MCQ (APS101)

x − sin x
1. The value of lim
n →0 x3
i) 0
ii) 1
iii) 
iv) None of these
 1
2. The series ∑ is
n=1 n(n + 1)
i) Convergent
ii) Divergent
iii) Oscillate finitely
iv) Oscillate infinitely
3. Expansion of f (x, y) = ex is
x2 − x3
i) 1 − x+ + ......
2! 3!
x 2 x3
ii) 1 + x + + + ......
2! 3!
x2 x 4
iii) 1 + + + ......
2! 4!
x3 x 5
iv) x + + + ......
3! 5!
4. The value of 25.15 is
i) 5.3236
ii) 0.50735
iii) 5.5536
iv) None of these
u
5. If u = er cos
cos(r sin ) , then =
r
i) e r cos
cos(r sin +  )
ii) − re r cos
sin(r sin +  )
iii) er cos cos(r sin )sin
iv) None of these
6. Euler’s theorem for partial differentiation is applicable on .............. function.
i) Homogeneous
ii) Non-homogeneous
iii) A and B both
iv) Constant
 (u, v) (x, y)
7.  =
( y, x) (u, v)
i) 1
ii) -1
iii) 0
iv) None of these
8. The expansion of x + y at origin is
i) x−y
ii) x+y
iii) 0
iv) None of these
9. Which of the following statement is true?
i) All stationary points are extremum points.
ii) All extremum points are stationary points.
iii) All stationary points are saddle points.
iv) Saddle points are not a stationary points.
10. If in the equation of a curve x occurs only as an even power then the curve is symmetrical about
i) X-axis
ii) Y-axis
iii) Origin
iv) None of these
11. The curve r = a(1 + cos ), a >0 represent
i) Strophoid
ii) Folium of Descartes
iii) Cardioids
iv) None of these

2

12. The value of ∫ sin 5 x cos3 xdx is

0

15
i)
128
1
ii)
24
iii) 0
iv) None ofthese
13. If the solution of a 5th order differential equation contains less than 5 arbitrary constant then the
solution is
i) General solution
ii) Singular solution
iii) Particular solution
iv) None of these
 Applied Science
1. Which instrument is used to measure altitudes in aircraft's ?
1. Audiometer
2. Ammeter
3. Altimeter
4. Anemometer
2. Which instrument is used to measure depth of ocean ?
1. Galvanometer
2. Fluxmeter
3. Endoscope
4. Fathometer
3. Name of the instrument to measure atomsphericpressure ?
1. Barometer
2. Barograph
3. Bolometer
4. Callipers
4. Which instrument is used to measure the power of electric circuit ?
1. Voltmeter
2. Wattmeter
3. Wavemeter
4. Viscometer
5. Which instrument is used in submarine to see the objects above sea level ?
1. Pykometer
2. Polygraph
3. Photometer
4. Periscope
6. Which instrument is used to measure curvature of spherical objects ?
1. Spectroscope
2. Spherometer
3. Spectrometer
4. Sextant
7. Which instrument is used to record physical happenings at a distant place ?
1. Thermostat
2. Tonometer
3. Telemeter
4. Transponder
 Applied Science
8.Which instrument is used to measure the scattering of light by particles
suspended in a liquid ?
1. Nephetometer
2. Ohmmeter
3. Ondometer
4. Pyrometer
9. Which instrument is used to determine the intensity of colours ?
1. Cathetometer
2. Chronometer
3. Colorimeter
4. Commutator
10. Which instrument is used to measure changes in volume of substances ?
1. Dyanamo
2. Dilatometer
3. Cyclotron
4. Electroscope
11. Which instrument is used to measure sound under water ?
1. Hygrometer
2. Hygroscope
3. Hypsometer
4. Hydrophone
12. Which instrument is used to measure pressure of gases ?
1. Manometer
2. Machmeter
3. Magnetometer
4. Micrometer
13. Which instrument is used to measure heat radiation ?
1. Radar
2. Salinometer
3. Refractometer
4. Radio micrometer
14. Which instrument is used to measure strength of direct current ?
1. Stroboscope
2. Streoscope
3. Tangent Galvanometer
4. Tachometer
 Applied Science

15. K. Macmillan invented

A. Bicycle
B. Barometer
C. Calculating Machine
D. Centigrade Scale
Applied Science
Subject name (Sub Code): ENGINEERING DRAWING

Q1. The following is NOT a method for Aligned System

A. Chain Dimensioning
B. Parallel Dimensioning
C. Combined Dimensioning
D.Stretch Dimensioning

Q2. There are ___ no of sides in a Hexagon

A. 7
B. 5
C. 4
D. None of the above

Q3. To show the inner geometry of the component following line is used
A. Center Line
B. Extension line
C. Inner line
D. Hidden Line

Q4. To show the sliced cross section following line is used

A. Hidden line
B.Leader line
C. Cutting Plane line
D. Object line

Q5. Standard size for the title block is

A. 195 X 85
B. 195 X 65
C. 185 X 65
D. 185 X 75

Q6. The sheet size(untrimmed) for A2 is

A. 240 X 165
B. 880 X 625
C. 625 X 450
D. 594 X 420

Q7.The sheet size(untrimmed) for A1 is

A. 240 X 165
B. 880 X 625
C. 625 X 450
D. 594 X 420

Q8. The symbol used for designating a diameter is

A. R
B. ϕ
C. ϱ
D. ϴ

Q9.This is the plane upon which the top view is projected

A. Horizontal
B. Frontal
C. Profile
D. Base

Q10. An advantage of this type of view is that each view shows the object all the way through as if it
were transparent
A. Planar
B. Horizontal
C. Auxiliary
D. Orthographic
 Fundamentals of Electrical Engineering

1. Pure inductive circuit has ….. power factor.

a) Unity
b) Zero
c) 0.5
d) Infinite

2. The power factor at resonance in R-L-C series circuit is……

a) Unity
b) Zero
c) 0.5
d) Infinite

3. At higher frequencies, the value of capacitive reactance…..

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero

4. The three resistors each of R Ω are connected in star. When they are transformed into a
delta connection the resistance in each arm will be …….
a) 2R Ω
b) 3R Ω
c) R/3 Ω
d) R/2 Ω

5. When four capacitors of capacitance of 1/4 µF are connected in series, the resultant
capacitance will be …….
a) 1 µF
b) 1/8 µF
c) 1/16 µF
d) 4 µF

6. The distance between two magnetic poles is halved and pole strength of each is doubled,
how will the force between them would change …….
a) halved
b) unchanged
c) doubled
d) becomes sixteen times
 Fundamentals of Electrical Engineering

7. An alternating voltage of 160 + j120 V is applied to a circuit and the current in the circuit
is given by 6 + j8 A. The impedance will be …….
a) 19.2 - j5.2
b) 19.2 + j5.2
c) 5.2 + j19.2
d) 5.2 - j19.2

8. Wattmeter is an instrument which measures …….

a) average real power
b) instantaneous power
c) apparent power
d) reactive power

9. A 2 henry inductance carrying a current of 3 A will store energy of …….

a) 4J
b) 6J
c) 9J
d) 1/9 J

10. An electric lamp is marked 100 W, 220 V. The resistance of the filament will be …….
a) 22 W
b) 2200 W
c) 484 W
d) 4840 W
 Basics of Civil Engineering
1) The main principle of surveying is to work?
a) from the whole to the part
b) from part to the whole
c) from lower level to higher level
d) from higher level to lower leve

2) Which of the following is not a Scheduling technique?

a) Bar chart
b) Pie chart
c) Critical path method
d) Project evaluation and Review technique

3) What is the standard/ Modular size of a brick in India?

a) 19cm X 19cm X 9 cm
b) 20cm X 10cm X 10cm
c) 19cm X 9cm X 9cm
d) 20cm X 9cm X 9cm

4) Which of the following lime contains high amount of Calcium Oxide (Cao)?

a) Poor Lime
b) Fat Lime
c) Hydraulic Lime
d) None

5) Which of the following ingredients make Cement quick setting?

a) Lime
b) Silica
c) Alumina
d) None

6) What is the sieve size of coarse aggregate?

a) 4.5mm to 70mm
b) 4.75mm to 80mm
c) 4.25mm to 80mm
d) 4mm to 70mm

7) Which of the following is not a bituminous material used in highway construction?

a) Emulsion
b) Asphalt
c) Cutback
d) Coarse aggregate
8) Which of the following load is not considered when the building height is less than 3 times the width?

a) Wind load
b) Snow load
c) Rain Load
d) Dead Load

9) How much percentage of water is available as fresh water in the world?

a) 2.997 %
b) 3%
c) 0.0035%
d) 7%

10) In chain surveying field work is limited to?

a) both linear and angular measurements

b) Linear measurements only
c) Angular measurements only
d) All the above
Subject name (Sub Code): Fundamental of Thermal Engineering

Q1. In diesel cycle heat is added at

a. Constant volume
b. Constant enthalpy
c. Constant temperature
d. Constant pressure

Q2. Which is boiler mountings

a. Super heater
b. Water level gauge
c. Economizer
d. Steam trap

Q3. The phase change water to steam is called

a. Sublimation
b. Vaporisation
c. Fusion
d. None of the above

Q4The function of economizer is to

a. To heat flue gases
b. To heat air going to boiler furnace
c. To heat fuel going to boiler
d. To heat the feed water

Q5.In which engine spark plug is not there

a. Petrol Engine
b. Diesel engine
c. Gas engine
d. None of the above

Q6During suction stroke in a petrol engine, it draws in

a. Vapor of petrol only
b. Air only
c. Mixture of petrol and air
d. Only air

Q7. The sum of internal energy and flow work is called

a. Entropy
b. Specific heat
c. Work
d. enthalpy
Q8. Which of the following is not a component of centrifugal pump?
a. Impeller
b. Piston
c. Casing
d. foot valve

Q9. According to IBR, which one should be fitted to the boiler?

a. Economiser
b. Air preheater
c. Superheater
d. Safety Valve

Q10.A boiler may be used to supply steam

a. For industrial process heating
b. For steam engine or steam turbine
c. For power generation
d. All of the above
Fundamentals of Computer Programming

1) Which operation is not performed by computer?

a) Inputting
b) Processing
c) Controlling
d) Understanding
2) Computer system comprises of major units.
a) input unit, output unit, control unit
b) input unit, output unit, control unit and storage
c) input unit, output unit, central processing unit and storage unit
d) input, output and storage units
3) The first general purpose electronic digital computer in the world was.
a) UNIVAC
b) EDVAC
c) ENIAC
d) All of above
4) Which among following first generation of computers h had?
a) Vacuum Tubes and Magnetic Drum
b) Integrated Circuits
c) Magnetic Tape and Transistors
d) All of above
5) What is full form of GUI in terms of computers?
a) Graphical user Instrument
b) Graphical unified Interface
c) Graphical unified Instrument
d) Graphical user Interface
6) What is LINUX ?
a) Malware
b) Operating System
c) Application Program
d) Firmware
7) Which of the items below are considered removable storage media?
a) Removable hard disk cartridges
b) (Magneto-optical)
optical) disk
c) Flexible disks cartridges
d) All of the above
8) Which of the following is not a form of data?
a) numbers and characters
b) images
c) sound
d) none of above
 9) Which of the following is internal memory?
a) Disks
b) Pen Drives
c) RAM
d) CDs
10) C programs are converted into machine language with the help of
a) An Editor
b) A compiler
c) An operating system
d) None of these.
11) Standard ANSI C recognizes ______ number of keywords?
a) 30
b) 32
c) 24
d) 36
e) 40
12) Which one of the following is not a reserved keyword for C?
a) auto
b) case
c) main
d) register
13) Which one of the following is not a valid identifier?
a) _examveda
b) 1examveda
c) exam_veda
d) examveda1
14) What will be printed after execution of the following program code?
main()
{
printf("\\nab");
printf("\\bsi");
printf("\\rha");
}
a) absiha
b) asiha
c) haasi
d) hai
e) None of these
15) Which is the only function all C programs must contain?
a) start()
b) system()
c) main()
d) printf()
e) getch()
16) What number would be shown on the screen after the following statements of C are
executed?
char ch;
int i;
ch = 'G';
i = ch-'A';
printf("%d", i);

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
e) 9
17) What is right way to initialize array?
a) int num[6] = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
b) int n{} = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
c) int n{6} = { 2, 4, 12 };
d) int n(6) = { 2, 4, 12, 5, 45, 5 };
18) An array elements are always stored in ________ memory locations.
a) Sequential
b) Random
c) Sequential and Random
d) None of the above
19) What will be the output given program?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int i = -10;
for(;i;printf("%d ", i++));
}

a) -10 to -1
b) -10 to infinite
c) -10 to 0
d) Complier error
20) What will be the output of the following piece of code?
for(i = 0; i<10; i++);
printf("%d", i);

a) 10
b) 0123456789
c) Syntax error
d) 0
e) Infinite loop
21) Which command is used to skip the rest of a loop and carry on from the top of the loop
again?
a) break
b) resume
c) continue
d) skip
e) none of these
22) The type of the controlling expression of a switch statement cannot be of the type ........
a) int
b) char
c) short
d) float
23) What will be the output of given program?

#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a=3;
for(;a;printf("%d ", aa--);
}

a) no output
b) 3210
c) 321
d) infinity loop
24) What will be the output of program?
#include
int main()
{
int arr[1] = {10};
printf("%d", 0[arr]);
return 0;
}

a) 1
b) 0
c) 10
d) 6
e) none of these
25) In a for loop, if the condition is missing,then?
a) it is assumed to be present and taken to be false
b) it is assumed to be present and taken to be true
c) it result in the syntax error
d) execution will be terminated abruptly
26) Choose the correct statement
a) 0 represent a false condition
b) Non zero value represent a falfalse condition
c) 1 represent a false condition
d) Anything that is not 1, represents a false condition
27) Break statement can be simulated by using?
a) goto
b) return
c) exit
d) any of the above statement
28) Which of the following function sets first n characters of a string to a given character?
a) strinit()
b) strnset()
c) strset()
d) strcset()
29) If the two strings are identical, then strcmp() function returns
a) -1
b) 1
c) 0
d) YES
30) How will you print \n n on the screen?
a) printf("\n");
b) echo "\\n";
c) printf('\n');
d) printf("\\n");
31) Which of the following function is used to find the first occurrence of a given string in
another string?
a) strchr()
b) strrchr()
c) strstr()
d) strnset()
32) The default parameter passing mechanism is?
a) Call by value
b) Call by reference
c) Call by value result
d) None of above
33) The order in which actual arguments are evaluated in function call
a) is from the left
b) is from the right
c) is compiler dependent
d) None of above
34) Use of functions?
a) Helps to avoid repeating a set of statements many times
b) Enhance the logical clarity of the program
c) Helps to avoid repeated programming across program
d) All of above
35) Any C program
a) Must contain at least one function
b) Need not contain any function
c) Needs input data
d) None of above
36) Call by reference is also known as?
a) Call by address or Call by location
b) Call by address or Call by value
c) Call by value or Call by name
d) None of above
37) Which of the following function calculates the square of 'x' in C?
a) sqr(x)
b) pow(2, x)
c) pow(x, 2)
d) power(2, x)
e) power(2, x)
38) What is (void*)0?
a) Representation of NULL pointer
b) Representation of void pointer
c) Error
d) None of above
39) Can you combine the following two statements into one?
char *p;
p=(char*) malloc(100);

a) char p = *malloc(100);
b) char *p = (char) malloc(100);
c) char *p = (char*)malloc(100);
d) char *p = (char *)(malloc*)(100);
40) If a variable is a pointer to a structure, then which of the following operator is used to
access data members of the structure through the pointer variable?
a) .
b) &
c) *
d) ->
41) Point out the compile time error in the program given b below.
#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
int *x;
*x=100;
return 0;
}

a) Error: invalid assignment for x

b) Error: suspicious pointer conversion
c) No error
d) None of above
42) What will be the output of the program ?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i=3, *j, k;
j = &i;
printf("%d\n",n", i**j*i+*j);
return 0;
}

a) 30
b) 27
c) 9
d) 3

43) How will you free the allocated memory ?

 a) remove(var-name);
b) free(var-name);
c) delete(var-name);
d) dalloc(var-name);
44) What is the similarity between a structure, union and enumeration?
a) All of them let you define new values
b) All of them let you define new data types
c) All of them let you define new pointers
d) All of them let you define new structures
45) What will be the output of the program in 16 bit platform (Turbo C under DOS) ?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
struct value
{
int bit1:1;
int bit3:4;
int bit4:4;
}bit;
printf("%d\n",n", sizeof(bit));
return 0;
}

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 9
46) What will be the output of the program ?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
struct byte
{
int one:1;
};
struct byte var = {1};
printf("%d\n",n", var.one);
return 0;
}

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) Error
47) What will be the output of the program given below in 16
16-bit
bit platform ?
#include<stdio.h>
 int main()
{
enum value{VAL1=0, VAL2, VAL3, VAL4, VAL5} var;
printf("%d\n", sizeof(var));
return 0;
}

a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 10
48) The function sprintf()works like printf(),but operatres on

a) Data in a file
b) stderr
c) stdin
d) string
49) The statement fseek(fp,0L,0)i - if syntactically correct, means
a) fp is a file pointer
b) position the read-write-head at the start of the file
c) position the read-write-head at the end of the file
d) None of these
50) If a file is opened in r+ mode then
a) reading is possible
b) writing is possible
c) both (a) & (b)
d) all the above comments are true

****
 DCD MCQ question
1. Convert the fractional binary number 0001.0010 to decimal.
a. 1.40 b. 1.125 c. 1.20 d. 1.80
2. A type of digital circuit technology that uses bipolar junction transistors is
a. TTL b. CMOS c. LSI d. NMOS
3. A logic circuit that provides a HIGH output if one input or the other input, but not both, is
HIGH, is a(n):
a. Ex-NOR gate b. OR gate c. Ex-OR gate d. NAND gate

4. A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1101. Its input is HIGH.
The nibble 1011 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After three clock pulses,
the shift register is storing .
a.1101 b. 0111 c. 0001 d. 1110
5. The Boolean SOP expression obtained from the truth table below is .

a. b. c. d. None of these
6. The 8-input XOR circuit shown has an output of Y = 1. Which input combination below
(ordered A – H) is correct

a. 10111100 b. 10111000 c. 11100111 d. 00011101

7. The following waveform pattern is for a(n)

a. 2-input AND gate b. 2-input OR gate c. Exclusive-OR gate d. None of the

above

8. How is a J-K flip-flop made to toggle?

a. J = 0, K = 0 b. J = 1, K = 0 c. J = 0, K = 1 d. J = 1, K = 1

9. A MOD-16 ripple counter is holding the count 10012. What will the count be after 31 clock
pulses?

a. 10002 b. 10102 c. 10112 d. 11012

10. Convert the following binary number to octal.0011010112

a. 1538 b. 3518 c. 2538 d. 3528
Subject Name (subject code): Agriculture for Engineers
1. Soil is derived from Latin word
(A) Solia
(B) Sonum
(C) Solum
(D) Soila

2. Some important igneous rocks are

(A) Crabuo, basalt, diabase
(B) Coal
(C) shale conglomerate
(D) All of above

3. What is the percentage of clay in the textural classification of soil

(A) .005mm
(B) 0.05-2mm
(C) .0005 mm
(D) 0.05-0.005 mm

4. How many types of plant nutrients element what are the macro elements
(A) 13 NPK
(B) 16 NPK
(C) 16HCP
(D) 15NPK

5. In prismatic structure, the vertical area of aggregate is bigger than horizontal

axis and due to flat size shape of aggregate is shown like
(A) Prism
(B) Colum
(C) Cells
(D) Rows

6. Intermediate place of different types of constructive texture format by

combination of primary and secondary particles called
(A) Soil density
(B) Particle density
(C) Soil pore space
(D) Soil consistency

7. Which one of the factor affected the decomposition

(A) Soil fertility
(B) Climate
(C) Soil age
(D) Parent material

8. Soil reaction is also called

(A) Soil age
(B) Soil PH
(C) Soil fertility
(D) Soil temperature

9. The implement of secondary tillage is

(A) MB plough
(B) Clod crusher
(C) Rotary
(D) Subsoiler

10. Classification based on family of the crop, which family is related to cotton
(A) Graminae family
(B) Leguminous family
(C) Tiliaceae
(D) Malvaceae

11. In this classification of crop, the botanical name of the groundnut is

(A) Oriza sativa
(B) Gosspium spp.
(C) Arachis hypea
(D) None of the above

12. ……………is essential for growth of the plants and quantities developments
of fruits’
(A) Temperature
(B) Wind
(C) Solar radiation
(D) Humidity

13. The PH ranging of arid soil is

(A) 8.0-8.8
(B) 6.0-6.8
(C) 6.0-7.0
(D) 7.0-7.5

14. Tarai soil is occurs in

(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka

15. In the late rite soil,------------ crop are grown

(A) Ber
(B) Coconut
(C) Tea
(D) Litchi

16. Application of fertilizer along with irrigation water is called

(A) Row placement
(B) Pruning
(C) Notching
(D) Fertigation

17. How many types of methods used in training

(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 4

18. The judicious removal of parts like leaf, flower, fruits etc to obtain good and
qualitative yield
(A) Training
(B) Pruning
(C) Fertigation
(D) Sedimentation

19. In deciduous plants, when will pruning done

(A) Simmer season
(B) Spring season
(C) Autum season
(D) Winter season

20. Nicking is
(A) Making a notch below a bud by removing a wedge shaped piece of bark
(B) Making a notch above a bud by removing a wedge shaped piece of bark
(C) A circular ring of bark measuring about 3cm in length is removed
(D) Selection and complete removed of part of the plants
Computer Organization and Architecture

Q1. (2FAOC) 16 is equivalent to

(A) (195 084) 10

(B) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

Q2. Consider the following sequence of micro-operations.

Which one of the following is a possible operation performed by this sequence?

(A) Instruction fetch

(B) Operation fetch

(C) Conditional Branch

(D) Initialization of Interrupt Service

Q3. Consider an instruction pipeline with five stages without any branch prediction: Fetch
Instruction (FI), Decode Instruction (DI), Fetch Operand (FO), Execute Instruction (EI) and
Write Operand (WO). The stage delays for FI, DI, FO, EI and WO are 5 ns, 7 ns, 10 ns, 8 ns
and 6 ns, respectively. There are intermediate storage buffers after each stage and the delay of
each buffer is 1 ns. A program consisting of 12 instructions I1, I2, I3, …, I12 is executed in this
pipelined processor. Instruction I4 is the only branch instruction and its branch target is I9. If
the branch is taken during the execution of this program, the time (in ns) needed to complete
the program is

(A) 132

(B) 165

(C) 176

(D) 328

Q4. A RAM chip has a capacity of 1024 words of 8 bits each (1K × 8). The number of 2 × 4
decoders with enable line needed to construct a 16K × 16 RAM from 1K × 8 RAM is

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 6

(D) 7
Computer Organization and Architecture

Q5. The amount of ROM needed to implement a 4 bit multiplier is

(A) 64 bits

(B) 128 bits

(C) 1 Kbits

(D) 2 Kbits

Q6. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal). Which one of
the following is a legal program counter (all values in decimal)?

(A) 400

(B) 500

(C) 600

(D) 700

Q7. Which one of the following is true for a CPU having a single interrupt request line and a
single interrupt grant line?

(A) Neither vectored interrupt nor multiple interrupting devices are possible.

(B) Vectored interrupts are not possible but multiple interrupting devices are possible.

(C) Vectored interrupts and multiple interrupting devices are both possible.

(D) Vectored interrupt is possible but multiple in-terrupting devices are not possible.

Q8. More than one word are put in one cache block to

(A) exploit the temporal locality of reference in a program

(B) exploit the spatial locality of reference in a program

(C) reduce the miss penalty

(D) none of the above

Q9. Where does the swap space reside?

(A) RAM

(B) Disk

(C) ROM

(D) On-chip cache

Q10. Comparing the time T1 taken for a single instruction on a pipelined CPU with time T2
taken on a non- pipelined but identical CPU, we can say that

(A) T1 <= T2
Computer Organization and Architecture

(B) T1 >= T2

(C) T1 < T2

(D) T1 is T2 plus the time taken for one instruction fetch cycle

Q11. What is the minimum size of ROM required to store the complete truth table of an 8-bit x
8-bit multiplier?

(A) 32 K x 16 bits

(B) 64 K x 16 bits

(C) 16 K x 32 bits

(D) 64 K x 32 bits

Q12. The idea of cache memory is based

(A) on the property of locality of reference

(B) on the heuristic 90-10 rule

(C) on the fact that references generally tend to cluster

(D) all of the above

Q13. The addressing mode used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y, is

(A) Absolute

(B) indirect

(C) index

(D) none of these

Q14. In a memory-mapped I/O system, which of the following will not be there?

(A) LDA

(B) IN

(C) ADD

(D) OUT

Q15. In signed-magnitude binary division, if the dividend is (11100) 2 and divisor is (10011) 2
then the result is

(A) (00100) 2

(B) (10100) 2

(C) (11001) 2
Computer Organization and Architecture

(D) (01100) 2

Q16. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It uses associative
mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be

(A) 11 bits

(B) 21 bits

(C) 16 bits

(D) 20 bits

Q17. PSW is saved in stack when there is a

(A) interrupt recognised

(B) execution of RST instruction

(C) Execution of CALL instruction

(D) All of these

Q18. The multiplicand register & multiplier register of a hardware circuit implementing

booth's algorithm have (11101) & (1100). The result shall be

(A) (812) 10

(B) (-12) 10

(C) (12) 10

(D) (-812) 10

Q19. ‘Aging registers’ are

(A) Counters which indicate how long ago their associated pages have been referenced.

(B) Registers which keep track of when the program was last accessed.

(C) Counters to keep track of last accessed instruction.

(D) Counters to keep track of the latest data structures referred.

Q20. A floating point number that has a O in the MSB of mantissa is said to have

(A) Overflow

(B) Underflow

(C) Important number

(D) Undefined

Q21. The performance of cache memory is frequently measured in terms of a quantity called
Computer Organization and Architecture

(A) Miss ratio.

(B) Hit ratio.

(C) Latency ratio.

(D) Read ratio.

Q22. The 2’s compliment form (Use 6 bit word) of the number 1010 is

(A) 111100.

(B) 110110.

(C) 110111.

(D) 1011.

Q23. A Program Counter contains a number 825 and address part of the instruction contains
the number 24. The effective address in the relative address mode, when an instruction is read
from the memory is

(A) 849.

(B) 850.

(C) 801.

(D) 802.

Q24. CPU does not perform the operation

(A) data transfer

(B) logic operation

(C) arithmetic operation

(D) all of above

Q25. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions

(A) CALL and RET

(B) PUSH and POP

(C) STA and LDA

(D) MOV and JMP

Q26. (2FAOC)16 is equivalent to _____.

(A) (195 084)10

(B) (001011111010 0000 1100)2

Computer Organization and Architecture

(C) Both A.and (B)

(D) None of these

Q27. A processor has 40 distinct instructions and 24 general purpose registers. A 32-bit
instruction word has an opcode, two register operands and an immediate operand. The number
of bits available for the immediate operand field is ____________

(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 32

Q28. Add #45, when this instruction is executed the following happen/s,
(A) The processor raises an error and requests for one more operand
(B) The value stored in memory location 45 is retrieved and one more operand is requested
(C) The value 45 gets added to the value on the stack and is pushed onto the stack
(D) None of these

Q29. In case of, Zero-address instruction method the operands are stored in _____ .

(A) Registers

(B) Accumulators

(C) Push down stack

(D) Cache

Q30. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC instead of a general purpose register is ______ .

(A) Indexed with offset

(B) Relative

(C) direct

(D) both a and c

Q31. When we use auto increment or auto decrement, which of the following is/are true

1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the operand and then the address gets altered.

2) In auto increment the operand is retrieved first and then the address altered.

3) Both of them can be used on general purpose registers as well as memory locations.

(A) 1,2,3

(B) 2

(C) 1,3
Computer Organization and Architecture

(D) 2,3

Q32. Logic X-OR operation of (4ACO)H & (B53F)H results _____.

A. AACB B. 0000

C. FFFF D. ABCD

Q33. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It uses
associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be_____.

A. 11 bits B. 21 bits

C. 16 bits D. 20 bits

Q34. In a memory-mapped I/O system, which of the following will not be there?

A. LDA B. IN

C. ADD D. OUT

Q35. (2FAOC)16 is equivalent to _____.

A. (195 084)10 B. (001011111010 0000 1100)2

C. Both A.and (B) D. None of these

Q36. SIMD represents an organization that ______________.

A. refers to a computer system capable of processing several programs at the same time.

B. represents organization of single computer containing a control unit, processor unit and a
memory unit.

C. includes many processing units under the supervision of a common control unit

D. none of the above.

Q37. An exception condition in a computer system caused by an event external to the CPU is
known as ?

(A) Halt

(B) Process

(C)Interrupt

(D) None of above

Q39. In a microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt

A. only if an interrupt service routine is being executed

B. only if a bit in the interrupt mask is made 0

Computer Organization and Architecture

C. only if interrupts have been enabled by an EI instruction

D. none of these

Q40. In a generic microprocessor instruction cycle time is

A. Shorter than machine cycle time

B. Larger than machine cycle time

C. Ten times the machine cycle time

D. Exactly the same as the machine cycle time

Q41. In the absolute addressing mode

A. Operand is inside the instruction

B. Address of the operand is outside the instruction

C. Register containing the address of the operand is speciied inside theinstruction

D. Location of the operand is implicit.

Q42. Pseudo-instructions are

A. Assembler directives

B. Instructions in any program that have corresponding machine code instruction

C. Instruction in any program whose absence will not change the output for any input

D. None of these

Q43. The number of instructions needed to add 'n' numbers and store the result in memory
using only one address instructions is

A. n

B. n+1

C. n-1

D. independent of n

Q44. The addressing mode used in the instruction PUSH B is

A. Direct

B. Register

C. Register indirect

D. Index
Computer Organization and Architecture

Q45. The bulk of the binary information in a digital computer is stored in memory, but all
computations are done in

(a)Timing Control

(b)Memory Registers

(c)Processor Registers

(d)Program Control

Q46. The processor, ---------- and I/O Devices are interconnected by means of a common bus.

(a)Cache Memory

(b)Auxiliary Memory

(c)Virtual Memory

(d)Main Memory

Q47. A full-adder is simply a connection of two half-adders joined by

(a) AND gate

(b) OR gate

(c) NAND gate

(d) NOR gate

Q48. 64K memory contains how many words of 8 bits each?

(a)65,536

(b)64,536

(c)65,436

(d)65,546

Q49. The sum of -6 and -13 using 2’s complement addition is,

(a)11100011

(b)11110011

(c)11001100

(d)11101101

Q50. What is described by the Mnemonic SHRA?

(a)Arithmetic shift left

(b)Logical shift right

Computer Organization and Architecture

(c)Logical shift left

(d)Arithmetic shift right

 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 1 of 14

MULTIPLE CHOICE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION

Q1. Which out of these is a non-linear data-structure:
a. arrays b.linked-lists
c. queues d. tree

Q2. A stack is a data-structure in which elements are stored and retrieved by:
a. FIFO method b.LIFO method
c. FCFS method d. None of the above

Q3. The different types of arrays are:

a. One & Multi-dimensional b. int and float
c. int,char,float d. One & Two dimensional

Q4. An array is passed into a function:

a. by value b. by reference
c. element by element d. Any of the above

Q5. A queue is a data-structure in which elements are stored and retrieved by:
a. FIFO method b.LIFO method
c. FCFS method d. None of the above

Q6. If an array with the name, A exists which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A++ b. printf(“%d”,*(A+1))
c. printf(“%u”,A+1) d. All are correct

Q7. An uninitialized pointer is known as:

a. dangling pointer b. NULL pointer
c. generic pointer d. None of the above

Q8. The unary operator used with pointer variable to indirectly access the contents of memory
location pointed to by the pointer is called
a. Address-of operator b. dot operator
c. indirection operator d. asterisk operator

Q9. The arithmetic operation performed on pointer variables:

a. multiplication of an integer with pointer b. addition of two pointers
c. subtraction of two pointers d. addition of a float to a pointer
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 2 of 14

Q10. Two ways to access elements of an array are:

a. by value and by reference b. indexed and pointer notation
c. sequential and random d. none of the above

Q11. The functions used for dynamic memory allocation are:

a. delete and free b. free and realloc
c. malloc and free d. malloc and calloc

Q12. An array can be categorized as which type of data-structure:

a. dynamic b. static
c. int/char/float d. multi-dimensional
Q13. The function used in C to de-allocate a memory block is:
a. delete b. free
c. malloc d. realloc

Q14. A collection of elements of different data-types is known as:

a. array b. union
c. structure d. linked list

Q15. To access elements of a structure through a pointer , the operator used is:
a. . b. ->
c. <- d. *

Q16. A structure having atleast one of its members of the same type as the structure itself:
a. reference structure b. nested structure
c. self-referential structure d. none of the above

Q17. A one-way list is called:

a. circular linked list b. array
c. queue d. single linked list

Q18. An orphaned block is the result of:

a. memory leak b. garbage collection
c. free function d. all of the above

Q19. A _ _ pointer can point to any data-type:

a. NULL pointer b. void pointer
c. dangling pointer d. such a pointer does not exist

Q20. If p1 and p2 are pointers of integer type and x is also an integer-type of variable, which of these
expressions is valid:
a. p1*x b. p2+x
c. p1+p2 d.p1*p2

Q21. A linked list can be represented using two ways which are:
a. single and double b. single and circular
c. static and dynamic d. any of the above
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 3 of 14

Q22. Dynamic memory allocation for a node in a linked list is done from:
a. RAM b. ROM
c. Hard disk d. Heap

Q23. A linked list is a linear collection of homogeneous elements called:

a. structures b. nodes
c. data d. none of the above

Q24. Insertion in a linked list can be done from:

a. beginning b. end
c. middle d. all of the above

Q25. The traversal directions possible in a double-linked list are:

a. forward b. backward
c. forward and backward d. right

Q26. A node in a double linked list comprises of:

a: information field b: information field and next pointer
c: information field, next d: information field, next pointer, previous pointer & previous pointer
pointer and thread field

Q27. The situation in which the user tries to delete a node from an empty linked list is called:
a: empty b: free
c. overflow d. underflow

Q28. When a new node is inserted in between a linked list, which of these is true:
a: only the nodes appearing after b: only the nodes appearing before
the new node needs to be moved the new node needs to be moved
c: the nodes appearing before d: None of the above
and after the new node need
to be moved

Q29. The situation in which memory is not available for the allocation of a new node:
a: empty b: free
c. overflow d. underflow

Q30. A linear linked list in which the next field of the last node points back to the first node is termed
as:
a: single linked list b: double linked list
c: circular linked list d: reversed linked list

Q31. A new node can be dynamically inserted anytime in a linked list, for which the memory manager
maintains a special list known as
a: available list b: free-storage list
c: single linked list d: dynamic storage list
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 4 of 14

Q32. The insertion/deletion operations on a stack are respectively known as:

a: insert and delete b: enter and exit
c: push and pop d: none of the above

Q33. A stack could be implemented using:

a. single and double b. single and circular
c: array and linked list d: any of the above

Q34. The pointer used to point to the element in the beginning of the stack is called:
a: start b: front
c: root d: top

Q35. Postfix notation is also know as:

a: polish notation b: reverse polish notation
c: post notation d: post-operator notation

Q36. A linked list is which type of data-structure:

a: static b: non-linear
c: linear d: none of the above

Q37. Prefix notation is also known as:

a: polish notation b: reverse polish notation
c: pre notation d: post-operator notation

Q38. When converting an infix expression to postfix using algorithm, when ‘(‘ is encountered, it is:
a: added to postfix string b: pushed and operators are popped from the stack
c: pushed onto the stack d: options a and c are performed

Q39. The data-structure in which both insertion and deletion take place from the beginning:
a: linked list b: queue
c: tree d: stack

Q40. The postfix expression: 5 6 2 + * 12 4 /- when evaluated gives the following result:
a: 37 b: -37
c: 40 d: 3

Q41. The condition top=-1 indicates that:

a: stack has only one element b: stack is full
c: stack is empty d: none of these

Q42. The validity of an expression containing nested parentheses could be checked using:
a: linked list b: queue
c: tree d: stack

Q43. A string could be reversed using the data-structure:

a: linked list b: queue
c: tree d: stack
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 5 of 14

Q44. The notation in which the operator occurs between the operands is called:
a: infix notation b: prefix notation
c: postfix notation d: post-operator notation

Q45. In a normal queue, the underflow situation occurs when:

a: rear=max -1 b: front= -1
c: rear=front d: rear=size-1

Q46. In a circular queue, one of the situations when overflow occurs:

a: rear=size-1 b: rear=front
c: (rear+1)=front d: front=-1

Q47. In postfix expression, the operator is placed:

a: in-between the operands b: after the operands
c: before the operands d: none of these

Q48. In a priority queue, the elements with the same priority are processed according to:
a: First come first served basis b: priority
c: last in first come basis d: no specific order

Q49. The deque in which insertion is done at one end and deletion from both ends:
a: input-restricted deque b: output-restricted deque
c: input-output restricted deque d: Any of the above

Q50. A circular array queue with space for 10 elements in which front =6 and rear=9, insertion of next
element will take place at position:
a: 0 b: 5
c: 7 d: insertion can not take place due to overflow situation

Q51. A data-structure in which each element is assigned a priority and the elements are
added/removed according to that priority :
a: priority list b: priority queue
c: stack d: none of the above

Q52. A linear data-structure in which elements could be inserted/deleted at either end but not in the
middle:
a: queue b: stack
c: deque d: circular queue

Q53. In a circular queue with 10 elements, if front is at 9 and rear at 4, the deletion of an element will
make front point to which position:
a: 0 b: -1
c: 3 d: 5

Q54. A non-linear hierarchical type of data-structure:

a: graph b: tree
c: array d: deque
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 6 of 14

Q55. All leaf nodes of a tree are termed as:

a: terminal nodes b: non-terminal nodes
c: child nodes d: internal nodes

Q56. The root node is

a: terminal node b: internal nodes
c: child node d: none of the above

Q57. The nodes belonging to the same parent are known as:
a: descendants b: external nodes
c: child nodes d: siblings

Q58. A tree in which the degree of each node is either 0 or 2:

a: complete binary tree b: binary search tree
c: strictly binary tree d: none of the above

Q59. A binary tree in which all the leaf nodes of the tree are at the same level:
a: complete binary tree b: binary search tree
c: strictly binary tree d: none of the above

Q60. At any level x of a binary tree, the maximum number of nodes are:
a. 2x b: 2*x
c: 2+x d: none of the above

Q61. What is the root node for the algebraic expression : a*(b+c)-d, if it is represented in the form of a
tree:
a: - b: +
c: a d: *

Q62. In inorder traversal of a binary tree, the root node is visited:

a: after the traversal of b: before the traversal of
right & left subtrees right and left subtrees
c. in-between the traversal of d: none of these
left and right subtrees

Q63. The height of the following binary tree is:

A
B
C
D E
G
F
a: 3 b: 4
c: 5 d: 2
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 7 of 14

Q64. A binary search tree is also known as:

a: B-tree b: binary sorted tree
c. binary ordered tree d: B+ tree

Q65. A binary tree in which the node-values are not repeated is called:
a: B-tree b: binary search tree
c. binary ordered tree d: B+ tree

Q66. A binary search tree in which the nodes have been inserted in the following
order:60,55,95,40,30,100,35, the node with the value 47 will be inserted to the:
a: right of node with value 40 b: right of node with value 55
c: right of node with value 35 d: left of node with value 30

Q67. In the following post-order traversal of a binary tree: E,C,K,A,H,B,G,D,F, the root node is:

a: E b: H
c: F d: D

Q68. The complexity of bubble-sort algorithm is:

a: O(n2) b: O(n)
c: O(log n) d: O(n log n)

Q69. Binary search is more suitable for:

a: array b: linked list
c: stack d: any of the above

Q70. The complexity of binary-search algorithm is:

a: O(log n) b: O(n log n)
c: O(n) d: O(n2)

Q71. The calloc() function can be used to allocate:

a: multiple blocks of memory b: single block of memory
c: two blocks of memory d: none of these

Q72. The postfix expression of the infix expression: A+B*(C+D)/F+D*E is:

a: AB+CD+*F/D+E* b: ABCD+*F/+DE*+
c: A*B+CD/F*DE++ d: A+*BCD/F*DE++

Q73. A linear list of elements in which deletion can be done from one end and insertion can take
place at the other end is called:
a: queue b: stack
c: tree d: branch

Q74. Which data-structure is needed to convert infix notation to postfix notation:

a: queue b: stack
c: tree d: linked list
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 8 of 14

Q75. Which of the following sorting procedures is the slowest:

a: Quick sort b: bubble sort
c: Shell sort d: insertion sort

Q76. The ‘C’ declaration: int b[100]; reserves _ successive memory locations, each large enough
to contain a single integer:
a: 200 b: 10000
c: 10 d: 100

Q77. If n elements are to be sorted, the complexity of selection-sort is:

a: O(1) b: O(log n)
c: O(n) d: O(n2)

Q78. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as:
a: sorting b: merging
c: inserting d: traversal

Q79. Arrays are best data structures:

a: for relatively permanent collections b: when the size of structure is constantly changing
c: for both the above situations d: for none of the above situations

Q80. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because:
a: in this way the computer can calculate b: computer architecture allows
the address of other elements keeping arrays to be stored serially only
track of address of first element
c: both of the above d: none of the above

Q81. Pick the odd one out:

a: insertion sort b: selection sort
c: counting sort d: merge sort

Q82. If you wanted to make sure that closing parentheses ‘)’ match the opening parentheses ‘(‘ in a
mathematical expression, which data-structure could help you?
a: hash table b: stack
c: queue d: tree

Q83. The estimated amount of time required in executing an algorithm is referred to as _ _ of the
algorithm.
a: time complexity b: space complexity
c: time and space complexity d: none of the above

Q84. If all the data to be sorted does not fit entirely in main memory, the sorting technique used is:
a: internal sorting b: external sorting
c: merge sorting d: sorting can not be performed

Q85. The searching technique suitable for unsorted arrays:

a: binary search b: linear search
c: any of these d: none of these
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 9 of 14

Q86. A theoretical measure of algorithm execution, usually the time/ memory needed , given the
problem size n , is referred to as:
a: Big O notation b: Polish notation
c: Time notation d: space complexity

Q87. The technique of collecting unused memory is known as:

a: garbage collection b: Dynamic memory allocation
c: static memory allocation d: none of these

Q88. The root node of a binary tree whose preorder traversal is: F,B,A,D,C,E,G, I, H is:
a: F b: H
c: C d: none of these

Q89. The post-order traversal of an arithmetic expression will result in the expression being
represented as:
a: postfix b: prefix
c: infix d: none of the above

Q90. The main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are:

a: processor and memory b: complexity and capacity
c: time and space d: data and space

Q91. Which of the following cases does not exist in complexity theory:
a: best case b: worst case
c: average case d: Null case

Q92. The worst case occurs in linear search algorithm when:

a: item is in the middle of the b: item is not in the array
array
c: item is the last element in the d: item is the last element in the
array array or not in the array at-all

Q93. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is:

a: O(n) b: O(log n)
2
c: O(n ) d: O(n log n)

Q94. The complexity of linear search algorithm is:

a: O(n) b: O(log n)
2
c: O(n ) d: O(n log n)

Q95. Which of the following data structures is not a linear data structure:
a: arrays b: linked lists
c: both of the above d: none of the above

Q96. Linked lists are best suited:

a: for relatively permanent collections b: when the size of structure is
constantly changing
c: for both the above situations d: for none of the above situations
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 10 of 14

Q97. The memory address of the first element of an array is called:

a: floor address b: foundation address
c: first address d: base address

Q98. The memory address of the fifth element of an array can be calculated by the formula:
a: Base(Array)+w(5-lower bound) where b: Base(Array[5])+(5-lower bound)
w is the size of each element of array
c: Base(Array[5])+(5-upper bound) d: none of the above

Q99. Which of the following data-structures are indexed structures:

a: linear arrays b: linked lists
c: both of the above d: none of the above

Q100. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm:
a: the list must be sorted b: a direct access to middle element is needed
c: a mechanism to delete/insert elements d: None of the above
in list

Q101. Which of the following data structures can’t store non-homogeneous data-elements:
a: Arrays b: Records
c: Pointers d: None

Q102. Which of the following statements is false:

a: Arrays are static data structures b: data elements in linked list need
not be stored in adjacent space in
memory
c: pointer stores the next data element d: linked lists are collection of nodes
of a list that contain information part &
next pointer

Q103. Which of the following is a two-way list:

a: grounded header list b: circular header list
c: linked list with header & trailer nodes d: none of the above

Q104. The terms “push” and “pop” are related to:

a: array b: lists
c: stacks d: all of the above

Q105. The depth of a complete binary tree is given by:

a: n log n b: n log n +1
c: log n d: log n +1

Q106. When representing any algebraic expression E which uses only binary operations in a 2-tree:
a: the variables in E will appear as external b: the operations in E will appear as
nodes and operations as internal nodes external nodes and variables as
internal nodes
c: the variables and operations in E will d: the variables and operations in E
appear only as internal nodes appear only as external nodes
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 11 of 14

Q107. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is known as:

a: sub-algorithm b: recursive algorithm
c: polish notation d: traversal algorithm

Q108. The inorder traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree:
a: binary tree b: binary search tree
c: heaps d: none of the above

Q109. Value of first linked list index is:

a: 1 b: 0
c: -1 d: none of these

Q110. A_ is a data-structure that organizes data similar to a line in the super-market, where
the first one in the line is the first to be out:
a: queue b: stacks
c: any of the two above c: none of these

Q111. Which of the following abstract data types is not used by integer abstract data type group?
a: short b: int
c: float d: long

Q112. In a heap tree:

a: value in a node is greater than every b: value in a node is greater than
value in left subtree and smaller than the value of its child nodes
right subtree
c: both the above conditions d: none of the above conditions

Q113. The variables which can be accessed by all modules in a program, are known as:
a: local variables b: internal variables
c: external variables d: global variables

Q114. The post order traversal of a binary tree is :DEBFCA, find out the preorder traversal:
a: ABFCDE b: ADBFEC
c: ABDECF d: ABDCEF

Q115. Which of the following algorithms is of divide and conquer type:

a: bubble-sort b: insertion sort
c: quick sort d: all of the above

Q116. One of the applications of a linked list:

a: Polynomial evaluation b: Postfix expression evaluation
c: determining the distance traveled d: none of these

Q117. A tree having any number of nodes:

a: binary tree b: general tree
c: B-tree d: AVL tree

Q118. A set of several trees that are not linked to each other in any way
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 12 of 14

a: Forest b: Graphs
c: B-trees d: none of these

Q119. All the non-leaf nodes except the root node in a multi-way search tree of order, n have atleast:
a: n-1 children b: n children
c: n/2 children d: n*2 children

Q120. Heaps are of two types:

a: high and low b: max and min
c: B and B+ d: none of the above

Q121. Incase of min-heap, the value present in any node is:

a: greater than all its children b: smaller than all its children
c: equal to all its children d: greater than values in left subtree and smaller than value of
right subtree

Q122. A min-heap is also known as:

a: decreasing heap b: descending heap
c: low heap d: none of these

Q123. A max-heap is also known as:

a: increasing heap b: ascending heap
c: high heap d: none of these

Q124. A tree in which the value in every node is more than node-values in its left subtree and less than
node-values in its right subtree:
a: binary sorted tree b: B-tree
c: B+ tree d: AVL tree

Q125. A matrix which has most of its values equal to 0:

a: sparse matrix b: zero-matrix
c: empty matrix d: none of the above

Q126. A sparse matrix can also be represented using:

a: queue b: stack
c: tree d: linked list

Q127. A B-tree grows at the:

a: root b: leaves
c: braches d: any of the above

Q128. A binary tree grows at the

a: root b: leaves
c: braches d: any of the above

Q129. Shell sort is an improvisation over:

a: quick- sort b: merge-sort
c: insertion-sort d: none of these
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 13 of 14

Q130. To reduce disk-accesses while searching for a record, the tree used is:
a: binary sorted tree b: B-tree
c: general tree d: AVL tree

Q131. While calculating time-complexity, the program-time which is considered is:

a: compile time b: execution time
c: both compile and run-time d: none of the above

Q132. The time complexity of the following algorithm is:

sum(a,n){ s=0; for i= 1 to n{s=s+a[i]; } return s;}
a: 3n+2 b: 2n +3
c: n+1 d: 2n+2

Q133. Complexity of heap sort

a: O(n) b: O(log n)
c: O(n2) d: O(n log n)

Q134. If there are more than one paths between two nodes, it is a:
a: tree b: graph
c: circular linked list d: none of the above

Q135. The leaf nodes of a tree have height equal to:

a: height of the tree b: zero
c: one d: none of these

Q136. A binary tree with n internal nodes has a max. of external nodes equal to:
a: n-1 b: n+1
c: n d: n/2

Q137. Height of a full binary tree with n internal nodes is:

a: n log n b: n
c: n+1 d: log n

Q138. The degree of a leaf node is:

a: 1 b: 0
c: -1 d:2

Q139. A right in-threaded binary tree contains:

a: inorder successor b: inorder predecessor
c: NULL d: preorder successor

Q140. The algorithm used in dynamic memory allocation with minimum time:
a: First fit b: Best fit
c: Worst fit d: Next fit
 SUBJECT: ‘DATA STRUCTURE’ Page 14 of 14

Q141. The algorithm used in dynamic memory allocation which results in minimum fragmentation:
a: First fit b: Best fit
c: Worst fit d: Next fit
1. What do you call a collection of interrelated data?
a. Metadata
b. Information
c. Database Management System
d. Customer Relationship Management System

2. What is ACID property?

a. Automatic, Consistency, Identical, Duplication
b. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
c. Automatic, Consistency, Isolation, Duplication
d. Atomicity, Consistency, Identical, Duplication

3. Which transaction is an indivisible and irreducible series of database operations

such that either all occur, or nothing occurs?
a. Atomic transaction
b. Consistent transaction
c. Parallel transaction
d. Duplicate transaction

4. What do you mean by if the transaction must either fully happen, or not happen at
all, it must not complete partially?
a. Durability
b. Consistency
c. Isolation
d. Atomicity

5. Which level describes how a record is stored?

a. View level
b. Physical level
c. Logical level
d. UI level

6. Which level describes data stored in database, and the relationships among the
data?
a. View level
b. Physical level
c. Logical level
d. UI level
7. The logical structure of the database is called as:
a. Tuple
b. Domain
c. Data Dictionary
d. Schema

8. The ability to modify the physical schema without changing the logical schema is
called as:
a. Physical Data Independence
b. Logical Data Independence
c. View Data Independence
d. None of the above

9. A collection of tools for describing data, data relationships, data semantics and data
constraints is called as:
a. Data Independence
b. Data Model
c. Data View
d. Data Structure

10. What do you mean by a collection of operations that performs a single logical
function in a database application?
a. Instruction
b. Operator
c. Transaction
d. Database

11. Which of the following controls the interaction among the concurrent transactions,
to ensure the consistency of the database?
a. Storage manager
b. Concurrency-control manager
c. Query processor
d. Disk manager

12. Which is a program module that provides the interface between the low-level data
stored in the database and the application programs and queries submitted to the
system?
a. Storage manager
b. Concurrency-control manager
c. Query processor
 d. Disk manager

13. Which of the following component is responsible for Interaction with the OS file
manager and Efficient storing, retrieving and updating of data?
a. Storage manager
b. Concurrency-control manager
c. Query processor
d. Disk manager

14. Consider money is transferred from (1) account-A to account-B and (2) account-B
to account-A. Which of the following form a transaction?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2 individually
d. Either 1 or 2

15. For which of the following problem, one transaction inserts a row in the table while
the other transaction is half way through its browsing of table?
a. Transaction read problem
b. One way read problem
c. Serial read problem
d. Phantom read problem

16. Which of the following does help to solve concurrency problem?

a. Locking
b. Transaction monitor
c. Transaction serializability
d. Two phase commit

17. If a transaction acquires a shared lock, then it can perform which operation?

a. Read
b. Write
c. Read and write
d. Update

18. If a transaction obtains a shared lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants
to ________ that row.
a. Write
b. Insert
 c. Execute
d. Read

19. If a transaction obtains an exclusive lock on a row, it means that the transaction
wants to ________ that row.
a. Select
b. Update
c. View
d. Read

20. If a transaction acquires exclusive lock, then it can perform _________ operation.
a. Read
b. Write
c. Read and Write
d. Update

21. Which is a specific concurrency problem wherein two transactions depend on each
other for something?
a. Phantom read problem
b. Transaction read problem
c. Deadlock
d. Locking

22. If a database server is referenced in a distributed transaction, the value of its

commit point strength determines which role it plays in the __________________.

a. two phase commit

b. two phase locking
c. transaction locking
d. checkpoints

23. The situation in which a transaction holds a data item and waits for the release of
data item held by some other transaction, which in turn waits for another
transaction, is called as ?
a. Serializable schedule
b. Process waiting
c. Concurrency
d. Deadlock

24. Which protocol grantees that a set of transactions becomes serializable?

 a. two phase locking
b. two phase commit
c. transaction locking
d. checkpoints

25. The global coordinator forgets about the transaction phase is called ________.
a. Prepare phase
b. Commit phase
c. Forget phase
d. Global phase

26. In two phase commit, who coordinates the synchronization of the commit or
rollback operations?
a. database manager
b. central coordinator
c. participants
d. concurrency control manager

27. In two-phase locking protocol, a transaction obtains locks in which phase?

a. shrinking phase
b. growing phase
c. running phase
d. initial phase

28. A transaction processing system is also called as ?

a. processing monitor
b. transaction monitor
c. TP monitor
d. monitor

29. In which of the following, we have many mini transactions within a main
transaction?
a. transaction control
b. chained transaction
c. nested transaction
d. calling transaction

30. In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction release locks in which phase?

 a. shrinking phase
b. growing phase
c. running phase
d. initial phase

31. The relational model is concerned with

a. Data Structure
b. Data Integrity
c. Data manipulation
d. All of the above

32. The union of primary keys of related entity sets becomes ________________of
relation.
a. Super key
b. Candidate key
c. Foreign key
d. Primary key
33. If any entity in A is associated with any number of entities of B ,however an entity
in B is associated with atmost one entity of A.
a. One to one
b. Many to many
c. Many to one
d. One to many

34. Large collection of files are called?

a. Fields
b. Records
c. Databases
d. File system
35. Which of the following key represent relationship between tables?
a. Reference key
b. Relation key
c. Foreign key
d. Candidate key
36. In RDBMS tuples means what?
a. Record
b. Field
c. File
d. Database
37. Which of the following command is used to retrieve unique records from the table?
a. Unique
b. Distinct
c. Single
 d. None of above
38. Which of the following command is used to delete records from the table according
to specific condition?
a. Truncate
b. Drop
c. Discard
d. Delete
39. Which of the following command is used to view the structure of the table?
a. View
b. DESC
c. Display
d. Show
40. Number of related records which are treated as a unit is called?
a. File
b. Field
c. Data
d. Batch
41. Which command is used to modify structure of the table?
a. Alter
b. Modify
c. Change
d. Redefine
42. The descriptive property possessed by each entity set is _________ .
a. Entity
b. Attribute
c. Relation
d. Model
43. Entity is a?
a. Object of relation
b. Present working model
c. Thing in real world
d. None of the above
44. Which of the following is correct in context to retrieve maximum salary of an
employee from an employee table?
a. Select max(salary) from employee;
b. Select highest(salary) from employee;
c. Select employee_name from employee where max(salary)
d. Select salary from employee where salary=max(salary);
45. Which of the following is correct about constraint?
a. Primary key could be considered as constraint
b. Foreign key could be considered as constraint.
c. Not null could be a constraint
d. All of the above.
46. Which of the following cannot be a type of attribute?
a. Multivalued attribute
b. Composite attribute
c. Derived attribute
d. Join attribute
47. Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute?
a. Phone_number
b. Name
c. Date_of_birth
d. All of the mentioned
48. Which of the following is a single valued attribute
a. Registration number
b. Phone number
c. Subject_ aken
d. Reference
49. In ER diagrams, rectangles are used to denote
a. Entity types
b. Attribute types
c. Key types
d. Structure types
50. In Constructing ER diagrams, double ovals are used to denote?
a. multi-value table
b. multi-value entity
c. multi-value attributes
d. multi-value key
 Object Oriented Programming with JAVA MCQs

1. Which of the following statements is true?

1. JVM is used to convert source code into byte code.
2. JVM is used to convert byte code into machine code.

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Both d. None

2. Polymorphism can be achieved in Java by using _.

a. Inheritance b. Abstract class

c. Method Overloading d. Interface

3. Which of following is not a keyword in Java?

1. final
2. abstract
3. friend
4. static

a. 1 b. 1 & 2

c. 3 d. All

4. Which one is a correct syntax of for loop in java?

1. for(i=0; i<5; i++)
2. for(i:ary)
3. for(i=1;j=0;j--;i<3)

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Only 3 d. All

5. Interface can be used to provide:

1. Multiple Inheritance
2. Fully Abstraction
3. Polymorphism
4. Encapsulation

a. Only 1 b. 1 & 2

c. 1, 2 & 3 d. All

6. In Java, char data type supports 2 byte character because of _ .

a. ASCII Code system b. Provide portability

c. UNICODE System d. Common Number System

7. Which of the following statement is false?

1. Constructor invoked automatically.
2. Constructor can’t have any return type.
3. Constructor must be declared with public access specifier.

a. Only 1 b. 1 & 3

c. Only 2 d. Only 3
8. In java main method can’t be override because .

a. Only one main method allowed. b. main method is public

c. main method is static d. It begins execution of program.

9. Which of the following is correct method to input single character from user?
1. charAt()
2. nextChar()
3. NextCharacter()

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Only 3 d. All

10. Which of the following statement is true?

1. Abstract method must belong to abstract class.
2. Abstract class only contains abstract methods.

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Both d. None

11. Instance members of Interface are always _ .

a. public b. static

c. final d. All

12. Which of the following is valid in Java?

1. final
2. finally
3. finalize

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Only 3 d. All

13. Which of the following statement is valid in Java?

a. Static method can’t be overload. b. Final class can’t be instantiated.

c. Abstract class can’t be inherited. d. Static method can’t be override.

14. Which one is not valid statement in Java?

a. Java does not support multiple inheritance. b. Interface supports multiple inheritance.

c. Interface can’t provide hybrid inheritance. d. Interface is used to provide abstraction.

15. Packages are used for .

a. Providing reusability of code in Java. b. Providing abstraction in Java.

c. Providing program in simpler manner. d. Providing overriding of methods.

16. In following code which exception will be called:

class Demo
{
 public static void main(String args[])
{
int a[] = new int[2];
a[0] = 10; a[1] = 5;
int res = a[2] / 0;
System.out.println(res);
}
}

a.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException b. ArithmeticException

c. NumberFormatException d. ArrayStoreException

17. Which of the following statement is not valid for exception handling?

a. Try block must followed by catch block. b. Program contains multiple catch statements.

c. Program contains multiple finally statements. d. Multiple exceptions declaration is possible.

18. Which one of the following is a not valid feature of OOPS?

1. Encapsulation
2. Parsing
3. Polymorphism.
4. Catching

a. Only 2 b. 2 & 3

c. 1 & 2 d. 2 & 4

19. Which one is default value of String object in Java?

a. Garbage b. null

c. 0 d. None

20. How many maximum command line arguments can be supplied in Java programs?

a. One b. Eight

c. Eighteen d. Any number of

21. Which of the following statements is false in Java?

1. Java application may have more than one method.
2. One file may contain more than one class declared as public.
3. Java does not support pointer concepts.

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. Only 3 d. 1 & 2

22. Throws keyword is used in java for

a. Declaring exceptions b. Throwing exception

c. Taking appropriate action on exception d. Protecting code with exception

23. Finally block is used for

a. To execute the block any how b. To execute block when there is no exception
 c. To execute block when exception arrived d. To exit from the program

24. Static keyword is used mainly for

a. Efficient memory management b. To avoid encapsulation

c. Providing global access of data d. None of above

25. Run time polymorphism can be achieved in Java by using

a. Method Overloading b. Method Overriding

c. Interface d. Final method

26. Which of the following is valid Java statement?

1. Super() and this() can’t be used simultaneously.
2. Main method can be override.
3. Packages are always declared with public.

a. Only 1 b. Only 2

c. 1 & 2 d. 1 & 3

27. Find the output of following code

Class Test
{
int no;
Test() { no++; System.out.print(no);}

public static void main(String args[])

{
Test t1 = new Test();
Test t2 = new Test();
}
}
a. 1 1
b. 1 2

c. 0 0 d. Garbage value

28. What will be the output of following code?

String str = "Java was developed by James Ghosling";

System.out.println(str.substring(19));

a. "by James Ghosling" b. "y James Ghosling"

c. " by James Ghosling" d. "Java was developed "

29. Which is true?

a. "X extends Y" is correct if and only if X is a b. "X extends Y" is correct if and only if X is a
class and Y is an interface. interface and Y is a class.
c. "X extends Y" is correct if X and Y are either d. "X extends Y" is correct for all combinations of
both classes or both interface. X and Y being classes and/or interfaces.
30. Which letters will be printed when the given program is run?
public class MyClass
{
public static void main(String[] args)
{
 B b = new C();
A a = b;
if (a instanceof A) System.out.println("A");
if (a instanceof B) System.out.println("B");
if (a instanceof C) System.out.println("C");
if (a instanceof D) System.out.println("D");
}
}

class A {}
class B extends A {}
class C extends B {}
class D extends C {}

a. A, B, C will be printed. b. only A and B will be printed.

c. only B will be printed. d. only C will be printed.

31. What will be the output of the program?

class Demo
{
public static void main(String [] args)
{
Demo p = new Demo();
p.start();
}

void start()
{
long [] a1 = {3,4,5};
long [] a2 = fix(a1);
System.out.print(a1[0] + a1[1] + a1[2] + " ");
System.out.println(a2[0] + a2[1] + a2[2]);
}

long [] fix(long [] a3)

{
a3[1] = 7;
return a3;
}
}

a. 12 15 b. 15 15

c. 3 4 5 3 7 5 d. 3 7 5 3 7 5

32. What will be the output of the program?

classTestDemo
{
publicstaticvoid main(String [] args)
{
TestDemo p = newTestDemo();
p.start();
}

void start()
{
boolean b1 = false;
boolean b2 = fix(b1);
System.out.println(b1 + " " + b2);
}
 boolean fix(boolean b1)
{
b1 = true;
return b1;
}
}

a. true true b. false true

c. true false d. false false

33. What will be the output of the program?

classEquals
{
publicstaticvoid main(String [] args)
{
int x = 100;
double y = 100.1;
boolean b = (x = y); /* Line 7 */
System.out.println(b);
}
}

a. true b. false

c. Compilation fails d. An exception is thrown at runtime

34. What will be the output of the program?

try
{
int x = 0;
int y = 5 / x;
}
catch (Exception e)
{
System.out.println("Exception");
}
catch (ArithmeticException ae)
{
System.out.println(" Arithmetic Exception");
}
System.out.println("finished");

a. finished b. Exception

c. Compilation fails. d. Arithmetic Exception

35. Write missing statement by considering output.

classSchooling
{
publicstaticvoid main(String [] args)
{
Schooling s = new Schooling();
s.start();
}

void start()
{
int a = 3;
int b = 4;
System.out.print(" " + 7 + 2 + " ");
 //Missing statement
System.out.print(" " + a + b + " ");
System.out.print(foo() + a + b + " ");
System.out.println(a + b + foo());
}

String foo()
{
return"foo";
}
}
Output
72 7 34 foo34 7foo

a. System.out.print(a + b); b. System.out.print((a + b));

c. System.out.print("a" + "b"); d. System.out.print(a +","+ b);

36. What will be the output of the program?

classTestDemo
{
staticint s;
publicstaticvoid main(String [] args)
{
TestDemo p = newTestDemo();
p.start();
System.out.println(s);
}

void start()
{
int x = 7;
twice(x);
System.out.print(x + " ");
}

void twice(int x)
{
x = x*2;
s = x;
}
}

a. 7 7 b. 7 14

c. 14 0 d. 14 14

37. Write missing statement by considering output.

classTwo
{
byte x;
}

classPassO
{
publicstaticvoid main(String [] args)
{
PassO p = newPassO();
p.start();
}

void start()
 {
Two t = new Two();
System.out.print(t.x + " ");
Two t2 = fix(t);
System.out.println(t.x + " " + t2.x);
}

Two fix(Two tt)

{
//Missing statement
returntt;
}
}
Output:
0 42 42

a. tt.x = 42; b. tt.x = 43;

c. tt.x = 44; d. tt.x = 45;

38. Which three form part of correct array declarations?

1. public int a [ ]
2. static int [ ] a
3. public [ ] int a
4. private int a [3]

a. 1, 3 b. 2, 4

c. 1, 2 d. 2, 3

39. What is the prototype of the default constructor?

publicclassTest { }

a. Test( ) b. Test(void)

c. public Test( ) d. public Test(void)

40. What is the most restrictive access modifier that will allow members of one class to have access to
members of another class in the same package?

a. public b. abstract

c. protected d. default access

41. Which cause a compiler error?

a. int[ ] scores = {3, 5, 7}; b. int [ ][ ] scores = {2,7,6}, {9,3,45};

d. Integer results[ ] = {new Integer(3), new

c. String cats[ ] = {"Fluffy", "Spot", "Zeus"}; Integer(5), new Integer(8)};
42. What is the widest valid returnType for methodA in line 3?
publicclassReturnIt
{
returnTypemethodA(byte x, double y) /* Line 3 */
{
return (long)x / y * 2;
}
}
 a. int b. byte

c. long d. double

43. Given two files, what will be the Output?

package pck1;
public class A
{
int x = 10;
public int y = 20;
}

package pck2;
import pck1.*;
class Test
{
public static void main(String []args)
{
A a = new A(); // line 7
System.out.println(a.x); // line 8
System.out.println(a.y); // line 9
}
}

a. 10 20 b. compilation error at line 7

c. compilation error at line 8 d. compilation error at line 9

44. import keyword is used to?

a. import both built-in packages and user- b. import only built-in packages into your java
defined packages into your java source file. source file
c. import only user-defined packages into your
d. None of the above
java source file
45. Fill in the blank to compile the code successfully?
abstract class A
{
int a = 100;
public abstract void showA(); }

public class B extends A

{
_________ // Fill the blank

public static void main(String []args)

{
A objA = new B();
objA.showA();
}
}

a. public abstract void showA() { } b. public void showA() { }

c. void showA() { } d. public B showA() { }

46. Which is a valid declaration within an Interface?

 a. public static short stop = 23; b. protected short stop = 23;

c. transient short stop = 23; d. final void start(short stop);

47. Which of following is a valid class using the given code?

a. public class B extends A { public void b. public class B implements A { public abstract
showA(){} } void showA(){} }
c. public class B implements A { void d. public class B implements A { public void
showA(){} } showA(){} }
48. Given the following declarations, which assignment is legal?
// Class declarations :
interface A {}
class B {}
class C extends B implements A {}
class D implements A {}

// Declaration statements :
B b = new B();
C c = new C();
D d = new D();

a. c = d; b. d = c;

c. A a = d; d. d = (D)c;

49. What will be the result of given code?

String str = "Java";
String str1 = new String("Java");

System.out.println(str.equals(str1));
System.out.println(str == str1);
System.out.println( str.compareTo(str1) );

a. true truetrue b. true true 0

c. true false true d. true false 0

50. How many new objects are created in given code?

String str = new String("Hello");

a. 0 b. 1

c. 2 d. 3