PRELIM EXAMINATION IPS 2

Module 4 : Pharmacology and Toxicology

1. George, 25, is a long-haul trucker who suffers from associated with sudden withdrawal of corticosteroid anti-
seasonal allergies. He asks advice on which over - the inflammatory drugs?
counter product is best to relieve his symptoms. Which of a. zafirlukast
the following choices is the best recommendation for this b. zileuton
patient? c. montelukast
a. diphenhydramine d. All of the above
b. promethazine e. None of the above
c. clemast ine 10. Which of the following asthma therapies is effective by
d. chlorpheniramine decreasing the amounts of released leukotrienes?
e. loratadine a. zafirlukast
2. Which of the following choices would be most appropriate b. zileuton
in treating nausea and vomiting associated with motion c. montelukast
sickness? d. All of the above
a. diphenhydramine e. None of the above
b. brompheniramine 11. Rizatriptan is effective in treating migraine headache by
c. ondansetron a. directly vasoconstricting involved blood vessels.
d. omeprazole b. inhibiting the release of inflammatory
e. ranitidine neurotransmitters.
3. Esomeprazole would be effective in the treatment of c. directly blocking pain transmission.
a. gastroesophageal reflux disease. d. All of the above
b. peptic ulcer disease. e. None of the above
c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. 12. Aspirin exerts its anti-platelet effect by inhibiting
d. All of the above a. cyclooxygenase (COX) 1.
4. Which of the following anti-ulcer medications is most likely b. COX 2.
to cause drug interactions and endocrine side effects? c. COX 3.
a. ranitidine d. prostaglandin synthesis.
b. omeprazole e. leukotriene synthesis.
c. lansoprazole 13. Acetaminophen has advantages over aspirin or other
d. cimetidine nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs by virtue of its
e. famotidine a. relative lack of anti -platelet effects.
5. A patient has just been diagnosed with recurrent migraine b. relative lack of gastrointestinal ulcerative effects.
headaches. Which of the following pre-existing conditions c. being a safe alternative for children with viral
would preclude the use of sumatriptan for this patient? infections.
a. liver disease d. All of the above
b. renal failure e. None of the above
c. ischemic heart disease 14. Acetaminophen toxicity is characterized by
d. irritable bowel syndrome ( IBS) a. profound vasoconstriction and pain.
e. gouty arthritis b. severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea.
6. Which of the following is an appropriate indication for the c. central nervous system stimulation and seizures.
drug tegaserod? d. profound liver damage and failure.
a. a female patient with constipation- related irritable e. cardiac arrhythmias and risks of myocardial
bowel syndrome ( IBS) infarctions
b. a female patient with diarrhea- related IBS 15. Which of the following anti-gout medications is specifically
c. a male patient with Crohn’s disease used in acute attacks?
d. a male patient with diarrhea- related IBS a. colchicine
e. a patient with Zollinger -Ellison syndrome b. allopurinol
7. Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used c. probenecid
specifically for the treatment of glaucoma? d. All of the above
a. alprostadil e. None of the above
b. latanoprost 16. Which of the following anti-gout medications acts by
c. carboprost decreasing serum levels but increasing urine levels of uric
d. dinoprostone acid, thus increasing the risk of kidney stone
e. epoprostenol development?
8. Which of the following prostaglandin analogs is used in a. colchicine
preventing drug-induced GIT ulcers due to NSAID use? b. allopur inol
a. misoprostol c. probenecid
b. alprostadil d. All of the above
c. carboprost e. None of the above
d. latanoprost 17. The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, as a class, are
e. epoprostenol anti-inflammatory primarily through their ability to inhibit
9. Which of the following asthma therapies has been a. cyclooxygenase (COX) 1.
associated with an acute vascular syndrome that is b. COX 2.

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 c. COX 3. 24. An unconscious patient is brought into the emergency
d. leukotriene synthesis. department. The patient is given 50 mL of 50% dextrose in
e. thromboxane synthesis. water , thiamine 100 mg IV, followed by naloxone 1 mg, at
18. Isoniazid is a primary anti-tubercular agent that which point he awakens. This patient most likely has
a. requires pyridoxine supplementation. overdosed on which of the following substances?
b. may discolor the tears, saliva, urine, or feces orange a. methanol
red. b. amitriptyline
c. causes ocular complications that are reversible if the c. cocaine
drug is discontinued. d. haloperidol
d. may be ototoxic and nephrotoxic. e. heroin
e. should never be used because of hepatotoxic 25. A physician receives a call from the parent of a 2-year -old
potential . child who has ingested an unknown quantity of morphine
19. AC is a 34-year -old male admitted with a diagnosis of controlled-release tablets and is now unconscious. The
peritonitis. Cultures are positive for Bacteroides fragilis, physician's initial recommendation is to
Enterococcus faecalis, and Staphylococcus aureus. Which a. call emergency medical services (EMS) and have
of the following would be the best initial therapy to the child taken to the hospital emergency
recommend? department .
a. telithromycin b. administer 1 g/kg of activated charcoal with sorbitol.
b. quinupristin/dalfopristin c. administer syrup of ipecac 15 mL by mouth to induce
c. tigecycline vomiting.
d. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole d. suggest that the chi ld receive emergency
e. kanamycin hemodialysis.
20. BC has an upper respiratory infect ion. Two years ago, e. suggest that the chi ld receive acid diuresis with
she experienced an episode of bronchospasm after ammonium chloride.
penicillin therapy. Current cultures are positive for a strain 26. A 45-year -old man is admitted to the hospital with the
of Streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the diagnosis of an acute attack of gout. His serum uric acid is
following drugs. Which of these drugs would be the best 10.5 mg/dL (normal is 3-7 mg/dL). Which of the following
choice for this patient? would be the most effective initial treatment plan?
a. amoxicillin/clavulanate a. Before treating this patient, immobilize the affected
b. erythromycin joint and obtain a 24-hr urinary uric acid level to
c. ampicillin determine which drug, either allopurinol or
d. cefaclor probenecid, would be the best agent to initiate
e. loracarbef therapy.
21. BT is a 43-year -old female seen by her primary-care b. Begin oral colchicine 1.2 mg initially, followed by 0.6
physician for a mild staphylococcal cellulitis on the arm. mg every 2 hr until relief is obtained, gastrointestinal
Which of the following regimens would be appropriate oral distress occurs, or a maximum of 8 mg has been
therapy? taken; also, begin probenecid 250 mg twice a day
a. dicloxacillin 125 mg every 6 hr concurrently.
b. vancomycin 250 mg every 6 hr c. Administer oral indomethacin 50 mg three times a
c. methicillin 500 mg every 6 hr day for 2 days; then gradually taper the dose over
d. cefazolin 1 g every 8 hr the next few days.
e. penicillin V 500 mg every 6 hr d. Administer oral naproxen 750 mg, followed by 250 mg
22. A 23-year -old man is admitted to the intensive care unit every 8 hr for 3 weeks.
(ICU) after ingesting 20 paracetamol tablets 500 mg with a e. Give colchicine 0.5 mg intramuscularly followed by 1
six-pack of beer. He was initially awake and alert in the mg intravenous piggyback every 12 hr for 2 weeks.
emergency department and was given one dose of 27. Which of the following statements describes hemorrhagic
activated charcoal. His initial acetaminophen level taken cystitis? It
approximately 2 hr after ingestion is 90 μg/mL. What a. is caused by excretion of tumor cell break down
would be the most appropriate course of action? products.
a. Administer repeated doses of activated charcoal and b. is associated with ifosfamide or
sorbitol. cyclophosphamide administration.
b. Administer syrup of ipecac. c. is caused by the administration of mesna.
c. Administer a loading dose of N-acetyl -L-cysteine d. can be prevented or treated with acrolein.
(NAC), and repeat the acetaminophen level in 4 hr. e. can be treated with granulocyte colony-stimulating
d. Discharge the patient to home. factor (G-CSF).
23. Ethyl alcohol (EtOH) is administered to patients who have 28. Potential adverse effects associated with aspirin include
ingested either ethylene glycol or methanol because EtOH all of the following except
a. helps sedate patients. a. gastrointestinal ulceration.
b. increases the metabolism of ethylene glycol and b. renal dysfunction.
methanol. c. enhanced methotrexate toxicity.
c. blocks the format ion of the toxic metabolites of d. cardiac arrhythmias.
ethylene glycol and methanol. e. hypersensitivity asthma.
d. increases the renal clearance of ethylene glycol and 29. Drugs usually active against penicillinase-producing
methanol . Staphylococcus aureus include which of the following?
e. is not an antidote for ethylene glycol or methanol I. piperacillin-tazobactam
overdoses. II. amoxicillin-clavulanate
III. nafcillin

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 a. I only is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct
b. III only is correct c. Both are correct
c. I and II are correct d. Both are incorrect
d. II and III are correct 39. The major segment of the nephron where the diuretic
e. I, II, and III are correct action of the thiazides took place
30. Botulinum toxin is used in dermatology to reverse deep a. Cortical collecting tubule
wrinkles. Its pharmacological mechanism of action in this b. Medullary collecting tubule
use is c. Distal convulated tubule
a. Blockade of acetylcholine esterase d. Proximal convulated tubule
b. Inhibition of release of acetylcholine from motor 40. The following statements are true regarding carbonic
neurons anhydrase inhibitors.
c. Inhibition of synthesis of acetylcholine by inhibiting I. Depresses bicarbonate reabsorption in the cortical
choline acetyl transferase collecting tubule
d. Inhibition of acetylcholine binding to muscarinic II. Depresses bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal
receptors convulated tubule
31. Choose the best answer. Selective toxicity is III. Causes significant hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
a. What the drug does to the patient a. I only
b. What the patient does to the drug b. II only
c. What the pathogen does to the patient c. I and II only
d. What the drug does to the pathogen d. II and III only
e. What the pathogen does to the drug e. I, II and III
32. Many antibiotics appear to have as their mechanism of 41. Methotrexate indication/s:
action the capacity to inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis. I. Rheumatoid arthritis
This does NOT appear to be a mechanism of II. Cancer
a. Aminoglycosides III. Anti-inflammatory
b. Penicillins a. I only
c. Bacitracin b. I and II only
d. Cephalosporins c. III only
33. Which of the following is the drug of choice for inducing d. I, II, and III
labor? 42. Pilocarpine is used:
a. Oxytocin a. To decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma
b. Misoprostol b. To dilate eyes
c. Methyl ergonovine c. To reverse toxicity associated with cholinergic
d. Dinoprostone agents
e. Carboprost tromethamine d. To decrease intestinal motility
34. Upon examination, a 68-year-old married man was found e. To inhibit secretions such as sweat, tears and
to have a greatly enlarged prostate. Which one of the saliva
following drugs is most likely to suppress prostatic growth 43. Which of the following resembles atropine in
without affecting libido? pharmacologic action?
a. Spironolactone a. Scopolamine
b. Finasteride b. Physostigmine
c. Ketoconazole c. Acetylcholine
d. Flutamide d. Carbachol
e. Stanozolol e. Ethylene glycol
35. A patient comes into the clinic for a pregnancy test. It is 44. A very upset mother brings her kid to ask help dealing with
positive. Which of the following should be recommended? his bed wetting. Which of the following agents might
a. A multivitamin without iron alleviate this problem?
b. A multivitamin with iron a. Imipramine
c. A diet rich in carrots b. Lithium salts
d. No vitamin supplement c. Tranylcypromine
e. A vitamin A supplement d. Trazodone
36. Entacapone inhibits which of the following? e. Fluoxetine
a. Dopamine D2 receptors 45. The anticoagulant activity of warfarin can be potentiated
b. COMT by all of the following, except:
c. Monoamine oxidase B a. Rifampin
d. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors b. Aspirin
37. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are characteristic adverse c. Phenylbutazone
effects of which of the following? d. Cimetidine
a. Aminoglycosides e. None of these
b. β-Lactam antibiotics 46. The action of this drug is dependent on a colligative
c. Chloramphenicol property
d. Fluoroquinolones a. mannitol
38. Evaluate the two statements: (1)NSAIDs provide pain b. cocaine
relief through their anti-inflammatory action. c. reserpine
(2)Acetaminophen also provides pain relief through its d. furosemide
anti-inflammatory effect. e. losartan
a. Only statement 1 is correct

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47. A drug molecule that does not possess biologic activity by 56. Which of the following findings may be seen consistent
itself but is converted in the body to active metabolite is with an overdose of or accidental exposure to an
called a/an: organophosphate?
a. orphan drug a. Constipation
b. prodrug b. Mydriasis
c. prototype drug c. Peripheral vasodilation
d. parent drug d. Emesis
e. metabolic drug e. Decreased sweating
48. Which is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of 57. Poisoning resulting from ingestion of high dose quaternary
cathecholamine? anti-muscarinic agents can be best managed with which of
a. Phenylalanine the following agents?
b. Glycine a. Physostigmine
c. Tyrosine b. Neostigmine
d. Tryptamine c. Pilocarpine
e. Glutamic acid d. Atropine
49. A given adrenergic agent induces uterine relaxation and e. Scopolamine
bronchial smooth muscle relaxation. These effects can be 58. Which of the following agents may be associated with
attributed to: ototoxicity which may have increased risk of occurring
a. alpha-1 stimulation when patients also receive aminoglycosides antibiotic?
b. alpha-2 stimulation a. Furosemide
c. beta-1 inhibition b. Chlorthalidone
d. beta-1 stimulation c. Dorzolamide
e. beta-2 stimulation d. Amiloride
50. What is the dominant adrenergic receptor in the heart? e. Spironolactone
a. Dopamine 1 59. This side-effect of nitrovasodilators is explained in part by
b. alpha 1 the depletion of sulfhydryl-moieties in vascular smooth
c. alpha 2 muscles with continuous use of the drugs and may be
d. beta 1 partly reversed by sulfhydryl-regenerating compounds:
e. beta 2 a. tolerance
51. Which of the following agents is classified as a selective b. increased intracranial pressure
direct acting beta 2 agonists? c. reflex tachycardia
a. Propanolol d. methemoglobinemia
b. Methoxamine e. Carcinogenicity
c. Isoxsuphrine 60. What is the most important toxicity associated with
d. Prazosin Pyrazolone derivatives like Phenylbutazone which
e. Ephedrine necessitated the withdrawal of a number of these drugs
52. New drug is currently being developed whose mechanism from the market?
of action is stimulation of the beta-3 receptors. In which a. Hepatotoxicity
condition will this drug have most likely usefulness? b. Hematologic toxicities
a. Obesity c. Nephrotoxicity
b. Bronchial asthma d. Gastric ulceration
c. Hypertension e. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
d. Shock 61. Patients on statins are generally advised to take the
e. Acute renal failure medications at night. What is the basis for this?
53. Methylphenidate and dextroamphetamine are centrally a. maximal absorption occurs at night
acting sympathomimetics which have found use in which b. maximal cholesterol de-novo synthesis
of the following conditions? occurs at night
a. Manic Depression c. minimize postural hypotension expected with
b. Alcohol withdrawal statins
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder d. minimize syncopal attacks with the first dose of
d. Generalized anxiety disorder statins
e. Hypotensive episodes e. LDL release occurs at night
54. Ambenomium, Neostigmine and Pyridostigmine are most 62. What is the primary use of the drug Flumazenil?
commonly used for which of the following conditions? a. antagonizes the action of Benzodiazepines
a. Atropine overdose b. stimulates BZ-1 receptors similar to
b. Myasthenia gravis Benzodiazepines
c. Bronchial asthma c. Antagonizes the action of Barbiturates
d. COPD d. inhibits the 5-HT-1A receptors
e. ADHD e. stimulate the GABA-A receptor
55. Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine and Galantamine are 63. What is the preferred drug for the management of pure
indicated for which of the following conditions? absence seizures?
a. Supraventricular tachycardia a. Phenobarbital
b. Curare-Induced muscle paralysis b. Valproic acid
c. Accomodative esotropia c. Phenytoin
d. Alzheimer’s Disease d. Ethosuximide
e. Glaucoma e. Lamotrigine

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64. Female patients with pituitary tumor and manifesting with e. ciprofloxacin
amenorrhea and galactorrhea are initially managed with 72. Which of the following agents is contraindicated in patients
Bromocriptine. What is the mechanism of Bromocriptine in less than 18-yr old and among pregnant patients due to its
these conditions? adverse effect cartilage development?
a. inhibits the action Dopamine a. sulfamethoxazole
b. inhibits the action of Oxytoxcin b. ethambutol
c. stimulates the release of Estrogen c. chloramphenicol
d. inhibits the action of Prolactin d. doxycycline
e. stimulates the release of FSH and LH e. ciprofloxacin
65. N. C. is a 67-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease. 73. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in
She appears in the emergency department complaining of children less than 9 years of age and in pregnant patients
purplish mottling of the skin on her legs. The most likely due to the risk of permanent staining of teeth and enamel
drug to be involved is dysplasia in children?
a. Levodopa a. sulfamethoxazole
b. Levodopa–carbidopa b. ethambutol
c. Bromocriptine c. chloramphenicol
d. Amantadine d. doxycycline
e. Tolcapone e. ciprofloxacin
66. Malignant hyperthermia which may develop in susceptible 74. What is the primary role of agents such as Tazobactam
individuals exposed to inhalational anesthetics is and Sulbactam in antibacterial therapy?
appropriately treated with which of the following agents? a. increase the oral bioavailability of the Penicillins
a. diazepam b. effective against most gram-negative aerobic
b. baclofen bacteria
c. dantrolene c. effective against anaerobic bacteria including
d. thiamylal Clostridia
e. haloperidol d. minimize destruction of the penicillin by
67. Which of the following anesthetics is associated with a bacterial beta-lactamase
dissociative state characterized by catatonia, amnesia, e. improve CNS penetrability of most penicillins
and analgesia with or without actual loss of 75. Which of the following second generation cephalosporin
consciousness? can be given orally and parenterally?
a. Propofol a. cefaclor
b. Thiopental b. cefuroxime axetil
c. Ketamine c. cefotetan
d. Midazolam d. cefprozil
e. Nitrous oxide e. cefoxitin
68. MAO-A is the amine oxidase primarily responsible for the 76. Which of the following agents is considered as first line
metabolism of Norepinephrine, serotonin, and Tyramine, drug in the management of Neisseria gonorrhea infection?
while MAO-B is specific for the metabolism of Dopamine. a. ceftriaxone
Which of the following agents is a reversible MAO-A b. cefuroxime
inhibitor whose advantage is a lesser risk of causing c. pen G
hypertensive crisis with tyramine-rich foods? d. amoxicillin
a. Selegiline e. trimethorprim-sulfamethoxazole
b. Nefazodone 77. What is the use of Cilastatin?
c. Moclobemide a. effective agent against Pseudomonas
d. Trazodone aeruginosa
e. Imipramine b. prevents tubular secretion of imipenem
69. Which of the following agents can be safely used for c. prevents glomerular filtration of imipenem
pregnant woman with urinary tract infection? d. inhibits the renal dehydropeptidase in which
a. cotrimoxazole metabolizes imipenem
b. ampicillin e. inhibits liver dehydropeptidase which metabolizes
c. norfloxacin imipenem
d. doxycycline 78. Which of the following antibacterial agents primarily work
e. cholaramphenicol by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
70. Which of the following agents has activity against i. Polymyxin B
anaerobic organisms and against most protozoan ii. Vancomycin
infection? iii. Streptogramins
a. clindamycin a. I only
b. metronidazole b. II only
c. chloramphenicol c. I and II only
d. doxcycline d. II and III
e. erythromycin e. I,II, III
71. Which of the following agents is primarily bactericidal in its 79. What is the mechanism of action of the quinolone
activity? antibacterial agents?
a. clindamycin a. inhibit the incorporation of GABA into
b. erythromycin dihydropteroate
c. chloramphenicol b. inhibit the bacterial enzyme Topoisomerase II
d. doxycycline

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 c. inhibit the DNA dependent RNA polymerase of c. activated charcoal, milk of magnesia, milk
bacteria d. milk of magnesia, tannic acid, strong tea
d. inhibit transpeptidation process in bacterial cell e. activated charcoal, milk, ipecac
wall synthesis 87. Dimercaptopropanesulfonic acid is also known as______?
e. inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase a. dimercaprol
80. Ocreotide is a drug used for the treatment of such b. succimer
conditions as acromegaly, gastrinoma, and glaucoma. c. D-dimethylcysteine
What hormone is ocreotide an analog of? d. Unithiol
a. somatostatin e. Deferoxamine
b. growth hormone 88. Which of the following types of drugs binds to a receptor
c. prolactin and produce an effect similar to that of endogenous
d. oxytocin ligands?
e. dopamine a. Inverse agonist
81. Erethism a behavioural pattern characterized by change in b. Agonist
mood from shyness, withdrawal and depression with c. Partial antagonist
explosive anger or blushing is seen as a manifestation of d. Competitive antagonist
metal poisoning. It can be seen with other findings such as e. Non-competitive antagonist
tremors progressing to chloreiform movements of limbs 89. Drug X binds to drug Y. As a result, inactive complex is
and gingivostomatitis. Which of the following metals may formed. This type of antagonism is called:
be responsible for this manifestation? a. Competitive antagonism
a. lead b. Non-competitive antagonism
b. mercury c. Physiologic antagonism
c. iron d. Neutralizing antagonism
d. copper e. Partial antagonism
e. arsenic 90. Which of the following is the main organ for metabolism?
82. Penicillamine, as a chelating agent is primarily used for a. Kidney
the treatment of poisoning with which of the following b. Liver
metals? c. Intestines
a. lead d. Pancreas
b. mercury e. Heart
c. iron 91. Which of the following anti-TB drugs can cause red-green
d. copper color blindness?
e. arsenic a. Rifampin
83. Which of the following agents can cause a high anion gap b. Isoniazid
metabolic acidosis? c. Pyrazinamide
i. Methanol d. Ethambutol
ii. Ethanol e. Streptomycin
iii. Metformin 92. Which of the following drugs is the least considered as
a. I only prodrug?
b. II only a. Captopril
c. I and II only b. Enalapril
d. II and II c. Ramipril
e. I,II, III d. Accupril
84. Which of the following is most appreciate treatment for the e. None of these
management of cardiac manifestations of theophylline or
caffeine overdose? For #s 93-94: Gon went to his farm to spray pesticide on his
a. verapamil crops. Hours later he started to experience diarrhea, vomiting,
b. esmolol bronchoconstriction and bradycardia. He was immediately sent
c. digoxin to the hospital for treatment.
d. magnesium sulfate
e. adenosine 93. Which of the following drugs should be given to Gon?
85. Which of the following drugs may be useful to manage a. Eserine
complication of exposures to nitrogen oxides and b. Edrophonium
nitrobenzene? c. Atropine
a. methylene blue d. Prazosin
b. ethanol e. Metylcephaeline
c. calcium gluconate 94. Aside from the answer in #94, what other drug can be
d. activated charcoal given to Gon?
e. penicillamine a. DOM
86. Historically, a “universal antidote” was employed in the b. DAM
management of poisoning. Recent studies have shown c. DEM
however that two of the components of this so-called d. DIM
universal antidote have no significant efficacy. What are e. DUM
the components of this so-called “universal antidote” 95. Cookie was diagnosed to have HPN and was prescribed
a. activated charcoal, calcium oxide, tannic acid beta-blockers for her treatment. She also has a history of
b. activated charcoal, magnesium oxide, tannic asthma. Which of the following beta-blockers should be
acid given to Cookie?

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 a. Propranolol a. PTU
b. Timolol b. Methimazole
c. Levobunolol c. Carbimazole
d. Metoprolol d. Mebendazole
e. None of these e. None of these
96. Hydraulic equation 99. What specific element is present in dimercaprol?
a. CO = PVR x BP a. Magnesium
b. PVR = CO x BP b. Sulfur
c. BP = CO x PVR c. Iron
d. All of these d. Manganese
e. None of these e. Cobalt
97. Which of the following antiviral drug can be used for 100.This vitamin reduces iron from ferric to ferrous form,
Parkinsonism? thereby increasing intestinal absorption of iron
a. Abacavir a. Vitamin A
b. Didanosine b. Vitamin B
c. Efavirenz c. Vitamin C
d. Amantadine d. Vitamin D
e. Bromocriptine e. Vitamin E
98. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis.
Which of the following thionamides should be given to
her?

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