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Answers & Solutions: NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20

(2) 5 The document provides instructions for candidates taking the NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20 examination. It outlines 10 (3) 7 key points: (4) None of these 1. Use blue/black pen only, there is no negative marking Answer (4) 2. The test has 2 parts - MAT and SAT with 100 questions each 3. The test booklet contains 200 questions of 1 mark each Sol. None of these 4. Darken the correct answer on the OMR sheet 5. Do not scratch/alter answers once marked 6. A separate sheet is provided for rough work 20. How many rural male civil
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
129 views27 pages

Answers & Solutions: NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20

(2) 5 The document provides instructions for candidates taking the NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20 examination. It outlines 10 (3) 7 key points: (4) None of these 1. Use blue/black pen only, there is no negative marking Answer (4) 2. The test has 2 parts - MAT and SAT with 100 questions each 3. The test booklet contains 200 questions of 1 mark each Sol. None of these 4. Darken the correct answer on the OMR sheet 5. Do not scratch/alter answers once marked 6. A separate sheet is provided for rough work 20. How many rural male civil
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 27

Date : 03/11/2019 Test Booklet Code

E
TELANGANA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions


for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only. There is no negative marking.

2. Part I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions

Part II : SAT : 1 - 100 questions

3. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.

4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR SHEET with
blue/black ballpoint pen.

Example :

Q. No. Alternatives
Correct way : 1 1 2 1 4
Q. No. Alternatives
Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.

5. Students are not allowed to scratch / alter / change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using white
fluid / eraser / blade / tearing / wearing or in any other form.

6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

7. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.

8. Darken completely the ovals of your answer on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular paper.

9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries may render
your OMR Sheet invalid.

10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc, is strictly prohibited.

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)


Directions (Q.1 to Q5) : In the Number series given 7. ab _ _ _ b _ bbaa _
below, one Number is missing. Each series is followed
(1) abaab (2) abbab
by 4 alternatives (1), (2), (3), (4). One of them is the
right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the (3) baaab (4) babba
“Instructions”. Answer (3)
1. 6, 28, 120, 496, …. Sol. baaab
(1) 1035 (2) 2016
8. _ baa _ aab _ a _ a
(3) 2019 (4) 1234
Answer (2) (1) aabb (2) aaba

6, 28, 120, 496, 2016 (3) abab (4) baab


Sol.
×4+4 ×4+8 ×4+16 ×4+32 Answer (3)
2. 1, 5, 15, 34, 65, …. Sol. abab
(1) 111 (2) 76
(3) 87 (4) 104 9. _ _ babbbaa _ a _ _
Answer (1) (1) ababb (2) baaab
1, 5, 15, 34, 65, 111 (3) bbaba (4) babbb
Sol. 4 10 19 31 46
1 Answer (1 or 3)
6 9 12 15
3. 1, 43, 161, 407, … Sol. ababb or bbaba
(1) 745 (2) 614 10. _ op _ mo _ n _ _ pnmop _
(3) 829 (4) 725
(1) mnpmon (2) mpnmop
Answer ()
Sol. Given series is incorrect, (3) mnompn (4) mnpomn
if series would be 5, 43, 161, 407, … Answer (1)
(13+22, 3 3 + 4 2 , 5 3 + 62, 7 3 + 8 2, 9 3+102)
5 43 161 407 829 Sol. Mnpmon
Then answer will be option (3) Directions (Q.11 to Q.15) : In the following alphabet
4. 7, 31, 211, 2311 series, a term is missing as shown by Question mark
(1) 12 (2) 18641 (?). Choose the missing term from options.
(3) 20141 (4) 30031
11. eac, gce, ieg, ?
Answer (4)
× 5– 4 ×7 –6 1 –10 13– 12 (1) jhi (2) jgi
Sol. 7, 31, 211, 2311, 30031
(3) kgi (4) khi
5. 5, 23, 72, …. Answer (3)
(1) 181 (2) 175 +2
+2
(3) 96 (4) 124 +2

Answer (1) 1 3 5 7
Sol. e a c, g c e, i e g, k g i
Sol. (2+3), (5+7+11), (13+17+19+23), 3 7 5 9 7 11 9
5
(29+31+37+41+43) +2
+2 +2
Directions (Q.6 to Q.10) : In each of the following +2 +2 +2

Questions, a letter series is given in which some letters 12. ejo, tyd, ins, xch, ?
are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper
(1) nrw (2) mrw
sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct
alternative. (3) msx (4) nsx
6. _ _ aba _ _ ba _ ab Answer (2)
(1) abbba (2) abbab +15 +15 +15
+15
(3) baabb (4) bbaba
Answer (2) Sol.
e j o, t y d, I n s, x c h, m r w
Sol. abbab

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

13. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13,? 18. How many urban male PhD civil servants are
(1) 27U24 (2) 47U15 there ?

(3) 45U15 (4) 47V14 (1) 10 (2) 8


(3) 13 (4) None of these
Answer (2)
+5 +7 +9 +11 +13 Answer (4)
Sol. 2 Z 5, 7 Y 7, 14 X 9, 23 W 11, 34 V 13, 47 U 15 Sol. None of these
26 25 24 23 22 21

+2 +2 +2
19. How many urban female civil servants are there ?
+2 +2
(1) 3 (2) 2
14. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17,?
(3) 7 (4) 15
(1) 36I19 (2) 48J21
Answer (2)
(3) 36J21 (4) 48J23
Sol. 2
Answer (4)
×2 ×3 ×4
20. How many urban male PhD are there ?
(1) 15 (2) 13
Sol. 2 A 11, 4 D 13, 12 G 17, 48 J 23
1 4 7 10 (3) 39 (4) None of these
+2 +4 +6 Answer (2)
15. C4X, F9U, I16R, ? Sol. 13
(1) K25P (2) L25P Directions (Q.21 to Q.25): In each of the following
(3) L25O (4) L27P Questions, the two expressions on either side of sign
Answer (3) (=) will have the same value. If two terms on either side
+3 +3 +3
or on the same side are interchanged, the correct
terms to be interchanged have been given as one of
Sol. C 4 X, F 9 U, I 16 R, L 25 O 2 the alternatives under the expressions. Find the
2
2
32 42 5

–3 –3 –3
correct alternative in each case.
Directions (Q.16 to Q.20) : Observe the diagram 21. 5 + 3 × 6 – 4  2 = 4 × 3 – 10  2 + 7
carefully and then answer the following Questions. (1) 4, 7 (2) 5, 7
Here, rectangle represents males, triangle represents (3) 6, 4 (4) 6, 10
the people who did PhD, circle represents Urban and Answer (3)
square represents civil servants.
Sol. 5 + 3 × 4 – 6  2 = 4 × 3 – 10  2 + 7
3 22. 7 × 2 – 3 + 8  4 = 5 + 6 × 2 – 24  3
2 7
9 8 5
(1) 2, 6 (2) 6, 5
6 13 4
(3) 3, 24 (4) 7, 6
11 Answer (4)
15
Sol. 6 × 2 – 3 + 8  4 = 5 + 7 × 2 – 24  3
16. How many urban male civil servants are there? 23. 15 + 3 × 4 – 8  2 = 8 × 5 + 16  2 - 1
(1) 8 (2) 26 (1) 3, 5 (2) 15, 5
(3) 11 (4) 39 (3) 15, 16 (4) 3, 1
Answer (1) Answer (1)
Sol. 8 Sol. 15 + 5 × 4 – 8  2 = 8 × 3 + 16  2 - 1
17. How many female PhD are there? 24. 6 × 3 + 8  2 – 1 = 9 – 8  4 + 5 × 2
(1) 39 (2) 11 (1) 3, 4 (2) 3, 5
(3) 15 (4) 26 (3) 6, 9 (4) 9, 5
Answer (3) Answer (4)
Sol. 15 Sol. 6 × 3 + 8  2 – 1 = 5 – 8  4 + 9 × 2

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

25. 8  2 × (–11) + 9 = 6 × 2 – 5 + 4  2 30. 9 17 16


(1) 5, 9 (2) 8, 5 5 4 8
(3) 9, 6 (4) 11, 5 5 4 ?
Answer () 9 17 8

Sol. No option is correct (1) 5 (2) 4


Directions (Q.26 to Q.30) : In this type of Questions, (3) 8 (4) 6
a figure or-a matrix is given in which some numbers
Answer (2)
are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank with
Question mark. Find out which number will replace the Sol. 16/8= 8/4
Question mark (?) from given options. Directions (Q.31 to Q.35) : Arrange the words given
below in a meaningful sequence and choose correct
6 4 7 9 6 5
26. answer from the 4 options.
20 8 26 8 ? 12
31. 1.Key, 2. Door, 3. Lock, 4 Room, 5. Switch on.
(1) 23 (2) 25
(1) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (2) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
(3) 18 (4) 22
(3) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer (2)
Sol. 6+4+8+2= 20, 7+9+8+2=26, 6+5+12+2=25 Answer (3)
Sol. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
7 6 5 4 7 3
27. 45 26 ? 32. 1.Word, 2.Paragraph, 3.Sentence , 4.Letters,
3 6 8 5.Phrase.
(1) 29 (2) 42 (1) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 (2) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(3) 36 (4) 28 (3) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 (4) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. 7×6+3=45, 5×4+6=26, 7×3+8=29
Sol. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
9 8 6 7 9 9
33. 1.Police, 2.Punishment, 3.Crime, 4.Judge,
5.Judgement
28. 230 110 ?
(1) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (2) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

7 6 4 (3) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (4) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
3 5 4
(1) 186 (2) 175 Answer (4)
(3) 158 (4) 211 Sol. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Answer (3) 34. 1.Family, 2.Community, 3.Member, 4.Locality,
2 2 2 2
Sol. 9 +8 +7 +6 = 230, 6 +7 +4 +3 = 110, 2 2 2 2 5.Country.
92+62+52+42 = 158 (1) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (2) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
(3) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (4) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
3 8
4 5 Answer (1)
49 169
29. Sol. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
10 ? 529 11
35. 1.Poverty, 2.Population, 3.Death,
9 12 4.Unemployment, 5.Disease.

(1) 441 (2) 324 (1) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (2) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1


(3) 462 (4) 361 (3) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer (4) Answer (3)
2
Sol. (10+9) = 361 Sol. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Directions (Q.36 to Q.40) : Find out the relationship 42. In a given code, SISTER is coded as 535301.
between the first two words and choose the word from UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How is
the given alternative, which bears the same RUSTIC written in the code ?
relationship to the third word, as the first two bear. (1) 633185 (2) 185336
36. Funk : Vitamins :: Curie : ? (3) 363815 (4) 581363
(1) Uranium (2) Radium Answer (2)
(3) Radioactivity (4) Photography Sol. 185336
Answer (2) 43. In a certain code, LONG is written as 5123 and
Sol. Radium GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in
that code ?
37. Virology : Virus :: Semantics : ?
(1) 5427 (2) 5247
(1) Amoeba (2) Language
(3) 5847 (4) 5237
(3) Nature (4) Society
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
Sol. 5427
Sol. Language 44. In a certain code, READ is written as #5%6 and
38. Pituitary : Brain :: Thymus : ? PAID is written as $%46. How is RIPE written in
(1) Larynx (2) Spinal Cord that code ?
(1) #4$5 (2) #6$5
(3) Throat (4) Chest
(3) $4#5 (4) $4#6
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Sol. Chest
Sol. #4$5
39. Vine : Grapes :: Poppy : ?
45. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRIV How
(1) Opium (2) Tobacco can CENTRAL be written in that code ?
(3) Pears (4) Pineapple (1) DFOUSBM (2) GIRXVEP
Answer (1) (3) GNFJKER (4) None of these.
Sol. Opium Answer (2)
40. Karnataka: Gold Sol. GIRXVEP
:: Madhya Pradesh:? Directions (Q.46 to Q.49) : In each of the following
(1) Diamond (2) Iron Questions, four words are given. Which one of them
will come in the third position, if all of them are
(3) Copper (4) Gems arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary?
Answer (1) 46. 1. Bishop 2. Bifocal
Sol. Diamond 3. Bicycle 4. Bitter
(1) Bishop (2) Bicycle
Directions (Q.41 to Q.45) : In these Questions, one
word is coded according to a particular pattern and the (3) Bifocal (4) Bitter
candidate is asked to give the code letters for the Answer (1)
another word following the same pattern.
Sol. Bishop
41. In a certain code, LAWN is written as JCUP. How
47. 1. Parasite 2. Party
will SLIT be coded in that code?
3. Petal 4. Paste
(1) QNGV (2) QJGV (1) Party (2) Paste
(3) QNVG (4) NJGV (3) Parasite (4) Petal
Answer (1) Answer (2)
Sol. QNGV Sol. Paste

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

48. 1. Research 2. Rational 55. Monday, Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday


3. Round 4. Rustic (1) Monday
(1) Rational (2) Research
(2) Tuesday
(3) Round (4) Rustic
(3) Thursday
Answer (3)
Sol. Round (4) Saturday

49. 1. Nature 2. Native Answer (1)


3. Narrate 4. Diastole Sol. All are even number of day’s except-1
(1) Native (2) Nature
Directions (Q.56 to Q.60) :
(3) Narrate (4) Diastole
56. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
Answer (1)
relation between Hockey, Football and Cricket?
Sol. Native
Directions (Q.50 to Q.55): From the given five groups
of letters, four of them are similar to each other in some (1) (2)
manner, while one is different and this is to be choosen
from the four alternative answers.
50. DE, PQ, TU, MO, FG (3) (4)
(1) DE (2) PQ
(3) TU (4) MO Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Sol. No Relation option -2
Sol. MO
57. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
51. XW, FG, ML, PO, TS
relation between Iron, Lead and Nitrogen?
(1) XW (2) FG
(3) ML (4) PO
(1) (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. All follows Letter-1 except option-2
52. BD, MP, NQ, HK, TW
(3) (4)
(1) BD (2) MP
(3) NQ (4) HK
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Sol. No Relation option-2
Sol. All follows Letter+3 except option-1
53. AE, AI, IO, EI, OU 58. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best
relation between Moon, Sun and Earth?
(1) AE (2) AI
(3) IO (4) EI
Answer (2) (1) (2)

Sol. All follows consecutive vowels except-2


54. KP, MN, HR, GT, EV
(1) KP (2) MN (3) (4)
(3) HR (4) GT
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. All are opposite pairs except option-3 Sol. No Relation Option-3

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

59. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best 63. Find the number of straight lines required to make
relationship between Hospital, Nurse and the given figure
Patient?

(1) (2)

(1) 13 (2) 15
(3) 17 (4) 19
(3) (4)
Answer (1)
64. The number of triangles in the given figure
Answer (3)

60. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best


relationship between Mercury, Zinc and Metal?

(1) (2) (1) 22 (2) 24


(3) 26 (4) 28
Answer (4)
(3) (4) 65. The number of triangles in the given figure.

Answer (2)

Directions (Q.61 to Q.65): These Questions are based on (1) 8 (2) 10


analytical reasoning. (3) 12 (4) 14
61. Find the minimum number of straight lines Answer (4)
required to make the given figure. Directions (Q.66 to Q.70) : Each of the following
Questions consists of a set of three figures X, Y
and Z showing a sequence of folding of a piece of
paper. Figure (Z) shows the manner in which the
folded paper has been cut. These three figures
are followed by four answer figures from which
you have to choose a figure which would mostly
(1) 16 (2) 17 closely resemble the unfolded form of figure (Z).
(3) 18 (4) 19 66.
Answer (2)
X Y Z
62. The number of triangles in the figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)


(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 12 (2) 13
Answer (1)
(3) 14 (4) 15 Sol. When un folded top left corner and bottom right
Answer (4) corner have two circles

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Directions (Q.71 to Q.75): In each of the following


67.
questions, choose the correct mirror images of the
X Y Z given fig. (X) from amongst the four alternatives (1),
(2), (3), (4) given along with it. Mirror is placed right to
each figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4) 71.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (3)

68.

X Y Z
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2
72.
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (4)

69.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2
73.
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (2)

70.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) 4
Answer (3) Answer (1)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

77.
74.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) a (2) b
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) c (4) d
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
75. 78.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (2) (1) a (2) b
Directions (Q.76 to Q.80): The reflection of an object (3) c (4) d
as seen in water is called its water image. It is the Answer (2)
inverted image. Find the water image of the figure (X)
from the four alternative answers.
79.
76.

(1) a
(1) a
(2) b
(2) b
(3) c (3) c

(4) d (4) d
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

80. 83.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (1)

84.

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (3)
(1) a (2) b
Sol. Dot is between arrow and Dot except-3
(3) c (4) d
Answer (2)
85.
Directions (Q.81 to Q.85) : In each of the following
questions, choose the figure which is different from the
rest.
81. (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer ()
Sol. Option (2) & (4) both are correct.
(2) No of lines in outer figure is one less then
(1) 1
inner figure except-2
(2) 2
(4) Sum of sides of given polygons is a prime
(3) 3 number except in option (4)
(4) 4
Directions (Q.86 to Q.90) :
Answer (3)
86. How many points will be on the face opposite to
Sol. No equal distribution in option-3 face, which contains 2 points ?

82.

(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 5
(3) 3 (3) 4
(4) 4 (4) 6
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. Unshaded portion is 2:1 (in and out) except-1

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Sol. In first two position of dice one number is


common, when we taken in clock wise direction
we get 5,3,2
1 46
87. Which number is on the face opposite to 6 ? (1) D (2) B
(3) C (4) F
Answer ()
Sol. In 1 & 4 position of dice one number is common,
when we taken in clock wise direction
(1) 4 (2) 1
we get F A B
(3) 2 (4) 5
Answer (2) E C D

Sol. In 1 & 3 position of dice one number is common, In 1 & 2 position of dice one number is common,
when we taken in clock wise direction we get when we taken in clock wise direction
6,2,3
we get A B F
154
D E C
88. Two positions of a dice are shown below. When
number ‘1’ is on the top, what number will be at Hence, option (1) & (3) are correct.
the bottom? Directions (Q.91 to Q.95) : Each of the following
questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D
and E called the problem figures; followed by five
other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the answer
figures. Select a figure which will continue the same
(1) 3 (2) 5 series as established by the five problem figures
(3) 2 (4) 6 91. Problem figures
Answer (2)
Sol. In 1 & 2 position of dice two numbers are
common, we get 1 opposite 5
89. Here 4 positions of a cube are shown. Which sign
will be opposite to ‘+’ ?

(1) % (2) –
(3) x (4) $ (1) 1 (2) 2
Answer (3) (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. In 2 & 4 position of dice one number is common, Answer (2)
when we taken in clock wise direction
92. Problem figures
we get O X –
$ + %
90. The position of a cube are shown below. Which
letter will be on the face opposite to face with A?

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(1) 1
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3
Answer (3) (4) 4
93. Problem figures Answer (4)

Directions (Q.96 to Q.100) : Each of the following


questions consists of two sets of figures. There is a
definite relationship between figures A and B.
Establish a similar relationship between figures C and
D by selecting suitable figure from the answer set.

96. Problem figures

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (3)
94. Problem figures

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

(1) 1 (2) 2 Answer (1)


(3) 3 (4) 4
97. Problem figures
Answer (3)
95. Problem figures

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(1) 2 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 5

(3) 5 (3) 2

(4) 4 (4) 3

Answer (3) Answer (2)


100. Problem figures
98. Problem figures

(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 1
(1) 1
Answer (1)
99. Problem figures (2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer (4)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)


1. The speed of light in diamond is 1,24,000 km/sec. If Gm1m2 Gx10kg x 10kg
Sol. F    Gx10 4 N
the speed of light in air is 3,00,000 km/sec., then the
 
2 2
r 
10 m1

refractive index of diamond will be...


(1) 1.49 (2) 2.42 5. If the acceleration of a moving object is constant,
then the motion is said to be
(3) 2.25 (4) None
(1) Constant speed (2) Uniform acceleration
Answer (2)
Sol. Refractive index of diamond (3) Uniform velocity (4) Instantaneous velocity
Answer (2)
c 3,00,000 km/s
= =  2.42 Sol. Acceleration is constant
Vd 1,24,000 km/s
 Uniform acceleration
2. Which of the following is Snell’s law ?
6. Which of the following converts Mechanical energy
sin r n1 sin r
(1) n1 sin i  (2)  into Electrical energy ?
n2 n2 sin i
(1) Motor (2) Battery
n sin r
(3) 2  (4) n2 sin i  constant (3) Generator (4) Switch
n1 sin i
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Generator converts mechanical energy into
Sol. Snell’s law n1 sin i  n2 sin r electrical energy.
n1 sin r 7. Symbol for resistance.

n2 sin i
(1) (2)
3. A car moves with constant speed of 10 m/s in a
circular path of radius 10 m. If the mass of the car is
1000 kg, then the centripetal force for the car is..
(3) (4)
(1) 10 4 N (2) 10 6 N
5 Answer (3)
(3) 10 N (4) None
Sol. Symbol of resistance
Answer (1)

mv 2 1000kg x 10 m/s 


2

Sol. F    10 4 N
R 10 m 8. If the bulb have 100 W and 220 V, then the
4. Two spherical balls of mass 10 kg each are placed resistance of the bulb is ...
with their centres 10 cm apart, then the gravitational (1) 284  (2) 384 
force of attraction between them (3) 484  (4) None
2
(1) G10 N Answer (3)

V 2  220 V 
4 2
(2) G10 N Sol. R    484 
P 100
6
(3) G10 N
9. If the focal length is +ve, then the lens is...
(4) None (1) Concave
Answer (2) (2) Convex
(3) Plane
(4) None
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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Answer (2) 2.5


  100
Sol. Focal length of convex lens is positive 50
10. Size of image formed by a convex mirror is  5%
always … 15. If the quantity of solute is more in a solution, then the
(1) enlarged solution is said to be

(2) diminished (1) Saturated solution

(3) equal to the size of the object (2) Dilute solution

(4) None (3) Concentrated solution


(4) Unsaturated solution
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. Convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and
diminished image for a real object. Sol. If the quantity of solute is more in solution then the
solution is said to be concentrated solution.
11. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its
motion is called. 16. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be-
(1) Potential energy (2) Kinetic energy (1) 1 (2) 4
(3) Gravitational energy (4) None (3) 5 (4) 10
Answer (2) Answer (4)
Sol. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its Sol. A Solution turns Red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
motion is called kinetic energy. = 10(i.e, Basic solution)
12. S.I., unit of work.  pH value of basic solutions is 7 to 14

(1) N  m (2) Kg-m 17. The quantum number which explains about size
and energy of the orbit or shell is
(3) N/m (4) N  m2
(1) n (2) l
Answer (1)
(3) ml (4) ms
Sol. S.I unit of work is N-m
Answer (1)
13. A boy pushes a book kept on a table by applying a
Sol. Size and energy of orbit (or) shell is explained by
force of 4.5 N. Find the work done by the force, if
Principal quantum number
the book is displaced through 30 cm along the
direction of push. i.e, Represented by ‘n’
(1) 1.10 J (2) 1.25 J 18. Number of elements present in period-2 of the long
form of periodic table.
(3) 1.35 J (4) None
(1) 2 (2) 8
Answer (3)
(3) 18 (4) 32
Sol. W  FxS Answer (2)
 4.5 N  0.3 m  1.35 J Sol. Number of elements present in period-2 of the long
form of periodic table is ‘8’
14. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by
19. Number of covalent bonds in Methane molecules.
volume percentage of the solution, containing 2.5 g
Potassium chloride in 50 ml of KCl solution. (1) 1 (2) 2

(1) 2% (2) 10% (3) 3 (4) 4

(3) 4% (4) 5% Answer (4)


Sol. No. of covalent bonds in methane CH4 molecule
Answer (4)
Structure of methane (CH4) :
 Mass  Massof Solute(g)
Sol.  %   100
 Volume  Volumeof Solution(ml)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

H Electronic Configuration =2, 8


Valency = 8 – Valence electrons
H C H
=8–8
H =0
 Numberof covalentbonds  4  Valency = 0

20. Chemical formula for Calcium sulphate 25. Latent heat of Vapourisation of water
hemihydrate is (1) 540 (2) 90
(1) CaSO4 (2) CaSO4.2H2O (3) 80 (4) 100
1 Answer (1)
(3) CaSO 4 . H2 O (4) None
2 Sol. Latent heat of vapourisation of water is
Answer (3) 539 cal/g [~540]
 1 26. Bleaching powder is represented by formula
Sol. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is  hemi  
 2
(1) NaHCO3 (2) Na2CO3
1 (3) CaOCl2 (4) None
CaSO4 . H2 O Plasterof Paris 
2
Answer (3)
21. Law of conservation of mass was proposed by
Sol. Bleaching powder is represented by CaOCl2
(1) Lavoisier (2) Proust
(i.e, calcium oxychloride)
(3) Dalton (4) None
27. There is a very yellow dust which comes away on
Answer (1)
fingers whenever we touch the middle of the flower.
Sol. Law of conservation of mass was proposed by These tiny yellow grains are one of the most
Antone Laurent Lavoisier precious substances in nature because they contain
22. Valency of Aluminium is the secret of plant life. What is the dust called?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) Pollen (2) Sperm

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) Spore (4) Sporocyst


Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. Atomic number (z) of Al = 13 Sol. Pollen grains are male gametes
Electronic Configuration =2, 8, 3 28. Preparation of soil helps the soil to turn and loosen.
 Valency = +3 or 3 This turning and loosening of soil is necessary as-
(1) The loose soil helps roots to breathe easily.
23. The sum of the number of Protons and Neutrons in
an atom is known as its (2) The loose soil helps in the growth of
earthworms and microbes present in the soil
(1) Mass number (2) Atomic number
(3) Nutrients held in the dead organisms are
(3) Valency (4) None released back to the soil
Answer (1) (4) All the above
Sol. Mass number (A) = n + P Answer (4)
(n = neutrons, P = protons) Sol. Tilling of soil
24. The valency of Neon is 29. The species of plant or animal which is found
(1) 2 (2) 6 exclusively in particular area and is not found
naturally anywhere else is known as-
(3) 2 and 6 (4) 0
(1) Endemic species
Answer (4)
Sol. Atomic number (z) of Ne = 10 (2) Epidemic species

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(3) Endomorphic species (2) Both Statements-I and II are true, Statement-II
is not the correct explanation of Statement-I
(4) Entomorphic species
(3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
Answer (1)
(4) Both Statements-I and II are false
Sol. Endemic species is found exclusively in
Answer (2)
particular area
Sol. Male sperms contain either X or Y chromosome
30. Chipko movement (1974) was started in. ….. while ova always contain X chromosome
(1) Chamoli district of Uttarakhand 34. Why will marine organisms be affected, when there
(2) Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh is an oil spillage at Sea?

(3) Jorhat district of Assam (1) There will be a shortage of light and heat in the
water
(4) Kannur district of Kerala
(2) There will be a shortage of Oxygen and
Answer (1) excessive heat will be trapped in the water.
Sol. Conceptual (3) There will be a shortage of Oxygen and the
31. Which of the following matches is incorrect? chemicals in the oil will affect marine organisms

Organelle Presence (4) All the above are the correct reasons.
Answer (4)
(1) Ribosome Plant and Animal Cell.
Sol. Oil spillage leads to formation of oil layer on water
(2) Mitochondria Animal cell only.
leading to lack of O2, shortage of light and heat
(3) Chloroplast Plant cell only.
which affects the living organisms in the water.
(4) All of the above. 35. Which of the following describes Moulting?
Answer (2) (1) The Resting stage in the life cycle of a Silkworm.
Sol. Mitochondria Present in both Animal and plant cells (2) Change in appearance during the different
32. Which of the following is incorrect about Dolly, the stages in the life cycle of a Silkworm.
clone? (3) Spinning of Cocoon.
(1) It was cloned by Ian Wilmut and his colleagues. (4) Casting off old skin
(2) During the process of its cloning, the cell was Answer (4)
collected from the udder of a female Finn Sol. Ecdysis – shedding of skin.
Dorset sheep. 36. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
(3) It died its natural death correct option from the codes given below.
(4) It was given birth by the Scottish Blackface Column-I Column-II
ewe. (A) Ribosomes (i) Jelly like substance.
Answer (3) (B) Lysosomes (ii) Power house of the
Sol. Dolly died due to pneumonia Cell.
(C) Endoplasmic (iii) Site of Protein
33. Read the given statements and select the correct
Reticulum synthesis.
option.
(D) Cytoplasm (iv) Transporting Tubules.
Statement-I : In humans, the gamete contributed by
(E) Mitochondria (v) Suicide Bags.
the male determines whether the child produced will
be the male or female. (1) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(ii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii)
Statement-II : Sex in humans is dependant on the
X-chromosome or Y-chromosome of the father. (3) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iv), E-(ii)
(1) Both Statement-I and II are true and Statement-II (4) A-(iv),B-(v), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(iii)
is the correct explanation of Statement-I Answer (1)
Sol. Conceptual

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

37. Which of the following is incorrect match? (1) 5 (2) 10


(1) Alexander Fleming – Penicillin. (3) 8 (4) 7
(2) Louis Pasteur – Fermentation. Answer (4)
Sol. 52.54.56.....52 x   0.04 
28
(3) Edward Jenner – Vaccination.
(4) Karl Landsteiner – Tissue Culture. 28
 1 
Answer (4) 5 2  4  6 .... 2 x   
 25 
Sol. Karl Landsteiner – ABO Blood grouping
5
2 1 2  3 ...  x 
38. Select the incorrect statement regarding AIDS.  5 56

(1) It is an immune - deficiency disease.  1  2  3  ....  x  28


(2) HIV virus has RNA as its genetic material. x  x  1
(3) HIV positive mother can give birth to HIV  28
2
positive baby.
(4) The time lag between the infection and x  x  1  56
appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from
x 2  x  56  0
week to month.
Answer (4)  x  8  x  7   0
Sol. In AIDS Incubation period is six months to 10 years x 7  x  8 
39. Air pollutants are harmful to living things. Which of
the following is/are their harmful effects? 42. The value of cosec(75 + ) – sec(15 – ) – (tan55 +
(i) This forms acid rain. ) + cot(35 – ) is
(ii) They cause breathing problems in animals. (1) 1 (2) 0
(iii) They cause interface with photosynthesis in 3
plants. (3) 1 (4)
2
(iv) They cause diseases in the respiratory system
Answer (2)
of man and animals.
(1) (i) only. (2) (i) and (ii) only. Sol. cos ec  75     cos ec  90  15   
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii). (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).  tan  55    tan  90   35   
Answer (4)
Sol. Conceptual  cos ec  75     cos ec  75   
40. Match the following.  tan  55     tan  55   
(A) Oviparous (i) Tadpole of Adult =0
(B) Metamorphosis (ii) Birds
43. The average age of three girls is 15 years. If their
(C) Embryo (iii) Fertilization outside ages are in the ratio 3:5:7, then the age of the
the body youngest girl among them is ...
(D) External (iv) Developed Zygote. (1) 12 years (2) 10 years
Fertilization
(3) 9 years (4) 8 years
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Answer (3)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) Sol. As per the question
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) x1 : x2 : x3  3 : 5 : 7
Answer (1)  x1  3K , x2  5K , x3  7K
Sol. Conceptual
Average age of 3 girls = 15 years
41. The value of satisfying the equation 52.54.56 ...52x =
(0.04)–28 is ....

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

x1  x2  x3 Answer (3)
  15
3 Sol.
4 cm
 x1  x2  x3  45
A x B
 3K  5K  7K  45
c m cm
2.5 6.5
 15K  45 O
K = 3
 Ages of girls are 9 years, 15 years, 21 years
 Youngest girl among them is 9 years old
Let the radius of the circle formed by the contact of
44. If a  b  c  0, a 2  b 2  c 2  10 , then the value of
water surface with the ball is ‘x’
a 4  b 4  c 4 is ...
In OAB
(1) 50 (2) 25
OB 2  OA2  AB 2
(3) 75 (4) 100
 6.5   2.5   x 2
2 2
Answer (1)
Sol. Given  a  b  c   0
x 2   6.5    2.5 
2 2

Squaring on both sides  a  b  c   0


2

 6.5    2.5 
2 2
x
a  b  c  2  ab  bc  ac   0
2 2 2

 x  6 cm
a2  b2  c2  2 ab  bc  ac 
x 1
 a 2
 b2  c 2  10  46. If 1
289
 1 , then the value of ' x ' is ...
17
 ab  bc  ac  5 (1) (1) 1 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 35
Again squaring on both sides  ab  bc  ac   25
2

Answer (4)

a2b2  b2c 2  c 2a2  2 ab2c  bc 2a  ca2b  25  x 1
Sol. 1 1
a b  b c  c a  2  abc  a  b  c    25
2 2 2 2 2 2 289 17

a 2 b 2  b 2 c 2  c 2 a 2  0  25  (2) 289  x 18

289 17
 a  b  c  0
Squaring on both sides
Now, a 2  b 2  c 2  10
289  x 324

 
2
Squaring on both sides a  b  c 2 2 2
 100 289 289
 289  x  324

a4  b4  c 4  2 a2b2  b2c 2  c 2a2  100 
x  35
a 4  b 4  c 4  50  100
47. If 3 sin   5 cos   5, then the value of
 a 4  b 4  c 4  50 5sin   3cos  is ....
45. A ball of diameter 13 cm is floating in a pond. If the
(1) 3 (2) 5
top of the ball is 4 cm above the surface of the pond,
then the radius of the circle formed by the contact 1 1
(3) (4)
of water surface with the ball is .... 3 5
(1) 13 cm (2) 6.5 cm Answer (1)
(3) 6 cm (4) 9 cm
Sol. 3 sin   5 cos   5; 5sin   3cos   ?

- 19 -
NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Let 5sin   3cos   x K 2


Squaring on both sides
49. If ‘A’ is the area of triangle with sides 25, 25 and 30
25sin2   9cos2   30sin  cos   x 2 1
units and ‘B’ is the area of triangle with sides 25, 25
Given 3sin   5cons  5 and 40 units, then ...
Again squaring on both sides (1) A = B (2) A < B
(3) A = 3B (4) A = 2B
9sin2   25cos2   30sin .cos   25  2
Answer (1)
(1) + (2) P
Sol.
34 sin2   34cos2   25  x 2

34 1  25  x2
25 25
x 92

x 3 Q R
48. ‘M’ is mid-point of line segment AB of length 8 units. From PQR
S1, S2 are two circles with AM and BM as diameters
b
respectively, The tangent at B meets the tangent A 4a2  b2
4
from A to circle S2 at C. If BC = K 2 , then the value
of ‘K’ is ... 30
= 2500  900
4
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 30
=  40
4
Answer (2)
 300 sq. units
Sol.
C X
K 2
D
K 2
2 cm 25 25

A O O
B
4 cm M 4 cm
Y Z
40
From XYZ
S1 S2
b
In AO ' D B 4a2  b2
4
 AO '   AD2  O ' D 
2 2
40
 2500  1600
62  AD 2  22 4
40
AD  32   30
4
Now, in ABC
 300 sq. units
AC 2  AB 2  BC 2  A=B

   
2 2
32  k 2  82  K 2 50. If P(x) is a quadratic polynomial with P(0) = 6,
P(1) = 1 and P(2) = 0, then the value of P(3) is ...
32  2K 2  2 K 2   
32  64  2K 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
16K  32

- 20 -
NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Answer (3)
 
2
Sol. x  3 2  52 6
Sol. Let p  x   ax  bx  c
2

y  2
2
3 52 6
p 0   6

   5  2 6 5  2 6   5  2 6 
2 2
c 6 x 2  xy  y 2  5  2 6

p 1  1 = 49 + 1 + 49
ab6 1 = 99

 a  b  5  1 53. If a sphere is exactly fitted in a cube, then the ratio


of the volume of cube to volume of the sphere is ....
p 2   0
(1) 9 : 
 4a  2b  6  0
(2) 6 : 
2a  b   3  2 
(3) 3 : 
From (1) & (2)
(4) 2 : 
a2 b  7
Answer (2)
Quadratic polynomial, p  x   2x2  7x  6
Sol.
Now, p  3   2  9   7  3   6

 24  21
=3
51. If a polygon has 44 diagonals, then its number of
sides is ...
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 8 (4) 9
Answer (2)
a
Sol. Let no . of sides of polygon be ‘n’
Let ‘a’ be the side of cube and ‘r’ be radius of sphere
n  n  3  a  2r
 44
2
a
n  n  3   88 2
r
n 2  3n  88  0 volume of cube a3

  3   9  352 volume of sphere 4 3
r
n 3
2
3
3  361 3 a
n 
2 4   r 

3  19 3
n
2
 n  11   8 
4 
3 2 3 2 6
52. If x  , y  , then the value of
3 2 3 2 

x 2  xy  y 2 is...
54. ABCD is a square of side 2 cm. If each vertex as
(1) 49 (2) 78 centre and 1 cm as radius, four circles are drawn,
(3) 98 (4) 99 then the radius of the circle which touches these
Answer (4) four circles externally is ...

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(1) 2 1 (1) 32 (2) 49


(3) 56 (4) 25
(2) 2 1
Answer (3)
(3) 2
Sol. 153  83  73
1
 15    8    7 
3 3 3
(4)
2
Answer (1) If a  b  c  0 , then a3  b3  c 3  3abc

 15    8    7   3 15   8   7 
3 3 3

Sol.
1 1  45  56
D C
1  153  83  73 is completely divisible by 56
1 1
57. If the length of each side of a triangle is increased
r
r by 20% , then the percentage of increase in its area
is ...
1 1
1 (1) 60% (2) 120%
A 1 1 B (3) 80% (4) 44%
Answer (4)
Sol. Let lengths of triangle be a, b, c respectively
Let ‘r’ be the radius of circle which touches all four A  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
circles externally
Now, each length is increased by 20%
Diagonal of square , BD = 2 2
6 6 6
2 2  2  2r  a'  a , b'  b , c '  c
5 5 5
 2  1 r
6
s'  s
 r  2 1 5
55. If A  log 2 log 2 log 4 256  2 log 2, then the value of
2  Increased area, A '  s '  s ' a '  s ' b '  s ' c ' 
A is...
4
(1) 2 (2) 3 6
A '    s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
(3) 7 (4) 5 5
Answer (4) 36
A'  A
Sol. A  log 2 log 2 log 4 256  2 log 2
2 25

A  log2 log2 log4 44  2log 2 2 A ' A


 % Increase in Area =  100
A
A  log2 log 2 4  2 log 1 2
36
22 AA
2  25  100
A  log2 log2 22  log2 2 A
 1
2 11
    100
25
A  log2 2  4log2 2
= 44%
A  1 4
58. a1, a2 , a3 , .... a24 are in Arithmetic progression . If
A=5
a1  a5  a10  a15  a20  a24  225 , then the sum
56. 153  83  73 is completely divisible by.... of its first 24 terms is ...

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(1) 360 (2) 900 = 9 ×111112 + 2 × 11111


(3) 1800 (4) 2700 = 11111 (9×11111 + 2)
Answer (2) = 11111 (99999 + 2)
Sol. a1  a5  a10  a15  a20  a24  225 = 11111 ×100001
 a    a  4d    a  9 d    a  14d   = 1111111111
Sum of digits = 10
 a  19d    a  23d   225
61. Find out the wrong statement about Montesquieu.
 6a  69d  225 (1) He wrote the book “The spirits of the laws”
 2a  23 d  75  1 (2) He proposed a division of power within the
government between the legislative, the
24 executive and the judiciary.
Sum of first 24 terms =  a1  a24  (3) He introduced the division of powers type of
2
Government in United States of America.
 12  2a  23 d  (4) None of the above
Answer (4)
 12  75 
Sol. None of the above
= 900 62. Period of Reign of Terror in France.
59. In  ABC , medians BE and CF measure 9 cm and (1) 1793 to 1794 (2) 1789 to 1791
(3) 1799 to 1805 (4) 1813 to 1817
12 cm respectively, If BE  CF , then area of
Answer (1)
triangle ABC is ....
Sol. 1793 – 1794
(1) 24 cm2 (2) 54 cm2
63. The European country which supported the Monroe
(3) 72 cm2 (4) 108 cm2 Doctrine formulated by James Monroe, the
Answer (3) President of America.
(1) Russia (2) Britain
Sol. A
(3) Poland (4) Turkey
Answer (2)
F 4 3 E
O Sol. Britain
6 8
64. Find out the person who is not related to the
B C unification of Italy.
Given BE  CF (1) Victor Emmanuel II (2) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(3) Count of Cavour (4) Frederick William IV
1 Answer (4)
 ar  BEC    9  8  36 cm2
2 Sol. Frederick William IV
Since ‘BE’ is the median, 65. Who introduced opium into China in the early
sixteenth century ?
ar   ABC   2ar   BEC 
(1) French (2) Portuguese
 72 cm 2 (3) Dutch (4) Italians
Answer (2)
60. If the number  33333   22222 is expressed as a
2
Sol. Portuguese
single decimal number, then the sum of its digits is … 66. Consider the following statements about Cricket.
(1) 10 (2) 15 (a) The first written “laws of Cricket” were drawn up
in 1744.
(3) 20 (4) 25
(b) The world’s first Cricket Club was formed in
Answer (1) Manchester in 1760’s.
(c) The parsis founded the first Indian Cricket Club
Sol.  33333   22222
2

and The Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in


=(3×11111)2 + 2 × 11111 1848.

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(d) India entered the world of Test Cricket in 1932. (3) The Protestant Reformer has greater popular
Which of the following statements given above appeal in rural areas, while in towns the
is/are correct? Catholic Church managed to retain its
(1) a only (2) a and d influence.
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d (4) None of the above
Answer (3) Answer ()
Sol. a, c, d
Sol. No option is correct.
67. Who was the viceroy of India during Civil
72. Which of the following is a part of “April Theses”,
Disobedience movement?
declared by Lenin?
(1) Lord Irwin (2) Lord Chelmsford
(1) Banks be nationalised.
(3) Lord Reading (4) Lord Curzon
(2) Land be transferred to the peasants.
Answer (1)
(3) The war to be brought to a close.
Sol. Lord Irwin
(4) All the above
68. Who wrote several volumes on the London labour
and compiled long lists of those who made a living Answer (4)
from crime in the mid-nineteenth century ? Sol. All the above
(1) Andrew Mearns (2) Charles Dickens 73. “Tebhaga movement” took place in this state.
(3) C.G. Agarkar (4) Henry Mayhew (1) Bengal (2) Punjab
Answer (4) (3) Maharashtra (4) Kerala
Sol. Henry Mayhew Answer (1)
69. The protestant reformer who said “Printing is the Sol. Bengal
ultimate gift of God and greatest one” is
74. Which among the following is not a demand of the
(1) John Calvin Indian Navy Mutiny that took place in 1946?
(2) William Farel (1) Equal pay for white and, Indian soldiers.
(3) Zwingli (2) Withdrawal of Indian troops from Indonesia.
(4) Martin Luther (3) Separate nation for muslims
Answer (4) (4) None of the above
Sol. Martin Luther Answer (3)
70. Find out the wrongly matched. Sol. Separate nation for muslims
(1) Gulamgiri - Jyotiba Phule. 75. Find out the wrongly matched about the formation
(2) Aamar Jiban - Rassundari Devi. of parties in India.
(3) Chhote aur Bade ka sawal - Kashi Baba (1) Indian National Congress - 1885
(4) None of the above. (2) Muslim League – 1906
Answer (4) (3) Hindu Maha Sabha - 1910
Sol. None of the above (4) Communist Party of India - 1925
71. Find out the wrong statement about religious Answer (3)
reformation movement. Sol. Hindu Maha Sabha - 1910
(1) A German monk called Martin Luther started 76. Find out the wrong statement about. western
the movement. cyclonic disturbances.
(2) This movement is also called as Protestant (1) These originate from the Mediterranean sea.
Reformation movement.

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(2) They usually influence the weather of the Answer (3)


North and North western regions of India. Sol. Radial
(3) The rainfall received from these disturbances 81. Find out the highest peak in India among the
is called as Mahawat. It is a boon for the Rabi following.
crop.
(1) Makalu (2) Kamet
(4) None of the above
(3) Kanchenjunga (4) Nanda Devi
Answer (4)
Answer (3)
Sol. None of the above Sol. Kanchenjunga
77. Match the following 82. Which among the following reports introduced the
(A) (B) concept of “Sustainable Development” and
(a) Tropical (i) Grows in Delta region advocated it as a means for resource conservation?

Deciduous forests (ii) Grows upto a (1) Leopold report, 1969.


(2) Brundtland report, 1987.
height of 60 mts.
(3) Sunita Narayan report, 2012.
(b) Tropical (iii) These are the most
Evergreen forests widespread forests of (4) Rome report, 1968.
India. Answer (2)
(c) Mangrove (iv) These are found in Sol. Brundtland report, 1987
Forests North-western part 83. Consider the following statements about soils.
of India.
(a) Red laterite soils in Tamilnadu, Andhra
(d) Thorn forests Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) cashew nut crop.
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (b) Arid soils are generally sandy in texture and
saline in nature.
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks
Answer (4)
in areas of low rainfall
Sol. a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d - iv
(d) Alluvial soils are found in interior part of Deccan
78. Find out the highest and least Sex Ratio recorded plateau.
decades. Which of the statement/s given above is/are
(1) 1901,1991 (2) 1901, 2001 correct ?
(3) 1921,1981 (4) 1911,2011 (1) a only (2) a and b
Answer (1) (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d
Sol. 1901, 1991 Answer (3)
79. Which of the following lake is the result of Tectonic Sol. a, b, c
activity? 84. What causes rainfall on the Coromandel coast in
(1) Chilka lake (2) Sambhar lake the beginning of winters ?
(3) Pulicat lake (4) Wular lake (1) Western cyclonic disturbances.

Answer (4) (2) North-west monsoons.

Sol. Wular Lake (3) South-west monsoons.


(4) North-east monsoons
80. Which one of the following drainage patterns
develop when streams flow in different directions Answer (4)
from a central peak or dome like structure? Sol. North-east Monsoons
(1) Dendritic (2) Trellis 85. Salal project is built on this river
(3) Radial (4) Pinnate (1) Chenab (2) Chambal

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

(3) Damodar (4) Periyar 92. Every person who wishes to contest in election has
Answer (1) to make a legal declaration, giving full details of....
Sol. Chenab (1) Educational qualifications of the candidate
86. The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh are famous for (2) Details of the assets and liabilities of the
candidate and his or her family.
(1) Bauxite (2) Copper
(3) Serious criminal cases pending against the
(3) Manganese (4) Gold
candidate.
Answer (2)
(4) All the above
Sol. Copper
Answer (4)
87. National waterway No-2 joins these two cities.
Sol. All of the above
(1) Allahabad and Haldia
93. Which of the following statements about the
(2) Kolkata and Cuttack
judiciary is false ?
(3) Sadiya and Dhubri
(1) Every law passed by the Parliament needs
(4) Kocchi and Kollam approval of the Supreme court.
Answer (3) (2) Judiciary is independent of the executive.
Sol. Sadiya and Dhubri
(3) Any citizen can approach the court if his/her
88. India’s highest population growth rate is recorded rights are violated.
during this decade.
(4) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against
(1) 1951-1961 (2) 1961-1971
the spirit of the Constitution.
(3) 1971-1981 (4) 1981-1991
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. Every law passed by the parliament needs
Sol. 1981 - 1991
approval of the Supreme court.
89. Thal ghat and Bhor ghat passes are in these
94. Find out the topic which is not in the state list.
mountains
(1) Trade
(1) Eastern ghats (2) Aravali mountains
(3) Satpura mountains (4) Western ghats (2) Agriculture

Answer (4) (3) Police


Sol. Western ghats (4) Communication
90. Which one. of the following is the most wide spread Answer (4)
and most productive category of soil in India? Sol. Communication
(1) Forest soil (2) Laterite soil 95. Which of the following countries consists of two
(3) Alluvial soil (4) Arid soil party system ?
Answer (3) (1) India
Sol. Alluvial soil (2) China
91. Which of the following does not influence the (3) United States of America
making of Indian Constitution?
(4) All the above.
(1) Ideals of French revolution
Answer (3)
(2) Practice of Parliamentary democracy in Britain.
Sol. United States of America
(3) Bill of Rights in U.S.
96. A sweet seller purchased sugar. It is a __ type of
(4) Armed struggle in China
capital.
Answer (4)
(1) Fixed capital (2) Working capital
Sol. Armed struggle in China
(3) Human capital (4) None of the above.
Answer (2)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (TELANGANA)

Sol. Working capital (4) Availability of per capita food grains in India is
97. Which of the following factors contribute more than in Europe.
Globalisation? Answer (4)
(1) Technology. Sol. Availability of per capita food grains in India is more
(2) Economical liberalisation than in Europe
(3) International organisations 99. Chipko movement was started in this part of
Himalayas
(4) All the above
(1) Nepal Himalayas
Answer (4)
(2) Garhwal Himalayas
Sol. All the above
(3) Purvanchal Himalayas
98. Find out the wrong statement. (4) Sikkim Himalayas
(1) The consumption of calories has gone down Answer (2)
between 1983 and 2004 Sol. Garhwal Himalayas
(2) Person availability of food grains has gone 100. Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme was started in the
down between 1991 and 2001. year.
(1) 2000 (2) 2004
(3) Agricultural diversification affect the production
(3) 2007 (4) 2011
of food grains.
Answer (1)
Sol. 2000



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