CHETANA’S

HAZARIMAL SOMANI COLLEGE OF COMMERCE AND ECONOMICS,

SMT.KUSUMTAI CHAUDHARI COLLEGE OF ARTS

BANDRA (E), MUMBAI-400051.

SEM-IV (SAMPLE QUESTIONS)

SUBJECT - ADVERTISING

Q. Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. --------- ads have audio visual impact.

a) Newspaper b) Radio c) Television d) Magazine
2. -------- ads have audio impact.
a) Newspaper b) Radio c) Television d) Outdoor
3. ------- advertising has short life.
a) Radio b) Outdoor c) Magazine d) Newspaper
4. Product demonstrations can be effectively shown in ----- -- advertising.
a) Television b) Magazine c) Radio d) Outdoor
5. --------- advertising provides reference value.
a) Television b) Newspaper c) Radio d) Outdoor
6. -------- advertising is best suited for local retailers.
a) Newspaper b) Outdoor c) Magazine d) Television
7. Window display is a form of -------- advertising.
a) Radio b) Newspaper c) Online d) Point –of –purchase
8. Pop-up windows are a form of ------- advertising.
a) Internet b) out-of home c) Television d) Radio
9. Advertising through SMS and MMS is a form of -------- advertising.
a) Radio b) Outdoor c) Digital d) Newspaper
10. --------- advertising has a longer life.
a) TV b) Radio c) Magazine d) Newspaper
11. -------- can provide media support with current events.
a) Magazines b) Trade journals c) Newspaper d) Radio
12. ---------- provide interactive facility.
a) Hoardings b) Internet c) Magazines d) TV
13. ---------- is the fastest growing advertising medium.
a) Internet b) Newspaper c) Magazine d) Television
14. --------- is a form of new age medium.
a) Internet b) Newspaper c) Outdoor d) Magazines.
15. ----------- certifies and audits the circulation of major publications.
a) ABC b) INS c) DD d) ASCI
16. ------------ are periodic publications.
a) Newspapers b) Posters c) Magazines d) Banners
17. Govt. of India started operating of radio broadcasting in ----------.
a) 1930 b) 1940 c) 1955 d) 1925
18. The first TV commercial was transmitted in India on ------------.
a) 1st January 1967 b) 1ST January 1976 c) 1st January 1985 d) 1ST January 1996
19. ------------ refers to advertising at cinema theatres.
a) Radio advertising b) TV advertising c) Cinema advertising d) Internet advertising
20. ------------ also refers to online advertising and web advertising.
a) Internet advertising b) Poster advertising c) Radio advertising d) Outdoor
advertising
21. Under ------------ media scheduling strategy, advertiser start on a lower scale and
gradually increase as the season peaks.
a) Teaser-step-up b) Teaser –step-down c) Steady d) Pulsing
22. --------- means planning the advertising expenditure.
a) DAGMAR b) Media planning c) Bursting d) Advertising budget
23. -------- method provides a logical basis for deciding ad budget.
a) Competitors’ parity b) Task c) Percentage of sales d) Arbitrary
24. -------- is a subjective method of setting ad budget.
a) Arbitrary b) Task c) Competitor’s parity d) Market share
25. --------- method is a fixed guideline method of setting ad budget.
a) Task b) All you can afford c) Arbitrary d) Competitor’s parity
26. -------- refers to the process of selecting media mix for advertising the product.
a) Media scheduling b) Media selling c) Media planning d) Media buying
27. -------- refers to no. of times the target audience is exposed to a message during a
selected period of time.
a) Frequency b) Reach c) Continuity d) Gross Rating points
28. -------- refers to the process of choosing the media for ad purpose.
a) Media selling b) Media planning c) Media scheduling d) Media selection
29. Under ------- media scheduling strategy, heavy advertising is undertaken followed by
limited advertising and again heavy advertising.
a) Bursting b) Flighting c) Pulsing d) Steady
30. --------- is a media objective.
a) Reach b) Frequency c) GRPs d) media objectivity
31. Ad campaign has ---------- theme.
a) Multiple b) Single c) No d) double
32. --------- method of advertising budget considers the objectives for allocating funds.
a) Fixed guidelines b) Task c) Arbitrary d) Competitor’s parity
33. -------- are calculated by multiplying frequency by reach.
a) TRPs b) GRPs c) Scores d) Objectivity
34. ----------- is series of ads that share a common idea and theme.
a) Ad campaign b) Ad copy c) Ad media d) Ad planning
35. In ---------, Russel Colley developed the DAGMAR model.
a) 1965 b) 1967 c) 1961 d) 1978
36. Proper media planning enables the selection of -----------.
a) Right media b) Wrong media c) Right Product d) Right middlemen
37. ---------- are the goals that the chosen media need to accomplished.
a) Media frequency b) Media objectives c) Media reach d) Media circulation
38. Under --------- media scheduling strategy advertising is done regularly.
a) Steady b) Flighting c) Pulsing d) Step-down
39. Under ------- media scheduling strategy heavy ads when season approaches and
reduction of advertising when the season starts declining.
a) Flighting b) Step-down c) Bursting d) Teaser step-up
40. USP stand for ---------------.
a) Unique Selling Program b) Unique selling Proposition c) Utility Selling
Proposition d) Unique Selling Package
41. --------- is the act of placing two different ideas together.
a) Brain storming b) Juxtaposition c) Observation d) Meditation
42. ------- appeal is one that appeals to the sense of right and wrong.
a) Rational b) Moral c) Emotional d) Social
43. Consumer durables of high value are often bought on the basis of ------ appeals.
a) Emotional b) Rational c) Moral d) Fear
44. The concept of USP was developed by ----------.
 a) Rosser Reeves b) David Ogilvy c) William Stanton d) Philip Kotler
45. ---------- attempts to induce action on the part of the prospect.
a) Appeal b) Response c) Visualization d) Proposition
46. --------- refers to creative imagination of ideas.
a) Analysis b) USP c) Visualization d) TRP
47. Creativity in advertising -------------.
a) Attract attention b) Increase recall c) Makes ad memorable d) All the above
48. --------- is the outline of instructions for work to be done by creative team of the ad
agency.
a) Creative brief b) Creative process c) Visualization d) Product layout
49. --------- is a technique of visualization.
a) SMP b) USP c) Observation d) Media planning
50. --------- refers to the intension behind purchases.
a) Selling points b) Buying motives c) Appeals d) USP
51. --------- is an example of emotional buying motive.
a) Economy b) Safety c) Pride d) Curiosity
52. --------- refers to the features of product which help to the product to get sold.
a) Buying motives b) Selling points c) Appeals d) Creativity
53. -------- are logic base appeals.
a) Rational appeals b) Emotional appeals c) Moral appeals d) Social appeals
54. -------- appeals are related to an individual’s psychological needs for purchasing
certain products.
a) Rational b) Moral c) Emotional d) Social
55. --------- is a specific characteristic that makes a product stand out from its competitors.
a) Advertising appeals b) USP c) Buying motives d) Visualization
56. Endorsers in ads include ----------.
a) Celebrities b) Satisfied customers c) CEO of companies d) All the above
57. Buying a --------- is an example of high involvement of product.
a) Jewellery b) Toothpaste c) Salt d) Sanitizer
58. --------- is an example of low involvement product.
a) Jewellery b) Automobiles c) Costly watches d) Toothpaste
59. ---------- refers to a person who recommends a product in the advertisements.
a) Visualiser b) Copy writer c) Endorser d) Media planner
60. ---------- is the corporate signature.
 a) Tagline b) Logo c) Headline d) Caption
61. --------- is a picture or a photograph used to convey advertising message.
a) Slogan b) Caption c) Illustration d) Headline
62. --------- is post-testing method of evaluating advertising effectiveness.
a) Consumer jury test b) Recall test c) Check list method d) Theatre type test
63. ---------- are considered synonymous with slogans.
a) Taglines b) Headlines c) Logo d) Music
64. ---------- is a musical commercial.
a) Logo b) Jingle c) Body copy d) Sub headline
65. Copy of an advertisement must be ----------.
a) Simple b) hard c) non informative d) confusing
66. -------- is a title of brief explanation give to an illustration.
a) Caption b) Logo c) Headline d) Copy
67. --------- summarizes advertising message.
a) Logo b) Slogan c) Caption d) Layout
68. ---------- copy makes use of current events in the ads.
a) Institutional b) Scientific c) Topical d) Reason why
69. --------- refers to the arrangement of various elements of advertisement.
a) Visualization b) Illustration c) Layout d) Logo
70. Eye movement in an ad can be controlled by -----------.
a) Sub headline b) Gaze movement c) body copy d) slow motion
71. --------- is a type of broadcast ad.
a) Radio ad b) News paper ad c) Internet ad d) Magazine ad
72. Jingle is associated with ---------- ads.
a) Radio b) News paper c) Magazine d) Outdoor
73. Story board is useful in --------- advertising.
a) News paper b) Magazine c) Television d) Radio
74. -------- is an example of pre-testing technique of advertising effectiveness.
a) Theatre type test b) Recall test c) Recognition test d) Attitude and opinion test
75. Advertising copy refers to the ---------- element in the ad.
a) Promotional b) Textual c) productive d) materialistic
76. ------------ highlights the information about the company.
a) Institutional copy b) Topical copy c) Descriptive copy d) Dialogue copy
77. A --------- is a short phrase used in advertising to create product identity.
 a) Body copy b) Tagline c) Slogan d) Illustration
78. The main function of ------ -- is to elicit recognition.
a) Slogan b) Caption c) Logo d) Tagline
79. The purpose of --------- is to explain the idea or selling points included in the
advertisement.
a) Body copy b) Sub headline c) Caption d) Illustration
80. -------- method tries to find out the extent of readership of a particular ad in the media.
a) Recall test b) Consumer jury test c) Recognition test d) Area sales test
Answer key

Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

1 C 21 A 41 B 61 C
2 B 22 D 42 B 62 B
3 A 23 B 43 B 63 A
4 A 24 A 44 A 64 B
5 B 25 D 45 A 65 A
6 B 26 C 46 C 66 A
7 D 27 A 47 D 67 B
8 A 28 D 48 A 68 C
9 C 29 C 49 C 69 C
10 C 30 A 50 B 70 B
11 B 31 B 51 C 71 A
12 B 32 B 52 B 72 A
13 A 33 B 53 A 73 C
14 A 34 A 54 C 74 A
15 A 35 C 55 B 75 B
16 C 36 A 56 D 76 A
17 A 37 B 57 A 77 B
18 B 38 A 58 D 78 C
19 C 39 B 59 C 79 A
20 A 40 B 60 B 80 C