Prepared by: ADEEL

Quiz No.1

1. Most frequent faults (short circuit) on transmission lines are caused by:
(a) conductors breaking and falling on ground
(b) conductors touching each other due to high winds
(c) flash-over of insulators
(d) external grounded objects touching the HV lines:

2. the most pronounced effect of a short-circuit fault is:

(a) build-up, of current magnitude and collapse of voltage at relay location
(b) drastic reduction in current and increase in voltage
(e) build-up of current having low lagging pf accompanied by drop in voltage
(c) build-up of current having low leading pf accompanied by drop in voltage

3. Statistically the most probable fault. is:

(a) (a) double line to ground
(b) (b) triple line to ground
(f) single line to ground
(c) (d) double line fault
4. The arc resistance is given by the following Warrington formula:
(a) 8750(s + 3ue)/I'4
(b) 8750(3s + we)/I°*
(c) 5780(s/8 + ut) “
(d) 580(s/3 + ut)

5. The least severe fault on a transmission line is:

(a) LLG
(b) LG
(c) LL
(d) L-L-L

6. In practice, the single line to earth fault.on a transmission line takes place between:
(a) over-head ground wire and the conductor at the insulator
(b) conductor and earth below anywhere along the conductor
(c) conductor and tower :
(d) over-head ground wire and the conductor anywhere along the conductor
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7. The most severe fault on a transmission line is:

(a) L-G
(b) L-L-G ,
(c) L-L
(d) LLLG

8. 8. Select the most appropniate attribute of a good protective system:

(a) (a) efficiency
(b) (b) effectiveness
(c) (c) economy .
(d) sensitivity, selectivity and speed, dependability and security

9. 9. Power system protection is provided so that:

(a) faults are prevented
(b) damage subsequent to faults is mitigated
(c) information is relayed
(d) economic operation of power system is achieved

10. 10. When back-up protection operates:

(a) (a) there is wider disruption than when only primary protection operates
(b) (b) there is lesser disruption
(c) (c) there is equal disruption in case of both
(d) (d) there is no disruption

Quiz No. 2
1. Which expression correctly represents the IDMT relay characteristics:
(a) (a) (TMS)(0.41)(PSM!2 ~ 1)
(b) (b) (TMS)(1.4)/(PSM?-2 _ 3)
(c) (PSM)(0.14)/(TMS°.92 _ 1)
(d) d) (TMS)(14.0)/(PSM2-° _ 1)
2. 2. Which is the correct expression for very inverse over current relay characteristics;
(a) (TMs)13.5)(PsM - 1)
(b) TMS)(81.5)/(PSM — 1)
(c) (TMS)(1.35)/(PSM®-°2 — 1)
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(d) (TMS)(135)/(PSM°-l _ 1)

3. 3. Which is the correct expression for extrely inverse characteristics:

(a) (a) (TMS)(8)/(PSM ~ 1)
(b) (TMS)(80)/(PSM? — 1)
(c) (c) (TMS)(800)/(PSM?? -1)
(d) (d) (TMS)(0.8)/(PSM°°8 _ 1)

4. 4. If Zs/Z, ratio is high, it is preferable to use which of the following OC relay:

(a) extremely inverse
(b) IDMT
(c) very inverse
(d) DToc

5. If DTOC relays are used on a radial transmission line, the fault clearing time goes on building up:
(a) towards source
(b) towards middle
(c) towards remote end
(d) is independent of fault location

6. 6. The number of relaying input quantities and the number of settings for an overcurrent relay are:
(a) one input, two settings —
(b) two inputs, one setting
(c) c) one input, one setting
(d) two inputs, two settings

7. 7. In relaying, ‘direction’ refers to the direction of: :

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) reactive power
(d) active power
8. 8. If wattmeter is considered as a directional relay, then its MTA will tee
(a) 90°
(b) 6) zero
(c) 30°
(d) 60
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9. 9. Ideally the physical location of back up protecton amd the principle on which it operates should be
a) same location Same principle
b) same location different Principle
c) different location same principle
d) different loacation different principle

10. 10. Plug setting = 1.5 A Irelay= 9 A for an OC relay The PSM will be
(a) 13.5
(b) 0.16
(c) 1.35
(d) 6.0

Quiz No. 3

1. Probability of faults on which element of power system is highest

(a) generator
(b) Transformer
(c) Transmission line
(d) motor

2. 2. Protection of low voltage system, is from the view point of

(a) continuity of supply
(b) angle stability of the system
(c) speed of protection
(d) voltage stability of the system

3. In a three-phase system the number of shunt. faults possible is: :

(a) 3
(b) 6 ©
(c) 11
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(d) 9
4. the aim of. Reclosing in case of EHV systems is: .
(a) Maintain continuity of supply.
(b) Maintain angle stability of the system
(c) maintain voltage stability of the system
(d) increase speed of protection

5. 5. Which sequence of CB operations indicates successful reclosure:

(a) open > closed
(b) closed > open —> closed open
(c) closed — open :
(d) closed — open — closed

6. 6. At 50 Hz, the time_period of one cycle is: |

(a) 2 ms
(b) 20 ms
(c) 200 ms
(d) 0.2 ms |

7. 7. Assuming that there was a fault in the zone of primary protection, which of the following scenario can be
classified as mal operation of backup protection
(a) both primary and back-up have tripped out their associated CBs
(b) Primary did not operate but back-up has tripped out its CBS
(c) Primary has tripped out its CB and back-up has resetted itself after sensing the fault
(d) neither primary nor back-up protection has operate

8. 8. Which is the correct direction of flow of information = ort Ci

(a) CT/PT > CB.— Relay
(b) Relay re Ke > CPT
(c) CT/PT > Relay > CB
(d) CB > Relay >CT/PT

9. 9. In the Venn diagram shown, H , F and R indicate the a a elena scenarios will state, fault and tripping
characteristics of relay. Which of the following scenario lead to mal operation
.
(a) scenario 1
(b) scenario 2
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(c) scenario 3
(d) scenario 4

10. 10. The aim of reclosing in case of low voltage systems is a

(a) maintain continuity of supply
(b) maintain stability of the system
(c) increase selectivity of protection
(d) economic operation of the power system

Quiz No. 4

1. Pick-up value of an OC relay is the value of current: |

(a) below which the relay picks up
(b) above which the relay picks up
(c) at which the relay picks up
(d) slightly above which the relay picks up
2. 2. Plug setting multiplier (PSM) is defined as:
(a) relay current/plug setting «
(b) plug setting/relay current
(c) relay current x plug setting
(d) 1/plug setting
3. 3. The operating time of an IDMT relay corresponding to PSM = 1 and TMS = 1 will be: ,
(a) 1 s
(b) 3s
(c) Infinite
(d) 30s

4. 4. The operating time for standard IDMT characteristics corresponding to PSM = 10

and TMS = 0.1 will be:
(a) 0.3 s
(b) 3s
(c) 30s
(d) 3 ms
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5. 5. To create torque on the rotor of an induction type relay, we need:

(a) two alternating fluxes shifted in phase as well as in time
(b) single alternating flux
(c) two alternating fluxes in phase with each other
(d) one alternating flux and one DC flux

6. 6. System impedance ratio is defined as:

(a) Zs/ZL
(b) ZL/Zs
(c) Zsurge/ZL
(d) ZL/Zsurge
where Zs = Source impedance, ZL= Line impedance, Zsurge = Surge impedance of the line

7. The pick-up value of an IDMT relay should be based on:

(a) RMS value of fault current

(b) peak value of fault current
(c) average value of fault current
(d) instantaneous value of fault current

8. Assuming purely inductive transmission line, the value of DC offset in fault current will be maximum when fault
takes place at instant when
(a) voltage is passing through positive maximum
(b) voltage is passing through zero
(c) either of the above
(d) voltage is passing through negative maximum

9. DC offset in fault current causes conventional OC relays to:

(a) over-reach
(b) under-reach
(c) reach remains unaffected due to DC offset
(d) sometimes under-reach and sometimes over-reach

10. 10. For a transmission line modelled as a ‘series R-L circuit the expression for fault current is:

Option A in book
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Quiz No. 5

1. The number of input quantities and settings for a directional relay is:
(a) a a single relaying quantity and a single setting _
(b) two relaying quantities and two settings
(c) two relaying quantities and one setting
(d) a single relaying quantity and two settings

2. 2. The tripping direction of a directional relay should be kept as:

(a) always ‘towards’ the local bus
(b) always ‘away’ from the local bus
(c) Can be forward or away depending upon the circumstances

3. In which of the following situations there is no need to provide directional over current protection:

(a) single-end fed, parallel feeder

(b) double-end fed, single feeder
(c) single end fed single feeder
(d) ring main

4. which of the voltage—-current combinations corresponds to the 30° connection:

(a) Ia, Vac
(b) Ia Vca
(c) Ia, Vac+Vbc
(d) Ia,Vac+Vcb
5. which of the voltage-current combinations corresponds to the 60° connection:
(a) Ia, Vab+Vbc
(b) Ia,Vac+Vbc
(c) Ia, Vac
(d) Ia,Vab
6. Which of the voltage—-current combinations corresponds to the 90° connection:
(a) Ia, Vcb
(b) Ia,Vca+Vcb
(c) Ia, Vbc
(d) Ia,Vab
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7. 7. The reach of directional element is: .

(a) @) ideally infinite in tripping direction and zero in non-tripping direction -

(b) ideally up to the end of the line section
(c) extends up to 80% of the line section 1
(d) extends up to 50% in adjacent line section

8. , 8. A wattmeter can be used, in principle, Eall-be

(a) over-current relay (b) directional relay
(c) differential relay (d) distance relay

9. 9. The torque equation of an electromagnetic type directional relay is:

(a) Torque = kIVpcI IIccI cos (theeta- t)

(b) Torque = kIVpcI IIccI sin (theeta- t)

(c) Torque = kIVpcI IIccI cos (Theetha+ T)

(d) Torque = kIVpcI IIccI cos (t- theta)

where V,,. and J,, are the voltage applied to pressure coil and current through the
current coil and @is the angle between Voc and Iq and Tis the MTA.

10. 10. Which of the following scenarios refers to fault behind a directional relay:

(a) voltage is normal in magnitude and current is normal with lagging power factor around 0.8
(b) voltage has collapsed, and current is large in magnitude and leads the voltage by an angle greater than 90°
(c) voltage has collapsed, current is having large magnitude and lags the voltage by an angle close to 90°
(d) voltage has collapsed, and current is large in magnitude and leads the voltage by an angle less than 90°
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Quiz No. 6
1. When current is entering a dotted terminal on the primary of a transformer, on the secondary side, the similarly
dotted terminal will have a current which:

(a) leaves the terminal

(b) enters the terminal
(c) sets up an mmf which aids the mmf due to primary current
(d) sets up an mmf which opposes the mmf due to. primary. current

2. 2. If currents are made to enter the similarly dotted terminals on primary as well as secondary terminals of a two-
winding transformer, then the mmf due to these currents will

(a) oppose each other

(b) aid each other
(c) be at quadrature with each other
(d) will not,interact with each other

3. in differential protection we compare

(a) only magnitude of currents entering and leaving the protected zone
(b) only phase angles of currents entering and leaving the protected zones
(c) both magnitude and phase, i.e. phasors are compared
(d) neither phase nor magnitude is compared

4. 4, Differential protection
(a) is ideally suited for power system elements whose terminals are physically far apart
(b) is ideally suited for power system elements whose terminals are physically quite close, irrespective of voltage
(c) is ideally suited for power system elements whose terminals are physically far apart and at low voltage
(d) is ideally suited for power system elements whose terminals are physically far apart and at high voltage

5. 5. Through-fault is:
(a) an open circuit fault located inside the zone of differential protection
(b) an open circuit fault located outside the zone of differential protection
(c) a short circuit fault located inside the zone of differential protection
(d) a short circuit fault located outside the zone of differential protection
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6. 6. With reference to differential protection, spill current’ is the current:

(a) which flows through the equipment during fault
(b) circulates on the CT secondary side
(c) which is the difference between the currents beeesrareet by all. the CTs connected on all terminals of the
protected equipment
(d) which is the sum of the currents transformed by all the CTs connected on all terminals of the protected
equipment °

7. 7. In simple differential scheme, the OC relay is connected in:

(a) circulating current path, on CT secondary side
(b) spill current path, on CT secondary side
(c) through current path on primary side
(d) across output terminals of any of the CTs

8. 8. Stability ratio of a differential scheme is defined as:

(a) Ifmax/Ifmin
where I,,,4, is the maximum through-fault current up to which the scheme remains
stable and I,,;, is the minimum internal fault current which causes tripping.

9. 9. The slope of percentage biased relay characteristics is ngpeccional to:

(a) Nr/No
where N, and N, are the number of turns or the restraining and operating coils

10. 10. When a CT is saturated, it delivers:

(a) a DC current
(b) a very spiky current, whose rms magnitude is small
(c) zero current
(d) a current at power frequency but with much reduced amplitude
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Quiz No. 7

1. Protection CT operating point on the B-H curve is:

(a) near knee point

(b) well below knee point
(c) beyond knee point )
(d) well beyond knee point
2. 2. Measurement CT operating point on the B-H curve is:
(a) near knee point
(b) well below knee point
(c) beyond knee point’
(d) well beyond knee point

3. During fault, a properly designed measurement CT:

(a) faithfully reproducess fault current
(b) gets saturated and thus saves measurement instrument from damage
(c) does not get saturated
(d) acts as if secondary is open-circuited and thus saves the measuring instrument

4. During fault, protection CT:

(a) faithfully reproduces fault current
(b) gets saturated and saves the relay current coil from damage
(c) does not faithfully reproduce fault current
(d) acts as if secondary is open-circuited and thus saves the current coil of the telay

5. 5. Which of the following figures shows the correct relationship between fluxes produced by primary and secondary
winding, considering the dot markings:
(a) Figure A
6. 6. As the impedance of the burden connected to the CT secondary goes on increasing, assuming that the primary current
is constant:
(a) CT moves towards saturation _
(b) CT moves away from saturation
(c) voltage induced in secondary winding decreases (d) current delivered to the burden increases
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7. For a CT feeding an OC relay:

(a) ratio error is important
(b) phase angle error is important
(c) both are important
(d) either ratio nor phase angle error is important

8. for CTs feeding Mho type distance relay:

(a) ratio error is important
(b) phase angle error is important
(c) both ratio and phase angle errors are important
(d) either ratio nor phase angle error is important

9. 9. For CTs and PTs feeding a directional relay:

(a) only CT phase angle error is important
(b) only PT phase angle error is important
(c) Only phase angle errors of both CT and PT are important
(d) only ratio errors of both CT and PT are important

10. 10. In order to faithfully reproduce fault current of a line with high X/R ratio:
(a) CT area of cross section should be comparatively large
(b) CT area of cross section should be comparatively small
(c) length of magnetic path rather than area of cross section should be large
(d) length of magnetic path rather than area of cross section should be small

Quiz No. 8

1. Magnetizing inrush in case of a transformer takes place:

(a) only during switching off
(b) for every switching on operation -only
(c) both during switching on and switching off during every such operation
(d) only during switching on depending upon switching instant and residual flux

2. 2. The ratio of full-load current to no-load magnetizing current for a well-designed power transformer is of the order
of:
(a) a few tenths
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(b) hundreds
(c) (c) thousands
(d) (d) tens of tHousands

3. 3. Percentage impedance of a transformer is 12%. The current for a three-phase short ircuit on its terminals, assuming
an ideal source, will be:
(a) 8.83 times full-load current ‘
(b) 0.838 times full-load curren
(c) 1.2 times full-load current, -
(d) 12 times full-load current -

4. 4. As seen by differential protection of a transformer the inrush condition appears like:

(a) external fault
(b) internal fault
(c) (c) through fault
(d) (d) Slight over load
5. 5. The most dominant harmonic in the inrush wave form is
(a) third harmonic
(b) second harmonic
(c) Fundamental.
(d) seventh harmonic

6. 6. The reach of a restricted earth fault relay is restricted to:

(a) all windings of the transformer
(b) only one winding of the transformer
(c) up to the nearest bus
(d) some area on either side of the transformer
7. over fluxing in a transformer is caused by the following type of operating condition:
(a) over- voltage at rated frequency
(b) over-loading at rated frequency
(c) under- voltage at rated frequency
(d) over-frequency at rated voltage

8. 8. Bucholz relay gives protection against:

(a) over-loading
(b) open circuit faults
(c) faults under oil within transformer tank
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(d) through faults

9. 9. Which protection would you recommend as a primary protection for a 250 Mva power transformer: °
(a) over-current
(b) simple differential protection ;
(c) percentage biased differential protection with harmonic restraint
(d) distance protection

10. 10. Select the correct type of connection of CT secondary for differential of a delta-star power transformer, with star
side grounded:
(a) star connection on both sides
(b) delta connection on star side and star connection on delta side
(c) delta connection on both sides
(d) delta connection on delta side and star connection on star side

Quiz No. 9

1. If the secondary of a CT is open-circuited while the primary is carrying current:

(a) primary current will become zero
(b) very high voltage will be induced across secondary leading to flash-over
(c) very high voltage will be induced across the primary winding
(d) secondary current as well as secondary voltage will become zero
2. Interposing CT’ is used in transformer differential protection for:
(a) fine-tuning the ratio of transformation
(b) compensating for phase angle error
(c) isolation from high voltage
(d) compensation of phase shift produced by delta-star or star-delta transformer

3. 3. If primary current of a CT is kept constant, which of the following actions will cause the CT to move towards
saturation:
(a) increase in burden
(b) decrease in burden
(c) burden is rated but its power factor is made lagging
(d) burden is rated but its power factor is made leading

4. 4. For the simple system shown below, an overload of 20% is to be allowed. Given the plug-sett done at 1.00 A,
choose the correct ratio of
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(a) 1000/1A
(b) 83.22A/1.2A
(c) 69.44A/1A
(d) 100A/1A

5. for the system of Figure Q. 4, if the fault on the terminals of the load results in a current of 2000 A, the proper choice
of CT ratio will be:
(a) 2000 A/1.2A
(b) 1666.66 A/1 A
(c) 100 A/1A
(d) 1000 A/T A

6. In a three-phase system, which of the following schemes of over-current protection will be optimum:
(a) 3 nos. of phase fault OC relays and 1 no. of ground fault OC relay
(b) 1 no. of phase fault OC relay and 1 no. of ground fault OC relay
(c) 2 nos. of phase fault OC relays and 1 no. of ground fault OC relay
(d) 3 nos. of phase fault OC relays and 3 nos. of ground fault OC relays

7. 7, When a fault takes place, is phase angle between voltage and current at the relay location is:
(a) almost zero
(b) current leads voltage by nearly 90°
(c) 36.86° -
(d) current lags voltage by nearly 90°

8. Indicate the correct arrangement of capacitive voltage transformer:

Figure B

9. 9. It is safe to:
(a) short circuit a CT secondary winding only if primary is carrying small current
(b) short circuit a PT secondary winding
(c) open circuit a CT secondary winding
(d) short circuit a CT secondary winding irrespective of current carried by primary

10. } 10, At knee point, 10% increase in excitation voltage results in:
(a) 100% increase in excitation current
(b) 50% decrease in excitation current
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(c) 50% increase in excitation current

(d) 150% increase in excitation current

Quiz No. 10

1. The resistance and reactance of pressure coil of a directioan relay is 100.00 Ohms and j274.74 ohms respectively The
MTA relay will be:
(a) 30°
(b) 70°
(c) 45
(d) 20°

2. 2. If a capacitor of reactance -j174.74 is connected in series with the pressuer coil the pressure coil is :
(a) 20
(b) 45
(c) -45
(d) 54
3. If the MTA is to be made equal to 45°, the reactance to be added in series with the pressure coil is: te :
(a) +j200 ohms
(b) +j174.74 ohms
(c) -J174.74 ohms
(d) –j74.74 ohms
4. 4, OC relay B is backing up OC relay A. For a certain fault in primary zone of relay A, relay A takes 0.3 s to operate. If
the CB time is 0.5s 1 th 6, assuming no overshoot, choose the correct operating time of relay B, so that there is no
loss of selectivity between B and A
(a) <0.8 s
(b) >0.8 5
(c) >0.5s
(d) >0.2s
5. 5. The operating torque on the disc of an induction disc rely is proportional to;
Option A
6. 6. Slope of internal fault characteristics for differential protection for a single end fed system is
(a) 200%
(b) <200%
(c) >200%.
(d) <100%
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7. 7. Slope of internal fault characteristics for differential protection, for a double-end fed system is:
(a) 200%
(b) <200%
(c) >200%
(d) 100%
8. 8. Slope of tripping ae of a simple differential protection is:
(a) 100%
(b) 0%
(c) 200%
(d) 150%

9. 9. For a 5 A CT, the total impedance of the secondary winding, leads and burden is 0.01 ohm. When a fault current of
20 times the rated primary current takes place, the VA output of the CT is
(a) 10 VA
(b) 1 VA
(c) 100 VA
(d) 0.1VA

10. 10. The motivation behind going in for a capacitive voltage transformer, in place of a conventional elecctromagnetic
type VT, is
(a) To acheve better accuracy than electromagnetic PT during transients

(b) To acheve better accuracy than electromagnetic PT during steady state

(c) To reduce size and cost of the PT as compared to electromagnetic PT
(d) To get better efficiency than electromagnetic PT

Quiz No.11

1. The motivation for preferring distance to over-current protection is:

(a) speed of protection

(b) selectivity
(c) sensitivity
(d) economy

2. Simple impedance relay is:

a) over-current relay with voltage restraint

b) over-current relay with directional restraint
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c) directional relay with voltage restraint

d) directional relay with current restraint .

3. Mho relay is:

a) over-current relay with voltage restraint
b) over-current relay with directional restraint
c) directional relay with current restraint ’
d) directional relay with voltage restraint

4. 4, Reactance relay is: : :

a) directional relay with voltage restraint with MTA of 90°
b) over-current relay with voltage restraint
c) over-current relay with directional restraint with MTA of 90°
d) directional relay with voltage restraint with MTA of 45°

5. Effect of arc resistance upon the reach of distance relays is:

a) over-reach in case of mho but under-reach in case of simple impedance’ relay
b) over-reach in case of simple impedance relay but under-reach in case of mho
c) no effect on any distance relay
d) under-reach in case of mho and S.I.R. but no effect on reactance relay

6. Choose the correct sequence for increasing effect of arc on reach of distance relays:
a) mho — simple impedance — reactance
b) b) simple impedance — reactance — mho
c) reactance — simple impedance — mho
d) simple impedance — mho -» reactance

7. Choose the correct sequence for increasing effect of power swing on distance- relay operation:

a) mho —> simple impedance — reactance

b) simple impedance — mho ~ reactance
c) reactance —» mho -> simple impedance
d) reactance > simple impedance > mho

8. The reach of first step of three-stepped distance protection is set at:

a) 100% of the line section

b) 80-90%
c) 150%
d) 60%
9. 9. The reach of second step of distance protection is set on the basis of:

a) shortest adjoining line

b) longest adjoining line
c) average of length of all adjoining lines
d) 150% of reach of first step

10. 10. The reach of third step of distance protection 1s set on the basis of
a) shortest adjoining line
b) longest adjoining line
c) average of length of all adjoining lines
d) 120% of reach of the shortest adjoining line
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Quiz No. 12

1. The characteristics of an ideal distance relay should, on the R-X diagram:

a) fit loosely around the fault characteristics of the line
b) fit tightly around the fault characteristics of the line
c) occupy as much area on the R-X diagram as possible
d) has nothing to do with fault characteristics of the transmission line

2. 2. For short line the preferred distance relay is:

a) simple impedance supervised by directional relay
b) mho relay
c) reactance relay
d) reactance relay supervised by directional relay

3. 3. For long line the preferred relay i is:

a) simple impedance supervised by directional relay
b) mho relay
c) reactance relay
d) reactance relay supervised by directional relay

4. 4, The measuring ‘unit ideal for transmission fault location purposes is:
a) simple impedance
b) mho type
c) reactance type ete
d) reactance type assisted by directional unit

5. 5. DC offset causes the distance relay to;

a) always over-reach
b) always under-reach
c) reach remains unaffected
d) sometimes over-reach while sometimes under-reach

6. 6. Choose the correct voltage, current pair combination for phase a-b, b-c, c-a fault distance measuring units:

a) [(Vb, - Vc), (Ib-Ic)] [(Vc-Va),(Ic-Ia)],[(Va-Vb),(Ia-Ib)]

b) [(Vc-Va),(Ic-Ia )], [(Vb, - Vc), (Ib-Ic)], [(Va-Vb),(Ia-Ib)]
c) [(Va-Vb),(Ia-Ib)], [(Vb, - Vc), (Ib-Ic)], [(Vc-Va),(Ic-Ia)]
d) [(Va),(Ia)], [(Vb),(Ib)], [(Vc),(Ic)]
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7. 7, For ground fault Faken protection of phase ‘a’, the measuring unit should be fed with:

(a) (Va+ Vb + Vc), (Ia+ Ib+ Ic)

(b) (Va), (Ia+ Ib+ Ic)
(c) (Va),(Ia+kIo) k is a constant for the system
(d) (Va+ Vb + Vc),(Ia)

8. 8. Zero sequence current compensation factor is given by:

a) (Zo — Z1)/(Z1)
b) (3Z0 – Z1)/(Z1)
c) {c (Zo - 3Z1,)/(Z1)
d) (Zo — Z1)/(3Z1)

9. The number of distance measuring units required for the three-stepped distance protection of a line section at
one end is:

a) 18
b) 9
c) 3
d) 6

10. Which of the following distance relay has a tendency to trip even during normal load flow:
a) mho
b) reactance
c) simple impedance

Quiz No. 13

1. The basic motivation for using carrier based distance protection is:
a) to enable high-speed auto-reclosure by instantaneous clearing of fault from both ends ;
b) to improve sensitivity of protection
c) to compensate for under-reach due to are resistance
d) to provide back-up protection 4 ‘ :

2. 2. ‘Line trap’ is a:
a) series tuned circuit
b) parallel tuned circuit
c) π type circuit
d) T-type network

3. 3. ‘Line trap’ is tuned to:

a) power frequency
b) second harmonic of power frequency
c) Carrier frequency
d) natural frequency of system given by 1/2π√ (LC) where L and C are inductance
and capacitance per unit length of the transmission line

4. the power line carrier frequency is of the order of;

`
a) 50Hz
b) (b) 50 kHz-200 kHz
c) (c) 3 GHz-6 GHz
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d) 20 Hz-50 Hz

5. The microwave frequency used as carrier signal for protection is of the order of:
a) 50Hz
b) 3 MHz-30MHz
c) 1 GHz-3 GHz
d) 30 kHz-300 kHz

6. In Line to line coupling of carrier line traps are inserted in:

a) One line only

b) two of the lines
c) all the three lines
d) two lines and ground

7. If a geostationary satellite (at 36,000 km) is used for conveying relaying information the delay involved between
sending the signal and receiving it wil] be’

a) 12 cycles of 50 Hz
b) 3.6 cycles of 50 Hz
c) 36 cycles of 50 Hz
d) 1.2 cycles of 50 Hz

8. The power output of the carrier transmitter is typically of the order of

a) few tens of watts
b) few kilowatts
c) few tens of kilowatts
d) few megawatts

9. Audio’ tones are used for carrying information over the carrier channel, The
Bandwidth required for carrying this information will be:
a) few megahertz
b) few kilohertz
c) few gigahertz
d) few hertz

10. In which of the following schemes carrier signal is ee transmitted through the faulty line: =

a) transfer trip or. inter-trip

b) permissive inter-tripping
c) pre-acceleration of zone II
d) phase-comparison relaying

Quiz No. 14

1. The trip law far cosine phase comparator i is:

Option A

2. - The trip law for sine type phase comparator is:

Option C

3. . Mho type distance réley cean thes synthesized using | the. flowing signals fed to a cosine type phase
comparator: -
Option A
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4.
Reactance type distance relay can be synthezied using the following signals fed to a cosine type phase
comparator;
Option C

5. 5. Simple impedance type relay can be synthesized using the following signals fed to an amplitude comparator:
Option A

6. For signals S1 = 1∠j0 , S2=1∠ ± 135º * the positive coincidence period will be:
a) 5 ms
b) 7.5 ms
c) 2.5 ms
d) 10 ms

7. 7. Two signals S; = 1 + j0 ani S2, = -(1/√ 2 )+ j(1/√ 2) when fed to a comparator produce trip output. The
comparator must be:
a) cosine-type comparator
b) sine-type comparator
c) amplitude comparator

8. Negative coincidence period between two sinusoidal signals was found to be 5 ms. The phase difference between
the two must be:

(a) ±90°
(b) ±45°
(c) ±60
(d) ±135°

9. 9, A balanced beam type of electromagnetic relay structure is a:

a) sine-type comparator
b) cosine-type comparator
c) amplitude comparator

10. Simple impedance relay is inherently a: -

a) sine type comparator
b) cosine-type comparator
c) amplitude comparator : °

Quiz No. 15

1. The starting current of a large induction motor for Direct on-line starting is:
a) less than full-lead current
b) equal to full-load current
c) many times the full-load current
d) slightly greater than full-load current

2. 2. An induction motor has stalled. This will cause the current drawn by the motor to:
a) reduce to zero
b) shoot up to many times full-load value
c) remain unchanged
d) current will be equal to no-load current

3. 3. The supply to a large induction motor is slightly unbalanced. This will cause the current drawn by the motor to:
a) be unbalanced in the same proportion as the supply voltage
b) remain balanced
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c) get unbalanced to a large extent

d) contain higher order harmonics

4. If the starting current of an induction motor is 5 times its full-load current, then a voltage unbalance of 3% will
cause a current unbalance of approximately:
a) 15%
b) 8%
c) 2%
d) 1.66%

5. For large induction motors whose KVA > 1/2KVA of supply transformer, the preferred protection is;

a) Over current
b) Differential
c) Distance
d) directional

6. 6. Choose the correct variation of starting current w.rt. time for an induction motor

Option B

7. 7. Single phasing can be detected by a relay sensitive to

a) +ve sequence component of voltage supplied to motor
b) —ve sequence component voltage supplied to motor
c) zero sequence component of voltage supplied to motor
d) -ve sequence component of voltage across motor

8. If an induction motor experiences single phasing while running:

a) it will draw excessive current and get over-heated but keep running enough torque is generated to overcome load
torque ;
b) it will draw smaller current than rated
c) {c) it will draw current at a power factor poorer than rated
d) {d) it will always stall ,

9. For protection against overload, for an induction motor the preferred protection js
a) thermal replica relay
b) differential relay "
c) inverse time OC relay
d) directional relay

10. A three-phase, 75 HP 440 V induction motor has a full-load efficiency of 91% and a power factor of 83% , the
nominal line current will be:

a) 79.2A
b) 97.2 A
c) 80.68 A
d) 927 A
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Quiz 16

1. If prime mover is lost while an alternator is delivering power to the grid, while the field supply remains intact,
which of the following will happen?
a) machine will eventually stop
b) machine will rotate at synchronous speed in opposite direction
c) machine will keep running at synchronous speed in the same direction but will start drawing active power from
grid
d) Machine e will run in the induction generator mode

2. If there is loss of excitation while the alternator is delivering power to the of the following wil] happen:

a) machine will stop rotating

b) machine will over-speed by a large amount
c) machine will keep rotating at synchronous speed but will draw reactive power from grid
d) machine will act like an induction generator

3. 3. If the main circuit breaker which connects an alternator to grid is opened while it is delivering full power to the
grid, which of the following will occur:
a) Machine will over-speed by large amount
b) Machine will slightly over-speed
c) Machine will stop
d) Machine will run in the induction generator mode

4. 4. Consider faults on terminals of a solidly grounded alternator. Which fault causes the largest current:
a) L-L-L fault —
b) L-L-G fault
c) L-L fault
d) L-G fault

5. 5, neither the positive nor the negative of the DC excitation supply of an alternator is grounded. Thus, the field is
floating wrt. ground. Which fault will have very dangerous effect:

a) First field winding to ground fault.

b) second field winding to ground fault
c) both (a) and (b) :
d) either (a) or (b) depending upon whether the stator neutral is solidly grounded or not , :

6. 6. Preferred protection for inter-turn faults on armature winding of alternator is:

a) longitudinal simple differential protection
b)longitudinal % differential protection
c) over-current protection :
d)transverse differential protection using split winding design of alternator

7. 7, Preferred protection against loss of excitation in case of a turbo-alternator is:

a) under-voltage relay
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b) reverse power relay

c) over-current relay
d) offset mho relay at the terminals looking into the alternator with centre of mho circle on negative reactance
axis ‘

8. 8. If the stator of an alternator gets unbalanced supply, which of the following will happen:

a) it will pull out of synchronism

b) only stator will get overheated
c) only rotor will overheated
d) both stator and rotor will get overheated

9. If a turbo-alternator is allowed to run in spite of loss of prime-mover it will be detrimental to;

a) Generator stator
b) turbine blades
c) Generator rotor
d) power grid

10. Tripping out a turbo-alternator entails:

a) Opening the main generator circuit breaker only, i.e. tripping the generator
b) Tripping the generator and also tripping the turbine
c) Tripping generator, tripping field and tripping turbine
d) Tripping generator, field, turbine, boiler, coal mills, coal handling plant and putting the alternator on barring
gear

Quiz No. 17

1. The basic problem encountered in applying differential protection tp bust,

a) CT saturation of all CTs in case of external faults ie

b) CT saturation is a case of external faults
c) CT saturation because of load
d) CT saturation of one CT nearest to the external fault

2. 2. The preferred primary protection for husbers is:

a) over-current
b) (b) ordinary % differential
c) high impedance differential
d) directional

3. Probability of faults and attendant disruption in case of faults on busbars is:

a) fault probability very low, disruption very low
b) fault probability very low, disruption very high
c) Fault probability very high, disruption very low.
d) fault probability very high, disruption very high

4. Stabilizing resistor is used for:

a) preventing mal-operation in case of external fault
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b) preventing mal-operation in case of internal fault

c) preventing mal-operation in case of break in one of the pilot wires
d) preventing mal-operation in case of transformer inrush current

5. The voltage developed across the spill path during a severe external fault. Assuming that the CT nearest to the fault
gets fully saturated is given by:
Option a

6. 6. If one of the pilot wires of a bus bar protection scheme is broken, what will be the preferred action:

a) bus bar protection should operate, tripping out all CBs connected to the bus
b) an alarm should be sounded, tripping need not be immediately resorted to
c) nothing needs to be done
d) selective tripping of CBs should be resorted to

7. 7. The earth leakage relay also popularly known as ‘shock preventer’ is basically a;

a) over-current relay
b) Directional over-current relay
c) differential relay
d) distance relay

8. Consider ratio of transformation of various CTs used for differential protection of a busbar

- The: corrapt CT ratios will be ae

a) CTA: 4000/1 A, CTB = 4000/1 A, CTC = 4000/1 A
b) CTA: 10,000/1 A, CTB = 10,000/1 A, CTC = 10,000/1 A
c) CTA: 6000/1 A, CTB = 6000/1 A, CTC = 6000/1 A
d) CTA: 4000/1 A, CTB = 10,000/1 A, CTC = 6000/1 A “

9. 9, Which diagram of Figure Q, 9 indicates an internal fault in the bus-protection zone?

Option C

10. The reach of the single-phase differential scheme shown in Figure Q.10:
a) covers all points to the right of points ‘a’ and ‘b’
b) is up to and including primary winding of the transformer
c) is up to and including secondary winding of the transformer
d) covers all points to the left of points ‘a’ and ‘b’

Quiz No. 18
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1. The positive and negative sequence impedance of which element are equal.

a) transmission line
b) induction motor
c) synchronous generator
d) induction generator

2. 2. Zero sequence impedance of which element is 2.5 to 3 times the Positive sequence impedance: *

(a) induction motor

(b) transmission line
(c) synchronous motor
(d) synchronous generator

3. 3. Neutral current is equal to

a) 3Ia0
b) Iao/3
c) √ 3 Ia 0
d) Ia0/√ 3

4. The internally generated negative sequence voltage of an alternator is:

a) zero
b) E1/3
c) 3E1
d) –E1/√ 3
where E1 is the internally generated positive sequence voltage.

5. Select the correct answer. If machine inductances are arranged in decreasing order magnitude:
Option a

6. 6. Presence of substantial amount of which of the following component is a definite indication of earth fault;

a) positive sequence
b) negative sequence
c) zero sequence
d) negative sequence and zero sequence

7. 7. Presence of substantial amount of which of the following components is definite indication of one phase open
circuit in one of the three-phase conductors:
(a) positive sequence
(b) negative sequence
(c) zero sequence
(d) negative sequence and zero sequence

8. 8. An over-current relay with characteristics of the type I 22 t= constant which is fed with negative sequence component
of three-phase current is used to protect:
a) transmission lines
b) transformer
c) Turbo-alternator
d) busbar

9. of the following system of three voltages '100 ∠30°, 86.6 + j50, '100 ∠30°, will give which of the following:

option a
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10. the negative sequence impedance of a synchrounous machine id equal to

option B

Quiz 19

1. When a CT becomes heavily saturated:

a) secondary current becomes constant
b) primary current becomes constant
c) secondary current is more than expected
d) secondary current becomes almost zero

2. 2. A CT can be driven into saturation by:

a) decreasing impedance of burden below the rated value
b) decreasing primary current below the rated value
c) increasing primary current above the rated value, burden being same as rated”
d) making secondary voltage zero while rated primary current is flowing

3. 3. A CT can be driven into saturation by: +o

a) opening CT primary circuit
b) opening CT secondary circuit while primary is carrying current.
c) shorting the CT secondary while primary is carrying current
d) reducing the primary. current much below the. rated value

4. 4, As a CT approaches saturation:
a) it draws less and less magnetizing current
b) it draws more and more magnetizing current
c) it has to induce less. and less secondary emf
d) it gives more and more secondary current

5. 5. Choose correct statement:

a) measurement CT must saturate, by design, during faults
b) measurement CT must not saturate, ‘by design, during faults
c) protective CT must saturate, by design, during faults
d) as saturation is undesirable, neither measurement nor ‘protection CT should
ever saturate

6. 6. The measurement CT is so designed that:

a) during normal operation its operating point is’ much below the knee-point
b) during normal operation its operating point is slightly below the knee-point
c) during normal operation its operating point is much beyond the knee-point
d) during fault its operating point is much ‘beyond knee-point
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7. Due to DC offset in primary current:

a) Max. value of transient flux is always more than max. value of steady-state flux
b) Max value of transient flux is always less than max. value of steady-state flux
c) May value may sometimes be more and sometimes less depending upon the
Polarity of DC. offset Pa -
d) Dc offset in primary current does not affect max value of transient flux

8. A system with higher X/R ratio causes:

a) Higher peaks of positive DC offset
b) Higher peaks of negative DC offset
c) Higher peaks of either positive or negative DC offset
d) Lower peaks of either positive or negative DC offset

9. Primary current of CT depends upon:

a) burden on the secondary
b) ratio of transformation of the CT
c) voltage induced in the secondary winding
d) load in the primary circuit only

10. If secondary of a CT is open circuited while the primary is carrying Current

a) primary current will be forced to zero; no harm done
b) secondary current will become zero; no harm done
c) primary current will continue to flow but it will cause dangerously high Over-voltage in secondary
d) both primary and secondary currents will become zero; no harm done

Quiz No. 20

1. In all circuit breakers arcing is desirable:

a) Only after contact separation till current zero
b) after contact separation till current zero and also after current zero
c) only in the post-current zero period
d) only in oil circuit breaker before current zero

2. 2. Bulk oil circuit breaker is suitable for:

a) low voltage systems
b) medium voltage systems
c) high voltage systems
d) extra high voltage systems

3. 3. SF, gas is:

(a) six times heavier than air
(b) five times heavier than air
(c) lighter than air
(d) weighs the same as air

4. 4. Arc formation in vacuum circuit breaker is due to:

a) ions present in the vacuum
b) thermi-ionic emission from electrodes
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c) vaporization of electrode material

d) electrons emitted by CB enclosure

5. 5. Possibility of current chopping is more in which type(s) of CB:

a) bulk oil
b) MOCB
c) air blast
d) vacuum

6. 6. Fire hazard inherently exists in which type of CB:

a) bulk oil
b) MOCB
c) air blast
d) vacuum
e) Sf6

7. 7. RRRV is given by:

optionD

8. Peak Value that can be attained by the restriking voltage is given by;

a) +Vm
b) _Vm
c) ±Vm
d) ±2Vm

9. g, Recovery voltage of a CB is:

a) voltage across CB when contacts are closed
b) voltage across CB when contacts are moving from open to closed state
c) voltage across CB after contacts start parting but before current zero
d) during opening operation after arc interruption

10. 10. Choose the correct statement:

a) making capability should be 2.5 times breaking capability
b) breaking capability should be 2.5 times making capability
c) making capability should be V2 times breaking capability
d) making capability should be equal to breaking capability
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