Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-I
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
(PHYSICS)
Q.1. One micron is related to centimeter as

(A) 1 𝑚𝑖𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 10−8 𝑐𝑚 (B) 1 𝑚𝑖𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 10−6 𝑐𝑚

(C) 1 𝑚𝑖𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 10−5 𝑐𝑚 (D) 1 𝑚𝑖𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 10−4 𝑐𝑚

Q.2. The velocity of a body is given by the equation

𝑏
𝑉 = 𝑡 + 𝐶𝑡 2 + 𝑑𝑡 3 . The dimensional formula for b is

(A) 𝑀𝑂 𝐿𝑇 𝑂 (B) 𝑀𝐿𝑂 𝑇 𝑂 (C) 𝑀𝑂 𝐿𝑂 𝑇 − (D) 𝑀𝐿𝑇 −1

Q.3. The maximum and minimum resultants of two forces are in the ration 7:3. The ratio of the two
forces is

(A) 4:1 (B) 5:2 (C) 7: 3 (D) 49:9

Q.4. If 𝐴 × 𝐵 = 𝐵 × 𝐴 then the angle between 𝐴 & 𝐵 is

𝜋
(A) 2 (B) 𝜋 3 (C) 𝜋 (D) 𝜋 4

Q.5. If the angle between two forces increases the magnitude of their resultant

(A) increase (B) decrease

(C) first increase and then decrease (D) remains unchanged

Q.6. A particle in plane with a constant acceleration in a direction from the initial velocity. The path
of the particle is-
(A) straight line (B) arc of a circle (C) parabola (D) ellipse

Q.7. Train is 100 m long and is moving with 45 km/hr. The time it will take to cross a bridge 1 km
long is

(A) 10 sec (B) 20 sec (C) 40 sec (D) 88 sec

Q.8. Two bullets are fired simultaneously horizontal and with different speeds from same place
which bullet will hit ground first?

(A) The faster one (B) The slower one

(C) Both will reach simultaneously (D) Depends on mass

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q.9. If rope of A lift breaks, suddenly the tension exerted by the surface of lift (a = acceleration of
lift)

(A) 𝑚𝑔 (B) 𝑚 𝑔 + 𝑎 (C) 𝑚 𝑔 − 𝑎 (D) 0

Q.10. A sphere of radius R and density 𝜚1 , is dropped in a liquid of density 𝛿. Its terminal velocity is
𝑉1 . If another sphere of radius R and density ϱ2 is dropped in the same liquid, its terminal
velocity will be
ϱ2 −6𝑏 ϱ −6 ϱ ϱ
(A) ϱ1 −6
𝑉1 (B) ϱ1 −6 𝑉1 (C) ϱ1 𝑉 (D) ϱ2 𝑉
2 2 1

Q.11. As compared to a person with white skin a person with black skin will experience

(A) less heat and more cold

(B) more heat and less cold
(C) less heat and less cold
(D) more heat and more cold

Q.12. In which of the following sound has maximum velocity

(A) 𝐻2 (B) 𝑂2 (C) 𝐶𝑂2 (D) air

𝑓
Q.13. A convex mirror of focal length 𝑓 has an object kept at a distance in front of it. The image is
2
formed at

𝑓
(A) 2𝑓 (B) 3 (C) 𝑓 (D) infinity

Q.14. In case of diamond

(A) R.I. is low and critical angle is high

(B) R.I. is low and critical angle is low
(C) R.I. is high and critical angle is low
(D) R.I. is high and critical angle is high

Q.15. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of a prism of small angle A and
emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism
is 𝜇, the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to
𝐴 𝐴 𝜇𝐴
(A) 𝜇 (B) 2𝜇 (C) 𝜇𝐴 (D) 2

Q.16. To have a magnification 10 (often specified as 10x) by a simple magnifier, you need a convex
lens of focal length

(A) 1 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 3.5 cm (D) 2.5 cm

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q.17. Two charges each equal to 2𝜇𝑐 are 0.5 m apart. If both of them exist inside vacuum, then the
force between them is

(A) 1.89 N (B) 2.44 N (C) 0.144 N (D) 3.144 N

Q.18. In going from the surface of a charged conducting sphere towards the centre of the sphere the
electric field

(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) remains the same as on the surface
(D) remains zero at every place

Q.19. Number of free electrons in one mole of metal is of the order

(A) 108 (B) 1010 (C) 1019 (D) 1023

Q.20. 1 kg piece of copper is drawn in to a wire 1 mm thick, another piece in to a wire 2 mm thick
compare resistances of these wires

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 8 : 1 (D) 16 : 1

Q.21. An electron is revolving in a circular orbit of radius 2 × 10−10 𝑚 with speed of 3× 106 𝑚/𝑠 The
magnetic field at the centre of circular path will be

(A) 0 T (B) 9 T (C) 1.2 T (D) 25 T

Q.22. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside magnetic fields
by placing it inside a box of

(A) teak wood (B) plastic material

(C) soft iron of high permeability (D) a metal of high conductivity

Q.23. When a hole is made at the centre of a bar magnet then its magnetic moment will

(A) increase (B) decrease (C) not change (D) either a or b

Q.24. Electromagnetic waves are produced by

(A) an accelerating charge (B) charge less particles

(C) static charge (D) A moving charge with constant velocity

Q.25. The wave length range of visible spectrum is

(A) 0.4𝜇𝑚 − 0.7𝜇𝑚 (B) 0.7𝜇𝑚 − 100𝜇𝑚

(C) 0.001𝑛𝑚 − 10𝑛𝑚 (D) 1𝑚 − 100𝑘𝑚

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

ANSWER SET TO SECTION-I PHYSICS

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 D 6 C 11 D 16 C 21 C
2 A 7 D 12 A 17 D 22 B
3 B 8 B 13 C 18 D 23 A
4 A 9 D 14 C 19 D 24 C
5 B 10 A 15 C 20 C 25 B

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-I
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
(CHEMISTRY)

Q.1. Rutherford’s experiment proved for the first time the existence of --------------

(A) Neutron (B) Nucleus

(C) Proton (D) electron

Q.2. What is the packet of energy called?

(A) Electron (B) Photon

(C) Position (D) Proton

Q.3. NH_3 is added to BF_3 by

(A) Ionic bond (B) Covalent bond
(C) Dative bond (D) Molecular bond

Q.3. The strongest bond is ------------

(A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(C) Hydrogen bond (D) Metallic

Q.4. Which of the following is an extensive property of the system?

(A) Temperature (B) Volume
(C) Refractive index (D) Viscosity

Q.5. A solution has pH=5, it is diluted 100 times, then it will become -------------------
(A) Neutral (B) Basic
(C) Unaffected (D) More acidic

Q.6. What will be the height of the image formed of an object of height 10 cm placed in front of a
plane mirror?
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm

Q.7. If an atom is reduced, it’s oxidation number ----------------

(A) Does not change (B) Increase
(C) Sharply decreases (D) Slightly increase

Q.8. From which plant is the litmus solution or litmus paper is obtained?
(A) Moss (B) Rose
(C) Hibiscus (D) Lichen

Q.9. Unit of molarity is ----------------

(A) Kilogram/litre (B) Gram/litre
(C) Mole/litre (D) None of these

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q.10. Rate constant depends on ---------------

(A) Temperature (B) Time (C) Initial concentration (D) None of these

Q.11. The important ore of aluminium is ---------------

(A) Kaolin (B) Corundum

(C) Bauxite (D) Ruby

Q.12. Formula for plaster of Paris is ------------------

(A) CaSO_4∙(1⁄2) H_2 O (B) CaSO_4∙H_2 O
(C) CaSO_4∙(1⁄3) H_2 O (D) CaSO_4∙2 H_2 O

Q.13. Which of the following shows electrical conduction?

(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(C) Diamond (D) Graphite

Q.14. The number of isomers of C_4 H_10 is

(A) 4 (B) Isomerism not exist

(C) 3 (D) 2

Q.15. Hydrogen burns in air with a ------------

(A) Light blue flame (B) Yellow flame

(C) Green flame (D) None of these

Q.16. Benzene is obtained by the fractional distillation of --------------------

(A) Light oil (B) Heavy oil
(C) Filtered oil (D) Anthracene oil

Q.17. The planar structure is represented by ------------------

(A) Methane (B) Acetylene
(C) Benzene (D) All of these

Q.18. Which gas is formed when CaC_2 reacts with H_2 O?

(A) Acetylene (B) Methane
(C) Ethane (D) Ethylene

Q.19. Copper and tin are constituent of -----------------

(A) Bronze (B) German silver
(C) Brass (D) None of these

Q.20. Biuret test is not given by ------------------

(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates
(C) Polypeptides (D) Urea

Q.21. Alcohol that is used in beverage is -------------------

(A) Porpanol (B) Butanol
(C) Ethanol (D) Methanol

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q.22. Ethanamide is --------------------

(A) Amphoteric (B) Acidic
(C) Neutral (D) Basic

Q.23. Which of the following is a mode of asexual reproduction?

(A) Fission (B) Budding
(C) Spore formation (D) All of these

Q.24. Which of the following is released in more quantity by plants during daytime?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Chlorine (D) Ammonia

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-I CHEMISTRY

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 B 6 A 11 A 16 A 21 B
2 B 7 B 12 C 17 A 22 C
3 C 8 C 13 B 18 B 23 A
4 A 9 D 14 D 19 A 24 D
5 B 10 C 15 D 20 A 25 B

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-II
MATHEMATICS

Q. 1 What is the equation of locus of a point whose distance from (5 , 0) is equal to its
distance from y axis.

a. b. c.
d.

Q2.

a. b. c. d.

Q Q.3. Two dice are thrown what is the probability of the events the sum of the numbers on their
upper faces is multiple of 7.
1 7 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 9 6 9

Q. 4 what is the value of 1/x + 1/y if 5/x + 9/y = 6 and 1/x + 5/y = 30?
a. 6 b. -6 c. 4 d. -4

Q. 5 For an A.P. if t4=12 and d = -10 then what is its general terms.

a. 52 - 10n b. 50 - 10n c. - 52 - 10n d. - 50 + 10n

Q. 6 What is the length of latus - rectum of the parabola 3y2 = 16x

a. b. c. d.

Q. 7 A piece of string 175 cm in length was cut into two pieces the ratio of whose length
was 5 : 2 what is the length of each piece.

a. 100 cm , 250 cm b. 150 cm , 100 cm c. 125 cm , 50 cm d. 90 cm , 50 cm

Q. 8 What is the distance of the point (-2 , 3) from the line 12x = 5y + 13?

a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 3

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 9

a. 2 b. -2 c. 4 d. -4

Q. 10 Which of the following is the formula for finding mean by step deviation method ?

a. b. c. d.

−3 m
Q.11. If the value of the determinant is 21. Find m.
−6 9

(A) 4 (B) -8 (C) 8 (D) -4

Q.12. What is the median if N = 30 , L = 20 , f = 10 C.F. =13 and h=10.

(A) 23 (B) 22 (C) 24 (D) 25

Q. 13 For an A.P. t1 = 2 , tn = 41 and sn = 860 what is the value of n?

a. 31 b. 30 c. 41 d. 40

Q. 14 What is θ if sin( θ + 24) = cos θ where ( θ + 24)° is an acute angle.

a. 35° b. 33° c. 34° d. 32°

Q. 15

a. b. c. d.

Q.16. In ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅 𝑠𝑒𝑔 𝑃𝑀 is the median if PM =9 and 𝑃𝑄 2 + 𝑃𝑅 2 = 290 what is QR.

(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 8 (D) 4

Q.17. What is the value of 𝑠𝑖𝑛 40° 𝑐𝑜𝑠60° 𝑠𝑒𝑐50° 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐30°

(A) -1 (B) 2 (C) -2 (D) 1

Q. 18
a. 3 b. 2/3 c. 1/3 d. 1/5

Q. 19 What is the eccentricity of the ellipse 16x2+25y2=400 ?

a. 5/3 b. 3/5 c. 2/3 d. 3/2

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 20 What is length of the arc of a circle of diameter 10 cms if the arc is subtending an angle
of 36° at the centre.

a. 2π cms b. π cms c. 3π cms d. 4π cms

Q. 21 What is the length of the arc of a circle with radius 0.7 m and area of the sector is 0.49
m2

a. 1.3 m b. 1.5 m c. 1.4 m d. 1.6 m

Q. 22 The diagonal of a square of 8√2 cm. what is its side.

a. 4 cm b. 8 cm c. 10 cm d. 2 cm

Q. 23 The dimensions of a cuboid in cm are 16 x 14 x 20 then its total surface area is

a. 1648 sq. cm. b. 1468 sq. cm. c. 1486 sq. cm. d. 1846 sq. cm.

Q. 24 What is the ratio of the second quantity with the first quantity in its simplest form of
1.44 m , 2.40 m

a. 3:5 b. 5:3 c. 2:5 d. 5:2

Q. 25 What is the value of sec (-1200)

a. -1 b. -3 c. -4 d. -2

Q.26. The angle between the pair of tangents drawn from the point 1,2 to the ellipse

3x 2 + 2y 2 = 5 is

12 12
(A) tan−1 (B) tan−1 6 (C) tan−1 (D) none
5 5 5

Q. 27 If the inclination of line is θ=30° then slope of the line is_____________

a. b. c. d.

Q. 28

a. -√2 b. -2+√2 c. -2-√2 d. √2-2

Q. 29 What is the nature of the roots of the quadratic equation 4x2-8x+9=0

a. Real b. Not real c. Real and equal d. Real and unequal

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 30

a. 4 b. 3 c. 6 d. 1

Q. 31 Rajani has a hobby of reading books she read 22, 25, 29, 24, 20 30, 26 pages per day in
a week. What is mean?

a. 50 b. 75 . 25 d. 35

Q. 32 If θ is the acute angle between the lines a1x+b1y+c1 = 0 and a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 then
what is tan θ

𝑎1𝑏2 − 𝑎2𝑏1
a. b. c. d.
𝑎1𝑎2 + 𝑏1𝑏2

Q.33. What is the value of k is the equation 𝑘 − 12 𝑥 2 + 2 𝑘 − 12 𝑥 + 2 = 0 has real and equal
roots.

(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 14

Q. 34 If α+β=4 and α2+β2=40 what is the quadratic equation whose roots are α and β ?

a. b. c. d.

Q. 35 If (x - 2) is a factor of x2-ax+6 what is the value of 'a'.

a. 5 b. 6 c. -5 d. 4

Q. 36 If the points (-3 , 11) , (6 , 2) and (k , 4) are collinear points then the value of k is

a. 5 b. -4 c. 4 d. -5

Q. 37 What is the modulus of Z = 4 + 4√3 i

a. 4 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2

Q.38. In the adjoining figure

What is the value of BC

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

(A) 2 3𝑐𝑚 (B) 4 3𝑐𝑚 (C) 6 3𝑐𝑚 (D) 12 3𝑐𝑚

Q. 39 What is the area of a semicircle whose radius is 21 cm.

a. 693 cm2 b. 963 cm2 c. 396 cm2 d. 936 cm2

Q. 40 A die is thrown E is the event that the upper most face shows a prime number, what is
E equal to?

a. {1,3,5} b. {2,3,5} c. {1,2,3} d. {2,3,4}

Q. 41

a. b. c. d.

Q. 42
a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1

Q. 43 If one root of the quadratic equation 3y2-ky+8 =0 is 2/3 then what is the value of k?

a. -14 b. 15 c. 14 d. -15

Q. 44

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. -1

Q. 45 What is the radius of the circle 3x2+3y2-6x+4y-1=0

a. b. c. d.

Q. 46 What is the HCF and LCM of 60 and 72

a. HCF = 12 , LCM = 360 b. HCF = 6 , LCM = 72 c. HCF = 24 , LCM = 60 d. HCF = 360 ,

LCM = 12

Q. 47 What is median? If mean = 106 mode = 103.

a. 104 b. 106 c. 105 d. 103

Q. 48 What is the distance between the points A(-6 , 13) B(9 , -7)

a. 35 b. 25 c. 40 d. 45

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 49 For sequence Sn = n/2(n+1) what is the value of t1 ?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1

Q.50. What is the area cut off the parabola 4y = 3𝑥 2 by the line 2y = 3x + 12

(A) 9 Sq units (B) 27 Sq units (C) 81 Sq units (D) None

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-II MATHEMATICS

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 B 11 C 21 C 31 C 41 A
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 A 42 C
3 C 13 D 23 A 33 D 43 C
4 B 14 B 24 B 34 A 44 A
5 A 15 C 25 D 35 A 45 B
6 B 16 A 26 C 36 C 46 A
7 C 17 D 27 D 37 B 47 C
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 B 48 B
9 D 19 B 29 B 39 A 49 D
10 C 20 B 30 B 40 B 50 B

13
Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-II
BIOLOGY
1 The gametes produced by an individual with the genotype aaBBCc are
A. 8 B. 4 C. 2 D. 6

2 Unit of distance between genes on the chromosome is

A. C-DNA B. morgan C. centimorgan D. che-square

3 Histone core is made up of

A. H2a, H2b, H3 & H4 B. H1 C. H3 D. H4

4 The concept of cellular totipotency was first given by

A. Devo B. White C. Milles D. Steward

5 “Golden rice” or Miracle Rice is transgenic rice, rich in

A. Vitamin B and iron B. Vitamin A and iron
C. Vitamin A and Vitamin B D. Iron

6 Which is a fungicide?
A. 2, 4 – D B. DDT C. Bordeaux mixture D. BHC

7 The organic biomass production is known as

A. Standing state B. Standing crop C. Humus D. biofuels

8 Which of the following is liquid hydrocarbon

A. Nicotine B. caffeine C. Resin D. Latex

9 Which of the following enzymes secreted by yeast is responsible for fermentation?

A. Enolase B. Dehydrogenase C. zymase D. Invertase

10 Antibiotic neomycin is obtained from

A. Streptomyces fradiae B. S. griseus C. A. fumigans D. A. flavas

11 The restriction endonuclease enzymes are

A. ECORI B. Bam HI C. Hind III D. All of these

12 The human insulin manufactured by Eli lily is

A. manulin B. humulin C. insulin D. B-insulin

13 Most of the botanical names have been derived from

A. German B. Greek C. Latin D. Spanish

14 Xylem is rich in
A. Starch B. Lignin C. Lipid D. Portein

15 Chloroplast contains maximum quantity of

A. RUDP carboxylase B. Pyruvic carboxylase
C. Pyzuvic dehydrogenase D. Pyruvic dehydrogenase

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

16 Ferrodoxin is a component of
A. PSI B. PS-II C. Cristae D. Hill’s reaction

17 Kranz type anatomy is found in the leaves of

A. most C4 Plants B. all C4 Plants
C. most C3 Plants D. both A & C

18 The site of occurrence of enzymes of ETS in mitochondria is

A. Fo Particle B. matrix
C. innes membrance D. outer membrance

19 How many ATP are generated in Kreb’s cycle?

A. 24 B. 22 C. 36 D. 8
20 The phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrated
A. reproductive isolation B. geographical isolation
C. natural selection D. shaded ‘X’ and internal fertilization

21 Recombination results in
A. structural adaptation B. genetic variation
C. sexual D. mutation

22 What is the average cranial capacity of Homoerectus?

A. 1450 cc B. 1000 cc C. 500 cc D. more than 1650 cc

23 Person suffer from red colour blindness is known as

A. Protanopia B. Deuteranopia
C. Both A & B D. monochromat

24 Select the sulphur containing amino acid

A. Arginine B. Tyrosine C. Glutamic acid D. Methionine

25 Typhlosole in earthworm is related with

A. Excretion B. Absorption C. Respiration D. Reproduction

26 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

A. Sigmoid B. Slope C. Straight line D. Parabola

27 Mountain sickness results due to

A. Anaemic hypoxia B. Arterial hypoxia
C. Lack of sufficient Hb D. Lack of sufficient RBC

28 Parasympathetic nervous system

A. Increase heart rate B. Decrease heart rate
C. Originates heart beat D. No effect on heart

29 Which of the following are major phagocytic cells?

A. Lymphocytes B. Mast cells C. Macrophages D. Plasma

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

30 In kidney, glucose is reabsorbed mainly by

A. Bowman’s capsule B. loop of Henle C. DCT D. PCT

31 Cori’s cycle is associated with

A. Glycogen metabolism B. Glucose metabolism
C. Protein metabolism D. Fat metabolism

32 Volkmann’s canals interconnect

A. Bone marrow B. 3rd & 4th Ventricle
C. Central Canal & 4th Ventricle D. Haversian Canal

33 Pneumatic bone is formed in

A. Pigeon B. Whale C. Shark D. Rana

34 In gout, high level of which of the following is found in blood?

A. Urea B. Cholesterol C. Amino acid D. Uric acid

35 In Urea Cycle which one is not required?

A. Ornithine B. Methionine C. Citrulline D. Arginine

36 Third ventricle of brain is called

A. Lateral ventricle B. Myelocoel C. Diacoel D. Metacoel

37 Nissl’s granules are absent in

A. Dendrite B. Cyton C. Axon D. both A & B

38 Pacinian corpuscles in the skin of mammals are for

A. Type of gland B. Pain receptors
C. Naked tactile receptor D. Encapsulated pressure receptor

39 Largest ear Ossicle is

A. Incus B. Stapes C. Malleus D. Stapedial Plate

40 Eyes of Cats glitter at night in due to presence of

A. Luciferin B. Porphyrin C. Tapetum callosum D. Tapetum fibrosum

41 Which of the followings is an inhibitory hormone?

A. Somatostatin B. STH C. Thyroxine D. Epinephrine

42 The gas which is produced in rice paddy & is associated with global warming
A. CH4 B. Cl C. CO2 D. H2S

43 The most dangerous radioactive air pollutant is

A. P-32 B. S-35 C. Ca-40 D. Sr-90

44 A biosphere reserve preserves

A. Genetic resources of organisms B. Wild population
C. Traditional life styles of tribals D. All of the above

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

45 Dodo, an extinet flightless bird had belong to

A. Mauritius B. India C. Peru D. Africa

46 Medium used for culturing hybridoma cells is

A. HAP B. HAT C. TAP D. OSCP

47 An autoimmune disease is

A. Haemophilia B. Asthma C. AIDS D. Myaesthenia gravis

48 Sarcoma is cancer of
A. Eptithelial tissue B. Mesodermal tissue
C. Blood D. Endometrial

49 Which of the following constituent is maximum in honey?

A. Dextrose B. levulose C. Maltose D. Water

50 Components of complements bind with the immunoglobulin at

A. Fc portion B. Fab region C. Hinge region D. A & B

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-II BIOLOGY

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 C 11 A 21 B 31 B 41 D
2 C 12 B 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 C 23 B 33 A 43 B
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 D 44 D
5 B 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 C 16 A 26 B 36 C 46 B
7 C 17 B 27 A 37 A 47 A
8 D 18 B 28 B 38 B 48 B
9 C 19 A 29 C 39 C 49 C
10 A 20 C 30 D 40 B 50 D

17
Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-III
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Use proper co-relative conjunctions:

1. The government sent a spy ________ obtain information.

a. to get b. in order to c. to d. as to

2. She was praised by her boss ________ she gives the highest importance to her work.

a. when b. since c. that d. where

3. There is no alternative, ___________ we may as well keep quiet.

a. as b. and c. or d. so

4. He is not obedient _____________ his parents.

a. towards b. with c. for d. of

5. Ustad Bismillah Khan was unique ___________ instrumental artists.

a. In b. among c. from d. by

6. As a responsible citizen one must be acquainted _______ rights and duties.

a. from b. in c. at d. with

7. They were touched _____________ the sight of suffering.

a. on b. at c. by d. for

Count punctuation mistakes:

8. After careful thinking the government of Maharashtra took the decision to make english a
compulsory subject from the 1st standard

a. 8 b. 5 c. 3 d. 4

9. According to a report appearing in the time of india this morning mumbai city is expected to
receive heavy rains on sunday

a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 6

10. It was a RECORD, means

a. disc which contain movies b. written statement

c. Highest achievement d. never broken

11. You will definitely ______________ a 1st class.

a. get b. obtain c. score d. receive

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

12. The _________ of the Empire was hastened due to the death of emperor

a. decline b. fall c. end d. collapse

Identify the figures of speech:

13. He was a lion in the fight.

a. Simile b. Personification c. Hyperbole d. Metaphor

14. Water, water, everywhere and not a drop to drink.

a. Repetition b. Hyperbole c. Alliteration d. Pun

15. Death lays her icy hands on kings.

a. Metaphor b. Apostrophe c. Personification d. Hyperbole

16. I drank a wake-up of coffee.

a. Pun b. Anticlimax c. Transferred Epithet d. Alliteration

Choose the correct option for:

17. Biotic: _______________

a. The study of animals b. The study of living beings

c. The science of heredity d. The study of water life

18. Platinum is __________ than diamond.

a. cost b. costly c. costlier d. costliest

19. Conflagration: _____________

a. combination of atoms b. long research report

c. an uncontrolled fire d. under obligation

20. Is the train __________ time?

a. are on b. in c. on d. before

21. Confidence is __________ to build a great ________.

a. necessary, carrier b. necessary , carrier

c. nessaccery, carreer d. necessary, career

22. Louis's room is in apple pie order. It means ___________.

a. smelling of fruits b. neat and tidy

c. apple pie spread in every corner d. arranged with apple pies

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

23. If I reveal a secret, I am ________

a. hitting the nail on the head b. jumping on the bandwagon

c. eating my words d. letting the cat out of the bag

24. He didn't bat an eye means he was ________________.

a. not surprised b. sleepless

c. concentrating hard d. visually chalanged

25. The robbers were armed to the teeth. So basically they _____________.

a. got a new set of teeth b. had no armaments c.

c. carried a lot of weapons d. prepared well for the robbery

26. His comments threw a wet blanket on the discussion; this means –

a. controlling b. discouraging c. revealing d. surprising

Place in a proper order: choose the correct alternative –

27. q] with a jigsaw

q] jigsaw puzzles were originally created by painting
r] and then cutting that picture into small pieces
s] a picture on a flat rectangular piece of wood

a. psqr b. qsrp c. sprq d. sqpr

Choose the correct word from the given options:

28. The teacher's __________ encouraged Vinay to work hard.

a. compliments b. complements c. complaints d. complainants

29. Vishwanathan Anand's excellence in Chess has been a _____________ to many aspirants.

a. president b. precedent c. prominence d. providence

30. Kishor is my best friend and ___________.

a. confident b. confidant c. resident d. resilient

31. A race is ___________.

a. a competition in which all the competitors try to be the fastest to finish first.
b. a running race where two or more people participate.
c. a running race of slightly over 26 miles.
d. None of the above.

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Determine the correct form of verb using the time indicator as reference in the following:

32. Animated movies _____________ a lot over the last 100 years

a. has changed b. have changed c. had changed d. will change

33. In the early 1900s, McLay ______________ his films by himself.

a. animated b. is animating c. will be animating d. were animating

34. Hundreds of photographs ____________ to make a one-minute film everyday in 1900s.

a. was needed b. were needed c.

c. is needed d. are needed

35. Walt Disney_______ animation to a new level since he started in the animation business.

a. takes b. taken c. took d. taking

36. He created Mickey Mouse, added sound and music to his movies, and __________ the first
full length film.

a. produced b. produces c. have produced d. had produced

Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliaries:

37. One __________ to respect parents and elders.

a. ought b. should c. must d. could

38. I am afraid it ___________ rain shortly.

a. can b. may c. might d. must

39. They ___________ not show their faces here.

a. must b. can c. dare not d. could

Find the best match in the following:

40. ''Book'' is related to Author in the same way as ''Food'' is related to _________.

a. Guest b. Butter c. Cook d. Container

41. __________ is to Sun as Rain is to ________.

a. Moon, Rainbow b. Light, cloud c. Sky, Wet d. Day, Night

42. ''Cardboard'' is related to ''Opaque'' in the same way as ''Glass'' is related to _______.

a. Brittle b. Lustrous c. glossy d. Transparent

43. Cow : Grass ; Baby : __________.

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

a. Fish b. Milk c. Toy d. Food

44. Cotton __________ fire easily.

a. can catch b. catch c. may catch d. might catch

45. Hebrew is the _________ living language.

a. old b. older c. oldest d. much older

Choose the option with the word correctly spelt:

46. The weight of the lungs is pressed on the _____________.

a. diaphragm b. diaphragmn c. dyaphragym d. diagphram

47. We usually __________ guests with a smile

a. receive b. recive c. receve d. recede

48. In the good old days, work gave people enough __________.

a. excercise b. exercise c. exersise d. exorcise

49. The medicine will ______ you of your discomfort.

a. relief b. releive c. relieve d. relive

50. The clouds cause the sun to ___________

a. disappear b. dissapear c. disapear d. dispair

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-III ENGLISH

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 B 11 B 21 D 31 D 41 B
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 B 42 D
3 D 13 D 23 D 33 A 43 B
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 B 44 A
5 B 15 C 25 C 35 C 45 C
6 D 16 C 26 B 36 A 46 A
7 C 17 B 27 B 37 A 47 A
8 B 18 D 28 A 38 B 48 B
9 A 19 D 29 B 39 A 49 C
10 C 20 C 30 B 40 C 50 A

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-IV
REASONING

Q.1 A’s father C, is a brother of B’s mother D. Then B is …… of C

(A) Cousin (B) Nephew

(C) Brother (D) Sister

Q.2 Find the number which replace the question mark.

6 5 9

4 11 5

10 ? 6

(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) None of these.

Q.3 Observe the table and find the value of a and b.

2 10 3 21 5 B
7 5 10 7 A 8

(A) a= 13, b= 40 (B) a= 27, b= 6 (C) a= 6, b= 6 (D) None of these.

Q.4 How many degrees are there in the angle between the hours and minute hands of a clock if
the time is 9:30

(A) 105 (B) 90 (C) 75 (D)65

Q.5 There are 100 weights .While some are 1kg others are 2kg.The sum of all the weights are
150.What is the number of 1kg weights?

(A) 50 (B)45 (C)60 (D)55

Q.6 Find falling terms of the series 2, 6, 12, 20, _, 42, _, 72.

(A) 30, 56 (B) 40, 50 (C) 32, 114 (D) None of these.

Q.7 Complete the series 1, 8, _, 64, _, 216.

(A) 27, 225 (B) 81, 125 (C) 27, 125 (D) None of these.

Q.8 Write down next two terms of the 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ……

(A) 26, 39 (B) 21, 34 (C) 30, 42 (D) 32, 50.

Q.9 An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle have equal parameters. If A, B and C denotes the area
of the triangle, square and circle respectively then

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

(A) A < B< C (B) B < C< A (C) C < A < B (D) B < A < C

Q.10 A man fixed an appointment to meet the manager, Manager asked him to come two days after
the day before the day after tomorrow. Today is Saturday. When will the manager expect him?

(A) Friday (B) Sunday (C)Monday (D) Tuesday

Q.11 Which is the most suitable Venn diagram among the following, which represents
interrelationship among Fruits, mango and alphonso

Q.12 If REASON is coded as 6 and INDIA as 5, what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?

(A) 6 (B)7 (C)8 (D)10

Q.13 If LOGIC is coded as CPHJL and MIND as DJOM then BRAIN will be coded as

(A) NSBJB (B) NIARB (C) NRAIB (D) NIARB

Q.14 Choose proper term from given alternatives to fill up sequence

ZAB, YCD, ___, WGH.

(A) XEG (B)XIH (C)XFG (D)XEF

Directions for question 15-17.

Choose correct word from the given alternatives such that the second pair also has the same
relation as the first.

Q.15 Oil: Liquid: : Wood : ?

(A) Liquid (B) Condense (C) Solid (D) Gas

Q.16 India: Hockey: : England : ?

(A) Chess (B) Football (C) Basketball (D) Cricket.

Q.17 Flood: Dam: : Illiteracy : ?

(A) Education (B) Charity (C) Hitting (D) None of these.

Directions for question 18-20.

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

There are five friends Sameer, Kiran, Michael, Anam and Rekha. Sameer is shorter than Kiran
but taller than Rekha. Michael is tallest. Anam is a little shorter than Kiran and little taller than
Sameer.

Q.18 Who is the shortest?

(A) Michael (B) Rekha (C) Kiran (D) Sameer.

Q.19 If they stand in the order of their heights, who will be in the middle?

(A) Michael (B) Kiran (C) Anam (D) Sameer.

Q.20 If they stand in the order of increasing heights who is fourth from the left.

(A) Michael (B) Rekha (C) Kiran (D) Sameer.

Q.21 Find the odd terms from the following

Apple, Ggrapes, Watermelon, Papaya

(A) Apple (B) Grapes (C) Watermelon (D) Papaya

Q.22 Find the number which is different from the other 1, 5, 25, 49.

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 25 (D) 49

Direction: The questions 23-25 are based on the diagram given below:

i) Rectangle represents students of the class.

ii) Circle represents students who plays cricket.
iii) Diamond students represent who plays chess.
iv) Triangle represents who plays hockey.

Q.23 The number of students who plays only cricket is

(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 10

Q.24 The number of students who plays cricket and chess is

(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 10

Q.25 The number of students who doesn’t play hockey is

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

(A) 40 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 10

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-IV REASONING

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.
1 B 6 B 11 A 16 D 21 C
2 C 7 C 12 D 17 A 22 B
3 A 8 B 13 A 18 B 23 A
4 A 9 D 14 D 19 C 23 D
5 A 10 D 15 C 20 C 25 B

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

SECTION-V
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q. 1 The constitution of India derives its ultimate authority from ___ ?

a. Supreme Court of India b. Parliament of India

c. People of India d. Constituent Assembly of India

Q. 2 Which of the following was not a varna of Society?

a. Shudra b. Vaisya c. Kshatriya d. Vaiswik

Q. 3 Which was the first team to win Football World Cup?

a. Uruguay b. Brazil c. Germany d. France

Q. 4 The Red Fort was built by :

a. Akbar b. Shahjahan c. Jahangir d. Sher Shah

Q. 5 Which country hosted 2010 Football world Cup?

a. Libya b. South Africa c. Nigeria d. Cameroon

Q. 6 India and the Netherlands on 30 January 2014 signed Memorandum of Understanding

(MOU) in field of _____________

a. Science b. Sports c. Defense d. Medical

Q. 7 What was the real name of Chanakya?

a. Bishnu Gupta b. Ramtanu Mishra c. Kautilya d. Vishisht

Q. 8 What was the time period of Indus Civilization / Harappan Civilization?

a. 2400 BC - 1700 BC b. 2400 BC - 1750 BC

c. 2500 BC - 1700 BC d. 2500 BC - 1750 BC

Q. 9 Who is minister of Women and Child Development of India?

a. Smt. Sushma Swaraj b. Smt. Smriti Irani

c. Smt. Najma Heptulla d. Smt. Menka Gandhi

Q. 10 What is the current quota of subsidized LPG cylinders per household in a year in India?

a. 10 b. 8 c. 9 d. 12

Q. 11 The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok Sabha is

a. 25 years b. 21 years c. 18 years d. 35 years

Q. 12 The Sarvodaya Movement was initiated by

a. Mahatma Gandhi b. J P Narayan c. Vinoba Bhave d. Bhagat Singh

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 13 The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on
the river

a. Ganga b. Cauvery c. Narmada d. Godavari

Q. 14 Ricky Ponting is also known as _

a. The Rickster b. Ponts c. Ponter d. Punter

Q. 15 The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called

a. the palghat gap b. the Bhorghat pass c. the Thalgat pass d. the Bolan pass

Q. 16 Who among the following established the "Sadar Diwani Adalat"?

a. Warren Hastings b. Cornwallis c. John Macpherson d. Wellesley

Q. 17 India won its first Olympic hockey gold in __________

a. 1928 b. 1932 c. 1936 d. 1948

Q. 18 The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in
India?

a. coconut b. Groundnut c. Linseed d. Mustard

Q. 19 Which was the 1st nonTest playing country to beat India in an international match?

a. Canada b. Sri Lanka c. Zimbabwe d. East Africa

Q. 20 Who was awarded as Best Director award at the 58th Film Fair Awards-2013?

a. Sujoy Ghosh b. Anurag Kashyap c. Karan Johar d. Gulzar

Q. 21 Which of the following provisions of the constitution did not come into force on
November 26, 1949?

a. Provisions relating to citizenship b. Provisions relating to elections

c. Fundamental rights d. None of them

Q. 22 The oldest oil field in India is the field, in

a. Ankleshwar, Gujarat b. Bombay High, Maharashtra

c. Nawagam, Gujarat d. Digboi, Assam

Q. 23 Who is the first Indian woman to win an Asian Games gold in 400m run?

a. M. L. Valsamma b. P. T. Usha c. Kamaljit Sandhu d. K. Malleshwari

Q. 24 The Capital of Mizoram is.

a. Aizawl b. Shillong c. Imphal d. Kohima

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Sample Question Papers SET 6 NEST JUNIOR SCHOLARSHIPS TEST

Q. 25 Study of the Universe is known as?

a. Sociology b. Cosmology c. Universology d. Petrology

ANSWER KEY TO SECTION-V GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A.

1 C 6 B 11 A 16 B 21 C
2 D 7 C 12 C 17 A 22 D
3 A 8 D 13 D 18 B 23 C
4 B 9 D 14 D 19 B 24 A
5 B 10 D 15 A 20 A 25 B

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