Title: ATA 71-80 Code: A321neo

Contents: Date: 8/3/2019

Questionnaire No.: 01 Question Qty.: Duration:
1st Exam: Retaking Exam:  Prepared by: Hồ Anh Tuấn

Do NOT WRITE or MARK on this form or you will pay the PENALTY!
PLEASE ANSWER QUESTIONS BELOW
ATA 71-80: POWER PLANT

ATA 71:
1. Features of PW1100G-JM engine are:
A. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, low speed gear-driven fan
B. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an ultra-high bypass ratio, high speed gear-driven fan
C. Axial flow, twin spool turbofan with an low bypass ratio, low speed gear-driven fan

2.“PW1130G-JM” means:
A. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25300 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
B. Engine is rated at max thrust of 30000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C
C. Engine is rated at max thrust of 25000 lbs to install in the Airbus A/C

3. Nacelle system components provide the engine with the capabilities:

A. An aerodynamic for engine mounted components
B. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components; Collection and
discharge of oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid from the engine and its components
C. An aerodynamic and protective enclosure for engine mounted components; Collection and
discharge of oil, fuel from the engine and its components

4. Fan cowls:
A. Each of the 3 fan cowl door latches has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which is able to detect
weather the relative latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position
B. Fan cowl door has two fan cowl door proximity sensors which are able to detect weather the relative
latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position
C. Fan cowl door has a fan cowl door proximity sensor which is able to detect weather the relative
latch is locked to alert the ground crew to the fan cowl’s position

5. Engine mounts have:

A. The FWD mount assy is attached to the CIC, supports side and vertical loads and the AFT mount
assy is attached to the TEC, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical, roll loads
B. The FWD mountassy is attached to the TEC, supports side and vertical loads and the AFT
mountassy is attached to the CIC, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical, roll loads
C. The FWD mountassy is attached to the CICF, supports side and vertical loads and the AFT
mountassy is attached to the TECF, reacts to engine force-aft, side, vertical, roll loads

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 1/9

ATA 72:
1. How many type of Engine main bearings :
A. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: axial; Ball bearing and Tapered
roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
B. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load: radial; Ball bearing and Tapered
roller bearing with alignment and load: axial and radial
C. Three types of bearing: Roller bearing with alignment and load radial; Ball bearing and Tapered
roller bearing with alignment and load axial

2. Identify the number of blades in one engine fan set?

A. Thirty six (36)
B. Twenty (20)
C. Twenty two (22)

3. The Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) is made up of:

A. A central gear surrounded by three star gears which are supported by journal bearings
B. A central sun gear surrounded by five star gears which are supported by journal bearings and an
outer ring gear
C. A central sun gear surrounded by five star gears which are supported by an outer ring gear

4. What is the purpose of Compressor Intermediate Case (CIC)?

A. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the LPC to the HPC
B. Providing a flow path for engine core airflow coming from the Fan Intermediate Case (FIC) to the
LPC
C. Neither A nor B

5. The LPCompressor has how many stages?

A. Only one stage
B. Two stages
C. Three stages

6. The ring of vanes of Turbine Nozzle Assembly makes?

A. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal flow, and pressure to the 1st stage
turbine blades
B. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, and flow to the combustion
champer
C. Changing the direction of the hot gases to provide optimal angle, pressure, and flow to the 1st
stage turbine blades

7. What is No. 4 Roller Bearing assembly support?

A. The rear of HPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the inner case
B. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the outer case
C. The rear of LPT rotor and contains the No. 4 Bearing support, attached to the inner case

8. How the Engine main gearbox (MGB) are driven by?

A. N1 rotor.
B. N2 rotor via the transfer gear box
C. The Angle gearbox (AGB) extracts power from HPC and provides it to the MGB through a series
of gear shafts

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 1/9

ATA 73 – ENGINE FUEL AND CONTROL.
1. What is Integrated fuel pump and control (IFPC) for?
A. IFPC supplies metered fuel flow to the engine as scheduled by the EEC
B. IFPC supplies pressurized fuel to engine component actuators
C. Both A and B

2. In case of the event of Thrust control malfunction (TCM) on ground:

A. There is no protection, the Thrust lever must be moved forward manually
B. The torque motor shuts down
C. The Engine master switch switches off immediately

3. Identify the number of fuel nozzles?

A. Twelve (12)
B. Eighteen (18)
C. Twenty two (22)

4. How is Return to tank (RTT) valve controlled?

A. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC (12)
B. The RTT valve is controlled by EEC, and is actuated based on aircraft altitude, ambient temperature
and fuel flow
C. The RTT valve is controlled by FQIC and EEC, and is actuated based on aircraft altitude, ambient
temperature and fuel flow

5. Power supplies to EEC:

A. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) only
B. From the aircraft or from the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) as a backup supply
C. From the Permanent magnet alternator (PMA) or from the aircraft as a backup supply

6. Where is P2.5/T2.5 probe locate?

A. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 1:00
B. On Compressor Intermediate Case at 6:00
C. On Highpressor Intermediate Case at 1:00

ATA 74 – Ignition system.

1. Of which type is the ignition system?
A. Low voltage, high energy
B. High voltage, low energy
C. High voltage, high energy

2. What provide the selection of ignition A/B?

A. The EEC
B. The engine control panel
C. The ECAM control panel

3. What happen in case of a surge is detected in flight or during takeoff?

A. Igniters will be powered until 30 seconds after the surge recovers
B. Only one igniter will be powered, the other will be hot standby
C. Igniters will be powered and cut-off immediately after the surge recovers

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 3/9

4. When using the Manual start ignition selection:
A. EEC energizes one of igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position
B. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of flap position, cowl anti-ice
status, and/or continuous ignition commands
C. EEC energizes both igniters based on logic and aircraft inputs of thrust lever position, cowl anti-
ice status, and/or continuous ignition commands

5. Each engine equipped with?

A. One ignition system with two igniters
B. Two ignition systems, each has two igniters
C. Two ignition systems with two igniters

6. Ignition system power supply is?

A. 115 V from the aircraft
B. 115 V from engine generator
C. 28 V from the FADEC PMA

7. What does Continuous Relight mean?

A. An active ignition system will work continuously.
B. Both ignition systems are selected during engine start.
C. Both ignition systems are demanded to work continuously

ATA 75 – AIR
1. How many start bleed valve on PW1100G?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
2. Which stage the start bleed valve install on?
A. 6th
B. 7th
C. 8th

3. The operating LP compressor stator vane actuator (LPC SVA), if there is a loss of electrical
power?
A. The actuator positions vanes in the full close position for inhibited airflow through the LPC
B. The actuator positions vanes in the full open fail safe position for maximum airflow through the
LPC
C. Neither A nor B

4. What is the purpose of the 2.5 Bleed valve actuator?

A. Control the LPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by ECC
B. Control the HPC bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by ECC
C. Control the LPT bleed valve through the 2.5 bleed valve linkage when commanded by ECC

5. Which is bleed air system used to improve engine startup performance?

A. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 6th stage HPC air
B. The HPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air
C. The LPC Bleed air system bleeds 8th stage HPC air

6. At start, how are the HPC active and passive bleed valve operate?
A. Mechanically spring loaded (fail safe) open
B. Electrically control to close
ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 4/9
 C. Electrically control to open

7. How is Active clearance control valve operate?

A. During normal engine operation, the valve is closed at start and idle
B. Partially open at takeoff and climb, and fully open at cruise
C. Both A and B

8. Is the purpose of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) system?

A. To improve compressor efficiency
B. To improve and maintain engine performance
C. To reduce overall engine thermal growth

9. What is 5 major function of air system on PW1100G?

1. increase engine operability and stability,
2. reduce noise from engine
3. cool engine parts
4. improve fuel effiency,
5. remove ingested debris from the airstream.
6. supply bleed air for ESC
7. pressurize and seal bearing compartments
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
C. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7

10. What is the fail safe postion of 2.5 Bleed valve actuator?
A. Fully Close
B. Fully open
C. 30% open
11. The HPC Stator Vane Actuator can control how many stage of HPC?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
12. What is the purpose of Buffer air heat exchanger?
A. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to the Bearing Ventilation
System
B. Use station 2.5 bleed air to cool HPC 3rd Stage Air before its delivery to the No4 Bearing
housing.
C. Provide cooling buffer air to the engine main bearing compartment and prevent oil leakage
13. What is the purpose of LPBSOV - Low pressure buffer shutoff valve?
A. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage servo pressure sent to the LPBSOV
B. Direct buffer air to the Bearing Ventilation System)
C. Provides discrete (on/off) control of HPC 3rd Stage bleed air supply to the Bearing Ventilation
System.

ATA 76 – ENGINE CONTROLS.

1. Which computer controls the engine thrust?
A. EEC in both manual and automatic thrust modes
B. FMGC in automatic thrust mode and ECU in manual mode
C. FCU in both manual and automatic thrust modes
2. When the throttle is between two detent points, what position corresponds to the thrust limit?
A. The upper detent point
ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 5/9
 B. The lower detent point
C. The actual throttle lever position

3. What does the FMGC compute?

A. N1 limit
B. N1 target
C. N1 command

4. What is the normal engine throttle cruise detent point?

A. CL
B. FLX/MCT
C. TOGA

5. Throttle control system consists of?

A. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit, electrical harness
B. Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, throttle control unit, electrical harness,
EGT thermolcouple
Throttle control lever, throttle control artificial feel unit, electrical harness

ATA 77 - ENGINE MONITORING AND INDICATION

1. How many speed sensors on PW1100G?
A. 1 N1, 1 N2
B. 2 N1 (one active/one spare), 1 N2
C. 1 N1, 1 N2, 1 Nfan

2. What is the N2 speed sensor located on?

A. Main Gearbox
B. N2
C. Angle Gearbox

3. How many EGT thermocouple on PW1100G?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 2

4. PHMU is monitoring… ?
A. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring*
B. Oil Debris monitoring, Auxiliary Oil pressure Monitoring
C. Oil Debris monitoring, Vibration monitoring

5. Where is the PHMU located?

A. Fan Case forward the EEC
B. On FWD Avionic Bay
C. Inside the EEC

6. How many vibration sensors on PW1100G?

A. 02 - at aft and forward
B. 01 - at core
C. 02 - at core and fan case
7. What is the N1 vibration signal on Engine System Page?
A. N1

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 6/9

 B. Nf
C. Do not have N1 vibration signal on Engine System Page

8. What is the Cold Junction Compensation to compute EGT?

A. Main Oil temp Sensor
B. T3 temp sensor
C. Fuel temp sensor

9. The engine primary parameters are displayed on?

A. The lower ECAM engine page
B. The upper ECAM
C. Both The lower ECAM engine page and the upper ECAM

10. The engine page is selected?

A. Manually or automatically depend on flight phases
B. Manually only
C. Automatically only depend on flight phases

11. The engine “N2 SPEED” parameter is displayed on?

A. The Upper ECAM
B. The Lower ECAM engine page
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

12. The engine oil quantity parameters are displayed on?

A. The Upper ECAM
B. The Lower ECAM engine page
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

13. The IGN indication is displayed on?

A. The Upper ECAM during engine start
B. The Lower ECAM engine page during engine start
C. The Lower ECAM engine page or Cruise page

14. The fuel used indication is reset to Zero:

A. Five minutes after engine shut down
B. After a new take-off
C. At each engine start

15. The engine thrust indicated on ECAM via what parameter?

A. N1 speed
B. N2 speed
EGT
ATA 78 – REVERSER
1. How many Hold Open Rod on each Reverser half?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
2. How many blocker door on each reverser half?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 7/9

3. How many latches are used to fully closed reversers?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
4. Where is HCU Inhibit Lever located in?
A. On HCU
B. On RH fancase
C. On LH Fancase
5. How many locking actuator installed in 1 engine?
A. 1 on LH Reverser only
B. 2
C. 1 on RH Reverser only
6. How many locking feedback actuator install in 1 engine?
A. 1 on RH side only
B. 2
C. 1 on LH side only

ATA79: OIL SYSTEM

1. What is the type of bearing in FDGS?
A. Journal Bearing
B. Tapered roller bearing
C. Oil firm Bearing
2. How many warning level can main oil filter triggered?
A. None
B. Clogged
C. Degraged and Cloggged
3. Which computer control JOSV?
A. EEC
B. EIU
C. No computer, only mechanical.
4. Which computer control VORV?
A. No computer, only mechanical
B. EEC
C. EIU
5. What is the Fail Safe postion of VORV?
A. Fully Open
B. Fully Close
C. 30% open
6. How many pump inside the Journal Bearing?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
7. What is the new component on Oil Monitoring system compare to V2500?
A. Master Magnetic Chip Detector
B. Oil Debris Monitoring
C. Last Chance Strainer
8. What is the pressure maintain on oil tank assembly by Deaerator?
A. 8 psi
B. 12 psi
C. 20 psi
9. Which side of engine where most of oil system component installed in?
A. LH side

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 8/9

 B. RH side
C. Both side
10. How many pump stage on LSOP?
A. 1 supply pump and 6 scavenge pumps
B. 2 supply pumps and 5 scavenge pumps
C. 1 supply pump and 5 scavenge pumps

ATA 80: START

1. What is the different in starting sequence of PW1100G with V2500?
A. Cooling time (auto drycranking)
B. Ignition sequence
C. High pressure bleed air
2. How can we manual open Start valve?
A. By an access door in RH fan cowl
B. By an access door in LH Reverser
C. By an access door in RH Reverser
3. Start valve control by
A. Torque motor
B. Solenoid
C. LVDT
4. Air Starter used oil for cooling and lubricating from… ?
A. Starter lubricating system
B. Engine Lubricating system
C. IDG lubricating system
5. What is fail safe postion of Starter Valve?
A. Fully closed
B. Do not have fail safe position
C. Partition open

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 9/9

 1. PW1100G highest Thrust could be set up to:
A.
33.000lb
. B.
23.000lb
. C.
43.000lb
.
2. Proximity sensors are installed on each latch of fan cowl doors which sends its position signal to
A. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU) & the EEC
B. the EEC
C. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU)
3. How many Bearing PW1100G has:
A. 8
B.
7
C. 4
4. How many Bearing Compartment PW1100G has:
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
5. The Fan rotor contributes to approximately
A. 70% of the thrust.
B. 80% of the
thrust.
C. 90% of the
thrust.
6. How many fan blades are there at the fan rotor?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 36
7. Is fuel flow used to cool down IDG oil and engine oil through?
A. Integrated Fuel Pump and
Control
B. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
C. Return-To-Tank valve
8. Which component divides the fuel to primary and secondary manifold?
A. Fuel Metering
Valve.
B. Fuel Divider
Valve.
C. Pressure Regulating Valve.
9. The collected fuel remains in ecology collector tank is drawn back into fuel system when?
A. Next engine start up
B. Last engine shut down
C. Aircraft is energized

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 10/20

 10. Data Storage Unit connect to:
A. EEC Chanel A.
B. EEC Chanel B.
C. PHMU.
11. EEC and PHMU are cooled by:
A. Natural Convection.
B. Individual Air Tube.
C. Air Conditioning.
12. The PW110G Engine rating adjusted by:
A. MCDU.
B. DSU.
C. Cannot be adjusted.
13. The Air Starter is mounted on
A. the right side aft of the MGB
B. the left side aft of the MGB
C. the fan cowl area

14. 2.5 Stage Bleed Valve locates at

A. Low Pressure Compressor
B. Compressor Intermediate Case
C. High Pressure Compressor
15. The engine inlet cone is anti-iced with
A. Continuous airflow from the 2.5 compressor stage
B. Continuous airflow from the 3 compressor stage
C. Continuous airflow from the 6 compressor stage
16. A single stage Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) which direct the air to the LP Compressor
at the correct angle and
A. are controlled by the
PHMU
B. are controlled by the
EEC
C. are not controlled by the EEC
17. The fan speed (Nf) speed sensors send signals direct to
A. The PHMU &EEC.
B. The
PHMU.
C. The EEC .
18. Each half of C ducts includes one translating sleeves, two actuators,
A. ten blockers doors and
cascades.
B. five blockers doors and
cascades.
C. five blockers doors and pivoting doors.

19. The engine EGT is sensed and averaged by

A. five thermocouple probes (T5
probes)
ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 11/20
 B. four thermocouple probes (T5
probes)
B. six thermocouple probes (T5 probes)

20. Which mechanical device keeps a continuous supply of oil to the fan drive journal bearings
from the auxiliary oil supply in windmill
A. JOSV
B. AODV
C. VORV
21. Deactivation of the Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU) is provided by:
A. an inhibit lever and inhibit pin
B. inhibit pin
C. an inhibit handle to provide to lock out the DCV( Directional Control Valve)
22. What is function of the Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger Bypass Valve (FOHEBV)?
A. To control and distribute oil flow between two pathways based on fuel temperature
B. To direct the oil to journal bearings, ensuring their lubrication at low power setting
C. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper.
23. What is the purpose of the Auxiliary Lubrication System?
A. To protects the FDGS journal bearings from low oil pressure conditions in windmilling
operation.
B. To provide correct oil flow to the Fan Drive Gear System and the No. 3 Bearing.
C. To controls oil flow to the No. 3 Bearing damper
24. The normal duty cycle of starter of the engine PW1100G is:
A. Three attempts with 35 seconds cooling period between two attempts and total
cumulative time is less than 15 min.
B. Three attempts , each attempt last less than 3 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts .
C. Three attempts , each attempt last less than 5 minutes with 35 seconds cooling period
between two attempts .
25. How to improve engine startup performance by the HPC Air System?
A. By 2.5 bleed air valve
B. By two HPC bleed valves
C. By three HPC bleed valve
26. What is the function of HPC bleed valves?
A. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment during engine start
B. Allow HPC 6th Stage air to bleed directly into fan flow during engine start
C. Allow HPC 3rd Stage air to bleed directly into the core compartment during engine start
27. How does EEC monitor the position of HPC bleed valves?
A. By thermocouple
sensors
B. By pressure sensors
C. There is no position feedback to EEC
28. The ACC (Active Clearance Control) System uses fan air to :
A. Cool turbine’s blades and vanes
B. Cool turbine cases to improve the fuel efficiency
C. Cool bearing compartments

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 29. The PW1100G-JM engine’s stage counting is as follow:
A. 1-4-9-1-5
B. 1-G-4-10-2-5
C. 1-G-3-8-2-3

30. How to identify the Fan blade No.1?

A. The number is vibro-peened on fan hub platform.
B. The number is vibro-peened on fan blade.
C. The number is vibro-peened on retaining lock ring.
31. The Tertiary Lock system is controlled by:
A. EEC
B. EIU
C. SECs
32. How do the EEC’s both channels operate at normal mode?
A. They are in active/passive mode
B. They are in active/active mode
C. They are in active/standby mode

1) The Main Oil Temperature (MOT) sensor is a dual channel sensor and is used to
A. Measure the temperature of the scavenge oil returning to the tank
B. Measure the temperature of the lubrication oil pressure from the tank
C. Measure the pressure of the scavenge oil returning to the tank
2) The Oil Debris Monitoring (ODM) sensor
A. sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the HMU
B. sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the EIU
C. sends signals proportional to size and type of the pollution particles to the PHMU
3) Which permit to increase the periodic inspection interval IDG servicing
A. The IDG has two new additional sensors(oil level sensor and oil filter DPI) providing warnings IDG OIL
LVL,IDG FILTER CLOG.
B. The IDG has new additional sensors(oil level sensor and oil filter DPI) providing warning IDG OIL LVL.
C. The IDG has new additional sensors(oil level sensor and oil filter DPI) providing warning IDG FILTER CLOG.
4) The N1& N2 speed sensors send signals direct to
A. The EEC
B. B. The PHMU.
C. C. The PHMU &EEC .
5) What are(is) kind of different pressure fuel filter clog indication(s) available
A. degrad
B. clog &degrad
C. clog
6) If the signal from one vibration sensor (either forward or aft vibration sensor) is lost during engine
operation,the display for the affected sensor will be presented in
A. degraded mode.
B. normal mode
C. cross amber
7) What are indication ENG speed sensors on the ECAM.
A. Nf& N2
B. N1 & N2
C. N1 , N2 &Nf
8) The No. 4 bearing magnetic chip collector is located

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 A. the lubrication and scavenge oil pump, at the 6 o'clock position..
B. in the No. 4 bearing oil scavenge line.
C. exist in supply oil.
9) For de-activation thrust reverser Hydraulic Control Unit (HCU), we need to
A. open the oil tank access-door on the left fan cowl-door, or if necessary, open the fan cowl doors
B. open the RH fan cowl door.
C. open engine thust reserve doors
10) Proximity sensors are installed on each latch of fan cowl doors which sends its position signal to
A. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU) & the EEC
B. the EEC
C. the Engine lnterface Unit (EIU)
11) The engine rotor comprises
A. a single stage fan rotor, 3 stage LP Compressor,8 stage HP Compressor,2 stage HP turbine and 3 stage
Lp turbine.
B. a single stage fan rotor, 3 stage LP Compressor,9 stage HP Compressor,2 stage HP turbine and 3 stage Lp
turbine.
C. a single stage fan rotor, 4 stage LP Compressor,8 stage HP Compressor,2 stage HP turbine and 3 stage Lp
turbine.
12) The inlet cone is made of composite material and is anti-iced with a continuous airflow from
A. the HP compressor stage
B. the 2.5 compressor stage
C. the ram air inlet
13) The Fan rotor contributes to approximately
A. 70% of the thrust.
B. 80% of the thrust.
C. 90% of the thrust.
14) The FDGS permits the LPC to rotate at a higher speed and
A. helps in reducing the fan rotating speed .
B. helps in increasing the fan rotating speed .
C. helps in remaining the fan rotating speed constant.
15) A vent grill of fan cowl doors near the 6 o' clock position permits
A. the air to escape out in case of damage of the anti-ice duct and drain any fluids in and around the fan
case
B. drain any fluids in and around the fan case
C. the air to escape out in case of damage of the anti-ice duct
16) The lire seal fingers (turkey feathers) at the top ofthe exhaust nozzle prevents
A. any flame from entering the nacelle compartment area in the event of fire.
B. any flame from entering the core compartment area in the event of fire.
C. any flame from entering the fan cowl compartment area in the event of fire.
17) The FDGS is a reduction gear mechanism which comprises of a central sun gear and
A. five planetary gears arranged like a star
B. four planetary gears arranged like a star
C. six planetary gears arranged like a star
18) The aircraft systems are supplied the HP compressor air from
A. Stage 3 and stage 8.
B. Stage 3 and stage 7.
C. Stage 3 and stage 6.
19) TIC which directs the HP Turbine airflow to align with the LP Turbine. It supports
A. the number 3 bearing.
B. the number 5 & 6 bearing.
C. the number 4 bearing.

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 14/20

20) The forward mount assembly bears
A. the engine thrust, vertical and lateral loads
B. the engine vertical and radial loads
C. the engine thrust and radial loads
21) The annular combustion chamber houses
A. 18 fuel nozzles(6 simplex and 12 duplex)
B. 18 fuel nozzles(9 simplex and 9 duplex)
C. 18 fuel nozzles(12 simplex and 6 duplex)
22) The fan rotational speeds being lower
A. helps in reducing rotational loads and bird strike fan damage.
B. helps in increasing rotational loads and bird strike fan damage.
C. helps in reducing rotational loads.
23) The geared turbo fan engine reduces the CO2 and NOx emissions and provides improved
A. fuel efficiency and low cost
B. fuel efficiency and reduces engine noise.
C. fuel efficiency and reduces flight range
24) The PW1 l00G engine is
A. an axial flow, dual-rotor, geared fan, variable stator, ultra high bypass ratio power plant.
B. an axial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, ultra high bypass ratio power plant.
C. an axial flow, dual-rotor, geared fan, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant.
25) When opening the engine cowls:
A. Respect the wind limitations and the opening/closing sequence,
B. Always secure cowls with the hold-open rods,
C. Make sure that the slats are retracted and install a warning notice to prevent slat operation
D. All above
26) When an automatic start is manually aborted.
A. EEC does dry motor the engine
B. EEC does not dry motor the engine
C. EEC does wet motor the engine
27) The EEC will abort a start, will not dry motor the engine and will not attempt a restart if
A. the starter duty cycle is exceeded.
B. EEC unable to control fuel flow
C. N 1 locked rotor
28) The A/THR function is engaged
A. manually when the A/THR P/B is selected
B. automatically at take-off power application.
C. manually when the A/THR P/B is selected or automatically at take-off power application.
29) The usual starter duty cycle is 3 starter crank cycles and
A. 60 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
B. 35 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
C. 45 seconds cooling period between each start attempt
30) The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) is electrically supplied by the A/Celectrical network when
A. high pressure rotor speed (N2) is below l0%
B. the dedicated Permanent MagnetAlternator (PMA) has failed, and then by its dedicated PMA when N2 is
above l0%.
C. A & B are correct
31) Track Lock Valve (TLV) solenoids are controlledindependently by SEC.
A. independently by EECs.
B. independently by LGCIUs.
C. independently by SEC.
32) The 3 PW fire detectors are located:

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 15/20

 A. around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and the aft circumferential ventilation outlet, at
the pylon above the combustion chamber.
B. around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and the aft circumferential ventilation outlet, at
around ventilation exit grid of the fan compartment
C. around the AGB, in the Core between the fuel nozzles and around ventilation exit grid of the fan
compartment, at the pylon above the combustion chamber.
33) The consequence of having the HPV secured closed is that the bleed air from the lntermediate Pressure (lP)
port will be
A. insufficient at low engine power settings (taxi, descent, holding)
B. sufficient at low engine power settings (taxi, descent, holding)
C. A & B are not correct
34) Each PW1100G engine fire loop comprises:
A. Fan fire detector, core fire detector and pylon fire detector
B. Accessory Gear Box fire detector, core fire detector and pylon fire detector
C. Accessory Gear Box fire detector, core fire detector and turbine fire detector
35) To dispatch aircraft under failure of two engine anti-ice valves?
A. Deactivate the valves in open position through the manual override mechanism
B. Deactivate the valves in closed position through the manual override mechanism
C. No dispatch allowed
36) In this NEO configuration, one BMC can:
A. Control and monitor both sides when the other BMC fails
B. Report the failure independently of each other
C. Both A & B
37) Which Engine Bleed Air System sensor is used by BMC for overpressure alarms?
A. Bleed Pressure Sensor (BPS)
B. Bleed Monitoring Pressure Sensor (BMPS)
C. Differential Pressure Sensor (DPS)
38) Features of PW1100G engine are:
A. Axial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
B. Radial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
C. Axial flow, dual-rotor, geared fan, variable stator, ultra high bypass ratio power plant
39) Engine drains system provides an aerodynamic drain mast protrudes:
A. Exit holes on the sides and bottom surface which are identified to enable trouble shooting
B. Exit holes on the sides which are identified to enable trouble shooting
C. Exit holes on the bottom surface which are identified to enable trouble shooting
40) Each half of reverser cowl doors:
A. Is held closed by 4 latches
B. Is held open by a hold open rod and an opening actuator
C. Is held open by two hold open rods
41) How many fan blades are there at the fan rotor?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 36
42) Which component does help in improving engine performance by reducing fan rotating speed and permitting
LPC to higher speed?
A. Fan Exit Guide Vane (VIGV)
B. Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGV)
C. Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS)
43) What kind of bearing is used for bearing compartments (4, 5, 6)?
A. Tapered Roller
B. Ball
C. Roller
ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 16/20
1. The Pressure Fuel consist of:
A. Fuel cooling, fuel metered and fuel muscle.
B. Fuel cooling, fuel return and fuel cycle.
C. Fuel return, fuel cycle and fuel muscle.

44) Is fuel flow used to cool down IDG oil and engine oil through?
A. Integrated Fuel Pump and Control
B. Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger
C. Return-To-Tank valve
45) The collected fuel remains in ecology collector tank is drawn back into fuel system when?
A. Next engine start up
B. Last engine shut down
C. Aircraft is energized
46) The FADEC consists of?
A. EEC and PHMU
B. EEC, PHMU and sensors
C. EEC, PHMU, sensors and output drivers
47) “Dual Cooling” mode during engine start:
A. ECAM Memo “DUAL COOLING” is displayed
B. Select DUAL COOLING P/B to ON, “COOLING” sequence starts after initiating engine start sequence
C. Select DUAL COOLING P/B to ON, “COOLING” sequence starts on both engine
48) Which sensor is used by the EEC to measure compressor discharge temperature for total temperature
calculation :
A. T2 sensor
B. T2.5 sensor
C. T3 sensor
49) Oil Debris Monitoring Sensor:
A. Detects any type of pollution that crossed its electromagnetic field
B. Detects any type of pollution between the main oil scavenge line and oil supply line
C. Sends signal corresponding to ferrous and non-ferrous debris to EEC
50) The hot section of PW1100G turbine engine comprises of?
A. HPC, FDGS, FIC, LPC, CIC
B. Diffuser, Combustor, HPT/TIC, LPT, TEC
C. Engine inlet, Compressor and Turbine sections

51) What are purposes of Prognostics and Health Management Unit (PHMU)?
A. Monitor and process levels for engine oil debris and rotor vibration
B. Calculate fan trim balance solutions
C. Respond to requests from avionics system that are received through EEC
D. All of above
52) Each PW1100G engine fire loop comprises:
A. Fan fire detector, core fire detector and pylon fire detector
B. Accessory Gear Box fire detector, core fire detector and pylon fire detector
C. AccessoryGear Box fire detector, core fire detector and turbine fire detector
53) Each engine NAI system consists of:
A. One command P/B SW and two Pressure Regulating and Shut-Off Valves (PRSOVs)
B. Two command P/B SWs andonePressure Regulating and Shut-OffValve (PRSOV)
C. Two command P/B SWs and two Pressure Regulating and Shut-OffValves (PRSOVs)
54) On PW1100G engine anti-ice system, to deactivate an anti-ice PRSOV
A. You must open the fan cowls
B. You must open the thrust reverser cowls

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 17/20

 C. You can deactivate the PRSOV with the fan cowls and reverser cowls closed
55) Features of PW1100G engine are:
A. Axial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
B. Radial flow, dual-rotor, variable stator, high bypass ratio power plant
C. Axial flow, dual-rotor, geared fan, variable stator, ultra high bypass ratio power plant
56) Which component does help in improving engine performance by reducing fan rotating speed and permitting
LPC to higher speed?
A. Fan Exit Guide Vane (VIGV)
B. Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGV)
C. Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS)
57) What kind of bearing is used for bearing compartments (4, 5, 6)?
A. Tapered Roller
B. Ball
C. Roller
58) Thrust rating of engine is set by
A. Entering on MCDU
B. A DSU (Data Storage Unit) which connects to channel A of EEC
C. A DSU (Data Storage Unit) which connects to channel B of EEC
59) The collected fuel remains in ecology collector tank is drawn back into fuel system when?
A. Next engine start up
B. Last engine shut down
C. Aircraft is energized
60) To open the PW1100G engine’s thrust reverser cowls
A. Slats must be fully retracted
B. Slats must be fully extended
C. Slats can be at any position

61) The Fan Cowl latches are monitored by proximity switches which send their position signals to
A. EIU
B. EEC
C. PHMU
62) Which component modulates flow of oil based on engine power settings?
A. VORV/JOSV
B. FOHEBV
C. IDGOOHE
63) FDGS comprises of
A. A central star gear and five sun gears
B. A central sun gear and seven star gears
C. A central sun gear and five star gears
64) In case of overspeed, EEC will control:
A. Thrust Control Malfunction (TCM)/Overspeed TM in IFPC
B. FMV TM in IFPC
C. FDR to stop the fuel in the combustion chamber
65) What are purposes of Prognostics and Health Management Unit (PHMU)?
A. Monitor and process levels for engine oil debris and rotor vibration
B. Calculate fan trim balance solutions
C. All of above

Maintenance Practices

1) To open the PW1100G engine’s fan cowls

A. Slats must be fully retracted
ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 18/20
 B. Slats must be fully extended
C. Slats can be at any position
2) The latches equipped with proximity sensor are
A. Only fan cowl latches
B. Only thrust reverser cowl latches
C. Both fan cowls and thrust reverser cowls latches
3) To deactivate aPW1100G engine’s thrust reverser for maintenance
A. Turn the lever on the inhibition cable handle assembly to the inhibited position and secure it with the
lockout pin
B. Inhibit the thrust reverser on the MCDU
C. Install the lockout pin on the translating cowls
4) Thrust rating of engine is set by
A. Software loaded to EEC using portable data loader
B. Entering on MCDU
C. A DSU (Data Storage Unit)
5) Engine oi level should be checked and serviced
A. Within 15 to 60 minutes after engine shutdown
B. Within 30 to 90 minutes after engine shut down
C. Within 15 to 120 minutes after engine shutdown
6) The SAV (Start Air Valve) can be opened manually
A. Using a handle on the valve, through an access door on the R/H thrust reverser cowl
B. Using a handle on the valve, through an access door on the R/H fan cowl
C. Using a 3/8” square drive extension, through an access port on the R/H thrust reverser cowl
7) On a PW1100G engine thrust reverser, the translation sleeves can be opened manually
A. Using hydraulic pump
B. Using manual drive
C. Using a built in electric motor
8) With engine # 1 running on ground, and 01 fan cowl latch of ENG # 1 open
A. There is a warning message displayed on upper ECAM to indicate that the fan cowl latch is open
B. There is a symbol displayed on upper ECAM to indicate that the fan cowl latch is open
C. There is NO warning message nor symbol displayed to indicate that the fan cowl latch is open
9) The push-open device on the fan cowl door
A. Holds the fan cowls at open position for maintenance access
B. Automatically push the fan cowls to open and locked position
C. Push two fan cowl doors apart after the last latch released from the latch keeper
10) After you release the three latches of the fan cowl doors
A. You can leave the doors unlatched but not open
B. You must open both fan cowl doors
C. You must either open at least one fan cowl door or re-latch the latches
12) The two thrust reverse cowl doors
A. Can be opened/closed at the same time
B. Must be opened/closed one after the other
C. Must be open one after the other and can be closed at the same time
13) The HORs (Hold Open Rod) on each fan cowl door are
A. 02 fixed HORs
B. 01 fixed and 01 telescopic HOR
C. 02 telescopic HORs
14) How to make sure a telescopic HOR (Hold Open Rod) is correctly engaged and locked
A. The green band is visible
B. The red band disappears
C. The red ban is visible

ISS. 01, REV. 06 - DATE: 01 AUG 2015 PAGE 19/20

2. The EEC and PHMU attached to Engine Fan Case :
A. At position 12h O’clock.
B. At position 2h30 O’clock.
C. At position 4h O’clock

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