ACTM – Statistics

Questions 1 – 25 are multiple-choice items. Record your answer on the answer sheet provided. When you have completed the
multiple choice items, then answer each of the three tie-breaker items in order. Record your answer and your work on the tie-
breaker pages provided as part of the test booklet. When you finish, detach the tie breaker items from the booklet, be sure your
name is on each page. When time is called, turn in the answer sheet and the tie-breaker items. You may keep the question part
of the test booklet.

1. Given IQ scores are approximately normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard
deviation of 15, the proportion of people with IQs above 130 is:

a. 95%
b. 68%
c. 5%
d. 2.5%

2. Randomly assigning treatment to experimental units allows:

a. population inference
b. causal inference
c. both types of inference
d. neither type of inference

3. Failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false is:

a. alpha
b. Type I error
c. beta
d. Type II error

4. A parameter is:

a. a sample characteristic
b. a population characteristic
c. unknown
d. normal normally distributed

5. A statistic is:

a. a sample characteristic
b. a population characteristic
c. unknown
d. normally distributed

6. Observational studies allow:

a. population inference
b. causal inference
c. both types of inference
d. neither type of inference
7. A national random sample of 20 ACT scores from 2010 is listed below. Calculate the sample
mean and standard deviation.

29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18

a. 20.50, 5.79
b. 20.50, 5.94
c. 20.85, 5.79
d. 20.85, 5.94

8. Provided that the ACT is reasonably normally distributed with a mean of 18 and standard
deviation of 6, determine the proportion of students with a 33 or higher.

a. 0.0062
b. 0.0109
c. 0.0124
d. 0.0217

9. Using the data in question 7, calculate the 95% confidence interval for the mean ACT score based
on the t-distribution.

a. -∞ to 23.05
b. -∞ to 23.15
c. 18.07 to 23.63
d. 18.22 to 23.48

10. Using the data in question 7, calculate number of observations that are two or more sample
standard deviations from the sample mean.

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

11. The data in question 7 appears to be reasonably symmetric.

a. True
b. False

12. When asked questions concerning personal hygiene, people commonly lie. This is an example of:

a. sampling bias
b. confounding
c. non-response bias
d. response bias

13. Select the order of sampling schemes from best to worst.

a. simple random, stratified, convenience

b. simple random, convenience, stratified
c. stratified, simple random, convenience
d. stratified, convenience, simple random
 40
30
Frequency

20
10
0

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

days

14. The histogram above represents the lifespan of a random sample of a particular type of insect.
Determine the relationship between the mean and median.

a. mean = median
b. mean ≈ median
c. mean < median
d. mean > median

15. When the correlation coefficient, r, is close to one:

a. there is no relationship between the two variables

b. there is a strong linear relationship between the two variables
c. it is impossible to tell if there is a relationship between the two variables
d. the slope of the regression line will be close to one

16. Given the following data pairs (x, y), find the regression equation.

(1, 1.24), (2, 5.23), (3, 7.24), (4, 7.60), (5, 9.97), (6, 14.31), (7, 13.99), (8, 14.88),
(9, 18.04), (10, 20.70)

a. y = 0.490 x - 0.053
b. y = 2.04 x
c. y = 1.98 x + 0.436
d. y = 0.49 x

17. Using the data from 16, calculate the correlation coefficient.

a. r = 0.490
b. r = 0.985
c. r = 0.971
d. r = 0.240

18. The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.

a. true
b. false
 19. Using the data from 16, obtain a prediction for x = 4.5.

a. 2.15
b. 2.21
c. 9.18
d. 9.34
1.0
0.5
0.0
y

-0.5
-1.0

-1.0 -0.5 0.0 0.5 1.0

20. The data in the scatterplot above would have a correlation coefficient that is close to:

a. –1.0
b. –0.5
c. +1.0
d. +0.5

21. The intercept in linear regression represents:

a. the strength of the relationship between x and y

b. the expected x value when y is zero
c. the expected y value when x is zero
d. a population parameter

22. Calculate the mean number of children per family for the sample from the following table.

Number of children Number of families

0 8
1 16
2 22
3 14
4 6
5 4
6 2

a. 1.91
b. 2.47
c. 3.14
d. 2.19
23. Using the table from 22, calculate the standard deviation.

a. 1.46
b. 1.45
c. 2.10
d. 2.17

24. In 1923, Babe Ruth had 522 at bats with 205 hits. Assuming that the binomial distribution can be
appropriately applied, find the expected number of hits in 529 at bats.

a. 321
b. 186
c. 230
d. 208

25. The distribution of heights of American women aged 18 to 24 is approximately normally

distributed with a mean of 65.5 inches and standard deviation of 2.5 inches. Calculate the z-score
for a woman six feet tall.

a. 2.60
b. 4.11
c. 1.04
d. 1.33
Name: __________________________________________

Constructed Response

1. Use the following table on bowel cancer testing to calculate the sensitivity.

Bowel cancer
Blood test Y N
+ 2 18
– 1 182

2. Use the table from 1 to calculate the false positive rate.

3. Use the table from 1 to calculate the probability of having bowel cancer given a positive blood
test.
 Statistics  Answers  
ACTM  State  Contest  

April  2014  
 
1. d  
2. b  
3. d  
4. b  
5. a  
6. d  
7. d  
8. a  
9. c  
10. a  
11. a  
12. d  
13. a  
14. d  
15. b  
16. c  
17. b  
18. a  
19. d  
20. a  
21. c  
22. d  
23. a  
24. d  
25. a  
 
 
Tie  Breaker  Items  

 
1. P[  +,  test/cancer  =  Y]  =  2/3  or  approximately  0.7  
 
2. P[+  test/cancer  =  N]  =  18/200  or  approximately  0.90  
 
3. P[cancer  =  Y/+  test]  =  2/20  or  1/10  or  0.1  
 4th Semester Model MCQ Fourth paper

1. When planning to do social research, it is better to:

a) Approach the topic with an open mind
b) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
c) Be familiar with the literature on the topic
d) Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking can't have one without the other
Answer: C

2. We review the relevant literature to know:

a) What is already known about the topic
b) What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic
c) Who are the key contributors to the topic
d) All of the above Answer: D

3. A deductive theory is one that:

a) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
b) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
c) Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
d) Uses qualitative methods whenever possible Answer: B

4. What does 'sampling cases' mean?

a) Sampling using a sampling frame
b) Identifying people who are suitable for research
c) Literally, the researcher's brief-case
d) Sampling people, newspapers, television programmes etc. Answer: D

5. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?

a) Research questions
b) Unstructured interviewing
c) Postal survey questionnaires
d) Participant observation Answer: A

6. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?

a) Because far too much data is collected than is required
b) Because we need to make sense of the data
c) Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires
d) Because the sample size has been exceeded Answer: B

7. The core ingredients of a dissertation are:

a) Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and recommendations.
b) Executive summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography.
c) Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References.
d) Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results; Discussion; Conclusion.
Answer: D

8. Which of the following is a component of ethnographic research?

a) Being immersed in a social group or setting
b) Participant observation, interviews, and/or documentary analysis
c) A written account of an ethnographic study
d) All of the above Answer: D
9. What is one of the main disadvantages of using the covert role in ethnography?
a) It can be hard to gain access to the social group
b) It is difficult to take notes without arousing suspicion
c) The problem of reactivity: people may change their behaviour if they know they are being
observed
d) It is usually too time consuming and expensive to be a realistic option
Answer: B

10. What is a key informant?

a) A group member who helps the ethnographer gain access to relevant people/events
b) A senior level member of the organisation who refuses to allow researchers into it
c) A participant who appears to be helpful but then blows the researcher's cover
d) Someone who cuts keys to help the ethnographer gain access to a building
Answer: A

11. What is the name of the role adopted by an ethnographer who joins in with the group's activities
but admits to being a researcher?
a) Complete participant
b) Participant-as-observer
c) Observer-as-participant
d) Complete observer Answer: B

12. Is it okay to break the law in order to maintain a "cover"?

a) Yes, provided it is not very serious
b) No, never under any circumstances
c) Yes, because otherwise data on criminal activity would never come to light
d) Yes, provided it doesn't cause physical harm to someone Answer: B

13. What is the difference between "scratch notes" and "full field notes"?
a) Scratch notes are just key words and phrases, rather than lengthy descriptions
b) Full field notes are quicker and easier to write than scratch notes
c) Scratch notes are written at the end of the day rather than during key events
d) Full field notes do not involve the researcher scratching their head while thinking
Answer: A

14. What are the two main types of data that can be used in visual ethnography?
a) Positivist and interpretivist
b) Qualitative and quantitative
c) Nominal and ordinal
d) Extant and research-driven Answer: D

15. Which of the following makes qualitative interviewing distinct from structured interviewing?
a) The procedure is less standardized
b) "Rambling" off the topic is not a problem
c) The researcher seeks rich, detailed answers
d) All of the above Answer: D

16. Which of the following is not a type of qualitative interview?

a) Unstructured interview
b) Oral history interview
c) Structured interview
d) Focus group interview Answer: C

17. Why is it helpful to prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-structured interviews?
a) So that the data from different interviewees will be comparable and relevant to your research
questions
b) So that you can calculate the statistical significance of the results
c) In order to allow participants complete control over the topics they discuss
d) To make the sample more representative Answer: A

18. What is a "probing question"?

a) One that inquires about a sensitive or deeply personal issue
b) One that encourages the interviewee to say more about a topic
c) One that asks indirectly about people's opinions
d) One that moves the conversation on to another topic Answer: B

19. What can you do to reduce the time consuming nature of transcribing interviews?
a) Use a transcribing machine
b) Employ someone to transcribe for you
c) Transcribe only selected parts of the interviews
d) All of the above Answer: D

20. Which of the following is not a type of life story?

a) Naturalistic life stories
b) Researched life stories
c) True life stories
d) Reflexive and recursive life stories Answer: C

21. Which of the following is an advantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant

observation?
a) It allows you to find out about issues that are resistant to observation
b) It is more biased and value-laden
c) It is more likely to create reactive effects
d) None of the above Answer: A

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of qualitative interviewing relative to participant

observation?
a) It has a more specific focus
b) It is more ethically dubious, in terms of obtaining informed consent
c) It may not provide access to deviant or hidden activities
d) It does not allow participants to reconstruct their life events Answer: C

23. The introductory section of a research report should aim to:

a) Identify the specific focus of the study
b) Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article
c) Grab the reader's attention
d) All of the above Answer: D

24. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?

a) It explains how concepts were operationally defined and measured
b) It contains a useful review of the relevant literature
c) It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed
d) It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions
Answer: D

25. Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative research?
a) An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context
b) An explanation of the design of the study
c) A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions
d) A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis Answer: D

26. Before submitting your dissertation, you should ensure that:

a) Your writing is free of sexist, racist and disablist language
b) Other people have read your final draft
c) You have proofread it thoroughly
d) All of the above Answer: D

27. Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because:

a) Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics
b) It is very old-fashioned
c) It is often not feasible
d) Research questions are more important than sampling Answer: C

28. The two levels of sampling used by Savage et al. (2005) for the Manchester study were:
a) Random and purposive
b) Convenience and snowball
c) Statistical and non-statistical
d) Contexts and participants Answer: D

29. Which of the following is not a type of purposive sampling?

a) Probability sampling
b) Deviant case sampling
c) Theoretical sampling
d) Snowball sampling Answer: A

30. The minimum sample size for qualitative interviewing is:

a) 30
b) 31
c) 60
d) It's hard to say Answer: D

31. Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample?

a) Because the aim of understanding is more important than that of generalization
b) Because the researcher cannot control who is willing to talk to them
c) Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame
d) All of the above Answer: D

32. Apart from people, what else can purposive sampling be used for?
a) Documents
b) Timing of events
c) Context
d) All of the above Answer: D

33. What can be generalized from a purposive sample?

a) That the findings are true for broadly similar cases
b) That the findings are true for the entire population
c) That the opposite is true for people who are the opposite of those in the sample
d) That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling Answer: A

34. Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?

a) The problem of objectivity
b) The problem of "going native"
c) The problem of omission
d) The problem of robustness Answer: C

35. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that:
a) It does not rely on the researcher's ability to take notes
b) The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are studying
c) It does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents
d) It allows you to observe people's behaviour directly Answer: D

36. It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe behaviour in public places because:
a) The findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity
b) It is not feasible to construct a sampling frame of interactions
c) It is difficult to gain access to such social settings
d) Researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible Answer: B

37. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation?
a) Focal sampling
b) Scan sampling
c) Emotional sampling
d) Behaviour sampling Answer: C

38. One of the criticisms often levelled at structured observation is that:

a) It does not allow us to impose any framework on the social setting
b) It only generates a small amount of data
c) It is unethical to observe people without an observation schedule
d) It does not allow us to understand the intentions behind behaviour Answer: D

39. What is a research design?

a) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory
b) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods
c) The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph
d) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data Answer: D

40. If a study is "reliable", this means that:

a) It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted
b) The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions
c) The findings can be generalized to other social settings
d) The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated Answer: B
41. In an experimental design, the dependent variable is:
a) The one that is not manipulated and in which any changes are observed
b) The one that is manipulated in order to observe any effects on the other
c) A measure of the extent to which personal values affect research
d) An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined Answer: A

42. What is a cross-sectional design?

a) A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes
b) One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time
d) A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time Answer: C

43. Cross cultural studies are an example of:

a) Case study design
b) Comparative design
c) Experimental design
d) Longitudinal design Answer: B

44. What is a 'grand theory'?

a) One that was proposed by one of the major theorists in the sociological tradition
b) One that is highly abstract and makes broad generalizations about the social world
c) An intermediate level explanation of observed regularities
d) A particularly satisfactory theory that makes the researcher feel happy Answer: B

45. An inductive theory is one that:

a) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
b) Does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
c) Uses quantitative methods whenever possible
d) Allows theory to emerge out of the data Answer: D

46. The qualitative research strategy places a value on:

a) Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques
b) Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings
c) Conducting research that is of a very high quality
d) All of the above Answer: B

47. An important practical issue to consider when designing a research project is:
a) Which theoretical perspective you find most interesting
b) Whether or not you have time to retile the bathroom first
c) How much time and money you have to conduct the research
d) Which colour of ring binder to present your work in Answer: C

48. You can manage your time and resources best, by:
a) Working out a timetable
b) Finding out what resources are readily available to you
c) Calculating a budget for likely expenditure
d) All of the above Answer: D
49. How can you tell if your research questions are really good?
a) If they guide your literature search
b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
c) If they force you to narrow the scope of your research
d) All of the above Answer: D

50. Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?

a) Your academic status and experience
b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic
c) Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them
d) All of the above Answer: C

51. Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?
a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy
b) The ethical issues that might arise
c) Negotiating access to the setting
d) All of the above Answer: D

52. What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?
a) Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a dissertation
b) Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use
c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee
d) All of the above Answer: D

53. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

a) To make sure you have a long list of references
b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
c) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
d) To help in your general studying Answer: C

54. A systematic literature review is:

a) One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and, finally, to the internet
b) A replicable, scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A responsible, professional process of time-management for research Answer: B

55. What is the first stage of a systematic review?

a) Assess the relevance of each study to the research question(s)
b) Define the purpose and scope of the review
c) Appraise the quality of studies from the previous step
d) Survey all of the literature contained within a single library Answer: B

56. The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of:

a) Conducting a study of seconds, minutes and other measures of time
b) Analysing your own data in two different ways
c) Analysing existing data that has been collected by another person or organization
d) Working part time on a project alongside other responsibilities Answer: C

57. Why might secondary analysis be a particularly useful method for students?
a) It is relatively easy to do
b) It saves time and money
c) It does not require any knowledge of statistics
d) It only requires a half-hearted effort Answer: B

58. Which of the following is not an advantage of secondary analysis?

a) It immerses the researcher in the field they are studying
b) It tends to be based on high quality data
c) It provides an opportunity for longitudinal analysis
d) It allows you to study patterns and social trends over time Answer: A

59. The large samples used in national social surveys enable new researchers to:
a) Avoid using probability sampling
b) Identify any bias in the question wording
c) Evaluate the inter-coder reliability of the data
d) Conduct subgroup analysis Answer: D

60. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary analysis?

a) The researcher's lack of familiarity with the data
b) It is a relatively expensive and time consuming process
c) Hierarchical datasets can be very confusing
d) The researcher has no control over the quality of the data Answer: B
Chapter 13 – MR Practice Quiz
The Research Report

TRUE/FALSE

1. The basic purchase of the research report is to communicate the results, conclusions, and recom-
mendations of the research project.

ANS: T PTS: 1

2. The research methodology section of the report should include a specific discussion of the analysis
process.

ANS: F PTS: 1

3. The findings section of the report is normally the largest section of the report and should be orga-
nized in a logical way.

ANS: T PTS: 1

4. The researcher’s role is not to just present the facts, but to draw conclusions on the basis of the
findings and to make recommendation on the basis of the conclusions.

ANS: T PTS: 1

5. A graph is a method of presenting and arranging data that have been broken down by one or more
systems of classification.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The research methodology section of the research report should include a brief description of
a. The primary means of data collection
b. The type of instrument used to collect the information
c. A specific discussion of the analysis process
d. A and B
e. A and C

ANS: D PTS: 1

2. A ____________ is easily constructed and can be readily interpreted even by those not familiar with
charts.
a. Bar chart
b. Pie chart
c. Analytical chart
d. Line chart

ANS: A PTS: 1
3. Some general advice for preparing the written report includes all except
a. Make sure the report represents you and your work
b. Do not organize the report by the stages of the research
c. Do not write for your audience
d. Do not discuss exploratory reports using statistics
ANS: C PTS: 1

4. The basic purpose of the research and the specific objectives agreed upon in the research proposal
should be included in which section of the research report?
a. title page
b. introduction
c. methodology
d. appendix

ANS: B PTS: 1

5. A pie chart is
a. easily constructed and can be readily interpreted even by those not familiar with charts.
b. useful in marketing studies especially when showing market share or market segments.
c. especially useful in showing trends in data and comparing trends for different products,
customers, and market areas

ANS: B PTS: 1
© THIS TESTBANK IS COPYRIGHT OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS 2011 

Chapter 13: Writing about Research

Test your knowledge of Chapter 13: Writing about Research by answering the following
multiple-choice questions. You can find the answers to each question at the end of this
document.
1 Research reports:
a present at least a review of the literature, the methods used, the findings and a
discussion. They have some common elements but may vary in overall
organisational structure.
b typically present a review of the literature, the findings, a discussion and
recommendations.
c always present recommendations as well as an outline of the methods used and
the findings.
d always state the research question or hypothesis and are written in first person to
show that the author takes responsibility for the findings.
2 What kind of information is usually presented in the limitations section of a research
report?
a An outline of the factors that may have prevented the researcher from conducting
more thorough research
b An outline of the extent of the research study
c An outline of the historical background of the research study
d An explanation of the research tools used to gather the data
3 Jargon is:
a specialised language and is always inappropriate.
b technical language used within a field and therefore has a place in research
reports.
c specialised language and may be appropriate when used between peers but not
with people outside the field.
d specialised language and is never appropriate in reports.
4 Which words best describe the writing style that should be used in research reports?
a Objective and detached
b Personal and critical.
c Emotive and judgemental.
d Subjective and detached.
5 The abstract of the report:
a is usually written before the rest of the report.
b provides a snapshot of the major section of the entire report.
c serves as the introduction to the report, with a focus on the background for the
research.
d is usually several pages in length.
6 In the methods section of the report, the researcher needs to:
a discuss the results of the research.
b discuss the theoretical background for the research.
c recount in detail the daily research activities conducted during the research
process.
d set out in detail how data was gathered and analysed.

© Oxford University Press 2011 
 
 
 

7 Why is it important to identify the primary audience for the research report?
a In order to adapt the findings to their liking
b In order to bypass undesirable readers
c So that the writer can adapt the writing to meet their needs (i.e. in terms of
language and level of expertise)
d In order to frame the discussion in such a way as to gain most approval for the
findings
8 What is presented in the findings section of a research report?
a A discussion of the results
b The quantitative or qualitative data that was collected
c The theoretical foundations for the research study
d The methods that were used to collect the data
9 What is presented in the discussion section of a research report?
a The numerical data that was collected
b The reasons for undertaking the study
c A comment on the results presented in the findings section
d Your plans for future research
10 The conclusion of a research report:
a can introduce new information.
b must be based only on material presented in the report.
c is the same as the abstract except that it is presented at the end of the report.
d should focus only on the findings of the research.
Answers
1 A
2 A
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 D
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 B

© Oxford University Press 2011 
 
 School of Distance Education

UNIVERSITY OF CALICUT

SCHOOL OF DISTANCE EDUCATION

BA POLITICAL SCIENCE

(2011 Admission Onwards)

V Semester

Core Course
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

QUESTION BANK

1. Who authored the book “methods in Social Research”

a) Wilkinson b) CR Kothari c) Kerlinger d) Goode and Halt

2. “Research is an organized and systematic enquiry” Defined by

a) Marshall b) P.V. Young c) Emory d) Kerlinger

3. Research is a “Scientific undertaking” opined by

a) Young b) Kerlinger c) Kothari d) Emory

4. “A systematic step-by-step Procedure following logical process of reasoning” called

a) Experiment b) Observation c) Deduction d) Scientific method

5. Ethical Neutrality is a feature of

a) Deduction b) Scientific method c) Observation d) experience

6. Scientific method is committed to ……………….

a) Objectivity b) Ethics c) Proposition d) Neutrality

7. “One of the methods of logical reasoning process” is called

a) Induction b) Deduction c) Research d) Experiment

Research Methodology Page 1

 School of Distance Education

8. An essential Criterion of Scientific study is

a) Belief b) Value c) Objectivity d) Subjectivity

9. “Reasoning from general to particular “is called

a) Induction b) deduction c) Observation d) experience

10. “Deduction and induction are a part of system of reasoning” – stated by

a) Caroline b) P.V.Young c) Dewey John d) Emory

11. “ A system of systematically interrelated concepts definitions and propositions that

are advanced to explain and predict phenomena” … is
a) Facts b) Values c) Theory d) Generalization

12. “ A system of systematically interrelated concepts, definitions and propositions that

are advanced to explain and Predict phenomena” defined by
a) Jack Gibbs b) PV Young c) Black d) Rose Arnold

13. Theory is “ a set of systematically related propositions specifying casual relationship

among variables” is defined by
a) Black James and Champion b) P.V. Young
c) Emory d) Gibbes

14. “Empirically verifiable observation” is

a) Theory b) Value c) Fact d) Statement

15. Fact is “empirically verifiable observation” --- is defined by

a) Good and Hatt b) Emory c) P.V. Young d) Claver

16. ……….. is “systematically conceptual structure of inter related elements in some

schematic form”
a) Concept b) Variable c) Model d) Facts

17. Social Science deals with ………..

a) Objects b) Human beings c) Living things d) Non living things

18. Science is broadly divided into ……………….

a) Natural and Social b) Natural and Physical
c) Physical and Mental d) Social and Physical

19. Social Science try to explain …………. Between human activities and natural laws
governing them
a) Causal Connection b) reason
c) Interaction d) Objectives

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20. Social Science Research ……………. Problems

a) Explain b) diagnosis c) Recommend d) Formulate

21. Social research aims at ……………….

a) Integration b) Social Harmony
c) National Integration d) Social Equality

22. The method by which a sample is chosen

a) Unit b) design c) Random d) Census

23. Basing conclusions without any bias and value judgment is ……………
a) Objectivity b) Specificity c) Values d) Facts

24. Research is classified on the basis of …….. and methods

a) Purpose b) Intent c) Methodology d) Techniques

25. Research undertaken for knowledge sake is

a) Pure Research b) Action Research c) Pilot study d) Survey

26. Example for fact finding study is

a) Pure Research b) Survey
c) Action Research d) Long term Research

27. Facts or information’s are analyzed and critical evaluation is made in

a) Survey b) Action research
c) Analytical research d) Pilot study

28. Research conducted to find solution for an immediate problem is ………….

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Survey d) Action Research

29. Fundamental Research is otherwise called

a) Action Research b) Survey c) Pilot study d) Pure Research

30. Motivation Research is a type of …………… research

a) Quantitative b) Qualitative c) Pure d) applied

31. Research related to abstract ideas or concepts is

a) Empirical research b) Conceptual Research
c) Quantitative research d) Qualitative research

32. A research which follows case study method is called

a) Clinical or diagnostic b) Causal
c) Analytical d) Qualitative

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33. Research conducted in class room atmosphere is called

a) Field study b) Survey
c) Laboratory Research d) Empirical Research

34. Research through experiment and observation is called

a) Clinical Research b) Experimental Research
c) Laboratory Research d) Empirical Research

35. Population Census is an example of ………….. Research

a) Survey b) Empirical c) Clinical d) Diagnostic

36. The author of “ The Grammar of Science” is

a) Ostle b) Richard c) Karl Pearson d) Kerlinger

37. “The Romance of Research” is authored by

a) Redmen and Mory b) P.V.Young c) Robert C meir d) Harold Dazier

38. ………….. is a way to systematically solve the research problem

a) Technique b) Operations
c) Research methodology d) Research Process

39. Good Research is always ……………

a) Slow b) Fast c) Narrow d) Systematic

40. Good research is ……………

a) Logical b) Non logical c) Narrow d) Systematic

41. “Criteria of Good Research” is written by

a) Delta Kappan b) James Harold Fox c) P.V.Young d) Karl Popper

42. Research method is a part of …………..

a) Problem b) Experiment
c) Research Techniques d) Research methodology

43. Identifying causes of a problem and possible solution to a problem is

a) Field Study b) diagnosis tic study
c) Action study d) Pilot study

44. ………… helps in social planning

a) Social Science Research b) Experience Survey
c) Problem formulation d) diagnostic study

45. “Foundations of Behavioral Research” is written by

a) P.V. Young b) Kerlinger c) Emory d) Clover Vernon

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46. Methods and issues in Social Research” is written by

a) Black James and Champions b) P.V. Young
c) Mortan Kaplan d) William Emory

47. “Scientific Social Survey and Research” is written by

a) Best John b) Emory c) Clover d) P.V. Young

48. “Doubt is often better than ……………….”

a) Belief b) Value c) Confidence d) Overconfidence

49. Research help in explaining the ………… with which something operates.
a) Velocity b) Momentum c) Frequency d) gravity

50. …………… is a motivation for research in students

a) Research degree b) Research Academy
c) Research Labs d) Research Problems

51. Which of the following is an example of primary data?

a) Book b) Journal c) News Paper d) Census Report

52. Major drawback to researchers in India is …………….

a) Lack of sufficient number of Universities
b) Lack of sufficient research guides
c) Lack of sufficient Fund
d) Lack of scientific training in research

53. ICSSR stands for

a) Indian Council for Survey and Research
b) Indian Council for strategic Research
c) Indian Council for Social Science Research
d) Inter National Council for Social Science Research

54. UGC Stands for

a) University Grants Commission b) Union Government Commission
c) University Governance Council d) Union government Council

55. JRF is for

a) Junior Research Functions b) Junior Research Fellowship
c) Junior Fellowship d) None of the above

56. ………….. is the first step of Research process

a) Formulation of a problem b) Collection of Data
c) Editing and Coding d) Selection of a problem

57. A problem well put is ……………….

a) Fully solved b) Not solved c) Cannot be solved d) half- solved

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58. ……………. is a source of problem

a) Schools and Colleges b) Class Room Lectures
c) Play grounds d) Infra structures

59. A question which requires a solution is ………….

a) Observation b) Problem c) Data d) Experiment

60. Converting a question into a Researchable problem is called …………

a) Solution b) Examination
c) Problem formulation d) Problem Solving

61. While Selecting a problem, problem which is ………….. is no taken

a) Very Common b) Overdone c) Easy one d) rare

62. The first step in formulating a problem is

a) Statement of the problem b) Gathering of Data
c) Measurement d)Survey

63. …………….. will help in finding out a problem for research

a) Professor b) Tutor c) HOD d) Guide

64. Second step in problem formulation is

a ) Statement of the problem
b) Understanding the nature of the problem
c) Survey
d) Discussions

65. Third step in problem formulation is

a) Statement of the problem
b) Understanding the nature of the problem
c) Survey the available literature
d) Discussion

66. Fourth step in problem formulation is

a) Develop ideas through discussion b) Survey
c) Statement of problem Enactment

67. Last step in problem formulation is

a) Survey b) Discussion
c) Literature survey d) Re Phrasing the Research problem

68. In the formulation of the problem we need to give a ………….

a) Title b) Index c) Bibliography d) Concepts

69. Objectives in problem formulation means

a) Questions to be answered b) methods
c) Techniques d)methodology

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70. The problem selected must have

a) Speed b) Facts c) Values d) Novelty

71. The formulated problem should have

a) Originality b) Values c) Coherence d) Facts

72. The purpose of Social Science Research is

a) Academic and Non academic b) Cultivation
c) Academic d) Utilitarian

73. The Academic purpose is to have ……………….

a) Information b) firsthand knowledge
c) Knowledge and information d) models

74. Social Science Research creates Social ……………

a) Alienation b) Cohesion c) mobility d) Integration

75. ………… is a quality of Good Researcher

a) Scientific temper b) Age c) Money d) time

76. Social Science Research in India aims at a ………. State

a) Secular b) Totalitarian c) democratic d) welfare

77. A ……………… is an abstraction formed by generalization from particulars

a) Hypothesis b) Variable c) Concept d)facts

78. Concept is of two types

a) Abstract and Coherent b) Concrete and Coherent
c) Abstract and concrete d) None of the above

79. Concepts are of ……………….types

a) 4 b) 6 c) 10 d) 2

80. There is a concept by ……………………

a) Observation b) formulation c) Theory d) Postulation

81. Another concept is by ………………..

a) Formulation c) Postulation c) Intuition d) Observation

82. Concepts are ……………. of Research

a)guide b) tools c)methods d) Variables

83. Concepts are ………………….

a)Metaphor b) Simile c) Symbols d) Models

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84. Concepts represent various degree of ……………..

a) Formulation b) Calculation c) Abstraction d) Specification

85. Concepts which cannot be given operational definitions are ………… concepts
a) Verbal b) Oral c) Hypothetical d) Operational

86. “Concept is in reality a definition in short hand or a class or group of facts” –defined by
a) Kerlinger b) P.V. Young c) Aurthur d) Kaplan
87. Different people hold ……………. of the same thing
a) Same and different b) Same
c) different d) None of the above

88. Many concepts find their origin from

a) Greek b) English c) Latin d) Many languages

89. A tentative proposition subject to test is

a)Variable b) Hypothesis c) Data d) Concept

90. Analogies are sources of ……………….

a) Data b) Concept c) Research d) Hypothesis

91. “A Proposition which can be put to test to determine its validity” Defined by
a) Lund berg b) Emory c) Johnson d) Good and Hatt

92. “ A tentative generalization” stated by

a) Good and Hatt b) Lund berg c) Emory d) Orwell

93. Propositions which describe the characteristics are …………. Hypothesis

a) Descriptive b) Imaginative c) Relational d) Variable

94. A Hypothesis which develops while planning the research is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Working Hypothesis
c) Relational Hypothesis d)Descriptive Hypothesis

95. When a hypothesis is stated negatively it is called

a) Relational Hypothesis b) Situational Hypothesis
c) Null Hypothesis d) Casual Hypothesis

96. The first variable is …………….. variable

a) Abstract b) Dependent c) Independent d) Separate

97. The second variable is called …………

a) Independent b) Dependent c) Separate d) Abstract

98. Hypothesis which explain relationship between two variables is

a) Causal b) Relational c) Descriptive d)Tentative

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99. Null means

a) One b) Many c) Zero d) None of these

100. …………………. Represent common sense ideas

a) Statistical Hypothesis b) Complex Hypothesis
c) Common sense Hypothesis d) Analytical Hypothesis

101. Hypothesis concerned with analytical variable is

a) Null Hypothesis b)Casual Hypothesis
c) Barren Hypothesis d)Analytical Hypothesis

102. A Hypothesis from which no generalization can be made is

a) Null Hypothesis b) Barren Hypothesis
c) Descriptive Hypothesis d) Analytical Hypothesis

103. ………….. from theory leads to Hypothesis

a) Deduction b) induction
c) Logical deduction d) Observation

104. ………….. is a source of Hypothesis

a) Intuition b) Knowledge c) Energy d) Survey

105. Hypothesis ……………… Research

a) Guide b) Misguide c) Alter d) Change

106. A Hypothesis contributes to the development of ………….

a) Theory b) Generalization c) Evolution d) Concept

107. …………. Is a quality of Good Hypothesis

a) Small in size b) Conceptual Clarity
c) durability d) applicability

108. A Hypothesis must be …………….

a) Diffuse b) Specific c) Slow d) Speedy

109. Hypothesis must have ………………

a) Applicability b) Durability c) Testability d) Measurement

110. Statistical Hypothesis is derived from

a) Frame b) Data c) Sample d) Facts

111. The …………. in which researcher is nurtured is a source of Hypothesis

a) Caste b) Community c) Culture d) Economy

112. In testing a Hypothesis the common error is

a) Type I b) Type I and II c) Type II d) None of these

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113. Survey is a ……………. Study

a) Descriptive b) Fact finding c) Analytical d) Systematic

114. Survey is always a ………….. study

a) Field b) Laboratory c) Office d) Class room

115. In a survey there is an enumerator and a ………………….

a) Guide b) Respondent c) Supervisor d) Messenger

116. The first step in a survey is ……………. of a problem

a) Application b) Rejection c) Selection d) Planning

117. The first purpose of a survey is to ……………..

a) Description b) Evaluation
c) Propagation d) Provide Information

118. All surveys are essentially ……….

a) Narrative b) Explanatory
c) Interdisciplinary d) Communal

119. The chief merit of survey is

a) Adaptability b) Sensibility c) Connectivity d) Versatility

120. A survey is limited by the willingness and ……………. of respondent

a) Co-operation b) Help c) Access d) Attitude

121. In a survey the number questions is

a) Unlimited b) limited
c) Both limited and un limited d) None of the above

122. Survey is usually ………….

a) Cheap b) Expensive c) Moderate d) None of above

123. The final stage is a survey is ……………….

a) Reporting b) Field work c) Assignment d) Calculation

124. Survey is both intensive and ……………..

a) Deep b) Wide c) Extensive d) Accurate

125. Surveys on the basis of subject matter are of two types (1) Social survey and
(2)……………
a) Economic Survey b) Deep survey
c) Intensive Survey d) Extensive Survey

126. In a Three year Research Programme ………… time can be devoted for preliminary
works
a) 20% b) 50% c) 17% d) 25%

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127. For collection of Data ………….. time is devoted

a) 50% b) 25% c) 75% d) 33%

128. For Data Analysis ……….. time can be devoted

a) 25% b) 75% c) 30% d) 100%

129. For Report writing ……………. % of time is devoted

a) 17% b) 33% c)25% d) 10%

130. Final stage in the Research Process is

a) Problem formulation b) Data collection
c) Data Analysis Report Writing

131. A Research Report is a formal statement of ……………….

a) Research Process b) Research Problem
c) Data collection d) Data Editing

132. A comprehensive full Report of the research process is called

a) Thesis b) Summary Report c) Abstract d) Article

133. The Report submitted when there is a time lag between data collection and
presentation of Result is called
a) Thesis b) Interim Report c) Summary Report d) Article

134. Technical Report is otherwise called

a) Interim Report b) Popular Report c) Thesis d) Summary
135. A short summary of Technical Report is called
a) Article b) Research Abstract
c) Publication d) Guide

136. ………………. is called publication in a Research journal

a) Guide b) Popular report c) Research article d) Format

137. Ph.D stands for

a) Doctor of Philosophy b) Degree in Philosophy
c) Doctor of Psychology d) None of the above

138. Bibliography means

a) Foot Note b) Quotations
c) List of Books referred d) Biography

139. The first page of the research report is

a) Appendix b) Bibliography c) Index d) Title Page

140. In Research Report ……………. is used to acknowledge indebtness

a) Bibliography b) Index c) Appendix d) Foot-Notes

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141. Failure to acknowledge the borrowed material is called (Take and use of others as
one’s own)
a) Acknowledgement b) Foot note
c) Index d) Plagiarism

142. A Blue print of Research work is called

a) Research Problem b) Research design
c) Research tools d) Research methods

143. The concrete observable events which represent the abstract concepts or constructs
are called
a) Data b) Sample c) Variable d) Proposition

144. In …………… the main purpose is to formulate a problem for more precise
investigation
a) Exploratory or Formulative study b) Descriptive study
c) Diagnostic study d) None of the above

145. The main objective of ………….. study’s to acquire knowledge

a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and Diagnostic

146. ……………… is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect
to their association or disassociation
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive
c) Diagnostic d) Descriptive and diagnostic

147. ……………. is concerned with discovering and testing certain variables with respect to
their association or disassociation
a) Exploratory b) Descriptive c) Diagnostic d) None of the above

148. …………….. is compared to Mariner’s Compass in sea voyage

a) Research Problem b) Data collection c) Sampling d) Research design

149. ……………… prevent a researcher from blind search and intellectual wandering
a) Data b) Sample c) Research tools d) Research design

150. Research design is a blue print, outline and a …………….

a) Plan b) System c) Strategy d) Guide

151. Facts, figures and other relevant materials serving as bases for a study is called
a) Sample b)Method c) Data d) Theory

152. There are mainly…………. sources of data

a) 10 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

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153. The original source from which researcher collects information is

a) Primary Source b) Secondary Source
c) Both primary and Secondary d) None of these

154. Source of Data collected and compiled by others is called

a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Primary and Secondary d) None of the above

155. Data related to human beings are called

a) Territorial data b) Organizational data
c) Peripheral data d) Demographic data

156. Data related to geophysical characteristics are called

a) Demographic Data b) Territorial Data
c) Personal Data d) Organizational Data

157. ………… is the raw materials for Analysis

a) Variables b) Problem c) Data d) Sample

158. Readymade and readily available data is …………..

a) Primary b) Personal c) Organizational d) Secondary

159. The way or mode of gathering data is

a) Tool b) method c) Technique d) Observation

160. An instrument used in method is called

a) Sample b) Technique c) Tool d) Survey

161. Observation is a Physical and ……….. activity

a) Mental b) Social c) Psychological d) Personal

162. “Social Science research begins and ends with observation” ….. stated by
a) P.V. Young b) Sidney Webb c) Kaplan d) Rose

163. In a …………… observation researcher is a part of observation

a) Non participant b) Participant c) Structural d) Unstructured

164. In a ………….. observation researcher stands apart and does not participate
a) Structural b) Unstructured c) Non Participant d) Participant

165. Observation of an event personally by the observer is ……………..

a) Indirect observation b) Direct observation
c) Controlled observation d) Uncontrolled observation

166. Camera, tape recorder, video tape etc are ……………. Devices of observation
a) Casual b) Mechanical c) Technical d) Manual

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167. Observation is of no use in collecting ………………

a) Full events b) Past events c) Present events d) all of the above

168. A two way systematic conversation between an investigator and respondent is

called
a) Observation b) Schedule c) Interview d) Simulation

169. Interview with a detailed standardized schedule is called

a) Clinical Interview b) Structural Interview
c) Group Interview d) Direct Interview

170. An Interview in which interviewer encourage the respondent to talk freely about a
given topic is
a) Focused Interview b) Structural Interview
c) Un Structured Interview d) Clinical Interview

171. Interview which require “Probing” is called

a) Clinical Interview b) Depth Interview
c) Group Interview d) Telephone Interview

172. The Friendly relationship between Interviewer and respondent is called

a) Morale b) Management c) Rapport d) Conclusion

173. In adequate response, Interviewers bias non response etc is the limitations of ………..
a) Observation b) Interview c) Sample d) Data

174. An example of non-personal method of Data collection is

a) Interview b) Group Interview
c) Schedule d) Telephone Interview
175. A methods of collecting primary data in which a number of individuals with a
common interest interact is called
a) Telephone Interview b) Clinical Interview
c) Focused Interview d)Group Interview

176. Sending Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by

post is called
a) Mail Survey b) Interview c) Observation d) Panel

177. Schedule is used as a ………………..

a) Questionnaire b) Tool c) Method d) technique

178. Schedule is filled by ……………

a) Respondent b) Enumerator c) Everybody d) None of the above

179. Questionnaire is filled by ……………….

a) Respondent b) Everybody c) Enumerator d) None of the above

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180. Questions which allow only a few alternative way of answering is called ………..
a) Open ended questions b) Unstructured questions
c) Structural questions d) Dichotomous questions

181. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called

a) Multiple choice questions b) Dichotomous questions
c) Open ended questions d) Structured questions

182. Questions which seek information is called

a) Factual question b) Opinion question
c) Hypothetical question d) Marginal question

183. The question which by its content structure or wordings leads the respondent in the
direction of a certain answer is called
a) Factual question b) Opinion question
c) Leading question d) Structural question

184. The aggregate of all the units pertaining to a study is called

a) Population or universe b) Unit
c) Sample d) Frame

185. A member of the population is called ……………

a) Element b) Census c) Sample d) Group

186. Sample value is called………………

a) Parameter b) Core Value c)Statistic d) Variable

187. Population value is called …………..

a) Statistic b) Parameter c) Variable d) Core value

188. Probability sampling is otherwise called

a) Multiple choice b) Uni-variate Analysis
c) Random Sampling d) Bi-variate Analysis

189. Sampling which provides for a known non zero chance of selection is
a) Probability sampling b) Non probability sampling
c) multiple Choice d) analysis

190. An example of probability sampling is

a) Quota Sampling b) Snow-ball sampling
c) Purposive sampling d) Lottery method

191. …………… are used for Random Sample when the population is very large
a) Calculator b) Telescope c) Computer d) Typewriter

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192. In which sample population is divided into different strata and sample is taken from
different strata?
a) Quota Sampling b) Snow ball sampling
c) Stratified sampling d)Purposive Sampling

193. Drawing a sample from each stratum in the proportion to latter’s share in the total
population is called
a) Stratified sampling b) Proportioned stratified sampling
c) Disproportionate sampling d) Quota sampling

194. Selecting sample units in just a “hit and miss” fashion is called
a) Convenience or Accidental sampling b) Purposive sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Proportionate sampling

195. A technique of Building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an

initial set of members as informants is called
a) Quota sampling b)Convenience Sampling
c) Snow ball Sampling d) Purposive sampling

196. All the physical components of the computer are collectively called
a) Software b) Hard ware c) Firm Ware d) Circuit

197. Computer operations are through ………….

a) Binary digits b) Decimal c) Reminder d) Fraction

198. Office Editing and ……….. are two types of Editing in Research
a) Lab editing b) Field Editing
c) Class Roam Editing d) Book Editing

199. Assigning numerals or other symbols to the categories or response is called

a) Editing b) Coding c) Transcription d) Tablet ion

200. Summarizing raw data and displaying them on compact statistical tables for analysis
is
a) Tabulation b) Coding c) Transcription d) Editing

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ANSWER KEY

1 D 26 B 51 C 76 D 101 D 126 C 151 C 176 A

2 C 27 C 52 D 77 C 102 B 127 D 152 B 177 B
3 A 28 D 53 C 78 C 103 C 128 A 153 A 178 B
4 D 29 D 54 A 79 D 104 A 129 C 154 B 179 A
5 B 30 B 55 B 80 D 105 A 130 D 155 D 180 C
6 A 31 B 56 D 81 C 106 A 131 A 156 B 181 B
7 A 32 A 57 D 82 B 107 B 132 A 157 C 182 A
8 C 33 C 58 B 83 C 108 B 133 B 158 D 183 C
9 B 34 D 59 B 84 C 109 C 134 C 159 B 184 A
10 B 35 A 60 C 85 C 110 B 135 B 160 C 185 A
11 C 36 C 61 B 86 B 111 C 136 C 161 A 186 C
12 B 37 A 62 A 87 C 112 B 137 A 162 B 187 B
13 A 38 C 63 D 88 D 113 B 138 C 163 B 188 B
14 C 39 D 64 B 89 B 114 A 139 D 164 C 189 A
15 A 40 A 65 C 90 D 115 B 140 D 165 B 190 D
16 C 41 B 66 A 91 D 116 C 141 D 166 B 191 C
17 B 42 D 67 D 92 B 117 D 142 B 167 B 192 C
18 A 43 B 68 A 93 A 118 C 143 C 168 C 193 B
19 A 44 A 69 A 94 B 119 D 144 A 169 B 194 A
20 B 45 B 70 D 95 C 120 A 145 B 170 B 195 C
21 A 46 A 71 A 96 C 121 B 146 C 171 B 196 B
22 B 47 D 72 B 97 B 122 B 147 A 172 C 197 A
23 A 48 D 73 C 98 B 123 A 148 D 173 B 198 B
24 B 49 C 74 B 99 C 124 C 149 D 174 D 199 B
25 A 50 A 75 A 100 C 125 A 150 A 175 D 200 A

©
Reserved

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