))D ‫ نموذج‬-‫امتحان التصوير اإلشعاعي لحملة البكالوريوس‬

Radiography Technology Bachelor Degree(BSc.) Examination

Select the best answer:

1- The appearance of water, urine, bile and fluid collection in ultrasound image is:
A. White
B. Grey
C. Black
D. Echogenic
E. Bright
2- The joint which is found on the lateral end of the clavicle is:
A. Humeroscapular
B. Glenohumeral
C. Corocoid
D. Sternoclavicular
E. Acromioclavicular
3-The first portion of the small intestine is called the:
A. Rectum
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Ileum
E. Pylorus
:The tip of mastoid process is easy to palpate and it is at the level of -4
A. First cervical vertebra
B. Second cervical vertebra
C. Third cervical vertebra
D. Sternal notch
E. Sternal angle
5- The ideal gamma-ray energy for nuclear medicine imaging is between:
A. 500 and 1000 MeV
B. 10 and 50 MeV
C. 100 and 200 MeV
D. 10 and 50 kev
E. 100 and 200 kev
: .………The greater trochanter is located on the -6
A. Proximal femur
B. Distal femur
C. Cervical spine
D. Lower pelvis
E. Knee joint
7- The basic projections of calcaneus are:
A. Antero-posterior and lateral

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 B. Anterior oblique and lateral
C. Postero-anterior and lateral
D. Axial and oblique
E. Axial and lateral
8- When a slice is selected in MRI imaging, what happens in the rest of the patient?
A. Nothing
B. The larmor frequencies are not changed
C. Rotation of magnetization by RF excitation pulse
D. The larmor frequencies change
E. RF becomes off
9- For an AP elbow projection the hand should be:
A. Supinated
B. Rotated 20 degrees
C. Pronated
D. Lateral
E. Rotated 45 degrees
10- This substance, when placed in the presence of an external magnetic field, shows
strong attraction, alignment, and retains magnetization even after the applied field
has been removed:
A. Diamagnetic
B. Para magnetic
C. Plastic
D. Ferromagnetic
E. Para aluminum
11- Breathing instructions that should be given to patients for PA projection of
sternoclavicular joints are:
A. Arrested respiration
B. End of inspiration
C. End of expiration
D. During respiration
E. Respiration has no effect
12- The malleoli are used as landmarks when making a radiograph of:
A. AP ankle
B. PA knee
C. AP shoulder
D. AP elbow
E. AP foot
13- In Caldwell position the central ray is angled:
A. 23 degrees to feet
B. 15 degrees to feet
C. 15 degrees to face
D. 20 degrees to face
E. 10 degrees to feet
14- The best position to demonstrate a fracture in the axillary portion of the ribs is:
A. Oblique
B. Posteroanterior

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 C. Anteroposterior
D. Lateral
E. Superoinferior
15- Scintigraphy is a nuclear medicine test for:
A. Lungs
B. Glands
C. Blood vessels
D. Bones
E. Kidneys
16- In the anteroposterior (AP) oblique views of the sacroiliac joints, the affected side
must be:
A. Away from the film
B. Toward the film
C. Parallel to the film
D. 60 degrees toward the film
E. 10 degrees toward the film
17- The CT number for water when expressed as a Houndsfield unit (HU) has a value of:
A. -1000
B. -500
C. 0
D. +500
E. +1000
18- To show the neck of the femur in a true anatomic position:
A. Feet are in neutral position
B. Knees are flexed
C. Knees and hips are flexed
D. Feet are in internal rotation
E. Feet are in external rotation
19- In the Waters position for maxillary sinuses, the radiographic base line forms an
angle of …………… with the plane of the film:
A. 25 degrees
B. 27 degrees
C. 30 degrees
D. 45 degrees
E. 37 degrees
20- The U/S mode which cannot produce an image on the TV screen is:
A. A Mode
B. B Mode
C. C Mode
D. M Mode
E. Real time
21- The Law position is used for an examination of the:
A. Foramen ovale
B. Mastoid air cells
C. Petrous tips
D. Foramen spinosum

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 E. Foramen magnum

22- The best film size for antero-posterior of pelvis for adults is:
A. 18x24 cm
B. 24x30 cm
C. 30x40 cm
D. 35x35 cm
E. 35x43 cm
23- Cystoscopy would likely be involved in the examination called:
A. Cholecystography
B. Angiography
C. Salpingograhy
D. Retrograde urography
E. K.U.B
24- If we increase FFD from 40 to 80 inches what is the specific effect to radiograph
density (other factors are not changed):
A. Increase density by 50%
B. Decrease density to 50%
C. Decrease density to 25%
D. Increase density by 25%
E. No effect on density
25- Fluorescence is the emission of:
A. Light
B. Electrons
C. X- rays
D. Gamma rays
E. Protons
26- The sternal notch is at the level of:
A. T9-10
B. T2-3
C. T5-6
D. S1-2
E. L4-5
27- The loading bench must be:
A. Cool
B. Hot
C. Wet
D. Dry
E. Cool and wet
28- Added filtration of 3 mm of aluminum would increase:
A. Detail
B. Density
C. Contrast
D. Magnification
E. Distortion

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29- A barium enema should not be performed in case of:
A. Bleeding
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pyelitis
E. Asthma
30- Arthrography is done by injecting contrast media into:
A. The bone
B. The joint space
C. The ligaments
D. Muscular vascia
E. Surrounding muscles
31-The area of high signal in MRI image appears as:
A. Black
B. White
C. Dark grey
D. Grey
E. Dark black
32- A cholangiogram is used to visualize:
A. Parotid ducts
B. Salivary duct
C. Lymph duct
D. Intracranial ducts
E. Bile duct
If suspected mobile kidney in I.V.P investigation a suitable patient position -33
:is
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Erect
D. Lt lateral decubitus
E. Recumbent
34- The following CT imager has no mechanical moving parts in the gantry:
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation
D. Electron beam
E. Spiral
35- One of the primary causes for repeat radiographs is (select the best):
A. Excessive Kv
B. Poor communication between radiographer and patient
C. Wrong film selection
D. Increase of F.F.D
E. Wrong screen selection

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36- The proton is heavier than electron. The ratio of their masses is approximately:
A. 2 to 1
B. 20 to 1
C. 200 to 1
D. 2000 to 1
E. 4000 to 1
37- The organs which are best visualized by ultrasound are:
A. Bones of the skull
B. Liver and spleen
C. Lungs
D. Ribs
E. Bowels
38- …………. is a diagnostic test that uses radioactive material (tracer) to visualize the
drainage of fluid by the lymphatic system:
A. Computer tomography scan
B. Lymphogram
C. Lymphography
D. Lymphoscintigram
E. Follow study
39- A microcurie is:
A. 1000 curies
B. 1000 millicurie
C. 1/100 millicurie
D 1/1000 millicurie
E. 1/1000 curie
40- The anode is made of:
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Tungsten
D. Lead
E. Molybdenum
41-In anterior oblique projection the central ray enters from:
A. Anterior aspect
B. Posterior aspect
C. Lateral aspect
D. Inferior aspect
E. Superior aspect
42-All of these are parts of x-ray tube except:
A. Tungsten target
B. Focusing cup
C. Cathode
D. Filament
E. Potter-Bucky diaphragm
43-What are the electric factors under which the x-ray filament operates:

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 A. Approximately 20 volts and 10 Amperes
B. Approximately 30 volts and 15 Amperes
C. Approximately 10 volts and 5 Amperes
D. Approximately 40 volts and 20 Amperes
E. Approximately 50 volts and 25 Amperes
44-Compared to projection radiography, conventional tomography results in improved
contrast resolution because:
A. Image time is reduced
B. Out of plane tissues are blurred
C. Tissues are superimposed
D. Precise beam collimation is employed
E. The x-ray beam is selectively filtered
45-Three projections are taken when there is a question of acute abdominal pain; they
are: recumbent anteroposterior, lateral and:
A. AP inverted view
B. Lateral inverted view
C. Lateral erect
D. Right lateral decubitus
E. AP Erect
46-The principal advantage of spiral CT is:
A. Large volume imaging
B. One second imaging time
C. Sub-second image time
D. Removal of ring artifacts
E. Imaging without x-ray
47-The contrast media used in oral cholecystogram (OCG) is:
A. Ba-sulphate
B. Aminopaque
C. Piloptine
D. Hypaque
E. Gastro-grafine
48-When viewing a CT image the term window level refers to the:
A. Central CT number of the window width
B. Lowest CT number of the window width
C. Highest CT number of the window width
D. Contrast range reconstructed
E. Contrast display
49-In antero-posterior of coccyx the direction of central ray is:
A. Vertical 90 degrees
B. 10-20 degrees cephalic
C. 15 degrees cephalic
D. 15 degrees caudal
E. 25 degrees caudal
50- The recommended collimation for imaging the abdomen by CT is approximately:
A. 1 mm
B. 4-5 mm

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 C. 2-3 mm
D. 8-10 mm
E. 6-7 mm
51-All of these equipments are required to produce magnetic resonance image except:
A. Magnet
B. Radiofrequency source
C. Cathode and anode
D. An image processor
E. Computer system
52-When hydrogen nuclei are placed in an external magnetic field they:
A. Interact with surrounding air
B. Align parallel and antiparallel with the field
C. Rotate counter clockwise
D. Align parallel with the field
E. Nothing happens to them
53- An ultrasound exam usually takes:
A. 50 minutes to one hour
B. One hour to two hours
C. 40 to 60 minutes
D. 20 to 30 minutes
E. Three hours
54- The following is not a characteristic of an ultrasound transparency film:
A. Single emulsion
B. Good resolution
C. Very inexpensive
D. Wide latitude
E. Long term archiving
55- Mental protuberance is located on:
A. Frontal bone
B. Maxilla
C. Temporal
D. Sphenoid
E. Mandible
56- Patient preparation for obstetric ultrasound to identify placenta previa is:
A. Six-hour fasting before exam
B. 12-hour fasting before exam
C. Patient must be full bladder
D. Exam done after emptying bladder
E. Patient must take castor oil
57- The Fixer acts on the image causing the image to become:
A. Visible
B. Permanent
C. Invisible
D. Latent
E. Dark
58-A radionuclide with a physical T½ of 10 days is taken up by the liver and eliminated

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 with a biological T½ of 15 days. What would be its effective T½?
A. 25 days
B. 10 days
C. 6 days
D. 12.5 days
E. 5 days
59- The central ray for Schuller for mastoid should be:
A. Perpendicular to film
B. 10-15o cephalic
C. 15o caudal
D. 25-30o caudal
E. 25-30o cephalic
60- The film and screen must be in complete contact to achieve maximum:
A. Resolution
B. Contrast
C. Transparence
D. Sharpness
E. Protection