Subject Name: Operating System ANS

Paper Code: UG-IT-321

1) An operating system is a program that acts as a_____ between the user program
and computer system
B
(A) Application Program (B) interface (C). System call (D) All of these
2) The operating system that found as open source software is_____ C
(A) MS-DOS (B) Mac OS (C) Linux (D) Windows
3) To access services of operating system the interface is given by the____ A
(A)System call (B) application (C) Assembly instruction (D). API
4) Which of the following is example of spooled device: B
(A) A Secondary memory device in virtual memory
(B) A line printer used to print output of number of programs
(C) A terminal that is used to input data for program that is currently executing
(D) None of these
5) Multiprogramming Systems are _______________ C
(A) Easier to develop single user operating systems.
(B) Execute each job more rapidly
(C) Execute more jobs in identical time
(D)None
6) A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following? C
A) Code B) Stack
C) Bootstrap program D) Data
7) The type of error that is handled by operating system is: D
(A) Power failure (B) paper out of printer (C) network failure (D) All of these
8) Which of following is not operating system service? B
(A) Program execution (B) Compilation (C) Accounting (D) File Manipulation
9) A backing store is commonly the _________ A
(A) Fast drum or disk (B) software (C) queue (D) None of these
10) A running program requires input and as the program finishes its execution it C
produces output. The function of operating system that performs this task is__
(A) Process management (B) Memory management
(C)Input-Output management (D) None
11) The process that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to B
execute are kept on a list called _________
(A) job queue (B) ready queue (C) execution queue (D) process queue

1 P.T.O.
12) Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests
the CPU first? A
(A) first come first served scheduling (B) shortest job scheduling (C) priority
scheduling (D) none of above
13) In priority scheduling algorithm CPU is allocated to the process with ________
(A) lower priority (B) higher priority (C) middle priority (D) none of these B
14) Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ___________
(A) Non-preemptive scheduling (B) Preemptive scheduling (C) all of the B
mentioned (D) none of these
15) Swapping requires a ___________
(A) motherboard
D
(B) keyboard
(C) monitor
(D) backing store
16) Difference between turnaround time and burst time is called_____ B
(A)response time (B)waiting time (C)recurring time (D)None of these
17) A CPU bound program might have ___________ A
(A) a few long CPU bursts (B) a few short CPU bursts
(C) many short CPU bursts (D) None of above
18) An optimal scheduling algorithms in terms of minimizing the average waiting C
time of a given set of processes is __________
(A)FCFS Scheduling algorithm (B) Round robin scheduling algorithm
(C) Shortest Job first scheduling algorithm (D) None of above
19) The number of tasks performed in given time unit by system is called___ A
(A) Throughput (B) Execution-time (C) Response-time (D) All of these
20) Which of the following is not a process state? D
(A) New (B) Active (C) Waiting (D) Quick
21) CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________ B
(A) multiprocessor systems (B) multiprogramming operating systems
(C) larger memory sized systems (D) none of these
22) The sum of waiting time and burst time is called_____ B
(A)response time (B )turnaround time (C)recurring time (D)None of these
23) In _______ scheduling system, the currently executing program can be removed
from CPU at any time. B
(A)Non preemptive (B) Preemptive
(C) Priority scheduling (D) None of these
24) Which of the following criteria to evaluate a scheduling algorithm? D
(A) CPU utilization (B) Throughput (C) waiting time (D) All of above

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25) If the quantum time of round robin algorithm is very large, then it is equivalent
to __
B
(A) Shortest job first (B) First-in-First-Out
(C) Priority scheduling (D) None of these
26) ____________ scheduler selects the jobs from the pool of jobs and loads into the
ready queue.
A
(A) long term (B) short term
(C) mid term (D) None of these
27) Major problem with priority scheduling is _________ C
(A) Definite blocking (B) Low priority (C) Starvation (D) None of these
28) The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is
termed as ___________ B
(A) waiting time (B) turnaround time (C) response time (D) throughput
29) An I/O bound program typically has __________
(A) a few long CPU bursts (B) a few short CPU burst C
(C) many short CPU bursts (D) None of the above
30) A scheduler which selects processes from secondary storage device is called C
(A) Short term scheduler (B) long term scheduler
(C) medium term scheduler (D) None of these
31) Logical address is generated by ________
(A) CPU (B) Main memory (C) Address register (D) I/O Unit A
32) Total memory space in enough to satisfy a request or to store a process but
memory is not contiguous then _______ occurs. B
(A)Internal fragmentation (B) External fragmentation (C) Total fragmentation (D)
None of these
33) _______ reduces external fragmentation. C
(A)MVT (B) MFT (C) Paging (D) Segmentation
34) A technique to remove an inactive program from memory temporarily is known B
as____
(A)Paging (B) Swapping C()Deleting (D) Editing
35) Physical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________
(A) frames
A
(B) pages
(C) backing store
(D) none of these
36) The ___________ swaps processes in and out of the memory. A
A) Memory manager B) CPU
C) CPU manager D) User
37) A multiprogramming system with variable number of task is known as ______. A
(A) MVT (B) MFT (C) paging (D) segmentation

3 P.T.O.
38) Logical memory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________
(A) frames
B
(B) pages
(C) backing store
(D) none of these
39) A multiprogramming system with fixed number of task is known as ______. B
(A) MVF (B) MFT (C) paging (D) segmentation
40) A memory management technique in which user has complete control over the D
entire memory space is________
(A)MVT (B) MFT (C) Resident monitor (D) bare machine
41) ________ eliminates internal fragmentation. B
(A)Paging (B)Segmentation (C) Swapping (D) none of these
42) A memory block assign to a process is larger than the memory required for the
process then _______ occurs. A
(A)Internal fragmentation (B) External fragmentation (C) Total fragmentation (D)
None of these
43) A solution to the problem of external fragmentation is ____________
(A) compaction (B) larger memory space (C) smaller memory space (D) None of A
these
44) Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from B
secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
(A) fragmentation (B) paging (C) mapping (D) none of the mentioned
45) CPU performance is measured through __________ A
(A) Throughput (B) MHz (C) Flaps (D) None of above
46) ________holds the address of next instruction to execute. C
(A)Program curser(B)Program instruction(C)Program counter(D)None of these
47) In segmentation, each address is specified by ____________
A) a segment number & offset
B) an offset & value
C) a value & segment number A
D) a key & value
48) Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term
scheduler?
A
(A) dispatcher (B) interrupt
(C) scheduler (D) none of these
49) Program always deals with _________
(A) Logical Address
A
(B) Physical Address
(C) Absolute Address
(D) Relative Address

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50) The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________ B
(A) stack pointer (B) page table base register (C) page register (D) program
counter
51) Paging eliminates __________ B
(A)Swapping (B) fragmentation (C) memory space (D) None of these
52) Compaction is a _______ C
(A) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation (B) a paging technique (C)
a technique for overcoming external fragmentation (D) a technique for
overcoming fatal error
53) The page table contains ____________ A
(A) base address of each page in physical memory (B) page offset (C) page size
(D) none of the mentioned
54) _______suffers from external fragmentation. A
(A)Segmentation (B) Paging (C) Swapping (D) None of these
55) Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________ A
(A) Memory management unit (B) CPU (C) PCI (D) None of the mentioned

56) The ________ policy is to select disk I/O request that needs minimum movement B
of disk arm from its current position.
(A) Last in First Out (B) Shortest Seek Time First
(C) Priority by Process (D) Random Scheduling
57) SSTF stands for __________
(A) Shortest Seek Time First (B) Smallest Seek Time First
A
(C) Simple Seek Time First (D) None of these
58) Which of the term is not related to disk scheduling? B
(A) transfer time (B) waiting time (C) seek time (D) rotational latency
59) In ______ algorithm, the disk arm starts at one end of the disk and moves toward C
the other end, servicing the requests till the other end of the disk. At the other
end, the direction is reversed and servicing continues.
(A) SSTF (B) FCFS (C) Elevator (D) C-LOOK
60) Sector interleaving in disk is performed by_________ A
(A) Operating System (B) Disk Manufacturer
(C)The disk controller (D) None of these
61) Which of the following disk scheduling algorithm is also known as Elevator C
algorithm.
(A) FCFS (B) SSTF (C) SCAN (D) None of these
62) The ____ policy selects the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of B
disk arm from its current position.
(A) FCFS (B) SSTF (C) SCAN (C) C-LOOK

5 P.T.O.
63) Once head is at right track, it must wait until desired block rotates under the B
read/write head. This delay is called as ____________
(A) Transfer time (B) Latency time (C) Seek time (D) Access time
64) The term that has no relevance with disk scheduling? B
(A) Transfer time (B) Waiting time (C) Seek time (D) Rotational latency
65) In the _____algorithm, disk arm goes as far as the final request in each direction D
and then reverses direction immediately without going to the end of disk.
(A) FCFS (B) SCAN (C) C-SCAN (D) C-LOOK
66) Which of following are major activities of an operating system in connection to D
secondary storage management?
(A) Free space management (B) storage management
(C) disk scheduling (D) all of these
67) The techniques or an algorithm which are used to increase the performance of B
disk storage sub-system is called_____________.
(A) Disk performing (B) Disk Scheduling (C) Disk extending (D) Disk storing
68) What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm D
(A) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
(B) the number of processes changes as time progresses
(C) resource once available can disappear
(D) all of the mentioned
69) Which are the following is not an approach to handling deadlock?
(A)Deadlock prevention (B) Deadlock avoidance D
(C) Deadlock detection and recovery (D) Virtual Memory
70) If preemption is required to deal with deadlocks, which of the following issues
need to be addressed:
D
(A) select a victim ( B) Rollback
(C) Starvation (D) All of these
71) Bankers Algorithm is used to _________
(A)Rectify deadlock (B) prevent deadlock (C) avoid deadlock (D) detect deadlock C
72) Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?
(A) mutual exclusion D
(B) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other
resources
(C) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
(D) all of the mentioned
73) In FCFS scheduling algorithm, turn around time of job1 is 18, job2 is 20 , job3 is B
22 and job4 is 28 then average waiting time is _________
(A) 16 (B) 15 (C) 14 (D) 13

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74) In _______ scheduling system, the currently executing program can be removed B
from CPU at any time.
(A)Non preemptive scheduling (B) Preemptive scheduling
(C) Priority scheduling (D) None of these
75) Which one of the following is a visual (mathematical ) way to determine the
deadlock occurrence? A
(A) resource allocation graph (B) starvation graph (C) inversion graph
(D) none of the mentioned
76) A system is in the safe state if ____________ A
(A) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still
avoid a deadlock (B) there exist a safe sequence (C) all of the mentioned (D) none
of the mentioned
77) Invoking periodically to test for deadlock is one of the ways for deadlock ……………….. C
(A) Prevention (B) Avoidance (C) Detection (D) Deletion
78) A wait for graph in operating system is a directed graph is used for _________ C
(A) Deadlock prevention (B) Deadlock avoidance (C) Deadlock detection
(D) resource preemption
79) The condition can be prevented by requiring that a process request all of its required B
resources at once time and blocking the process until all requests can be granted
simultaneously.
(A) Mutual Exclusion (B) Hold and Wait (C) Preemption (D) Circular Wait
80) The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
(A) defining a linear ordering of resource types
A
(B) using thread
(C) using pipes
(D) all of the mentioned
81) For effective utilization of operating system, when to check for deadlock?
(A)every time a resource is requested (B) at fixed time intervals (C) both A and B C
(D) none of these
82) ………………. is a closed chain of processes exists, such that each process holds at least D
one resource needed by the next process in the chain.
(A) Mutual Exclusion (B) Hold and Wait (C) Preemption (D) Circular Wait
83) Android is specially developed for C
(A) Laptops (B) Desktops (C) Mobile devices (D) None of these
84) The data structures available in the Banker’s algorithm are ____________ D
(A) Available (B) Need (C) Allocation (D) All of the mentioned
85) To avoid deadlock ____________ A
(A) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
(B) resource allocation must be done only once
(C) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
(D) inversion technique can be used

7 P.T.O.
86) For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system ____________
A) at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
A
B) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
C) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
D) all of the mentioned
87) Android is __________ C
(A) web server (B) web browser (C)operating system (D) None of these
88) The feature that is supported by Android is: D
(A) Multitasking (B) Bluetooth (C) Video calling (D) All of these
89) When Google did purchase Android? B
(A) 2007 (B) 2005 (C) 2008 (D) 2010
90) The built-in database that is accessed in Android environment is __________. A
(A) SQLite (B) Apache (C) Oracle (D) MySQL
91) The Android framework is written in ____________language. C
(A) C ( B) C++ (C) java (D) .Net
92) Which company had released the 1st android phone? B
(A) Samsung (B) HTC (C) LG (D) MI
93) Which of following kernel is used in Android environment: A
(A) Monolithic kernel (B) Micro kernel (C) Hybrid kernel (D) none of these
94) .____________ program converts Java byte code into Dalvik byte code. B
(A) Android interpretive complier (B) .dex Compiler
(C) Dalvik Converter (D) None of these
95) The format that is not supported by Android is: C
(A) MP4 (B) MPEG (C) AVI (D) MIDI
96) Page offset is combined with _________ address to define physical memory A
address.
(A)Base (B) memory (C) Logical (D) None of these
97) If no cycle exists in the resource allocation graph ____________
(A) then the system will not be in a safe state
B
(B) then the system will be in a safe state
(C) all of the mentioned
(D) none of the mentioned
98) Android supports ____________ D
(A) Bluetooth (B) Wifi (C) 4G/3G/2G (D) All of these
99) When power button of a computer is turned on ________________ process is occur. B

(A) shutdown (B) booting (C) spooling (D) cooling

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100) In Android Architecture, layer below System Libraries and Android runtime is (It is B
also known as lowest layer)
(A)Applications (B) Linux Kernel (C) Applications Frameworks (D)
System Libraries and Android runtime

**********

9 P.T.O.
 Data Communiation-UG-IT-313 (353203) A
N
S
1) A Computer network allows sharing of ________ C
(A)Information (B)Resources (C)Both a & b (D)None of these

2) ________ transmission features start bits, stop bits and gaps between data units. B
(A)Synchronous (B)Asynchronous (C)Both a & b (D)None of these

3) Serial transmission can be________ C

(A)Synchronous (B)Asynchronous (C)Both a & b (D)None of these

4) ________ is a computer network that is designed for a limited geographic area A

such as a building or a campus
(A)LAN (B)MAN (C)WAN (D)None of these

5) SMDS stands for ________ D

(A) Switched Multiplex Data Service
(B) Switch Multiplexing Data Service
(C) Switching Multi Services
(D) Switched Multi-megabit Data Service

6) Advantage of Cell Relay are ________ C

(A) High-speed Transmission
(B) Multiplexing Transmission
(C) Both a & b
(D) None of these

7) Checksum is used for ________ B

(A) Error Correction (B)Error Detection
(C)Both a & b (D) None of these

8) SVC stands for ________ A

(A) Switched Virtual Circuit
(B) Switching Virtual code
(C) Switching Video circuit
(D) None of the above

1 P.T.O.
9) FDDI stands for________ C
(A) Fiber Distributed Data Interchange
(B) Fiber Distribution Data
(C) Fiber Distribution Data Interface
(D) None of the above

10) Frequencies for satellite communication are in the ________ range C

(A)millihertz (B)megahertz (C)gigahertz (D)terahertz

11) CRC stands for ________ A

(A) Cyclic Redundancy Check
(B) Cycle Redundancy Checker
(C) Circular Redundancy Check
(D) None of the above

12) PVC stands for ________ A

(A) Permanent Virtual Circuit
(B) Private Virtual Circuit
(C) Privacy Virtual Circuit
(D) None of the above

13) Frame relay is a ________ telecommunication service C

(A) Switch circuit
(B) Circuit-switching
(C) Packet-Switching
(D) None of the above

14) The performance of transmission media is often measured by________ D

(A) throughput
(B) propagation speed
(C) propagation time
(D) All of the above

2
15) An Ethernet frame needs to have a minimum length of ________ A
(A) 512 bits or 64 btyes
(B) 412 bits or 32 btyes
(C) 312 bits or 8 btyes
(D) 212 bits or 34 btyes

16) X.25 is a ________ protocol C

(A)MAN (B)LAN (C)WAN (D)None

17) Three methods of switching are ________ B

(A)Loop Switching, packet switching and message switching
(B)Circuit Switching, packet switching and message switching
(C)Node Switching, packet switching and message switching
(D)circuit Switching, protcol switching and message switching

18) ________ are hardware and software devices capable of creating temporary D
connections.
(A)Link (B)Node (C)Connection (D)Switches

19) Telephone is an example of ________ A

(A)Full duplex (B)Simplex (C)Half Duplex (D)None of these

20) The maximum amount of data transmitted over the line in a given amount of time C
is called _______
(A)Signal (B)Delay (C)Bandwidth (D)Period

21) _______ Cable consist of an inner copper and second conducting outer sheath. B
(A)Twisted Pair (B)Coaxial (C)Fiber optic (D)Submarine

22) Circuit switching was designed for _______ communication C

(A)video (B)data (C)voice (D)None
23) Baud means_______ A
(A)The number of bits transmitted per unit time
(B)The number of bytesid transmitted per unit time
(C)The number at which the signal changes
((D)None

3 P.T.O.
24) UTP cable stands for_______ C
(A)Shielded Twisted Pair (B) Shielded Pair
(C) Unshielded Twisted Pair (D)None
25) Time Division switches uses ________Multiplexing to achieve switching B
(A)Frequency Division (B)Time Division (C)Pulse Code (D)None

26) In fiber optic the source is ________ B

(A)radio (B)light (C)infrared (D)very low frequency

27) When a single bit changes in the data, is called as ________ error B
(A) Burst Error (B)Single Bit (C)Byte (D) a & b

28) Checksums use _________ arithmetic. A

(A) one’s complement arithmetic
(B) two’s complement arithmetic
(C) either a or b
(D) None
29) In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. B

(A) one bit less than (B) one bit more than
(C) The same size as (D) none of the above
30) A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network. B
(A)Circuit Switched (B)Packet Switched (C)Bit Switched (D)None

31) Guided media provides a channel from one device to another includes D
(A)Twisted pair cable (B)Coaxial cable (C)Fiber optic (D)All of the above
32) _______ is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data over short A
distances from fixed and mobile devices, building personal area networks (PANs)
(A)Bluetooth (B) Internet (C)VPN (D) None of these

33) In IEEE Project 802, flow control, error control, and part of the framing duties are B
collected into one sublayer called the
(A) logical line communication (B) logical link control
(A) logic line community (D) None

4
34) Choose the Applications of Bluetooth from following : D
(A) In laptops, notebooks and wireless PCs
(B) In wireless headsets.
(C) In printers.
(D) All of the above
35) A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors. A
(A) an odd-number of (B) an even-number of
(C) two (D) no errors

36) The _____of errors are more difficult than the ______. B
(A) detection; correction (B) correction; detection
(C) creation; correction (D) creation; detection

37) Transmission media are usually categorized as _______ A

(A)Guided or unguided (B) Fixed or unfixed
(C)Metallic or Non metalic (D) Determinate or inderminate
38) Packet switching is specially designed for _______ communication B
((A)video (B)data (C)voice (D)None
39) Discrete units of potentially variable length blocks are called_______ D
(A)Data (B)Frame (C)Session (D)Packet
40) Two Popular approaches to Packet switching are_______ A
(A)Datagram approach and Virtual circuit approach
(B)Datagram approach and Circuit approach
(C)Circuit approach and Virtual circuit approach
(D)Data approach and Virtual approach

41) Which of the following is not a guided media? D

(A)Twisted pair cable (B)Coaxial cable (C)Fiber optic (D)Satellite
42) Signals within a frequency between 2MHz and 30MHz use _______ propagation A
(A)Sky (B)Ground (C)line-of-sight (D)None of the above
43) ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC B
and a peripheral device.
(A) Radio waves (B)Infrared waves (C)Microwaves (D)None of these
44) Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation A
(A)Modems (B)Protocols (C) Gateway (D)None of these

5 P.T.O.
45) Radiowaves are _______ C
(A) bidirectional (B) unidirectional (C) omnidirectional (D)None of these
46) Circuit switching uses either of two technologies A
(A)Space Division and Time division switches
(B)Circuit Division and time division switches
(C)Space Division and Circuit division switches
(D)None

47) The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition B

(A)Copper (B)Glass or plastic (C)Bimetalic (D)liquid
48) In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? D

(A) The quotient (B) The dividend (C) The divisor (D) The remainder

49) Long form of CSMA/CA is _______ C

(A) Carry Sense Multiplex Access with collision avoided
(B) Courier Sense Multiple Access with collision detection
(C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with collision avoidance
(D) None of these
50) Protocol Data Unit(PDU) is similar to _______ A
(A) HDLC (B) SDLC (C) FDLC (D) None of these
51) OSI stands for _______ C
(A) Open System Internet (B) Open Source Intercom
(C) Open System Interconnection (D) None of these
52) Bluetooth architecture has two types of networks? B
(A) Scatternet & WAN (B) Piconet & Scatternet
(C) Piconet & LAN (D) None of these
53) A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A

(A) burst (B) double-bit (C) single-bit (D) none of the above

6
54) Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless B
LAN?
(A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA)
(B) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with collision detection (CSMA/CD)
(C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA)
(D) None of these
55) In IEEE Project 802, longform of MAC is _______ D
(A)Machine Access Control (B) Machine Access Communiaction

(C)Media Access Communication (D) Media Access Control

56) TCP/IP protocol stands for _______ B
(A)Transfer control protocol / Intra protocol
(B) Transmission control protocol / Internet protocol
(C) Transmit continuous protocol / Interface protocol
(D)None
57) From following Which is the Error correction method? A
(A)Hamming Code (B) CRC (C) Checksum (D)Parity Check

58) In descriptive term Message switching is also known as_______ C

(A)Store technology
(B)Forward technology
(C)Store and Forward
(D)None
59) TDM stands for_______ D
(A)Time Direct Multiplexing (B)Time Direct Measurement
(C)Time Direct Multiplex (D)Time Division Multiplexing

60) A multiplexer _______ several transmission streams while a demultiplexer A

_______ them
(A)Combines; separates (A)Compress; separates
(A)Complex; separates (A)Separates; Combines
61) Asynchronous transmission includes ________
(A)start bits (B)stop bits (C)gaps between data units (D)All of the above

7 P.T.O.
62) In________ transmission, if n bits are being sent simultaneously, n
communication channels is needed.
(A)Synchronous (B)Asynchronous (C)Parallel (D)None of these

63) Data transmission between keyboard and computer is of________ type

(A)Synchronous (B)Asynchronous (C)Parallel (D)None of these

64) The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the ________

a. Medium b. Protocol C. Transmission D. Message
65) When the angle of incidence is ____________ the critical angle, the light beam
bends along the interface.

A) less than B) equal to C) more than D) none of the above

66) Transmission media lie below the __________ layer.

A) application B) transport C) network D) physical

67) _______ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable.

A) Coaxial; twisted-pair B) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic

C) Coaxial; fiber-optic D) none of the above

68) _________ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN
communications.

A) Radio waves B) Infrared waves

C) Microwaves D) none of the above

69) ________ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by
cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.

A) Twisted-pair B) Fiber-optic C) Coaxial D) none of the above

70) Which of the following primarily uses guided media?

A) radio broadcasting B) satellite communications

C) local telephone system D) cellular telephone system

8
71) When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle
of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs.

A) refraction B) reflection C) criticism D) incidence

72) Microwaves are _________.

A) omnidirectional B) bidirectional

C) unidirectional D) none of the above

73) In amplitude modulation, the ………… of carrier is varied according to the strength
of the signal.
A) Amplitude B)Frequency C)Phase D)None of the above

74) One of the disadvantages of Pulse Code Modulation is

A) It requires large bandwidth B) Very high noise
C) Cannot be decoded easily D) All of the above

75) The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing
b) Multiplexing
c) Micropleixng
d) Duplexing

76) Which multiplexing technique used to transmit digital signals?

a) FDM
b) TDM
c) WDM
d) FDM & WDM

77) Multiplexing provides _________

a) Efficiency
b) Privacy
c) Anti jamming
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy

78) In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.

a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
c) line switching
d) frequency switching

9 P.T.O.
79) n _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another
spatially.

A) time-division B) two-dimensional

C) space-division D) three-dimensional

80) A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in

which each link is divided into n channels.

A) circuit-switched B) line-switched

C) frame-switched D) None of the above

81) What are the Methods to move data through a network of links and switches?
A) Packet switching and Line switching B) Circuit switching and Line switching
C)Line switching and bit switching D) Packet switching and Circuit switching

82) The required resources for communication between end systems are reserved for
the duration of the session between end systems in ________ method.
A) Packet switching B) Circuit switching
C) Line switching D) Frequency switching
83) I In _________ systems, resources are allocated on demand.
A) packet switching B) circuit switching
C) line switching D) frequency switching
84) A switch in diagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ________
address
A) Source B) Destination C) Local D) None of the above
85) The ________ is a device that connects n inputs to m outputs.
A) Cross bar B) Cross point C) modem D) RAM

86) In which type of switching do all the datagrams of a message follow the same
channels of a path?
A) Datagram packet switching B) circuit switching
C) Virtual packet switching D) frequency switching

87) Find the parity bit for 1001011

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) None

10
88) Hamming codes can be used for both single-bit error and burst error detection
and correction.
A) True B) False C)None
89) What is the total block length ‘n’ of a Hamming code?
A) 2r B) 2r-1 C) 2r-1-1 D) 2r+1
90) ________ is the mechanism of sending data bits multiple times to ensure
consistency.
A) Repetition B) Duplication C) Mirroring D) Redundancy

91) Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

A) 10,000 B) 1000 C) 100 D) 10

92) In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information.

A) address B) preamble C) CRC D) none of the above

93) _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.

A)Token Bus B) Ethernet C) Token Ring D) none of the above

94) In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address
is _________.

A) multicast B) broadcast C) unicast D) none of the above

95) In wireless LAN, there are many hidden stations so we cannot detect the
A) Frames B) Collision C) Signal D) Data
96) Wireless communication started in
A) 1869 B) 1879 C) 1895 D)1885
97) In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.
a) 63 b) 127 C) 255 D) 511
98) In a piconet, one master device ________
A) cannot be slave B) can be slave in another piconet
C) can be slave in the same piconet D) can be master in another piconet
99) A scatternet can have maximum __________
a) 20 piconets
b) 60 piconets
c) 10 piconets
d) 40 piconets

11 P.T.O.
100) X.25 protocol uses ____________.
A) Its Own Physical Layer B)the physical layer of Ethernet
C) the physical layer of Token Ring dD) none of the above

**********

12
 Computer Network and Security-UG-IT-323 A
N
S
1) A set of layers and protocols is called a ________ C
(A)Computer Network (B)Layers (C)Network Architecture (D)Protocol Stack

2) Which are the functions performed by Presentation layer in OSI Model D

(A) Data Compression (B) Data Translation
(C) Data Translation (D) All of above

3) How many layers are present in the Internet protocol stack (TCP/IP model)? C
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 10

4) ________ is the way a network is arranged, including the physical or logical A

description of how links and nodes are set up to relate to each other.
(A)Topology (B) Network Structure
(C) Networking (D) Network Connection

5) ________ is an agreement between the communicating parties on how B

communication is to be processed.
(A)Layer (B)Protocol (C)Interfaces (D)None of the mentioned

6) Which network topology requires a central controller or hub? A

(A)Star (B)Tree (C) Ring (D) None of the above

7) Framing & physical addressing functions are carried out by ________ layer C
(A)Physical (B) Network (C) Data Link (D)Session

8) OSI stands for________ A

(A) open system interconnection (B) operating system interface
(C) optical service implementation (D) open service Internet

9) The ________ layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery of the entire C

message.
(A)Presentation (B) Physical (C) Session (D)Data Link

10) TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI model have this layer. D
(A)Application (B) Network (C) Data Link (D)Session

1 P.T.O.
11) ISDN stands for B
(A) Integrated Service Discrete Centre
(B) Integrated Service Digital Network
(C) Integrated Service Dual Network
(D) Integrated Service Discrete Network

12) ______ cable has two insulated copper wires twisted together. C
(A) Co-axial (B) Fiber-Optic (C) Twisted-Pair (D)None of the above

13) Radio waves are ______ B

(A) Bidirectional (B) Omnidirectional (C) Unidirectional (D)None of the above

14) For short-range communications ______ waves are used for transmission. A
(A) Infrared (B) Radio (C) Microwaves (D) Light

15) ______ guided media carries data in the form of light. D

(A) Co-axial (B) Twisted-Pair (C) Radio (D) Fiber-optic

16) Signals below 2 MHz frequency use ______ propagation B

(A) line-of-sight (B) Ground (C) Sky (D) None of the above

17) In fiber-optic cable inner core is made up of ______ C

(A)Copper (B) Liquid (C) glass or plastic (D)Metallic

18) ______ media transport radio waves without the use of physical conductor. B
(A) Guided (B) Unguided (C) A & B (D)None

19) Related to Satellite Communication choose the correct statement from following D
(A) Satellite communication can experience significant signal propagation delay.
(B) In Satellite communication transmission cost is independent of distance.
(C) Satellite communication may contain security problems.
(D) All the above are correct.

20) ______ cable consist of an inner copper and a second conducting outer sheath. A
(A) Co-axial (B) Twisted-pair (C) Shielded twisted-pair (D) Fiber-optic

21) The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. B

(A) 1111 (B) 0000 (C) 1110 (D) 0111

2
22) In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? C
(A) The divisor (B) The quotient
(C) The remainder (D) The dividend
23) Header of a frame generally contains: D
(A) synchronization bytes (B) addresses
(C) frame identifier (D) all of the mentioned
24) Which one of the following task is not done by data link layer? D
(A) framing (B) error control
(C) flow control (D) channel coding
25) The ________ between two words is the number of differences between B
corresponding bits.
(A) Hamming code (B) Hamming distance
(C) Hamming rule (D) none of the above
26) The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. C
(A) Stop-and-Wait (B) Go-Back-N ARQ
(C) Simplest (D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
27) Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________. A
(A) sliding window (B) sliding frame
(C) sliding packet (D) none of the above
28) A ___________ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. B
(A) double-bit (B) burst
(C) single-bit (D) none of the above
29) Which among the following represents the objectives/requirements of Data Link C
Layer?
(A) Frame Synchronization (B) Error & Flow Control
(C) Both a & b (D) None of the above
30) When does the station B send a positive acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in A
Stop and Wait protocol?
(A) only when no error occurs at the transmission level
(B) when retransmission of old packet in a novel frame is necessary
(C) only when station B receives frame with errors
(D) all of the above

3 P.T.O.
31) A few leftmost bits in each address of the IPv6 address define its category, is A
known as
(A) Prefix type (B) Postfix type
(C) Reserved type (D) Local type
32) In classful addressing, an IP address in class A, B, or C is divided into B
(A) Router ID (B) Netid and Hostid
(C) Block ID (D) None of the Above
33) What is the default subnet mask for a class A network? A
(A) 127.0.0.1 (B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.255.0 (D)255.255.255.0.0
34) Which of the following is separated by a subnet mask? D
(A) Subnets (B) Domains
(C) DHCP scopes (D) Network ID and host ID
35) What is the first octet range for a class C IP address? D
(A) 1 – 126 (B) 128 - 191
(C) 192 – 226 (D) 192 – 223
36) IPv6 addressed have a size of C
(A) 32 bits (B) 64 bits
(C) 128 bits (D) 265 bits
37) Network congestion occurs A
(A) in case of traffic overloading
(B) when a system terminates
(C) when connection between two nodes terminates
(D) none of the mentioned
38) Which one of the following routing algorithm can be used for network layer D
design?
(A) shortest path algorithm (B) distance vector routing
(C) link state routing (D) all of the mentioned
39) The network layer protocol of internet is B
(A) Ethernet (B) Internet protocol
(C) Hypertext transfer protocol (D) none of the mentioned

4
40) The header length of an IPv6 datagram is _____. D
(A) 10bytes (B) 25bytes
(C) 30bytes (D) 40bytes
41) Message means -------- the sender and receiver expect privacy A
(A)confidentiality (B) integrity (C) authentication (D) None of these
42) In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public? A
(A) Encryption keys (B) Decryption keys
(C) Encryption & Decryption keys (D) None of the mentioned
43) Pretty good privacy program is used for C
(A) Electronic mails (B) File encryption
(C) Electronic mails & File encryption (D) None of the mentioned
44) Firewall examines each ____________ that are entering or leaving the internal D
network.
(A) emails users (B) updates (C) connections (D) data packets
45) In tunnel mode, IPSec protects the ______ A
(A) Entire IP packet (B) IP header (C) IP payload (D IP trailer
46) Which of them is not a proper method for email security? D
(A) Use Strong password (B) Use email Encryption
(C) Spam filters and malware scanners (D) Click on unknown links to explore
47) VPNs are financially speaking __________ C
(A) Always more expensive than leased lines
(B) Always cheaper than leased lines
(C) Usually cheaper than leased lines
(D) Usually more expensive than leased lines
48) In asymmetric key cryptography, the two keys, e and d have a special relationship A
to
(A)Each other (B) data (C) keys (D) other
49) Which of these is a part of network identification? A
(A) UserID (B) Password (C) OTP (D) fingerprint
50) Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in ______ B
(A) Browser security (B) Email security (C) FTP security (D) Wi-Fi security
51) Which is not an objective of network security? D
(A) Identification (B) Authentication (C) Access control (D) Lock

5 P.T.O.
52) Unsolicited Bulk E-mails (UBI) are called __________ C
(A) SMS (B) MMS (C) Spam emails (D) Malicious emails
53) IPSec is designed to provide security at the _________ B
(A) Transport layer (B) Network layer (C) Application layer (D) Session layer
54) What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls? C
(A) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
(B) You can do stateful packet filtering
(C) You can do load balancing
(D) Improved network performance
55) S/MIME is abbreviated as __________________ D
(A) Secure/Multimedia Internet Mailing Extensions
(B) Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mailing Extensions
(C) Secure/Multimedia Internet Mail Extensions
(D) Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
56) A packet filter firewall filters at __________ C
(A) Physical layer (B) Data link layer
(C) Network layer or Transport layer (D) Application layer
57) In Symmetric key cryptosystem _____ keys are used for encryption and A
decryption.
(A) Same (B) Different (C) Encryption Keys (D) None of the mentioned
58) Which component is included in IP security? D
(A) Authentication Header (AH) (B) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
(C) Internet key Exchange (IKE) (D) All of the mentioned
59) Which of the following is not a strong security protocol? C
(A) HTTPS (B) SSL (C) SMTP (D) SFTP
60) When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________ B
(A) SMTP server (B) SMTP client (C) Peer (D) Master
61) Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. A
A) line-of-sight B) sky C) ground D) none of the above
62) Which are the functions performed by Physical layer in OSI Model D
(A)Synchronization of bits (B) Line configuration
(C) Representation of Bits (D) All of above

6
63) How many layers are present in the OSI model? B
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 10
64) ________ is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet, A
possibly across multiple networks (links).
(A) Network layer (B) Session layer
(C) Physical layer (D) Data link layer
65) ________ defines the attachment of communication devices to link. B
(A)Network (B)Line Configuration (C)Network Structure (D)None
66) The________ refers to the direction of flow between two devices. D
(A)Network (B)Line Configuration
(C)Network Structure (D)Transmission mode
67) Service point addressing function is carried out by ________ layer B
(A)Physical (B) Transport (C) Data Link (D)Session
68) TCP/IP stands for________ B
(A) open system interconnection
(B) Transmission control protocol internet protocol
(C) Transmission condition protocol internet protocol
(D) open service Internet
69) A Computer network allows sharing of ________ C
(A)Information (B)Resources (C)Both a & b (D)None of these
70) Checksum is used for ________ B
(A) Error Correction (B)Error Detection
(C)Both a & b (D) None of these
71) From following Which is the Error detection method? D
(A) CRC (B) Checksum (C)Parity Check (D)All of the Above

72) In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? D

(A) The quotient (B) The dividend (C) The divisor (D) The remainder

73) Discrete units of potentially variable length blocks are called_______ D

(A)Data (B)Frame (C)Session (D)Packet

74) When a single bit changes in the data, is called as ________ error B
(A) Burst Error (B)Single Bit (C)Byte (D) a & b

7 P.T.O.
75) Protocol are set of rules used to govern ________ C
(A) Sharing (B)Standards (C)Communication (D) None

76) The Internet addresses are _______bits in length A

(A) 32 (B) 128 (C) 20 (D) 8
77) Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. C
(A)A (B) B (C) C (D) None
78) In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast A
address.
(A) provider-based unicast (B) link local (C) site local (D)None
79) The number of addresses in a class C block is___________ C
(A) 65,534 (B) 16,777,216 (C) 256 (D) none of the above
80) In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the___________ C
A) netid B) hosted C) mask D) none of the above
81) In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the B
address range.
A) suffix B) prefix C) netid D) none of the above
82) The data link layer takes the packets from _____ and encapsulates them into A
frames for transmission.
(A) Network layer (B) Physical layer
(C) Transport layer (D) Application layer
83) The number of addresses in a class C block is___________ A
(A) 65,536 (B) 16,777,216 (C) 256 (D) none of the above
84) The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing is ______ B
(A) must be power of 4
(B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
(C) must not be evenly divisible
(D) None of the above
85) In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block. C
A) B B) C C) A D) D
86) VPN is abbreviated as __________ B
a) Visual Private Network b) Virtual Private Network
c) Virtual Protocol Network d) Virtual Protocol Networking

8
87) __________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode A
(A) IPSec (B)SSL (C) PGP (D)None of these
88) __________ provides authentication at the IP level. D
(A) ESP (B)PGP (C) SSL (D) AH
89) IPSec defines two protocols : __________ and __________ C
(A) AH; SSL (B)PGP;ESP (C) AH;ESP (D) None of these
90) Using VPN, we can access _______________ A
a) Access sites that are blocked geographically
b) Compromise other’s system remotely
c) Hide our personal data in the cloud
d) Encrypts our local drive files while transferring
91) ARQ stands for __________ A
A) Automatic Repeat Request B) Automatic Request Repeat
C) Application Repeat Request D) Application Request Repeat

92) In public key cryptosystem _____ keys are used for encryption and decryption. B
A) Same B) Different C) Encryption Keys D) None of the mentioned

93) In public key cryptosystem which is kept as public? A

A) Encryption keys B) Decryption keys
C) Encryption & Decryption keys D) None of the mentioned
94) Pretty good privacy program is used for C
A) Electronic mails B) File encryption
C) Electronic mails & File encryption D) None of the mentioned

95) What is data encryption standard (DES)? A

A) block cipher B) stream cipher
C) bit cipher D) byte cipher

96) In cryptography, the order of the letters in a message is rearranged by D

__________
A) quadratic ciphers
B) substitution ciphers
C) both transpositional ciphers and substitution ciphers
D) transpositiona ciphers

97) Cryptanalysis is used __________ A

A) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic scheme
B) to increase the speed
C) to encrypt the data
D) to make new ciphers

9 P.T.O.
98) Cryptography, a word with Greek origin, means B

A) Corrupting data B) Secret writing

C) Open writing D) Closed writing

99) Firewall examines each ____________ that are entering or leaving the internal D
network.
a) emails users b) updates c) connections d) data packets
100) A firewall protects which of the following attacks? C
a) Phishing b) Dumpster diving
c) Denial of Service (DoS) d) Shoulder surfing

**********

10
 Question Bank
Cyber Law and Information Technology Act A
N
(IT-325) S

1) Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime? D

A. Data theft

B. Forgery

C. Damage to data and systems

D. Installing antivirus for protection

2) Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only. B

A. True

B. False

3) Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon B

cyber-crime?

A. Credit card fraudulent

B. Spying someone using key logger

C. IPR Violation

D. Pornography

1 P.T.O.
4) Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals? D

A. Unauthorized account access

B. Mass attack using Trojans as botnets

C. Email spoofing and spamming

D. Report vulnerability in any system

5) What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian C
legislature?

A. India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000

B. India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000

C. India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000

D. The Technology Act, 2008

6) In which year India’s IT Act came into existence? A

A. 2000

B. 2001

C. 2002

D. 2003

2
7) What is the full form of ITA-2000? D

A. Information Tech Act -2000

B. Indian Technology Act -2000

C. International Technology Act -2000\

D. Information Technology Act -2000

8) Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or A

information is written a cyber-crime.

A. 65

B. 65-D

C. 67

D. 70

9) What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000? C

A. IT Act, 2007

B. Advanced IT Act, 2007

C. IT Act, 2008

D. Advanced IT Act, 2008

3 P.T.O.
10) In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated? B

A. 2006

B. 2008

C. 2010

D. 2012

11) Accessing computer without prior authorization is a cyber-crimes that B

come under _______

A. Section 65

B. Section 66

C. Section 68

D. Section 70

12) How many years of imprisonment can an accused person face, if C

he/she comes under any cyber-crime listed in section 66 of the Indian
IT Act, 2000?

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 4 years

4
13) If anyone publishes sexually explicit type digital content, it will cost D
that person imprisonment of _________ years.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

14) EDI stands for ____________. B

A. Electronic Dataflow Information
B. Electronic Data Interchange
C. Electronic Data Inability
D. Electronic Data Information
15) E-governance means _______________. C
A. Electric governance
B. Electronic grievance
C. Electronic governance
D. None of above

16) Web defacement is the cyber crime which affects _________________ C

of web site.
A. Contents
B. Web pages
C. visual appearance
D. texture

5 P.T.O.
17) Cyber pornography is an act for using cyberspace A
to______________pornography
A. create, display, distribute, import, publish
B. credit, debit, view
C. install, execute
D. shoot, edit, update
18) Viruses are Computer programs to infect ____________ D
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. None of above
19) The use of the Internet or other electronic means to stalk or harass an B
individual, a group of individuals, or an organization is termed:
A. Cyberspace

B. Cyber stalking

C. Pornography

D. None of these

20) Which of the following is a cybercrime? D

A. Hacking

B. Worm attack

C. Virus attack

D. All of these

6
21) The world of inter-computer communication is called as________ A

(A) cyber world (B) cybercrime (C) EDI (D) E-commerce

22) EDI stands for _________________ B

(A) Electronic Data India (B) Electronic Data Interchange

(C) Electronic Data Interconnection (D) Electronic Data Interaction

23) B2B stands for___________ C

(A) Business to Buyer (B) Business to Bank

(C) Business to Business (D) Business to By-product

24) G2B stands for ____________ D

(A) Government to Buyer (B) Government to Bank

(c) Government to By-product (D) Government to Business

25) ICT stands for ___________ C

(A) Internet Connection Technology (B) Internet Computer

Technique

(C) Internet Communication Technology (D) Internet

Communication Transmission

26) E-Governance means ___________ D

(A) Electric Governance (B) Electronic Government

(C) Electrical Governance (D) Electronic Governance

7 P.T.O.
27) Cyber crime is also called as __________ D

(A) Computer crime (B) Internet crime

(C) done by means electronic devices (D) All of the above

28) Cyber crime is categorised in__________categories. A

(A) Individual, Property, Government (B) Internet, Police,

Government

(C) Intellectual, Property, Governance (D) Internet, Public,

Government.

29) A type of cyber crime where an individual’s computer is broken to C

access his personal and sensitive information is known as ________

(A)Theft (B) Cyber Stalking (C) Hacking (D) Threatening

30) _____________ is a cyber crime where person is harassed online. A

(A) Cyber Stalking (B) Threatening (C) Spreading virus (D) Hacking

31) Computer virus is____________ software to infect computer. C

(A) Decoding (B) encoding (C) malicious (D) internet

32) Web jacking is a term where hacker takes control over another D
________

(A) Computer (B) network (C) software (D) website

8
33) Changing visual appearance of website illegally is called __________ D

(A) Web jacking (B) cyber terrorism

(C) online threatening (D) web defacement

34) To create, display, distribute, import or publish obscene material of C

children engaged in sexual acts is called as __________

(A) Online threatening (B) Cyber terrorism

(C) Cyber pornography (D) Phishing

35) An attempt to obtain banking or card credentials through mail, C

messaging etc is called as __________

(A) Internet Fraud (B) Cyber stalking

(C) Phishing (D) Hacking

36) A criminal activity within the information technology infrastructure. C

(A) Digital crime (B) Intellectual property

(C) Cyber crime (D) All of them

37) The term ‘cyberspace’ was used in ____________ A

(A) 1984 (B) 1884 (C) 1985 (D) 1885

38) When people are online, most of them engage in activities that leave a C
____________.

(A) Message (B) E-mail (C) Digital footprint (D) Comment

9 P.T.O.
39) _______________ is scientific study of control and communication in B
the animal and the machine.

(A) Cyberspace (B) Cybernetics (C) Cyber Law (D) Cyber Crime

40) __________________ is generally oriented to manufacturing or C

business.

(A) B2C (B) Horizontal B2B (C) Vertical B2B (D) C2B

41) All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks B
EXCEPT:

A. hackers.

B. spam.

C. viruses.

D. identity theft.

42) A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study A

trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion

10
43) System hacking involves password hacking as one of the major A
hacking methodologies.
A. True
B. False
44) Which of the following case comes under victims’ list of an active C
online attack?

A. Strong password based accounts

B. Unsecured HTTP users

C. Open authentication points

D. Logged in systems and services

45) Which of them is not a disadvantage of active online attack? B

A. Takes a long time

B. Easily and automatically detected

C. Need high network bandwidth

D. Need the patience to crack

11 P.T.O.
46) . _____________ are essential because they frequently comprises of D
critical patches to security holes.

A. System software

B. Utility Software

C. Software executables

D. Software updates

47) Which section of IT Act deals with Child pornography? D

A. Section 67F
B. Section 67D
C. Section 67C
D. Section 67B
48) What is the punishment for hacking of computers? C

A. Three year imprisonment or 10 lakh rupees penalty or both

B. Life Imprisonment

C. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both

D. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both

12
49) In which year IT Act came into existence? A

A. 2000

B. 2001

C. 2002

D. 2003

50) Which section of IT Act deals with the legal recognition of electronic D
records?

A. Section 2

B. Section 5

C. Section 6

D. Section 4

51) Which of the following is known as Malicious software? D

(A) Illegalware (B) badware (C) maliciousware (D) malware

52) To protect a computer from virus, you should install -------- in your B
computer.

(A) backup wizard (B) antivirus (C) disk cleanup (D) disk
defragmenter

13 P.T.O.
53) VIRUS stands for C

(A) Very Intelligent Result Until Source

(B) Very Interchanged Resource Under Search

(C) Vital Information Resource Under Slege

(D) Viral Important Record User Searched

54) Firewalls are used to protect against __________ D

(A) data driven attacks (B) fire attacks

(C) virus attacks (D) unauthorised access

55) Firewall examines each ____________ that are entering or leaving the D
internal network.
(A) emails users (B) updates (C) connections (D) data packets

56) What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian C
legislature?
(A) India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
(B) India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
(C) India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
(D) The Technology Act, 2008

57) _______ is the science or arts of transforming massage to make them A

secure and immune to attacks.

(A) Cryptography (B) Crypto-analysis

(C) either (A) or (B) (D) neither (A) nor (B)

14
58) Which of the following information security technology is used for B
avoiding browser-based hacking?
(A) Anti-malware in browsers (B) Remote browser access
(C) Adware remover in browsers (D) Incognito mode in a browser

59) In _______________ attacks an attacker do not contact with A

authorizing party for stealing password.
(A) passive online (B) active online (C) offline (D) non-electronic

60) A Digital Signature is ----------- C

(A) A bit string giving identity of correspondent
(B) A unique identification of sender
(C) An authentication of electronic records by typing it uniquely to a
key only a sender knows
(D) An encrypted signature of sender
61) In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated? B
(A) 2006 (B) 2008 (C) 2010 (D) 2012

62) From the options below, which of them is not a vulnerability to A

information security?
(A) flood

(B) without deleting data, disposal of storage media

(C) unchanged default password

(D)latest patches and updates not done

15 P.T.O.
63) _________________ can be alternatively termed as password guessing B
attack.
(A) passive online (B) active online
(C) offline attack (D) non electronic

64) DES follows ----------- C

(A) Hash Algorithm (B) Caesars Cipher
(C) Feistel Cipher Structure (D) SP Networks
65) What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000? C
(A) IT Act, 2007 (B) Advanced IT Act, 2007
(C) IT Act, 2008 (D) Advanced IT Act, 2008
66) Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime? D
(A) Phishing (B) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
(C) MiTM (D) Credit card details leak in deep web
67) Which is the Act that provides legal framework for e-Governance in C
India?
(A) IT (amendment) Act 2008 (B) Indian Penal Code
(C) IT Act 2000 (D) None of the above
68) What is/are component of IT Act 2000? D
(A) Legal Recognition to Digital Signatures
(B) Regulation of Certification Authorities
(C) Digital Certificates
(D) All the above
69) IT (Amendment )Act 2008 with amend IT Act 2000 , become effective B
from
(A) 27 oct 2008 (B) 27 oct 2009 (C) 21 july 2008 (D) 21 may 2009

16
70) Which section of IT Act 2000 deals with Cyber terrorism? C
(A) Section 66C (B) Section 66B (C) Section 66D (D) Section 66A

71) Which section of IT Act deals with the appointment of Controller of A

certifying authorities

A. Section 17

B. Section 15

C. Section 10

D. Section 5

72) Which Act in India focuses on data protection and Data privacy ? D

A. Banking Regulation Act 1949

B. IT Act 2000

C. Indian Penal Code

D. IT (amendment) Act 2008

73) E-record and Digital Signature are used to D

A. Filing of any form in government

B. Issue of grant

C. Make payment

D. All of the above

17 P.T.O.
74) Which of the following is an “intellectual property” as per IPR Laws D

in India.

A. Original literary work

B. Industrial Design of Maruti800 car

C. Trademark of Tata company

D. All the above

75) A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo. B

A. Copy rights

B. Trade mark

C. Patent

D. Industrial designs

76) Which section of IT Act 2000 deals with Cyber terrorism? C

(A) Section 63A (B) Section 63B (C) Section 63C (D) Section 63D

77) What is the maximum penalty for damage to Computer, Computer B

systems, unauthorized access, download of data, infecting with virus,
denial of access etc as per Section 43?
(A) Rs. 50 lakh (B) Rs.1 crore (C) Rs. 5 crore (D) Rs.75 lakh

78) What is the proposed punishment for Cyber Terrorism in IT Act? B

(A) 1 Crore rupees penalty (B) Life Imprisonment
(C) 10 year imprisonment (D) 6 year imprisonment

18
79) Which of the following Act is not amended by IT Act 2000? D
(A) Indian Penal Code 1860 (B) Reserve Bank of India Act 1934
(C) Bankers Book Evidence Act 1891 (D) Income tax Act 1961

80) What is the punishment for hacking of computers? C

(A) upto Three year imprisonment or upto 10 lakh rupees penalty or
both
(B) Life Imprisonment
(C) upto Three year imprisonment or upto 5 lakh rupees penalty or
both
(D) upto Three year imprisonment or upto 2 lakh rupees penalty or
both
81) Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) work under ? C

(A) Autonomous body (B) Prime Minister office

(C) Ministry of Communication & IT (D) Reserve Bank of India

82) Which Act which provides legal framework for e-Governance in A

India?

(A) IT Act – 2000 (B) Indian Penal Code

(C) IT (amendment) Act 2008 (D) None of the above

83) ____________ is the person in whose name the digital signature B

certificate is issued

(A) Certified authority (B) subscriber (C) holder (D) Controller

19 P.T.O.
84) Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and D
ideas that are of

(A) Ethical value (B) Moral value

(C) Social value (D) Commercial value

85) The following can be patented D

(A) Machine (B) Process

(C) Composition of matter (D) All of the above

86) Trade mark D

(A) is represented graphically

(B) is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person

from those of others

(C) may includes shapes of goods or combination of colors

(D) All of the above

87) World Book Day and Copyright Day is Celebrated by UNESCO on B

(A) 22nd April (B) 23rd April (C) 24th April (D) 25th April

88) Patent is a form of B

(A) Tangible Property (B) Intellectual Property

(C) Industrial property (D) Both B and C

89) Which of the following is NOT protected by copyright? A

(A) Slogans (B) Pantomimes (C) Sculptures (D) Songs

20
90) Which of the following is not protected by trademark laws? B

(A) Logos (B) Book titles (C) Pseudonyms (D) Trade dress

91) A new way to process milk so that there is no fat in any cheese made C
from it.

(A) Copy rights (B) Trade mark (C) Patent (D) Industrial designs

92) Which of the following is an „intellectual property‟ as per IPR Laws in D

India?

(A) Original literary work

(B) Industrial Design of Maruti800 car

(C) Trademark of Tata company

(D) All the above

93) The term of copyright for an author lasts how long? B

(A) The life of the author (B) The life of the author plus 70 years

(C) 95 years (D) 75 years

94) Which of the following is not an intellectual property law? D

(A) Copyright Act, 1957 (B) Trademark Act, 1999

(C) Patent Act, 1970 (D) Customs Act, 1962

95) The rights of a patentee are D

(A) Sell or distribute (B) License

(C) Assign the property to others (D) All of the above

21 P.T.O.
96) Which of the following is not an intellectual property law? D

A. Copyright Act, 1957

B. Trademark Act, 1999

C. Patent Act, 1970

D. Customs Act, 1962

97) Trade in services includes which of the following? C

A. Computer hardware

B. Textiles

C. Insurance

D. Aerospace

98) Design does not include C

A. features of shape
B. composition of lines or colours
C. mode or principle of construction
D. None of the above
99) The agreement that is enforceable by law is known as A

A. Valid agreement
B. Void agreement
C. Illegal agreement
D. Unenforceable agreement

22
100) The following cannot be exploited by assigning or by licensing the C
rights to others.

A. Patents
B. Designs
C. Trademark
D. All of the above

**********

23 P.T.O.
 A
QUESTION BANK
N
Subject Name- JAVA Programming II S

&
Paper Code- UG-IT-326 / IT 366

1) Which method is called only once during the run time of your applet? C
A) stop() B) paint()
C) init() D) destroy()

2) The APPLET tag is used to start an applet from both an HTML document and A
from an applet viewer?
A) True
B) False

3) In Applet which are common security restrictions? D

A)Applets can't load libraries or define native methods
B) An applet can't read every system property
C) Applets can play sounds
D) Both A & B

4) Which Invoked immediately after the start() method, and also any time the Applet C
needs to repaint itself in the browser?
A) stop() B) init()
C) paint() D) destroy()

5) When the ………………. method of the Applet class is called, it displays the result A
of the Applet code on the screen.
A) paint( ) B) repaint( )
C) update( ) D) reupdate( )

1 P.T.O.
6) The graphics class provides methods to draw a number of graphical figure D
including
i) Text ii) Lines iii) Images iv) Ellipse
A) i, ii and iii only B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only D) All i, ii, iii and iv

7) Top level window which is not contained in another window is called B

A) Panel B) Frame
C) Container D) None of these

8) Which of the following class is super class of all event B

A) InputEvent B) EventObject
C) ItemEvent D) ComponentEvent

9) Event class is defined in which of these libraries? C

A) java.io B) java.net
C) java.util D) java.lang

10) Which of these methods are used to register a keyboard event listener? C
A) KeyListener() B) addKeylistener()
C) addKeyListener() D)eventKeyboardListener()

11) Which method is called first by an applet. C

A) Start() B) Run()
C) init() D) Paint()

12) The drawstring( ) method has ------------- parameters. D

A) 1 B) 2
C) 5 D) 3

13) Appletviewer tool is available in which of the folder of JDK. A

(A)Bin (B) Lib (C) Source (D) Class

14) Which method can be used to draw a rectangle? A

A) Drawrect() B) Drawpolygon()
C) Drawline() D) All of these

2
15) Which of the following is an optional attribute of applet tag. B
A) Code B) Name
C) Width D) Height

16) Which method is used to display frames? C

A)Show() B) Setvisible()
C) Above Both D) None

17) Which method of the container class can be used to add components to a Panel. A
A) add ( ) method. B) start ( ) method.
C) init ( ) method. D) paint ( ) method.

18) AWT is used for GUI programming in java? A

(a) True
(b) False

19) Method is used to set the text in title bar for frame. C
A)setText() B) drawText()
C) setTitle() D) None of these

20) The Applet class is in -------- package. A

A) java.applet B) java.io
C) java.util D) java.awt

21) One Event multiple listerer is called as -------- C

A) Multitasking B) Multiuser
C) Multicasting D) A and B

22) Panel is used for -------------Component B

A)Grouping B) Managing
C)Deleting D) Modifying

23) What is a listener in context to event handling B

A) A listener is a variable that is notified when an event occurs
B) A listener is a object that is notified when an event occurs
C) A listener is a method that is notified when an event occurs
D) None of the mentioned

3 P.T.O.
24) Which is the container that doesn't contain title bar and MenuBars. It can have C
other components like button, textfield etc?
A) Window B) Frame
C) Panel D) Container

25) What does the following line of code do? B

TextField tf = new TextField(10);
A) will set 10 to TextField as its initial text.
B) Will set the character capacity to 10
C) Both A & B
D) None of These

26) The setBackground() method is part of which of the following class java.awt A
package?
A) Component B) Applet
C) Object D) Graphics

27) What is API? C

A) Application Programming Interchange
B) Application Programming Interaction
C) Application Programming Interface
D) None of these

28) Panel is defined as _______. D

A) Panel class is a concrete sub‐class of container
B) A Panel is a window that does not contain a title bar, menu bar or border
C) Panel is the superclass of Applet
D) All of above

29) Which is the correct constructor of GridLayout. B

A) GridLayout(int a)
B) GridLayout(int num_rows, int num_columns)
C) GridLayout(int rows, int cols, int vert)
D) GridLayout(int hor)

4
30) Which of these events is generated when the component is added or removed? C
A)ComponentEvent B) InputEvent
C) ContainerEvent D) FocusEvent

31) Which of these methods can be used to output a string in an applet? C

A) display() B) print()
C) drawstring() D) transient()

32) What does AWT stands for? C

A) All Window Tools B) All Writing Tools
C) Abstract Window Toolkit D) Abstract Writing Toolkit

33) What invokes immediately after the start() method and also any time the applet D
needs to repaint itself in the browser?
A) stop() B) init()
C) destroy() D) paint()

34) Which package provides many event classes and Listener interfaces for event C
handling?
A) java.awt B) java.awt.Graphics
C) java.awt.event D) None of these

35) The following specifies the advantages of It is lightweight. It supports pluggable A

look and feel. It follows MVC (Model View Controller) architecture.
A) Swing B) AWT
C) Both A & B D) None of the above

36) Which of the following method is not applicable for Button in swing. C
A) setDiableIcon( ) B) setPressedIcon( )
C) setSelectedIcon( ) D) setRollOverIcon( )

37) From following list which is not Swing class? C

A) JLabel B) JButton
C) JImageIcon D) JCheckBox

38) Which of the following method is used to retrieve icon of JButton? C

A) Icon getIcon( ) B) ImageIcon getImageIcon( )
C) ImageIcon getIcon( ) D) ImageIcon GetImageIcon( )

5 P.T.O.
39) MVC architecture is _________ B
A) Modelling – Visual – Controller B) Model – View – Controller
C) Model – Viewable – Controller D) Many – View – Controller

40) The Java Foundation Classes (JF(c) is a set of GUI components which simplify A
the development of desktop applications?
A) True B) False

41) Which of these methods are used to register a keyboard event listener? C
A) KeyListener() B) addKistener()
C) addKeyListener() D) eventKeyboardListener

42) Which of these events will be generated if we close an applet’s window? D

A) ActionEvent B) ComponentEvent
C) AdjustmentEvent D) WindowEvent

43) Which of the following method is used when component gains a focus B
A) FocusLost() B) FocusGained
C) getComponent() D) None of these

44) What code would you use to construct a 24-point bold serif font? D
A) new Font(Font.SERIF, 24,Font.BOLD);
B) new Font("SERIF", 24, BOLD");
C) new Font("BOLD ", 24,Font.SERIF);
D) new Font("SERIF", Font.BOLD,24);

45) Which of the following are passed as an argument to the paint( ) method? B
A ) Canvas object B) Graphics object
C) An Image object D) A paint object

46) In Graphics class Which method is used to set the graphics current color to the B
specified color?
A) public abstract void setFont(Font font)
B) public abstract void setColor(Color c)
C) public abstract void drawString(String str, int x, int y)
D) None of the above

6
47) Clicking the closing button on the upper right corner of a frame generates a B
(n)‐event.
A) ItemEvent B) WindowEvent
C) MouseMotionEvent D) ComponentEvent

48) If we close an applet window _________ events will be generated. D

A) ActionEvent B) ComponentEvent
C) AdjustmentEvent D) WindowEvent

49) Which Listener handles all List related Events? A

A) ItemListener B) InputEvent
C) SelectEvent D) ListEvent

50) java.net package consists of interface __________ D

A) ContentHandlerFactory
B) SocketImplFactory
C) FileNameMap and URLStreamHandlerFactory
D) All of the above

51) Which class is used for this Processing Method processActionEvent( )? A

A) Button, List, MenuItem B) Button, Checkbox, Choice
C) Scrollbar, Component, Button D) None of the above

52) Which of the following methods are invoked by the AWT to support paint and A
repaint operations?
A) paint( ) B) repaint( )
C) draw( ) D) redraw( )

53) How could you set the frame surface color to pink A
A) s.setBackground(Color.pink); B) s.setColor(PINK);
C) s.Background(pink); D) s.color=Color.pink

54) How many parameters are required for drawImage() method B

A) 2 B) 4
C) 3 D) 1

7 P.T.O.
55) Which of the following method is used to pass parameter to applet. C
A) GetParam() B) getArgument()
C) getParameter() D) None of these

56) Which of the following is not Applet’s Life Cycle method? D

A)init() B) start()
C) destroy D) getX()

57) Which of this package contains all the classes and methods required for event D
handling in Java.
A) java.applet B) java.awt
C) java.event D) java.awt.event

58) The MouseListener interface is used to make mouse handling. A

A) True
B) False

59) JSP life cycle includes following D

A) Translation Phase B) Compilation Phase
C) Request handling phase D) All of these

60) Java servlet D

(i) is a key component of the server side java development.
(ii) is a small pluggable extension to a server that enhances functionality
(iii) runs only in windows OS
(iv) allows developers to customize any java enabled server
A) i, ii and iii are true B) i,iii and iv are true
C) ii,iii and iv are true D) i,ii and iv are true

61) A label is a simple control which is used to display_____________ on the window: A

A) Text(non-editable) B) Text(editable)
C) Both a & b D) None of these

62) The function of a layout manager is to B

A) organized classes into packages B) organize components in a container
C) organize the display of a Web page D) organize the files in your project

8
63) Which layout manager works by positioning components in rows and columns? C
A) BorderLayout B) FlowLayout
C) GridLayout D) BoxLayout

64) Which layout manager works by organising components into five areas, North, A
South, East, West and Center?
A) BorderLayout B) FlowLayout
C) GridLayout D) BoxLayout

65) Which component responds to list selection events? D

A) JButton B) JRadioButton
C) JCheckBox D) JList

66) The ActionListener interface is used for handling action events,For example,it's D
used by a
A) JButton B) JCheckbox
C) JMenuItem D) All of these

67) Which package is imported for swing components C

A) java.awt.*; B) java.util.*;
C) javax.swing.*; D) javax.awt.swing.*;

68) What is default layout for Dialog? A

A) FlowLayout B) GridLayout
C) CardLayout D) BorderLayout

69) In swing, Buttons are subclasses of which class? A

A) AbstractButton B) JButton
C) Button D) JRadioButton

70) Which package provides many event classes and Listener interfaces for event C
handling?
A) java.awt B) java.awt.Graphics
C) java.awt.event D) None of the above

71) Apache Tomcat is ________. D

A) Servlet B) Java Program
C) API D) Web server capable of running Java programs

9 P.T.O.
72) A checkbox is a control that consists of a D
A) Combination of a small box B) A label
C) Combination of a large box and a label D) Both a & b

73) Each menu is associated with a _________ list of menu items: B

A) Checkbox B) Drop-down
C) Choice D) None of these

74) The text area controls create a _________________ area respectively B

A) Single-line text B) Multi-line text
C) Both a & b D) None of these

75) The Swing Component classes that are used in Encapsulates a mutually B
exclusive set of buttons?
A) AbstractButton B) ButtonGroup
C) JButton D) ImageIcon

76) A label is a simple control which is used to display_____________ on the window: A

A) Text(non-editable) B) Text(editable)
C) Both a & b D) None of these

77) Method to apply menubar to the swing container is: B

A) addMenuBar() B) setJMenuBar()
C) setSMenuBar() D) setMenuBar()

78) Which method is used to set password character for a TextField? B

A) setPasswordCharacter( ) B) setEchoChar( )
C) setPassChar( ) D) setEchoCharacter( )

79) Which component provides support for two‐state buttons? B

A) Button, Checkbox B) JCheckBox,JRadioButton
C) Button, MenuItem D) JCheckBox, TextField

80) What are the types of DialogBox? B

A) Modal DialogBox B) Modal and Modeless DialogBox
C) Modam D) None of the above

10
81) __________ method returns currently selected item in choice. A
A) getSelectedItem( ) B) getSelectedElement( )
C) getSelectedIndex( ) D) getItem( )

82) _________ generates action events when an item is double‐clicked. C

A) List B) Checkbox
C) MenuItem D) TextField
83) Which package is used for imporing swing components? B
A) java.swing B) javax.swing
C) java.awt. D) All of the above

84) Which class is used to create a pop-up list of items from which the user may B
choose?
A) List B) Choice
C) Labels D) Checkbox

85) Which are passive controls that do not support any interaction with the user? C
A) Choice B) List
C) Labels D) Checkbox
86) Which object can be constructed to show any number of choices in the visible C
window?
A) Labels B) Choice
C) List D) Checkbox

87) Which class is used for this Processing Method processActionEvent( )? A

A) Button,List,MenuItem B) Button,Checkbox,Choice
C) Scrollbar,Component,Button D) None of the above

88) All collection classes are available in D

A) java.io package B) java.lang package
C) java.awt package D) java.util package
89) What is JDBC ? B
A) Java Compiler B) Java API
C) Java Interpreter D) Both a and b

11 P.T.O.
90) Java servlets are efficient and powerful solution for creating ……. For the web B
A) Dynamic content B) Static content
C) hardware D) both a and b

91) Algorithms are present inside. C

A) LinkedList B) Collection
C) Collections D) Hashtable

92) Which of the attribute of JSP mentioned below is not available in servlet? C
A) request B) session
C) page D) context

93) JSP stands for _______. B

A) Java Service Provider B) Java Server Pages
C) Java Server Path D) Java Server Program

94) A JSP page consists of which tags? C

A) HTML tags B) JSP tags
C) Both A & B D) None of the above

95) JSP embeds __________ in ___________. D

A) Servlet, HTML B) HTML, Java
C) HTML, Servlet D) Java, HTML

96) CORBA stands for B

A) Common Object Request Build Architecture
B) Common Object Request Broker Architecture
C) Common Object Request Break Architecture
D) All of the mentioned

97) Which of these classes is not part of Java’s collection framework? A

A) Maps B) Array
C) Stack D) Queue

98) Which of this interface is not a part of Java’s collection framework? D

A) List B) Set
C) SortedMap D) SortedList

12
99) What is Collection in Java? A
A) A group of objects B) A group of classes
C) A group of interfaces D) None of the mentioned

100)The ASP and JSP technologies are quite similar in the way they support the A
creation of Dynamic pages, using HTML templates, scripting code and
components for business logic.
A) True
B) False

**********

13 P.T.O.