GENERAL

OIL & GAS

APTITUDE TEST
PAST QUESTIONS
AND
ANSWERS
Questions: 40 Marks: 160

i) Verbal Reasoning
a) Completing a series
- Number series (2)
- Letter series (2)
- Analog test (2)
- Coding and decoding (1)
- Arithmetical reasoning (3)
- Vocabulary test (2)
i) a) Facts about Nigeria and the World (3)
b) Facts about the Oil Industry (3)
c) Sports (3)
d) Health (3)
e) Environment (3)
f) Media and Entertainment (3)
ii) Non-verbal reasoning
a) Odd one out (1)
b) Completion of series (2)
c) Analog test (1)
d) Completing an incomplete pattern (1)
e) Spotting hidden pattern (1)
f) Identical and similar pattern (2)
g) Lateral inversion (1)
h) Folded and unfolded pattern (1)
1. COMPLETING A SERIES. Multiple Choice Questions
(a) Number Series.
Find the missing number in the following
Hints for answering the questions
series out of four options.
In these questions the series consists of
numbers(digits). Number series are formed in 1. 1, 2, 5, 7, 11, _,17
many ways a. 12 b. 13
1. Addition of figures given in row c. 14 d. 15
2. Subtraction of figures from one another
3. Division of figures by one another 2. 1, 8, 27, ,125
4. Multiplication of figures a. 37 b. 47
5. Logical transportation of figures c. 54 d. 64
6. Increase/decrease of numbers in a 3. 6, 12, 21, 33,
specific pattern a. 38 b. 40
EXAMPLE: c. 45 d. 48
Write down the number which will complete 4. 2, 20, ,110, 182
the sequence and replace the ? a. 56 b. 72
a. 6, 12, 18, 30, 48, ? c. 90 d. 96
b. 3, 12, 48, 192, ? 5. 81, 9, 64, ,49, 7
c. 48, 24, 72, 36, 108, ? a. 8 b. 9
d. 1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19, ? c. 10 d. 11
e. 10, 15, 19, 22, 24, ?
6. 15, 20, 30, ,65
f. 905, 576, 329, 247, ? a. 35 b. 40
g. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ? c. 45 d. 50
h. 1, 2, 8, 9, 15, 16, ?
7. 18, 30, 48, 72, 96,
ANSWERS: a. 106 b. 115
a. 78,each term is obtained after adding c. 120 d. 96
two to the previous number 8. 12, 32, 72, 152, ,632
b. 768, multiply each term by 4 to get the a. 515 b. 613
next number c. 815 d. 312
c. 54, divide by 2 and multiply by 3
alternatively. 9. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7, _,13
d. 22, constant difference of 3 in each a. 8 b. 9
subsequent number. c. 10 d. 11
e. 25, decreasing difference of 5,4,3,2,1 10. 3, 8, 22, 63, 185,_
between subsequent numbers a. 285 b. 295
f. 82, interval between each pair of c. 310 d. 500
numbers becomes the succeeding term
11. 4, 5, 7, , 19
in series
a. 56 b. 66
g. each term is square of natural number c. 11 d. 17
h. 22, interval is alternatively 1 and 6
12. 27, 24, 30, 27, 33, 24. 8, 10, 14, 18, ,34, 50, 66
a. 48 b. 27 a. 28 b. 27
c. 30 d. 24 c. 26 d. 25
13. 4, 10, 22, 46, 25. 29, 36, 44, 53,
a. 56 b. 66 a. 55 b. 63
c. 76 d. 94 c. 65 d. 69
14. 4, 1, -8, ,-20, 29, -32, 43 26. 10, 22, 27, ,44, 56, 61
a. 15 b. 16 a. 32 b. 39
c. 17 d. 18 c. 40 d. 42
15. 2, -2, 7, 3, 17, ,32, 13 27. 2, 10, 60, 420, 3360,
a. 70 b. 10 a. 30240 b. 27840
c. 9 d. 8 c. 25140 d. 222240
16. 9, 15, 23, 33, 28. 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, _,38
a. 44 b. 36 a. 26 b. 28
c. 38 d. 45 c. 30 d. 29
17. 12, 8, 14, 6, ,4 29. 4, 9, 20, 43, 90,
a. 5 b. 21 a. 180 b. 182
c. 24 d. 16 c. 179 d. 185
18. 16, 12, 64, 16, ,20, 256 30. 5, 9, 16, 29, 54, 103,
a. 18 b. 144 a. 102 b. 294
c. 20 d. 196 c. 203 d. 200
19. 2, 6, ,120, 720, 5040
Key
a. 12 b. 18 1 b 11 c 21 d
c. 24 d. 60 2 d 12 c 22 c
3 d 13 d 23 c
20. 9, 6, 16, 10, 30, 18, ,34
4 a 14 a 24 c
a. 36 b. 60
5 a 15 d 25 b
c. 58 d. 60 6 c 16 d 26 b
21. 10, 18, 34, ,130, 258 7 d 17 d 27 a
8 d 18 b 28 c
a. 32 b. 60
9 c 19 d 29 d
c. 68 d. 66
10 d 20 c 30 d
22. 30, 23, 17, 12, ,5
a. 6 b. 7
c. 8 d. 9
23. 285, 253, 221, 189,
a. 173 b. 167
c. 157 d. 146
 LETTER SERIES 5. AD, EH, IL, , QT, UX
a. MP b. MN
Letter series contain only letters of the c. MO d. MQ
alphabet placed in a specific pattern . They may
consist of terms with one , two , several letters. 6. B, I, P, W, D, K,
In such series the successive elements are a. Q b. R
obtained from the previous element according to c. S d. T
a definite rule.
Example: U,B,I,P, 7. AZ, BY, CX, D
a. E b. W
Answer : If you study the pattern carefully c. R d. V
you will find that every seventh letter is taken
alphabetically. After U the letters VWXYZA are 8. A, C, F, J, O,
omitted and B is taken. After B , CDEFGH are a. U b. C
omitted and I is taken. After I , JKLMNO are c. D d. F
omitted and P is taken to follow the same pattern
naturally. After P, QRSTUV should be omitted 9. C, J, P, U, Y,
and W will be the next letter in the series. a. C b. D
c. B d. A
Multiple Choice Questions
Each of the term in the questions belong to 10. AZ, BY, CX, DW,
letter series. One of the term in questions belong a. EX b. EU
to letter series. One of the terms of the series is c. EY d. EV
missing. Find the missing term from amongst the
four alternatives. 11. aa HI cc, cc JK ee, ee LM gg,
a. ff NO ii b. gg NO ii
1. J,L,N,P,R,T, c. gg ON ee d. ee ON ii
a. V b. X
c. Y d. Z 12. aBEf, bCFg, cDGh,
a. dEGi b. dHIg
2. C,F,I,L,O,R, c. dEHi d. dHEi
a. V b. U
c. W d. X 13. A, C, B, E, C, G, D,
a. M,N b. L,M
3. B,F,J,N,R,V, _ c. I,E d. G,H
a. X b. Y
c. Z d. C 14. CD, GH, KL, OP, ST,
a. RS b. QR
4. E,J,O,T,Y,D,__ _ c. GH d. WX
a. J b. K
c. I d. F 15. WZI, EHJ, XAK, , YBM, GJN
a. ZCO b. IFL
c. FFL d. FIL
16. BHL, DJN, FLP, 27. AGMS, agms, _
a. HNR b. HOS a. ABCD abcd
c. IOS d. INR b. abcd ABCD
c. BHNT bhnt
17. B,E,I,N,T,___________ d. bhnt BHNT
a. R b. U
c. S d. A 28. aa, bbb, cccc,
a. ddd b. ddddd
18. BC, FG, JK, , RS, VW c. dddd d. DDDD
a. LM b. OP
c. QR d. NO 29. ACF acf G
a. IL gil b. JL gil
19. XD, WC, , YA c. IL gjl d. LL gli
a. XY b. CD
c. ZB d. WV 30. aB bB cD dD
a. ef b. gH
20. AI, BJ, CK, c. fG d. eF
a. LM b. DL
c. GH d. SE Key
1 a 11 b 21 a
21. AM, BN, EI, FJ, CO, DP, GK, 2 b 12 c 22 b
a. HL b. PQ 3 c 13 c 23 d
c. QR d. HG 4 c 14 d 24 a
5 a 15 d 25 b
6
22. Z,W,S,P,L,I,E,_ b 16 a 26 d
7 b 17 d 27 c
a. F b. G 8 a 18 d 28 b
c. B d. K 9 c 19 c 29 a
10 d 20 b 30 d
23. BD, EH, IM, NS,
a. UY b. UZ
c. TY d. TZ

24. AC, EG, BD, FH, IK,

a. JL b. OP
c. IJ d. JK

25. m NN o PP q
a. rr b. RR
c. ss d. QQ

26. CGKOS, AEIMQ, EIMQ ,

a. W b. X
c. V d. U
 ANALOGY TEST j) Sequence relationship
k) Numerical relationship
Analogies Test your ability to see the l) Association relationship
relationship between types of relationships and
recognize which relationship are similar. Multiple Choice Questions

Hints for Answering Questions: In each of the questions below, a related pair
of words(in capital letters) is given. Select the
1. Establish the relationship lettered pair out of four pair of words (in capital
Before you see the available answers try and letters) is given. Select the lettered pair out of
establish what is the relationship between given four pair of words that expresses the relationship
pair. that is most similar to that of the capitalized pair.
Example:
Author : Book 1) SCISSORS:CLOTH ::
a. Poem : poet a) Axe:Wood b) Stone : Grinder
b. Ring : goldsmith c) Knife: Stone d) Gun: Hunt
c. Carpenter : hammer
d. Composer : song 2) FOOD:HUNGER ::
a) Axe:Wood b) Stone : Grinder
The relationship is that author creates a book. c) Knife: Stone d) Gun: Hunt
Take the keyword ‘create’ and try to fit this in 3) BIRD : NEST ::
all given choices a) dog : doghouse
Poem ‘create’ poet wrong b) squirrel : tree
Ring ‘create’ Goldsmith wrong c) beaver : dam
Carpenter ‘create’ hammer wrong d) cat : litter box
Composer ‘create’ song right e) book : library
So ‘d’ is the correct answer. 4) DALMATIAN : DOG ::
2. Sequence of items is important a) Nightingale : bird
Like in above example person ie ‘Author’ b) horse : pony
comes first and the item ie ‘Book’ comes second. c) shark : great white
So in the answer also the person comes second. d) ant : insect e) stock : savings
The only answer that satisfy this condition is (d). 5) DOCTOR : HOSPITAL ::
Following types of relationship are possible. a) sports fan : stadium
b) cow : farm
a) Purpose relationship c) professor : college
b) Cause and effect relationship d) criminal : jail
c) Part and whole relationship e) food : grocery store
d) Part and part relationship
e) Action and object relationship 6) CUB : BEAR ::
f) Synonym and antonym relationship a) piano : orchestra
g) Place relationship b) puppy : dog c) cat : kitten
h) Degree relationship d) eagle : predator
i) Characteristic relationship e) fork : utensil
 7) NOODLES : FLOUR :: 14) BRISTLE : BRUSH
a) snacks : breakfast a) arm : leg b) stage : curtain
b) Tomato : gravy c) recline : chair d) key : piano
c) beans : coffee e) art : sculpture
d) thread : cotton
15) WOOL : WARMTH
8) INK:PAPER :: a) spring : elasticity
a) Pen: pencil b) marketing : advertising
b) Paint: painting c) person : success
c) Chalk: blackboard d) radio : broadcast
d) Carbon paper: ballpoint
16) ODOMETER : DISTANCE
9) ROCKGARDEN:CHANDIGARH :: a) scale : weight
a) Delhi: RedFort b) length : width
b) Film Studio:Pune c) inch : foot
c) Chicago: USA d) mileage : speed
d) India: Asia e) area : size

10) LIGHT : CANDLE :: 17) WRITER : PEN

a) Exercise:Strength a) pencil : eraser
b) Heat:Coil b) ball pen : notebook
c) Power:Battery c) typewriter : paper
d) Automobile:Engine d) blacksmith : hammer
e) gun : hunter
11) VOLCANO:LAVA ::
a) Death:Sorrow 18) PEDAL : BICYCLE
b) Rock:Sand a) inch : yardstick
c) Delta:River b) walk : skip
d) Fault:Earthquake c) tire : automobile
d) buckle : belt
12) SCALES : FISH :: e) oar : boat
a) Lady : Dress
b) Skin : Man 19) RIBS : LUNGS
c) Tree: Leaves a) ball : sphere
d) Bird: Feather b) hand : finger
c) shell : nut
13) PETAL : FLOWER :: d) coat : tie
a) salt : pepper
20) BIRD : CAGE
b) tire : bicycle
a) animal : zoo
c) base : ball
b) thief : prison
d) sandals : shoes
c) antique : museum
e) puppy : dog
d) crime : punishment
21) WAR : DESTRUCTION 28) WAITRESS : RESTAURANT
a) fire : burn b) court : justice a) doctor : diagnosis
c) water : drown d) food : hunger b) actor : role
c) driver : truck
22) YEN : CURRENCY d) teacher : school
a) brass : metal e) author : book
b) flower : fragrance
c) paper : book 29) FINCH : BIRD
d) karnataka : state a) frog : toad
b) elephant : reptile
23) BINDING : BOOK c) Dalmatian : dog
a) criminal : gang d) collie : marsupial
b) display : museum e) ant : ladybug
c) artist : carpenter
d) nail : hammer 30) RAIN : DRIZZLE
e) frame : picture a) swim :dive b) hop : shuffle
c) juggle : bounce d) walk : run
24) EXPLORE : DISCOVER e) run : jog
a) read : skim
b) research : learn 31) EGG : OMELETTE
c) write : print a) dam : river
d) think : relate b) student : classroom
e) sleep : wake c) clay : pottery
d) onion : salad
25) COTTON : BALE
32) TAILOR : SUIT
a) butter : churn
a) scheme : agent
b) wine : ferment
b) edit : manuscript
c) paper : ream
c) revise : writer
d) curd : cheese
d) mention : opinion
e) beef : steak
e) architect : building
26) STOOL : BENCH
Key
a) chair : table
1 a 11 d 22 d
b) carpenter : chair 2 a 12 b 23 e
c) foot rule : yardstick 3 b 13 b 24 b
d) glass : cup 4 a 14 d 25 c
5 c 15 a 26 c
27) LAWN : GRASS 6 b 16 a 27 c
a) wool : sheep 7 d 17 d 28 d
b) skin : goat 8 c 18 e 29 c
c) fur : animal skin 9 b 19 c 30 e
d) rice : farm 10 c 20 b 31 c
21 a 32 e
 CODING DECODING are assigned to the numbers. The candidate is
required to analyze the code according to the
What is Coding Decoding :
directions.
A ‘Code’ is a system of conveying a message
Ex. In a given code SISTER is coded as
through signals. It is a method of sending a
535301. UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How
message between sender and the receiver in
is RUSTIC written in the code ?
such a way that only the sender and the receiver
can know its meaning. However ‘Coding’ is done (a) 633185 (b) 185336
according a certain pattern in the mind of the (c) 363815 (d) 581363
sender. Therefore, its meaning can be deciphered (e) None
by a third person. Only if he carefully studies this
pattern. This process is called ‘Decoding’. This Sol. In this code the alphabets are coded as
capability is important in many fields of application. follows
S IS TE R U N C L E B O Y
The ‘Coding- Decoding’ test is set up to 5353 01 846 7 0 129
judge the candidate’s ability to decipher the
If we apply this method , the code comes out
pattern which goes behind a coded message or
to be 185336
statement. There are many types of coding:

A. LETTER CODING Multiple Choice Questions

In such questions, code values are assigned 1) In a certain coding system MOTHER is
to a word in terms of the alphabets. There are coded as PQWJHT, how will you code
following types of letter coding. SISTER?
a) VKUVHT b) VKVVHU
Type 1 : In this category, one word is coded c) VKVVHT d) VKVVHS
according to a particular pattern and the candidate
is asked to give the code letters for another word 2) In a certain coding system PRICE is coded
following the same pattern of coding. as SVNIL, how will you code COST?
a) F SXY b) FSWY
Ex. The word MAN is coded as NBO. c) FTWZ d) FSXZ
Which of the following shou d be the code
for SKY? 3) In a certain coding system FLOWER is
written as SEXOMF, how will you code
Sol. The first letter of the code N comes after GARDEN?
M. the first letter of the word in question. Similarly, a) OEERBH b) OFESBH
the second letter B comes next to A of the c) OEESBG d) OEERBG
question, and the third letter of code O comes
after N of the main word. Following this pattern 4) In a certain coding system TRAIN is written
we can say that TLZ is coded as SKY. as GIZRM, how will you code FIGURE?
a) USTGKV b) VTYXTC
LETTER AND NUMERICAL CODING c) URTFIV d) VKGTSV
In these questions either numerical values
are assigned to a word or alphabetical code values
5) If SINGLE can be given a code number of 12) In a certain language ‘526’ means ‘sky is
66, what code number can be given to blue’, ‘24’ means ‘blue colour’ and ‘436’
WINKLE? means ‘colour in fun’. Which digit in that
a) 76 b) 66 language means ‘fun’?
c) 78 d) 74 a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
6) If REASON is called as 5 and BELIEVED
as 7, what is the code number for 13) If a rectangle is called a circle, a circle a
GOVERNMENT? point, a point a triangle, a triangle a square,
a) 10 b) 8 then wheel is a:
c) 9 d) 6 a) rectangle b) circle
c) point d) triangle
7) If PRATAP could be given a code number
1618120116, what code number can be given 14) If the letters is PRABA are coded as 27595
to NAVIN? and THILAK are coded as 368451, how can
a) 73957614 b) 24639125 BHARATHI be coded?
c) 14122914 d) 19274651 a) 96575368 b) 57686535
c) 96855368 d) 37536689
8) If CENTURION is coded as 325791465, and
RANK as 18510, what will the figure 78510 15) If JAILAPPAS is coded as AIJAPLASP,
represent? ECONOMICS will be coded as:
a) TANK b) BANK a) COEMONCSI
c) TAKE d) SANK b) COEOMNCSI
c) OECMONSCI
9) If WORK is coded as 4567 and MAN 328, d) OECOMNCIS
then WOMAN is coded as
a) 45328 b) 43528
c) 32845 d) 35428 Key (Coding and Decoding)
1. c 9. a
10) If spider is written as PSDIRE, how would
2. d 10. b
COMMON be written in that code
3. d 11. c
a) OCOMMO b) OCMMNO
4. c 12. b
c) OCMOMN d) OCMMON
5. d 13. c
6. c 14. a
11) If (a) ‘gnr tag zog qmp’ stands for ‘Seoul
7. c 15. b
Olympic organizing Committee’, (b) ‘hyto gnr
8. a
emf’ stands for, ‘Summer Olympic Games,
and (c) ‘esm sdr hyto’ stands for ‘Modern
Games History’, What would ‘summer’
stands for?
a) gnr b) hyto
c) emf d) zog
 ARITHMETICAL REASONING 6) Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts
one half into smaller pieces of equal size.
Hints for Answering Questions: Each of the small pieces is twenty grams in
The section tests the basic calculation skills weight. If she has seven pieces of the cake
such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, in all with her, how heavy was the original
division, calculation of percentages, average etc. cake?
The questions of ‘age’ and direction are also a) 120 grams b) 140 grams
included in this test. The candidate must know c) 240 grams d) 280 grams
the basics of geometry to solve the direction
problems. 7) First bunch of bananas has ¼ again as many
bananas as a second bunch. If the second
1) Rajesh walks 7 km to the north then turns bunch has 3 bananas less than the first bunch,
left and walks 3 km. Then takes another left then the number of bananas in the first bunch
and continue walking this time another 7 km is
forward. How much distance in km is he a) 9 b) 10
away from the starting point. c) 12 d) 15
a) 10km b) 6km
c) 3km d) 2km 8) At the end of a business conference the ten
people present all shake hands with each
2) Balwant had 17 sheep. A storm in the village other once. How many handshakes will there
killed all but 7 sheep .How many was he left be altogether?
with? a) 20 b) 45
a) 10 b) 6 c) 55 d) 90
c) 7 d) 9
9) A student got twice as many sums wrong as
3) What is the smallest number of ducks that he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all,
can swim in this formation- two ducks in how many did he solve correctly.
front of a duck two ducks behind a duck and a) 12 b) 16
a duck between two ducks? c) 18 d) 24
a) 3 b) 5
c) 7 d) 9 10) There were 28 people at last week’s board
meeting. If the ratio of men to women was
4) What is the product of all the numbers in the 4:3, how many women were at the meeting?
dial of a telephone? a) 16 b) 12
a) 1,58,480 b) 1,59,450 c) 7 d) 4
c) 1,59,480 d) None of those
11) At a certain corporation, the ratio of clerical
5) A group of 1200 persons consisting of workers to executives is 7 to 2. If a combined
captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. total of 81 clerical workers and executive
For every 15 soldiers there is one captain. workers for that corporation, how many
The number of captains in the group is clerical workers are there?
a) 85 b) 80 a) 9 b) 14
c) 75 d) 70 c) 18 d) 63
12) Last Year, there were 720 crimes committed 18) A farmer built a fence around his square plot.
in the ninth precinct. These crimes involved He used 27 fence poles on each side of the
theft, rape, and drugs in the ration of 4:2:3, square. How many poles did he need
How many crimes involved drugs? altogether?
a) 80 b) 160 a) 100 b) 104
c) 240 d) 320 c) 108 d) None of these

13) A unit price is a ratio that compares the price 19) An enterprising businessman earns an
of an item to its unit of measurement. To income of Re.1 on the first day of his
determine which product is the better buy, business. On every subsequent day, he earns
calculate each one’s unit price. Which of on income which is just double of that made
these five boxes of Klean-O Detergent is on the previous day. One the 10th day of
the best buy? business, his income is
a) Travel-size: Rs. 100 for 5 Kg. a) Rs. 29 b) Rs. 210
b) Small: Rs. 200 for 11 KG. c) Rs. 10 d) Rs. 102
c) Regular: Rs. 400 for 22 Kg. 20) In a family, the father took ¼ of the cake
d) Large: Rs. 700 for 40 Kg. and he had 3 times as much as each of the
other members had. The total number of
14) Rimmy pulse rate is 19 beats every 15 family members are
seconds. What is her rate in beats per minute? a) 3 b) 7
a) 76 b) 60 c) 10 d) 12
c) 57 d) 45
21) Three friends had dinner at a restaurant.
15) If you write down all the numbers from 1 to When the bill was received, Amita Paid 2/3
100, then how many times do you write 3? as much as Veena paid and Veena paid 1/3
a) 11 b) 18 as much as Tanya paid. What fraction of the
c) 20 d) 21 bill did Veena pay?
a) 1/3 b) 3/11
16) The total number of digits used in numbering c) 12/31 d) 5/8
the pages of a book having 366 pages is
a) 732 b) 990 22) Find the number which when added to itself
c) 1098 d) 1305 13 times, gives 112.
a) 7 b) 8
17) In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 c) 9 d) 11
coloumns of mango trees. The distance 23) A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of
between two trees is 2 meters and a distance each hour and rests for a while when he slips
of one meter is left from all sides of the back 20 feet before he again starts climbing
boundary of the garden. The length of the in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins
garden is his ascent at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he
a) 20 m b) 22m first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?
c) 24m d) 26m a) 4 p.m. b) 5 p.m.
c) 6 p.m. d) None of these
24) In a city, 40% of the adults are illiterate while 31) Rita drives to the north of her place of stay
85% of the children are literate. If the ratio at A and after traveling 25 km finds that she
of the adults to that of the children is 2:3, has driven in the wrong directions. She then
then what percent of the population is literate? turns to her right and travels 2 km and then
a) 20% b) 25% she again turns to the right and drives straight
c) 50% d) 75% another 25 km. How much distance has she
now to cover to go back to the starting point?
25) If every 2 out of 3 readymade shirts need a) 25 km b) 2km
alterations in the sleeves, and every 4 out of c) 4km d) 40 km
5 need in the body, how many alterations will
be required for 60 shirts? 32) Rana travels 10 km to the north, turns left
a) 24 b) 123 and travels 4 km and then again turns right
c) 133 d) 143 and covers another 5 km and then turns right
and travels another 4 km. How far is he from
26) If a clock takes seven seconds to strikes the right starting point?
seven, how long will it take to strike ten? a) 15 km b) 4 km
a) 7 seconds c) 5 km d) 10 km
b) 9 seconds
c) 10 seconds 33) A taxi driver commenced his journey from a
d) None of these point and drove 10 km towards north and
turned to his left and drove another 5 km.
Directions: Mr and Mrs. Sharma have two After waiting to meet a friend here, he turned
children Asha and Shahsi.Shashi married Radha, to his right and continued to drive another 10
daughter of Mrs. Mahajan. Suresh, son of Mrs. km. He has covered a distance of 25 km so
Mahajan marries Rita. Sonu and Rocky are born far, but in which direction would he be now?
to Suresh and Rita. Uma and Sudha are the a) North b) East
daughters of Shashi and Radha. c) South d) West
27) What is the surname of Sonu?
a) Mahajan b) Sharma 34) A tourist drives 10 km towards east and turns
c) Shashi d) None of these to the right hand and drives 3 km. Then he
drives towards west (turning to his right) 3
28) How is Suresh related to Sudha? km. He then turns to his left and drives 2
a) brother b) maternal uncle km. Finally he turns to his right and travels 7
c) uncle d) cousin km. How far is he from his starting point and
in which direction would he be?
29) What is Sudha’s relation to Asha? a) 10 km, East b) 9 km, North
a) sister b) niece c) 8 km, West d) 5 km, West
c) aunt d) daughter
35) Of the 30 Officers on traffic duty, 20% didn’t
30) How is Sonu related to Mr. Mahajan? work on Friday. How many officers worked
a) son-in-law b) grandson on Friday?
c) son d) none of these a) 6 b) 10
c) 12 d) 24
36) After running 1½ miles on Wednesday, a 4 years younger than C. C is 15 years old.
runner had covered 75% of her planned What is the age of B in years?
route. How many miles did she plan to run a) 10 b) 11
that day? c) 12 d) 13
a) 2 b) 2¼
c) 2½ d) 2¾ 43) Today is Varun’s birthday. One year from
today he will be twice as old as he was 12
37) Mr. Rakesh makes his special blends of years ago. How old is Varun today?
coffee by mixing espresso beans with a) 20 years b) 22 years
Colombian beans in the ratio of 4 to 5. How c) 25 years d) 27 years.
many K.g. of espresso beans does he need
to make 18 K.g. of his special blend? 44) A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger
a) 4 b) 5 to C, while B and D are twins. How many
c) 8 d) 9 years older is C to D?
a) 2 b) 3
38) A recipe calls for 3 cups of sugar and 8 cups c) 6 d) 12
of flour. If only 6 cups of flour are used, how
many cups of sugar should be used? 45) 12 year old Manick is three times as old as
a) 1 b) 2 his brother Rahul. How old will Manick be
c) 2¼ d) 4 when he is twice as old as Rahul?
a) 14 years b) 16 years
39) The average of eight different numbers is 5. c) 18 years d) 20 years.
If 1 is added to the largest number, what is
the resulting average of the eight numbers? 46) A woman says, “If you reverse my own age,
a) 5.1 b) 5.125 the figures represent my husband’s age. He
c) 5.25 d) 5.5 is, of course, senior to me and the difference
between our ages is one-eleventh of their
40) Lieutenant James made an average of 3 sum.” The woman’s age is
arrests per week for 4 weeks. How many a) 23 years b) 34 years
arrests does she need to make in the fifth c) 45 years d) None of these.
week to raise her average to 4 arrests per
week? 47) In a town, 65% people watched the news on
a) 4 b) 5 television, 40% read a newspaper and 25%
c) 8 d) 7 read a newspaper and watched the news on
television also. What percent of the people
41) The average of 3 unique numbers is 50. If neither watched the news on television nor
the lowest number is 30, what is the sum of read a newspaper?
the other two numbers? a) 5 b) 10
a) 100 b) 110 c) 15 d) 20
c) 120 d) 150
48) Raj starts from his office facing west and
42) A is 3 years younger than C but one year walks 100 metres straight then takes a right
older than D. D is one year older than B but turn and walks 100 metres. Further he takes
 a left turn and walks 50 metres. In which 54) 5 years ago, the age of a man was 7 times
direction is Raj now from the starting point? the age of his son. The age of the man will
a) North-East b) South-West be 3 times the age of his son in five years
c) North d) North-West from now. How old is the man now?
a) 30 years b) 40 years
49) Mohan starts from his house and walks 4 c) 50 years d) 60 years
km. straight. He then turns towards his right
55) A said to B,” I am 15 years older than you.
and walks 2 kms. He turns again to his right
After 5 years my age will be double of your
and walks 2 kms. If he is North West now,
age.” Then the present age of A is
then in which direction did he start in the a) 10 years b) 15 years
beginning?
c) 20 years d) 25 years
a) North b) South
c) North-West d) West
56) The present age of Ram is 20 years and of
his father is 40 years. How many years ago
50) A number consists of two digits. The digit at
the age of his father was three times of his
the ten’s place is two times the digit at the
age?
one’s place. The number, formed by
reversing the digits is 27 less than the original a) 10 years b) 8 years
c) 6 years d) 4 years
number. Then the original number is
a) 49 b) 94
57) The age of Deepak and Vikas are in the ratio
c) 63 d) 36
7:5. Ten years hence, the ratio of their ages
will be 9:7. Then the present age of Deepak
51) A number consists of two digits of which the
is
ten’s digit exceeds the one’s digit by 6. The
a) 20 years b) 25 years
number itself is equal to ten times the sum of
c) 30 years d) 35 years.
digits. Then the number is
a) 42 b) 60
Key
c) 15 d) 51
1 c 16 b 31 b 46 c
52) A number consists of two digits. The digit at 2 c 17 b 32 a 47 d
the ten’s place is two times the digit at the 3 a 18 b 33 a 48 d
one’s place. The number formed by reversing 4 d 19 a 34 d 49 d
the digits is 36 less than the original number. 5 c 20 c 35 d 50 c
Then the original number is 6 c 21 b 36 a 51 b
a) 84 b) 63 7 d 22 b 37 c 52 a
c) 48 d) 42 8 b 23 c 38 c 53 c
9 b 24 d 39 b 54 b
53) A boy is now one-third as old as his father 10 b 25 c 40 c 55 d
Twelve years hence he will be half as old as 11 d 26 d 41 c 56 a
his father. Then the present age of the boy is 12 c 27 a 42 a 57 d
a) 10 years b) 11 years 13 d 28 b 43 c
c) 12 years d) 13 years 14 a 29 b 44 c
15 c 30 b 45 b
LOGICAL VENN DIAGRAMS
2. Both dogs and cats can be wild as well as
friendly animals, so we can infer that although
This Section deals with questions which aim both fall under separate classes some cats
at analyzing a candidate’s ability to relate a and some dogs may be friendly
certain given group of items and illustrate it
3. Curd is covered under the class Food.
diagrammatically. In these tests a relationship is
However spoon is a separate class and has
to be established between two or more items
no relation with them.
represented by diagrams. The items represented
by the diagrams may be individual, a particular
group/class of people etc. Hints for Answering Questions:
To tackle questions on logical diagrams
Example:
following hints will be helpful
You are required to choose from the five
diagrams the one that best illustrates the 1. These tests are based on the concept of class.
relationship among the three given classes in the A class is a group of items, all having
questions that follow. something in common. Hence a class of
MAMMALS will be all those members of
animal kingdom who are MAMMALS and
REPTILES will be not included in this class.
2. Classes can contain classes. A class may
A B C
conta in or be contained with another.
Example: FATHERS will be contained in the
larger group of MALES. But not all MALES
will be FATHERS.
D E 3. One class may be partially contained in
another
Questions
1. Criminals, Pickpocketers, Terrorists Example: HUSBANDS and BROTHERS. All
BROTHERS are not HUSBANDS and all
2. Dogs, Friendly Animals, Cats
HUSBANDS are not BROTHERS. The Partial
3. Food, Curd, Spoons relationship is as depicted in figure.
Answers So a relationship can be of three basic types
1. E
2. D 1. Complete Exclusion
3. C 2. Complete Inclusion
3. Partial Inclusion
Explanation:
1. Both Pickpocketers and Terrosist fall under
the class of criminals. There is a possibility
that some of pickpocketers can be terrorists
and some of terrorists can be pickpocketers
 These three cases represent possible Directions: Study the following diagram
relationships between two classes if more classes carefully and answer the questions the follow:
are added it would result in more possible Government employees
relationships. A class could be represented by
any shape (circle, square, triangle etc ). Urban people

Directions: Select the diagram that best Graduates

represents the relation of terms given in question Teachers
1-10:

A B
C

D E 21. Which of the following statements is true?

a) all urbans are graduates
1. Animals, Cows, Dogs
b) all graduates are urbans
2. Cousins, Males, Nephews c) all the urban government employees are
3. Women, Story teller, Liars graduates
4. Doctors, Surgeons, Musicians d) all teachers are urban people
5. Students, Females, MBA entrance
22. Choose the correct statement?
candidates
a) there are some urban teachers who are
6. Bedroom, Sitting room, Dwelling government employees as well as
7. Civil Engineers, Boiler Engineers, Engineers graduates
8. People, Doctors, Cows b) no teacher is a government employee
9. Typewriter, Reading material, Magazines c) all graduates are government employee
10. Policemen, Magistrates, Human beings d) all government employees are urban
11. Mule, Father Book people
12. Family, Spouse, Husbands 23. Mark the correct statement?
13. Doctors, Human beings, Cows a) all nonurban teachers are government
14. Social workers, Alcoholics, Teatotallers employee
15. Females, Mothers, Nurses b) all urban government employees are
teachers
16. Dogs, Rabbits, Rats
c) there are some nonurban graduates who
17. Females, Mothers, Sisters – a are neither teachers nor government
18. Beef, Mutton, Eggs employees
19. Students, Married people, Human beings – a d) all urban government employees are
20. Husbands, Brothers, Males – c graduates
24. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) some government employees are rural
b) all teachers are urban
c) teachers who are government
employees are that
d) all govt. employees are urban people.

Directions: In the following diagram there

are three intersecting circles each representing
certain sections of people. Different regions are
marked a-g. Read the statements in question and 29. Which one of the following statement is true?
choose the letter of the region which correctly a) all urbans are post graduates
represents the statements? b) all post graduates are urbans
c) all professors are urban people
Russians d) all rural people are professors
a b f Artists
c
d e 30. Choose the correct statement?
a) There are some professors who are rural
g people
Singers
b) No professor is urban
25. Russians who are artists but not singers. c) All post graduates are rural
a) b b) c d) All post graduates are urban
c) b d) g
31. Which of the following statement is true?
26. Artists who are neither Russians nor singers. a) all rural people are professors.
a) g b) c b) There are some rural people who are
c) f d) b post graduates and professors
c) All rural people are post graduates
27. Russians who are singers but not artists. d) All professors are rural but not post
a) a b) b graduates
c) c d) d
32. Mark the correct statement
28. Russians who are artists as well as singers. a) all urban people are post graduates
a) a b) b b) all rural people are professors
c) c d) d c) some professors are rural but not urban
d) some urban people are not post
Rural people graduates
Urban People

Post Graduates
Professors
Questions 33-36 37. Graduates, hard working and honest rural
people are indicated?
College students a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
a
38. Rural people who are hard working and
b graduates but not honest are indicated by?
d c f Artists a) 1 b) 2
e c) 3 d) 4
g 39. Urban graduates who are neither hard
working nor honest are represented by?
Singers a) 5 b) 7
c) 10 d) 11
33. College students who are artists but not
singers are represented by: 40. Rural graduates who are neither honest nor
a) a b) b hard working are indicated by
c) f d) e a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 9
34. Artists who are neither college students nor
singers are represented by? Directions: There are four intersecting
a) b b) e circles in the following diagram, each representing
c) c d) f people who can read and write English, Hindi,
Urdu and Punjabi.
35. College students who are singers but not A = 40 C = 2A
artists are represented by? E= 1/2 A G = 2E
a) a b) b
c) d d) c English Hindi

36. College students who are artists as well as A B C

singers are represented by? I J
a) c b) f H M D
c) b d) a L K

G F E
Questions 37-40
Rural
Punjabi Urdu
5
41. People who can read and write Hindi, Urdu,
3 Graduates
2 and Punjabi are represented by?
6 a) A b) D
4 1
Hard c) K d) E
working 12 11 9 8 7
Honest 42. People who can read and write all the
10 languages can be represented by?
a) L b) J
c) M d) K
43. People who can read and write all the Graduates
languages except Urdu are represented by? B e Clerks
A
a) K b) M h
f g
c) B d) I
C Govt.
44. People who cannot read and write English, Employees
Hindi and Punjabi are represented by?
a) L b) K 51. Some Clerks are graduates
c) C d) E a) e b) h
c) g d) f
45. People who cannot read and write Urdu and
Punjabi, but are conversant with English and 52. Some clerks are government employees
Hindi both, are represented by? a) e b) h
a) M b) B c) g d) f
c) J d) K
53. Some graduates are government employees
46. People who do not know English and Hindi but not as clerks
but are familiar with Urdu and Punjabi both a) h b) g
are represented by? c) f d) e
a) F b) G
54. Clerks who are graduates as well as in
c) E d) K
government service.
47. Which language is known by maximum a) e b) f
number of people as per the above diagram? c) g d) h
a) Punjabi b) English
55. Some graduates are clerks not working in
c) Hindi d) Urdu
government departments
48. How many people know only Urdu? a) f b) g
a) 40 b) 10 c) h d) e
c) 20 d) 60
KEY
49. How many people know Urdu o Punjabi?
a) 40 b) 20 1 e 15 e 29 c 43 d
c) 80 d) 6 2 b 16 d 30 a 44 d
3 c 17 a 31 b 45 b
50. How many people can read and write any 4 d 18 b 32 d 46 a
one language excepting Punjabi? 5 c 19 a 33 b 47 c
a) 120 b) 140 6 e 20 c 34 d 48 c
c) 100 d) 160 7 e 21 d 35 c 49 d
Questions 51-55 8 d 22 a 36 a 50 b
Directions: Three circles representing 9 d 23 c 37 a 51 a
GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT 10 e 24 d 38 b 52 c
EMPLOYEES are intersecting one another. They 11 e 25 c 39 b 53 c
intersecting one another. The intersections are 12 d 26 c 40 c 54 d
marked A,B,C,e,f,g, and h. Which part best 13 c 27 d 41 c 55 d
represents the statements in questions. 14 e 28 c 42 c
 VOCABULARY TEST 10) Pardoned mistake__ _
a) Forgave b) Peered
Important Points c) warned d) dejected
In this test the candidates are required to 11) A baby bear is called
form new words by suffixing or prefixing letters, a) cub b) fawn
the section also tests the basic knowledge of c) calf d) colt
English language
12) A baby deer is called
In question 1 to 3 find the odd one out. a) cub b) fawn
1) a) Tiger b) Leopard c) calf d) colt
c) Snail d) Fox
13) A baby cat is called a
2) a) Steamer b) yatch a) chick b) puppy
c) Sail d) Boat c) kitten d) duckling
3) a) Ball b) Pingpang 14) A baby fish is called a_
c) Rugby d) Bowling a) Fishlet b) fish
c) fawn d) infant
4) Flex likes to
a) Play Catch b) do catch 15) A baby dog is called a _
c) does catch d) did catch a) duckling b) chick
c) puppy d) kitten
5) John is
a) Basket balling 16) Glasses are used for
b) Doing Basketball a) cleaning b) viewing
c) Playing Basket Ball c) cutting d) washing
d) Sporting Basketball_
17) Scissors are used for
a) Bending b) plucking
Select the word out of the choices that is
c) measuring d) clipping
most appropriate the given meaning
6) Loud cry _ 18) Tweezers are used for_
a) Scream b) Guilt a) Plucking b) clipping
c) Voice d) Ache c) measuring d) chopping

7) Look on face 19) Sprinkler is used for

a) direction b) question a) Vaccuming Lawn
b) Cutting Grass
c) expression d) concern
c) Watering lawn
8) Weeping with short breaths _ d) Washing floor
a) squeezing b) staring
20) A Mop is used for
c) twinkling d) sobbing
a) Sweeping lawn
9) Told to be careful_ b) Watering lawn
a) managed b) warned c) Vaccuming floor
c) noticed d) remembered d) drying floor
 Insert the word(s) that can be prefixed to 32) Ambiguous
the words given to form new meaning full words. a) great b) bighearted
c) uncertain d) clear
21) AGE POSE __PART
a) S b) R 33) Festive
c) IM d) DE a) happy b) colourful
c) bad d) good
22) TIUE ABLE __TAIN
a) SAG b) MOV 34) Feeble
c) MAN d) CAP a) strong b) weak
c) excellent d) good looking
23) ROW EATER __AT
a) M b) TH 35) Genuine
c) WH d) C a) clear b) middy
c) authentic d) less
24) capable consistent tolerant
a) UN b) IM 36) Belittle
c) IN d) AN a) enlarge b) enfeeble
c) please d) unimportant
Tick mark the right meaning of the word
37) Ignominy
25) Contempt
a) popularity b) expensive
a) Love b) Beauty
c) disgrace d) wickedness
c) Call d) Hate
38) Ingenious
26) Fame
a) clever b) intelligent
a) Publicity b) Hate
c) dull d) wickedness
c) Pleasure d) Renown
39) Paramount
27) Notorious
a) immortal b) popular a) Miner b) Minor
c) Important d) Supreme
c) beautiful d) infamous
40) Lenient
28) Excel
a) do well b) run a) tall b) not strict
c) foolish d) simple
c) please d) make well
29) Furtive 41) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) secretive b) good
a) fair b) just
c) bad d) smoke
c) equitable d) favourable
30) conflagration
42) Which word does NOT belong with the
a) popularity b) goy
others?
c) great man d) great fire
a) defendant b) prosecutor
31) candid c) trial d) judge
a) clear b) secret
43) Which word does NOT belong with the
c) open d) public
others?
 a) area b) diameter ENVIRONMENT
c) circumference d) quadrilateral
44) Which word does NOT belong with the 1. Which natural disaster causes more deaths
others? than any other?
a) mayor b) lawyer a) Volcano b) Fire
c) governor d) senator c) Flooding d) Earthquakes
2. The natural process of the earths atmosphere
45) Which word does NOT belong with the
heating through the traping of re-radiated
others?
infra-red radiation is known as
a) acute b) right
a) Global warming
c) obtuse d) parallel
b) Green house effect
46) Which word does NOT belong with the c) Solar heating
others? d) Thermal inversion
a) wing b) fin
3. Temperate forests are likely to have which
c) beak d) rudder
of the following species of trees?
For questions 47 to 49, find the word that a) Maple b) Spruce
names a necessary part of the underlined word. c) Pine d) All
47) book 4. About what percentage of Earth people live
a) fiction b) pages in areas where water shortage are common.
c) pictures d) learning a) 40 percent b) 30 percent
c) 45 percent d) 25 percent
48) guitar
a) band b) teacher 5. Which of the following is not associated with
c) songs d) strings industrial food production?
a) The use of fossil fuels
49) shoe b) Chemical fertilizers
a) sole b) leather c) Large amount of labour
c) laces d) walking d) Machinery

KEY 6. With what bio-region is the team ‘steppe’

associated?
1 c 13 c 2 d 37 c a) Coniferous forest
2 a 14 b 26 d 38 a b) Tropical forests
3 a 15 c 27 d 39 d
c) Savanna d) Grass land
4 b 16 b 28 a 40 b
5 c 17 d 29 a 41 d 7. In which of the following areas do
6 a 18 a 30 d 42 c international environmental treaties exist?
7 c 19 c 31 c 43 d a) Fisheries b) Whaling
8 d 20 d 32 c 44 b
c) Ocean pollution
9 b 21 c 33 a 45 d
10 a 22 d 34 b 46 c d) All
11 a 23 b 35 c 48 b 8. What percentage of earths water is fresh
12 b 24 c 36 d 49 d water?
50 a
 a) 75 percent b) 3 percent a) 60 percent b) 70 percent
c) 27 percent d) 10 percent c) 50 percent d) 30 percent
9. Which country ratified the Kyoto protocol in 16 Tropo pause is the boundary line between
late 2004 and thus caused it to become troposphere and ———
international law? a) Mesosphere
a) Russia b) USA b) Stratosphere
c) China d) India c) ionosphere d) Exosphere
10. The world’s growing appetite for what food 17. Shrubs, thickest and stunted trees like kikar,
product is a leading cause of tropical jal and others are found in
deforestation? a) evergreen forests
a) Lamb b) Sugar b) deciduous forests
c) Beef d) Pork c) dry forests
d) hill forests
11. Between 1950 and 1980, an area of the size
of Denmark has been decertified in which 18. The study of day-to-day variations in weather
country. is called
a) China b) India a) Climatology b) Meteorology
c) Bangladesh d) Iran c) Cyclogensis d) None
12. If current rates of deforestation continues in 19. The ionosphere includes
south-east Asia, then how many years would a) Mesosphere
it take for the region to become completely b) Thermosphere
stripped of its forest? c) Exosphere
a) 30 b) 40 d) Both (b) and (c)
c) 50 d) 60
20. According to your text, what can “be thought
13. In what type of bio-region is desertification of as the genetic library that keeps life going
most likely to occur? on earth”?
a) Temperate forest a) Bio-diversity
b) Savanna b) Human genes
c) Tropical forests c) The human genome project
d) Grass lands d) None
14. Why is cattle ranching not sustainable in areas
that were formerly tropical forests? Answer
a) Cattle reaching quickly exhausts the
nutrient-poor soil of tropical rainforests. 1. b 2. b 3. d
b) Cattle waste is toxic to rainforest soils. 4. a 5. c 6. d
c) Both (a) and (b) 7. d 8. b 9. a
d) None 10. c 11. a 12. c
13. d 14. a 15. a
15. According tom United National estimate, 16. b 17. d 18. b
about how much of the world’s range-lands 19. d 20. a
are threatened by desertification?
 HEALTH 11. Volume of blood in a normal human body is
a) 3-4 litre b) 5-6 litre
1. Body temperature of a normal person:
c) 8-10 litre d) 10-12 litre
a) 81.1°C b) 36.9°F
c) 36.9°C d) 98.6°F 12. Which of the following is hereditary disorder?
2. A healthy person’s B.P. is a) Scurvy b) Ricketus
a) 81/170 mm of mercury c) Colour blindness
b) 80/120 mm of mercury d) Night blindness
c) 70/140 mm of mercury 13. Main component of bones and teethes are
d) 120/180 mm of mercury a) Calcium carbonate
3. On kidney failure, blood is purified by b) Calcium phosphate
a) Dialysis b) Biopsy c) Calcium sulphate
c) Angiography d) Ultrasound d) Calcium nitrate

4. AIDS spreads through 14. Diabetes is caused due to lack of

a) Bacteria b) Protozoa a) Sugar b) Insulin
c) Virus d) Fungi c) Calcium d) Iron
5. Heat beat of a normal person is 15. Smallpox is a deadly and lightly contagious
a) 50 per min b) 70 per min a) Viral disease b) Fungal disease
c) 80 per min d) 100 per min c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
6. Malaria is a disease which effects the
16. Test tube baby means
a) Heart b) Lungs
a) Ovum developed without fertilization in
c) Spleen d) Kidney
test tubes
7. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? b) Ovum fertilized in test tube and developed
a) Plague-rats b) Rabies-dogs in uterus
c) Tapeworm – pig c) Ovum fertilized and developed in test
d) Poliomyelitis – monkeys tube.
d) Ovum fertilized in uterus and developed
8. Typhoid and cholera are typical example of in test tubes.
a) Infectious diseases
b) Air-borne diseases 17. A person of which of the following blood
c) Water borne diseases groups can receive blood of any group?
d) None a) A b) AB
9. Myopia is a disease connected with c) B d) O
a) Eyes b) Brain
18. ECG is used for the diagnosis of ailments of
c) Liver d) Heart
a) Brain b) Heart
10. Lock Jaw i.e. difficulty in opening the mouth c) Kidneys d) Lungs
is a symptom of
a) Diphtheria b) Tetanus 19. Ricketts is a disease of
c) Cholera d) Plague a) Bones b) Tissue
c) Muscles d) Blood
20. Which of the following vitamins promotes 6. Saina Nehwal is associated with which
healthy functioning of eyes in human beings? game.
a) Vit B b) Vit C a) Tennis b) Badminton
c) Vit A d) Vit D c) Lawn Tennis d) Athletic
7. Ranji Trophy is associated with which sport.
Answer
a) Hockey b) Football
1. c 2. d 3. a c) Cricket d) Polo
4. c 5. b 6. c
8. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with which
7. d 8. c 9. a
sport.
10. b 11. b 12. c
a) Golf b) Tennis
13. b 14. b 15. a
c) Badminton d) Cricket
16. b 17. b 18. b
19. a 20. c 9. Name the playing area of boxing
a) Rink b) Link
c) Ring d) Court
SPORTS 10. Name the national sport of India
1. Olympic games 2012 were held at a) Cricket b) Hockey
a) England b) China c) Judo d) Badminton
c) Atlanta d) Tokyo
11. Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium is located at
2. Commonwealth games 2010 held in a) Mumbai b) Chennai
a) Manchester b) Victoria c) New Delhi d) Kolkata
c) Delhi d) Perth
12. The team dribble is associated with which
3. Asian games 2010 held in sport
a) Qatar a) Basketball b) Badminton
b) China c) Baseball d) Billiards
c) South Korea
d) Thailand 13. T-20 world cup cricket Tournament in 2012
was held in
4. Who scored double hundred first time in ODI a) South Africa b) Sri Lanka
cricket match? c) England d) India
a) Saurav Ganguali
b) M.S. Dhoni 14. Third IPL 20-20 Championship was won by
c) Rickey Ponting a) Mumbai Indians
d) Sachin Tendulkar b) Royal Challengers
c) Chennai Super Kings
5. The first athlete who won eight gold medals d) Kolkata Knight Riders
in individual events in one Olympic games is
a) Micheal Phelps 15. Hockey World cup 2010 was won by
b) Milkha Singh a) Genmany b) Pakistan
c) Mike Powell c) Holland d) Australia
d) P.T. Usha
16. Who is second individual top scorer in test MEDIA AND ENTERTAINMENT
crickets after Brain Lara.
a) Mathew Hayden 1. In Oscar award 2012, the best picture is
b) Rahul Dravid a) No country for oldman
c) Rickey Ponting b) The hurt locker
d) Saurav Ganguli c) Slumdog millionaire
d) War Horse
17. Player who hit six sixes in an over in 20-20
world cup 2007 2. In 59th national film awards, the best feature
a) Sahid Afridi film is
b) Yuvraj Singh a) Delhi 6 b) Deool
c) Yusuf Pathan c) Putaani Parti d) Kutty srank
d) Jacques Kellis 3. In 2012, 54th Grammy awards function was
18. In 2011, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award was held in
given to a) Bangkok b) Philippines
a) Gagan Narang c) Los angeles d) Thialand
b) Abhivan Bindra 4. Miss Universe 2012 is
c) Saina Nehwal a) Olivia Culpo
d) Saniya Mirza b) Dayana Mendoza
19. Who become the first Indian to win a Gold c) Ksenia Sukhinova
Medal at World Wrestling Championships? d) Stephenia Fernadiz
a) Susheel Kumar 5. Nobel prize 2009 for peace was given to
b) Vijender Singh a. Ms Herta Meullar
c) Kuldeep Singh b. Barrack obama
d) Rajeev Tomar c. Willard S boyle
20. Tejaswina Sawant is Associated with which d. Ada yonath
sport. 6. Best film in IIFA award 2012 was
a) Rifel Shooting a. Paa b. Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
b) Wrestling c. Delhi – 6 d. All the best
c) Boxing
d) Badminton 7. Who has taken over mobile company Hutch
a. Airtel b. Videocon
Answer c. Docomo d. Vodafone

1. a 2. c 3. b 8. World’s tallest building is

4. d 5. a 6. b a. Eiffle tower b. Qutab minar
7. c 8. b 9. c c. Burj khalifa
10. b 11. c 12. a d. World trade center
13. b 14. d 15. d 9. The film ‘Peepli live’ is produced by
16. a 17. b 18. a a. Ajay Devgan b. Aamir khan
19. a 20. a c. Saroj khan
d. David Dhawan
10. Bhangra is the popular dance of a. Mo’ Nique
a. Bihar b. Punjab b. Jeff Bridges
c. Kerala c. Michael Giacchins
d. Himachal Pradesh d. Christoph waltz
11. Garba is the popular dance of 19. Life time achievement award was given by
a. Gujarat b. West Bangal a. Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
c. Rajasthan d. Punjab b. Lata Mangeshkar
c. Asko Parpola
12. World’s highest radio station is
d. Dev Anand
a. All India radio, Leh
b. All India ratio, Kashmir 20. Phalke Ratan award 2009 was given to
c. All India radio, Delhi a. Amitabh Bachchan
d. None b. Anil Kappor
c. Dev Anand
13. ——— holds the world record for maximum
d. Shammi Kapoor
number of song recordings
a. Asha Bhonsle
b. Lata Mangeshkar
Answers
c. Kishor Kumar
d. Mohd. Rafi. 1. d 2. b 3. c
4 a 5. b 6. b
14. Bihu is the popular dance of
7 d 8. c 9. b
a. Punjab b. Kerala
10 b 11. a 12. a
c. Assam d. H.P.
13 b 14. c 15. a
15. Nautanki is the popular dance of 16. a 17. c 18. b
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Meghalaya 19. a 20. c
c. Karnataka d. Tamil Nadu
16. Best song written for Motion picture,
television or other visual media is
a. Jai Ho
b. Jiyo Utho Bado Teeto
c. Vende Matram
d. None
17. In 57th national film awards, best actor award
was won by
a. Farook Sheikh
b. Sharukh Khan
c. Amitabh Bachchan
d. Aamir Khan
18. In Oscar award 2010, best actor award was
won by
B. NON-VERBAL REASONING
Important Points
The purpose of non-verbal reasoning test is to find out how well a candidate understands ideas
which are not presented in words or numbers, but in figures, diagrams, pictograms presented in terms
of size or shape or position or quantity or other non-verbal, non-numerical forms. What is important
in solving the problems of non-verbal reasoning tests is to follow a logical procedure. This latent
logical procedure will help the candidate to find out the principle on which the problem figure is
based.

i) Odd One Out

Multiple Choice Questions
Directions: In the given four figures, three
6.
of them are similar in some respect, while one is
a b c d
different. Out of the four figures select the figure
which is different.

7.
a b c d
1.
a b c d

8.
J E O A
2. a b c d
a b c d

9.
3. a b c d
a b c d

10.
4.
a b c d
a b c d

11.
5. a b c d
a b c d
12.
20.
a b c d
a b c d

13.
a b c d 21.
a b c d

14.
a b c d
22.
a b c d

15.
a b c d
23.
a b c d

16.
a b c d
24.
a b c d
17.
a b c d

25.
a b c d
18.
a b c d

26.
19. a b c d
a b c d
 ii) Completion of Series

27. Important Points

a b c d
In this test, a set of 3/4/5 figures is given.
Each figure changes in design from the preceding
one in a particular order. Candidates are required
to choose the correct answer figure, which would
28. best continue the series.
a b c d This test judges your pattern perception. You
have to discern the pattern which may be
quantitative, qualitative, rotative, multi-relational,
or ratio-based. The series-may also be based on
mixed operations, in which various elements
29. change their directions/positions, increase or
b c d decrease in number as well as change qualitatively.
a
This test also includes questions on correct
sequence of fig res. Students are asked as to
interchange of which two figures would make
the series correct.
30.
b c d Multiple Choice Questions
a
Directions: There are two set of figures. One
Key set is called problem figures and the other set is
called answer figures. Problem set figures from
1. a 11. b 21. d some kind of series. Select one figure from the
2. d 12. d 22. c answer set figures which will continue the series
3. c 13. d 2. c in the problem set figures.
4. b 14 c 24. d
5. d 15 d 25. d
6. a 16 a 26. a
7. b 17 b 27. b
8. a 18 c 28. d
9. b 19. b 29. d
10. b 20. d 30. c
 Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.
9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Key
1 d 5 a 9 c 13 d
2 c 6 d 10 d 14 c
3 c 7 c 11 b 15 d
4 d 8 d 12 b
iii) Analog Test
'Analogy' implies corresponding. In the problems based on analogy, a pair of related figures is
provided and a similar relationship is to be established between two other figures, by selecting one or
both of them from a set of alternatives.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: Figures 1 & 2 in Problem figures are related in a particular manner. Establish the
same relationship between figures 3 and 4 by choosing a figure from among the four altern tive
answer figures, which would replace the question mark in problem figures.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

1.
1 2 3 4 a b c d

c
2. c
1 2 3 4 a b c d

3. ?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

4.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

5.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

6.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d
7. ?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

8.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

9.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

10.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

11.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

12. ?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

13.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

14. ?
1 2 3 4 a b c d
15.
?
1 2 3 4 a b c d

Key (Analog Test)

1 d 6 a 11 b
2 d 7 a 12 d
3 c 8 a 13 a
4 d 9 c 14 d
5 d 10 d 15 d

iv) Completing an Incomplete Pattern

These are based on the Raven Progressive Matrices Tests (1938-56). They were developed in
England and used during World War II. They are non-verbal scales developed to judge your ability to
comprehend correlations between geometric figures and diagrams, and to perceive the structure of
the design in order to select the appropriate part from amongst a number of choices for completion of
each pattern.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: A pattern/figure is given, a portion of which is left incomplete. A few choices- a,b,c
and d in the answer figures are also given. You have to select the figure which fits into the blank
space in the incomplete figure so that the original pattern is complete.

Incomplete Figures Answer Figures

?
1.
A B C D

?
2.
A B C D

?
3.
A B C D
 ?
4.
A B C D

5.
?

6.
? A B C D

7.
? A B C D

8. ?
A B C D

9. ?
A B C D

10.
? A B C D
11. ?
A B C D

?
12.
A B C D

13.
? A B C D

?
14.
A B C D

15.
? A B C D

Key (Completing an Incomplete Pattern)

1. d 6. b 11. a
2. a 7. a 12. b
3. b 8. c 13. a
4. c 9. c 14. b
5 a 10 d 15 a
Spotting Hidden Pattern

Important Points
These non-verbal tests are designed to judge your sense of observation and analytical aptitude.
In such questions, the PROBLEM FIGURE comprises just one figure. The ANSWER FIGURE
contains four different blocks. The ANSWER FIGURE has a hidden figure of the PROBLEM
FIGURE which is to be spotted out.

Multiple Choice Questions

Direction: There is one block on left hand side marked (X) which has the basic design. The
four blocks that follow, i.e. A,B,C and D have a group of more complex figures in one of which the
main/basic figure given left hand column (X) is hidden/embedded in some position. You have to spot
that particular figure from the choice of answers A,B,C and D.

1.
X A B C D

2.
X A B C D

3.
X A B C D

4.
X A B C D

5.
X A B C D

6.
X A B C D
7.
X A B C D

8.
x A B C D

9.
x A B C D

10.
A B C D
x

11.
A B C D
x

12.
x A B C D

13.
D

x A B C

14.
x A B C D

Key (Spotting Hidden Pattern)

1 b 4 b 7 b 10 a 13 d
2 b 5 b 8 b 11 b 14 a
3 a 6 a 9 c 12 d
vi) Identical or Similar Pattern
In these tests, the problem figure comprises only one figure. Below it are given four alternative
figures. Of the four alternative figures, one figure is similar or identical to the problem figure. The
candidates must study the problem figure and note its characteristic or peculiarities in detail. Then
they should try to identify or locate the alternative figure which is identical to the problem figure. The
answer figure should be identical to the problem figure, or should have the same characteristics as
the problem figure, which is to be spotted out.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions: Select from the four alternative figures, the one with the same characteristics as in
the given figure.

1. Given Figure: 3. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure:
Alternate Figure:

A B

C D

2. Given Figure:
4. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure:
Alternate Figure:

A B

A B C D

C D
5. Given Figure: Alternate Figure:

A B C D

8. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure:

Alternate Figure:

A B

A B

C D
C D
6. Given Figure:
9. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure:
Alternate Figure:

A B C D
A B C D
7. Given Figure: 10. Given Figure:
 Alternate Figure: 13. Given Figure:

A B C D

11. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure:

Alternate Figure:
A B

A B
C D

14. Given Figure:

C D

12. Given Figure:

Alternate Figure: Alternate Figure:

A B
A B C D

Key (Identical or Similar Pattern)

1 c 6 d 11 a
2 c 7 c 12 a C D
3 a 8 d 13 c
4 b 9 d 14 a
5 d 10 b
vii) Lateral Inversion 3. Key Figure:

Important Points
This test requires the candidate to observe
carefully how a given figure will appear in the
mirror, if the mirror is held at a particular position. Answer Figure:
For this test, you must remember that the left
side of a pattern appears to be on the right side in
the mirror and vice-versa.

Multiple Choice Questions a b c d

Directions: In the following questions, a
figure is followed by four suggested mirror 4. Key Figure:
reflections of it. Assuming that the mirror is placed
to the right of the figure (except in questions 7,11
and 12), pick out the correct reflected figure.

1. Key Figure: Answer Figure:

A B C D

Answer Figure:
5. Key Figure:
=
o
s
a b c d Answer Figure:
s = = s
2. Key Figure: o o o o
= s
=

A B C D

Answer Figure: 6. Key Figure:

a b c d
 Answer Figure: Answer Figure:

A B

8. Key Figure:

C D
Answer Figure:
7. Key Figure:

A B C D

Direction ((9-26): In each one of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image of
the figure 'X' from amongst the form alternatives a,b,c,d given along with it.

9.
(X) A B C D

10.
(X) A B C D
11. (Mirror is placed at the Bottom)

A B
(X) A B C D
12. (Mirror is placed at the Top)

(X) A B C D

13.
(X) A B C D

14.
(X) A B C D

15.
(X) A B C D

16.
(X) A B C D

17.
(X) A B C D
18.
(X) A B C D

19.
(X) A B C D

20.
(X) A B C D

21.
(X) A B C D

22.
(X) A B C D

23.
(X) A B C D
24.
(X) A B C D

25.
(X) A B C D

26.
(X) A B C D
Key (Later Inversion)
1. b 10. d 19. c
2. a 11. d 20. c
3. c 12. c 21. d
4. d 13. d 22 d
5. c 14. c 23. b
6. d 15. c 24. a
7. c 16. c 25. b
8. c 17. b 26. c
9. c 18. c

viii) Folded and Unfolded Pattern

Important Points
In this test, the problem figures show how a piece of paper or cardboard is folded and cut or
punched. From the answer figures, you are required to choose the correct shape of the paper or
cardboard when it is unfolded.

Multiple Choice Questions

Directions 1-15: In each one of the following questions, find from amongst the four response
figures, the one which resembles the pattern formed when the transparent sheet, carrying a design is
folded along the dotted line.
1.

A B C D

2.

A B C D

3.

A B C D

4.

A B C D

5.

A B C D
6.

A B C D

7.

A B C D

8.

A B C D

9.

A B C D

10.

A B C D
11.

A B C D

12.

A B C D

13.

A B C D

14.

A B C D

15.

A B C D
 Directions (16-20): A piece of square paper is folded as shown below and a cut is made as
marked. How would the paper look like when unfolded?

16. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

A B C D
17. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

A B C D
18. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

A B C D
19. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

A B C D

20. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

A B C D
 QUESTIONS ON NIGERIA AND THE WORLD
1. The first General Secretary was A. 27th August, 1991
A. Obafemi Awolowo B. 4TH April, 1996
B. Nnamdi Azikwe C. 15th June, 1991
C. Ufong Ekaete D. 6th March, 1996
D. Michael Okpara 10. The green colour of the Nigerian flag represents
2. War against Indiscipline was inaugurated in A. Beauty
A. March, 1984 B. Peace
B. June, 1985 C. Agriculture
C. April, 1983 D. Strength
D. August, 1982 11. The first university graduate inspector general of
3. In 1945 .... currency was introduced in Nigeria police was
A. Naira and kobo A. Abubakar Rilwan
B. Pound sterling B. Tafa Balogun
C. Dollar C. Ogbonnaya Onovo
D. CFAC D. Mike Okiro
4. Which state is commonly referred to as the 12. The first Nigerian whose portrait was shown in
'confluence state'? the naira is….
A. Niger A. Abubakar Tafa Balewa
B. Kogi B. Ahmadu Bello
C. Benue C. Gen. Murtala Mohammed
D. Kwara D. Nnamd Azikiwe
5. Who composed the Nigerian national anthem? 13. Th president of the Nigerian Labour Congress
A. John A. Ilechukwu (NLC) is
B. Eme Etim Akpan A. Alfa Belgore
C. Benedict Odiase B. Adulwaheed Omar
D. Sotu Omoigui C. Idris Mamah
6: The first world war was between D. Okun Etiebon
(a) 1911-1914 14. The highest national award in Nigeria is the
(b) 1914-1916 A. GCON
(c) 1916-1918 B. OFR
(d) 1914-1918 C. MON
7: The western and eastern Nigeria became self D. GCFR
governed in 15. OFR stands for
(a) 1959 A. Offer of the Federal Republic
(b) 1960 B. Order of the Federal Republic
(c) 1957 C. Office of the Federal Republic
(d) 1956 D. Officer of the Federal Republic
8. The naira note was introduced to replace the 16. Switzerland is often cited as a classic example of
pound in a country with
A. 1973 a. Unitary constitution
B. 1976 b. Quasi-unitary
C. 1961 c. Federal
D. 1963 d. Confederal
9. Fifty naira was introduced in
17. The power of a head of state to dissolve the 24. The political party that replaced NNDP before
legislature and order a general election is usually independence was
associated with the a. NYM
a. Presidential system of government b. NCNC
b. Monarchial c. UNDP
c. Parliamentary d. AG
d. Unitary 25. The Babaginda administration’s transition to
18. The act of bringing a legislative session to an end civil rule program officially started in
only for business to continue later is called a. 1992
a. Adjournment b. 1990
b. Prorogation c. 1987
c. Resolution d. 1985
d. Abrogation 26. The 1960 Independence Constitution of Nigeria
19. An electoral process in which candidates for provided for the
elective offices re selected by party members is A. President as head of government
a. Primary election B. Governor-General as head of state
b. Electoral college C. Queen as head of state
c. Direct election D. Governor-General as head of government
d. Preferential voting. 27. The independen African countries that signed
20. The principle whereby a legislator's tenure is the OAU Charter on May 25,1963 were
abruptly brought to an end by his constituency is A. Togo and Sierra Leone
a. Rejection B. Morocco and Angola
b. Reference C. Togo and Morocco
c. Recall D. none of the above
d. Impeachment 28. In a parliamentary system of government,a vote
21. Which of the following traditional Nigeria of no confidence leads to the resignation of
societies practiced systems of checks and balance A. an indidvidual minister
a. Tiv B. the entire parliament
b. Yoruba C. the prime minister
c. Hausa D. the entire cabinet
d. Igbo 29. The chairman of the National Defense Council
22. In British West Africa, the electi e principle was asprovided in the 1999 Constitution is the
first introduced in A. Minister of Defence
a. Nigeria B. Chief of Defence Staff
b. Ghana C. Chief of Army Staff
c. Sierra Leone D. President
d. Gambia 30. Ethnic politics in Nigeria can be traced to the
23. A court order compelling the executive or its A. Macpherson Constitution
agencies to produce an unlawfully detained person B. Lyttelton Constitution
is called a writ of C. Clifford Constitution
a. Mandamus D. Richard's Constitution
b. Subpoena 31. When ancient Olympic games first held ?
c. Habeas corpus A. 776 BC
d. Bail B. 780 BC
C. 790 BC
D. 800 BC C. Lenin
32. Who is known as the father of Modern Medicine D. Trotsky
? 40. Who is also known as the founder of scientific
A. Euclid socialism ?
B. Pythagoras A. Karl Marx
C. Hippocrates B. Lenin
D. Erastosthenes C. Rousseau
33. Rome was founded around ? D. Engels
A. 1000 BC 41. Who said that " Man is a political animal" ?
B. 1200 BC A. Aristotle
C. 1400 BC B. Karl Marx
D. 1600 BC C. Lenin
34.Which is considered as oldest civilization of the D. Plato
world ? 42. Who was the first executive president of
A. Mesopotamian Civilization Nigeria?
B. Egyptain Civilization A. Alhaji Shehu Shagari
C. Harappan Civilization B. Alhaji Alhmadu Bello
D. Chinese Civilization C. Alhaji Abubakar Tafa Balewa
35. In which year American Revolution started ? D. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
A. 1774 43. Who is the last military head of state?
B. 1775 A. Rt. Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo
C. 1776 B. Rt. Gen Abdusalami Abubakar
D. 1777 C. Rt. Gen Yakubu Gowon
36. In which year American Independence was D. Rt. Gen Muhammadu Buhari
acknowledged by England ? 44. Who was the first CBN governor?
A. 1782 A. Prof. Chukwuma Soludo
B. 1783 B. Dr. Louis Edet
C. 1784 C. Sanusi Lamido Sanusi
D. 1785 D. Dr. R.P. Feton
37. Who was the author of the "American 45. Who was the first Nigerian Labour congress
Declaration of Independence" ? leader?
A. Jefferson A. Adams Oshiomole
B. Lafayette B. Omar Waheed
C. George Washington C. Anwuka Awuzie
D. Thomas Paine D. Michael Imoudu
38. The Renaissance scientist who explained how 46. When did Gen Ibrahim Babangida stepped aside
planets moved around the sun was ? and appointed Chief Ernest Shonekam to head
A. Kepler Interim National Government?
B. Rebelais A. 26th August, 1993
C. Francis Bacorr B. 4th June, 1991
D. Gutenberg C. 29th May, 1992
39. Russian revolutionary, who founded the D. 1st October, 1990
Communist Party was 47. SON means………………..
A. Karl Marx (a) The male child of a couple
B. Stalin (b) Son of the great Notredemus
(c) Standards Organization of Nigeria c.1978
(d) None of the above d. 1951
48. AIE in Finance and Accounts means: 55.NAFDAC was established in
(A) Authority to Incur Expenses A.1990
(B) Authority to Incur Expenditure b.1991
(C) Authority to Involve Experts c 1993
(D) Authority to Incure Expenses d.1999
49. NHIS means 56.Economic diplomacy was introduced during the
a). National Health Insurance Scheme era of
b). Nigerian Health Insurance Scheme a. Tafawa Balewa
c). National Health Insurance Sector b. Ibrahim Babaginda
d). Nigerian Health Insurance Sector c. Muhammadu Buhari
50. Which of the following made the earliest contact d. Yakubu Gowon
with the Nigerian society 57. Which of the following country does not belong
a. The british to West Africa
b. The portugese A. Cape Verde
c. The French b. Tanzania
d. The Germans c. Liberia
51. Between 1960 and 1966, Nigeria was governed d. Burkina Faso
under the 58. Which of the following country recognized
a. Presidential system of government Biafra republ c
b. Westminster system of government A. Ghana
c. Confederal system of government b. Comoro island
d. Unitary system of government c. Eritrea
52.Liberia became independent in d. Ivory Coast
A.1847 59. The first colonial consul sent to administer the
b.1858 west coast of Africa by Britain was
c.1941 A. Donald Cameron
d.1936 b. John major
53. The last governor election forum election was c. John Beecroft
held in d. Tulma Goldie
A. May 19 60 The United States of America flag has how many
b. May 21 star
c. May 24. A.15
D. May 25 b.20
54.The present Nigeria national anthem arise o c.50
compatriot was composed in what year d.10
A.1960
b.1963
ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. C
11.B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. D
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. B 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. B
51. B 52. D 53. C 54. C 55. B 56. B 57. B 58. D 59. A 60. 10
 MISCELLANEOUS OIL AND GAS QUESTIONS
7. What is the size of a standard barrel of oil in
1. Fill in the blank: is steel pipe that gallons?
screws together and is lowered into the hole after a. 55
drilling is complete. It is used to seal off fluids and b. 42
keeps the hole from caving in. c. 159
a. Flow Line d. 26
b. Surface Pipe
c. Casing 8. Which country is NOT currently a member of
d. Tubing OPEC?
a. Saudi Arabia
2. How many oil spillages have been recorded in b. Angola
Ogno land by Shell? c. Nigeria
a. 6 d. Brazil
b. 12
c. 4 9. What country was the top oil producing country
d. 9 in 2015?
a. Saudi Arabia
3. Who is the oil well firefighter made famous in the b. Russia
1968 film Hellfighters starring John Wayne? c. United States
a. Red Buttons d. China
b. “Boots” Hansen
c. “Coots” Matthews 10. About how many gallons of gasoline are
d. Red Adair produced from one barrel of crude oil?
a. 55
What is the name of the equipment pictured to the b. 19
right? c. 42
a. Blowout Preventer d. 5
b. Gate Valve
c. Containment Dike 11. What is the top oil-producing state in the United
d. Flow Line States as of 2016?
a. Alaska
5. Choose the odd one out? b. North Dakota
a. NNPC c. Oklahoma
b. DPR d. Texas
c. PEF
d. SHELL 12. Oil was first discovered in Nigeria in what year?
a. 1972
6. What is the dominant component of natural gas? b. 1969
a. Oxygen c. 1956
b. Hydrogen d. 1961
c. Methane
d. Nitrogen 13. What is the date that drilling begins on a well
known as?
a. Start Date
b. Spud Date B. Gravity method
c. Drill Date C. Magnetic method
d. Cap Date D. Resistivity method
E. Ground penchant-radar method
14. What is a well drilled in an area without
previous oil or gas production known as? 20. The bedrock geology of Nigeria is composed of
a. Wildcat ………….. Main gropus
b. Tomcat A. 7
c. Newbie B. 4
d. Offset Well C. 2
D. 6
15. How many bpd of oil was first produced in E. 10
Nigeria??
a. 5100bpd 21. What is the significance of September 11, 2001
b. 2300bpd to world history?
c. 4500bpd A. Terrorists planes crashed into the world trade
d. 15600bpd centre in new york and pentagon in washinton
B.Terrorists planes crashed into the white house
16. What is the full meaning of NPDC? C.Terrorists explode car bomb in tel aviv
A. Nigerian Petroleum Development Company D.America and her allies commenced war against
B. Nigerian Petroleum Development Commission terror
C. Nigerian Petroleum Development Corporation E.Operation desert storm began
D. Nigerian Petroleum Development Committee
22. Nigeria joined OPEC in 1971 as the ........ member
17. The earth is made of three concentric shells of that organisation
known as A. 6th
A. Crust, mantle and core B. 8th
B. Outer, middle, and inner shells C. 4th
C. Layer 1, layer 2, and layer 3 D. 10th
D. Lithospere, asthenosphere, mesosphere E. 11th
E. Mohorovicic discontinuity, conrad discontinuity,
Gutenberg discontinuity 23. Where is the headquarters of OPEC?
A. London
18. A girl of mass 60kg stands on a scale inside a lift B. New york
which descends at constant velocity 10 km/hour. C. Stockholm
What is the mass indicated by the scale? D. Vienna
A. 600kg E. Paris
B. 6 kg
C. 60kg 24. Who is the current Nigerian representative at
D. 50kg OPEC’s board of governors?
E. 180kg A. Dr. Rilwanu Lukeman
B. Mr. Jackson Gaius-Obaseki
19. Which geophysical method is commonly applied C. Mr. Macaulay Ofurhie
in oil exploration? D. Ms. Amah Pepple
A. Seismic method E. Alh. Yusuf Abubakar
25. Nigeria’s first shipload of liquefied petroleum 30. Where was the first commercial discovery of oil
gas (LPG) to the world market was in …….. in Nigeria?
A. 1958 A. Oloibiri
B. 1997 B. Ihuo
C. 1967 C. Ebocha
D. 1988 D. Ologbo
E. 1977 E. Osari

26. The countries that will be in the first stage of the 31. The highest point in Nigeria is on the
West African gas pipeline project are A. Jos plateau
A. Nigeria, Cameroun, Togo, Benin B. Oban hills
B. Benin, Chad, Niger, Nigeria C. Udi plateau
C. Benin, Togo, Ghana, Nigeria D. North eastern highlands
D. Niger, Nigeria, Benin, Togo E. Western uplands
E. Ghana, Chad, Benin, Togo
32. River Niger is the ............longest river in africa
27. The preferred price band of crude oil by the A. First
organisation of exporting countries (OPEC) is B. Third
A. Us 35 – 40 dollars C. Fifth
B. Us 25 – 26 dollars D Sixth
C. Us 19 – 20 dollars E None of the above
D. Us 15 – 18 dollars
E. Over us 40 dollars 33. A marginal field is…….
A. An oil field at the edge of a centrally located oil
28. The federal government of Nigeria has set a filed
deadline of year…. when routine gas flaring in the B. An oil field at the border of an oil producing state
nation’s oil field must stop. C. An oil field between two oil producing states
A. 2010 D. An oil field which a major oil company finds
B. 2004 uneconomical to produce but which can be
C. 2008 economically produced by a smaller company
D. 2020 E. An oil field situated on the continental margin
E. 2005
34. What is the volume in litres of one barrel of
29. Name the oil producing states in Nigeria crude oil
A. Abia Akwa Ibom Bayelsa Bornu Yobe Delta Edo A. 200 litres
Ondo rivers B. 159 litres
B. Abia Akwa Ibom Anambra Bayelsa Cross River C. 100 litres
Delta Edo Ondo rivers D. 88 litres
C. Abia Akwa Ibom Bayelsa Bornu Cross River Delta E. 500 litres
Edo Gombe rivers 35. Which country is the world’s largest producer of
D. Akwa Ibom Bayelsa Cross River Delta Edo Imo crude oil?
Lagos Ondo rivers A. Saudi Arabia
E. Abia Akwa Ibom Bayelsa Cross River Delta Edo B. United states of America
Imo Ondo rivers C. Russia
D. Nigeria 41. What is one ton of LNG equivalent to?
E. Libya A. 15 barrels of LNG
36. A crude oil pipeline discharges into an oil B. 18 barrels of LNG
reservoir tank of capacity one trillion cubic metres C. 520 cubic metres of natural gas
at the rate of 11574 cubic metres per second. How D. 16 barrels of crude oil
long will it take to fill the tank? E. ½ ton of coal
A. 2 days
B. 1 week 42. 13. What is the thermal decomposition of large
C. 12 hours molecular mass alkenes called?
D. 1 day A. Cracking
B. Soaking
37. In what year was the Nigerian liquefied gas C. Sucking
(NLNG) final investment decision (fid) signed? D. Capping
A. 1994 E. None of the above
B. 1992
C. 1995 43. The onshore-offshore dichotomy bill was signed
D. 1996 into law by President Olusgeun Obasanjo on
E. 1998 A. January 1979
B. May 1999
38. The first commercial deepwater discovery in C. January 2003
Nigeria is D. February 2 03
A. Agbami i E. February 2004
B. Akpo
C. Abo 44. At present most of the natural gas produced in
D. Bonga Nigeria is
E. Ikija i A. Re-injected for secondary recovery
B. Flared
39. The quality of petroleum is determined by the C. Converted to LNG
amount of ............ it contains D. Converted to fuel
A. Phosphorous E. Sent to Nigerian Gas Company Eleme
B. Carbon
C. Hydrogen 45. When did Nigeria record the peak level of
D. Sulphur production of 2.25 million barrels of oil/day?
E. Oxygen A. 2005
B. 2002
40. Greenhouse effect is………… C. 1985
A. Presence of carbon (iv) oxide in the atmosphere D. 1979
B. Presence of methane E. 1998
C. Increase in the mean global temperatures as a
result of increase in the concentration of certain 46. API means
gases A. African Petroleum Industry
D. Effect of green vegetable when grown inside a B. American Petroleum Institute
house C. Asian Petroleum Institute
E. Solar energy passing through green vegetation. D. African Petroleum Institute
E. American Petroleum Industry
47. The importance of petroleum is not only as fuel 49. What makes rainwater able to dissolve
and lubricant but also as a raw material for the carbonate rocks?
production of the following A. Carbon dioxide in solution makes the water
A. Naptha slightly acid
B. Dyes B. Pollutants in the rainwater makes it alkaline
C. Asphalt C. It becomes alkaline in percolating through the soil
D. All of the above D. Dissolved nitrogen forms diluted nitric acid
E. None of the above E. None of the above

48. The periodic servicing of pumps in a petroleum 50. The science for the study of earthquakes is
product’s depot is known as ....... maintenance known as
A. Routine A. Seismology
B. Overhaul B. Archaeology
C. Preventive C. Ecology
D. Corrective D. Oceanography
E. Predictive E. Quakelogy

ANSWERS
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. B
21. A 22. E 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. E 28. D 29. E 30. A
31. D 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. A 38. D 39. D 40. C
41. D 42. A 43. E 44. A 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. D 50. A
 MECHANICAL REASONING APTITUDE TEST
20 QUESTIONS 20MINUTES

1) From the figure, when handle H is pulled to the

right, as shown by the arrow, end E will

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
A. move to the left
B. move to the right 4) The diagram shows two fixed cogwheels which
C. move to and fro can only rotate around their own axis. A rack is
D. stay still inserted between the two cogwheels and is moved
in the direction shown by the arrow.
2) A system of cogwheels is shown in the diagram What are the directions of movement and velocities
below: of the cogwheels?
An external force turns the cogwheel on the
extreme left in the given direction (counter
clockwise). Which cogwheel will turn faster, the
first one (I) or the second one (II)?

A. Same direction, same velocities

B. Same direction, different velocities
C. Different directions, same velocities
D. Different directions, different velocities

A. Cogwheel 1 5) The water flow is reversed.

B. Cogwheel 2 How long will it take to fill a pool with a volume of
C. Both cogwheels will turn at the same speed 1000 liters when the large tube is removed?
D. Impossible to answer Given data: Rate of flow = 10 [liter/sec]

3) Cogwheel number 1 rotates counter clockwise as

shown.
If the red cogwheel rotates in the direction of the
arrow choose option 1; if it rotates in the opposite
direction choose option 2; if the red cogwheel does A. 50 seconds
not move at all choose option 3. B. 100 seconds
C. 200 seconds
D. 1000 seconds
6) A water tank with a gate attached to an axis is
shown in the diagram below. The weight of the gate
is negligible. Is the system at equilibrium?
 A. Left, Faster
A. Yes B. Left,Same
B. No C. Left, Slower
C. Cannot say D. Right,Same
E. Right,Slower
7) A tube is attached to the left hand side of a
connector. Two tubes, situated one on top of the 10) From the diagram below, which is the most suitable tool for
other, are connected to the right hand side. Water breakingupconcrete?
enters the system from the left tube, flows at a
constant velocity through the connector, and exits
via the two right hand tubes. At which opening is
the velocity of water the greatest?

A.None
B.1 C.2
D.3 E.4
11) Approximatelyhow muchforce is neededto lift the weight?
A. Opening 1
B. Opening 2
C. Opening 3
D. Opening 2 and 3
E. Same velocity at all openings
8) If gearX turns clockwiseat a constantspeedof 10 rpm.How
does gearY turn?
A. 24 lbs B.10 lbs
C.48 lbs D.12 lbs
E.18 lbs
12) How far from the fulcrum doesthe 60 lb weight needto be
to balancethelever?

A . anti clockwise 10 rpm

B clockwise 10 rpm
A. 9 ft
C clockwise 5 rpm
B. 7 ft
D anti clockwise 5 rpm
C. 4 ft
E clockwise 20 rpm
D. 12 ft
9)If barY movesleft a constantspeed.How doesbarX move? E. 0 ft
ANSD
13) If drive wheel X rotates clockwise at a speed of 10 rpm.
How doeswheel Y turn?
 19) When the left-hand gear turns in the direction
A. anti clockwise faster shown, which way does the right-hand one turn? (If
B. clockwise slower either, mark C)
C. clockwise faster
D. anti clockwise slower
E. clockwise same
14) Which system will let the most water run out?

20) In which picture will the scales read lower (less

weight)? (If equal, mark C)

15) Which person must pull harder to lift the

weight? (If no difference, mark C)

16) Where should a chain be attached to hold up the

sign? (If either, mark C)

17) Which shaft will turn most quickly?

18) Off which side of the road is the car least likely
to skid? (If no difference, mark C)
 ANSWER TABLE

1 A 6 A 11 D 16 B
2 B 7 E 12 D 17 A
3 C 8 B 13 E 18 B
4 D 9 B 14 B 19 A
5 B 10 D 15 B 20 A