Test I c) reciprocating cam c) 6

d) tangential cam d) 8
1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar 36. A cam with a roller follower would constitute which
reference to the forces that cause them. mechanism lies on type of pair?
a) Kinetics a) a point obtained by intersection of a) close pair
b) Motion extending adjoining links b) higher pair
c) Kinematics b) left side pivot of this link c) lower pair
d) Acceleration c) right side pivot of this link d) open pair
2. Progressive change in position of a body is called: d) any of the choices above 37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
a) Acceleration 20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is a) elements of pairs not held together
b) Motion moving and the direction in which it is heated. mechanically
c) Force a) Acceleration b) point or line contact between the elements
d) Momentum b) Displacement when in motion
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; c) Motion c) surface contact between the two elements
uniform motion and _________motion cam. d) Velocity when in motion
a) Reverse 21. Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity d) two elements that allow relative motion
b) gravity is changing? 38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having
c) decelerated a) Acceleration a) higher pairs
d) accelerated b) Linear b) lower pairs
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as: c) Motion c) rolling pairs
a) Impulse d) Vertical d) spherical pairs
b) Linear momentum 22. The direction of the ________ is toward the center of 39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal to
c) Angular momentum the circle in which, the study moves. a) 3
d) Impact a) Centripetal acc. b) 4
5. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased b) Centrifugal acc. c) 5
speed. c) Radial cam d) 6
a) Deceleration d) Tangential 40. In elliptical trammels,
b) Retarded motion 23. It is a device that changes the magnitude, direction or a) all four pairs are turning
c) Negative impulse mode of application of a torque or force while b) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
d) All of these transmitting it for a particular purpose. c) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to resist any a) Frame
change in its motion or state of rest. b) Machine
a) Brake c) Mechanism d) two pairs and two pairs sliding
b) Friction d) Structure 41. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating
c) Inertia 24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any number engine mechanism
d) Impulse of vectors. a) enables determined of coriolis component
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during a) Scalar quantity b) is a simplified form of instantaneous
which motion takes place is called: b) Vector composition center method
a) Deceleration c) Vector quantity c) is based on acceleration diagram
b) Uniform motion d) Vector resolution d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the
c) Acceleration 25. It has magnitude, direction and sense. diagram of mechanism for reciprocating
d) None of these a) scalar quantity engine
8. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium b) absolute quantity 42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both
means that the body cannot c) vector quantity in magnitude and direction at any instant, then
a) have any type of motion d) relative velocity a) it must have only unidirectional
b) be acted upon by more than one force 26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface of acceleration
c) undergo any displacement contact so designed as to caused or modify the motion b) it must have two components of
d) have any type of acceleration of the piece. acceleration e.g., centripetal and tangential
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of a) Cam c) it must have three components of
scalar or vector algebra. b) Disc acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
a) Kinematics c) Gear and tangential
b) Curvilinear translation d) Pulley d) it must have three components of
c) Projectile 27. When acceleration is zero, the acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
d) Acceleration a) velocity is constant and gravitational
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth the b) velocity is negative 43. Select the one that is the highest pair.
magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to c) velocity is variable a) Crosby indicator mechanism
a) zero d) velocity is zero b) Hart’s straight line mechanism
b) one-half the initial velocity 28. When the velocity is changing, the acceleration is c) Thomson indicator mechanism
c) twice the initial velocity a) constant d) Both gearing mechanism
d) initial velocity b) not constant 44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a
11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane c) variable a) Cylindrical pair
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam. d) zero b) higher pair
a) Radial cam 29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the c) lower pair
b) Cylindrical cam a) acceleration of various parts d) sliding pair
c) Cam curves b) angular acceleration of various parts 45. The total number of instantaneous center for a
d) Tangential cam c) displacement of various parts mechanism of N links is equal to
12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane d) velocity of various parts a) 2N
parallel to the axis of rotation. 30. Klein’s construction can be used when b) (N-1)(N+1)
a) cam curves a) crank has a uniform angular acceleration c) 2N(N-1)
b) cylindrical cam b) crank has a uniform angular velocity d) N(N-1)/2
c) tangential cam c) crank has a non uniform angular velocity 46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
d) Radial cam d) b and c above a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs
13. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular 31. The cam angle is b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end. a) the angle subtended by live portion of cam at c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
a) cone distance the cam’s center d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
b) back cone b) the angle of rotation of the cam for a definite 47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair the
c) root cone displacement of the follower relation between the number of joint J is given by
d) cone center c) the angle subtended at the cam’s center by the a) L = 2/3(J+2)
14. The ability of moving body to perform work is called: portion of cam during which the follower b) L = 3/2(J+2)
a) Internal energy moves c) L = 2/3(L+2)
b) potential energy d) the angle subtended by the cam at the cam d) L = 3/2(L+2)
c) kinetic energy center when the follower dwells 48. In case of an elliptical trammel,
d) flow work 32. The pitch point on a cam refers to a) one pair turns and two pairs slide
15. A slider crank chain is made up of a) any point on pitch curve
a) one turning and one sliding pair b) a point at a distance equal to pitch circle
b) one turning and two sliding pairs radius from the center b) two pairs and two pairs slide
c) two turning and one sliding pair c) the point of cam pitch circle that has the c) three pairs turn and one pair slides
d) three turning and one sliding pair maximum pressure angle d) all four pairs turn
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of d) none of the above 49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in
a) rotating pair only 33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism, a) four bar mechanism
b) sliding and turning pairs a) none of the links should be fixed b) mechanism of steam engine
c) turning and rotary pairs b) one link should be fixed c) higher pair
d) turning pair only c) there is no such criterion d) whitworth-quick-return mechanism
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of d) two links should be fixed 50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action
a) rolling and sliding pairs 34. Hart mechanism has how many links? of any external force or load.
b) rolling pairs a) 4 a) rigid body
c) sliding and rotary pairs b) 6 b) structure
d) turning pairs c) 8 c) Frame
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in d) 12 d) Mechanism
a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is called: 35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?
a) circular cam a) 4
b) cylindrical cam b) 5
TEST 2 b) resolution of forces b) Endurance limit
c) resultant c) Ultimate strength
1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum bending stress d) concurrent of forces d) Elastic limit
occurs at the 4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and 7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action of outside
a) max. shear stress area a) torque force is called:
b) neutral axis b) weights of object a) Shearing stress
c) web joint near the flange c) normal of force b) tensile stress
d) outermost d) moment c) ultimate stress
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a 5. Shear modulus is also known as: d) compressive stress
a) couple of forces a) Shear elasticity 8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually fail if
b) concurrent of forces b) poisson’s ratio the load/stress is above the endurance for the steel under
c) momentum c) modulus of elasticity consideration. The endurance limit of the steel is therefore
d) resolution of forces d) modulus of rigidity a) equal to the allowable stress of the module of elasticity
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be replaced by a single 6. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
force with same effect in a mass called: intermittent or repeated load without causing failure is called: c) equal to module of elasticity
a) couple of forces a) Ultimate stress d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit
9. Moment of inertia is also called: a) Working stresses d) slope of the beam
a) Modulus of elasticity b) Operating stresses 38. The change in length per unit original length
b) Weep strength c) residual stresses a) strain
c) Radius of gyration d) shear stresses b) stress
d) None of these 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal c) deformation
10. Defection of a beam is deformation is called: d) elastic modulus
a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment a) poisson’s ratio 39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is
of inertia b) willan’s line a) fatigue strength
b) proportional to the load imposed and inversely to the c) modulus of elasticity b) bending strength
length squared d) deformation c) torsional strength
c) inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and 25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are called: d) compressive strength
moment of inertia a) non-concurrent 40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes a member
d) inversely proportional to the weight imposed times the b) couple to twist.
length c) combined forces a) shear strength
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than d) concurrent forces b) tensile strength
the yield point is called: 26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate strength c) bearing strength
a) Plasticity but not with d) torsional strength
b) Elasticity a) yield strength 41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called
c) Creep b) design stress a) creep
d) Ductility c) shear stress b) modulus of rigidity
12. It is opposite direction of parallel force. d) all of these c) modulus of elasticity
a) concurrent 27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze a d) poisson’s ratio
b) coplanar a) tapered column 42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without breaking down is
c) couple b) continuous beam termed as
d) non coplanar c) endurance limit a) strain
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - section of the d) tensile stress b) stress
beam to the section 28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of c) elasticity
modulus is a) shear strain to compressive strain d) strength
a) equal to the radius of gyration b) elastic limit to compressive strain 43. The last point at which a material may be stretched a still return
b) equal to the area of the cross-section c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain to its underformed
c) measure of a distance d) elastic limit to proportional limit condition upon release of the stress.
d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam measure 29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and the a) rupture limit
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the following: time that the resultant acts. b) elastic limit
a) bending moment of the beam a) angular impulse c) proportional limit
b) tensile strength of the beam b) angular momentum d) ultimate limit
c) slope of the elastic curve c) Linear impulse 44. The deformation that results from a stress and is expressed in
d) load of the beam d) linear momentum terms of the amount of
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as 30. The system of forces and opposite collinear forces are added, deformation per inch.
a) work which of the following if any is true? a) elongation
b) force a) equilibrium is destroyed b) strain
c) inertia b) equilibrium is maintained c) poisson’s ratio
d) power c) none of these is true d) elasticity
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to action of a d) an unbalance of moment exist 45. The internal resistance a material offers to being deformed and
force on it is called deformation or 31. What is the property of a material, which resists forces acting to is measured in terms
a) shearing stress pull the material apart? of applied load.
b) stresses a) shear strength a) strain
c) compressive stress b) tensile strength b) elasticity
d) strains c) torsional strength c) stress
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called: d) compressive strength d) resilience
a) plasticity 32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that causes 46. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to
b) all of these twisting? alternating or repeated loading without causing failure.
c) stiffness a) torsional strength a) Ultimate strength
d) toughness b) modulus of elasticity b) yield strength
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral strain to c) twisting moment c) endurance strength
longitudinal strain is called: d) elasticity d) rupture strength
a) stress 33. The unit deformation is called 47. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected
b) strain a) torsion before failure occurs is called:
c) poisson’s ratio b) strain a) Rupture strength
d) endurance limit c) stress b) ultimate strength
19. The single force which produces the same effect upon a body as d) shear c) Yield strength
two or more forces acting together is called: 34. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length d) proportional limit
a) Resultant force measured after specimen has fractured and is expressed as 48. The total deformation measured in the direction of the line of
b) co-planar force percentage increase of the original length. stress.
c) couple a) elongation a) strain
d) non-coplanar force b) strain b) elasticity
20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is called c) stress c) elongation
a) shearing strength d) elastic limit d) contraction
b) compressive stress 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity determined by 49. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load is
c) torsional strength considering the maximum test load to act over the original area of called
d) tensile strength the test specimens called a) friction torque
21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: a) yield point b) stress
a) co-planar b) ultimate strength c) rigidity
b) non-coplanar forces c) break strength d) compressive force
c) Acceleration d) elastic limit 50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a number
d) composition of forces 36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a tension test is of twist.
22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related as called a) shear strength
follows a) stress b) bearing strength
a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor of safety b) elasticity c) endurance limit
b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by factor of c) strain deformation
safety d) tensile strength
c) factor of safety = design stress divided ultimate stress 37. Which of the following is the different of the shear equation?
d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by design a) bending moment
stress b) load on the beam
23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as: c) tensile strength of the beam
TEST 3 b) depends only on the finish condition pf the surface c) tangential stress
c) does not depend on the materials d) all of the above
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress. d) depends on the composition of the materials only 13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of
a) proportionality constant 7. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected before a) linear stress to longitudinal strain
b) strain failure occurs. b) shear stress to shear strain
c) Modulus a) rupture stress c) shear to strain
d) Factor of safety b) yield stress d) shear stress to volumetric strain
2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the c) ultimate stress 14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called
moment is d) allowable stress a) resilience
a) constant along the beam 8. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load. b) proof resilience
b) maximum at the wall a) flexure c) modulus of resilience
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam b) stress d) toughness
d) maximum at the free end c) elasticity 15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is equal to
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand. d) rigidity a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
a) yield point 9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular beams are the b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
b) bearing strength same and both are put to equal bending moment then the correct c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length
c) ultimate strength statement is d) that of a prismatic bar of the same length
d) point of rupture a) both the beams are equally economical 16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true stress-strain
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed the b) both the beams are equally strong method?
strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can c) the circular beam is more economical e) it is more sensitive to changes in mechanical conditions.
be deducted about this material? d) the square beam is more economical f) There is no such phenomenon like true stress or true strain.
g) This method can be used for compression tests as well.
a) It is elastic. 10. Ties are load carrying members that carry
h) True stress is load per unit area and similarly true strain is
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. a) axial compressive loads determined under actual conditions.
c) it is plastic b) axial tension loads 17. The tensile stress of a material is given by
d) it is ductile. c) prestressing thick cylinders a) average load during the test / average at the time of
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load toward the e) d)relieving thick cylinders fracture
fixed end 11. Auto frottage is the method of b) average load during the test / original cross-sectional
a) has uniform shear a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders area
b) has a reaction equal to the load b) increasing life of thick cylinders c) maximum load during test / area at the time of fracture
c) will have maximum bending moment midway to the c) prestressing thick cylinders d) maximum load during test / original cross-sectional area
beam d) relieving thick cylinders 18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops what
d) has a reaction is not equal to the load 12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine _________ on inclined kind of stress?
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces surface. a) compressive stress
a) depends on the materials and the finish condition of the a) principal stress b) principal stress
surface b) normal stress
 c) shear stress a) modulus of elongation a) the modulus of elasticity of the material
d) tensile stress b) plastic range b) the compressive strength of the material
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension c) irreversible range c) the radius of gyration of the column
is nearly d) elastic range d) the length of the column
a) one-half 31. Principal stresses occur on those planes 41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two points on
the beam is equal to the
b) one-third a) where the shearing stress is zero
a) change in shear between the two points
c) one-fourth b) which are 45 degrees apart b) total shear beyond the two points
d) the same c) where the shearing stress is a maximum c) average moment between the two points
20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as d) which are subjected only to tension d) change in moment between the two points
a) bulk modulus 32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross-section of a beam 42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
b) modulus of elasticity to the section a) the determination of capability of material for being
c) modulus of rigidity modulus is shaped
d) unit stress a) equal to the radius of gyration b) the determination of capacity of a material for plastic
21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as compared to its b) equal to the area of the cross section deformation with fracture
ultimate compressive stress will be c) a measure of distance c) stress-strain relationships where stresses are applied in
a) less d) multiplied by the bending moment to determine the more than one direction
b) more stress d) the determination of the endurance limit
c) more or less depending on the factors 33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop what kind 43. Modulus of resilience is
a) the same as the modulus of elasticity
d) same of stress?
b) a measure of a materials ability to store strain energy
22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and modulus of a) bending stress c) the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and Poisson’s b) compressive stress d) a measure of the deflection of member
ratio is given by c) shearing stress 44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield
a) E = Gu d) tensile stress stress?
b) E = G (u + 1) 34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is derived from the a) it is elastic limit after which a measurable plastic strain
c) E = 2g(u+1) a) sum of the moments of all external forces on one side of the has occurred.
d) E = 4G (1+2u) section
b) it is the stress at which the material plastically strains
23. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending moment at b) difference between the moments on one side of the section
and the opposite side 0.2%.
that section will be c) it is the stress at which the material elastically strains
a) maximum c) sum of the moments of all external forces on both sides of the
section 0.2%
b) minimum d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material.
d) sum of the moments of all external forces between supports
c) minimum or maximum 45. Under very low deformation and at high temperature it is
35. The stress concentration factor
d) zero possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower
a) is a ratio of the average stress on a section to the
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is than the critical shear stress. What is this phenomenon called?
allowable stress
a) an irregular a) Slip
b) can not be evaluated for brittle materials
b) a parabola b) Twinning
c) is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden change of cross-
c) a sudden break c) Creep
section
d) a straight line d) Shearing
d) is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a cross
25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a 46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term for the stress
section to the average stress over the section
circular section is equal to level at e = 0.20% offset?
36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
a) 2 a) Elastic limit
a) unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal
b) 2/3 b) Plastic limit
deformation
c) 3/2 c) Offset rupture stress
b) unit stress to unit strain
d) ¾ d) Offset yield stress
c) elastic limit to proportional limit
26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be 47. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
d) shear strain to compressive strain
equal to a) Static load
37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous medium experiencing
a) 3/2 b) Plane
one dimensional stress is known as
b) 5/16 c) High load
a) Stress = E (strain)
c) 1 d) Repeated load
b) Strain = E (stress)
d) 2
c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in length/length)
27. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of 48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed, the
d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
a) axis of load strain disappears. From this information, which of the following can
38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is
b) perpendicular to the axis of load be deduced about this material?
a) a function of the length and depth
c) minimum cross-section a) It is elastic.
b) defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit shear
d) least radius of gyration b) It is plastic.
deformation
28. The stress in an elastic material is c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
c) equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one plus
a) inversely proportional to the material’s yield strength d) It is ductile.
b) inversely proportional to the force acting
Poisson’s ratio
d) defined as the length divided by the moment of inertia 49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a material?
c) proportional to the displacement of the material acted upon
by the force 39. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply supported at a) 0.45
d) inversely proportional to the strain both ends and subject to a total load  uniformly distributed over its b) 0.5
29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as the length L is expressed by the formula c) 0.55
ratio of its a)  L/8 d) 0.60
a) length to its minimum width b)  L2/8 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress occurs at the
b) unsupported length to its maximum radius of gyration c)  L/2 a) center
c) length to its moment of inertia d)  L2/2 b) long side
d) unsupported length to its least radius of gyration 40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of the following has the c) medium side
30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known greatest influence on its tendency to buckle under a compressive load? d) short side
as
TEST 4 a) 0.23 to 0.65 d) uniaxial
b) 0.34 to 0.45 19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the system is
1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe specified as c) 0.34 to 0.87 a) biaxial
“schedule 80”, the pipe corresponds to the d) 0.63 to 0.93 b) monoaxial
a) “ extra standard “ weight 10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as scratches, holes, c) triaxial
b) allowable stress bends, or grooves is a d) uniaxial
c) internal pressure a) stress raiser 20. Under theories of failure for static loading of ductile material, the
d) “ old standard “ weight b) stress functioning design stress is the
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls between c) stress raiser a) endurance strength / factor of safety
________ million pounds per square inch. d) stress relieving b) factor of safety / yield stress
a) 26 to 28 11. The degree of stress concentration is usually indicated by the c) yield stress / factor of safety
b) 28 to 31 a) power factor d) ultimate stress / factor of safety
c) 20 to 45 b) stress concentration factor 21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is ______ that
d) 50 to 30 c) service factor of tensile stress.
3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of d) stress factor a) equal
a) accuracy 12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon by an b) double
b) quality external load, any internal stress that exists is called: c) half
c) stiffness a) Control stress d) three times
d) rigidity b) Form stress 22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the results from
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in compression is c) Residual stress the octahedral shear stress theory and those from the maximum
usually taken as that in d) Superposed stress distortion energy theory are ________.
a) tension 13. The stress or load induced by the tightening operation. a) more than
b) bearing a) Initial stress b) less than
c) torsion b) Initial tension c) relevant
d) yield c) Residual stress d) the same
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: d) None of these 23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along or parallel
a) Contraction 14. A type of failure due to instability is known as to the area is called
b) Proportional constant a) Slenderness ratio a) Bearing stress
c) Section modulus b) Buckingham b) Shearing stress
d) Strain c) Buckling c) Tangential stress
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural stress is d) Stability d) tensile stess
_______ when the vertical shear is maximum. 15. The ratio of the length of the column and the radius of gyration 24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by the dA over
a) infinity of the cross-sectional area about a centroidal axis is called which it acts.
b) maximum a) contact ratio a) Elasticity
c) minimum b) constant ratio b) Elongation
d) zero c) power factor c) Strain
7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually exhibit d) slenderness ratio d) Stress
________characteristics up to the yield strength as they do when 16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is called 25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain diagram or curve is
tested in tension a) Column formula called
a) the same b) Euler’s formula a) elastic limit
b) less than c) Moment formula b) rapture strength
c) more than d) Slender formula c) ultimate strength
d) approximately the same 17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is d) yield point
8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine parts have a) biaxial 26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in direction, and not
been due to b) monoaxial in the same line is called
a) compression c) triaxial a) couple
b) fatigue failures d) uniaxial b) momentum
c) negligence 18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is c) parallel forces
d) torsion a) biaxial d) torque
9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, often called b) monoaxial 27. Framework composed of members joined at their ends to form a
endurance ratio, from c) triaxial rigid structure is known as :
 a) Joists 36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is about a) Stress concentration factor
b) Machine a) 2000 kg per sq. cm b) Stress factor
c) Purlins b) 4600 kg per sq. cm c) Design factor
d) Truss c) 4890 kg per sq. cm d) Load factor
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is called d) 5633 kg per sq. cm 45. The stress value, which is used, in the mathematical
a) Bulk modulus 37. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of determination of the required
b) Hooke’s law a) 3 size of the machine member.
c) Shear modulus b) 4 a) Endurance stress
d) Young modulus c) 5 b) Design stress
29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is called the d) 6 c) Maximum stress
coefficient of volume elasticity or 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the ________ continues to d) Normal stress
a) bulk modulus increase unit failure. 46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast iron is in the range of
b) Hooke’s law a) actual stress a) 0.30 to 0.33
c) shear modulus b) allowable stress b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) Young modulus c) compressive stress c) 0.25 to 0.27
30. The action of a force is characterized by d) tensile stress d) 0.35 to 0.45
a) its magnitude 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large increase in 47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is in the range of
b) direction of its action strain with little or no increase in stress is called a) 0.30 to 0.33
c) point of application a) Endurance strength b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) all of the above b) Ultimate strength c) 0.25 to 0.27
31. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram c) Rapture strength d) 0.35 to 0.45
a) shear is half, the maximum moment d) Yield strength 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of aluminum and titanium is in
b) shear is maximum 40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse to its axis. the range of
c) shear is negative a) structure a) 0.25 to 0.27
d) shear is zero b) column b) 0.27 to 0.30
32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting c) beam c) 0.30 to 0.33
a) an axial load d) frame d) 0.35 to 0.45
b) a traverse force 41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is never removed? 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which the principal
c) a bending moment a) Uniform load stresses act is called
d) all of these b) Static load a) normal plane
33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called c) Equilibrium load b) principal plane
a) Bulk modulus d) Impact load c) tangential plane
b) deformation 42. When varying loads are applied that are not regular in their d) traverse plane
c) Modulus of rigidity amplitude, the loading is called 50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of failure of
d) Young modulus a) Repeated loading ductile materials
34. The stress beyond which the material will not return to its b) Random loading under static loads or completely reversed normal, shear or combined
original shape when unloaded, but will retain a permanent c) Reversed loading stresses.
deformation is termed as d) Fluctuating loading a) Shear stress theory
a) elastic limit 43. A measure of the relative safety of a load-carrying component is b) Normal stress theory
b) proportional limit termed as c) Distortion energy theory
c) yield point a) design factor d) Soderberg line theory
d) yield strength b) load factor
35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when under load. c) ratio factor
a) Allowable stress d) demand factor
b) Factor of safety 44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in machine members
c) Ultimate strength to be higher than nominal values predicted by the elementary direct
d) Working stress and combined stress equations.
TEST 5 12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the 24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely
deflection should not exceed ____________ of length between a) single piece and built up
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design supports. b) forged and turned
of shaft and the limit should be in the range of ________ a) 0.01 in. per foot c) rotary and stationary
degrees/foot of length. b) 0.02 in. per foot d) none of these
a) 0.004 to 0.006 c) 0.03 in. per foot 25. Engine valves get open by means of
b) 0.08 to 1 d) 0.04 in. per foot a) cam shaft
c) 0.006 to 0.008 13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection may b) rocker shaft
d) 0.008 to 1 be closer to c) crank shaft
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be _________ degrees a) 0.02 in/ft d) valve guard
maximum and much less if in high rotational speed. b) 0.01 in/ft 26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in
a) 12 c) 0.002 in/ft practice for main transmitting shafts is
b) 16 d) 0.030 in/ft a) 282 kg/cm2
c) 15 14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the deflecting b) 423 kg/cm2
d) 14 forces on the shaft with its attached bodies will then vibrate c) 599 kg/cm2
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to consider a violently, since the centrifugal force changes its direction as the shaft d) 620 kg/cm2
limit to the linear turns. 27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in
deflection of ________ inch/foot length maximum. a) Critical speed practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is
a) 0.050 b) Geometrical speed a) 150 kg/cm2
b) 0.010 c) Mean speed b) 282 kg/cm2
c) 0.020 d) Unit speed c) 423 kg/cm2
d) 0.060 15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined shock and d) 550 kg/cm2
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power. fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the computed bending 28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in
a) Cam moment is practice for small, short shafts, countershafts is
b) Plate a) 1.0 a) 282 kg/cm2
c) Shaft b) 1.3 b) 599 kg/cm2
d) Flywheel c) 1.5 c) 650 kg/cm2
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. that d) 1.8 d) 750 kg/cm2
transmit power is called: 16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield strength be 29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be limited to
a) Axle about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor shock loads, _______ in 20 diameters.
b) Propeller shaft and _________ when the loading reverse during operation. a) 1
c) Turbine shaft a) 3.0 b) 2
d) Machine shaft b) 4.0 c) 3
6. A line shaft is also known as c) 3.5 d) 4
a) Counter shaft d) 4.5 30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not exceed
b) Jack shaft 17. A column is called short column when a) in. per foot of length
c) Main shaft a) the length is more than 30 times the diameter b) 0.005 in. per foot of length
d) Head shaft b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 c) in. per foot of length
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a line shaft c) the length is less than 8 times the diameter d) 0.05 in. per foot of length
and a driven shaft? d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32 31. Front axle should be live and
a) Counter shaft 18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress a) weak
b) Jack shaft a) is uniform throughout b) dead
c) Head Shaft b) has maximum value at the axis c) strong
d) All of the above c) has maximum value at the surface d) none of these
8. Short shafts on machines are called d) is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum 32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by means of a
a) Core shafts value at the surface of the shaft a) connecting rod
b) Head shafts 19. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of b) tie rod
c) Medium shafts a) axis of load c) push rod
d) Spindles b) perpendicular to the axis of load d) spindle
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the neutral c) minimum cross-section 33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation speed of
plane where the d) least radius of gyration ________ rest higher than that of engine’s speed.
normal stress is 20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of a) main shaft
a) constant a) clad material b) crank shaft
b) maximum b) composite material c) propeller shaft
c) minimum c) homogeneous material d) machine shaft
d) zero d) heterogeneous material 34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft.
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.08 per 21. The column splice is used for increasing a) increases
foot of length for machinery shafts to _______ per foot. a) strength of the column b) decreases
a) 1 b) cross-sectional area of the column c) keeps appropriate
b) 2 c) length of the column d) none of these
c) 3 d) all of the above 35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear box, and
d) 4 22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed load on it, propeller shaft and
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one degree in the bending moment is a) brake
a length of a) triangle b) differential
_________ diameters. b) parabola c) steering
a) 10 c) semi-circle d) main shafting
b) 15 d) rectangle 36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft.
c) 20 23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel through the a) equal to
d) 25 a. countershaft b) more than
b. crank shaft c) less than
c. transmission shaft d) in the gear ratio
d. line shaft
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft. a) 16 ft c) size
a) before b) 20 ft d) strength
b) after c) 24 ft 47. Commercial shafting is made of
c) parallel to d) all of the above a) low carbon steel
d) adjacent to 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds ________ also b) cast iron
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of _________ remain the employ these flexible c) brass
same shafts. d) bronze
a) primary and lay shafts a) 1000 to 3000 rpm 48. What is the most common material for shafting?
b) main and lay shafts b) 5000 to 10000 rpm a) Wrought iron
c) primary and main shafts c) 15000 to 30000 rpm b) Cast iron
d) secondary and main shafts d) 20000 to 50000 rpm c) Mild steel
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________ direction. 44. Which of the following material is used for shafting? d) Aluminum
a) in the same a) AISI 3240 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot rolling, but
b) different b) AISI 3150 with higher residual stresses.
c) reverse c) AISI 4063 a) weaker
d) none of the above d) AISI 33000 b) stronger
40. It is an integral part of a machine. 45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a rotating body c) harder
a) Spindle in order to reduce d) none of the above
b) Axle vibrations arising from a centrifugal force. 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are common in
c) Counter shaft a) Shaft coupling design of a shaft.
d) Machine shaft b) Shaft balancing a) 3000 to 5000 psi
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through c) Shaft hooper b) 4000 to 6000 psi
a) torsional d) stator balancing c) 5000 to 8000 psi
b) bending 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an import design d) 6000 to 10000 psi
c) axial feature.
d) all of these a) deflections
42. What is the standard stock length? b) rigidity
TEST 6 17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the shaft to c) King pins
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional angular which the key fits. d) Shear pins
flexibility due to introduction with some elastic material a) Key path 33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces induced
cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the flange. b) Key way by pulling the flanges toward each other over slotted tapered sleeves
a) Simple elastic bonded coupling c) Key holder is known as
b) Elastic material bushed coupling d) Key hole a) Flange coupling
c) Elastic material bonded coupling 18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square section and b) Flange compression coupling
d) All of these driven from opposite ends of the hub is known as c) Ribbed compression coupling
2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and tapered with a) Barth key d) Rigid coupling
head? b) Feather key 34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration that may
a) Pin key c) Kennedy key appear on one shaft and of preventing the occurrence of reversed
b) Saddle key d) Saddle key stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at the coupling?
c) Gib-head keys 19. A machine member employed at the interface of a pair of mating a) Flange coupling
d) None of these male and female circular cross-sectioned members to prevent b) Flexible coupling
3. What are considered as the most common keys? relative angular motion between these mating. c) Rigid coupling
a) Flat key a) Key way d) None of these
b) Square key b) Key 35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle should not be
c) Saddle key c) Constant key greater than
d) A & B above d) Variable key a) 10 
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive fit. 20. A feather key is one of the following types of b) 12 
a) Pin key a) sunk c) 15 
b) Saddle key b) tapered d) 30 
c) Gib-head key c) parallel
d) None of these d) tangent
5. A key with one of several patented methods of keying is driven or 21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting into key 36. A universal coupling is
pressed into a hole that is small enough to close the slit, assembled ways broached a) A rigid coupling
in radial direction. into the mating hub. b) A type of flange coupling
a) Fit key a) Square keys c) Used for collinear coupling
b) Saddle key b) Splines d) Used for non-collinear shafts
c) Roll Pin c) Woodruff keys 37. A flange coupling is
d) Pin key d) Kennedy keys a) flexible
6. Kennedy keys are also known as 22. A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is called b) used for collinear shafts
a) Tangential keys a) Flat key c) used for non-collinear shafts
b) Normal keys b) Feather key d) used only on small shafts rotating at low speed
c) Saddle keys c) Barth key 38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be the
d) Roll Pin d) Woodruff key a) bolts
7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the 23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed b) flange
rotation of the shaft. a) 600 psi c) key
a) Woodruff key b) 800 psi d) shaft
b) Feather key c) 1000 psi 39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
c) Gibbs key d) 1200 psi a) fatigue
d) Square key 24. The two keys are angularly spaced b) shear forces
8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute spline? a) 45  c) compression
a) Close fit b) 60  d) tensile forces
b) Press c) 75  40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for uniting or
c) Sliding d) 90  connecting parts of a mechanical system?
d) All of these 25. The three keys are angularly spaced a) Coupling
9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute splines except b) Keys
a) 60 
that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg. c) Splines
b) 90 
a) Separation load d) Flexible coupling
c) 1200
b) Stub serrations 41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular flexibility
d) 1800
c) Spline shaft between the input and output shafts.
26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________ times the
d) Involute serrations a) Rigid coupling
permissible shear stress.
10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fall in b) Flexible coupling
a) 1.5
a) compression c) Hydraulic coupling
b) 1.7
b) shear d) Oldham coupling
c) 1.9
c) tension 42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with collinear
d) 1.10
d) double shear shafts?
27. Practical considerations required that the hub length should be at
11. In case of sunk key, a) Collar coupling
least _________ to obtain a good grip.
a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub b) Rigid coupling
a) 1.2D
b) the key way is cut in hub only c) Flexible coupling
b) 1.5D
c) the key way is cut in shaft only d) Hydraulic coupling
c) 1.7D
d) the key way is helical along the shaft 43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have lateral
d) 1.9D
12. Splined shafts are generally for misalignment.
28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload often is used.
a) air craft a) Compression coupling
a) 10
b) automobiles b) Collar coupling
b) 15
c) bicycles c) Chain coupling
c) 20
d) machine tools d) Oldham coupling
d) 25
13. Splines are used when 44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members, which are
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end and a
a) the power to be transmitted is low connected by a continuous steel spring, and lies in the slots.
radial through hole in the other end.
b) the power to be transmitted is high a) Ajax coupling
a) Clevis pins
c) the torque is high b) Falk coupling
b) Taper pins
d) axial relative motion between shaft and hub is c) Lord coupling
c) Dower pins
necessary d) Slip coupling
d) Taper pins
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches? 45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several purposes. The
30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar devices
a) Kennedy key most common purpose of shaft coupling is
onto shafts for light-duty service.
b) Sunk key a) to provide for the connection of shafts of units that are
a) Clevis pins
c) Tangent key manufactured separately
b) Cotter pins
d) None of the above b) to provide for misalignment of the shafts
c) Dowel pins
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same material and of c) to reduce the transmission of shock loads from one
d) Taper pins
equal strength the shaft to another
31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating member
length of key would be equal to d) all of the above
is called
a) d 46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where D is the shaft
a) Key way
b) 0.75 d diameter
b) Key path
c) 1.2 d a) 1.2D and 1.8D
c) Key hole
d) 1.5 d b) 1.25D and 2.4D
d) None of these
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key made by c) 1.30 and 2.5D
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where there is
a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of a disk. d) 1.35D and 3.0D
danger of injury to
a) Kennedy key 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be ________ the
machines or to material in process.
b) Saddle key shaft diameter.
a) Flange couplings
c) Tangent key a) ¼
b) Involute serrations
d) Woodruff key b) 1/3
 c) ½ 49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience has shown a) Coupling
d) 3/2 that, the permissible crushing stress is about ____________ times b) Key
48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and is widely the permissible shear stress. c) Splines
used on doors is the a) 1.3 d) None of the above
a) Pawl fastener b) 1.5
b) Magnetic fastener c) 1.7
c) Sliding fastener d) 1.9
d) Screw fastener 50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts together for power
transmission.
TEST 7 18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed around it and 35. When the location of bolt is such that it would normally be
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is known as grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the shear, it is better
a) Pitch threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut internal threads. practice to use a
b) Top flank a) Groove a) dummy bolts
c) Top land b) Lap b) mid-pins
d) Crest c) Tap c) crank pins
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a d) Flute d) dowel pins
a) thread series 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has threads on 36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between the threads
b) thread shear bolts ends. of the bolt and nut.
c) straight thread a) Stud bolt a) Gasket
d) taper thread b) Acme threaded bolt b) Lock nuts
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is called c) Square bolt c) Lock washer
a) Pitch cone d) Hex bolt d) Lock out
b) Chamfer 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the 37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
c) Crest crest of an external thread. a) major diameter
d) Flute a) Mean diameter b) pitch diameter
4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the screw thread. b) Stress diameter c) minor diameter
a) Lead angle c) Minor diameter d) none of the above
b) Length of engagement d) Major diameter 38. Turn buckle has
c) Top land 21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances axially in one a) left hand threads on both ends
d) Flank turn. b) left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one pitch in the a) Lead other end
axial plane on which design forms of both the external threads are b) Circular pitch c) right hand threads on both ends
based. c) Pitch d) no threads
a) Basic form of thread d) Mean pitch 39. The diameter of a washer is generally
b) Effective thread 22. Which of the following type of threads recommended for general a) equal to the diameter of bolt
c) Basic profile of thread use? b) slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
d) Design form of external thread a) UNC c) slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as to crest b) UNEF d) of any size that suits the application
and ________ for screw thread. c) UNF 40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ in a standard
a) flank d) NC coarse thread.
b) root 23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft work. a) all over the surface
c) flank tooth a) UNC b) flank
d) top land b) UNEF c) root
7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed that c) UNF d) top surface
experience mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due to nut d) NC 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has
tightening. 24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in aeronautical a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut
a) 3/8 equipments? tightened against smaller one loosening, creating
b) 5/8 inch a) UNC friction jamming.
c) ½ inch b) UNEF b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly in middle of
d) 7/16 inch c) UNF tightening of screw
8. The angle included between the sides of the thread measured in an d) NC c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and
axial plane in a screw thread. 25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder head becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt
a) Angle of thread studs etc. causing a tight grip.
b) Angle between thread or 40 deg a) UNC d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is
c) Helix angle thread b) UNEF passed through these and a hole in the bolt and cotter
d) Half angle thread c) UNF pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
9. Length of contact between two mating parts in screw and nut d) 8UN 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded
threads measured axially is called 26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it. by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of a least ________ times
a) Arc of contact a) Bolt the diameter of the anchor bolt.
b) Depth of engagement b) Fastener a) 1
c) Length of engagement c) Rivet b) 2
d) Axis of contact d) None of these c) 3
10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in 27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a threaded hole? d) 4
a) screw thread a) Rivet 43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________ times the
b) bolt b) Screw diameter of the anchor bolt.
c) gear c) Stud bolt a) 12
d) all of these d) U-bolt b) 14
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the 28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, comes with c) 16
a) major diameter a square. d) 18
b) minor diameter a) Coupling bolt 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________ mm diameter.
c) stress area b) Machine bolt a) 10
d) mean diameter c) Stud bolt b) 12
12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width of the thread d) Automobile bolt c) 14
and the space between threads are approximately equal. 29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually having coarse d) 16
a) square thread threads? 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at least
b) acme thread a) Coupling bolt ___________ times the bolt diameter.
c) buttress thread b) Machine bolt a) 10
d) whit worth thread c) Stud bolt b) 20
13. A kind of thread that is generally used. d) Automobile bolt c) 30
a) UNEC 30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the shank d) 40
b) UNC underneath the head being square or finned or ribbed. 46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of motion is
c) UNF a) Carriage bolt one of the
d) UNEF b) Coupling bolt following types of ___________ threads.
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is c) Machine bolt a) acme
threaded in both ends. d) Stud bolt b) vee
a) Stud bolt 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that can be used where a c) knuckle
b) Acme threaded bolt through bolt d) British Association
c) Square threaded bolt is impossible. 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided with
d) Hex bolt a) Carriage bolt a) buttress threads
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts. b) Coupling bolt b) square threads
a) Shaver c) Machine bolt c) acme threads
b) Tachometer d) Stud bolt d) v-threads
c) Tensor 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes. 48. Any device to connect or joint more components.
d) Torque wrench a) Stud bolt a) Bolt
16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in b) Carriage bolt b) Screw
holes. c) Stove bolt c) Fastener
a) Tapping tap d) Mini bolt d) None of the above
b) Plug tap 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and equipment 49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the driven screw moves
c) Taper tap to a wooden base. rapidly is known as
d) Bottoming tap a) Lag screw a) Bearing screw
17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden parts together or b) Log screw b) Compound screw
wood to metal. It has a short portion of shank just underneath a c) Wood screw c) Differential screw
round head, which is designed to keep the bolt from turning in the d) None of these d) Set screw
wood when the nut is tightened. 34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a minimum of 50. The threaded length is about _________ times the diameters.
a) U-bolt about ___________ a) 1.25
b) Carriage bolt for cast iron. b) 1.5
c) Eye bolt a) D c) 1.8
d) Stud bolt b) 1.5D d) 2.0
c) 1.2D
d) 2D
TEST 8 a) performed d) Copper alloy
b) IWRC 4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope design starts at
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is c) Mps 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12 for operating rope and
a) 6 x 27 d) Lang lay __________ for hazard to life and properly application like foundry
b) 6 x 37 3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire rope operation.
c) 6x9 pulley / sheave applications. a) higher value
d) 6 x 21 a) Plastic b) 7 – 10
2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope arrangement b) Iron c) 8 – 10
except this ________ which deals with rope materials strength . c) Paper d) 10 – 18
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and c) 5 b) 7 diameters
standards are arranged in the following manner _________ d) 6 c) 7 wires
a) twisted in same direction 20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the surface of d) 7 strands
b) twisted in any direction contact depends on the ___________ of the materials. 36. Ropes are made of
c) twisted in opposite direction a) strength a) aluminum alloys
d) twisted in along direction b) hardness b) copper
6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow cylindrical c) modulus of elasticity c) bronze
member beyond the elastic range by hydraulic pressure. d) modulus of rigidity d) all of the above
a) Presstage 21. In cross or regular lay ropes the 37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the strength of
b) Stress relieving a) direction of twist in strands is opposite to the direction all the wires in the rope
c) Auto frettage of twist of strands a) excess strength
d) Countersinking b) direction of twist of wires and strands are the same b) reserve strength
7. When two touching surface have a high contact pressure and c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite c) factor of safety
when these surfaces have minute relative motion a phenomenon direction d) ratio of factor
called d) wires are not twisted 38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a) Carving 22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible? a) elevators
b) Friction a) 6 by 7 b) cranes
c) Fretting b) 6 by 19 c) tramways
d) Prestressing c) 6 by 37 d) all of the above
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made by d) 8 by 19 39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe indicate that
a) slush casting 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in opposite for steel ropes of the ordinary constructions the value of modulus of
b) pressure casting direction. elasticity is
c) extrusion a) 10,000,000 psi
d) centrifugal casting a) Long lay b) 10,500,000 psi
9. Hoop stress refers to b) Lang lay c) 11,000,000 psi
a) circumferential tensile stress c) Regular lay d) 12,000,000 psi
b) compressive stress d) Performed 40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums ______________
c) longitudinal stress 24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the same times the rope diameter.
d) radial stress direction. a) 60 to 70
10. Autfrettage is the method of a) Long lay b) 60 to 80
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders b) Lang lay c) 60 to 90
b) increasing life of thick cylinders c) Performed d) 60 to 100
c) prestressing thick cylinders d) Non-performed 41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for haulage rope?
d) relieving thick cylinders 25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and guardrails. a) 70d
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is a) 6 x 35 IWRC b) 71d
a) maximum at inner surface and decreases toward outer b) 6 x 25 IWRC c) 72d
surface c) 7 x 7 IWRC d) 73d
b) minimum at inner surface and increases towards outer d) 6 x 8 IWRC 42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for standard hoisting
surface 26. A rope used for general-purpose. rope?
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces and maximum in a) 6 x 15 IWRC a) 40d
middle b) 6 x 21 IWRC b) 45d
d) maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in c) 6 x 19 IWRC c) 50d
middle d) 7 x 26 IWRC d) 55d
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in the 27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated cranes, hoists. 43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for extra-flexible
thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr and hoop stress Sh are a) 6 x 34 IWRC hoisting rope?
related as b) 6 x 35 IWRC a) 30d
a) Sr – Sh = constant c) 6 x 37 IWRC b) 31d
b) Sr + Sh = constant d) 6 x 45 IWRC c) 32d
c) Sr/Sh = constant 28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of d) 33d
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant a) cast steel 44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when b) chromium wrapped into
subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of material is  , c) wrought iron a) pulp
the circumferential or hoop strain is d) high-carbon steel b) strands
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in the range of c) helices
b) Pd(1-2)/ a) 200 and 400 ksi d) hemp
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE b) 240 and 280 ksi 45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor of
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE c) 230 and 260 ksi guy’s is
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to the inside d) 400 and 500 ksi a) 3.0
diameter is ___________ may be called a thin cylinder 30. The minimum suggested design factor of ________ for ropes b) 3.5
a) less than 0.05 miscellaneous hoisting equipment. c) 4.0
b) less than 0. a) 2 d) 5.0
c) more than 0.05 b) 3 46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor of
d) more than 0.07 c) 4 miscellaneous hoisting equipment is
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an apparent d) 5 a) 3.0
factor of safety of 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure b) 5.0
a) 1 to 3 for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron. c) 7.0
b) 4 to 6 a) 200 psi d) 9.0
c) 5 to 7 b) 300 psi 47. An extra flexible rope is
d) 8 to 10 c) 400 psi a) 6x7
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross section d) 500 psi b) 6 x 19
having a continuous periphery. 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure c) 6 x 37
a) Gear for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast steel. d) 7x7
b) Flywheel a) 700 psi 48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ the sum of the
c) Sphere b) 900 psi strength of wires
d) Tube c) 1000 psi a) less than
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ to obtain the d) 1200 psi b) more than
nominal wall thickness. 33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure c) equal
a) 5/8 for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for manganese steel. d) the same
b) 8/5 a) 2000 psi 49. One of the most popular rope style is
c) 7/8 b) 2300 psi a) 6x7
d) 8/7 c) 2500 psi b) 6 x 19
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders. d) 3000 psi c) 6 x 37
a) Thin-walled cylinders 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first d) 7x7
b) Thick-walled cylinders wrapped into 50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
c) Solid-walled cylinders a) layer a) 3
d) Hard-walled cylinders b) segment b) 5
19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical pressure, should be c) strands c) 7
at least ______ times the working pressure. d) none of these d) 9
a) 3 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is made of six strands
b) 4 each containing
a) 7 pieces
TEST 9 d) Track weld 9. Test is designed primarily for application to electric-
5. A weld place in groove between two butting members welded tubing for detection of lack of penetration or overlaps
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual stress in is called resulting from flash removal in the weld
the welding it is normally stress relieved of a) Full-fillet weld a) Butt weld
a) Quenching b) Tack weld b) Paste
b) Normalizing c) Butt weld c) Lap weld
c) Tempering d) fillet weld d) Double butt weld
d) Drawing 6. A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that 10. The internal stresses existing in a welded connection
2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder from the join two surfaces at approximately right angles as in lap joint, are
nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, arc or plasma tee joint, corner joint. a) Relieved by x-ray analysis
jet and then molten particles are projected in a form of a spray a) Single welded lap joint b) Maybe relieved when weld is penned
by means of compressed air or gas is known a b) Fillet weld c) Not relieved when the weld is penned
a) Elector-slug building c) Tack weld d) Not relieved by heat treatment
b) Electro-beam welding d) Butt weld 11. A welding operation in which a non-ferrous fillet
c) Plasma-arc welding 7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the metal at a temperature below that of the metal joined but is
d) Metal spray welding inner joint member is called heated above 450C
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken across the a) Butt joint a) Spot welding
weld with one face substantially parallel to and within b) Butt weld b) Gas welding
a) 3/4in c) Tack weld c) Brazing
b) 1/32 in. d) Full-fillet weld d) Arc welding
c) ¼ in. 8. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper 12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a different
d) 1/16 in. alignment until the final welds are made of metal which is applied between the two in molten state
4. A joint between to overlapping members in whom the a) Butt weld a) Casting
overlapped edge of one member is welded with a fillet weld is b) Tack weld b) Welding
called c) Fillet weld c) Soldering
a) A single welded lap joint d) Full fillet weld d) Brazing
b) Double welded lap joint
c) A single welded lap joint with backing
 13. Joining metal by means of high current at low voltage. c) Gas welding d) Structural work
During the passage of current, pressure by the electrodes d) Electro slag welding 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger preparation for
produces a forge weld: 25. What should be the maximum size of the fillet weld? welding is not needed?
a) Spot welding a) 2 mm a) 2 mm
b) Resistance welding b) 3 mm b) 4 mm
c) Steam welding c) 5 mm c) 8 mm
d) Gas welding d) 7 mm d) 12 mm
14. A fusion process in which the metal is heated together 26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
into a solid joint. in single pass is a) Arc
a) Electric arc welding a) 3 mm b) MIG
b) Gas welding b) 6 mm c) Oxy- acetylene
c) Spot welding c) 8 mm d) TIG
d) Projection welding d) 12 mm 40. In resistance welding, the pressure is release
15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted joints 27. Which diamond riveted joint can be adopted? a) Just at the time of passing the current
permits the design surface compressive stress to be about a) Butt joint b) After completion of currents
________ higher than the design tensile stress. b) Lap joint c) After the weld cools
a) 40% c) Double riveted lap joint d) During heating
b) 50% d) All types of joints 41. Half corner weld is used
c) 60% 28. Wiping is the process of a) Where severe loading is encountered and the
d) 70% a) Applying flux during welding process upper surfaces of both pieces must be in the
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum strength of b) Clearing the welded surface after the welding same plane
joint to the strength of solid joint is known as operation is over b) Where efficiency of joint should be 50%
a) Efficiency c) Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy c) Where longitudinal shear is present
b) Joint efficiency d) Low temperature welding d) None of the above
c) Performance factor 29. A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in 42. Projection welding is
d) Relative strength a) Laser welding a) Continuous spot welding process
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety may be b) MIG welding b) Multi spot welding process
taken as c) Plasma welding c) Used to form frameworks
a) 2 d) TIG welding d) All of the above
b) 3 30. During MIG welding the metal is transferred in the 43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene welding
c) 5 form of with
d) 5 a) A fine spray of metal a) Excess oxygen
18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the same form b) Continuous flow of molten metal b) Excess of acetylene
as the electrodes that press the sheets together c) Electron beam c) Equal parts of both gases
a) Edge joint d) Solution d) Reduced acetylene
b) MIG joint 31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot welded then 44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
c) Spot joint electrode tip diameter is equal to a) Carburizing flame
d) TIG joint b) Neutral flame
19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of welds a) √t c) Oxidizing flame
with space between as 6 inches on centers. d) Reducing flame
1.5 t
a) Intermittent weld
b)
√ 45. One of the following function is not performed by
b) MIG weld 2.5 t coating on the welding electrodes is to
c) Spot welds
c)
√ a) Increase the cooling rate
d) TIG welds 2 t b) Provide protective atmosphere
20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members
d)
√ c) Refuse oxidation
in position for assembly purposes or for principal welding 32. Weld spatter refers to d) Stabilize the arc
a) Edge weld a) Flux 46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
b) Tack weld b) Filler material a) Arc welding using ac current
c) Back welds c) Welding defect b) Arc welding using dc current
d) Half welds d) Welding electrode c) Gas welding
21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and metal rod 33. Which of the following metals can be suitably welded d) MIG welding
is known as by TIG welding? 47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
a) Gas welding a) Aluminum a) Increase fluidity of solder material
b) Arc welding b) Magnesium b) Full up gaps in bad joint
c) Resistance welding c) A and B above c) Prevent oxide formation
d) Automatic welding d) Stainless steel d) Lower the melting temperature of the solder
22. The arc is covered with a welding composition and 34. Arc blow takes place in 48. The parts are lapped and held in place under pressure
bare electrode wire is fed automatically a) Arc welding when straight polarity is used a) Butt welding
a) Resistance welding b) Arc welding when reverse polarity is used b) Spot welding
b) Submerged arc welding c) Gas welding c) Steam welding
c) Induction welding d) Welding stainless steel d) Projection welding
d) Spot welding 35. Unlike materials or materials of different thickness can 49. The parts are brought together lightly with current
23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount or inertia about be butt welded by flowing and then separated slightly
center of gravity of a circular weld or diameter d would b a) Adjusting initial gap a) Mash weld
b) Adjusting time duration of current
a) π d /36
2
c) Control of pressure and current
b)
c)
Steam welding
Flush welding
b) π d /6
2
36.
d) All of the above
The phenomenon of weld decay takes place in 50.
d) Percussion welding
Which of the following produced a series of spot welds
c) π d /36
3 a)
b)
Brass
Bronze
made by circular or wheel type electrodes?
a) Steam welding
d) π d /4
3
c) Cast iron b) Mash welding
24. For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25 mm d) Stainless steel c) Spot welding
thick, the best process would be 37. Laser welding is widely used in d) Steam welding
a) TIG welding a) electronic industry
b) MIG welding b) Heavy industry
c) Process industry
TEST 10 c) Borax a) Acid cleaning the surfaces
d) Rosin b) Filing the surfaces
1. The soldering material commonly applied for 9. Soft solder melts at approximately c) Scraping the surfaces
automobile radiator cores and roofing seams. a) 250 °F d) Any of the above
a) 15/85 % tin and lead b) 350 °F 17. One of the most important factors that is often
b) 50/50% tin and lead c) 450 °F overlooked when soldering is the fact that
c) 45/55% tin and lead d) 550 °F
d) 20/80% tin and lead 10. Soft solder is made of a) The surfaces to be soldered must be clean
2. The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical a) Copper and zinc b) The two metals to be soldered must not be the
connection or commutator wires as its tends to corrode the b) Tin and copper same
connectors called c) Tin and lead c) The two metals to be soldered must be the same
a) Sal ammoniac d) Tin and zinc d) All surfaces should be dipped in acid first
b) Zinc chloride 11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but if you 18. When soldering, flux is used for
c) Stearin did not have any, you could use _____ as substitute
d) Acid fluxes a) Hydrochloric acid a) Keeping the metal from getting too hot
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint. b) Nitric acid b) Keeping the solder from running off the metal
a) Stronger than c) Sulfuric acid c) Keeping the tip of the soldering iron and clean
b) The same strength as d) Any of the above d) Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals
c) Three times as strong as 12. Hard solder is made of 19. Soldering is the process of
d) Weaker than a) Copper and zinc a) Holding two metals together by heating
4. Brazing requires b) Tin and copper b) Joining two metals by a third soft metal that is
a) Hard solder c) Tin and lead applied in a molten state
b) Soft solder d) Tin and zinc c) Holding two different kinds of metals together
c) More heat 13. Soldered will not unite with a metal surface that has by heating
d) Choices A and C a) Dirt on it d) All of the above
5. What is the reason why lead is used in solders? b) Grease on it 20. Brazing is used for joining
a) It has a high melting point. c) Oxidation on it a) Tow ferrous material
b) It has a low melting point. d) Any of the above b) One ferrous and non-ferrous material
c) It is cheap 14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered area c) Two non-ferrous metal
d) Choices B and C must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to prevent d) Two non-metals
6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, the a) Anyone touching it from getting burned 21. What is the most commonly used flux for brazing?
a) Harder the solder joint b) Remaining acid form eating the metal a) Zinc chloride
b) Softer the solder joint c) The acid form evaporating and the solder b) Zinc and tin
c) Stronger the solder joint disintegrating c) Zinc and copper
d) Weaker the solder joint d) None of the above d) Zinc and lead
7. Special solders used for aluminum usually require 15. Sweating is the process of 22. Multi spot welding process is also referred as
a) less heat a) Soldering two different kinds of metal _____welding
b) More heat b) Separating two pieces of metal that have been a) Tack
c) The same heat as copper wire soldered together b) Fillet
d) The same heat as sheet metal c) Tinning two surfaces, applying flux them, c) TIG
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is holding the two together and heating d) Projection
a) Alum d) None of the above 23. The maximum temperature developed for oxy-
b) Barium 16. A surface to be soldered should be prepared by hydrogen welding is
 a) 1755 C 32. The process of bonding two or more pieces of metal c) 524 N/mm2
b) 1965 C together by means of another metal whose melting point is d) 607 N/mm2
c) 2565 C below 800⁰F 42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear
d) 3440 C a) Brazing a) 262 N/mm2
24. The maximum temperature developed for oxy- b) Seaming b) 303 N/mm2
acetylene welding is c) Soldering c) 524 N/mm2
a) 1965 C d) Welding d) 607 N/mm2
b) 2565 C 33. The process of joining metal parts by means of a non 43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap riveted
c) 3440 C ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a temperature above construction the minimum factor of safety is
d) 4565 C 800⁰F. a) 5
25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal oxide a) Brazing b) 6
powder is ignited by a special powder in a crucible. b) Seaming c) 7
a) Thermit welding c) Soldering d) 8
b) Stud welding d) Welding 44. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-
c) Resistance welding 34. The process of joining metals in which the two parts code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded
d) Gas welding are joined by heating them electrically to a temperature above construction shall not exceed.
26. A welding where an arc is struck between two tungsten the recrystallization temperature. a) 0.5 bar
electrodes into which a jet of hydrogen is directed a) Flash welding b) 1.0 bar
a) Atomic hydrogen welding b) Projection welding c) 1.5 bar
b) Electron beam welding c) Thermit welding d) 2.0 bar
c) Electro slug welding d) Resistance welding 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge distance
d) Flash welding 35. A fusion welding process in which the welding heat is must be not less than
27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole diameter from obtained from an electric arc set up either between the base a) 1.5d
________ for rivets in single or double shear. metal and one electrode or between to electrodes. b) 2.0d
a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t a) Arc welding c) 2.5d
b) Gas welding d) 3.0d
b) to c) Fusion welding 46. A method of resistance welding in which the heating
c) to d) Spot welding and the pressure are localized at specified points by providing
36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be joined by embossed or coined projections on the pieces to be joined.
d) to welding in a satisfactory manner. a) Projection welding
a) Flame plating b) Flash welding
28. Fusion welding is the name frequently given to b) Metal spraying c) Seam welding
processes not requiring pressure. It is sometimes called c) Metalizing d) Resistance welding
a) Flash welding d) Weldability 47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members
b) Seam welding 37. A surfacing method of blasting particles of tungsten in position for assembly purposes or for the principal
c) Spot welding carbide onto the surface of a piece of metal. welding.
d) Thermit welding a) Flame plating a) Spot weld
29. The ratio of the load that will produce the allowable b) Metal spraying b) Tack weld
stress in any part of the joint to the load that will produce the c) Metalizing c) Butt weld
allowable tension stress in the unpunched plate. d) Powder pouring d) Fillet weld
a) Efficiency of the welded 38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken as equal 48. What type of welding that the hot flame and a metal
b) Efficiency of the jont to rod are used?
c) Performance factor a) 80% a) Seam welding
d) Load factor b) 60% b) Gas welding
30. Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet sizes and c) 90% c) Spot welding
for practical reasons the rivet diameter is made approximately d) 95% d) Resistance welding
a) 1.2t 39. When the tensile strength of steel shell plates is not 49. It used for joining members of approximately equal in
known it shall be taken as cross-section
b) 1.2 a) 379. 31 N/mm2 a) Mash welding
c) 2t b) 565.71 N/mm2 b) Butt welding
c) 556.17 N/mm2 c) Upset welding
d) 2 d) 671.55 N/mm2 d) Choices B and C
31. The process of joining metals by means by heating to a 40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be 50. The melting point of the filler material in brazing is
temperature above the recrystallization temperature or to a) 3.56 mm approximately or above.
fusion with or without the application or pressure b) 5.36 mm a) 420⁰F
a) Brazing c) 6. 36 mm b) 600⁰F
b) Soldering d) 6. 56 mm c) 800⁰F
c) Welding 41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear d) 1000⁰F
d) Seaming a) 262 N/mm2
b) 303 N/mm2
TEST 11

1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, the A. Bearing and journal B. Embeddability
clearance ratio/clearance should be B. Clearance and fitted C. Compatibility
A. 0.01001 C. Bolt and Babbitt D. All of these
B. 0.0101 D. Bolt and cylinder 21. For thrust bearing the speed at moderate operating
C. 0.0110 12. When the line of action of the load bisects the arc of conditions is
D. 0.0010 partial bearing it is said to be: A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
2. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing A. Eccentrically loaded B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
A. Full bearing B. Fit loaded C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
B. Offset bearing C. Centrally loaded D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
C. Partial bearing D. Surface loaded 22. The 200 series bearing is called
D. Fitted bearing 13. It is the difference in the radii of the bearing and the A. Heavy
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses the journal B. Light
shaft? A. Even clearance C. Medium
A. Offset bearing B. Clearance ratio D. None of these
B. Central bearing C. Fit clearance 23. The 300 series bearing is called
C. Babbitt bearing D. Radial clearance A. Heavy
D. Full bearing 14. It is one in which the radii of the journal and the B. Light
4. All are functions of lubricating oil except bearing are the same C. Medium
A. Adhesion A. Clearance bearing D. None of these
B. Corrosion prevention B. Fitted bearing 24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are
C. Act as coolant C. Full bearing assembled by the eccentric displacement of the inner ring.
D. To tighten the load D. Partial bearing A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant 15. The line that passes through centers of the bearing and B. Self-aligning ball bearing
A. Lube oil the journal is called the C. Filling-slot ball bearing
B. Graphite A. Line of action D. Deep-groove ball bearing
C. Grease B. Line of centers 25. Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing?
D. All of these C. Line of tangent A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself D. Under cut B. Self-aligning ball bearing
A. Zinc 16. Length-diameter ration was a good compromise for the C. Fillet-slot ball bearing
B. Antimony general case of hydrodynamic bearings. It is approximately D. Deep-groove ball bearing
C. Babbit equal to 26. Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured by
D. Lead A. 1 A. Casting
7. Which of the following materials is unsuitable as a B. 2 B. Cold headling
bearing? C. 3 C. Rolling
A. Teflon D. 4 D. Turning
B. Low carbon steel 17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges 27. In hydrodynamic bearings
C. Cast iron _____________ or less A. The oil film pressure is generated only by the
D. Nylon A. 120 F to 190 F rotation of the journal
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which B. 130 F to 160 F B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil
A. The lube oil is supplied under pressure C. 140 F to 150 F under pressure
B. Lube oil is not pressurized D. 140 F to 160 F C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
C. There is no lube oil 18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more rapidly D. Grease is used for lubrication
D. Bearing is lightly loaded above 28. If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, Z=
9. At the same thermal and minimum film, thickness A. 120F absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then
limitation as sleeve B. 140F the bearing characteristic number is given by
A. Ball bearing C. 160F A. ZN/P
B. Roller bearing D. 200F B. Z/ PN
C. Thrust bearing 19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiments is C. ZP/ N
D. Full bearing _____ that the smoother the surface. D. P/ZN
10. The desired between two surfaces having relatively A. Constant 29. The rated life of a bearing changes
sliding motion is known B. The greater the load capacity of the A. Directly as load
A. Lube oil bearing B. Inversely as fourth power of load
B. Graphite C. None of these C. Inversely as cube of load
C. Packing D. Variable D. Inversely as square of load
D. Lubrication 20. Which of the following is considered an advantage for
11. What bearing composed of two principal parts, namely bearing materials? 30. In oiless bearing
the A. Conformability
 A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the rotation D. Tapered bearing 45. The product of absolute viscosity and rotational speed
of the journal 38. The combined effect of many of the variables involved divided by the unit loading.
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under in the operation of a bearing under hydrodynamic lubrication A. Section modulus
pressure can be characterized by the dimensionless number called: B. Bearing modulus
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant A. Reynolds Number C. Shear modulus
D. Grease is needed to be applied after some intervals B. Prandtl Number D. All of the above
31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at slow C. Grashof Number
speed inside a bearing will be D. Sommerfeld Number 46. From the line of radial loading on the bearing to the
A. At bottom most of bearing 39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a machine position of the minimum oil-film thickness.
B. Towards left side of bearing and making metal to member without specific regard to the direction of load A. Attitude angle
metal contact application. B. Latitude angle
C. Towards left side of bearing and making no metal to A. radial bearing C. Longitude angle
metal contact B. Journal bearing D. Altitude angle
D. Towards right side of bearing and making no metal C. Thrust bearing
to metal contact D. Guide bearing 47. The radial distance between the center of the bearing
32. A machine part that supports another part, which 40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of possible and the displaced center of the journal is called.
rotates, slides or oscillateds in or on it rotation of the supported member. A. Concentricity
A. Journal A. Guide bearing B. Eccentricity
B. Bearing B. Journal bearing C. Embeddability
C. Roller C. Thrust bearing D. None of the above
D. Casing D. Radial bearing 48. Which of the following is an example of solid
33. The part of a shaft or crank which is supported by and 41. The 400 series bearing is called: lubricant?
turns in bearing. A. Light A. Molybdenum disulfide
A. Casing B. Medium B. Graphite
B. Bushing C. Heavy
C. Roller D. Extra heavy C. Tungsten disulfide
D. Journal 42. The product of length and diameter of the bearing is D. All of the above
34. It is also called anti-friction bearing. called: 49. The length ratio L/D typically varies between
A. Rolling bearing A. Shearing area A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. Thrust bearing B. Compressive area B. 0.2 to 0.6
C. Tapered bearing C. Projected area C. 0.2 to 0.8
D. Single row bearing D. Cross-sectional area D. 0.25 to 1.0
35. Which of the following is a bearing material? 43. If the length over diameter of the bearing is unity, it is 50. The operating temperature of the Babbitt is limited to
A. Babbitt also known as A. 200°F
B. Bronze B. 300°F
C. Plastics A. Long bearing C. 400°F
D. All of the above B. Short bearing D. 500°F
36. It acts toward the center of the bearing along a radius. C. Medium bearing
A. Thrust load D. Square bearing
B. Tangential load 44. A bearing in which the length ratio Length/diameter is
C. Radial load greater than 1.
D. Peripheral load A. Short bearings
37. Conrad bearing is also known as B. Long bearings
A. Needle bearing C. Square bearings
B. Ball bearing D. Medium bearings
C. Roller bearing
TEST 12

1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a reservoir for A. Volute spring 25. the relationship between the force exerted by a spring
absorbing and redistributing kinetic energy. B. Motor spring and its deflection is called
A. Gear C. Hair spring A. spring index
B. Brakes D. Beleville spring B. spring rate
C. Flywheel 14. In laminated spring the strips are provided in different C. wahl’s factor
D. Fan lengths for D. Spring angle
2. Which of the following is not a use of spring? A. Economy 26. The ration of the mean diameter of the spring to the
A. Absorbs energy B. Reduction in weight wire diameter is called
B. Measure weight C. Improved appearance A. Spring index
C. Source of energy in clocks D. Space consideration of the utility stage B. Spring ratio
D. Measure the thickness 15. An elastic stored energy machine element that when C. Spring rate
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil diameter released, will recover its basic form D. Spring constant
A. Wahl factor A. Flywheel 27. Refers to the axial distance from a point on one coil to
B. Diameter ratio B. Clutch the corresponding point on the next adjacent coil.
C. Spring index C. Brakes A. Lead
D. Lead angle D. Spring B. Spring distance
4. The overall length of the spring when it is compressed 16. When a spring is made of ductile material, the C. Pitch
until all adjacent coils touched. curvature factor would be D. Spring deflection
A. Compressed length A. Zero 28. The spring index for general industrial uses should be
B. Free length B. Constant A. 5 to 7
C. Solid length C. Unity B. 6 to 8
D. None of these D. Positive C. 7 to 9
5. The length of coil sprig under no load. 17. The solid length plus the clearance plus the maximum D. 8 to 10
A. Compressed length deflection. 29. What is the spring index of valve and clutch?
B. Free length A. Free length A. 3
C. Solid height B. Height B. 5
D. None of these C. Distance C. 7
6. In general, steel spring are made of relatively high D. Original length D. 9
carbon steel usually 18. The majority of coils springs are made of coil 30. Refers to the space between adjacent coils when the
A. More than 0.5% tempered carbon steel wire containing ______________ spring is compressed to its operating length
B. 5% carbon. A. Coil allowance
C. Less than 0.5% A. 0.30 to 0.40% B. Coil tolerance
D. 10% B. 0.40 to 0.50% C. Coil clearance
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it should be C. 0.50 to 0.60% D. None of these
stress relieved for bending stresses after cooling by being D. 0.60 to 0.70% 31. The most practical spring designs produce a pitch
heated at some at what temperature 19. Experimental results indicate that the actual frequency angle is less than
A. 400F of the spring is from A. 12°
B. 500F A. 5 to 10% B. 15°
C. 600F B. 10 to 15% C. 20°
D. 700F C. 15 to 20% D. 25°
8. A low cost spring material, suitable where service is D. 20 to 25% 32. Engine valves get shut by means of
not severe and dimensional precision is not needed. 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical frequency of A. Valve lock
A. Hard drawn wire spring the spring should behold at least ________ times the B. Tappet
B. Helical spring frequency of application of a periodic load. C. Valve spring
C. Stainless steel A. 5 D. Adjusting screw
D. Helical tension spring wire B. 10 33. Which of the following materials is used for leaf and
9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is made of C. 15 coil spring?
high-grade steel D. 20 A. AISI 3140
A. Music wire 21. The actual number of coil is _________ in a squared B. AISI 3150
B. Oil tempered wire and ground ends. C. AISI 3240
C. Song wire A. n D. AISI 4063
D. Chromium- silicon B. n+2 34. The circumference of a coil spring times the effective
10. A spring wire with good quality for impact loads at C. nd number of coils is called
moderately high temperature D. ( n + 1) d A. Active length
A. Hard drawn wire spring 22. The solid length of squared ends is B. Solid length
B. Helical spring wire A. (n+3)d C. Compressed length
C. Chromium-silicon B. (n+1)d D. Operating length
D. Helical tension spring wire C. np 35. For spring subjected to light service, the factor of
11. A type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped into a D. n+2 safety __________ is suggested
circle forming an annular ring 23. The free length of ground ends is A. 1.5
A. Volute spring A. np + 3d B. 2.0
B. Motor spring B. np + 2d C. 2.5
C. Hair spring C. np + d D. 3.0
D. Garter spring D. np 36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin superimposed
12. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up on 24. the shortest length for the spring during normal plates and formin a cantilever or beam of uniform strength.
itself as a plane spiral, usually anchored at the inside operation A. Laminated spring
A. Volute spring A. compressed length B. Graduated spring
B. Motor spring B. operating length C. Full spring
C. Hair spring C. solid length D. Conical spring
D. Garter spring D. free length 37. Cross wire grooves are types which
13. A type of spring made in the form of dished washer A. Decrease the danger of skidding
 B. Absorb shocks because of road unevenness B. 0.03 to 0.05 A. 20
C. Provide good faction C. 0.002 to 0.005 B. 30
D. Provide better load carrying capacity D. 0.01 to 0.02 C. 35
38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring is always 43. Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is the D. 45
constant A. Vibration damper 48. A large rotary machine part whose function is to store
Elongation B. Flywheel energy and to produce uniform angular velocity of the shaft
A. Load C. Drive pulley or reciprocating engine.
B. Thermal conductivity D. Timing gear A. Cam
C. Resistance 44. Flywheel is also known as B. Idler
39. Speedometer drive is generally taken from A. Steering wheel C. Flywheel
A. Dynamo B. Front wheel D. Chuck
B. Flywheel C. Balance wheel 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in
C. Gear D. Rear wheel securing uniform motion of machinery by resisting sudden
D. Front wheel 45. What energy is stored in flywheels? changes of speed.
40. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from A. Kinetic energy A. Linkage
the engine is known as B. Internal energy B. Crank
A. Clutch C. Potential energy C. Planetary gears
B. Flywheel D. Rest energy D. Flywheel
C. Gearbox 46. What is the function of the flywheel? 50. The function of a flywheel is to
D. Differential A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the desired limits A. Complete the unusual stroke
41. Typical hub length falls between B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed during B. Operated the engines
A. 1.25D to 2.4D sudden changes of load C. Keep the engines weight light
B. 1.25D to 5D C. To keep the angular advance or retardation within D. None of theses
C. 1.3 D to 3.4D prescribed limit as compared with a perfectly uniform
D. D to 7D angular speed
42. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation of D. All of the above
flywheels for punching, shearing, and pressing machine is 47. In many flywheel designs, about how many percent of
A. 0.05 to 0.10 the weight is concentrated in the hub and arms
TEST 13
1. A shaft that is used to connect or disconnect at will is D. All of these C. Cams
called: 16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are the parts of: D. Block brakes
A. Clutch A. Charging system 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-plate clutch
B. Bearing B. Transmission system A. More than one
C. Brake Shaft C. Cooling system B. Less than four
D. Lock Shaft D. None of these C. More than ten
2. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of friction 17. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice to use a: D. Less than one
and: A. Multiple clutch 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in _______ vehicles.
A. Torque B. Hydraulic clutch A. Costly
B. Weights of object C. Cone clutch B. Foreign made
C. Normal Force D. Single plate clutch C. Cheap
D. Moment 18. The clutch finger is pushed by D. Affordable
3. Friction devices used to regulate the motion of bodies A. Clutch fork 35. Which of the following is mounted inside the clutch?
and with clutches B. Clutch A. An engine
A. Rollers C. Clutch bearing B. Gear box propeller shaft
B. Brakes D. None of these C. Both the rear axle
C. Babbitt 19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate a: D. All of these
D. Holders A. Clutch plate 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and other
4. The part of the total frictional energy that is stored in B. Oil plate services where heavy loads are accompanied by severe
the brake parts, principally in the drum or disk has been C. Vacuum plate shock?
estimated at __________. D. None of these A. Band clutch
A. 56% up 20. The lining of a brake shoe: B. Block clutch
B. 86% up A. Can be changed C. Centrifugal clutch
C. 90% up B. Cannot be fitted D. Expanding ring clutch
D. 75% up C. Can be fitted with spring 37. It is used to protect a machine in case of jamming and
5. The part of an automobile disc clutch that presses D. None of these for overload protection of motors and engine
against the flywheel is referred to as: 21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes become: A. Dry fluid clutch
A. More effective B. Magnetic clutch
A. Contact plate B. Ineffective C. Eddy clutch
B. Friction plate C. Possible D. Slip clutch
C. Pressure plate D. None of these 38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
D. Sliding plate 22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is: A. Differential brakes
6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known as: A. About 90 percent B. Block brakes
A. Energy B. 60-80 percent C. Band brakes
B. Resistance brake C. 50-60 percent D. Brake shoe
C. D. 40-50 percent 39. The practical length of shoe is limited to about:
D. Braking torque 23. The SAE recommends an angle of ________ for cone A. 75 o
7. If the band warps partly around the brake wheel or clutches faced with leather or asbestos or having cork inserts: B. 90 o
drum and brake action is obtained by pulling the band tight A. 7.5 o C. 120 o
onto the wheel. This type of brake is known as: B. 9.5 o D. 180 o
A. Block brake C. 12.5o 40. If the angle of contact is ______, the pressure between
B. Band brake D. 14.5o the brakes shoe and the drum cannot be considered uniform:
C. Clutch 24. Why does a clutch create noise? A. Less than 45 deg
D. Centrifugal brake A. Clutch release bearings is either dry or defective B. Less than 60 deg
8. The brake lining operating at temperature _____, B. Clutch spring is broken C. Greater than 60 deg
sintered mixtures containing ceramics are used: C. Clutch is faulty D. Greater than 120 deg
A. 750 F to 1000 F D. All of these 41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving object.
B. 560 F to 900 F 25. What faults develop in the brakes? A. Clutch
C. 800 F to 1200 F A. Brakes do not work properly B. Brakes
D. 400 F to 789 F B. Brakes do not disengage C. Band clutch
9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major type of: C. Brake make noise D. Band brake
A. Air brake D. All of these 42. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly decrease
B. Fluid brake 26. Which of the following types of brakes are also shortly after it begins to act continuously, a phenomenon
C. Electric brake changed while replacing brake lining? called:
D. Spot brake A. Brake shoes A. Creep
10. Type of brakes that are capable of stopping the motion B. Shoe rivets B. Pressurized
of a machine member as well as retarding its motion C. Shoe spring C. Fade
A. Electrical brake D. Block brake D. Worn-out
B. Fluid brake 27. Power brakes require ______ power: 43. Type of brake under the category of power brake is
C. Air brake A. Equal known as:
D. Mechanical brake B. Less A. Servo brake
11. It is considered as the simplest type of mechanical C. More B. Band brake
brake. D. Pulsating C. Differential brake
A. Differential brake 28. That type of oil is used in the hydraulic brake system? D. Brake shoe
B. Block brake A. Engine oil 44. Clutches which are designed to transmit torque for one
C. Band brake B. Gear oil direction of rotation of the driver and then free-wheel or
D. Brake shoe C. Brake oil transmit essentially no torque when the direction of the driver
12. The friction devices used to connect shafts: D. Clutch oil rotation is reversed.
A. Brakes 29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake system are the A. Magnetic clutches
B. Clutches master cylinder and the: B. Trip clutches
C. Spring A. Multi-cylinder C. Overrunning clutches
D. Holder B. Wheel cylinder D. Slip clutches
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier rotary C. Brake wire 45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging brake:
masses. D. Brake shoe A. Back plate being loose or bent
A. Multiple disc clutch 30. In the mechanical brake system, the main function is B. Brake shoe being loose or bent
B. Disc cluth of: C. Brake drum could be defective
C. Cone clutch A. Spring D. All of these
D. None of these B. Cam 46. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes hot
14. The overrunning clutch C. Shoe adjuster because of friction of the shoe. This fault is known as
A. Should be oiled D. Shoe rivets _______
B. Should be repacked with grease 31. In motor vehicles, there is a __________ in addition of A. Brake lining
C. Cannot be lubricated foot brake. B. Brake winding
D. Contains no lubricant A. Hand brake C. Back plate
15. The overrunning clutch: B. Hydraulic brake D. None of these
A. Transmits cranking force to the engine C. Mechanical brake 47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is:
flywheel D. Band brake A. Expensive
B. Is one way clutch 32. Which of the following is also used in the suspension B. Economical
C. Prevents the engine flywheel from system? C. Costly
driving the starting motor A. Shock absorbers D. None of these
B. Brake shoes 48. What is the most common defect of clutch?
 A. Slip of the clutch A. Hydraulic clutch A. Clutch slips quickly
B. Clutch does not disengage properly B. Slip of the clutch B. It occupies more space
C. Clutch creates noise C. Riding on clutch C. Adjustment has to be done early
D. All of these D. Clutch adjustment D. All of these
49. The act keeping some pressure on the clutch pedal at 50. Which of the following shortcoming in the cone clutch
the time of driving is known as: because of which the clutch is not used?
TEST 14

1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket drive B. 6 ksi C. 240 to 280 psi
operation to choose _____ or more teeth. C. 7 ksi D. 260 to 300 psi
A. 25 D. 8 ksi 35. The density of a balata belt is:
B. 26 18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with machine, the A. 0.031 lb/in3
C. 27 usual efficiency of joint is: B. 0.42 lb/in3
D. 28 A. 75% C. 0.51 lb/in3
2. It is recommended for high speed application that the B. 85% D. 0.61 lb/in3
minimum number of teeth in small sprocket should be: C. 88% 36. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not considered
A. 12 to 20 D. 100% good practice to use single-ply leather belts more than ____
B. 18 to 24 19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force wide
C. 16 to 32 increases rapidly above A. 6 in.
D. 14 to 28 A. 2500 fpm B. 7 in.
3. Consider a maximum safe center distance of should be B. 3000 fpm C. 8 in.
_____ pitches. Very long center distance caused catenaries C. 3500 fpm D. 9 in.
tension in the chain D. 4000 fpm 37. According to the Goodrich company, the permissible
A. 70 20. Experience suggests that the most economical designs net belt pull is ____ that it gives a simple means for quick
B. 80 are obtained for a belt speed of: estimation
C. 90 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 100 B. 3000 to 4000 fpm B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width
4. The recommended lubricant for the chain drive C. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width
operation is: D. 4000 to 4000 fpm D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width
A. SAE 4140 21. For leather belts, recommended speed is: 38. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle?
B. Petroleum Oil A. 2000 to 3000 fpm A. Bush roller
C. Moly slip B. 4000 to 5000 fpm B. Pintle
D. Heavy grease C. 6000 to 7500 fpm C. Silent
5. Type of leather belt being applied with waterproof D. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. None of these
cement is called: 22. For fabric belts, recommended speed is: 39. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral Tanned A. 2000 to 3000 fpm for low speeds is:
B. Oak Tanned B. 2000 and more fpm A. 12
C. Mineral Tanned C. 3000 to 4000 fpm B. 14
D. All of these D. 4000 to 4500 fpm C. 16
6. What type of leather belting should be used at an 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it has been D. 18
ambient temperature above 149 deg F and possible acid liquid observed that the arc of contact reduced from 180 deg at rest 40. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket
coming in contact with the belt? to _______ in motion for moderate speeds is:
A. Mineral Tanned A. 90 deg A. 15
B. Combination of Oak B. 95 deg B. 17
C. Oak Tanned C. 100 deg C. 19
D. None of these D. 110 deg D. 21
7. It is recommended not to have a direct drive and drive 24. The recommended initial tension of belt is: 41. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket
sprockets if the raio of their teeth exceeds _______ use two or A. 75 lb/in of width for high speeds is:
more combination B. 71 lb/in of width A. 19
A. 10 times C. 73 lb/in of width B. 21
B. 8 times D. 80 lb/in of width C. 23
C. 5 times 25. The recommended net belt pill for rubber belt is: D. 25
D. 6 times A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width 42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with _____ or
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for use in a B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width more teeth
speed in excess of ________ fpm C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width A. 21
A. 3600 D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width B. 23
B. 4800 26. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt connected, how C. 25
C. 6000 many guide pulley/s is used? D. 27
D. All of these A. 1 43. For the average application a center distance
9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about: B. 2 equivalent to ____ pitches of chain represents good practice.
A. 4500 fpm C. 3 A. 10 to 20
B. 4400 fpm D. 4 B. 20 to 30
C. 4200 fpm 27. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be C. 30 to 50
D. 3600 fpm connected by the _____ arrangement D. 40 to 60
10. It is advised that in rubber belts application mounting, A. Half turn 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
it should have an initial tesion of _______ B. Three-fourths turn A. 2
A. 18 to 24 C. One turn B. 3
B. 15 to 20 D. Quarter turn C. 4
C. 12 to 15 28. It offers long life, high efficiency and low cost and low D. 5
D. 10 maintenance 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
11. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use the A. Flat belt A. 2
date experience by Link-Belt for 1/8 inch pins and the B. V-belt B. 3
breaking stress is __________ ksi. C. Tooth belt C. 4
A. 40 D. All of these D. 5
B. 55 29. It is used to connect pulleys to convey materials by 46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger than rubber
C. 50 transmitting motion and power A. 10%
D. 48 A. Rope B. 15%
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley with a B. Wires C. 20%
speed of 260 rpm and transmitting 5 hp C. Belt D. 25%
A. Type C belts D. Flat 47. The coefficient of friction between the belt and the
B. Type B belts 30. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches should be pulley for leather belt running on steel pulley is:
C. Type A belts avoided A. 0.1
D. Type D belts A. 7 B. 0.2
13. Belt slip may take place because of: B. 8 C. 0.3
A. Loose load C. 9 D. 0.5
B. Heavy Belt D. 10 48. The capacity of a crossed belt should be reduced to
C. Driving pulley too small 31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the reduction should _____ that of an open belt
D. All of these be: A. 25%
14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of A. 25% B. 50%
300ft/min is likely to transmit ____ per inch of width B. 50% C. 60%
A. 2.5 hp C. 75% D. 75%
B. 3.0 hp D. 95% 49. What is the usual factor of safety used with leather
C. 4.0 hp 32. The advantage of flat belt is that: belts?
D. 5.0 hp A. It can be used with high-speed drives A. 3
15. What is the density of a leather belt? B. It can be used in dusty and abrasive B. 5
A. 0.035 lb/in3 environments C. 7
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 C. It allows long distances between shafts D. 10
C. 0.046 lb/in3 D. All of these 50. In practice, it is found that arcs less than ______
D. 0.074 lb/in3 33. The best leather has an ultimate strength of about required high belt tensions.
16. What is the density of flat belt rubber material? A. 3000 psi A. 155o
A. 0.055 lb/in3 B. 4000 psi B. 165o
B. 0.045 lb/in3 C. 5000 psi C. 175o
C. 0.0725 lb/in3 D. 6000 psi D. 180o
D. 0..0726 lb/in3 34. Initial tensions should range from ___ for leather belts
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned belting varies and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of width for rubber belts
from 3 to more than A. 200 to 240 psi
A. 5 ksi B. 220 to 260 psi

TEST 15
1. The minimum recommended worm pitch diameter is ¼ C. Bevel 4. Recommended hardness of pinion for
in and the maximum is: D. Zerol helical/herringbone gear tooth should be _____ BHN point to
A. 1 ¾ in 3. The arc of action to circular pitch or length of action to sustain life:
B. 2 ¾ in base pitch A. 50-58
C. 3 in A. Approach B. 48-65
D. 2 in B. Contact ratio C. 40-50
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ gearing C. Arc of action D. 30-60
A. Spiral D. Arc of approach 5. In designing gears of power transmission, consider
B. Worm and efficiency of _____ as recommended.
 A. 96% or more A. Helical gear A. Principal Reference Plane
B. 89% or more B. Bevel gear B. Pitch point
C. 85% or more C. Worm gear C. Front Angle
D. 98% or more D. Spiral gear D. Line of Action
6. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch diameter, in inches to 36. _______ is the angle at the base cylinder of an involute
teeth is called: the number of teeth is called: gear that the tooth maxes with the gear axis
A. Bottom land A. Module A. Base Helix Angle
B. Flank B. Diametral Pitch B. Pressure Angle
C. Top land C. English Module C. Arc of Recess
D. Flank of tooth D. Circular Pitch D. Arc of Approach
7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and lightly loaded 22. The concave portion of tooth profile where it joints the 37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually introduced to:
are usually made of: bottom of the tooth filler curve is called: A. Improve the look of the patch
A. Bronze A. Fillet curve B. Reduce concentration of stress and extend life
B. Brass B. Fillet radius of the parts
C. Duralumin C. Bottom depth C. Avoid obstruction
D. All of these D. Fillet D. Necessary to lessen casting weight
8. If a set of spur gears are made installed and lubricated 38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or ring is
properly, they normally may be subjected to failures like: 23. The distance of the tooth, which is equal to the sum of termed as:
A. Tooth spalling the addendum and dedendum is known as: A. Rack Gear
B. Tooth penning A. Full depth B. Ring Gear
C. Pitting B. Whole depth C. Miter Gear
D. Shearing C. Working depth D. Internal Gear
9. Which of the following is an example of rectilinear D. Dedendum 39. The length of arc between the two sides of a gear tooth
translation? 24. It is used to change rotary motion to reciprocating on the pitch circle.
A. Locomotive wheels motion. A. Circle Thickness
B. Rack gear A. Helical Gear B. Axial Plane
C. Piston of an engine B. Rack Gear C. Helix Angle
D. Jack C. Worm Gear D. Chordal Curves
10. For economical cost in the manufacturing large worm D. Spur Gear 40. Which of the following materials to be utilized to
gears, the following materials are usually applied: 25. Tooth width measure along the chord at the pitch circle reduce cost in the manufacture of large worm gears?
A. Bronze rim with cast steel spider is known as: A. Alloyed Aluminum
B. Cast iron rim with bronze spider A. Flank B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron Spider
C. Cast steel rim with brass spider B. Face Width C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze Spider
D. Alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron C. Width of face D. All of these
spider D. Chordal Thickness 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the teeth
11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ gear in a gear 26. _______ is the difference of addendum and dedendum, A. Addendum Circle
train engagement. which is equivalent to the whole depth less working depth. B. Addendum Cylinder
A. Idler A. Fillet Space C. Pitch Circle
B. Pinion B. Fillet Radius D. Dedendum Circle
C. Third gear C. Clearance 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90 degrees that is the
D. Mounted gear D. Backlash pitch cone has become a plane
12. The distance of a helical gear or worm would thread 27. For moderate speed of mating gears, the ideal ratio A. Crown Gear
along its axis in one revolution if it were to move axially is contact is: B. Angular Gear
called: A. 1.25 – 4.00 C. Miter Gear
A. Lead B. 1.20 – 1.45 D. Spiral Gear
B. Thread C. 1.00 – 1.30 43. A ______ formed by elements, which are
C. Pitch D. 1.35 – 1.45 perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the large
D. Land 28. The distance a helical gear or worm would thread end.
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear is _________. along its axis in one revolution if it free to move axially is A. Cone Distance
A. Less than 18 called: B. Back Cone
B. 15 - 25 A. Length of action C. Root Cone
C. 20 - 35 B. Length of contact D. Cone Center
D. 35 – 40 C. Land 44. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on a shaft at 90
14. What will be the effect in bushing gears without D. Lead degrees is called:
backlash? 29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of gear like: A. Crown Gear
A. Jamming A. Worm Gear B. Spur Gear
B. Overheating B. Spur Gear C. Angular Gear
C. Overload C. Herring Gear D. Miter Gear
D. All of these D. Bevel Gear 45. Gearing in which motion or power that is transmitted
15. The amount by which the width of a tooth space 30. What type of gear is used for high-speed operation? depends upon the friction between the surfaces in contact
exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on the pitch A. Helical A. Bevel Gears
circles B. Spur B. Spur Friction wheels
A. Backlash C. Bevel C. Evans Friction Cones
B. Clearance D. Worm D. Friction Gearing
C. Undercut 31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane perpendicular to 46. Wheels are sometimes used for the transmission of
D. Chordal thickness the axial plane and tangent to the pitch surface. high power when an approximately constant velocity ratio is
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or radial distance A. Pitch desired is called:
between pitch circles and top land of the tooth is called: B. Pitch Plane A. Bevel Cones
A. Top tooth C. Pitch Circle B. Friction Gearing
B. Addendum D. Pitch point C. Spur Friction Wheels
C. Land 32. What type of gear, which can transmit power at a D. Evans Friction Wheels
D. Hunting certain angle? 47. The frustums of two cones used in a manner to permit
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle is often defined A. Helical Gear a variation of velocity ratio between two parallel shafts are
as the angle between the line of action and the line of tangent B. Worm Gear called:
to pitch circle. It is termed as: C. Bevel Gear A. Evans Friction Cones
A. Helix angle D. Herringbone Gear B. Bevel Cones
B. Angle of recess 33. _______ commonly used in a parallel shaft C. Spherical Cones
C. Angle of obliquity transmission especially when a smooth continuous action is D. Friction
D. Arc of action essential as in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm. 48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they are called:
18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the ratio of A. Bevel Gear A. Cycloidal Gears
pitch diameter to number of teeth is called: B. Herringbone Gear B. Helical Gears
A. Lead C. Spur Gear C. Spur Gears
B. Module D. Helical Gear D. Toothed Gears
C. Involute 34. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear teeth 49. ______ is used to transmit power between shafts axis
D. Clearance after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness, for gear of which it intersect
19. For evenly distributed and uniform wear on each and pinion is at: A. Spur Gears
meshing gear tooth, the ideal design practice is to consider a: A. 360 Brinell minimum B. Bevel Gears
A. Wear resistance alloy addition to tooth B. 400 Brinell maximum C. Helical Gears
gear C. 340 – 350 normal D. Straight Bevel Gears
B. Heat treatment of the gears D. All of these 50. The space between the adjacent teeth is called:
C. Hardening of each 35. The path of contact involute gears where the A. Tooth
D. Hunting tooth addition force/power is actually transmitted, it is a straight imaginary B. Flank
20. It is used to transmit power at high velocity ratios line passing through the pitch point and tangent to the base C. Backlash
between non-intersecting shafts that are usually but not circle is known as _____. D. Width
necessarily at right angle.

TEST 16

1. Tooth width measurement along the chord at the pitch B. Bevel Gear D. Helical Overlap
circle C. Helical Gear 8. A kind of gear used for duty works where a large ratio
A. Chord Space D. Spur Gear of speed is required and are extensively used in speed reducer
B. Chord Clearance 5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom of the is known as:
C. Chordal Thickness tooth spaces A. Worm Gear
D. Chordal Length A. Pitch Circle B. Spiral Gear
2. Herringbone gears are gears which: B. Root Circle C. Helical Gear
A. Do not operate parallel shafts C. Base Circle D. Bevel Gear
B. Have a line contact between the teeth D. Outside Circle 9. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of mm
C. Tend to produce and thrust on the shafts 6. A circle the radius of which is equal to the distance of pitch diameter equals number of gear teeth to each mm
D. Consists of two left handed helical gears from the gear axis to the pitch point pitch diameter
3. In usual spur gearing, the: A. Pitch Circle A. Diametral Pitch
A. Pitch circle and base circle are the same B. Root Circle B. Module
B. Working depth induces clearance C. Base Circle C. Circular Pitch
C. Tooth outline are always cycloidal curves D. Outside Circle D. English Module
D. Tooth outlines are usually involute curves 7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the number of teeth 10. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to transmit motion from A. Diametral Pitch A. Dedendum
one shaft to another shaft at angle to the first B. Module B. Working Depth
A. Worm Gear C. Contact Ratio C. Full Depth
 D. Tooth Depth 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: A. Suction
11. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to addendum A. Helical gears B. Scoring
plus Dedendum B. Herringbone gears C. Abrasion
A. Full Depth C. Spiral gears D. Corrosion
B. Working Depth D. Bevel gears 39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails but in this case,
C. Whole Depth 26. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between the load and speed are so high that the surface metal is melted
D. Dedendum two shafts whose axes are: and the metal is melted and the metal is smeared down the
12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom of the A. Parallel profile.
tooth space B. Non-coplanar A. Abrasion
A. Root circle C. Non-intersecting B. Corrosion
B. Pitch circle D. None of these C. Spalling
C. Addendum circle 27. According to the law of gearing: D. Scoring
D. Dedendum A. Teeth should be involute type 40. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater extent than
13. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the B. Clearance between mating teeth should be pitting that is the flakes are much larger. This type of failure
teeth of an internal gear provided occurs in surface-hardened teeth.
A. Pitch diameter C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.57 M A. Abrasion
B. Root diameter D. None of these B. Corrosion
C. Internal diameter 28. Gears for watches are generally manufactured by: C. Spalling
D. Central diameter A. Die casting D. Scoring
14. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface. B. Machining on hobber 41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears with steel
A. Outer gear C. Machining on a gear shaper of BHN less than ____ leads to excessive abrasive wear
B. External gear D. Stamping A. 200
C. Spiral gear 29. In case of gears, the addendum is given by B. 300
D. Helical gear A. One module C. 400
15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth B. 2.157 x module D. 500
A. Cycloid C. 1.57 x module 42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which is used to
B. Epicycloid D. 1.25 x module distribute the wear more evenly.
C. Straight Rack 30. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two shafts A. Hunting tooth
D. Involute are: B. Tooth profile
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used to change rotary A. Parallel C. Dummy tooth
motion to reciprocating motion is: B. Intersecting D. Add tooth
A. Gear Shaft C. Non-parallel 43. The length of the hub should not be made ____ the
B. Gear Tooth D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting face width of the gear.
C. Gear Rack 31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the tooth is: A. Less than
D. Gear Motor A. The part of the tooth surface lying below the B. Equal
17. The portion of a gear tooth space that is cut below the pitch surface C. Greater
pitch circle and is equal to the addendum plus the clearance B. The curve forming face and flank D. None of these
A. Root C. The width of the gear tooth measured axially 44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on the inside of the
B. Dedendum along the pitch surface rim instead of on the outside
C. Addendum D. The surface of the top of the tooth A. External gear
D. Tooth Space 32. A reverted gear train is one in which: B. Involute gear
18. The portion of a gear tooth that projects above or A. The direction of rotation of first and last gear is C. Stub gear
outside the pitch circle opposite D. Annular gear
A. Top Relief B. The direction of rotation of first and last gear is 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum differences in
B. Dedendum the same tooth numbers between the internal gear and pinion be _____
C. Addendum C. The first and last gear are essentially on for 14.5 deg involute depth
D. Tooth Space separate but parallel shafts A. 10 teeth
19. The distance from the center of one tooth of a gear to D. None of these B. 12 teeth
the center next consecutive tooth measured on the pitch. 33. For best running conditions of a gear, the contact ratio C. 14 teeth
A. Circular Pitch should be about: D. 16 teeth
B. Module A. 1.25 to 1.40 46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel gears in an
C. Diametral Pitch B. 1.20 to 1.45 ordinary train should not exceed:
D. Circular Pitch C. 1.34 to 1.56 A. 4%
20. The number of teeth per inch of pitch diameter and D. 1.62 to 1.45 B. 6%
which gives some indications of the size of the gear teeth 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the advantages of the C. 2%
A. Module greater capacity and less interference trouble. D. 5%
B. Pitch Circle A. 14.5o 47. The typical helix angle ranges from _____ to _____
C. Diametral Pitch B. 24o A. 10 deg to 12 deg
D. Circular Pitch C. 20o B. 12 deg to 15 deg
21. An imaginary circle passing through the points at D. 30o C. 14 deg to 20 deg
which the teeth of the meshing gears contact each other. 35. _______ is the average tangential force on the teeth is D. 15 deg to 25 deg
A. Pitch Circle then obtained from the horsepower 48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in the face width
B. Addendum Circle A. Total load divided by circular pitch.
C. Dedendum Circle B. Separation load A. Face contact ratio
D. Base Circle C. Pressure load B. Speed ratio
22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5 degrees then the D. Tangential load C. Profile ratio
helix angle will be ______ 36. The service factor of a gear may be taken as ____ _is D. Advance ratio
A. 45 degrees an electric motor drives a centrifugal blower 49. The distance between the teeth measured on the pitch
B. 67.5 degrees A. 1 surface along a normal to the helix
C. 22.5 degrees B. 2 A. Lead
D. 90 degrees C. 3 B. Lead angle
23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a gear train D. 4 C. Normal circular pitch
A. Pinion 37. The kind of a wear occurs because of a fatigue failure D. Pitch
B. Idler of the surfaces material as a result of high contact stresses is 50. The hardness of a helical and herringbone teeth cut
C. Spur known as: after heat treatment will generally fall between the limits of
D. Driver A. Slotting ______.
24. Spiral Gears are suitable for transmitting: B. Pitting A. 210 and 300 Brinell
A. Small power C. Involuting B. 147 and 300 Brinell
B. Any power D. Curving C. 230 and 320 Brinell
C. Huge power 38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such as grit or D. 220 and 320 Brinell
D. Pulsating power metal particles or by a failure of the oil film at low speed

TEST 17
1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts are called A. Front cone B. Zerol bevel gears
_____ B. Side cone C. Zero bevel gears
A. Open gear C. Rear cone D. Straight bevel gears
B. Crossed helical gear D. Back cone 14. ______ is a gear that has an advantage of smoother
C. Closed helical gear 8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles consists of straight tooth engagement quietness of operation greater and higher
D. Herringbone gear elements that converge to a point at the cone center. permissible speeds.
2. _____ is used to connect intersecting shafts, usually A. Circular bevel gear A. Zerol bevel gear
but not necessarily at 90 degrees B. Straight bevel gear B. Straight bevel gear
A. Bevel gear C. Path bevel gear C. Hypoid bevel gear
B. Helical gear D. Herringbone gear D. Spiral bevel gear
C. Spur gear 9. The desired quality in gear is 15. When the pair of bevel gears of the same size is on
D. Worm gear A. Quietness shafts intersecting at right angle, they are called _____
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a ____ rather B. Durability A. Mold gear
than to a pitch cylinder as ion spur gears. C. Strength B. Helix angle
A. Pitch pedal D. All of these C. Miter gear
B. Pitch profile 10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not be sued when D. Tangent gear
C. Pitch cone the pitch line velocity is greater than: 16. The use of gearbox provides:
D. Cylinder A. 800 rpm A. Gear leverage
4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in a bevel gear B. 850 rpm B. More torque
A. Cone center C. 875 rpm C. More speed
B. Lead D. 900 rpm D. None of these
C. Center distance 11. The spiral bevel gears are recommended when the 17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, a gearbox
D. Pitch pitch line speed exceeds: employs”
5. Refers to the cone that is performed by the elements of A. 1000 fpm A. Dog and clutch
top lands B. 1100 fpm B. Crown gear
A. Face cone C. 1500 fpm C. Star pinion
B. Root face D. 2000 fpm D. None of these
C. Dial face 12. When the pitch line speed is above 800 fpm the teeth 18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the speed gears remain:
D. Pitch face should be: A. Separate
6. The cone formed by the elements of bottom lands A. Ground after hardening B. Joined to their couple
A. Face cone B. Should be cooled in air C. Of the same measurements
B. Root cone C. Should be quenched after D. None of these
C. Back cone D. None of these
D. Rake cone 13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral bevels, but with 19. If a big gear is moved by a small gear then the big gear
7. An imaginary cone whose elements are perpendicular zero angle. A. Will not rotate
to the pitch cone elements at the large end of the tooth. A. Spiral gears
 B. Will rotate reverse direction have a reasonably good surface finish and are properly B. Addendum
C. Will not rotate fastly lubricated. C. Working depth
D. None of these A. 6000 fpm D. Total depth
20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on intersecting shafts B. 6500 fpm 42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the teeth.
at angle other than 90 degrees. C. 7000 fpm A. Addendum circle
A. Right angle gears D. 8000 fpm B. Dedendum circle
B. Half gears 32. Experimental data from actual gear unit measurements C. Pitch circle
C. Inclined gears are seldom repeatable within a plus or minus ______ band D. Root circle
D. Angular gears A. 5% 43. The angle through which the gear turns from the time a
21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is, the pitch has B. 10% given pair of teeth are in contact at the pitch point until they
become a plane C. 15% pass out the mesh
A. Atten gear D. 20% A. Pressure angle
B. Crown gear 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian contact stresses B. Angle of action
C. Cool gear between two cylinders and is proportioned to the square root C. Angle of approach
D. Hiphap gear of the ______. D. Angle of recess
22. ____ is used to transmit power between non- A. Applied load 44. The angle through which the gear turns from the time a
intersecting shafts, nearly always at right angle to each other B. The contact stresses particular pair of teeth comes into in contact until they go out
A. Spur gear C. The stress the contact.
B. Ordinary gear D. Impact A. Pressure angle
C. Bevel gear 34. When an excitation frequency coincides with a natural B. Angle of action
D. Worm gear frequency, this is known to be: C. Angle of approach
23. What are the two types of construction for the worm? A. Unity D. Angle of recess
A. Shell and cylindrical B. Resonance 45. The angle through which the gear tirns from the time a
B. Shell and zigzag C. Obliquity particular pair of teeth come into in contact until they are in
C. Shell and integral D. Sinusoidal contact at the pitch point
D. Tube and integral 35. The average tooth stiffness constant of face is usually: A. Pressure angle
24. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch gears is A. 1.5 to 2 psi B. Angle of action
______ gears and is recommended for most applications B. 3 to 6 psi C. Angle of approach
A. 14.5 degrees C. 3 to 4 psi D. Angle of recess
B. 16 degrees D. 7.5 to 10 psi 46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth travels from
C. 20 degrees 36. When the number of teeth in a pair of meshing gears the point of contact with the mating tooth to the pitch point is
D. 21 degrees are such that they do not have a common divisor. called:
25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur gears must A. Arc of contact
be well over ____ to insure a smooth transfer of load from A. Dummy B. Arc of approach
one pair of teeth to the next pair. B. LCD C. Arc of recess
A. 1.0 C. Add it D. Arc of action
B. 2.0 D. Hunting 47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of action
C. 3.0 37. For internal gears having a 20 degree pressure angle A. Approach ratio
D. 4.0 and full depth teeth, the difference between the number of B. Action ratio
26. As general rule contact ratio should not be less than: teeth in a gear and pinion should not be less than ______.
A. 1:1 A. 10 C. Recess ratio
B. 1:2 B. 12 D. Contact ratio
C. 1:3 C. 14 48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that contains two axes
D. 1:4 D. 16 in a simple gear; it may be any plane containing the axes and
27. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces on gear is 38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have a pinion either not the given point.
about ____ pitch less than: A. Axial plane
A. 30 A. 15 teeth B. Central plane
B. 32 B. 16 teeth C. Normal plane
C. 34 C. 17 teeth D. Transverse plane
D. 36 D. 18 teeth 49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth travels from its
28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually: 39. _______ are machine elements that transmit motion by contact with the mating tooth at the pitch point to the point
A. A tensile fatigue means of successively engaging teeth. where the contact ceases is called:
B. A contact stress A. Sprockets A. Arc of contact
C. A crack B. Gears B. Arc of approach
D. None of these C. Tooth belt C. Arc of recess
29. AGMA means: D. Annular D. Arc of action
A. American German Manufacturer Association 40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels 50. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of
B. Athletic Gear Main Association from the first point and contact with the mating tooth to the 300 ft/min is likely to transmit _____ per inch of width
C. American Gear Metal Association pitch point is called: A. 2.5 hp
D. American Gear Manufacturer Association A. Arc of contact B. 3.0 hp
30. Which of the following does not belong to the group? B. Arc of approach C. 4.0 hp
A. Tooth scoring C. Arc of recess D. 5.0 hp
B. Tooth breakage D. Arc of action
C. Pitting 41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the distance
D. Toughing between the pitch circle and the top of the tooth is called:
31. Well proportion commercial gears with a pitch line A. Dedendum
velocity of less than _____ will normally not score if they
TEST 18 c. Base pitch d. Involute curve
d. Normal pitch 19. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or the radial
1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is generated or 10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating dimension between the pitch circle and the bottom of the tooth
developed. gear makes contact. space.
a. Root circle a. Contact ratio a. Addendum
b. Base circle b. Contact diameter b. Dedendum
c. Pitch circle c. Contact stress c. Working depth
d. Dedendum circle d. None of these d. Whole depth
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that the tooth 11. The maximum compressive stress within the contact area 20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the teeth.
makes with the gear axis. between mating gear tooth profiles is called: a. Addendum circle
a. Helix angle a. Bearing stress b. Pitch circle
b. Pressure angle b. Contact stress c. Base circle
c. Lead angle c. Ultimate stress d. Dedendum circle
d. Base Helix angle d. Internal stress 21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of millimeters of
3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on the base circle or along 12. The curve formed by the path of a point on a circle as it rolls a pitch diameter.
the line of action. straight line. a. Diametral pitch
a. Base circle a. Trochoid b. Module
b. Normal base pitch b. Epicycloid c. Circular pitch
c. Base pitch c. Hypocycloid d. Base pitch
d. Pitch gear d. Cycloid 22. The diametral pitch circulated in the normal plane and is equal to
4. The base pitch in the normal plane. 13. The circular pitch in the normal plane. the pitch dived by the cosine of the helix angle
a. Normal pitch a. Circular plane a. Normal diametral plane
b. Normal base pitch b. Normal circular pitch b. Normal diametral pitch
c. Axial plane c. Central plane c. Normal plane
d. Central plane d. Circular base pitch d. Normal axial pitch
5. The base pitch in the axial plane. 14. The strength of the arc between the two sides of a gear tooth on 23. That portion of the face width that actually comes into contact
a. Axial base pitch the pitch circles unless otherwise specified. with mating teeth, as occasionally one member of a pair of gears
b. Axial pitch a. Face of tooth may have a greater face width than the other is called:
c. Normal pitch b. Circular thickness a. Effective face width
d. Base pitch c. Tooth profile b. Effective tooth face
6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane perpendicular to the gear axis d. Face width c. Effective tooth thickness
and contains the common perpendicular of the gear and the worm 15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the addendum of d. Effective tooth flank
axis. the mating tooth. 24. The actual torque of a gear set divided by its gear ratio.
a. Central plane a. Tolerance a. Coefficient of performance
b. Normal plane b. Allowance b. Transmission ratio
c. Axial plane c. Clearance c. Ratio factor
d. Traverse plane d. Backlash d. Efficiency
7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular arc is called: 16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating 25. When it rolls along the outer side another circle, is called:
a. Backlash gear makes: a. Cycloid
b. Face width a. Idler b. Hypocycloid
c. Chordal thickness b. Pinion c. Epicycloid
d. Curve thickness c. Gear d. Trochoid
8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord subtending the d. Central diameter 26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface.
circular thickness arc. 17. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch is known as: a. Annular gear
a. Curve thickness a. Contact ratio b. External gear
b. Chordal thickness b. Action ratio c. Idler
c. Chordal addendum c. Recess ratio d. Spur gear
d. Chordal dedendum d. Approach ratio 27. That surface of the tooth, which is between the pitch circles to
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between the centers or 18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing. the top of the tooth is known as _____.
other corresponding points of the adjacent teeth. a. Tooth profile a. Face width
a. Circular pitch b. Stub curve b. Tooth flank
b. Diametral Pitch c. Conjugate curve c. Face of tooth
 d. Top land c. Pressure angle b. Line of action
28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. d. Tooth angle c. Line of contact
a. Face of tooth d. None of these
b. Face width 36. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle, it is called: 44. The distance on involute line of action through which the point
c. Circular pitch of contact moves during the action of the tooth profile.
d. Chordal thickness a. Cycloid a. Length of action
29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder and the b. Epicycloid b. Line of action
addendum cylinder. c. Hypocycloid c. Line of contact
a. Face d. Trochoid d. None of these
b. Flank 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters to the number of teeth.
c. Top land 37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the teeth on a. Addendum
d. Bottom land an internal gear. b. Diametral pitch
30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the c. Module
bottom of the toot space. a. Pitch diameter d. None of these
a. Toot curve b. Internal diameter 46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point of contact and
b. Involute c. Root diameter perpendicular to the pitch plane.
c. Fillet radius d. Dedendum diameter a. Axial plane
d. Fillet curve 38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface. b. Central plane
31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. a. Pitch gear c. Normal plane
a. Gear stress b. Internal gear d. Diametral
b. Contact stress c. Idler 47. The distance between similar equally spaced tooth surfaces in a
c. Fillet stress d. Spur gear given direction and along a given curve or line.
d. Fillet curve 39. The curve formed by the path of a point on a straight line called a. Module
32. That surface which is between the pitch circle and the bottom their generatrix, as it rolls along a convex base curve. b. Pitch
land is called: a. Involute c. Addendum
a. Flank of tooth b. Cycloidal d. Involute
b. Face of tooth c. Cycloid 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch equal in the length to
c. Face of width d. Trochoid the circular pitch.
d. Fillet of tooth 40. The top surface of the tooth. a. Pitch angle
33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and root cylinders. a. Tooth face b. Pressure angle
a. Fillet b. Tooth surfaces c. Helix angle
b. Face c. Top land d. Lead angle
c. Flank d. Tooth flank 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of tangency to the pitch
d. Bottom land 41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth. circle.
a. Space width a. Pitch point
34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the number of teeth in b. Backlash b. Pitch of contact
the opinion. c. Bottom land c. Pitch
d. Tooth space d. Reference point
a. Ratio factor 42. The distance of a helical gear or worm would thread along its 50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane
b. Gear ratio axis one revolution of it was free to move axially. and tangent to the axial plane and tangent to the pitch surfaces.
c. Transmission ratio a. Lead a. Normal plane
d. None of these b. Helix b. Central plane
c. Length of action c. Pitch plane
35. The helical angle that a helical gear tooth makes the gear axis. d. Line of action d. Tangent plane
43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is straight line passing
a. Helix angle through the pitch point and the tangent to the base circles.
b. Lead angle a. Length of action
TEST 19
1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the unbalanced c. Under cut c. 35000 fpm
load on one end of breakage is the unbalanced load on one end of the d. None of these d. 4000 fpm
tooth that results in the higher stress than when the load is evenly 13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of contact. 25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be _____
distributed. To minimize this problem, the face width “b” should not a. Normal plane the bore for steel.
be greater that the thickness of the tooth. In the absence of test b. Pitch plane a. 1.5 times
values, the following can be guide. c. Tangent plane b. 1.6 times
a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc d. Axial plane c. 1.7 times
b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd 14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of the tooth d.1.8 times
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd spaces. 26. The couple diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be _____
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc a. Addendum circle the bore for cast iron.
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called: b. Pitch circle a. 1.5 times
a. Plane of action c. Base circle b. 1.8 times
b. Plane of rotation d. Root circle c. 2.0 times
c. Normal plane 15. The angle subtended at the center of the base circle from teeth d. 2.5 times
d. Transverse plane origin of an involute to the point of tangency of the generation from 27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for single helical
3. The angle between the tooth profile and radial line at its pitch any point of the same involute. gears.
point. Involute teeth the angle between the line of action and line a. Root angle a. 10 and 18
tangent to the pitch circle. b. Roll angle b. 12 and 20
a. Roll angle c. Pitch circle c. 15 and 23
b. Pitch angle d. Base circle d. 18 and 28
c. Helix angle 16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a straight and suitable for 28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for double helical
d. Pressure angle straight line motion. gears.
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to the working a. Helical a. 15 and 25
depth circle. b. Bevel b. 20 and 30
a. Total depth c. Rack c. 25 and 40
b. Full depth d. Worm d. 30 and 45
c. Whole depth 17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse plane, all intersect at 29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter.
d. Working depth a point and mutually perpendicular to the: a. Hypoid
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum plus a. Principal reference plane b. Herringbone
dedendum also equal to working depth plus clearance. b. Principal reference axis c. Annular
a. Full depth c. Principal reference point d. Rack
b. Working d. Principal reference line 30. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of the tooth
c. Whole depth 18. A device for engaging and disengaging gears. measured around the pitch circle is exactly _____ of a circular pitch.
d. None of these a. Gear shift a. One-fourth
6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any part of the fillet b. Gear train b. One-half
curve lies inside of a line drawn to the working profile as the lowest c. Gear wheel c. One-third
point. d. Gear motor d. Two-third
a. Medium cut 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit the reduction 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate lubrication.
b. Under cut of: a. Pitting
c. Over cut a. 3:1 b. Honing
d. Hidden cut b. 4:1 c. Scoring
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the extension of the c. 5:1 d. Tooth breakage
radius of a circle as it rolls along the curve or line. d. 6:1 32. In order to get benefit helical-gear action the face width should
a. Cycloids 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the speed ratio is limited to: be at least _____ the axial pitch.
b. Epicycloids a. 3:1 a. Once
c. Hypocycloid b. 5:1 b. Twice
d. Trochoid c. 6:1 c. Thrice
8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the pitch plane. d. 10:1 d. Minimum
a. Norma plane 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel axes and have 33. The outside diameter of the worm gear measured on the central
b. Pitch plane straight teeth parallel to the axis. plane.
c. Tangent plane a. Helical gears a. Addendum diameter
d. Transverse plane b. Bevel gears b. Throat diameter
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the pitch plane. c. Spur gears c. Pitch diameter
a. Total face width d. Worm gears d. Root diameter
b. Effective face width 22. The design stress based upon the ultimate strength of the 34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or more the _____
c. Addendum material with a factor of safety of about _____. pressure angle is recommended.
d. Transverse plane a. 2 a. 14.5 degrees
10. The space between the teeth measured along the pitch circle. b. 3 b. 20 degrees
a. Tooth space c. 4 c. 22.5 degrees
b. Tooth thickness d. 5 d. 25 degrees
c. Backlash 23. Safe working stresses for common gear materials operating at 35. The axes intersect and the teeth are curved and oblique is called:
d. Tooth face very low velocities are usually assumed to be _____ the ultimate a. Skew bevel gears
11. The width of tooth measured along the pitch circle. strength. b. Straight bevel gears
a. Tooth space a. One-fourth c. Spiral bevel gears
b. Tooth thickness b. One-third d. Zerol bevel gears
c. Backlash c. One-half
d. Tooth face d. Two-third 36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non-intersecting and the teeth
12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a small 24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide gears should are straight.
amount of material is removed near the tip of the gear tooth. not be operated of pitch line velocities greater than _____ a. Hypoid gears
a. Chamber a. 2500 fpm b. Skew bevel gears
b. Tip relief b. 3000 fpm c. Spiral bevel gears
 d. Zerol bevel gears d. Root circle a. Excessive cut
37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face width. 42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth. b. Over cut
a. 0.2 Dwo a. Bottom land c. Under cut
b. 0.3 Dwo b. Top land d. None of these
c. 0.4 Dwo c. Pitch surface 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred pressure angle is:
d. 0.5 Dwo d. Space width a. 14- ½ deg
38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to: 43. The usual ratio of miter gear is: b. 20 deg
a. Axial pitch a. 1:1 c. 22- ½ deg
b. Diametral pitch b. 1:2 d. 25 deg
c. Normal pitch c. 1:3 48. Hub length usually vary from:
d. Traverse pitch d. 1:4 a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill and rock crushes. 44. The angle between the element of the face cone and its axis b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds
a. 1.25 - 1.35 equals pitch angle plus addendum angle. c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
b. 1.35 - 1.50 a. Cutting angle d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds
c. 1.50 - 1.80 b. Face angle 49 The service factor for heavy shock is:
d. 1.75 -2.00 c. Pitch angle a. 1 to 1.25
40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called: d. Front angle b. 1.25 to 1.50
a. Transverse axis 45. The apex of the pitch cone c. 1.50 to 1.75
b. Conjugate axis a. Cone center d. 1.75 to 2.0
c. Plane rotation b. Vertex 50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that mesh with a worm.
d. Axis of rotation c. Pitch point a. Worm wheel
41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces is called: d. Apothem b. Rack gear
a. Addendum circle 46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the involute lying c. Spiral gear
b. Base circle inside a radial line passing through an imaginary intersection of an d. Herringbone gear
c. Pitch circle involute and the base circle/
TEST 20 16. Refers to a portion of the small end of the tooth. 31. The product of circular pitch and diametral pitch is:
a. Heel a. 2π
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk on the surface b. Toe b. π
of which is cut parallel teeth? c. Sole c. 3π
a. Bevel gear d. Corner d. 4π
b. Helical gear 17. The apex of the pitch cone. 32. A line drawn through all the points at which the teeth
c. Spur gear a. Cone vertex touch each other.
d. Worm gear b. Cone distance a. Angle of contact
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1? c. Cone radius b. Arc of contact
a. Herringbone gears d. Cone center c. Path of contact
b. Miter gear 18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are used for: d. Arc of approach
c. Internal gear a. Low and medium pressure 33. The length of the gear tooth measured along an
d. Spur gear b. Medium and high pressure element of the pitch surface is called:
3. The distance between similar sides of adjacent teeth c. Low and high pressure a. Acting flank
measured on the pitch line is called: d. Medium and not high pressure b. Face width
a. Diametral pitch 19. In machine tool drive, the modulus for gears is usually c. Flank of the tooth
b. Linear pitch selected between: d. Tooth space
c. Circular pitch a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1 34. The ________ is equal to the tooth thickness plus the
d. Axial pitch b. 2≥μ1 space width.
4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called: c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1 a. Normal pitch
a. Linear pitch d. 5≥μ≥1 b. Axial pitch
b. Base pitch 20. The shape of the curve on the side of gear is termed as: c. Diametral pitch
c. Diametral pitch a. Stub d. Circular pitch
d. Axial pitch b. Involute 35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle where the
5. __________ is equal to twice the addendum. c. Trochoid tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when a pair of teeth first comes in
a. Tooth flank d. Cycloid contact until they are in contact as the pitch point.
b. Tooth thickness 21. The distance in a straight line from one side of a tooth a. Arc of recess
c. Whole depth to the side at points where the pitch circle passes through the tooth. b. Arc of approach
d. Working depth a. Circular pitch c. Arc of contact
6. The meaning of module in a gearing system is: b. Pitch d. Arc of action
a. Distance c. Chordal thickness 36. The _________ traced by the outermost corner of one
b. Addendum d. Tooth length tooth on the plane of the other gear.
c. Measure 22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal to the altitude of a. Cycloid
d. the pitch cone. b. Hypocycloid
7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface adjacent to a. Length of cone c. Epitrochoid
the involute lying inside a radial line passing through an imaginary b. Vertex distance d. Trochoid
intersection of the involute and the base circle. c. Length of hub 37. An imaginary circle passing through the points at
a. Over cut d. Thickness which the tooth of the meshing gears contact each other.
b. Under cut 23. The _______ of a worm is the distance between the a. Pitch circle
c. Tip relief center of one tooth and the center of an adjacent tooth, measured b. Base circle
d. None of these perpendicular to the teeth. c. Addendum circle
8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the smaller is often a. Diametral pitch d. Dedendum circle
called: b. Circular pitch 38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface.
a. Rack c. Axial pitch a. Rack gear
b. Pinion d. Normal pitch b. Zerol gear
c. Worn 24. The _______ of a worm gear is the concave surface of c. Miter gear
d. Idler the gear tooth. d. External gear
9. Which of the following gears that are of the same and a. Radius 39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the
transmit motion at right angles? b. Throat teeth of an internal gear.
a. Herringbone gears c. Pitch a. Dedendum diameter
b. Spur gears d. Addendum b. Pitch diameter
c. Miter gears 25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy duty work c. Base diameter
d. Rack gears where a large ratio of speed is required. d. Internal diameter
10. The cone, which represents in bevel gears the original a. Worm gear 40. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of
friction surfaces are called b. Bevel gear the tooth measured sound the pitch circle is exactly ________ the
a. Back cone c. Spur gear circle path.
b. Length of cone d. Miter gear a. One half
c. Pitch cones 26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth resembling those b. One third
d. Cone distance of acme thread. c. One fourth
11. Which of the following angles equal the pitch angle? a. Pinion d. One fifth
a. Back angle b. Spur 41. The helix angles for the herringbone gears are used
b. Front angle c. Worm from ______for industrial gears.
c. Face angle d. Bolt a. 10 to 15
d. Root angle 27. The _________ is the angle at which the teeth of a b. 15 to 20
12. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth. helical gear are slanted across the face of the gear. c. 20 to 30
a. Top land a. Lead angle d. 25 to 45
b. Tooth flank b. Helix angle 42. The distance parallel to the axis from the pitch circle to
c. Tooth face c. Pressure angle the face of the shoulder or hub.
d. Bottom land d. Pitch angle a. Back one
13. The portion of the common tangent to the base circles 28. A __________ is one thicker in proportion to its length b. Backing
along which contact between mating involutes occurs. than the involute tooth. c. Crown height
a. Line of action a. Hypoid d. Apex distance
b. Pitch line b. Cycloidal tooth 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by means of a
c. Arc of action c. Stub tooth reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly with the work.
d. Angle of action d. Spiral a. Gear forming
14. The intersection between the axes of the line of centers 29. Which gears are used to connect parallel shafts lying in b. Gear hobber
and the common tangent to the base circles, the same plane? c. Gear shaper
a. Pitch line a. Worm gears d. Gear cutter
b. Pitch circle b. Bevel gears 44. A type of gear wheels connecting non-parallel, non-
c. Pitch point c. Herringbone gears intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
d. Pitch surface d. Spiral gears a. Helical gear
15. The angle between the element of the face cone and its 30. Which of the following is used to connect the shafts at b. Herringbone gear
axis. an angle but lying in the same plane? c. Hypoid gear
a. Face angle a. Helical gears d. Bevel gear
b. Back angle b. Worm and worm wheel 45. The angle between the plane of the pitch circle and a
c. Front angle c. Spur gears plane tangent to the end of the tooth.
d. Increment angle d. Herringbone gears a. Foot angle
 b. Back angle c. Total depth a. Dedendum diameter
c. Dedendum angle d. Whole depth b. Addendum diameter
d. Face angle c. Throat diameter
46. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces. 48. The amount by which the dedendum in a given gear d. Pitch diameter
exceeds the addendum of its mating gear.
a. Root circle
a. Whole depth 50. The circle from which the involute is generated.
b. Working depth circle
b. Clearance a. Base circle
c. Base circle c. Backish b. Pitch circle
d. Pitch circle d. Working depth c. Working depth circle
47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch line is called: d. Addendum circle
a. Working depth 49. The outside diameter of the worm measured on the central
b. Dedendum plane.

TEST 21 17. It is a symbol ___________ that the work surfaces should be A. Tong
machine-finished and placed on the line that represents the B. Morse Taper
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements and a chemical surface to be machined. C. Chuck Taper
components of steel casting is: A. f D. Tapered Key
A. Pyrometer B. 5 34. It is the best instrument for measuring a thousand of an inch.
A. Micrometer
B. Carbon analyser C. 20
B. Tachometer
C. Wet analyser D. F.A.O
C. Caliper
D. Spectrometer 18. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at D. Pyrometer
2. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? machine, black welding and foundry shops called: 35. What tool will be used in making wood pattern in the foundry
A. Expanded A. Walkway shops shop?
B. Extended B. Safety goggles A. Band Saw
C. Contraction C. Safety notices B. Drill Machine
D. Taper D. Safety notices in Markers / Boards C. Saw and Chisel
3. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting edge and the 19. It is axially located rectangular groove in a hub and shaft. D. Hammer
plane perpendicular to direction of feed travel is _______ A. Key Seat 36. The usual ration of water to soluble oil used as cutting fluid is
angel. B. Cotter Pin Seat _________.
A. Side relief C. Flute A. 50% water to 50% oil
B. 2 water to 1 oil
B. Side cutting edge D. Set Screw Point
C. 3 water to 1 oil
C. Lead 20. In a cutting tool, the cutting end can also be generally called:
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oi
D. Side rake A. End cutting edge 37. Machine tool used for laying straight lines on metal surfaces made
4. A section in a machine shop operation is called: B. Nose of sharp tool steel is called:
A. Core making C. Back rake A. Plain Scriber
B. Machining D. Side rake B. A Trammel
C. Fitting 21. What factors can modify the recommended cutting speed of C. Hermaphrodite caliper
D. Pattern known work piece? D. Divider
5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, nose, shank, A. Rough cutting of work piece 38. A lathe machine threading mechanism is called:
and ________. B. Modify the shape of the cutting tools A. Reverse Gear and lever
A. Cutting edge C. Use correctly shape of the cutting tools B. Spindle Gear
C. Changed Stud Gear
B. None of these D. Depth of cut
D. All of these
C. Round nose 22. Machine shop equipment that can flatter horizontally,
39. Which of the following is not used to resemble the shape of tool
D. Nose vertically or angular plane called: bit?
6. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to turning tools A. Shaper Machine A. Round nose
_______ machine. B. Welding Machine B. Center cut
A. Planer C. Drill Machine C. Thread cutting
B. Broaching D. Power Saw D. Square nose
C. Boring 23. It is a petroleum by-product used as electrodes in an electric 40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations is called:
D. Lathe arc furnace melting operation. A. Turret lathe
7. The blades for hacksaw have number of teeth range of: A. Anthracite coke B. Engine lathe
A. 15 – 38 teeth B. Foundry coke C. Manual lathe
B. 14 – 32 teeth C. Graphite Electrode D. None of these
41. Device used to measure accurately speed called:
C. 12 -30 teeth D. Bituminous coke
A. Speedometer
D. 12 – 32 teeth 24. Which of the following is an unsafe condition in operating a
B. Dial Indicator
8. __________ no part of the headstock. lathe machine? C. Tachometer
A. Back gear A. Wearing denim pants/safety shoes D. Dial gage
B. Spindle B. Wearing a canvass apron 42. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a machine tool is
C. Anvil C. Operating with safety gloves called:
D. Motor D. Wearing safety goggles/hearing aid A. Universal chuck
9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the bridge across the bed 25. Relief angle of a single-point cutting mild steel cast iron and B. Slooter
to carry the cross slide and tool rest. another average work as recommended should be in the range C. Dividing head
A. Automatic feed of _________ degrees for high speed tools. D. Indexing
B. Apron A. 8 to 12 43. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on steel or cast
iron is ___________ degrees.
C. Compound rest B. 10 to 5
A. 48
D. Saddle C. 5 to 7
B. 63
10. What is the recommended cutting speed range for bronze in D. 12 to 16 C. 59
fpm? 26. Tap not used for cutting thread ___________. D. 50
A. 60/70 A. Tapping tap 44. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder from running
B. 200/250 B. Bottoming tap away from surface to be joined?
C. 80/60 C. Plugging tap A. All of these
D. 100/110 D. Taper tap B. Surround the work with clay
11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on low strength steel 27. Which of the following tools does not belong to the group? C. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth
the cutting fluid applied have soluble oil with consistency of A. Hermaphrodite caliper D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work
part oil to _______ parts water. B. Divider 45. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding work piece in
A. 10 to 30 C. Double VEE block a lathe operation. Example 3-jaw universal chuck, 4-jaw
independent chuck.
B. 10 D. Trammel
C. 5 to 10 28. In Machine Shop had forging operation of lengthening a piece
A. Magnetic jaw chuck
D. 10 to 20 of stock while reducing the cross-sectional area of work is B. 2-jaw independent
12. The five principal parts of the shaper are the table, tool slide, called: C. 8-jaw-universal
base, ram and _______. A. Bloating D. Combination
A. Column B. Upsetting 46. A machinery operation whereby done with the work accurately
B. Vise C. Spreading fastened has a reciprocating motion and the tool head is stationary
C. Drive motor D. Draining is called:
D. Apron 29. Which of the following services is not considered to be a A. Shaping
13. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle as low as 40 work of a machinist? B. Planning
degrees but for extremely hard material up to _____________ A. Reboring C. Turning
D. Reaming
degree is recommended. B. Grinding
47. What happens to a drill if the operating speed is too fast?
A. 80 C. Over Hauling
A. Drill will crack
B. 65 D. Honing B. Drill will become overheated and will blend
C. 75 30. Type of chuck wherein the work piece with standard diameter C. Drill will become overheated and will drawn from
D. 70 or size could be attached fast and quick specially small size steel
14. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a desired shape and work of mass production called: D. Drill will become very dull and wear dust
size. A. Lathe Drive Plate 48. Which do not belong to foundry or metal casting shop?
A. Broaching B. Clamp Toe Dog A. Shake – Out Machine
B. Blanking C. Collet Attachment B. Molding Machine
C. Slitting D. Steady Center Rest C. Core making
D. Dinking 31. This particular cutting tool material could with stand cutting D. Forging
15. A research agency handling assistance to all foundry, temperature of 1800 F and higher at cutting speed beyond possible 49. It is an arbitrary modification by moving a small portion of a tooth
with other cutting tool materials called: material at the tip of the gear tooth.
machine shop and metallurgical plant operation.
A. Titanium carbide A. Tip removal
A. MIRDCC B. Tip under cut
B. Ceramic
B. NOI C. Tip relief
C. Carbide grade
C. DOST D. Pressure angle cut
D. Cubic boron nitride
D. All of these 32. Common defects encountered in a foundry shop steel casting 50. What is the difference between the shaper and the planer?
16. Web is a part of drill and is usually thicker __________. operation and also in welding practices.
A. Beside the land A. Cracks A. The tool of the shaper moves while the plane is
B. Nearing the shank B. Cold shot stationary
C. Close to the future C. Parting line B. The shaper can perform slotting operation while
D. At the tip portion D. Blow / pin holes planer cannot
33. Lathe operator to remove the taper shank from the taper hole uses C. The shaper handles large pieces while the planer
drift. It is also called: handles only small pieces
 D. The tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion.
motion while the tool in the planer move in rotary

TEST 22
1. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at machine, B. Focal Center C. Tap
blacksmith, welding and foundry shop is called: C. Work Center D. Flute
A. Safety Goggle 19. A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive wheel 35. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a machine tool
B. Walkway Guide of the removal of metals with an abrasive is called: called:
C. Safety Notices in Markings A. Planer Machine A. Slotter
D. All of these B. Power Saw B. Chuck
2. Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test called: C. Shaper Machine C. Dividing Head
A. Bend D. Grinding Machine D. Indexer
B. Flaring 20. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used as cutting 36. The operation of machining the end of a work piece to make
C. Flange tool to obtain a very smooth finish. the end square with the axis.
D. Crush A. Broaching Machine A. Squaring
3. The machine used for testing of very thin steel or surface layers B. Planer B. Buffing
A. Charpy Test C. Tool Grinder C. Lapping
B. Izod Test D. Milling Machine D. Honing
C. Description Test 21. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane 37. The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an adjustable
D. Rockwell Test surfaces with a single pointed tool cutting tool with only one cutting edge.
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 inches. A. Shaper A. Drilling
A. Flaring B. Planer B. Broaching
B. Crush C. Drill C. Milling
C. Flange D. Power Saw D. Boring
D. Bend 22. A tool with hardened steel points used for scribing or laying of 38. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point cutting tool distances. of a hole, as for a recess for a flat head screw.
called A. Plain Scriber A. Counter Sinking
a. Dividing Head B. Divider B. Knurling
b. Slotting Attachment C. Trammel C. Squaring
c. Circular Pitch D. Hermaphrodite D. Performing
d. Circular Milling Attachment 23. _____ used to machine flat or curved surfaces with a tool, 39. It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means of
6. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in which moves in a reciprocating motion. cutting tool having several cutting edges.
the milling machine called: A. Planer A. Notching
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling B. Shaper B. Piercing
b. Milling Machine Size C. Grinder C. Turning
c. Vertical Milling Attachment D. Lathe D. Reaming
d. Milling Machine Arbors 24. _____ used in the production of flat surfaces on pieces too 40. The hop term used to include the marking of inscribing of
7. An important accessory of milling machine. large or too heavy to hold in a shaper. center points circles area of straight lines upon metal surfaces,
A. Milling Machine Vise a. Planer either curve or flat, for the guidance of the worker called:
B. Cutter b. Shaper A. Shaping
C. Ram c. Grinder B. Hobbing
D. Vertical Milling Attachment d. Shaver C. Laying Out
8. A machine used in testing steel generally strikes the specimen 25. A machine tool used to produce a variety of surfaces by using a D. Shaping
with an energy from 22- t0 265 ft-lb/ circular type cutter with multiple teeth called: 41. It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures and works to
A. Izod Test A. Lathe Machine test and inspect size trueness of finished work, and to compare
B. Charpy Test B. Milling Machine measurements either heights or depths or many other
C. Rockwell Test C. Broaching Machine measurements.
D. Test Blocks D. Grinding A. Dial Gage
9. The area of the machine shop whose metal is being melted to 26. A cutting tool used to finish internal and external surfaces by B. Dial Indicator
form a new shape is the: the use of a cutter called broach, which has a series of cutting C. Tachometer
A. Foundry Area edges of teeth D. Speedometer
B. Tool and Die Area a. Lathe Machine 42. A toll used for measuring diameters.
C. Welding Area b. Broaching Machine A. Caliper
D. Mass Production Area c. Planer B. Manometer
10. Which of the following is not the work of a machinist? d. Shaper C. Tachometer
A. Reboring 27. The method of cold working by compression. D. Pyrometer
B. Overhauling A. Broaching 43. The process of forming metals by the use of dies after the metal
C. Grinding B. Lapping is heated to its plastic range.
D. Boring C. Piercing A. Rolling
11. The machine, which can flatter surface on horizontal, vertical D. Reaming B. Forging
or angular plane. 28. A group of thin steel strips used for measuring clearances. C. Turning
A. Drilling Machine A. Feeler Gage D. Casting
B. Shaper Machine B. Tachometer 44. A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift, medium and large
C. Power Saw C. Micrometer section using a reciprocating hacksaw blade.
D. Lathe Machine D. Caliper A. Tool Grinder
12. Which of the following is not part of a lathe machine? 29. The process of working metals by the application of sudden B. Shaper
a. Fan blows or by a steady pressured called: C. Planer
b. Carriage A. Rolling D. Power Saw
c. Headstock B. Forging 45. A cold chisel is made of:
d. Tail Stock C. Casting A. Cast Iron
13. One important skill that operates of machine tools must have D. Turning B. German Silver
an understanding of measurements, which demands: 30. A kind of chuck, which should not be used where accuracy is C. High Carbon Steel
A. Speed required called: D. High Speed Steel
B. Precision A. Collet Chuck 46. Trimming is a process associated with:
C. Sociability B. Magnetic Chuck A. Electroplating
D. Neatness C. Four Jaw Chuck B. Forging
14. Which tool does not belong to the group? D. Universal Chuck C. Machining of Metals
A. Vice Grip 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could be D. Press Work
B. Feeler Gage adjustable separately called: 47. Foundry crucible is made of
C. Torque Wrench A. Collet Chuck A. Graphite
D. Adjustable Wrench B. Independent Chuck B. German Silver
15. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed C. Four Jaw Chuck C. Lead
is stationary. D. Magnetic Chuck D. Mild Steel
A. Shaping 32. A tool which when pressed into a finished hole in a piece of 48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used for
B. Milling work, provides centers on which the piece may be turned or cutting which type of gears?
C. Turning otherwise machines called: A. Spur
D. Reaming A. Mash B. Worm
16. Which of the following is not part of the headstock? B. Butt C. All of the above
A. Anvil C. Mandrel D. Bevel
B. Spindel D. Wobble 49. Select the one that is gear finishing process.
C. Motor 33. A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper except that A. Gear Shaving
D. Back Pressure the ram reciprocates vertically rather than horizontally. B. Gear Shaping
17. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates while the A. Lathe C. Gear Hobbing
feed is stationary. B. Grinder D. Gear Milling
A. Planing C. Planer 50. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile industry
B. Shaping D. Slotter as:
C. Turning 34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed around it and A. It is a mass production machine
D. Reaming grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the B. It is an automatic machine
18. ____ is a kind of center, which is being attached and meshed to threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut internal threads. C. Operation is completed in one stroke
the tailstock spindle, which is also static while the rack is rotating. A. Grooves D. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
A. Dead CenterLive Center B. Lap
TEST 23

1. Point angle of 135° on drills is used for: 4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist drill for drilling C. Uniform symmetrical shape
A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous plastics cast iron is the order of: D. None of the above
B. Hard steels and nickel alloys A. 12-22° 7. Which of the following processes that hydraulic fluid acts
C. Thin sheets metal B. 24-32° as transfer media.
D. B and C C. 35-40° A. Electron Beam Machining
2. A twist drill is specified by: D. 40-45° B. Electro – discharge Machining
A. Its diameter and lip angle 5. Dressing is C. Iron Beam Machining
B. Its shank and diameter A. An inspection method for castings D. Water Jet Machining
C. Shank, material and diameter B. A method of cleaning the castings 8. Wiping is the process of
D. Shank, material and flute size C. A method of deoxidizing of molten metal A. Applying flux during welding process
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is: D. The formation of oxides on them molten metal B. Cleaning the welded surface after the welding
A. 30° surface operation is over
B. 60° 6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts having: C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
C. 110° A. Complicated shape having intricate details D. Low temperature welding
D. 120° B. Rectangular shape 9. Ornaments are cast by:
 A. Continuous Casting A. 18 teeth A. Clearance between mating parts
B. Die Casting B. 24 teeth B. Pitch of screw threads
C. Gravity Casting C. 28 teeth C. Radius of curvature
D. Presses Casting D. 31 teeth D. Thickness of plates
10. In such casting process: 22. A plug gauge is used to measure 38. Chuck used on turret lathe is
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic A. Cylindrical bores A. Collet chuck
mould by gravity B. Screw thread B. Four jaw self-centering chuck
B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a C. Spherical holes C. Magnetic chuck
predetermined time the mould is inverted to D. Taper bores D. Three jaws independent chuck
permit a part of metal still in the molten state to 23. When large number of components are turned and parted 39. Routing prescribes
flow out of cavity off a bar the chuck generally used is the _____. A. Inspection of final product
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated quantity A. Collet chuck B. Proper utilization of machine
of metal and core or plunger inserted to force B. Four Jaw chuck C. Proper utilization of man power
the metal into cavity C. Magnetic chuck D. The flow of materials in the joint
D. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure D. Two jaw chuck 40. Cope foundry practice refers to
11. In Carthias process 24. Which of the following is the cutting speed of brass? A. Bottom half of molding box
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic A. 30 m/min B. Coating on the mold face
mould by gravity B. 40 m/min C. Middle portion of the molding box
B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a C. 50 m/min D. Top half of molding
predetermined time the mould is inverted to D. 60 m/min 41. A vent wire is used in
permit a part of metal still in the molten state to 25. Under cutting is: A. Foundry
flow out of cavity A. An operating of cutting extra deep groove B. Hot forging
C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated quantity B. An operation of cutting a groove next to a C. Cold forging
of metal and core or plunger inserted to force shoulder on a piece of work D. Fitting
the metal into cavity C. Cutting from the of work piece 42. The purpose of chaplets is to:
D. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure D. An operation of cutting extra wide threads A. Ensure directional solidification
12. What is the purpose of riser? 26. Permeability of foundry sand is: B. Function a lower and upper parts of the molding
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the A. The capacity to hold moisture box
rate of solidification B. Distortion of binder in sand C. Provide efficient venting
B. Act as a reservoir for molten metal C. Fineness of sand D. Support the cores
C. Help feed the casting until all solidification D. Porosity to allow the escape of gases 43. Angle plate is used for
takes place 27. Quick return mechanism is used in a A. Cutting tapers in a lathe
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gas. A. Drilling machine B. Cutting gears in a shaper
13. The mould for casting ferrous materials B. Grinder C. Cutting gears in a milling
A. Copper C. Lathe D. Fixing job outs angle in a grinder
B. High carbon steel D. Shaper 44. Cores are used in mould to make it
C. Low carbon steel 28. Draft on a pattern is provided for. A. Hollow
D. Medium carbon steel A. Facilitating pattern making B. Smooth
14. Dilatometer is use to find out which property of molding B. Easy lifting of the casting C. Strong
sand? C. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the D. Symmetrical
A. Fineness mould 45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made by
B. Hot Strength D. Providing for shrinkage of the coating A. Centrifugal casting
C. Moisture Content 29. Mandrel are used to hold B. Extrusion
D. Permeability A. Cutting tools C. Pressure casting
15. Select the one that is not an angle measuring device B. Drill bits D. Slush casting
A. Angle Iron C. Face plate 46. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous chips of _____
B. Bevel protector D. Hollow work pieces are formed when machining
C. Combination 30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called: A. Carbon steel
D. Sine bar A. Boring B. Copper steel
16. The darft allowance on metallic pattern as compared to B. Counter Sinking C. Copper
wooden ones is: C. Drilling D. Steel at high speeds
A. More D. Reaming 47. Permeability, in relation to molding sands, is high for
B. Same 31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed A. Coarse grains
C. less A. Against the rotating cutter B. Fine grains
D. More/less depending on size B. At an angle 60° to the center C. Medium grains
17. The pressure of inoculation is used: C. At right angle to the cutter D. Round grains
A. To clean the casting D. In the direction of the cutter 48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to:
B. To decrease the melting temperature of a cast 32. Sprue is the passage provided for the A. Cut gears
metal A. Out flow B. Cut threads
C. To change the chemical composition of a cast B. In flow C. Give desired direction of movement to the lathe
metal C. Smooth flow carriage
D. To modify the structure and properties of a cast D. Solidification of the molten material D. Reduce spindle speeds
metal 33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in 49. For machining the flange elbow on a lathe which of the
18. Tumbling is done so as to: A. mm following holding devices is used?
A. Clean the surface of small parts B. mm per degree A. Angle plate
B. Get surface finish C. mm per revolution B. Catch plate
C. Stress relieve the components D. rpm C. Face plate
D. Plate the surface D. lathe plate
19. What is referred to as gate? 34. Raping allowance is provided on a pattern to take care of 50. Which of the following is not part of combination set?
A. A passage through which metal is poured into A. Bevel protractor
mould A. Shrinkage B. Dial gage
B. A passage through which metal rises the mould B. Machining C. Scale
is filled C. Distortion D. Try square
C. A passage that finally leads molten metal from D. Easy withdrawal
the runner into the mould cavity 35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the following
D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to escape operations
20. A sprue is: A. Casting
a. A tool used in mould repairing B. Drilling
b. A process of cleaning casting C. Forging
c. A chemical that is added to molten materials for D. Turning
sound castings 36. One of the material used for making surface plate is:
d. A vertical passage through the cope and joining A. Brass
the pouring basin to the runner B. Granite
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number of teeth as given C. Stainless steel
below are available. Which one would you chose for cutting D. Wood
brass? 37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the:

TEST 24

1. A sine bar cannot be used without a/an C. The same speed as that using a high speed drill 10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge should be
A. Angle gage D. None of the above A. Case hardened
B. Micrometer 6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of stock is referred B. Rubbed with emery cloth
C. Slip gage to as C. Rubbed with crocus cloth
D. Vernier Caliper A. Polish material D. Stoned with an oilstone
2. The tooth life is affected to the maximum extent by B. Roughen Material 11. When cutting material in a lathe, the softer the material
A. Gear grinding C. Sharpen Material being cut, the tool bit should have
B. Gear Shaping D. Smooth Material A. Any of these
C. Gear shaving 7. Knurling is done to __________. B. Double top rake
D. Milling A. Boring C. Less top rake
3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the correct size B. Chamfering D. More top rake
is known as C. Planning 12. A piece of cast iron hold against an emery wheel will give
A. Counter boring D. Turning of
B. Counter sinking 8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the material A. Bright shiny sparks
C. Reaming being cut, the tool bit should have B. Dull yellow sparks
D. Spot facing A. Less side rake C. Red sparks
4. When the extreme outer corners of the cutting edges of a B. More side rake D. No sparks
drill wear away too rapidly, it is an indication of C. More top rake 13. The alignment of coupling faces can be checked by
A. Not enough speed D. No side rake A. Inserting a feeler gage between the coupling faces at
B. Too much rake angle 9. When turning a piece of round metal in a lathe, the front various points around the circumference
C. Too high a speed clearance should be smaller for B. Inserting a thermometer
D. B or C A. Cutting angles C. Rotating and measuring to nearest permanent fitting
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at B. Large-diameter cutting D. Using an inside micrometer
A. Speed greater than that when using a high speed drill C. Small-diameter cutting 14. A drill bit has
B. Speeds less than that when using a high speed drill D. None of these A. No flutes
 B. 2 flutes A. Be out of round D. The teeth pointing forward
C. 3 flutes B. Be perfect 38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch should be used for
D. 4 flutes C. Have small flat areas on the surfaces cutting
15. Before applying layout for blue on a piece of metal, it must D. A and C A. Brass
be 27. the best procedure when filling a piece of metal in a lathe is B. Cast iron
A. Cleaned to take _________ C. Heavy
B. Cold A. A long fast stroke D. Thin wall tubing
C. Heated B. Long slow stroke 39. The best instrument for measuring thousandths of an inch is
D. Roughened C. Short even stroke the:
16. A scriber is made from D. Short fast stroke A. Caliper
A. Carbon steel 28. The safe edge of a file is B. Micrometer
B. Cold-rolled steel A. The end opposite the handle C. Pyrometer
C. Hot-rolled steel B. The one with a handle D. Tachometer
D. Top steel C. The edge with the handle 40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work on
17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a cherry red color and D. None of these A. Brass
A. Cooling slowly in air 29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the teeth on a file B. Cast iron
B. Dousing in cold water are called C. Tool steel
C. Dousing in hot water A. Bumps D. Any of these
D. Dousing in oil B. Clogs 41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for cutting
18. When drilling a hole in a piece of work held in a lathe C. Flats A. Cold rolled steel
chuck one would use the D. Pins B. Hot rolled steel
A. Head stock 30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real smooth finish can C. Structural steel
B. Compound rest be done by D. Any of these
C. Cross-feed A. Draw – filing 42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely
D. Tailstock and drill chuck B. Fat – filing A. Flat shapes and round shapes
19. When using a drill press, the work should be held with C. Milling – filing B. Large and small
A. A pair of pliers D. Side – filing C. Rough and smooth
D. Single – cut and double - cut
B. A vise clamp 31. For finishing a piece of work to size the file to use is the
43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in
C. Gloves on A. Crossing file
A. One position
D. The hand B. Double – cut fine – tooth file B. Two positions
20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it will go C. Mill file C. Three positions
A. At a slower speed backwards D. Single – cut fine – tooth file D. Four positions
B. At the same speed backward 32. For filing lead or babbit, use a 44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that
C. Faster A. Lead float life A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth
D. Slower B. Mile file B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth
21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after C. Vixen file C. Has the entire blade hardened
A. Boring D. A or C D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw
B. Center-drilling 33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for cutting 45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for cutting
A. Brass and copper
C. Drilling A. Small tubing
B. Sheet metal over 18 gages
D. Reaming B. Conduit
C. Tubing
22. To remove metal stock rapidly the file to use is a C. Sheet metal under 18 gage
D. Any of these
A. Double-cut bastard D. Any of these 46. Hacksaw blades are made of
B. Double - cut coarse 34. A coolant is usually used when cutting material in a power A. High speed
C. Rasp hacksaw to B. Tool steel
D. A and C A. Absorb heat of friction C. Tungsten alloy steel
23. The best file to use when finishing sharp corners or slots B. Prevent the blade from overheating D. Any of these
and grooves is the C. Prevent the blade from losing 47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has
A. Jeweler’s file D. All of the above A. A movable back
B. Knife file 35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per inch is best suited for B. Flexible ends
C. Mill file cutting C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened
D. Square file A. Aluminum
48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited to work on
24. Never use a file B. Cast iron
A. Aluminum
A. That is dirty C. Solid iron B. Channel
B. With a tang D. Any of these C. Tubing
C. Without a handle 36. When cutting a long thing piece of metal D. Any of these
D. Without oiling A. Set the blade in the frame with the teeth facing 49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means that the
25. Which of the following information is necessary when toward you A. Speed is too low
ordering a file B. Turn the blade at right angles to the frame B. Speed is too fast
A. Size C. Turn the blade upside down in the frame C. Material is too hard
B. Shape D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per inch D. Material cannot be cut
C. Type of teeth 37. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the frame with 50. The lathe compound is used for
A. Angle cutting
D. All of the above A. One end looser than the other end
B. Grooving
26. When filling a piece of metal in a lathe if short quick B. The teeth facing in any direction
C. Facing
strokes are used the finished piece will probably C. The teeth pointing backward D. Any of these
TEST 25 8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to A. The planer has offset table and the shaper has a horizontal
A. Snap easy table
1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut B. Buckle or run out of line when too much pressure is B. The shaper has a rotating table and the planer has a
A. An eccentric supplied horizontal table
C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating motion past the
B. A round stock C. Cut too fast
total head while the table of the shaper is stationary and
C. A cam D. Cut on a slant
the tool head has a reciprocating motion
D. A and C 9. A pillar file is used for D. One is larger than the other
2. The jaw of a standard vise is A. Filing against a shoulder 16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel will give
A. Hard B. Filing keyways off
B. Semi – hard C. Filing slots A. White sparks with stars on the end
C. Semi-soft D. Any of these B. Yellow sparks
D. Soft 10. The length of a file is measured from C. No sparks
3. When facing off a piece of material in the lathe chuck the A. End to end D. Green sparks
bit must be set B. Heel to end 17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool bits, dip
A. Above center C. Point to end the end of the bit in water frequently to prevent
B. At the center D. Point to heel A. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit
C. Below the center 11. In general, files are divided into two classes, namely: B. Burning your fingers
D. Off center A. Fine and coarse C. Hardening of the tip
4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of metal, it must be B. Rough and smooth D. The tip from crystallizing
A. Cleaned C. Single – cut and double – cut 18. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is called
B. Cold D. Shapes and sizes A. Gear center
C. Hot 12. A pillar file has B. Gear cutter
D. Roughened A. One safe edge C. Gear hob
5. Tool steel can be hardened by B. Three safe edges D. Gear threader
A. Heating red hot and plunging into a water C. Two safe edges 19. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is called
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air D. A and C A. Pitch gage
C. Heating red hot and plunging into line seed or cotton 13. The tang of a file is the part that B. Plug gage
seed oil A. Does the cutting C. Ring gage
D. Any of the above, depending on the type and use B. Fits into the handle D. Thread gage
6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel give off C. Has no teeth 20. The tool used to check external pipe threads is called a
A. Bright shiny sparks D. Is opposite the handle A. Pitch gage
B. Green sparks 14. One of the factors involved in the choice of a grinding B. Plug gage
C. Light straw – colored sparks wheel is C. Ring gage
D. No sparks A. The kind of material to be ground D. Thread gage
7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is B. The amount of stock to be removed 21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is known as
A. Acetic acid C. The kind of finish required A. Centering
B. Muriatic acid D. All of these B. Dressing
C. Nitric acid 15. The main difference between a planer and a shaper C. Rounding
D. Sulfuric acid D. Sizing
 22. The cutting angle on a drill for mild steel should be 32. Soda added to water is used for cooling instead of plain A. Flute
A. 39° water because B. Margin
B. 49° A. It reduces the amount of heat generated C. Point
C. 59° B. It improves the finish D. Shank
D. 69° C. It overcomes rusting 42. The tool used for cleaning files is called
23. Which of the following is not a common drill shank D. All of these A. File cleaner
A. Bit 33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59° B. File card
B. Fluted A. The drill will make a larger hole C. File oilstone
C. Straight B. The drill will make a smaller hole D. Scraper
D. Taper C. The hole will take longer to drill and more power is 43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to the geometry of
24. Tapered shanks are used on a large drill presses so that required to drive the drill A. Head of tools only
A. The drill can be centered more easily D. The drill will not center properly B. Power driven tools only
B. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve with a drift 34. The name of a taper shank used to drill is C. Sheet metal cutting tools only
C. The shank can be reground when worn A. Miller D. All cutting tools
D. The shank will not turn when cutting B. Morse 44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting
25. When using a drill press the work should be held with C. Starrett A. Brittle materials
A. The hand D. Stanley B. Ductile materials
B. A gloved hand 35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a C. Amorphous plastic materials
C. A vise or clamp A. Pipe tool D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
D. Pliers B. Pipe stock 45. What is the function of rake angle of a cutting tool?
26. A tool bit for cutting an American National Thread should C. Pipe vise A. To control the chip formation
be ground with a D. Pipe cutter B. To prevent rubbing
A. 30° angle 36. The instrument used for reshaping a grinding wheel that is C. To determine the profile of too
B. 45° angle grounded or cut of round is called D. To determine whether the cutting action is oblique or
C. 60° angle A. Wheel aligner orthogonal
D. 90° angle B. Wheel dresser 46. Back rake angle for a high speed steel point cutting tool to
27. Center drilling is the operation of C. Wheel emery machine free cutting brass is
A. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped of metal D. Wheel cutter A. 0°
B. Drilling and countersinking with a tool 37. The instrument used to remove old packing from packing B. 5°
C. Centering with one tool and drilling with another glands and stuffing boxes are called C. 10°
D. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill press A. Packing tools D. 15°
28. When cutting a drill , it will squeal due to B. Packing bits 47. The chip removal process is called
A. Drill being ground improperly C. Gland box clearance A. Extruding
B. Drill being too hot D. Packing screw B. Forging
C. Insufficient lubrication 38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it should be C. Rolling
D. Any of these A. Center punched D. Broaching
29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for ordinary work is B. Marked with chalk 48. The non chip removal process is called
A. 45° C. Protracted A. Grinding
B. 50° D. Scribed B. Spinning on lathe
C. 59° 39. When measuring a drill for size, measure across the C. Thread cutting
D. 65° A. Flutes D. Drilling
30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at different angles B. Margins 49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to
A. The drill will not cut C. Points A. Reduce the hole diameter
B. The hole will be larger than the drill D. Shanks B. Increase the rake angle
C. The hole will be smaller than the drill 40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on enlarge holes C. Locate in the center punch mark
D. None of these is called a D. Reduce the axial feed pressure
31. If a drill speed is too great, it will A. Drift pin 50. A reamer is used to correct the
A. Cut faster B. Reamer A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
B. Close its temper C. Round out B. Size and position of a drilled hole
C. Out slower D. Protractor C. Finish and position of a drilled hole
D. Not cut 41. The size of a drill is stamped on the D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
TEST 26

1. _____________ to prevent leakage in dynamic seal. 10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if B. Natural abrasive
A. Gaskets A. Lips of drill are of unequal length C. Type of cloth
B. Seals B. Fed is too high D. None of these
C. Packing C. Insufficient coolant is used 20. Grinding is what type of operation?
D. Felts D. Cutting speed is too high A. Metal fusing operation
2. Plus or minus of the tolerance is also called: 11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even B. Metal powdering operation
A. Total Tolerance when their cutting elements get healed up to the temperature C. None of these
B. Unilateral Tolerance of ___________. D. Metal finish operation
C. Bilateral Tolerance A. 1650 C 21. Grinding is done wherever
D. None of these B. 1400 C A. Other machining operations cannot be carried out
3. Is the permissible variation of the size of a dimension. C. 1000 C B. A large amount of materials is to be removed
A. Tolerance D. 1800 C C. High accuracy is required
B. Allowance 12. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with D. None of these
C. Clearance A. Positive back rake angle 22. Laser beam machining process is used to machine
D. Interference B. Neutral back rake angle __________.
4. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take pressure C. Negative back rake angle A. Thicker materials
to put the parts together. The allowance is said to be D. Depth of cutter B. Thinner materials
negative and is termed 13. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by C. Heavier materials
A. Negative tolerance A. Increased sliding viscosity D. None of these
B. Negative allowance B. Increased shear angle 23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive jet machining
C. Negative fits C. Use of low tool finish varies from
D. Interference of metal D. None of these A. 60 to 100 microns
5. It is used in conjunction with circular cross sectional 14. The studs used as a coolant in general machine stop consist B. 10 to 50 microns
members to retain oil and prevent dirt, foreign particles and of C. 1 to 5 microns
moisture and to permit pressure differential between A. A solution of detergent and water D. 110 to 150 microns
exterior and interior of the applied part. B. A straight mineral oil 24. The Young’s modulus of carbide tools is about ________.
A. Seal C. An emulsion of oil and water A. Three times than for steel
B. Gasket D. A chemical solution B. Six times than for steel
C. Safety shield 15. Milling cutter is sharpened on C. Nine times than for steel
D. Packing A. Tool and cutter grinder D. None of these
6. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, normally B. Center less grinder 25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for machining
under dynamic condition. C. Cylindrical grinder holes having a length less than
A. Nylon D. Surface grinder A. Two times their diameter
B. Seal 16. Two major factors, which determine the rpm of milling B. Five times their diameter
C. Teflon cutter, are the material being cut and _________. C. Ten times their diameter
D. Packing A. Number of teeth in cutter D. Fifteen times their diameter
7. Which of the following is not a common term relating to the B. Diameter less grinder 26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding
classification of fits? C. Time allowed to complete the job A. Hard materials
A. Tunking D. Depth of cutter B. Soft materials
B. Snug 17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are used for C. Both hard and soft materials
C. Medium Force Fit _________. D. None of these
D. Bound A. Low and medium pressure 27. The relative motion of work piece in planning is
8. The total permissible variation in the size of a dimension the B. Medium and high pressure A. Rotary
difference between the limits of the size. C. Low and high pressure B. Translator
A. Tolerance D. None of the above C. Rotary and translator
B. Fits 18. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a D. None of these
C. Allowance material having 28. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine the ram
D. Clearance A. High melting point and high thermal conductivity stroke length is proportional to
9. A device used to prevent leakage of media. B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity A. Slotter arm length
A. Seal C. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity B. Crank length
B. Packing D. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity C. Ram length
C. Teflon 19. Energy is a/an D. None of these
D. Graphite A. Artificial abrasive
 29. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick return C. Lateral 43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by preventing
mechanism of shaping machine is D. None of these A. Fuel
A. 3:2 36. The ASA fits are based on the B. Heat
B. 6:8 A. Basic Number System C. Oxygen
D. Any of these
C. 3:1 B. Basic Hole System
44. The square head of a combination set is used for marking or
D. 5:2 C. Basic Size System
checking the engine.
30. The amount of metal removed by honing process is less D. Unit System A. 90° only
than __________. 37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take a force B. 90° and 45°
A. 0.125 mm or pressure to put the cold part together. The allowance is C. 45° only
B. 0.255 mm said to be negative and is termed as: D. Any angle between 0-180°
C. 0.015 mm A. Negative fits of metal 45. Angle plate is made of
D. 0.315 mm B. Positive fits A. Cast steel
31. The type and number of bearing to be used for spindles of C. Interchangeable B. Closed grain cast iron
machine tool depend on D. Interference of metal C. High speed steel
A. Type of spindle 38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities on the surface D. Tool steel
B. Type of machine tool A. Smoothness 46. The eye hole of a hammer head is made in an oval shape and
taper towards center because
C. Load on the bearing B. Lay
A. It is easy for production
D. None of these C. Waviness
B. It is specifically design by experts
32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order _______ in D. Roughness C. It accommodates the handle and a wedge for preventing it
machining work could be permitted. 39. It is the irregularities or departures from the nominal surface D. None of the above
A. -+0.020 of greater spacing than roughness 47. The jaws of a long vice are opened
B. -+0.010 A. Roughness A. Parallel to each other
C. -+0.09 B. Lay B. In V form
D. -+0.05 C. Smoothness C. In both “A” and “B”
33. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be either D. Waviness D. Neither “A” nor “B”
large or smaller than the given dimension. 40. It is the direction of the predominant surface pattern 48. For general work the cutting angle of a cold fist chisel is ground
A. Bilateral A. Lay at an angle of
A. 35°
B. Unilateral B. Roughness
B. 60°
C. Lateral C. Smoothness
C. 70°
D. None of these D. Waviness D. 80°
34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only or 41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in ______ rms. 49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used to old cut because
smaller only, than the given dimension A. 1 A. The blade is very costly
A. Bilateral B. 8 B. The blade has very sharp teeth
B. Unilateral C. 16 C. The space is not sufficient to play the new blade in the
C. Lateral D. 32 old cut
D. None of these 42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed D. None of these
35. _________ are generally used on those dimensions involved A. 80 rms 50. Which part of the file is not hardened
in a fit B. 200 rms A. Body
A. Bilateral C. 400 rms B. Heel
C. Point
B. Unilateral D. 500 or greater rms
D. Tang

TEST 27 A. To finish the job to a fine degree of accuracy C. Emery

1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut s verified B. To get high quality of surface finish D. Silicon carbide
A. Changing its inclination C. To control the size 25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken from
B. Changing the convexity of the cutting edge D. All of these A. Diameter of wheel
C. Changing its weight 14. In which method a bore is finished to a very close tolerance B. Bore size
D. None of thesE A. Lapping C. Width of face
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of B. Honing D. All of these
A. Left hand C. Grinding 26. Which center is used for supporting open end of pipes,
B. Right hand D. Turning shells etc. while turning or thread cutting in a lathe
C. Straight 15. Jig bushing are generally made of A. Ball center
D. None of these A. Mild steel B. Half center
3. In which screw thread the side = width of flat = width of B. Cast iron C. Female center
space = 0.5p is termed as C. Brass D. Pipe center
A. Acme D. Tool steel 27. When outside diameter of a job is turned in relation to the
B. Buttress 16. Fixture clamps are generally made of internal hole, the job should be held
C. Knuckle A. High carbon steel A. In three jaw chuck
D. Square B. Case hardened mild steel B. Between center
4. A stud is one which: C. High speed steel C. On face plate
A. Has threads on one end D. Alloy steel D. On lathe mandrel
B. Inserted in a plane hole 17. Successfully designing of jigs and fixtures depend upon 28. The included angle of a dead center is
C. Requires a nut A. Clamping arrangement A. 30°
D. None of these B. Tool guiding elements B. 45°
5. 18-8” stainless steel means: C. Manufacturing conditions C. 60°
A. 18% Tungsten and 8% Chromium D. All of these D. 90°
B. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel 29. Main alloying element to H.S.S is
C. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium 18. When an external gear is meshed with an internal gear the A. Chromium
D. 18% Chromium and 8% Cobalt gears will rotate in B. Tungsten
6. Which is the lightest metal A. Opposite direction C. Vanadium
A. Aluminum B. Same direction D. Nickel
B. Cast iron C. Will not rotate 30. The value of one micron is
C. G. I. sheet D. None of these A. 1.00 mm
D. Lead 19. While soldering the flux is used because B. 0.10 mm
7. Hardened steel parts have A. It assists for quick melting and increasing the fluidity C. 0.001 mm
A. Coarse grain of solder D. 0.001 mm
B. Fine grains B. It saves the part from oxidation 31. For the accurate measurement of bores , the best instrument
C. Medium grains C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces is
D. None of these D. All of these A. Vernier caliper
8. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be checked by 20. A usual ration of soluble oil and water used in coolant is B. Inside micrometer
A. Dial test indicator A. 1:10 C. Plug gauge
B. Outside micrometer B. 1:20 D. Dial test indicator
C. Vernier caliper C. 10:1 32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar takes the place of
D. Tube micrometer D. 20:1 A. Opposite side
9. Which micrometer has no anvil 21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist drill increases, B. Adjacent side
A. Depth micrometer then cutting speed will C. Hypotenuse
B. Outside micrometer A. Decrease D. Height
C. Screw thread micrometer B. Increase 33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metals is removed at
D. Digit micrometer C. Same A. Lower speed
10. Which micrometer is available with extension rods D. None of these B. Higher speed
A. Outside micrometer 22. An advance motion along the longitudinal axis of a twist C. Average speed
B. Inside micrometer drill is called D. None of these
C. Screw thread micrometer A. Speed 34. In a shaper the cutting speed (metric) is expressed in
D. Combi micrometer B. Feed A. Meter per minute
11. Which gauge is used to check the internal threads C. Cutting speed B. Meter per second
A. Plug gauge D. None of these C. Meter per hour
B. Ring gauge 23. In internal cylindrical grinding, the grinding wheel and the D. None of these
C. Thread plug gauge work rotate in 35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper is increased by taking
D. Thread ring gauge A. Sam direction the crank pin
12. Limit gauge is made to the _________ sizes of the work to B. Opposite direction A. At the center of crack disc
be measured C. Neither A or B B. Towards the center of crack disc
A. Actual and nominal D. Both A and B C. Away from the center of crack disc
B. Minimum and maximum 24. For grinding materials having low tensile strength which D. none of these
C. Nominal and lower limit abrasive is used 36. In a shaper the feed (metric) is usually expressed in
D. Nominal and upper limit A. Corrundum A. mm/ stroke
13. Lapping is done B. Aluminum oxide B. mm/revolution
 C. meter/minute C. The middle of return stroke A. Longitudinal
D. none of these D. The end of return stroke B. Cross
37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the _________ tool is use 42. Which of the following quick return mechanisms is most C. Rotary
A. form widely used in most of the slotters D. All of thesE
B. “V” shape A. Slotter linl and gear mechanism 47. Divided table planer has
C. Round nose B. Slotter disc mechanism A. One table
D. Gooseneck C. Hydraulic mechanism B. One housing
38. Shaper tool bit should not exceed in tool holder beyond D. Whitworth mechanism C. Two tables
A. 5mm 43. In a slotter the cutting speed depends upon D. Two housing
B. 15mm A. Material to be cut 48. In a planer the feed is provided
C. 25mm B. Material of the slotter tool A. At forward stroke
D. 50mm C. Finish required B. At return stroke
39. The standard ratio of cutting in return stroke in shaper is D. All of these C. In between forward stroke
A. 3:1 44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for machining D. In between return stroke
B. 1:3 A. Concave surface 49. In a planer the cutting speed depends upon
C. 2:3 B. Conical surface A. Material of job, material of tool and feed rate
D. 3:2 C. Flat surface B. RPM of ball gear
40. A tipped tool is more useful than H.S.S. tool because D. Convex surface C. Depth of cut
A. It can resist more heat 45. The clamping block to be used in a slotter to support the end D. None of these
B. It can keep the cutting point sharp of the strap is made of 50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool because it has
C. Cutting speed can be increased A. H. S. S. A. Less front and side clearance
D. All of these B. High carbon steel B. More front and side clearance
41. The feed in shaper takes place at C. Lead C. Less rake angle
A. At the beginning of return stroke D. Wood D. More rake angle
B. The beginning of cutting stroke 46. The table of the slotter has feeding movements
TEST 28 D. After each double stroke C. Ruler
15. Which of the following conditions may cause error during D. Trammel
1. A planer which has a cutting action in both strokes in knurling 31. Which of the following has its angle 30° and is used for
A. Surface speed too low giving impression on soft metals?
A. Open side planer
B. Clamped length and toll too short A. Center punch
B. Double housing planer
C. Too much longitudinal feed
C. Pit planer B. Dot punch
D. Unnecessary support with tool stock center
D. universal planer C. Prick punch
16. Mark the milling method during which the formation of chatter
2. the straddle milling is done by means of two: marks is very likely:
D. Hollow punch
A. side milling cutters A. During down cut milling with a straight tooth cutter 32. Which of the following has its angle 60° and is used for
B. plain milling cutters B. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter dotting after marking the lines on general works?
C. face milling cutters C. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter A. Center punch
D. form cutters D. When using spiral tooth cutter B. Dot punch
3. in a standard dividing head the ration between the worm 17. Taps are re-sharpened by grinding C. Hollow punch
wheel and the worm is A. Threads D. Prick punch
B. Flutes 33. Which of the following has its angle 90° and is used to give
A. 10:1
C. Diameter deep marks to the location of drill
B. 20:1
D. Relief
C. 30:1 A. Center punch
18. Grinding fluids are used to
D. 40:1 B. Dot punch
A. Reduce the friction between the wheel face and the job
4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches in 27 holes circle will C. Hollow punch
B. Lubricate
index: C. Prevent loading of wheel D. Prick punch
A. 1° D. All of these 34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for making holes
B. 4° 19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to: A. Center punch
C. 2° A. Make the outside diameter concentric with the bore B. Dot punch
D. 6° B. Make the sides of the wheel parallel C. Hollow punch
5. There are two different movements of the crank in: C. Equalize the weight in very portion of the wheel D. Prick punch
A. Simple indexing D. None of these 35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for the manufacture of
20. A grinding wheel which has got the marking °C, is made with surface plate
B. Compound indexing
the abrasive A. It is easy for machinery
C. Differential indexing
A. Aluminum oxide
D. Angular indexing B. It is cheaper
B. Silicon carbide
6. In a vertical milling machine the spindle is attached C. It has less wear and tear
C. Combination of A and B
________ to the work table D. Corrundum D. All of these
A. Horizontal 21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding 36. The common measuring tools are
B. Angular A. Rubber A. Steel rule
C. Vertical B. Shellac B. Vernier caliper
D. None of the above C. Silicate C. Micrometer
7. Planer type milling machine is built up for __________ D. None of these D. All of these
work of: 22. Which kind of bond is commonly used 37. It is an operation of stretching or spreading over the metal
A. Vitrified by means of the plane of the hammer
A. Heavy duty
B. Rubber A. Peening
B. Light duty
C. Shellac
C. Medium duty B. Swaging
D. Silicon
D. None of these C. Bending
23. The grade is of grinding wheel depends upon:
8. In a straddle milling operation how many cutters are used to A. Grain size
D. Upsetting
mill the work B. Hardness of bond 38. The good quality of a measuring tool
A. One C. Kind of abrasive A. Should be easy to handle
B. Two D. Structure B. Should be easy to read
C. Three or more 24. One of the causes of grinding wheel glazing is C. Should be wear resistance
D. Any one of these A. Grain size is too fine D. All of these
9. For gear cutting which cutter is used B. Wheel is hard 39. The flatness of surface can be checked
C. Wheel speed is too fast A. By using a straight edge
A. End mill cutter
D. “A” and “B” both B. By using a surface plate
B. Form relief cutter
25. Which of the following is used in cleaning the gage blocks
C. Plain milling cutter C. By using a dial test indicator
before and after use
D. All of these D. All of these
A. Brush
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______ different feeds 40. It is an operation in which round rod is placed between the
B. Chamois leather or linen cloth
A. One C. Cotton waste top and bottom swages and hammered to remove the bends
B. Two D. None of these and marks
C. Three 26. Internal and external taper on cylindrical jobs are ground in A. Bending
D. None of these A. Plain cylindrical grinding machine B. Peening
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5°, the lip (wedge) angle B. Universal cylindrical grinding machine C. Swaging
in 75°, the rake angle will be C. Internal grinding machine D. Upsetting
D. Centerless grinding machine 41. A notching/ holding device which is used to hold, or grip
A. 10°
27. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with the up cut and work place while filing, chipping or any other bench work
B. 70°
down cut process
C. 80° or when machining or drilling them
A. Side milling cutter
D. None of these A. Vise
B. Shell and milling cutter
12. The approximate hardness of HSS end mill cutter is: B. Clamp
C. Semi – circular milling cutter
A. 45 HRC D. Plain milling cutter C. Grip
B. 52 HRC 28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between centers in D. Pressed
C. 62 HRC cylindrical grindings? 42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to remove material
D. 72 HRC A. The job will be out of round from metallic non- metallic work places to match
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to support B. The job will be oversize withdrawing shape and size
A. Arbor C. The job will be thrown out A. Cold chisel
B. Spindle D. The job will not rotate B. File
C. Column 29. Where does the relieved cutters are reground C. Hacksaw
D. Table A. On the circumstances D. none of these
14. Where does the feed motion takes place in a slotting B. Relieved cutters are not reground 43. a side cutting tool used for accurately finishing the straight
machine C. On the flank or tapered holes already drilled or bored
A. During the cutting motion D. On the side faces A. Reamer
B. After each forward stroke 30. Used for scribing large radius of circles and arcs B. Swaging
C. At the end of the return motion A. Compass C. Peening
B. Protractor
 D. Tapping B. Cotter 49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5 % carbon either in
44. A device used to fix two or more parts C. Key combined form or in free state
A. Jigs D. Clamp A. Wrought iron
B. Fixtures 47. The process of extracting iron in a blast is called B. Cast iron
C. Fastener A. Sintering C. Pig iron
D. Clamp B. Smelting D. Gray iron
45. A machine element inserted parallel to the axis of a shaft C. Casting 50. Which of the following furnace is used for manufacture of
A. Fastener D. Manufacturing cast iron
B. Cotter 48. Which of the following is a product of blast furnace A. Cupola furnace
C. Key A. Wrought iron B. Crucible furnace
D. None of these B. Cast iron C. Electric furnace
46. A machine element inserted at right angle to the axis shaft is C. Pig iron D. all of these
known as D. Gray iron
A. Fastener
TEST 29 A. Basic size A. Universal coupling
B. Actual size B. Flexible coupling
C. Nominal size C. Rigid coupling
1.) A product of padding furnace, which contains less than
D. Effective size D. Oldham coupling
0.10% carbon, is called
17.) The size in relation to which all limits of variation is made. 34.) What is used to connect the shafts whose axes are intersecting
A. Wrought Iron A. Actual size A. Rigid coupling
B. Cast Iron B. Basic size B. Oldham coupling
C. Pig Iron C. Effective size C. Flexible coupling
D. Gray cast Iron D. Nominal size D. Universal coupling
2.) Which of the following is a property of wrought iron? 18.) The relation between two mating parts with reference to ease the 35.) It is generally used on high speed with light load because it has
A. Ductile assembly is called point contact
B. Brittle A. Allowance A. Ball bearing
C. Cannot be forged B. Clearance B. Roller bearing
D. Can be easily cast into different shapes C. Tolerance C. Metal bearing
D. Fits D. Wood bearing
3.) Which of the following gives greater hardness, cutting
19.) Two extreme permissible sizes of a dimension 36.) It is generally used on high speed with heavy load because it has
toughness and fine grain structure?
A. Boundary line contact
A. Chromium
B. Limits A. Plastic bearing
B. Nickel C. Tolerance B. Metal bearing
C. Tungsten D. Allowance C. Roller bearing
D. Vanadium 20.) __________ is the difference between the high and low limit of D. Ball bearing
4.) Which of the following gives greater hardness, cutting size 37.) It is a process by which the length of a work place is increased
toughness and resistance to wear and tear? A. Clearance by reducing its cross section area.
A. Chromium B. Allowance A. Drawing out
B. Tungsten C. Tolerance B. Drifting
C. Nickel D. Fits C. Jumping
D. Vanadium 21.) It is the intentional difference in the sizes of mating parts D. Upsetting
A. Allowance 38.) It is a process by which the length of a work piece is reduced
5.) Which of the following raises the tensile strength, protects
B. Clearance A. Upsetting
from corrosion and improves wearing property?
C. Limits B. Drawing out
A. Cobalt C. Drifting
D. Tolerance
B. Nickel 22.) It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical surfaces to a D. Jumping
C. Molybdenum fine degree of accuracy 39.) Refers to the process of bulging on one end of a work piece to
D. Tungsten A. Lapping bring a required shape
6.) ___________ gives greater hardness and resistance to B. Shaping A. Bending
forging and drawing C. Planing B. Upsetting
A. Molybdenum D. Honing C. Drifting
B. Vanadium 23.) It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical surfaces to a D. Jumping
C. Tungsten fine degree of accuracy by means of abrasive sticks 40.) It is a process of enlarging and smoothening the punched hole by
A. Lapping means of tapered drifts of various sizes and shapes
D. Cobalt
B. Planing A. Drifting
7.) __________ improves the cutting quality and gives
C. Shaping B. Jumping
excellent magnetic property in the steel C. Drawing out
D. Honing
A. Cobalt 24.) It is a device, which hold the job in position and guide the cutting D. Upsetting
B. Molybdenum tool. 41.) It is a machine tool used to remove metal from a work piece to
C. Nickel A. Clamp give it the required shape and size
D. Chromium B. Jig
8.) It is an operation involving heating and cooling of metals to C. Vise A. Drill press
change the properties D. Grip B. Lathe
A. Annealing 25.) It is a device, which hold the job firmly C. Shaper
B. Nitriding A. Clamp D. Planer
B. Grip 42.) It is a set of gears fitted in different positions on a plate, which
C. Tempering
C. Fixture are controlled by a lever
D. Heat Treatment
D. Jig A. Gear train
9.) It is a process to impact maximum hardness to the steel part.
26.) The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer of the driver B. Stud Gear
A. Hardening C. Tumbler Gear
and driven pulleys within the area of arc of contact is called
B. Tempering A. Slip D. Differential Gear
C. Annealing B. Creep 43.) It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool according to the
D. Normalizing C. Crowning rotation of lead screw or by hand traversing wheel
10.) It is a process to reduce some brittleness and to induce some D. Dressing A. Apron
toughness in the steel part 27.) If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, _________ slips down. B. Compound rest
A. Case Hardening A. Creep C. Saddle
B. Normalizing B. Crowning D. Mandrel
C. Dressing 44.) It acts the carriage or compound rest through the mechanism
C. Annealing
D. Slip lifted inside the __________
D. Tempering
28.) It is the outer surface of face or rim of the pulley and made in A. Saddle
11.) It is a process to soft the steel part by removing the internal
convex form to keep the belt in center when it is in motion B. Apron
stress C. Compound
A. Crowning
A. Normalizing B. Dressing D. Mandrel
B. Annealing C. Creep 45.) It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, cross feed or angular
C. Tempering D. Slip feed
D. Hardening 29.) To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is poured in A. Compound rest
12.) It is process to make the steel part to its normal range between the outer surface of pulley and belt for increasing at B. Apron
A. Annealing tension. This process is known as C. Saddle
B. Normalizing A. Crowning D. Carriers
C. Case Hardening B. Dressing 46.) A holding device used to hold the job properly when turning the
D. Tempering C. Creep outer surface truly with the finished hole called
13.) It is the process for making the outer surface harder of the steel D. Slip A. Clamp
parT 30.) It is used to transmit motion at high speed without producing B. Fixture
A. Flame Hardening noise C. Jig
B. Hardening A. Bevel gears D. Mandrel
C. Case Hardening B. Hypoid Gears
D. Carburizing C. Helical Gears 47.) The center that is fitted in headstock spindle called
14.) It is a case hardening process by which the carbon content of the D. Worm Gears A. Dead Center
steel near the surface of a part is increased 31.) It is used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy load B. Live Center
A. Nitriding without producing noise C. Above Center
B. Tempering A. Worm gear D. Below Center
C. Carburizing B. Herring bone gear 48.) A center, which is fitted in tailstock spindle called
D. Flame Hardening C. Bevel gear A. Dead Center
15.) It is a case hardening process in which work piece is heated in a D. Spur gear B. Live Center
stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C 32.) It is used to connect and disconnect the driving and driven units C. Above Center
A. Carburizing A. Brake D. Below Center
B. Nitriding B. Spring 49.) It is a machine tool used to produce flat surfaces, which may be
C. Tempering C. Clutch horizontal, vertical or inclined
D. Normalizing D. Coupling A. Planer
16.) The size by which it is referred to as a matter of convenience 33.) It connects the shafts with soft materials such as rubber, leather B. Slotter
called and canvas C. Shaper
 D. Milling B. Top rake
50.) Which of the following gives shearing action C. Side clearance
A. Slide rake D. Front clearance
TEST 30 16.) The angle formed between the face of a tool and the work A. 0.10% to 0.50%
surface or tangent to the work at a point of contact with the B. 0.70% to 1.5%
tool called C. 3% to 7%
1.) What supports the top rake?
A. Clearance angle D. 5% to 10%
A. Front Clearance
34.) It is done to decrease the brittleness and to increase the toughness
B. Side Clearance B. Cutting angle
A. Annealing
C. Slide Rake C. Rake angle
B. Normalizing
D. None of these D. Wedge angle C. Tempering
2.) What supports for free feeding 17.) It is a device, which is used to change the shape of a piece D. Nitriding
by removing material in the form of chips 35.) Ratchet stop is attached with micrometer to measure the accurate
A. Side rake A. Cutting tool reading by applying _______ pressure irrespective of users skill
B. Side clearance B. Machine tool and strength
C. Front clearance C. Chisel A. Atmospheric
D. Top rake D. Hacksaw B. Gage
18.) The angle formed the face and the normal to the work piece at C. Uniform
3.) Which of the following reduces the rubbing action?
the point of contact with the tool D. Variable
A. Front clearance
A. Clearance angle 36.) A hole, which is drilled for a particular size of a tap, is called
B. Side clearance
B. Cutting angle A. Drilling hole
C. Slide rake B. Reaming hole
C. Wedge angle
D. Top rake D. Rake angle C. Tapping hole
4.) It is a type of reciprocating type machine tool used for 19.) The angle formed between the face and the clearance surface D. Plugging hole
machining flat, cylindrical, and irregular surfaces. A. Wedge angle 37.) A ___________ gage is used to check the clearance between the
A. Planer B. Rake angle mating parts
B. Shaper C. Clearance angle A. Feeler
C. Slotter D. Cutting angle B. Plug
D. Lathe 20.) The angle formed between the clearance surface and the work C. Tap
5.) Which of the following is used for all general purposes? surface or the tangent to the work piece at the point of contact D. Dial
with the tool 38.) A __________ gage is used to check the size of hole/bore
A. Production process
A. Clearance angle A. Feeler
B. Puncher slotter
B. Wedge angle B. Plug
C. Tool room slotter C. Tap
C. Rake angle
D. None of these D. Dial
D. Cutting angle
6.) A machine tool used for large construction 21.) The best method of avoiding accident is by observing 39.) The difference between the high limit and the low limit of a size
A. Planer __________ related to job, machine and work piece. is called
B. Shaper A. Emery A. Allowance
C. Slotter B. Opponent B. Clearance
D. Lathe C. Safety precautions C. Boundary
7.) It is a machine tool used to machine plane curved surfaced, D. Cleanliness D. Tolerance
slots, grooves, teeth, with fast rotating multipoint cutter 22.) The size of try square is measured from the inner edge of stock to 40.) An intentional difference between the hole and the shaft
the end of its _______. dimension for any type of fit is called
A. Milling
A. Base A. Allowance
B. Planer
B. Blade B. Clearance
C. Shaper C. Tolerance
C. Edge
D. Grinder D. Range
D. Body
8.) It is also known as conventional milling in which the 23.) Angle of center punch is 41.) The material for taps should always be _________ than the
rotation of the cutter is in the direction opposite to the A. 30° material of part to be tapped
direction of the table movement B. 45° A. Harder
A. Down-milling C. 60° B. Shorter
B. Up-milling D. 90° C. Softer
C. Standard milling 24.) Mallets are made of ________. D. Longer
D. Gang milling A. Hardwood 42.) Jigs are generally used for holding the job and __________ the
B. Soft wood tool
9.) It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation of the
C. Steel A. Support
cutter and the movement to the table is in the same direction
D. Cast iron B. Guide
A. Gang milling
25.) The size of the bench vise is measured from the ______ of its C. Control
B. Down milling D. Regulate
jaws
C. Up milling A. Width 43.) Measuring and other selling methods can be eliminated by using
D. Straddle milling B. Length _________ and fixtures
10.) It is an operation of milling the complex surfaces with the C. Thickness A. Guide
help of a group of cutters mounted on the same arbor D. Curvature B. Support
A. Gang milling 26.) For cutting oil grooves in bearing _____ chisel is used C. Jigs
B. Straddle milling A. Full round nose D. Structure
C. Climb milling B. Half round nose 44.) When two or more tools are to be used through the same hole
C. Square nose then __________ bushes are used in jigs
D. Down milling
D. Rectangular A. Positive slip
11.) It is an operation of milling two opposite sides of work
27.) Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both sides alternatively is B. Negative slip
piece at a time by using two side milling cutters on the same
called C. Friction
arbor D. Slip
A. Positioning to teeth
A. Gang milling 45.) The __________ gears are used for changing the plane direction
B. Arrangement of teeth
B. Straddle milling C. Setting of teeth A. Spur
C. Side milling D. None of these B. Helical
D. Face milling 28.) The size of a flat file is measured from ________ to heel of the C. Worm
12.) It is an attachment to the milling machine, which helps to file D. Bevel
divide the job periphery into a number of equal divisions A. Edge 46.) Solder is an alloy of _________
A. Index B. Base A. Lead and zinc
B. Dividing head C. Tip B. Lead and tin
D. Body C. Lead and tungsten
C. Slotting
29.) The triangular scraper has _______ sharp cutting edges D. Lead and antimony
D. Universal spiral
A. One 47.) Flash point is the __________ at which the sufficient vapor is
13.) It is an operation to produce narrow slots or grooves using a given off from the oil without actual setting fire to the oil
B. Two
slitting saw milling cutter A. Gage temperature
C. Three
A. Saw milling D. Four B. Lower temperature
B. Form milling 30.) Reamer should also be turned in _________ direction when C. Higher temperature
C. End milling taking it out D. Absolute Temperature
D. Side milling A. Same direction 48.) When hard material is to be drilled, the cutting angle of the drill
14.) It is an operation to produce irregular contours using a form B. Opposite direction should be _____ 118°
cutter C. Clockwise direction A. Less than
A. Face milling D. Counterclockwise B. Equal to
31.) It is the distance measured to the axis from a point on a screw C. More than
B. Form milling
thread to the corresponding point on the next thread D. Either more than or less than
C. Side milling
A. Lead 49.) If the taper shank of the drill is too large as compared to the
D. End milling spindle hole, the __________ is used.
B. Pitch
15.) It is an operation to divide the periphery of the job into A. Drill socket
C. Linear
number of equal parts accurately D. Chord B. Planer
A. Dividing head 32.) Cupola furnace is used to produce _______. C. Electric drill
B. Indexing A. Cast iron D. Copping saw
C. Slotting B. Cast steel 50.) What is the lip clearance angle of twist drill for generated work?
D. None of these C. Aluminum A. 3 – 6°
D. Stainless steel B. 8 – 10°
33.) Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is C. 12 – 15°
D. 18 – 22°

TEST 31 C. Planer D. Milling Shaper

D. Engine Lathe 3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-flat an-toured
1. A machine for shaping a work piece by gripping it in a holding 2. A machine for the removal of metal by feeding a work piece surfaces by reciprocating a single-point tool across the work piece.
device and rotating it under power against a suitable tool for through the periphery of a rotating circular cutter. A. Planer
turning, boring facing or threading. A. Milling Machine B. Shearing machine
A. Shaper B. Milling Planer C. Shaper
B. Lathe C. Milling Cutter D. Slab cutter
 4. It is the machine used for shaping of long, flat or flat contoured D. Beater mill C. Traveling head
surfaces by reciprocating the work piece under a stationary single- 18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises a coarse-pitch D. Static head
point tool or tools. screws sliding in a threaded tube with a handle at the end of the device is 34. The stroke positioning lever is located on the _________ of shaper.
A. Planer operated by pushing the handle called A. Lever
A. Automatic capacity B. Table
B. Shaper
B. Automatic drill C. Ram
C. Lathe
C. Automatic regulator D. Chunk
D. Turret Lathe D. Automatic stocker 35. The length of a shaper stroke is the length of the job plus
5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or plastic by pushing 19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the work is synchronized _________.
or pulling a broaching across a surface or through an existing hole with the press action. A. Displacement
in a work piece. A. Dial press B. Tolerance
A. Planning B. Punch press C. Allowance
B. Shaping C. Automatic press D. Clearance
C. Broaching D. Manual press 36. Rocker arm is a _______ part of shaper
D. Milling 20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and either rotates with the A. Oscillating
6. It is a device, usually motor-driven, fitted with an end cutting wheel to transmit mechanical power to or from it, or blows the wheel to B. Reciprocating
rotate freely on it is called C. Moving
tool that is rotated with sufficient power either to create a hole to
A. Shaft D. Running
enlarge an existing hole in a solid material.
B. Axle 37. In a shaper, the _______ strokes takes place.
A. Drill jigs
C. Bushing A. Backward
B. Drill press D. Coupling B. Forward
C. Drill chuck 21. A portable sanding tool having a power-driven abrasive coated C. Return
D. Drilling machine continuous belt is called D. Cutting
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine internal work such as A. Bench sander 38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _______ stroke.
cylinders, holes in castings, and dies, types are horizontal, vertical B. Belt heightener A. Cutting
jig, and single. C. Gear sander B. Return
A. Boring machine D. Belt sander C. Backward
B. Broaching machine 22. A machine for bending a metal or wood part by pressure is known as D. Forward
C. Drilling machine A. Pressing machine 39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the ______ stroke.
B. Bending machine A. Backward
D. Boring mill
C. Forming machine B. Cutting
8. It is a milling method in which parts placed in a row parallel to
D. Shaping machine C. Forward
the axis of the cutting tool end are milled simultaneously. D. Return
A. Abreast milling 23. A machine, which simultaneously molds and cures a pneumatic tire 40. Generally, shaper is used for machining ________ surfaces.
B. Angular milling is called A. Curve
C. Helical milling A. Bladder press B. Flat
D. None of these B. Crank press C. Rough
9. A core drill with hardened steel shot pellets that revolve under C. Automatic press D. Smooth
the rim of the rotating tube, employed in rotary drilling in every D. Manual press 41. Shaper tools are made of
hard ground. 24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as A. Mild steel
A. Automatic drill A. Crochet file B. Cast iron
B. Cross cut file C. High speed steel
B. Double core barrel drill
C. Equaling file D. Wrought iron
C. Flat drill
D. Blunt file 42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool ground with ______ rake
D. Adamantine Drill 25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the probability of edge angle.
10. The part of a machine for wood planning that carries the chipping is referred to as A. Negative
cutters. A. Broaching B. Positive
A. Adz stock B. Butting C. 30°
B. Adz block C. Blunting D. 45°
C. Head stock D. Bleaching 43. Which of the following best describe a milling machine?
D. Heel block 26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces is called: A. It is a machine equipment
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either lumps of ore, A. Boring bar B. It is a machine tool
pebbles, or steel balls as crushing bodies the dry lead is swept to B. Boring mill C. It is a machine device
C. Broaching machine D. It is a machine apparatus
remove mesh material.
D. Corrugated bar 44. The quick return mechanism is slotter is provided in order to save
A. Aero fall mill
27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool used particularly for the time in ________ stroke.
B. Aero motor
large work piece, types are horizontal and vertical? A. Backward
C. Aerial speed A. Boring mill B. Forward
D. Ball mill B. Burrstone mill C. Cutting
12. A tool-steel cutter used for finishing surfaces of angles greater C. Cage mill D. Return
or less than 90° with its axis of rotation is called ________. D. Chile mill 45. An arbor is used to _______ an drive the milling cutter.
A. Circular cutter 28. A flat-ended twist drill designed to convert a cone at the bottom of a A. Guide
B. Helical cutter drilled hole into a cylinder is called B. Hold
C. Angle cutter A. Churn drill C. Control
D. Asphalt cutter B. Core drill D. Support
13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at an angle to the axis of C. Bottoming drill 46. A puncher slotter is used for ______ stock removal.
the spindle of the milling machine called D. Spiral drill A. Light
A. Hammer milling 29. A tap with a chamfer 1-1½ threads in length B. Heavy
B. Helical milling A. Center tap C. Small
C. Angular milling B. Bottom tap D. Large
D. Circular milling C. Taper tap 47. Snagging is the form of ________ grinding.
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinder wheel for mounting it on an D. Plug tap
arbor. 30. A small portable hand drill customarily used by hand setters to drill A. Hard
A. Hole saw holes in breast called B. Rough
B. Arbor hole A. Diamond drill C. Soft
C. Star drill B. Spiral drill D. Smooth
C. Churn drill 48. Carbide and ceramic tools are ground on ______ grinding wheel.
D. Peep hole
D. Breast drill A. Fine grain
15. A machine used for forcing an arbor or a mandrel into drilled or
31. In _________ type shaper, the reciprocating movement of the arm is B. Hard
bored parts preparatory to turning or grinding
affected by means of a rack and pinion. C. Soft
A. Automatic press
A. Gear D. Diamond
B. Bladder press
B. Thread 49. The term ________ means that particle of metal are adhering to the
C. Arc press
C. Screw cutting faces of the grinding wheel.
D. Arbor press
D. Bolt A. Loading
16. A solids grinder and the product is a fine powder
32. In hydraulic shaper the reciprocating movement of the arm is B. Feeding
A. Atomizer mill
obtained through ______ pressure. C. Rating
B. Autogenous mill
A. Mercury D. Grinding
C. Attrition mill
B. Oil 50. In ________ jaw chuck each jaw can be adjusted independently.
D. Ball mill
C. Water A. Five
17. A machine in which material are pulverized between two toothed
D. Alcohol B. Two
metal disks rotating in opposite directions.
33. A job, which is fixed away from the table, can be machined by C. Three
A. Attrition mill
A. Running head D. Four
B. Tumbling mill
B. Moving head
C. Ball mill
TEST 32 B. Micrometer B. Fixtures
C. Profilometer C. Jigs
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along D. Scleroscope D. Chuck
the swivel table and is clamped in position by two bolts one 4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding 7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap.
on either side of the base. wheel touching the work being ground. A. Fluting
A. Foot stock A. Area of contact B. Flaring
B. Head stock B. Arc of contact C. Lapping
C. Tail stock C. Angle of contact D. Honing
D. Cross stock D. Contact ratio 8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel
2. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of 5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the wheel is resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is called.
materials by a drop and rebound method. mounted A. Grinding
A. Scleroscope A. Bushing B. Glazing
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester B. Arbor C. Fluting
C. Universal Testing Machine C. Bearing D. Lapping
D. Brinell Hardness Tester D. Fluting 9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed
3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface 6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or as
roughness in micro inches. the working piece being grounded. A. Honing
A. Caliper A. Head stock B. Tumbling
 C. Snagging C. Bronze C. 1400°C
D. Truing D. Brass D. 1800°C
10. The process of increasing the cross-sectional area of a 23. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to the side in a 37. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with:
given portion or possibly of the whole piece. direction perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. A. Positive back rake angle
A. Side rake angle B. Neutral back rake angle
A. Forging
B. Side cutting edge angle C. Negative back rake angle
B. Upsetting
C. Side relief edge angle D. None of these
C. Spreading D. End relief angle 38. The point angle of twist drill to machine is
D. Drawing 24. A type of bonding material, which is made of clay and water. A. 112°
11. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while the A. Resinoid bond B. 116°
cross-sectional area is being reduced. B. Vitrified bond C. 118°
A. Tapping C. Shellac bond D. 120°
B. Honing D. Rubber bond 39. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine gray cast iron
C. Drawing 25. The process of producing an extremely accurate highly finished is
D. Upsetting surface. A. 10-20 m/min
12. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony. A. Lapping B. 15-25 m/min
B. Buffing C. 20-30 m/min
A. Bearing
C. Polishing D. 25-40 m/min
B. Babbit
D. Honing 40. The recommended value of rake angle for machining
C. Iconel
26. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and toll aluminum with cutting tools made up of diamond tool.
D. Tantanium marks are removed with a polishing wheel. A. 0°
13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin. A. Honing B. 15°
A. Tallow B. Lapping C. 35°
B. Sal ammonia C. Polishing D. 45°
C. Tinning D. Buffing 41. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to machine aluminum
D. Rosin 27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of the is
14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and machine when drilling. A. 140-200 m/min
zinc. A. Drill chuck B. 160-220 m/min
A. Soldering pastes B. Chuck key C. 180-240 m/min
C. Floating holder D. 200-260 m/min
B. Muriatic acid
D. Magic chuck 42. The major factors, which determine the rpm of milling cutter,
C. Zinc chloride
28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting are the material being cut and the ________.
D. Cut acid A. Brittle materials A. Number of teeth in cutter
15. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling B. Ductile materials B. Diameter of cutter
depressions into the surface. C. Amorphous plastic materials C. Time allowed to complete the job
A. Honing D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only D. Depth of cutter
B. Knurling 29. The rake angle of a cutting tool. 43. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by
C. Snagging A. Controls the chip formation A. Increasing sliding
D. Reaming B. Prevents rubbing B. Increased shear angle
16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads C. Determine the profile of load C. Use of low tool finish
or teeth, chip passage and lubrication. D. Determine the whether the cutting action is oblique or D. None of these
orthogonal 44. The studs used as a coolant machine shop consists of
A. Heel
30. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool to machine A. Solution of detergent and water
B. Land
free cutting brass is B. A straight mineral oil
C. Flute A. 0° C. An emulsion of oil and water
D. Thread relief B. 5° D. A chemical solution
17. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a C. 10° 45. The recommended value of rake angle for machine aluminum
cutting tool. D. 15° with cutting tools made up of high speed steel tool.
A. Tapping 31. In the list of process given below, the chip removal process is A. 5°
B. Reaming the B. 10°
C. Chamfering A. Die casting C. 15°
D. Honing B. Extruding D. 35°
18. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing C. Forging 46. Milling cutter is sharpened on
D. Broaching A. Tool and cutter grinder
solid metal.
32. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to B. Cylindrical grinder
A. Knurling
A. Reduce the hole diameter C. Centerless grinder
B. Reaming
B. Increase the rake angle D. Surface grinder
C. Boring C. Locate in the center punch mark 47. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a
D. Drilling D. Reduce the axial pressure material having
19. The surface below the cutting edge 33. In the list of process given below, the non-chip removal A. High melting point and high thermal conductivity
A. Face process is B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity
B. Flank A. Grinding C. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity
C. Nose B. Spinning on lathe D. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity
D. Side relief C. Thread cutting 48. A process can be considered as a hot working process if the
20. The surface below over which the chip flows. D. Milling material is heated
A. Face 34. A reamer is used to correct the A. Below recrystallization temperature
B. Flank A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole B. Above recrystallization temperature
C. Nose B. Size and position of a drilled hole C. Below normal temperature
D. None of these C. Finish and position of a drilled hole D. Above normal temperature
21. It measures the downward slope of the top surface of the tool D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole 49. Grinding is
from the nose to the rear along the longitudinal. 35. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if A. Metal fusion operation
A. Side cutting edge angle A. Lips of drill are of unequal length B. Metal powdering operation
B. End relief angle B. Feed is too high C. Metal finishing operation
C. Side rake angle C. Insufficient coolant is used D. None of these
D. Back rake angle D. Cutting speed is too high 50. Grinding is done wherever
22. Which one is the hardness material? 36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even when A. Other machining operation cannot be carried out
A. Steel their cutting elements get heated up to a temperature of B. A large amount of material is to be removed
B. Diamond A. 1650°C C. High accuracy is required
B. 1000°C D. None of these
TEST 33 A. Two times their diameter D. 3:5
B. Five times their diameter 12. The amount of metal removed by honing process is less than
1. The recommended value of the rake angle for machining C. Ten times their diameter A. 0.125 mm
aluminum with cutting tools made up of cemented carbide tool D. Twenty times their diameter B. 0.225 mm
A. 5° 7. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding C. 0.325 mm
B. 10° A. Hard materials D. 0.425 mm
C. 15° B. Soft materials 13. In ECM process thermal current requirement is
D. 25° C. Both materials A. 100 amps/cycle of work piece area
2. Laser beam machining process is used to machine D. None of these B. 200 amps/cycle of work piece area
A. Thicker materials 8. The relative motion of work piece in planning is C. 500 amps/cycle of work piece area
B. Thinner materials A. Rotary D. 800 amps/cycle of work piece area
C. Heavier materials B. Translatory 14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode) and work piece
D. Stronger materials C. Rotary and translator (anode) in ECM process is
3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet machining varies D. None of these A. 30-50 V
from 9. The accuracy obtained by the grinding process can be of the B. 60-90 V
A. 60 to 100 microns order of C. 3-20 V
B. 10 to 50 microns A. 0.25 mm D. None of these
C. 1 to 5 microns B. 0.025 mm 15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is approximately
D. 20 to 40 microns C. 0.0025 mm related to arbor diameter (d) as
4. In collet, the included angle of taper is usually D. 0.00025 mm A. D=1.5d to 2d
A. 10° 10. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine, the ram stroke B. D=2.5d to 3d
B. 20° length is proportional to C. D=4.5d to 6d
C. 30° A. Slotter arm length D. D=5.5d to 8d
D. 40° B. Crank length 16. The type and number of bearings to be used for spindles of
5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill _________ materials C. Ram length machine tool depend on the
A. Soft D. None of these A. Type of spindle
B. Hard 11. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick return B. Type of machine tool
C. Thin mechanism of shaping machine is C. Load on the bearing
D. Thick A. 3:2 D. None of these
6. Twist drills are made usually considered suitable machining B. 3:1 17. HSS cutting tools are generally provided with
holes having a length less than C. 3:4 A. Positive rake angle
 B. Negative rake angle B. Annealing B. Reaming
C. Positive cutting edge angle C. Tempering C. Counter boring
D. Negative cutting edge angle D. Nitriding D. Center drilling
18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools are usually 30. It is used to measure gap between two mating parts to set the 41. It is the operation of beveling the mouth of a hole
provided with job and machine in alignment and to measure clearance of piston A. Counter sinking
A. Positive rake angle and cylinder in automobiles. B. Counter boring
B. Negative rake angle A. Compound gauge C. Spot facing
C. Positive cutting edge angle B. Feeler gauge D. Counter boring
D. Negative cutting edge angle C. Inspection gauge 42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring the surface
19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction guide ways is: D. Workshop gauge around the hole
A. High 31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer surface of A. Reaming
B. Low the driver and driven pulleys within the area of arc of contact. B. Counter sinking
C. Medium A. Slip C. Spot facing
D. None of these B. Creep D. Counter boring
20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for steel tools is used for C. Interference 43. The size of abrasive grains produced by crushing process is
taking D. Crowning called
A. Light cuts 32. The temperature at which an oil gives off sufficient vapor A. Grade
B. Heavy cuts without actually setting fire to the oil. B. Grit
C. Medium cuts A. Flash point C. Peebles
D. None of these B. Fire point D. None of these
21. At very low cutting speeds the tool wear is due to C. Pour point 44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and other alloying
A. Plowing action D. Cloud point elements.
B. Transfer 33. It is the process by which the length of a work piece is reduced. A. Cast iron
C. Material A. Drawing B. Brass
D. Temperature B. Drifting C. Carbon steel
22. Are mixture of lard, cotton seed or rape-seed oils and mineral C. Jumping D. Alloy steel
oils. D. Upsetting 45. The main purpose of ________ is to resist wear and unable it to
A. Cutting oils 34. It cannot be forged because it will break if heated and beaten cut the other metal.
B. Cooling oils by hammer A. Tempering
C. Heating oils A. High speed steel B. Hardening
D. Emulsion B. Tool steel C. Quenching
23. How is aluminum work piece marked? C. Carbon steel D. Normalizing
A. Ball pen D. Cast iron 46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials should be
B. Lead pencil 35. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing the punched hole by ________ that for drilling hard materials.
C. Crayon means of tapered drifts of various sizes and shapes. A. Less than
D. Chalk A. Drifting B. Equal to
24. How is the height of a bench vice adjusted? B. Drawing C. More than
A. By using a wooden plate form C. Upsetting D. Zero
B. By using a wooden packing piece under the vice base D. Jumping 47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling
C. By using a vice adjusting fixture 36. It is the process by which the length of a work piece is A. Form milling
D. All of these increased by reducing its cross-sectional area. B. Climb milling
25. What is the material of hacksaw blade? A. Flattening C. Convex milling
A. High carbon steel B. Drawing out D. Plain milling
B. High speed steel C. Swaging 48. In _______ the tool is released in return stroke.
C. Low tungsten steel D. Jumping A. Shaper
D. Any of these 37. Shaper tools are made up of what type of material? B. Planer
26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull? A. Brass C. Slotter
A. Coarse pitched blade is used on hard metal B. Bronze D. Reamer
B. Too much speed and pressure C. High speed steel 49. It is the process of driving the periphery of the job in degrees.
C. Pressure is not released in return stroke D. Babbit A. Direct indexing
D. Any of these 38. A _________ is reciprocating type tool used for machining flat, B. Plain indexing
27. Files are classified according to cylindrical and irregular surfaces. C. Differential indexing
A. Size or length A. Shaper D. Angular indexing
B. Shape B. Planer 50. It is also known as conventional milling in which the rotation
C. Grade and cut C. Puncher of the cutter is in a direction opposite to the direction of the table
D. All of these D. Slotter movement.
28. How are rivets made? 39. An operation to enlarge the previous drilled hole A. Down milling
A. Cold pressing A. Drilling B. Up milling
B. Rolling B. Boring C. Straddle milling
C. Drawing C. Reaming D. Gang milling
D. None of these D. Broaching
29. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is heated in 40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact center for lathe
a stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C. center.
A. Quenching A. Broaching
TEST 34 A. Ball bearing A. Lubricant
B. Roller bearing B. Coolant
1. It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation of the C. Plain bearing C. Water
cutter and the movement of the table is the same direction. D. Needle Bearing D. Alcohol
A. Down milling 8. CNC in machine shop means 15. Which of the following is NOT a function of bearings
B. Up milling A. Computer Number Control A. To support the shaft
C. Straddle milling B. Computer Numerical Control B. To guide the shaft
D. Gang milling C. Communication Network Control C. To give free rotation to the shaft
2. The _______ is a machine tool used to remove metal from a D. Computer Network Center D. To transmit power
work piece to give it the required shape and size. 9. It is the time lost due to break downs, waiting for tools, minor 16. It is a process of cleaning the face of grinding wheel by means
A. Shaper accident etc. of a dresser for removing the glazing and loading of wheel and to
B. Planer A. Set up time improve the cutting action of a wheel.
C. Lathe B. Handling time A. Dressing
D. Grinder C. Machining time B. Polishing
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical surfaces. D. Down time C. Truing
A. Centerless grinding 10. Refers to the process of separating or removing the burning of D. Lapping
B. Plunge-cut grinding combustible material from the neighborhood of the fire. 17. What should be the top rake angle to cut brass?
C. Through feed grinding A. Starvation A. 0°
D. None of these B. Blanketing B. 15°
4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge and the longitudinal C. Cooling C. 30°
axis of the tool. D. None of these D. 45°
A. Side cutting edge angle 11. When does a chisel get blunt 18. It is a long, tapered punch used for loosening straight pins,
B. End cutting edge angle A. When it is properly heat treated rivets and other small parts being disassembled.
C. Side relief angle B. When it is not properly heat treated A. Drive-pin punch
D. End relief angle C. When it is properly tempered B. Hand punch
5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to produce a lustrous D. When it is not properly tempered C. Drift punch
surface of attractive appearance. 12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance? D. Center punch
A. Polishing A. It saves the labor charges 19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts.
B. Buffing B. It saves the material from wastage A. Plier
C. Lapping C. It saves the time B. Wrench
D. Glazing D. All of these C. Long nose
6. It consists of surface irregularities, which result from the various 13. It is done then and there by adjusting or repairing the faults D. C-Clamp
manufacturing process. come in notice during the work. 20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines on metal being
A. Lay A. Preventive maintenance laid out.
B. Waiveness B. Predictive maintenance A. Divider
C. Flaws C. Routine maintenance B. Scriber
D. Roughness D. Corrective maintenance C. Trammel
7. A _________ is formed when a shaft rotates in a bush, lines of 14. A __________ is used between the cutting tool and work piece D. Hermaphrodite caliper
the bore of a housing. to minimize the friction heat. 21. A ______ is used to be test the accuracy of holes
 A. Snap gage C. Depth of engagement A. Packing
B. Ring gage D. Axis of thread B. Gasket
C. Plug gage 31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail C. Shield
D. Depth gage A. Ball crank D. Seal
41. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts
22. A _________ consists of hardened and ground steel bar in B. Clamp plates
A. Tensile range
which two hardened and ground of the same diameter are set. C. Plunger knob
B. Torque wrench
A. Caliper D. None of these C. Hooke’s gauge
B. Gage block 32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is guided in perfect D. Spring balance
C. Sine bar alignment by the machine dovetailed surfaces. 42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web deflection.
D. Micrometer A. Over arm A. Feeler gage
23. A _________ consists of a slide and swivel vise mounted on B. Spindle B. Compound gage
the compound rest in place of the tool post. C. Arbor C. Distortion gage
A. Milling attachment D. Saddle D. Dial gage
B. Relieving attachment 33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is bolted to the top of the 43. A device used for accurately measuring diameters.
C. Grinding attachment table of a plain or universal milling machine. A. Dial gage
A. Slotting attachment B. Feeler gage
D. Reaming attachment
B. Rotary attachment C. Caliper
24. ________ are hardened steel devices with a taper shank on one
C. Milling attachment D. Micrometer
end and a 60 degree point at the other end.
D. Spiral attachment 44. It is used to true and align machine tools, fixtures and works.
A. Tailstock centers A. Dial indicator
34. The process of removing burrs and the gates and risers left on
B. Lathe centers casting after the molding process. B. Radial indicator
C. Live centers A. Reaming C. Dial gage
D. Dead centers B. Snagging D. Feeler gage
25. It is a work holding device C. Honing 45. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a
A. Arbor D. Knurling hole, as for a recess for a flattened screw.
B. Mandrel 35. The __________ supports the table on the cross rail and moves A. Counter boring
C. Jigs across it from left to right. B. Counter sinking
D. Fixtures A. Apron C. Reaming
B. Bearing D. Drilling
26. The cutting of groove nest to a shoulder on a piece of work
C. Spindle 46. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could be adjusted
A. Undercutting
D. Handle separately.
B. Necking A. Independent chuck
36. Name of mechanism, which a welding operator holds during gas
C. Grooving B. Combination chuck
welding and at the end of which the gages are burred to perform the
D. Any of these various gas welding operation. C. Magnetic chuck
27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at a specified angle A. Hose D. Universal chuck
of the end of a turned diameter. B. Torch 47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals.
A. Chamfering C. Gage A. Planer
B. Knurling D. Switch B. Shaper
C. Honing 37. A tool used for measuring diameters. C. Power saw
D. Undercutting A. Protractor D. Broaching machine
B. Scriber 48. It is used for external, internal and relieving of mill cutters and taps
28. It is a large casting located on the left end of the bed.
C. Caliper A. Milling attachment
A. Tailstock
D. Compass B. Thread attachment
B. Headstock C. Taper attachment
38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used for sharpening edged tools.
C. Carriage D. Relieving attachment
A. Oilstone
D. Chuck B. Surface grinder 49. It is the stretching or spreading of metal by hammering
29. A ___________ is a thread that has a lead equal to the pitch. C. Rocky oil A. Peening
A. Right hand thread D. None of these B. Flaring
B. Left hand thread 39. Device used to prevent leakage of media. C. Upsetting
C. Single thread A. Gasket D. Bending
D. Multiple head B. Seal 50. The _______ is the most common of the standard tapers.
30. The distance between the crest and the brace of the thread, C. Shield A. Brown
D. Stopper B. Jarno
measured perpendicular to the axis.
40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids normally under C. Sharpe
A. Depth of thread
dynamic conditions. D. Morse
B. Length of engagement
TEST 35 A. Annealing B. Silicon brass
B. Normalizing C. Admirally brass
1. What is the lightest known metal? C. Tempering D. Navy brass
A. Mercury D. Quenching 18. A problem-by product used as an electrode in an electric arc
B. Steel 10. A good general purpose deoxidizer which promotes fine grain furnace melting operations is called:
C. Chromium in steel A. Anthracite coke
D. Aluminum A. Copper B. Foundry coke
2. Material having a high electrical resistance and should not be B. Magnesium C. Graphite electrodes
used as conductor of electrical current. C. Molybdenum D. Bituminous coke
A. Magnesium D. Silicon 19. Which of the following does not affect the tensile strength of
B. Copper 11. Treatment process that produces a residual compressive stress steel?
C. Nickel at the surface and residual tension on the inside that results in A. Sulfur
D. Iron considerable increase in fatigue strength for members on torsion / B. Cobalt
3. The property that characterizes a material ability to be drawn bending is known as: C. Phosphorus
into a wire is known as: A. Partial quenching D. Boron
A. Plasticity B. Heavy oil quenching 20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load / stress will eventually fail
B. Elasticity C. Quenching if the load / stress is above the endurance for the steel under
C. Ductility D. Shallow quenching consideration. The endurance limit of the steel is:
D. Utility 12. The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical A. Equal to the allowable stress of the module of elasticity
4. Stress relieving is also _________ for the purpose of reducing connection or commutator wires as it tends to corrode the B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength
the internal stress of steel material / metal. connections. C. Equal to module of elasticity
A. Quenching A. Sal ammoniac D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit
B. Normalizing B. Zinc chloride 21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of _______ rms.
C. Tempering C. Stearing A. 1
D. Drawing D. Acid fluxes B. 2 to 8
5. A carbon content in the range of ______ in steel readily 13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks and major C. 1 to 3
responds to heat treatment. impacts is due to its: D. 2 to 5
A. 0.35 to 0.40% C A. Toughness 22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion resistant
B. 0.28 to 0.30% C B. Stiffness designation.
C. 0.18 to 0.25% C C. Ductility A. SAE 56xx
D. 0.12 to 0.15% C D. Machinability B. SAE 514xx
6. It indicates how many times a volume of material is heavier than 14. The application of electrical current to the corrosion circuit to C. SAE 61xx
an equal volume of water. counter the corrosion reaction is called: D. SAE 9xx
A. Specific gravity A. Cathodic protection 23. Non-metallic material of high melting temperature being used
B. Specific volume B. Sacrificial anodes method as furnace lining.
C. Specific weight C. Chemical corrosion process A. Quartz bricks
D. Specific density D. Galvanic action B. Refractories
7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum steel designation SAE 15. A major component of cast steel is: C. Silica sand
______ A. Silicon D. Dolomite clay bricks
A. 81xx B. Iron 24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the molten
B. 74xx C. Manganese ferrous metal.
C. 94xx D. Chromium A. Silicon
D. 64xx 16. Normally, cast iron contains 2% carbon or more and silicon in B. Aluminum
8. Moment of inertia is also called _______ the range of ______%. C. Oxides
A. Modulus of elasticity A. 1 to 3 D. Sulfur
B. Weep strength B. 1 to 4 25. Silicon – manganese steel designation, SAE ________.
C. Radius of gyration C. 2 to 3 A. 72xx
D. None of these D. 1 to 6 B. 40xx
9. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated to 17. The material for engine radiation is usually made of C. 92xx
a very high temperature then suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to _________. D. 9xx
improve hardenability of wear resistance is called: A. Yellow brass 26. Cold drawing is also called:
 A. Hard drawn A. SAE C. Shill casting
B. Oxidized steel B. AISI D. Heat treatment
C. Cold lap steel C. SEA 43. Used as cast condition steel casting with carbon content less that
D. Strain hardening D. ASTM __________ % C.
35. It is the ability of the material of resist deformation under stress. A. 0.26
27. The brittleness in steel elevated temperature is known as:
A. Plasticity B. 0.15 to 0.18
A. Hard drawn
B. Stiffness C. 0.20
B. Cold lap C. Toughness D. 0.25
C. Red shortness D. All of these 44. Liners are normally made of:
D. Residual stresses 36. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel? A. Cast iron
28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its former form / A. High speed steel B. Alloyed bronze
condition upon release of force is called: B. Tool and die C. Alloyed steel
A. Plasticity C. Low carbon D. Alloyed aluminum
B. Modulus of elasticity D. High carbon 45. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous metals is called:
C. Ductility 37. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the A. Cupola furnace
D. Elastic limit yield point is B. Crucible furnace
known as: C. Induction furnace
29. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum –
A. Plasticity D. Tempering furnace
chromium – nickel?
B. Elasticity 46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals.
A. 48xx
C. Creep A. Annealing furnace
B. 47xx D. Ductility B. Tempering furnace
C. 46xx 38. Killed steel is always associated with: C. Induction furnace
D. 45xx A. Silicon D. Normalizing furnace
30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with: B. Manganese 47. All are associated with standard material specified except ________.
A. Aluminum C. Phosphorous A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. Tin D. Sulfur B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Zinc 39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting. C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
D. Manganese A. Manganese D. American Society for Testing Materials
31. A metal which has a high electrical conductivity but should not B. Silicon 48. The ability of metal to be deformed considerable without rupture is
C. Aluminum called:
be used for high temperature.
D. All of these A. Malleability
A. Silicon
40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is: B. Elasticity
B. Zinc A. Columbium C. Ductility
C. Chrome Alloy B. Titanium D. Plasticity
D. Carbide C. Tantalum 49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without fracture is
32. It improves red hardness of steel. D. All of these called:
A. Chromium 41. Metals are conductive because: A. Malleability
B. Cobalt A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and therefore mobile B. Elasticity
C. Boron B. Having characteristics luster C. Ductility
D. Lead C. They are on the left side of the periodic table D. Plasticity
33. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum? D. They are on the left side of the periodic table 50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high temperature
A. SAE 2xxx D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally possible application.
B. SAE 3xxx balance state A. Tungsten
C. SAE 4xxx 42. The yield strength of the rectangular yellow brass 65 tp 70% Cu, 30 B. Molybdenum
D. SAE 5xxx to 35% Zn can be increased / improved by _____. C. Chromium
34. Which does not belong to the group? A. Cold working D. All of these
B. Tempering
TEST 36 12. What is the property of a material which resists forces C. SAE 1030
acting to pull the material apart? D. SAE 4130
1. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself A. Shear strength 23. Heating of metal above the critical temperature and then
A. Zinc B. Tensile strength cooling slowly usually in the furnace to reduce the hardness
B. Antimony C. Torsional strength and improve the machinability is called:
C. Babbit D. Compressive strength A. Normalizing
D. Lead 13. What is the difference between brass and bronze? B. Annealing
2. The smallest area at a point of rupture of a tensile specimen A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze C. Tempering
divided by the original area is called: is composed of copper and tin D. Quenching
A. Percentage elongation B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze 24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being
B. Izod test is basically copper and tin plus non-ferrous alloy heated to a very high temperature then suddenly subjected
C. Charpy test such as manganese, aluminum and chromium to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance
D. Percentage reduction of the area C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a mixture is called:
3. All are associated with the grade of steel except: of copper and antimony A. Normalizing
A. SAE 43xx D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin while B. Tempering
B. SAE 13xx brass is a mixture of copper and antimony C. Annealing
C. SAE 10xx 14. A liquid metal is called _________ D. Quenching
D. SAE 74xx A. Mercury 25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment
4. Cold working of steel plates make the metal B. Lead A. SAE 1060
A. Tougher C. Zinc B. SAE 1117
B. More ductile D. Aluminum C. SAE 1030
C. Harder 15. Which of the following elements when large quantity is D. SAE 1020
D. More malleable harmful to the ferrous metal? 26. A form of correction that develop on a highly localized area
5. The property that characterizes the material’s ability to be A. Sulfur on a metal surface
drawn into a wire is called: B. Silicon A. Crevice
A. Ductility C. Zinc B. Erosion
B. Thermal conductivity D. Aluminum C. Galvanic
C. Tensile strength 16. It has molybdenum alloy except: D. Apitting
D. Endurance limit A. SAE 43xx 27. The deterioration of organic coating characterized as
6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel is: B. SAE 41xx completely _________
A. 200 to 300°F C. SAE 6xxx A. Chalking
B. 400 to 500°F D. SAE 5xxx B. Rusting
C. 300 to 400°F 17. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature application C. Checking
D. 450 to 550°F A. Manganese-nickel steel casting D. Fritting
7. Most effective alloying element for reducing brittleness of B. High chrome steel casting 28. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid and will
steel at very low temperature C. Chrome-nickel steel casting run is known as ______
A. Manganese D. High manganese casting A. Melting point
B. Molybdenum 18. What heat treatment process can cast steel materials of high B. Flow point
C. Silicon chrome high manganese etc. be subjected for the purpose C. Pour point
D. Nickel machining process? D. Dew point
8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and elasticity A. Annealing 29. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on
significantly of about what temperature? B. Tempering the heat-transfer surface
A. 900-1000°F C. Normalizing A. Low line
B. 800-900°F D. Quenching B. Pressure drop
C. 700-850°F 19. Galvanized steel plate is: C. Fouling
D. 600-700°F A. Aluminum D. Scaling
9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what B. Tin 30. Steel containing large amounts of mild nickel and
minimum chromium content is required? C. Zinc chromium
A. 8% D. Manganese A. Carbon steel
B. 4.3% 20. Major component of bronze casting is: B. Stainless steel
C. 1.1% A. Copper C. Alloy steel
D. 5.8% B. Manganese D. Cast steel
10. A material that should be avoided in constructing wood C. Zinc 31. The corrosion of iron or iron-base alloy
pattern is: D. Lead A. Rusting
A. Sap wood 21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion B. Crazing
B. Kin dried wood and wear that is usually ideal for mill grinding of ore or C. Chalking
C. Heart wood cement and concentrator application. It is usually combined D. Fritting
D. Core portion of wood with molybdenum to increase the depth hardening. 32. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent to a crevice formed
11. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such that A. Manganese chromium steel by contact with another piece of the same or another metal
the metal is converted to an oxide or other compounds B. Chromium-moly steel is called:
A. Corrosion C. Chromium-nicke-moly steel A. Galvanic
B. Cheeping D. Manganese-moly steel B. Pitting
C. Rusting 22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material available in the C. Erosion
D. Weathering market with carbon content of 0.28 to 0.4? D. Crevice
A. SAE 4132 33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony or sometimes lead
B. SAE 4320 A. Gold
 B. Babbit C. Malleable iron 46. The property of steel which resist indention of penetration
C. Aluminum D. Lead iron is called
D. Cast iron 40. Which of the following is not used to temper steel? A. Hardness
34. The cheapest and most abundant engineering material is A. Oil bath B. Elasticity
________ B. Brine/salt bath C. Ductility
A. Aluminum C. Steam bath D. None of these
B. Steel D. Water bath 47. The ability of metal to stretch bend or twist without
C. Cast iron 41. Which of the following metals is easy to chisel? breaking or cracking is called
D. Babbit A. Alloy steel A. Elasticity
35. They are usually steel or steel casting B. Manganese steel B. Ductility
A. Mild steel C. Stainless steel C. Brittleness
B. Carbon steel D. Cast iron D. Plasticity
C. Fire box steel 42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of 48. The ability of material to return to its original shape after
D. Drop-forge-dies A. Manganese being elongated or distorted when the forces are released is
36. An iron has physical properties closely resembling those of B. Carbon called
mild steel called C. Sulfur A. Elasticity
A. Malleable cast iron D. Phosphorus B. Brittleness
B. Malleable iron 43. Which of the following is not a classification of iron core? C. Plasticity
C. White iron A. Siderite D. Creep
D. Gray iron B. Hematite 49. Material usually ceramics employed where resistance to
37. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically C. Sulfurite very high temperature is required as for furnace linings and
combined with the iron is called D. Magnetite metal melting pots is called
A. Cast iron 44. Stainless steel is obtaining principally by the use of which A. Bricks
B. Gray iron of the alloying element? B. Insulator
C. White iron A. Chromium C. Refractories
D. Malleable iron B. Nickel D. Clay
38. Which of the following metal is non-magnetic? C. Carbon 50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity used to
A. Manganese steel D. Tungsten prevent or escape of electric current from conductors
B. Cast steel 45. Which of the following metals will respond to heat A. Bricks
C. Alloy steel treatment? B. Insulators
D. Cast iron A. Cast iron C. Refractories
39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron? B. Wrought iron D. Composite
A. Gray iron C. Medium carbon steel
B. White iron D. Low carbon steel
TEST 37 14. A fine grained salty silica rock used for sharpening A. Annealing
edge tools. B. Hardening
1. Hardening the surface of the iron-based alloys by C. Tempering
heating them below the melting point in contact with a A. Eutectoid D. Stress relieving
carbonaceous substance. B. Austenite 27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is
A. Carburizing C. Oilstone A. To increase hardness
B. Normalizing D. Pearlite B. To increase strength and ductility if added up to
C. Mar tempering 15. A highly transparent and exceedingly hard crystalline 10-30 %
D. Hardening stone of almost pure carbon is called C. To impact free machining properties
2. A special metal formed when two or more metals are A. Gold D. To improve hardness and strength
melted together. B. Diamond 28. Polyesters belong to the group of:
A. Monel C. Bronze A. Phenolics
B. Alloy D. Crystalline B. Thermoplastic plastics
C. Solder 16. A common deoxidizer and cleanser of steel forming C. Thermo setting plastics
D. Hastalloy oxides and sulfates that are carried off in the slag D. All of these
3. Subjecting a substance to a high temperature below the A. Manganese 29. The imperfection in the crystal structure is metal is
fusion point usually to make it friable. B. Carbon known as:
A. Calcinations C. Tungsten A. Dislocation
B. Fusion D. Sulfur B. Fracture
C. Boiling 17. An alloy of copper, tin and small amount of C. Impurity
D. Super heating phosphorous D. Slip
4. Substances having sufficient carbon and/or hydrogen A. Chromium 30. The most important element that controls the physical
for chemical oxidation to produce exothermally, B. Bronze properties of steel is:
worthwhile quantities of heat. C. Brass A. Carbon
A. Lubrication D. Aluminum B. Chromium
B. Graphite 18. The material used in high speed processes. C. Silicon
C. Grease A. High speed D. Tungsten
D. Fuels B. Chromium 31. The process commonly used over thermo-plastic
5. The principal materials used in high production metal C. Cast iron materials is:
working tools D. Carbon steel A. Cold forming
A. Hyper-eutectoid 19. A material that can wear away a substance softer than B. Die casting
B. High speed steel itself is called C. Injection molding
C. Lead A. Abrasive D. Shell molding
D. High speed carbon B. Corrosive 32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is called the
6. The softening of metal by heat treatment and most C. Tungsten A. Body centered cubic space lattice
commonly consist of heating the metal up to near D. Alloy B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
motion state and then cooling it very slowly 20. The process of heating a piece of steel to a temperature C. Face centered cubic space lattice
A. Annealing within or above critical range and cooling rapidly. D. None of these
B. Indexing A. Normalizing 33. A unit cell contains nine atoms is known as the
C. Knurling B. Hardening A. Body centered cubic space lattice
D. Soldering C. Annealing B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
7. The operation of cooling a heated piece of work D. Tempering C. Face centered cubic space lattice
rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or oil. 21. The process of checking or producing checkers on the D. None of these
A. Quenching surface of a piece by rolling checkered depression into 34. A knoop intender is a diamond ground to a
B. Annealing the surface called __________.
C. Tempering A. Knurling A. Cylindrical form
D. Normalizing B. Hemming B. Needle form
8. A metallic element and only metal that is liquid at C. Breading C. Prismoidal form
ordinary temperature. D. Embossing D. Pyramidal form
A. Aluminum 22. A material used in softening a piece of metal that is too 35. Which of the following timber is used for sports
B. Mercury hard to machine and is done by heating steel slowly goods?
C. Zirconium above the usual hardening temperature keeping it at A. Deodar
D. Zinc the heat for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly, B. Mahogany
9. A metallic element of copper-tin alloy preferably in a furnace C. Mulberry
A. Aluminum A. Broaching D. Sal
B. Brass B. Quenching 36. Super conductors
C. Bronze C. Normalizing A. Are non-crystalline
D. Chromium D. Annealing B. Are the purest forms of metal
10. An alloy of copper and zinc 23. A manganese steel containing approximately 0.20% C. Are the densest of materials is
A. Aluminum carbon D. Exist at the temperature below 10K
B. Brass A. SAE 1320 37. Select the one that has the highest specific gravity
C. Bronze B. SAE 1230 A. Aluminum
D. Chromium C. SAE 2340 B. Brass
11. Which of the following is not a classification of an D. SAE 4230 C. High carbon steel
iron ore? 24. Heating to some 100F above the transformation range D. Lead
A. Hematite with subsequent cooling to below that range in still air 38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the material used
B. Magnetite at room temperature to produce uniform structure of with lead to reduce the risk of seizure is
C. Sulfurite metal is termed as A. Iron
D. Siderite A. Annealing B. Silver
12. A soft yellow metal, know since ancient times as a B. Hardening C. Tin
precious metal which all materials values C. Normalizing D. Zinc
A. Solid’s D. Tempering 39. Age-hardening is related with:
B. Bronze 25. Heating to a sub-critical temperature about 1,100F to A. Cast iron
C. Gold 1300F and holding at that temperature for a suitable B. Duralumin
D. Austenite time for the purpose of reducing internal residual C. German silver
13. An amorphous solid may be fusing silica with a basic stresses is called D. Stainless steel
oxide A. Annealing 40. Which of the following has the highest specific
A. Pearlite B. Hardening strength of oil structure materials?
B. Rock C. Tempering A. Chromium alloys
C. Silicon D. Stress relieving B. Magnesium alloys
D. Glass 26. Reheating to a temperature below the transformation C. Titanium alloys
range, followed by any desired rate of cooling to attain D. None of these
the desired properties of the metal
 41. Addition to lead and bismuth to aluminum will A. The alloying elements present C. 7-10
produce: B. The carbon content D. 15-22
A. An improvement of casting characteristics C. The chemical composition 48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron makes ____
B. An improvement of corrosion resistance D. The grain size A. It brittle
C. One of the best known age and precipitation 45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100% pearlite is known B. It easily machinable
hardening system as: C. It hard
D. An improvement in machinability A. Austenite D. The casting unsound
42. Hastalloy contains: B. Eutectoid 49. The hardness of steel increase if it contains
A. Aluminum and nickel C. Hyper-eutectoid ___________
B. Copper and aluminum D. Solidous A. Austenite
C. Nickel and copper 46. Substance that can increase the machinability of steel B. Pearlite
D. Nickel and molybdenum A. Phosphorous C. Stalactite
43. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break B. Phosphorous and aluminum D. Martensite
A. By forming a bulge C. Silicon and sulfur 50. Which onwe is different from the group?
B. By shearing along oblique plane D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum A. Cyaniding
C. In a direction along the direction of load 47. Compressive strength of a gray cast iron in tone per B. Nitriding
D. Into large number of piece cm2 is of the order of: C. Flame hardening
44. The maximum hardenability of any steel depends on A. 3-5 D. Electroplating
__________ B. 5-7

TEST 38 A. Creep D. 2%
B. Fatigue strength 33. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and cone
1. The process of increasing the carbon content to surface C. Hardness formation is observed with _______.
of steel by exposing it to hot carbonaceous material D. Resilience
A. Cast iron
above the transformation of 1650 to 1750 F 18. A ductile fracture is characterized by
A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to B. Cast steel
A. Carbonitriding C. Glass
B. Case hardening propagation of crack
B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces D. Mild steel
C. Carburizing
D. Induction hardening C. Negligible deformation 34. Kerosine is used as coolant, while machining which
2. In the SAE identification code of steel shafting, the 3 rd D. Rapid rate for crack propagatio material?
th
and 4 digits represents the content of: 19. ____ of metals wherein strength of metal is increased A. Aluminum
A. % of manganese in the steel and the ductility increases the heating at a relatively
B. Cast iron
B. % of alloy low temperature after cold working
A. Cluster C. Mild steel
C. % of carbon content D. Stainless
D. % of chromium in the steel B. Screw dislocation
C. Solid solution hardening 35. One of the following materials is commonly used for
3. It is associated with nickel steel
A. Magnesium D. Strain aging bearings.
B. Lead 20. The material recovers its original dimensions when the A. Aluminum
C. Columbium load is removed, it is called: B. Gun metal
D. Tin A. Annealed
C. Steel
4. A non-magnetic steel is: B. Brittle
C. Elastic D. Zinc
A. Nodular iron 36. Babbit metal is an alloy of
B. Manganese steel D. Plastic
21. A body having identical properties all over is called: A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead
C. Tungsten-molydenum steel
D. All of these A. Ductile B. Copper, zinc and tin
5. At small quantity, this alloy is effective for B. Elastic C. Iron and tungsten
improvement strength at high temperature C. Homogenous D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorous
A. Chromium D. Isentropic
37. The bed of machine tool is normally made of
B. Manganese 22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change A. Alloy steel
C. Selenium B. Cast iron
D. Molybdenum B. Stages at which further heating does not
increase temperature for sometime C. Medium carbon steel
6. Consist of carbon and alloy used in production of
precision work tools C. Stages at which properties do not change with D. Mild steel
A. Chrome-manganese increase in temperature 38. The main constituent molding sand is
B. Titanium D. There is nothing like points of arrest A. Carbon
C. High speed steel 23. Delta iron occurs at:
B. Clay
D. Chrome-molybdenum A. Temperature above melting point
B. Temperature between 1400°C and 1539°C C. Graphite
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of heating the cold
C. Temperature between 1000°C and 1400°C D. Silicon
pressed metal powder is called:
A. Deposition D. Room temperature 39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to
B. Granulation 24. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range A. Increase ductility
C. Precipitation A. Between 910°C and 1400°C B. Increase fatigue strength
D. Sintering B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C C. Increase hot hardness
8. Electro-forming is especially valuable for C. Near melting point
D. Room temperatue D. Increase wear resistance
A. Decorative items 40. During cold working metals are worked
B. Good conductors of electricity
A. Below room temperature
C. Non-ferrous components 25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of B. Below the melting point
of:
accuracy and internal surface finish C. Below their recrystallization temperature
A. Below 723 oC
9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting D. Below 200 o
B. 700 – 910 oC
A. Must possess considerable fluidity 41. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color
C. 1000-1440 oC
B. Must not be free from hot shortness and
C. Must have iron as one of the constituents D. 1400-1539 oC
A. Dousing in cold water
a. Must be light 26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous
B. Cooling slowly in water
10. In carbon steel castings melting process is made of:
A. The percentage for alloying elements is C. Dousing in oil
A. Low carbon steel
controlled D. Dousing hot water
B. Medium carbon steel
B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7% to 42. Tool steel can be hardened by
C. High carbon steel
2% A. Heating red hot and plunging into water
D. Copper
C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7% B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry
D. None of the above 27. A silver refers to
C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or
11. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its A. The pointed location spot silver plated.
cotton seed oil
pressure in cast iron reduces the ability of the iron to B. The point on an instrument dial a reading
retain carbon in chemical combination D. Any of the above, depending on type and use
beyond which may be dangerous for the system.
A. Aluminum 43. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal
C. The temperature at which silver melts.
B. Carbon A. Harder
D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid
C. Silicon B. Medium hard
D. Sulfur silver and liquid silver at normal atmospheric
C. Softer
12. Cyaniding is the process of pressure.
D. Shiny
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment 28. Piston compression rings are made of:
44. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal
of steel to increase its surface hardness A. Aluminum
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath A. Harder
B. Bronze
C. Obtaining cyanide salts B. Softer
C. Cast iron
D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts C. Less brittle
D. White metal
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of D. More brittle
A. Cast iron 29. One of the materials used for making surface plate is
45. A scriber is made of
B. High speed steel A. Brass
A. Carbon steel
C. Forged steel B. Granite
D. Mild steel B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Stainless steel
14. A cold chisel is made of C. Hot-rolled steel
D. Wood
A. Cast iron D. Tool steel
30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon.
B. High carbon steel 46. Knurling is done to
A. 0.05 to 0.30
C. High speed steel A. Polish material
D. Mild steel B. 0.30 to 0.80
B. Roughen material
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is C. 0.80 to 1.30
C. Sharpen the material
A. 0.02% D. 2 to 4
B. 0.30% D. Smoothen the material
31. Tungsten in high speed imparts which of the following
C. 0.63% 47. Muntz metal contains which of the following alloys?
characteristics?
D. 0.80% A. Copper – nickel
A. Corrosion resistance
16. Machining properties of steel can be improved by B. Copper – zinc
B. Ductility
adding: C. Copper – tin
A. Chromium, nickel C. Red hardness
D. Copper – aluminum
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium D. Shock resistance
48. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus 32. High carbon steel has a carbon content of:
D. Vanadium,aluminum up of:
A. 0.05 to 1 %
17. The ability of a material to absorb energy when A. Clad material
B. 0.8 to 2 %
deformed elastically and to return to it when unloaded B. Composite material
C. 1 to 3 %
is known as C. Homogenous material
 D. Heterogenous C. Dynamic load B. Mirror
49. In testing the material for endurance strength, it is D. Completely reversed load C. Carpet
subjected to 50. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive D. Heavy drape
A. Static load materiall
B. Impact load A. Rug

TEST 39 A. Tacomite A. Carburizing

B. Hermatite B. Cyaniding
1. The ability of a substance to exist in more than one lattice form is C. Magnetite A. Nitriding
known as D. Limenite B. Aging
A. Allotropy 18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate slag 35. The degree to which a material will deform before ultimate
B. Grain A. Bronze fracture
C. Crystallization B. Brass A. Brittleness
D. Diamagnetic C. Cat Iron B. Ductility
2. Properties which describe the behavior of the materials under the D. Wrought Iron C. Malleability
association of force are called as: 19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon content does not D. Plasticity
A. Physical properties exceed 1.7%. 36. The property of a material that indicates its ability to transfer
B. Chemical properties A. Brass heat
C. Mechanical properties B. Steel A. Thermal conductivity
D. Electrical properties C. Babbit B. Electrical resistivity
3. The amount of energy per unit volume which the material will D. Bronze C. Thermal expansion
possess when subjected to the elastic limit stress is called: 20. The structure formed when transformation occurs at temperaute D. Electrical conductivity
A. Bulk modulus down to the knee of the curve 37. A group of heat treatable cast iron moderate to high strength,
B. Modulus of Resilience A. Pearlite high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery, and good resistance
C. Modulus of Elasticity B. Bainite carbon.
D. Modulus of Rigidity C. Martinsite A. Gray iron
4. ______________ means the resistance to penetration D. Limonite B. Malleable iron
A. Hardness 21. The process producing a hard surface in a steel having a C. Ductile
B. Strength sufficiently high carbon content to respond in hardening by D. White iron
C. Toughness cooling of the surface. 38. Steels may be carburized and nitride simultaneously by the
D. Stiffness A. Flame Hardening process known as
5. _____________ means the increasing hardness and strength by B. Induction Hardening A. Nitriding
plastic deformation at temperatures lower than crystallization C. Cyaniding B. Carburizing
range? D. Carburizing C. Carbonitriding
A. Case Hardening 22. It is one in which some elements other than carbon has been D. Cryaning
B. Strain Hardening added to improve change the physical properties.
C. Nitriding A. Low Carbon Steel 39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combing hardness
D. Stiffness B. Alloy Steel obtained
6. The plastic deformation at temperatures above the C. Medium Carbon Steel
recrystallization temperature. D. High Carbon Steel
A. Vanadium
A. Hot Working 23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing ____ percent carbon
B. Chromium
B. Cold Working A. 20%
C. Titanium
C. Normalizing B. 0.20%
D. Molybdenum
D. Annealing C. 10%
40. The art of making definite impressions in sand by means of a
7. The plastic deformation at temperatures below the D. 0.10%
pattern for a purpose of producing a casting
recrystallization temperature. 24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy containing _____percent
A. Molding
A. Hot Working nickel
B. Pattern
B. Normalizing A. 2%
C. Extrusion
C. Annealing B. 3%
D. Die casting
D. Cold Working C. 1%
41. Products that have cross sections of less than 6 inches and that
8. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated temperature properties D. 7%
are not in the finished forms
of materials may be secured by means of a 25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open hearth carbon steel
A. Slabs
A. Stress rupture test having ________percent carbon
B. Gangue
B. Creep A. 5%
C. Blooms
C. Impact test B. 9%
D. Billets
D. Modulus of rupture C. 95%
42. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the plastic state
9. The temperature at which this decrease of impact energy occurs D. 0.95%
is made to flow within a die by the application of plunger
is called: 26. Molybdenum steels are painted ________.
pressure
A. Recrystallization temperature A. Green
A. Extrusion forging
B. Transition temperature B. Blue
B. Smith forging
C. Rupture temperature C. Red
C. Drop forging
D. Ultimate temperature D. Orange
D. Press forging
10. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a 27. Used for members of intricate shape that would be difficult to
43. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar stock for
define composition and a definite freezing melting point. manufacture by other methods
special purpose
A. Allotropy A. Forging
A. Cold forging
B. Pentectic B. Casting
B. Sizing
C. Eutectic C. Extruding
C. Cold rolling
D. Protactic D. Hot Working
D. Coining
11. The science which deals with the preparation and application of 28. AISI means
44. The term used for most press operations
metals and alloys. A. Association Iron and Steel Institute
A. Glazing
A. Manufacturing B. African Iron and Steel Institute
B. Stamping
B. Metalloids C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute
A. Coning
C. Metallurgy D. American Investment for Steel Industry
B. Swaging
D. Refractories 29. SAE means
45. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is cut out to a definite
12. A combination of minerals which can be profitably mined A. Society of American Engineers
outline in a press
A. Gangue B. Society of Automotive Engineers A. Blanking
B. Metal C. Society of Australian Engineers B. Stamping
C. Alloy D. Society of African Engineers C. Spinning
D. Ore 30. Which of the following metals increases the strength without D. Trimming
13. The mechanical treatment by which the concentration of ores is sacrificing the ductility of the carbon steels? 46. It is a special case of drawing in which the work is rotated and formed
increased are called: A. Brass by means of a tool
B. Nickel A. Spinning
A. Gravity Separation
C. Bronze B. Embossing
B. One dressing C. Bulging
C. Distillation D. Copper
D. Stretching forming
D. Sintering 31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent and promotes the
47. It is a squeezing operation used for flattening or surfacing various parts
14. Process which involve the reduction of the metal from aqueous nitriding of steels
where small amount of flow of material is involved
solution by replacement or by electrolysis are called: A. Aluminum
A. Hobbing
A. Pyrometallurgical Processes B. Boron B. Stamping
B. Electrometallurgical Processes C. Copper C. Coining
C. Hydrometallurgical Processes D. Brass D. Sizing
D. Amalgamation Process 32. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to reduce the grain 48. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to flow into dies by
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature used in the size and to act as a cleanser and degasifier. the application of sudden blows to the material
construction of furnaces, crucible and so forth are called: A. Nickel A. Drop forging
B. Boron B. Press forging
A. Refractories
C. Vanadium C. Extrusion
B. Ceramics
D. Molybdenum D. Machine forging
C. Insulators 49. It is the measure of stiffness
D. Grable 33. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or steatite are
A. Modulus of rigidity
16. The flux and gauge when in proper proportions will have a known as
B. Modulus of resilience
melting temperatures considerably lower than that of ethane and A. Titanium
C. Modulus of elasticity
the resulting combination is called: B. Vanadium D. Modulus of toughness
A. Lime C. Refractories 50. It is the measure of the total energy-absorbed capacity of the material
B. Residue D. Ceramics and includes the energy of both elastic and plastic deformation.
C. Stag 34. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the metal by A. Modulus of toughness
D. Refractories prolonged heating free from contact with air while the metal B. Modulus of resilience
17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of compact siliceous packed in carbon in the form of bone char, leather scraps, or C. Modulus of elasticity
charcoal. D. Modulus of rigidity
rock.

TEST 40 A. Endurance limit 2. The modulus of plasticity is a measure of

B. Proportional limit E. Stiffness
1. The maximum stress to which a standardized test specimen may be C. Elastic limit F. Toughness
subjected without permanent deformation. D. Plastic limit G. Resilience
 H. Hardness A. Lead D. Linear defects or slippage dislocations
3. Aging at moderately elevated temperature expedites the B. Tin caused by shear
process and C. Zinc 41. When a metal is cold worked, all of the following
A. Natural aging D. Aluminum generally occur, EXCEPT:
B. Artificial aging 23. The material used for commutator brushes is mostly A. Ductility decreases
C. Normal aging A. Copper B. Grains become equal-axed
D. Supernatural aging B. Mica C. Tensile strength increases
4. It is the tendency to fracture without appreciable C. Carbon D. Slip or twinning occurs
deformation D. Cast iron 42. Hard water is water, which contains soluble salts of which
A. Ductility 24. Generally, the material for thermocouple is of the following elements?
B. Brittleness A. Chrome copel A. Sodium
C. Malleability B. Chrome alumei B. Sulfur
D. Plasticity C. Platinum rhodum C. Calcium
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting different properties D. Any of these D. Chlorine
when tested in different directions 25. Select the best conductor of electricity 43. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat
A. Allotropy capacity at 100 C?
B. Anisotropy A. Carbon A. Aluminum
C. Isentropic B. Silver B. Bismuth
D. Isotropic C. Copper C. Copper
6. It is one in which specimen, supported at both ends as a D. Iron D. Iron
simple beam is broken by the impact strength of the metal 44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or
A. Charpy test A. Ground
26. Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a rounded or
B. Izod test glocular form of carbide. B. Forged
C. Rockwell test A. Spheroidizing C. Pressed
D. Universal test B. Malleability D. Welded
7. Steel that has been deoxidized with strong deoxidizing C. Graphizing 45. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of
agent such as silicon or aluminum, in order to eliminate the D. Normalizing A. Iron
reaction between the carbon and oxygen during 27. Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in the B. Bras
solidification process of electricity C. Copper
A. Carbon steel A. Wrought steel D. Bronze
B. Tool steel B. Rimmed Steel 46. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on
C. Killed steel C. Killed steel a Freon system?
D. Structural steel D. Stainless steel A. Metallic
8. Involves the loss of ductility because of a physical or 28. Which of the following improves red hardness? B. Asbestos
chemical change of the material is known as A. Boron C. Rubber
A. Embrittlement B. Cobalt D. A and B
B. Pitting C. Copper 47. The non ferrous alloy corrodes in ammonia is
C. Cold shortness D. Columbium A. Copper
D. Decarburization 29. An alloy of nickel and copper B. Bronze
9. A material commonly used for shielding or screening A. Monel C. Brass
magnetism B. Iconel D. All of these
A. Brass C. Titanium 48. What is used in main condenser to control electrolysis?
B. Copper D. Vanadium A. Brass plate
C. Aluminum 30. Commutator segments are made of B. Aluminum plates
D. Soft iron A. Zinc C. Zinc plates
10. A magnet is able to attract B. Brass D. Bronze plate
A. Iron, aluminum and brass C. Copper 49. Which of the following types of packing would be used on
B. Iron, cobalt and zinc D. Nickel steam points?
C. Iron, copper and nickel 31. What are the most commonly used materials as photo A. Asbestos
D. Nickel, cabalt and steel cathode for the photoelectric emission? B. Neoprene
11. Which of the following materials is used for making A. Barium and calcium C. Metallic
permanent magnets? B. Cesium and rubidium D. A or C
A. Carbon steel C. Arsenic and boron 50. The process applied to iron pipe, which retards corrosion
B. Platinum cobalt D. Thorium and tungsten A. Galvanizing
C. Alnico 32. Manganese is an alloy of B. Annealing
D. All three mentioned A. Copper, manganese and nickel C. Soldering
12. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity? B. Copper, aluminum and chromium D. Tinning
C. Copper, zinc and lead 51. A scriber is made from what steel?
A. Graphite D. Copper, chromium and cadmium A. Carbon steel
B. China clay 33. The one that is an acceptor impurity element B. Cold rolled steel
C. Porcelain A. Antimony C. Tool steel
D. Ceramics B. Gallium
C. Arsenic
D. Hot-rolled steel
D. Phosphorus
13. Dielectric strength of a material depends on the material’s
34. Which of the following is not a method of non-destructive
A. Moisture content
testing of steel castings and forging?
B. Thickness
A. Radiography
C. Temperature
B. Magnetic particle
D. All of these
C. Ultrasonic
14. Which medium has highest value of dielectric strength?
D. Chemical analysis
A. Glass
35. All of the following statements about rusting of iron are
B. Mica
correct, except:
C. Porcelain
A. Contact with water and oxygen are
D. Quartz
necessary for rusting to occur
15. Which of the following is a primary cell?
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal
A. Mercury – oxide
reduces rusting
B. Lead – acid
C. Halides aggravate rusting process which
C. Nickel – iron – alkaline
involves electrochemical oxidation
D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline
reduction reaction
16. Which of the following contact point metals has highest
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas
melting point
and the rust is deposited nearby
A. Silver
36. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000 C
B. Tungsten
to ambient temperature, its microstructure will consist
C. Gold
almost solely of:
D. Copper
A. Austenite
17. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire
B. Bainite
A. Aluminum
C. Cementite
B. Silver
D. Pearlite
C. Lead
37. Steel can be strengthened by all of the following practices,
D. Copper
EXCEPT:
18. The laminations are made from
A. Annealing
A. Low carbon steel
B. Quenching and tempering
B. Silicon sheet steel
C. Work hardening
C. Nickel alloy steel stays
D. Grain refinement
D. Chrome steel sheets
38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive, with
19. Which of the following metals gets deposited to provide an
electrons as majority carriers when adopted with which of
undercut for chromium?
the following?
A. Copper
A. Antimony
B. Silver
B. Boron
C. Bronze
C. Germanium
D. Lead
D. Aluminum
20. In nickel – iron cell, the electrolyte is:
39. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is
A. Dilute sulphuric acid
known as the :
B. Dilute potassium hydroxide
A. Modulus of elasticity
C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide
B. Plasticity
D. Dilute sodium chloride solution
C. Irreversible range
21. Which of the following is not a primary cess?
D. Elastic range
A. Carbon zinc
40. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all
B. Silver oxide
of the following. EXCEPT:
C. Silver zinc
A. Lattice vacancies or extra interstitial atom
D. Nickel – cadmium
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
22. Select from the conductors below that has the least
C. Displacement of atoms of interstitial sites
electrical conductivity