different amino on the rate of reaction of residue when Amino Acids A and
acids, whose combinations produce every essential protein B are present. Figure 4 shows the effects that changes in the
in the body. When amino acids form peptides, the residue is concentrations of Amino Acids A and B have on the rates
what is left after the amino acid sheds a molecule of water of reaction in residue solutions of the same concentration.

Figure 1
Figure 2

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462 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4

Figure 3 Figure 4

1. According to Figure 2, Amino Acid A has the highest 3. A researcher claims that the reaction rate of Amino
reaction rate at a water volume closest to: Acid B is dependent on both residue concentration
A. 0 and amino acid concentration. Do the data in
B. 4 Figures 3 and 4 support this claim?
C. 12 A. No, the reaction rate is dependent on the amino acid
D. 20 concentration, but not on the residue concentration.
B. No, the reaction rate is not dependent on either the
2. Based on the data presented in Figure 2, at approxi- residue concentration or the amino acid concentra-
mately which of the following water volumes does tion.
Amino Acid A have the same reaction rate as Amino C. Yes, the reaction rate is dependent on both the
Acid B? residue concentration and the amino acid concen-
F. 30 mL tration.
G. 40 mL D. Yes, the reaction rate is dependent on the residue
H. 50 mL concentration, but not on the amino acid concen-
J. 60 mL tration.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 463

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
4. A researcher claims that under the conditions used to 5. The figure below shows the relative reaction rates for
determine the data for Figure 4, the reaction rate for alanine, an amino acid found in DNA, and glycine an
Amino Acid A at any given concentration will always amino acid found in the muscles.
be greater than the reaction rate for Amino Acid B
at the same concentration. Do the data support this
conclusion?
F. No, Amino Acid A has a lower reaction rate at all
given residue concentrations tested.
G. No, Amino Acid A has a lower reaction rate at all
given amino acid concentrations tested.
H. Yes, Amino Acid A has a higher reaction rate at all
given reside concentrations tested.
J. Yes, Amino Acid A has a higher reaction rate at all
given amino acid concentrations tested.

Based on this figure, one would best conclude that com-

pared to the water volume at the peak reaction rate of
amino acids in DNA, the water volume at the peak
reaction rate of amino acids in the muscles:
A. is higher.
B. is lower.
C. is the same.
D. cannot be measured.

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464 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE II in aquifers surrounding the Great Lakes are taken to popu-
lation centers outside of the Great Lakes’ watershed (region
The Great Lakes are a group of five large lakes located of land whose water drains into a specified body of water).
in the United States and Canada. They make up the largest Thus, the water in the lakes is not replenished.
group of fresh water lakes in the world, and the Great Lakes-
St. Lawrence River system is the largest freshwater system
in the world. Recently, near-historic low water levels have
plagued the water system. Two scientists discuss the causes
of low lake level in the Great Lakes.
6. Which of the following best describes the major point
of difference between the scientists’ viewpoints?
Scientist 1 F. The major contributing factor of low lake levels.
Water levels are part of the ebb and flow of nature. G. The effects of water use on the environment.
The determining factor in whether the water level will H. The effects of reduced lake levels.
rise, fall, or remain stable is the difference between the J. The major function of the Great Lakes.
amount of water coming into a lake and the amount going
out. When several months of above-average precipitation
occur with cooler, cloudy conditions that cause less evap-
oration, the lake levels gradually rise. Likewise, the low-
ering of water levels will result from prolonged periods of
lower-than-average precipitation and warmer temperatures.
The recent decline of water levels in the Great Lakes, now
at lows not seen since the mid-1960s, is due to a number 7. With which of the following statements would both
of causes. Higher degrees of evaporation from warmer than scientists likely agree?
usual temperatures in recent years, a series of mild winters, A. The probability of lake level fluctuation is small.
and below-average snow pack in the Lake Superior basin B. Human activity is largely responsible for the
all contribute to the phenomenon. Since precipitation, evap- changes in lake levels.
oration, and runoff are the major factors affecting the water
supply to the lakes, levels cannot be controlled or accurately C. Recent trends show that the lake levels are
predicted for more than a few weeks into the future. Further, decreasing.
the influence of human regulation on lake levels is incon- D. The decreased lake levels are not a major concern.
sequential. Because water is added through snow and rain
and taken away through evaporation, nature has most of the
control over lake levels.

Scientist 2
Several human activities have affected levels and flow of 8. Which of the following statements best describes how
the water in the Great Lakes. For example, structures have Scientist 1 would explain why human interference is of
been built to regulate the outflows of both Lake Superior little importance in determining lake levels?
and Lake Ontario. Lake Superior has been regulated since F. Aquifer use has little effect on lake levels.
1921 as a result of hydroelectric and navigation develop- G. Rivers flowing into the Great Lakes raise the water
ments in the St. Mary’s River, such as the Soo Locks. Lake levels in the lakes.
Ontario has been regulated since 1960 after completion of H. Dredging or widening rivers can cause reductions
the St. Lawrence Seaway and Power Project. Diversions in water levels in the lakes.
bring water into, and take water out of, the Great Lakes.
Many such diversions were constructed for hydropower J. Lake levels are mainly controlled by nature and not
generation and logging. For example, the Lake Michigan manipulated by humans.
diversion at Chicago moves water out of Lake Michigan
and into the Mississippi River for domestic, navigation,
hydroelectric, and sanitation purposes.
In addition, the St. Clair and Detroit rivers have been
dredged and modified. This has caused some drop in the
levels of Lake Michigan and Lake Huron. Channel and
shoreline modifications in connecting the channels of the 9. According to Scientist 2, human activity diverts lake
Great Lakes have affected lake levels and flows as well,
because the infilling of shoreline areas can reduce the flow waters, thus:
carrying-capacity of the river. Further, the extensive use A. decreasing the density of the water in the lakes.
of groundwater deposited in massive aquifers (underground B. reducing the amount of water in the lakes.
layers of water-bearing permeable rock) in the Midwest has C. increasing the amount of water in the lakes.
affected the lake levels. Vast quantities of water deposited D. changing the weather patterns.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 465

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
10. Scientist 1’s viewpoint would most likely be weakened 12. How would the effect of the use of aquifer water differ
by which of the following statements? from that described by Scientist 2 if all of the water
F. Lake level fluctuation has severe consequences for taken from aquifers that surrounds the Great Lakes was
coastal communities. used within the Great Lakes’ watershed? The use of
G. Studies have shown precipitation and evaporation aquifer water would:
levels to be stable for the last 50 years. F. continue to cause decreases in lake levels.
H. Studies detailing aquifer use announce a dramatic G. have little or no effect on lake levels.
increase in volume in the last 5 years. H. have an increased effect on receding lake levels.
J. Recreational boating releases thousands of gallons J. increase levels of pollution within the watershed
of petroleum-based chemicals into the water system region.
each year.

11. Scientist 2 claims that all of the following are human

activities that are decreasing lake levels EXCEPT:
A. destruction of watershed tributaries.
B. diversions for domestic, navigation, hydroelectric,
and sanitation purposes.
C. dredging and modification of rivers.
D. infilling of shoreline areas.

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466 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE III Heat was transferred through the insulating materials from
the oven to the water inside the capsule. After 5 minutes,
Students conducted an experiment to determine the the temperature of the water inside the capsule, Tf , was
insulating properties of certain materials. In each trial, recorded. The heat flow, measured in joules per second (J/s),
“blankets” made of different materials of different thick- is shown in Table 1.
nesses were wrapped around an aluminum capsule filled (Note: In each trial, the same size and shape of aluminum
with 0.250 L of water at a known initial temperature, Ti , capsule were used. One trial was done with no insulation
and placed into an oven preheated to a certain temperature. around the aluminum capsule.)

Table 1
Trial Insulating Thickness of Ti (◦ C) Tf (◦ C) Temp of Heat flow
material insulator (in.) oven (◦ C) (J/s)
1 Fiberglass 1.0 70 43 25 −94
2 Fiberglass 1.0 90 63 45 −94
3 Fiberglass 0.5 20 36 75 56
4 Fiberglass 1.0 20 31 75 38
5 Fiberglass 1.5 20 28 75 32
6 Cellulose 1.0 20 37 75 59
7 Cellulose 1.5 20 33 75 45
8 Asbestos 1.0 20 30 75 31
9 Asbestos 1.5 20 27 75 24
10 Rubber 0.5 20 57 75 129
11 Rubber 1.0 20 52 75 112
12 Aluminum **** 20 70 75 174

13. According to the information provided, heat flowed

from the water in the capsule at temperature Ti to the
surrounding oven in which of the following trials?
A. Trial 1
B. Trial 5
C. Trial 9
D. Trial 12

14. The best insulators are those that are the poorest heat
conductors. According to Trials 3 through 11, which of 15. According to Table 1, which of the following combi-
the following materials would likely provide the best nations of insulating material and insulator thickness
insulation between a room and the outdoors? resulted in the greatest heat flow?
F. Aluminum A. Fiberglass, 1.5 in
G. Cellulose B. Fiberglass, 1.0 in
H. Fiberglass C. Cellulose, 1.5 in
J. Rubber D. Cellulose, 1.0 in

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 467

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
16. Materials differ in their thermal conductivity: the higher 17. Trials 3 and 5 provide evidence that heat flow depends
the thermal conductivity, the greater the heat flow on which of the following factors?
through the corresponding thickness of the insulating A. Type of insulating material.
material. According to Trials 4 through 11, which of the B. Temperature of oven.
following statements about relative thermal conductiv- C. Contact area.
ities is NOT true? D. Thickness of insulating material.
F. Fiberglass has a higher thermal conductivity value
than asbestos.
G. Rubber has a higher thermal conductivity value than
cellulose.
H. Cellulose has a lower thermal conductivity value
than fiberglass.
J. Fiberglass has a lower thermal conductivity value
than rubber.

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468 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE IV The students planned to calculate the coefficient of
static friction by determining the force required to disturb
A group of students conducted several experiments using an object from rest. During the experiment, one student
a variety of nonstick cookware, a spring scale, and sev- anchored the nonstick cookware be holding tightly to the
eral different weighted objects. Their goal was to determine handle while the other student attached a weighted, smooth
which brand of cookware products had the best nonstick sur- steel object to the spring scale. The student pulled on the
face by measuring the coefficient of static friction, which is a spring until the object began to move. A third student
measure of how resistant a stationary object is to movement. recorded the force in newtons, N, indicated on the spring
scale at the moment the object began to move across the
nonstick surface.
This procedure was repeated for 3 different brands of
cookware; each brand of cookware was tested with various
Experiment 1 weighted objects. The coefficient of static friction was cal-
A student connected the spring scale to a weighted object culated by dividing the average force required to move the
that was placed inside a piece of nonstick cookware as object by its weight (mass × g, the gravitational constant).
shown in Figure 1. The results are shown in Table 1.

Figure 1

Table 1
Force (N) to move object
Mass of Coefficient of
Cookware weighted Weight of static friction
brand object (g) object (N) Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3 Average (force/weight)
50 0.49 0.026 0.031 0.027 0.028 0.057
A 150 1.47 0.074 0.085 0.081 0.080 0.054
250 2.45 0.139 0.137 0.129 0.135 0.055
50 0.49 0.027 0.031 0.029 0.029 0.059
B 150 1.47 0.087 0.091 0.092 0.090 0.061
250 2.45 0.149 0.150 0.144 0.147 0.060
50 0.49 0.025 0.023 0.024 0.024 0.048
C 150 1.47 0.074 0.070 0.072 0.072 0.049
250 2.45 0.128 0.126 0.121 0.125 0.051

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 469

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
Experiment 2
The students performed an experiment similar to Experi-
ment 1, except three different brands of cooking spray were
applied to the same cookware surface before the weights
were put in place. The results are shown in Table 2.

Table 2
Force (N) to move object
Mass of Coefficient of
Cooking weighted Weight of static friction
spray brand object (g) object (N) Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3 Average (force/weight)
50 0.49 0.019 0.021 0.023 0.021 0.043
X 150 1.47 0.064 0.064 0.061 0.063 0.043
250 2.45 0.111 0.107 0.106 0.108 0.044
50 0.49 0.019 0.015 0.020 0.018 0.037
Y 150 1.47 0.057 0.056 0.055 0.056 0.038
250 2.45 0.087 0.089 0.088 0.088 0.036
150 1.47 0.064 0.069 0.071 0.068 0.046
Z
250 2.45 0.118 0.116 0.120 0.118 0.048

18. The results of the 2 experiments support the conclusion 21. Which brand(s) of cooking spray was/were tested with
that as the weight of an object increases, the average only 2 different weights in Experiment 2?
force required to move it from rest generally: A. Brand Y only.
F. decreases. B. Brand Z only.
G. increases. C. Brands X and Y only.
H. varies, with no particular trend. D. Brands X and Z only.
J. remains constant.
22. According to the passage, for the students to accurately
measure the coefficient of static friction, which force
would have to be overcome?
19. If Experiment 1 was repeated for Brand B cookware F. The weight of the object.
with a 200 gram mass, the average force needed to G. The force between the spring scale and the object.
disturb the object from rest would be closest to: H. The force of applying the cooking spray to the
A. 0.03 N. surface.
B. 0.06 N. J. The force required to disturb the object from rest.
C. 0.12 N.
D. 0.18 N. 23. The students’ instructor gave them one piece of nonstick
cookware and asked them to identify the brand. The stu-
dents repeated the procedures followed in Experiment 1
and obtained average forces of 0.088 N for the 150 gram
20. Based on the results of Experiments 1 and 2, which of object and 0.149 N for the 250 gram object. Which of
the following combinations would result in the surface the following brands would most likely have produced
with the least coefficient of static friction? these results?
F. Cookware brand A and cooking spray brand X. A. Brand B only.
G. Cookware brand B and cooking spray brand Y. B. Brand C only.
H. Cookware brand C and cooking spray brand Y. C. Brand A and C only.
J. Cookware brand C and cooking spray brand Z. D. Brand B and C only.

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470 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE V Experiment 2
Experiment 1 was repeated with 100 pots of Soil Type 1
Aphids are small plant-eating insects known to feed on and 100 pots of Soil Type 2. The same pesticide doses and
rosebushes. In the cultivation of roses, certain pesticides type and number of rosebushes were used. All other fac-
are often applied when the presence of aphids is detected. tors were held constant. After 30 days the rosebushes were
However, sometimes the flowers that are treated with the uprooted and weighed. The results are shown in Table 2.
pesticides are not as vibrant or fragrant as those that did Information on the composition of the two soil types used
not receive the pesticide treatment. Two experiments were is given in Table 3.
conducted to study the effects of certain pesticides on
rosebushes.
Table 3
Experiment 1
A gardener filled 125 pots with Soil Type 1. No pesticide Solid type pH level Organic Clay (%)
was added to the soil in 25 pots. The other pots were divided matter (%)
into four groups of 25 and the soils in each group were 1 4.1 3.0 12.5
treated with 5, 15, 25, or 35 parts per million (ppm) of
either Pesticide A or Pesticide B. All other factors were held 2 3.9 6.5 6.3
constant. Fully grown rosebushes with buds but no flowers
were planted after the pesticide was placed in the soil. After
30 days the rosebushes were uprooted, sun-dried, and the
total number of petals produced by the bushes was counted.
The results are shown in Table 1.

Table 1
Pesticide dose Number of petals
(ppm)
Pesticide A Pesticide B
5 12 15
15 2 7
25 9 14
35 5 7
None 14 14

Table 2
Average weight of rosebush (oz)
Pesticide dose
(ppm) Soil type 1 Soil type 2
Pesticide A Pesticide B Pesticide A Pesticide B
5 47.5 51.4 52.7 61.2
15 37.1 42.3 40.3 51.7
25 27.5 32.9 31.1 40.3
35 19.7 22.1 23.6 29.7
Note: Average plant weight with untreated Soil Type 1 was 42.1 oz; average plant
weight with untreated Soil Type 2 was 24.7 oz.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 471

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
24. Which of the following sets of rosebushes served as the 27. Assume that a rosebush was grown in soil treated with
control in Experiment 1? varying doses of a third pesticide (Pesticide C). Based
F. Rosebushes grown in soil with no pesticide added on the results of the experiments, what prediction, if
G. Rosebushes grown in soil treated with 15 ppm of any, about the effect of Pesticide C on the growth of
Pesticide A this rosebush can be made?
H. Rosebushes grown in soil treated with 15 ppm of A. Pesticide C would have no impact on the growth of
Pesticide B the rosebushes.
J. Rosebushes grown in soil treated with 35 ppm of B. Pesticide C would interfere with the growth of these
Pesticide A rosebushes by making them smaller.
C. Pesticide C would interfere with the growth of these
25. Which of the following, if true, best explains why the rosebushes by making them less fragrant.
pesticides were applied to the soil as opposed to being D. No prediction can be made on the basis of the
placed directly on the rosebushes? results.
A. Pesticides are never applied to the soil when treating
aphids or other pests.
B. Aphids are not affected when a pesticide is applied
directly to the soil.
C. The experiments were testing how water levels
affect growth patterns.
D. Rosebushes generally die when pesticides are
applied to them directly.

26. Assume that there is a direct correlation between plant

weight and the number of petals on the flowers. If a
rosebush was grown in Soil Type 2, one would predict 28. The results of Experiment 2 indicate that, at every pesti-
that the number of petals would be lowest under which cide dose, average plant weight was lowest under which
of the following conditions? of the following conditions?
F. Pesticide B at 35 ppm. F. Pesticide B and Soil Type 1
G. Pesticide A at 35 ppm. G. Pesticide A and Soil Type 1
H. Pesticide B at 25 ppm. H. Pesticide B and Soil Type 2
J. Pesticide A at 15 ppm. J. Pesticide A and Soil Type 2

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472 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE VI Experiment 2
Peptide solution (8 mL) was added to an additional 8 test
Dopamines serve as enhancers or catalysts (a substance tubes to which 2 mL of intropin solution was then added.
that initiates or increases the rate of impulses during The tubes were incubated at 10 degrees Celsius and stirred
a chemical reaction, but is not depleted during the process) at a constant rate for 15 min. The effect of acidity on the
to certain reactions involved in the activity of human neurotransmitter was observed by varying the acidity levels
thought. The dopamine intropin is involved in the stimu- (using the pH scale). The relative amount of neurotrans-
lation of the neurotransmitters in the brain when thought mitter present in each tube was determined in the same
is initiated. A student investigated the effects of dopamine manner as Experiment 1, by adding NaCl solution to each
activity on a specific neurotransmitter. test tube. The results are in shown in Table 2.

Experiment 1 Table 2
To each of 10 test tubes, 7 milliliters (mL) of a peptide
(a neurotransmitter) solution was added. Two mL of an Test tube pH Mass of precipitate (mg)
intropin solution was added to each of Tubes 1–9. Tube
10 received 2 mL of water without intropin. The tubes were 11 2.0 2.5
then stirred at a constant rate in water baths at various tem-
peratures and incubated (heated) from 0 to 15 minutes (min). 12 5.0 2.7
At the end of the incubation period, 0.3 mL of NaCl solu-
tion was added to each tube. The NaCl stopped the reaction 13 6.0 2.9
between the intropin and the peptide. The precipitates, solids 14 7.0 3.0
formed in a solution during a chemical reaction, which in
this case were caused by the reaction of NaCl and the pep- 15 8.0 6.2
tide, were removed from the tubes and dried. The masses
of the precipitates, in milligrams (mg), were measured to 16 9.0 4.1
determine the relative amount of enhancer that remained in
the tube. The results are shown in Table 1. 17 12.0 3.8
18 13.0 3.6

Table 1
Test Temperature of Amount of Incubation Mass of
tube water bath (◦ C) intropin (mL) time (min) precipitate
(mg)
1 25 2.0 0 4.3
2 25 2.0 5 3.9
3 25 2.0 10 2.8
4 25 2.0 15 1.7
5 30 2.0 5 3.6
6 30 2.0 10 2.5
7 30 2.0 15 1.4
8 35 2.0 5 1.8
9 35 2.0 10 1.3
10 35 0 15 0.2

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 473

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
29. In Experiment 1, which of the following conditions 32. Suppose that NaCl had been added immediately to
allowed for the large amount of precipitate in Tube 1? Tube 5 with no incubation period. Based on the results
A. Lack of intropin. from Experiment 1, the best prediction about the amount
B. Higher temperature. of precipitate (in mg) formed would be:
C. Lack of water. F. 4.1
D. Shorter incubation period. G. 3.5
H. 2.1
30. In which of the following ways did the designs of J. 1.4
Experiments 1 and 2 differ?
F. A larger volume of the peptide solution was used in
33. According to Table 1, which of the following combi-
Experiment 2 than in Experiment 1.
nations of water bath temperature and incubation time
G. The temperature was held constant in Experiment 1
yielded the greatest amount of precipitate?
and varied in Experiment 2.
A. 25◦ C, 5 min
H. No NaCl was added after incubation in Experiment 2,
B. 25◦ C, 10 min
but it was in Experiment 1.
C. 35◦ C, 5 min
J. The remaining fluid level was measured in
D. 35◦ C, 10 min
Experiment 1 but not in Experiment 2.

31. Which of the following hypotheses about the effects of 34. According to the results of both experiments, one can
pH on intropin activity is best supported by the results predict that the LEAST amount of precipitate would be
of Experiment 2? As the pH of the solutions increases formed if tubes were incubated for 15 min under which
from 2 to 13, the effectiveness of intropin: of the following conditions?
A. increases only. F. 20◦ C at pH of 2.0
B. decreases only. G. 20◦ C at pH of 6.0
C. increases, then decreases. H. 30◦ C at pH of 2.0
D. remains the same. J. 30◦ C at pH of 6.0

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474 PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
PASSAGE VII Experiment 3
A known quantity of Salmonella bacteria was placed in
Several scientists considered some different environmen- each of 3 Petri dishes at different temperatures. The pH level
tal factors and their influence on the growth of certain and nutrient concentrations were held constant. The lids of
bacteria. The following experiments used Salmonella bac- the Petri dishes were replaced after the bacteria were added
teria to measure the effect of pH levels, nutrients, and and the dishes were left alone. After 6 hours, the percent
temperature on the number of bacteria produced within a growth of Salmonella bacteria was recorded (Table 3).
given time period.

Experiment 1
A known quantity of Salmonella bacteria was placed in Table 3
each of 3 Petri dishes with the same nutrient concentration Dish Temperature (◦ C) Growth (%)
at the same temperature. The pH level of each nutrient con-
centration in each dish was varied according to Table 1. On 1 10 13
the pH scale, 7 represents neutral, values less than 7 indicate
an acid, and values greater than 7 indicate a base. The lids of 2 40 83
the Petri dishes were replaced after the bacteria were added
and the dishes were left alone. After 6 hours, the percent 3 90 24
growth of Salmonella bacteria was recorded (Table 1).

Table 1
35. According to Table 1, what might best contribute to the
Dish pH level Growth (%) growth of Salmonella bacteria?
1 5 90 A. A pH level above 9
B. A pH level below 5
2 7 81 C. A pH level near 7
D. A pH level near 5
3 9 43

Experiment 2
A known quantity of Salmonella bacteria was placed in
each of 3 Petri dishes with different nutrient concentrations 36. According to the results of the three experiments, which
in the form of organic compounds. The temperature and combination of the three factors studied would be
pH level (neutral 7) were held constant in each sample. expected to produce the highest percent growth?
The lids of the Petri dishes were replaced after the bacteria F. pH level of 5, organic compound in Dish 2, temper-
were added and the dishes were left alone. After 6 hours,
the percent growth of Salmonella bacteria was recorded ature of 40◦ C
(Table 2). G. pH level of 7, organic compound in Dish 2, temper-
ature of 10◦ C
H. pH level of 5, organic compound in Dish 1, temper-
Table 2 ature of 40◦ C
J. pH level of 9, organic compound in Dish 1, temper-
Dish Organic Dry weight Growth ature of 90◦ C
compound (%) (%)
Carbon 50
1 Oxygen 20 37
Nitrogen 15
37. Which of the following conclusions is strengthened by
Carbon 25 the results of Experiment 1?
2 16 A. Salmonella bacteria reproduce most efficiently in an
Oxygen 10
acidic environment.
Nitrogen 7 B. Salmonella bacteria reproduce most efficiently in a
neutral environment.
Carbon 12.5 C. Salmonella bacteria cannot reproduce in a basic
3 Oxygen 5 8 environment.
D. Salmonella bacteria cannot reproduce in an acidic
Nitrogen 20 environment.

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PRACTICE TEST 6 SCIENCE REASONING TEST 475

4 ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) ) 4
38. Bacteria will generally reproduce until all of the nutri- 40. The experiments recorded the percent growth that
ents available have been depleted. How could the occurred over a 6-hour period. Bacteria often repro-
experiment be altered to maximize the length of time duce at a rate that drastically varies from one stage to
that bacteria will reproduce? the next. The best way to study the different stages of
F. Change the observation time from 6 hours to growth would be to record the percent growth:
12 hours. F. after 2 hours only.
G. Regularly re-supply each group of bacteria with G. after 4 hours, then again after 6 hours.
unlimited nutrients. H. after 8 hours only.
H. Increase the rate of growth by decreasing the pH J. every 15 minutes for 3 hours.
levels.
J. Do not test the effect of different nutrient combina-
tions on growth.

39. Which of the following was the independent variable in

Experiment 3?
A. pH level
B. temperature
C. organic compound
D. percent growth

END OF THE SCIENCE REASONING TEST.

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