Hints & Solutions: Jee Preparatory Test-2 (Jpt-2)
Hints & Solutions: Jee Preparatory Test-2 (Jpt-2)
4 4
and distance of P from the plane 4. If roots of the ……………………
3 3 Sol. Roots will be of opposite sign if product of roots is negative
1
10 5 1 4 4 4 s in
P(2, 3, 1) and M , , gives P M i j k 2
5 3 3 3 3 3
which is parallel to the normal 5. The radii of the ……………………
10 5 1 Sol. We have ra + rb = 3R
Also observe that , , lies on the plane so 3 abc
5 3 3 + =
s – a s – b 4
10 5 1 2
, , is the foot of perpendicular from P. 3
5 3 3 = ab
( s – a )( s – b ) 4
2
xdx x dx S2 S3
2 1 1
= 1 – S2 + S4 = 0 S4 – S2 + 1 = 0
P(A B )
0 0
; 1 S2 S4
1
3 3 3
abcd
dx How S4 = tan · tan · tan · tan =
x
4
0
1 ab
So P A B
3
0 so A and B are not exclusive S2 = ta n · ta n =
x
2
1
abcd ab
x
2
1 dx – +1=0
4 2
2 x x
also P B
0
x1
1
3 x2
dx x4 – a b x2 + abcd = 0
x3
0
x4
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Therefore, y is decreasing in , 2 as well as in (2, ).
x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 = 0 ....(1)
Thus,
x 1x 2 x 3 = 0 ....(2)
y
2x 1
or x
2y 1
1 1 1 1 x 2 y 2
x 1x 2 x 3 x 1x 2 x 3 x 4 =
2x 1
x1 x2 x3 x4
f
1
x
n o n z e ro
x 2
0 (B)
Thus, f(x) is its own inverse.
x1x2x3x4 = abcd (C)
9. The value of a ……………..
2 Sol. We have
7. Let f ( x ) a x b | x | ,……………………
x x
Sol. f(x) = (4a – 3) (x + log 5) + 2(a – 7) cot sin²
2 2
4a 3 x lo g 5 a 7 s in x
or f '( x ) 4 x 3 a 7 c o s x
If f(x) does not have critical points, then f '( x ) 0 does not any
solution in R. Now,
4a 3
f '( x ) 0 or c o s x
7 a
4a 3
or 1 [ |cos x| 1]
7 a
4a 3
or 1 1 or a 7 4 a 3 7 a
7 a
or a 4 / 3 and a 2
Thus, f '( x ) 0 has solutions in R if – 4/3 a 2.
So, f '( x ) 0 is not solvable in R if a < – 4/3 or a > 2
a , 4 / 3 2 , .
c o m b in e
x a1 x a 2 x x a1 x a 2 x x a 1 x a 2 ... x a n 2
...
a1 a 2 a1 a 2 a 3 a 1 a 2 a 3 ...a n 1
c o m b in e
x a1 x a 2 x a3 x x a 1 x a 2 ... x a n 2
...
a1 a 2 a 3 a 1 a 2 a 3 ...a n 1
Counting combining terms, we finally get
x a1 x a 2 x a 3 ... x a n 1
a 1 a 2 a 3 ....a n 1
dy 2 x 2 2 x 1 3
Let c = 3, a 3 ,b=2+ 3
0 x 2
2 2
dx x 2 x 2
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Clearly, D = 16 i.e., perfect square of rational and 4 3
2 2 2 1 5 7 1 3 3 1 1 5 9
c 3 b 2 3
Q , Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
a b 2 c a 3 3
8 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15
Now, given equation becomes x
2
6 x 5 0 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 5
(x + 1) (x + 5) = 0
(B) is correct.
Clearly, both roots are rational.
Thus if both roots are rational, then it is not necessary that a, 2 6 10 14 18 22 26 30
b 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
b, c are rational and is rational.
c a (C) is correct.
b a cos B c cos A b
Operate C 3 C 3 C 12
c b a
a
1 2 2
cos A .cos B a b c b b c c a
2
Either a = b = c or cosA = 0 or cosB = 0
x + y = x ' y ' may be equilateral or it may be right angled at A or B
( speed of I1 and I2 are equal)
Further x + x ' = 8 and y + y ' = 8 14. If a, b, c are ……………..
Similarly I2 can take (8 – x) horizontal steps and x vertical in O G g is normal to the plane of ABC
8
C x ways. So |AB|² = |BC|² = 2{a² + b² + c² – (ab + bc + ca)}
The two can meet corresponding to a particular value of ABC is equilateral
2
8 8 8
x in Cx Cx Cx ways. 15. If z 1 a i b j ……………..
But x {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} Sol. Given a² + b² = c² + d² = r² and ac + bd = 0
Total number of ways in which two insects can meet
w 1 a i c j and w 2 bi d j
during their joining
8 w 1 w 2 ab cd
2 2 2 2
8 8 8 8
Cx C0 C2 ... C8 2
2 2 2
x0
w1 a bc2 =r2r
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 16
C0. C8 C 1. C 7 C 2 . C 6 .... C8. C0 C8 2
2 2 2
w1 b d r
(D) is correct option.
16 15 14 13 12 11 10 9 Let a = mb and d = – mc
16
Further % C8
1 m c
2
1 m
2 2 2 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 b r
(A) is correct.
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|b| = |c| |a| = |d| 18. Let ABC is an……………..
Let a = – d then b = c Sol. We have BC = ( 5 1) 2 ( 2 1) 2 16 9 5
w1 w 2 0
2 ( 1) 3
Also mBC = =
16. For complex …………….. 5 1 4
A
Sol. z1 z 2
x 1 x 2 and y 1 y 2 for z 1 x 1 iy 1
z 2 x 2 iy 2 M(3, 1/2)
Let z = a + ib and 1 z B C(5,2)
1 a and 0 b
(1,–1)
2 1 3
Now w i,
2 2
A
clearly 1 / 2 1 a
1
Midpoint of BC is M 3 ,
3 3 2
1 / 2 a and 0 b b
2 2 Now, equation of AM (in parametric form) is
2
w z holds good (a) is true
y
x 3 2 5 3
1 3 r r
Now w i 3 4
2
2 2
5 5
3
Here 1 / 2 a but b is not sure 3 3 1
2 We get x = 3 ,y= ± 2 3 ]
w z does not hold good 2 2
Further
19. The function……………..
1 z 1 a ib
ta n x
1 z 1 a ib Sol. We have f(x) =
ta n x
1 a ib 1 a ib
For domain of f(x), clearly x n, (2n + 1) , (n I)
2
1 a 2
2
b
Also f(x) = 1,x Df
Re 1 z 1 a b
2 2 1 a 2
b
2
as a 1 Y
0
1 z
2 2
1 a 1 a
2 2
b b
y=1
1 z 2b
and Im 0 as b 0 X
1 z
2
1 a
2 O
b –3 /2 – – /2 /2 3 /2
tan x
1 z Graph of f(x) =
tan x
0 holds good
1 z
(C) is also true Clearly f(x) is an even function and also periodic with period '1'.
Also both L im f ( x ) and L im f ( x ) exist
17. Consider a real …………….. x0 x 2
Sol. (A) may be false since if 0 < f (x) < 1, f2(x) < f (x) (A) , (B), (C) are correct
b b
20. For the function……………..
2
and f(x) dx f (x) dx
Sol. f (x) = (x2 + bx + c)ex
a a
and g (x) = (x2 + bx + c)ex + ex(2x + b)
d 2 = ex [x2 + (b + 2)x + (b + c)]
(B) may be false since if f (x) < 0, f (x)
dx f (x) > 0 iff D = b2 – 4c < 0
= 2 f (x) f ' (x) < 0 when f ' (x) > 0 and so f2(x) is decreasing now g (x) > 0 iff
while f (x) is increasing D' = (b + 2)2 – 4(b + c) = b2 – 4c + 4 = D + 4 < 0
(C) may be false since a function can be negative and Thus for g (x) > 0 D + 4 < 0 D < 0
increasing. f (x) > 0
(D) may be false since a function may not be differentiable but the converse need not be true
at x = c for which it attains its minimum
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PART : II PHYSICS (3b )
7 /2
21. Expression for …………… F=– 2 x
(5 a )
5 /2
Sol. At most probable speed,
d dN – bV
2
– bV
2
1 k
= aNv2 e (–2bv) + 2aNv e =0 Frequency of system f = , where is reduced
dv dV 2 m
1 M mass.
b= =
2
2 RT m m m
v mp = =
m m 2
8 RT
Average speed Vavg = 5/2
1 1 2b 3b
M f=
2 m 5a
VdN
2
– bv
is a -active ……………
V
2 235
Vavg = = a e dV 24. 92
U
N t
0 Sol. N N 0e
3
a 8 RT 2M dN t
= = a= N0e
2b
2
M R T
3 3
dt
dN
22. A cylindrical vessel …………… N0e
– t
1
2
speed of wave in wire
5a
F= 5a – 3b x
6
T 48 .4
5a 3b V= = = 22 m/s
x
0 .1
3b
2
5a 3b
= 1 – 1 x
6 5 a
5a
x Since the wire is plucked at from one end
3b 4
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27. Two blocks A …………… 4 1
Sol. When only S1 is closed i2
4R R
1 8 1
P.D. across AB 2 R 2 so 2
R L L 4
4 1
When only S2 is closed i2
4R R
1
P.D. across AC 4 R 4
R
F = 3T from FBD of pulley 1
A will loose contact when 8 1
so 4
T = 10N, so F = 30 N
L L 2
and 30t = 30 so t = 1sec
B will loose contact when 4 2
2T = 20, T = 15 N so F = 45 When S1 and S2 both closed i
2R R
And 45 = 30t t = 1.5 sec
for 1 < t < 1.5 FBD of A FBD 2
P.D. across AB 2 R 4
R
a A T = F/3 = 10t where t > 1 sec
8 1
so 4
L L 2
dv 30. Half lives of ……………
10t – 10 = 1.a 1t ,t
dt Sol. N x N0e 0 .2 e …….(i)
v 1 .5
2t 2t
N y N0e 0 .8 e …….(ii)
dv
10 ( t 1) dt v 1 . 25 m / s
Dividing (ii) by (i) we get;
0 1
( 1 2 )t
4 e
28. A cone is made …………… (1 – 2)t = n4
Sol.
n4
t ; so t = 8 × 109 years
( 1 2 )
Hence correct option is (D)
com
r R
–q, m
x L
dv
B (cos ˆi sin ˆj )
L
.2 R 2 RL R F = 2m = 2 q
dV
4 L dx
4 0 L
20
dt 2
0 0 v
ˆ
2m dv = qB cos d i sin d ˆj
So V A
R
20 0 0 0
Since R = constant where R is radius of curvature so ˆ
P cm 2 m V cm q B 0 sin i q B 0 ( 1 cos ) ˆj
R at vertex so is highest ……(i)
Using conservation of energy
29. Figure shows …………… 1 2 1 2 1 2
( 2 m ) V cm 0
4R 2 2 2
Sol. Resistance per unit length r
……(ii) (As (Vcm)initially = 0)
L
Using (i) and (ii) we get
10 2 2
Current in primary circuit i 2 2 1 2 qB 0
5R R 0 ( 1 cos )
2 m
2 4R 8
P.D. on potentiometer wire V = ir = [upto = 90º, decreases & after increases]
R L L
2 qB
0 = (Least value of must be zero )
0
m
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32. Process undergone …………… 1242 ev nm
m =
constant
x
Sol. TV ( e )( 50 ,000 ) v
PV x 1
= 0.025 nm = 0.25 × 10–10 m
constant P V
x
V is constant
nR 35. For the hydrogen ……………
Sol. Lyman series is most energetic because of highest energy
x 1 is polytropic co-efficient
level gap between ground state and other states. Further
For adiabatic process, x 1 x 1 we maximum number of transition will be from excited states to n
know that = 1 state.
Option (AB)
2 2
1 f 36. 2 solid spheres ……………
f 1 Sol. At maximum separation their velocities will be equal in COM
fx 2 frame their velocities will be zero at maximum separation.
1 m 8m G 8 mm G 8m m
1
2
1 v0 =
B) fx 1 x 2 9m 3R r
f 2 18 GMR
Solving we get r
1 6 GM RV
2
Polytropic coefficient n x 1
0
dV charge)
V dq
K
R
0 because
dq 0 on neutral sphere
33. A medium whose …………… At A, Vtotal = Vq + Vsurface
C dx q q
Sol. = Vsurface =
x dt 4 0 r 4 ( r R )
0 1
a Electric field just outside A = Eq + Esurface
Electric field just inside A = Eq – Esurface = 0
3 0a Electric field just outside A = Eq + Esurface = 2 Eq
Integrate t
2C 2q
= 2
= ( Gauss law )
a 4 0 ( r R ) 0
dx a
x
=
0
ln(2)
38. Cylinder has 2 ……………
0 0 1
Sol. Both the gasses are heated through isobaric process
a
5R 7R
Q = n 1C p 1 T n 2 C p 2 T = 2 × × T + 4 × ×
34. An x-ray tube …………… 2 2
Sol. P = vi = 1000 J/sec. T = 10 k
ms ( ) Work done)B = Q2 – U2 = n 2 C p 2 T n 2 C v 2 T = 40 R
90% 990 J/sec =
(t) Joules
T will be same not V
= 2º C/sec. Work done)A = Q1 – U1 = 20R Joules
t
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39. In the circuit …………… 44. Select the correct .........
Sol. Initially current in 1st inductor was twice that of 2nd inductor,
so brightness of B1 will becomes 4 times after opening the Sol. (A) AgCl + 2NH3 (aq) [Ag(NH3)2]+(aq)
switch. Current in B2 and B3 remain same immediately
after closing the switch. (B) (NH4)2Cr2O7 N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O
B
V0
45. Select the correct .........
q
-q Sol. (A) Froth floatation process is used for separation of large range
kx
of sulphides, carbonates and oxides.
(B) Wolframite is magnetic impurity.
Sol. Initially
k A2 + B2 2AB
a x 0.2–x 0.2–x 2x = 0.3
m B l C
2 2
x = 0.15
m B l C
2 2
Time period 2 0 .3 0 .3
k v v 900
Maximum compression = Amplitude KC =
0 . 05 0 . 05 25
m B l C
2 2
V0 v v
V 0 A A V0
k When 0.1 mole C2 added
A2 + B2 2AB
PART : III CHEMISTRY 0.2–x1–y 0.2–x1 2x1 = 0.24
41. Which of the following ......... x1 = 0.12
Sol. Theory based.
A2 + C2 2AC
42. A tooth paste ......... 0.2–x1–y 0.1–y 2y
0 .9 2 / 2 3 KC for eqm
Sol. [Na+]= = 0.4 M
0 .1 0 . 24 0 . 24
[Na2PO3F] = 0.2 M
900 v v
43. A mixture of two different ......... 25 0 . 2 0 . 12 y 0 . 08
Sol. Let the mole % of A is x and that of B is (100–x). Let after 30
minute time p moles of A and q moles of B are converted v v
into C. y = 0.06
x
–2
2×10 × 30 =ln x = 2.22p KC for eqm
x p
0 . 12 0 . 12
100 x 100 x K 18
0 . 02 0 . 04
–3 C
and 5×10 ×30 = ln ln =
100 x q 75 x p
100 x
ln 48. The radial probability .........
75 0 .. 55 x Sol. At the point of maximum value of RPDF
p q 25 , x = 36
dP
After 50 minutes 0
36 dr
–2
2×10 × 50 = ln p = 22.71%
36 p 2 Zr
2
a
2r 0; r 0
64 a0 Z
5×10–3 × 50 = ln q =14%
64 q
where Z = 3 for Li2+ and Z = 2 for the He+ .
mole % of C after 50 minutes = p +q = 36.94%
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50. A hypothetical solid ......... 56. Which is/are correct .........
Sol.
Sol. This radius ratio suggests exact fitting in rock salt type CH
H H Br 3
r Br
H Br
structure ( 0 . 4 1 4 ).
R H Br
H3 C
CH CH
3 3
51. One mole of an ideal .........
I
–3
Sol. dG = Vdp – SdT = Vdp – (10+12×10 T)dT CH 3
CH 3
G = VP – 10T – 6×10–3 T 2 T 1 2 2
Br H Br H
0 . 082 300 H Br
V 24 . 6 L Br H
1 CH 3
CH 3
II
400 4
P2 atm 57. Which of the following .........
300 3 Sol. 3º alkyl halide and aryl halide do not give SN2 reaction.
1 59. Which of the following .........
G = 24.6× ×101.3 – 10×100–6×10–3 [(400)2 – (300)2]
3 Sol. -hydroxy carbonyl compounds are the product of aldol reaction.
= –589.34J
2
3x 1
(A) Me–OCH2–CH3 Me–I + Et–OH
AnhydrousHI 3
Sol. 3. Let f ( x ) x x ………
(SN2 ) 2 4
2
4x
3x 1 1 3 2
Sol. Given f ( x ) x 3 x 6x 4x 1
2 4 4
(B) Order of basicity in Aq. medium Me2NH > Me–NH2 >
4x
1 3 2
Me3N 6x 4x 1 2
4
1 4 2
x 1 x
(C) With SOCl2 complete retention is obtained. 4
4
4
(D) Isocyanide is major product not nitrile. 1 2
f 1 x (1 x ) 4 x 4
4 4
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2 2
f x f 1 x 1 …(1)
4 4
Replacing x by f(x), we have
f f ( x ) f [1 f ( x )] 1 …(2)
3 /4
f f ( x ) d x …(3)
Now ,
1/ 4
3/4 3/4
f f(x ) dx f 1 f ( x ) d x …(4)
Also, I
2
b c b c 2a t c b c b ka b b a b a a t
2
1/ 4 1/ 4
[using (1)]
ab ab
2
Adding (3) and (4), we get b c b c 2a t c b c b ka b b a b a a t
2
3/4 3/4
1
f f ( x ) f 1 f ( x ) d x
2
2I dx b c b c 2 a b t c b c b kba ba ab ab t
2
ab ab
2
1/ 4 1/ 4
2 2
b c b c 2 a b t c b c b kba ba ab ab t ab ab
1 1
or I I 4
4
2
4a b t
2 2 2
kba ab t 2
3 / 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
4a b t kb a t
4. If I
1 x s in x ………………..
1 x c o s x d x k=4
0
3 / 4 3 / 4
8. If f(x) is a ………………..
Sol. I
s in x cos x dx
x s in x c o s x d x
I Sol. f(x – 1) + f(x + 1) = 3 f(x) …(i)
0 0 II
3 / 4
Replacing x by (x + 1), we get f(x) + f(x + 2)
3 / 4
s in x c o s x d x x c o s x s in x | 0 = 3 f(x + 1) …(ii)
0 z e ro
Multiplying (i) by 3 , we get
3 / 4
s in x cos x dx 3 f(x + 1) + 3 f(x + 1) = 3f(x)
z c c2 at
3a 2s
Semi-perimeter s a
by given condition point Q lies on (bz – cy)² = ka(b – y) (bx – 2 3
ay)
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10. If the greatest ………………..
1 5 1 5
x x
6
6
Sol. Let 2 1 = R + f; where R = 2 1 and 2 2
or 0
x x 1
6
f 2 1
1 5 1 5
f (0, 1) or ,
0 , 1 ,
6 2 2
Now let f 2 1 0 ,1
2
x x 1
3 6 12. y g (x) or
R f f 2 1 2 1 x x 1
y 1 x 1 y x 1 0
2
6 6 4 2 0
2
C0 2
6
C2 2
6
C4 2
6
C6 2
2
= 2k (say); k Z Now, x is real. Therefore, D 0 or 1 y 4 y 1 0
f + f Z but f + f (0, 2)
f+f=1
or y 1 y 5 0 or y ( , 1 ] [5 , )
R + 1 = 2[8 + 60 + 30 + 1]
R = 197 = (given) 13. If z 1 2 3 i , ………………..
3 2 2
x x 1 x x 1 dy
11. g (x) x 1 3 t1
2
x x 1 x x 1 dx
t 1
, r1
3
2
x x 1
x t1
3 2
Now, for y g ( x ) , we must have 0 Tangent at P1 is y t 1 3 t 1 …(1)
x x 1
The intersection of (1) and y = x³ is
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19. What is the ………………..
x t1
3 3 2
x t1 3 t1
2
ax b
2
ax b x
x t1 x x t1 0 Sol ab
2 2 2
or x t1 t1 3t
2
2 x x 1
or x t1 x 2 t1 0 x 0 f(x)
2
ax b 2x ab 2 ab
If P 2 t 2 , t 2
3
, then
20. If a1, a2, a3, ………………..
2
t2 t1 t2 2 t1 0 Sol. For all an’s we can write
a1 6
t 2 2 t1 t2 t1 8 1 1 1111 a 6 8
1/14
8 6
1
Similarly, the tangent at P2 will meet the curve at the point
. (1)
8 6 8
P3 t 3 , t 3
3
when t 3 2 t 2 4 t 1 and so on.
8 /14
The abscissae of P1, P2, …, Pn are a1 a1 6
n 1
t 1 , 2 t 1 , 4 t 1 , …, 2 t1 14 8
These ar ein G.P. Therefore, 8 /14
a1 6 a 2 6 an 6
t2 t3 t4 Similarly a1a2 … an 14n ......
... 2 (r say) 8 8 8
t1 t2 t3
n
a 1 a 2 . . .a n 14
t 2 t 1r , t 3 t 2 r , and t 4 t 3 r m in
If x1 = 1, then x 2 2 , t3 = 4, …. Then,
n
1
lim
n
xn
sum of infinite G.P. With common ratio (– PART : II PHYSICS
r 1
21. A pencil having …………..
1/2) with first term 1 Sol. Pencil will topple if
1 2
a a
mgsinx cot mg cos
1 3 2 n 2
1
2
16. If P1 has co-……………….. cot cot
n
n 8
1 n > 8
Sol. Then lim
n
yn
= sum of infinite G.P. with common ratio
r 1
22. A particle projected …………..
(– 1/8) with first term 1
1 8 6
Sol. 8 = 6 tan 1
1 9 R
1
8 8
17. Value of b ……………….. 6 = 8 tan 1
18. Value of ……………….. R
Sol (17-18)
8 6 R 6
x
4
12x
3
2b x
2
3cx 81 0 =
6 8 R 8
Let , , , be roots 1 2
16 R 6
2b =
9 R 8
3 c
16R – 16 × 8 = 9R – 9 × 6
81 7R = 16 × 8 – 9 × 6 = 128 – 54 = 74
12 37 2
A.M. of roots 3 R= m
4 7
1/ 4 1/ 4
G.M. of roots 8 1 3 23. Current flowing …………..
Roots are all equal = 3 i.e., 3 Sol. B0 B B BC B CE B CD
AB
1 0 0 1 0
C2
4 4
17. (C) 2 b C2 9 54 zero –
2 2 r 4r 2 2 2r
b = 27
0I 1 1 0I 1
18. (D) 3 c 4
C 3 4 27 108 = 1– = 1
2
4r 2 4r
c = – 36
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24. The temperature ………….. 2R 1
Q 4 0 0 (2) Time taken by plane to travel by 60° =
Sol. V 6
t x / KA L x / 3 KA
3R
4 6 time taken by sound to travel 3 R distance =
V
x L x
2L 2R 1 3R V 2
x = 6m Now, = = =
5 V 6 V V
3 6 3 3
2 4 12 2
Sol. Let internal resistance of battery be R'
L 2v 0 7 2v
0.05 = …… (1)
2
R' 5 12 5
2 = R'C …… (2)
0.1 = LC 7 2v 1 2v 0
.......(ii)
2 2 12 5 5
T= = 2 LC = =2
From coefficient of restitution
10
V2 sin 53 º – (– V 1 )
29. Subsonic aircraft ………….. e= 2
Sol. V0
60° V
R
R 4
v0 v1 v 2
2 5
2
v 2 v0 v1 ......(iii)
5
Detector
From (i) & (iii)
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37. What will be the …………..
Sol. n × 6006 = (n + 1) × 6000 n = 1000
10–3 sin = 1000 × 6006 × 10–10
sin = 0.6
y
tan = = 0.75 y = 75 cm
D
38. What will be …………..
Sol. Fringe pattern will disappear where maxima of one coincides
2 with minima of other
v 0 3 v 0 v 1 v 1
5 1
n × 6006 = n 6000 n = 500
2
6 y 3
3v 0 3v 1 v1 v0 sin = 0.3 tan = =
5 D 91
6 300
2v 0 4v 1 y= cm
5 91
5
( V 0 – 2 V 1 ) …… (iv) 40. Coordinates of …………..
3 Sol.
From (iv) & (ii)
7 5 2v 1 2v 0
(v 0 2v 1 )
12 3 5 5
103 211
v0 v1
180 90
with respect to belt
103
V PB V P V B u ˆj v ˆi
2 2
V1 = V0 | V PB | u v
422
By WET W KE –
From (ii)
1 2 2
mgd 0 m (u v )
7 2 103 2
v0 v0
12 5 422 2 2
u v
d
180 V 0 2g
=
211 In belt reference frame
dv
x ' d cos
34. If velocity in x ………….. 2 2
u v
Sol. y = sin 2t x = 2 + 2 cos2t
2 2
2 v u v
x – 2 So x ' and
y + 2
=1 2g
2
u 2 2
vy = 2 cos2t vx = –4sin2t y ' d sin u v
2g
2
2 Vx In ground reference frame – particle has constant
Vy = 42
4 retardation
2 2
0 u v gt
35. 2 moles of H2 …………..
1
Sol. Q = 2CvT t v
2
u
2
g
5R 3R
=2 550 – 50 = 2600R So x = x’ + vt and y = y’
2 2
v 2 2
So x v u ,
2g
36. 2 moles of H2 …………..
Sol. Q = 2CpT u 2 2
y v u
9R 5R 2g
=2 4050 – 50 = 36200R
2 2
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PART : III CHEMISTRY
47. Each of the compounds.........
41. Amongs the following .........
Sol. NaCl, MgCl2, Al2O3, CaCl2 will require electrolysis process to
get their respective metal. O
Sol. , +M ,
B
O C—O—
42. 1 g sample containing ......... A
–M
Sol. The balanced redox reaction is A B
A>B B>A
2KO2 + 6H 2KOH + 2H2O + 32
O O +M
meq. of hypo = 15×0.4 = 6 = meq of I2 –M –M
O
Total I2 liberated = 15 m mol +M , ,
m mol of KO2 in original sample = 10 C—N—
mass % = 10×10–3 × 71 × 100 = 71% = y H
A B
B>A B>A
0 . 693
t½ = = 6 min 48. Examine the structural .........
K
CHO CHO CHO CHO CHO
CHO
44. 1 mol of each of the .........
Sol. H2SO4, H2SO3, H3PO3, H4P2O5 are diprotic. HCl, HNO3, Sol. > > > > >
H3PO2 are monoprotic. H3BO3 is monobasic. H3P3O9 , H3PO4
NO2 CN Cl Me OMe N(CH3)2
are Triprotic. –M –M – (P) +M +M
Sol. Cr
2 SO 4 3 6 NH 4 OH 2 Cr OH 3 3 NH 4 2 SO 4
Sol. (A) P4 + NaOH + H2O PH3 + NaH2PO2 Greenish salt Greenish ppt
(B) ClO2 + NaOH NaClO2 + NaClO3 + H2O Br2 + 2NaOH NaBr + NaBrO + H2O
NaBrO NaBr + O
(C) F2 + NaOH O2 + NaF + H2O
2Cr(OH)3 + 4NaOH + 3[O] 2Na2CrO4 + 5H2O
(D) NaOH + NO2 NaNO2 + NaNO3 + H2O
2Cr(OH)3 + 4NaOH + [O] Na 2 CrO 4 + 5H2O
Yellow solution
CH COOH
Na2CrO4 + (CH3COO)2Pb
3
PbCrO 4 +
52. NaOH + S [X] ......... Yellow ppt
Sol. 6NaOH + 4S Na2S2O3 + 2Na2S + H2O 2CH3COONa
Me
H OH H-Bonding
Sol. Stability of gauche
increase
H OH
(+6)
Me
H H
COO
(Staggered)
54. The Ksp of AgBrO3 is......... (More stable in
basic medium)
Sol. It means in solution [Ag+] = 2 × 10–4 M = [BrO3–]
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JEE PREPARATORY TEST-2 (JPT-2)
(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
DATE : 12-05-2019 | REVISION PLAN-2 | COURSE : VIJETA (JP), VISHWAAS (JF),
VIJAY (JR), VIVEK (JCC)
ANSWER KEY
CODE-1
PAPER-1
PART : I MATHEMATICS
1. (ABC) 2. (BCD) 3. (AC) 4. (B) 5. (BC) 6. (BCD) 7. (AC)
8. (ABD) 9. (AD) 10. (B) 11. (BD) 12. (ABCD) 13. (BD) 14. (ABCD)
15. (ABC) 16. (AC) 17. (ABCD) 18. (CD) 19. (ABC) 20. (AC)
PART : II PHYSICS
21. (AC) 22. (BCD) 23. (BC) 24. (ABD) 25. (AC) 26. (ABC) 27. (BC)
28. (ABD) 29. (ABD) 30. (D) 31. (AB) 32. (ABCD) 33. (ABC) 34. (ACD)
35. (AB) 36. (ABCD) 37. (ACD) 38. (AB) 39. (BD) 40. (D)
PAPER-2
PART : I MATHEMATICS
1. (0,1) 2. (1,2,4) 3. (1,4) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (0,1,2,3) 7. (4, 8)
8. (0,2,4,6,8) 9. (1,2,4) 10. (2,7) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (C)
PART : II PHYSICS
21. (3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8) 22. (2) 23. (7) 24. (6) 25. (3) 26. (2)
27. (2) 28. (2) 29. (2) 30. (8) 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C)
34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (C)
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JEE PREPARATORY TEST-2 (JPT-2)
(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
DATE : 12-05-2019 | REVISION PLAN-2 | COURSE : VIJETA (JP), VISHWAAS (JF),
VIJAY (JR), VIVEK (JCC)
ANSWER KEY
CODE-2
PAPER-1
PART : I PHYSICS
1. (BC) 2. (ABD) 3. (AB) 4. (BCD) 5. (BC) 6. (BCD) 7. (AB)
8. (ABD) 9. (BCD) 10. (A) 11. (CD) 12. (ABCD) 13. (ABC) 14. (BCD)
15. (CD) 16. (ABCD) 17. (BCD) 18. (AC) 19. (AC) 20. (B)
PART : II CHEMISTRY
21. (BD) 22. (ABD) 23. (BC) 24. (ABCD) 25. (AB) 26. (CD) 27. (AC)
28. (ABC) 29. (ABCD) 30. (ABCD) 31. (BD) 32. (ABD) 33. (BD) 34. (BC)
35. (ABCD) 36. (ABCD) 37. (BD) 38. (AC) 39. (AC) 40. (ABD)
PAPER-2
PART : I PHYSICS
1. (3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8) 2. (2) 3. (7) 4. (6) 5. (3) 6. (2)
7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (8) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A)
14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A)
PART : II CHEMISTRY
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (1,2,3,4)24. (9) 25. (4) 26. (5) 27. (4)
28. (3) 29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D)
35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D)
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JEE PREPARATORY TEST-2 (JPT-2)
(JEE ADVANCED PATTERN)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN+ADVANCED) 2019
DATE : 12-05-2019 | REVISION PLAN-2 | COURSE : VIJETA (JP), VISHWAAS (JF),
VIJAY (JR), VIVEK (JCC)
ANSWER KEY
CODE-3
PAPER-1
PART : I CHEMISTRY
1. (AD) 2. (ABC) 3. (BD) 4. (ABCD) 5. (AC) 6. (CD) 7. (BC)
8. (ABC) 9. (ABCD) 10. (ABCD) 11. (AD) 12. (ABC) 13. (AD) 14. (AC)
15. (ABCD) 16. (ABCD) 17. (CD) 18. (BC) 19. (AD) 20. (ACD)
PART : II MATHEMATICS
21. (ABD) 22. (ACD) 23. (BD) 24. (C) 25. (AD) 26. (BCD) 27. (BC)
28. (ACD) 29. (BD) 30. (C) 31. (AC) 32. (ABCD) 33. (AC) 34. (ABCD)
35. (ABC) 36. (AC) 37. (ABCD) 38. (AC) 39. (ACD) 40. (BD)
PAPER-2
PART : I CHEMISTRY
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1,2,3,4) 4. (9) 5. (4) 6. (5) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D)
PART : II MATHEMATICS
21. (0, 1) 22. (1,2,4) 23. (1, 4) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (0,1,2,3) 27. (4, 8)
28. (0,2,4,6,8) 29. (1,2,4) 30. (2, 7) 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (D)
35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
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