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Forensic Medicine Day 2 Quiz A. 4 years

B. 7 years
1. In favorable circumstances, how much time will be C. 15 years
taken by a body to mummify completely? D. 30 years
A. 1-2 days D
B. 1-2 weeks This is according to section 107 of the Indian Evidence Act
C. 3 months to a year (IEA). This is generally known as Presumption of
D. 3 years to 10 years continuance of life. Here is the full statement of Sec 107 of
C IEA. S 107. Burden of proving death of person known to
have been alive within thirty years
2. In India, colliquative putrefaction is seen after When the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and it
about: is shown that he was alive within thirty years, the burden
A. 10-15 minutes of proving that he is dead is on the person who affirms it.
B. 24 hours
C. 72 hours 7. If a person is not heard of for a certain number of
D. 1 week years by those who would naturally have heard of
D him, he is supposed to have been dead, and the
Colliquative putrefaction is the name given to a very late stage burden of proving that he is alive shifts on the
of putrefaction, when the walls of abdomen soften and person who affirms it. For how many years, he
burst due to pressure of gases formed inside. should not have been heard of?
A. 4 years
3. Adipocere is likely to occur in: B. 7 years
A. Warm humid climate C. 15 years
B. Dry hot climate D. 30 years
C. Subzero humid climate B
D. Bodies buried in sandy soil This is according to section 108 of the IEA. This is known as
A Presumption of Death. Here is the full statement of Sec
4. Entomology of cadaver helps best in 108 of IEA
determining: S 108. Burden of proving that person is alive who has not
A. Time since death been heard of for seven years
B. Mode of death [Provided that when] the question is whether a man is alive
C. Manner of death or dead, and it is proved that he has not been heard of for
D. Identity of the deceased seven years by those who would naturally have heard of
A him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that he is
5. Stumer's formula to calculate the time since death alive is [shifted to] the person who affirms it.
takes into account which of the following [For discussion on all related IEA sections, please see, chapter
parameters? 25 (sexual offences and sexual perversions), where sll4A
A. Sodium concentration in the vitreous humor is discussed].Illustration of the above two sections:
B. Potassium concentration in the vitreous humor Imagine a very rich man "A" living with his wife and an
C. Chloride concentration in the vitreous humor adolescent son. He has a brother and mother, who are
D. Potassium concentration in the pericardial fluid neither living with him, nor sharing his property. He has
B written a will saying that in the event of his death, his
During life, potassium concentration is low in the vitreous property would be equally divided among his wife, son,
humor but much higher in peripheral tissues such as retina. mother and brother.
After death potassium from peripheral tissues starts One day he goes out to swim in a fast moving river, and
diffusing in the vitreous raising its concentration. This never returns. His body is not found in the river despite all
occurs in a linear fashion so regularly that a relationship attempts. His wife and son assume control of the property
between it and the time since death can be established. and start enjoying it. She does not allow access of the
property to the mother and brother of her husband. Since
Two formulae most popular in this regard are:
Time since death = 7.14 x [K+] - 39.1 SM\ - (Stumer's death is not proved, A's will cannot be executed. This is a
formula). situation where
Time since death = 5.26 * [K+] - 30.9 (Madea's formula). 8. Which of the following facts are NOT correct?
A. Onset of rigor is accelerated and its duration shortened
6. If a person is not seen for some time, the law when the environ mental temperature is high
presumes that he is alive, if it is shown that he B. Rigor mortis is late in onset and is of longer duration
was alive within a certain number of years, and after prolonged muscular activity
the burden of proving that he is dead shifts on the C. Onset is relatively more rapid in children and the aged
person who affirms it. He must be shown alive than in muscular young adults
within how many years? D. It develops early and passes quickly in deaths from
septicaemia or from wasting diseases
B

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All other facts are correct. Rigor mortis Onset of rigor is at him or a jailer hanging a condemned criminal. Remember
accelerated and its duration is rapid in onset and of shorter that in Justifiable homicide, usually there is a legal officer
duration after shortened when the environmental tempe- involved who commits the homicide in order to carry out a
prolonged muscular activity, e.g. after rature is high. If the perfectly legal task. Persons committing justifiable homicide
temperature is below exhaustion in battle, and following are at NO fault in a legal sense.
convu-10°C it is said to be exceptional for rigor lsions Excusable homicide differs from justifiable homicide in that
(strychnine poisoning, tetanus). Con-mortis to develop, but one who commits an excusable homicide is to some degree
if the environmental versely there is a late onset of rigor in at fault, but the degree of fault is not enough to constitute
many temperature is then raised, rigor mortis is said sudden a criminal homicide. It is a homicide done by persons other
deaths. It might be explained by the to dev elo p in a than law and justice officers (mostly members of general
normal manner, lack of muscular activity immediately prior public).
to death. It includes homicides, where the person committing the
9. Which of the following facts are correct about homicide had no other option but to kill. It also includes
felony: homicides where there was no guilt on the part of the
A. This term is not used in Indian law anywhere killer such as an insane person or a child below 7 years.
B. It is the term for a "very serious" crime Some examples of excusable homicide are (i) a person
C. This term is used for theft shooting an armed intruder in his own home (ii) a person
D. This term is identical with dowry death dying on the operation table during an extremely difficult
A, B operation, with no fault of the surgeon, and (iii) death caused
The term "felony" does not appear in Indian law anywhere, by an insane person.
but in many legal systems (US, Australia), it is the term Finally, it may be helpful to quote the California State Penal
for a "very serious" crime; misdemeanors are considered Code (state law) that covers justifiable homicide. Section
to be less serious. Crimes which are commonly considered 196 states as follows:
to be felonies include: aggravated assault, arson, burglary, S196. Homicide is justifiable when committed by public
murder, and rape. Examples of misdemeanors include petty officers and those acting by their command in their aid
theft, prostitution, simple assault, trespass and vandalism. and assistance, either- 1. In obedience to any judgment of
Those who are convicted of a felony are known as felons; a competent Court; or
those who are convicted of a misdemeanor are known as When necessarily committed in overcoming actual resistance
misdemeanants. to the execution of some legal process, or in the discharge
Originally, felonies were crimes for which the punishment of any other legal duty; or
was either death or forfeiture of property. Nowadays, felons When necessarily committed in retaking felons who have been
receive lesser punishments too. In the United States felons rescued or have escaped, or when necessarily committed
often receive additional punishments such as the loss of in arresting persons charged with felony, and who are
voting rights, exclusion from certain lines of work, are fleeing from justice or resisting such arrest.
prohibited from obtaining certain licenses, may not 11. Forced standing is known as:
purchase/ possess firearms or bullet-resistant armor, and A. Planton
are not eligible to run for nor be elected to public office. In B. Picana
addition, some states (of US) consider a felony conviction C. Parrilla
to be grounds for an uncontested divorce, i.e. the spouse D. Pau de arara
of a felon can get a divorce without any opposition. A
10. Which of the following are examples of justifiable Forced standing is a standard form of torture. It is called the
homicide? planton (Planton in Spanish means "Long wait") in Latin
A. A police officer killing an escaped armed convict, while America and the stoika in the Soviet Union. Planton is an
attempting to recapture him and the convict was going attractive option for torturers because like water torture,
to shoot at him to avoid recapture it leaves no marks.
B. A jailer hanging a condemned criminal Effects of forced standing are (i) Swelling of the ankles and
C. A person killing another in self defense feet to twice their size within 24 hours (ii) Moving becomes
agonizing (iii) Development of large blisters (iv) Increasing
D. Homicide committed by an insane person
A, B, of the heart rate and fainting.
First and foremost thing to remember is that the words In the early 20th century, forced standing was a prescribed
"justifiable homicide" and "excusable homicides" DO NOT field punishment for soldiers in West European armies.
appear in Indian law anywhere. They are essentially foreign Soldiers in the British Army referred to it as the "crucifixion",
terms. and French legionnaires called it the silo.
Secondly, the meanings of justifiable and excusable homicides By the 1920s, forced standing was a routine police torture in
are not watertight. In different countries and even in America. In 1931, the National Commission on Lawless
different states of the same country (USA), the meanings Enforcement of the Law found numerous American police
are different with frequent overlappings. departments using forced standing to coerce confessions.
In a most general sense however, Justifiable homicide is one In the 1930s, Joseph Stalin's NKVD used forced standing
which is commanded or authorized by law, such as the act to coerce seemingly voluntary confessions for show trials.
of a police officer killing an armed suspect who is shooting

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The British used forced standing as early as 1937-1939 on 15. Which of the following are genuine complications
Arab and Jewish prisoners in Mandatory Palestine. The arising from anaesthetic procedures?
Gestapo routinely used it as a punishment in concentration A. Pulmonary oedema
camps, sometimes creating tiny, narrow cells where B. Smothering
prisoners had to stand all night. C. Malignant hyperthermia
In the mid-20th century, torturers learned how to use the D. Transection of trachea
swelling and blistering to cause more pain. The Chinese A, C,
wrapped the feet in gauze, which squeezed painfully as 16. Which one of the following is a definite sign of death
the feet swelled. Brazilian police made prisoners stand on due to drowning?
the edges of cans or bricks, causing excruciating pain to A. Sand and mud in the mouth and nostrils
the feet. During apartheid in South Africa, forced standing B. Fine lathery froth in the mouth and nostrils
was the third most common torture technique - after beating C. Washerwoman's hands and feet
and electricity. D. Diatoms in the bone marrow
12." Picana in relation of torture refers to: B
A. Forced sitting in an uncomfortable position This is a tricky question, many students believing (with some
B. Water torture justification perphaps) that the correct choice should be
C. Beating on the palms (d). Diatoms in the bone marrow indeed is a good sign of
D. Electrical torture antemortem drowning, but when compared with "fine
D lathery froth in the mouth and nostrils", it pales in
"picana " is a type of electric torture in which an electrically significance. In fact there are several objections to the so-
charged needle is applied to areas of heightened sensitivity called "diatom test", many skeptics saying that since
such as the nipples, genitals, eyes, tongue and teeth. diatoms are ubiquitous (they are present in all bodies of
Electric shocks to the gums and teeth, may result in the water, even in the water that we drink and the air that we
loss or fracture of teeth. breathe), they may gain access to our bone marrows
In this form of torture, victims are strapped to a wooden already during life.
table and wetted to aid the flow of current. The prod To confirm that the deceased indeed died of drowning, one
operator applies the wand to sensitive parts of the body therefore needs to carefully compare the species found in
(head, temples, mouth, genitalia, breasts) while the the bone marrow with those found in the body of water
machine operator works the bobbin, raising and reducing where the dead body was found. In the absence of this
voltage. Usually, a doctor is present to make sure that the comparison, it would be far fetched to say the person died
victim has no heart problems and can survive the interro- of drowning, just by observing diatoms in the bone marrow.
gation. If you do not see the choice "fine lathery froth in the mouth
The picana operates on direct current. It is transported in a and nostrils", then of course "diatoms in the bone marrow"
suitcase and usually powered by an automobile battery. becomes the right choice. Remember this is a tricky
A variation of electrical torture is known as laparrilla, (or the question.
metal grill). It consists of electric shocks on the most 17. Gettler's test is done in:
sensitive parts of the victim's body while the victim is tied A. Hanging
to a metal bed frame. B. Strangulation
13. Falanga refers to: C. Drowning
A. Pushing moist cloth up the nostrils D. Throttling
B. Forcing the victim to walk on broken glass C
C. Beating of the soles of the feet with canes or rods Also known as "Gettler chloride test". The test was suggested
D. Tying of legs and forcing the victim to walk by Alexander O. Gettler in 1921. The presump tion is that
C normally the chloride content is equal in all chambers of
This form of torture is extremely painful and debilitating. the heart (about 600 mg per 100 ml). Fresh river water
Bruising in the soles is not easily revealed because of the contains almost no chloride while sea water contains
thick fascial planes of the foot. Deep dissection is necessary chloride far above this level.
to reveal bruising. If antemortem drowning occurs in fresh water, the water will
14. Telefono as a method of torture refers to: enter the lungs (along with respirations). From there it
A. Repeated slapping of the sides of the head of the victim will enter the capillaries and ultimately find its way to the
by the open palms of the assailant left heart. Thus the chloride concentration of the left heart
B. Inserting a telephone receiver in the anus of the victim will decrease (upto 50% lower). By the same reasoning
C. Inserting a hot rod in the rectum of the victim left heart chloride is more if the drowning occurs in sea
D. Both (B) and (C) water. Checklist for other related questions on Gettler's
A test:
Telefono may cause rupture of the tympanic membranes and o It can be used to differentiate antemortem from
injure the inner ear. postmortem drowning.
o If it is a known case of antemortem drow ning, it can be
used to differentiate bet ween fresh water and sea water

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drowning. becomes very much pronounced.

o A 25% difference in chloride content in the two sides of o 48 hours->Cuticle begins to separate from palm of hand
the heart is considered significant. If the difference is less and sole of foot.
than this, or there is no difference, no definite conclusions o 3-4 days->Cuticle can be peeled off like a glove.
could be drawn. 22. Floatation of the body in our country in summers
o The test is useless in the following circumstances: occurs in:
o If either of the heart septa is patent (e.g. patent foramen A. 12 hours is"
ovale). B. 24 hours
o If the water is brackish (i.e. its salt content is somewhat C. 3 days
between that of freshwater and seawater). Brackish water D. 6 days
has almost the same chloride content as the blood. B
o If putrefaction has occurred. Floatation occurs in 2-3 days in winters. It might be confusing
o This fact has been asked in MCQ as-> Gettler test is not of to some students that the cuticle is peeled off in 3-4 days,
help (i) if the deceased had patent foramen ovale (ii) if while floatation occurs in 2-3 days maximum. This can
death was due to drowning in brackish water (iii) in happen if the body was tied with a weight, or it gets
advanced stages of putrefaction (iv) all of the above. The entangled in weeds etc. In these conditions, it might remain
intended answer is (iv) all of the above. underwater for longer periods, explaining peeling off of
o The test is controversial, and not many forensic pathologists the skin like a glove.
believe in this test today.
23. Besides drowning, froth at the mouth may be seen
18. Dry drowning is defined as: in a few other conditions. Identify that condition
A. Drowning in sea water below:
B. Falling in a deep well which has dried A. Opium poisoning
C. Drowning in very cold water with death occurring due to B. Sulphuric acid poisoning
cardiac arrest C. Head injury
D. Drowning where death is due to laryngospasm D. Tetanus
D A
19. Dry drowning is said to occur in % of all drownings: Conditions where froth may be produced are:
A. 1-2% Opium poisoning.
B. 10-15% Grgano-phosphorus poisoning.
C. 25% Strangulation.
D. 30-35% Epileptic attacks.
B Electric shock.
20. Paltauf s hemorrhages are seen in: Acute pulmonary edema.
A. Drowning Putrefaction.
B. Firearm injury Snake bite.
C. Hanging 24. How many species of diatoms are there?
D. Strangulation A. About 100
A B. Between 500-1000
Paltauf s hemorrhages are seen in lungs. These were first C. Between 2000-5000
described by Arnold Paltauf (1860-1893), professor of D. About 15,000
forensic medicine at the German university in Prague. D
21. Bleaching of the cuticle becomes quite evident 25. Oligohalophilic diatoms live in:
after hours of immersion: A. Fresh water
A. 2 B. Brackish water
B. 12 C. Sea water
C. 24 D. Sewer water
D. 48 A
B Oligohalophilic diatoms live in fresh water with a salinity of
This bleaching (and other immersion related changes) are less than 0.05%. Polyhalophilic diatoms live in sea water.
attributed to the imbibtion of water into the outer layers of Mesohalophilic diatoms live in water midway in salinity
the skin. Also remember that these changes are NOT between freshwater and seawater, i.e. brackish water.
diagnostic of antemortem drowning. They merely indicate Additional info on diatoms: Diatoms belong to phylum
submersion, which could be antemortem as well as Bacillariophyta. They are found floating in all the waters of
postmortem. the Earth. Diatoms may be either unicellular or colonial.
Watch out for other related MCQs. Important pointers are: The silicified cell wall forms a pillbox-like shell (frustule)
o 2 hours->Wrinkling of skin starts. composed of overlapping halves (known as epitheca and
o 12 hours->Bleaching of cuticle. hypotheca) that contain intricate and delicate markings.
o 24 hours->Bleaching, corrugation and soddening of cuticle These markings are useful in testing the resolving power
of microscope lenses. Because of their beautiful symmetry

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and design, they are sometimes called "jewels of theNsea". Czech composer Franz Kotzwara, who was fond of this
Diatoms are divided into two orders on the basis of symmetry practice. On September 2,1791 he paid a visit to a
and shape: the round, nonmotile Centrales ("centric" prostitute Susannah Hill in a London brothel and asked her
diatoms) have radial markings; the elongated Pennales to asphyxiate him partially, so he could get sexual pleasure.
("pennate" diatoms), which move with a gliding motion, She did accordingly but in the process Kotzwara died
have pinnate (featherlike) markings. Food is stored as oil accidentally. Susannah Hill was arrested and charged with
droplets, and the golden-brown pigment fucoxanthin masks murder (on September 16, 1791) at the Old Bailey.
the chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments that are also But she was acquitted after testimony proved her innocence.
present. Diatoms, among the most important and prolific The court records were destroyed to prevent the
sea organisms, serve directly or indirectly as food for many scandalous case from going public. A secret copy was
animals. Diatomaceous earth, a substance composed of however made which was intended to be sold and
fossilized diatoms, is used in filters, insulation, abrasives, published at a later time. It never was, but the manuscript
paints, and varnishes. For forensic pathologists diatoms is preserved and kept in the Francis Countway Library of
are important as they may be found in peripheral organs Medicine in Boston. The term Kotzwarraism comes from
(bone, brain, liver, spleen etc.) in cases of antemortem his name. Koczwarism is just a corruption of that name.
drowning. 30. This condition is caused by exposure to the sun.
26. Diatom test may be negative in a case of: Its most typical symptom is ery thema which occurs
A. Freshwater drowning in about 2-6 hours. Name the condition:
B. Seawater drowning A. Prickly heat
C. Drowned body but decomposed B. Heat oedema
D. Dry drowning C. Sunburn
D D. Miliariarubra
27. For diatom test, the best site for taking samples C
is: 31. Sweating ceases completely in:
A. Lungs A. Heat cramps
B. Bone marrow in ulna B. Heatstroke
C. Bone marrow in femur C. Heat exhaustion
D. A large and fleshy muscle B. All of the above
C B
Sometimes the question is asked in this form-"Antemortem
drowning can best be confirmed by demonstrating diatoms 32. This condition is caused by prolonged wetting of
in (a) Brain and bone marrow (b)Liver and anal canal (c) the skin with sweat and without evaporation. Its
Pancreas and lungs (d)Lungs and stomach. The answer is probable pathogenesis is sweat duct obstruction
(a) Brain and bone marrow. due to sodium chloride from the evaporated sweat
28. Hyperventilation before underwater swimming: continuing to lie on the skin. Name the condition:
A. Causes dry drowning A. Heat cramps
B. Causes immersion syndrome B. Heat oedema
C. Can result in unintentional drowning C. Sunburn
D. Is a surefire method to prevent drowning B. Miliariarubra
C D
Some swimmers hyperventilate before underwater swimming, Miliaria rubra is another name for Prickly heat. Other synonyms
so they can remain longer under water. This does raise are lichen tropics and heat rash.
their blood O2 levels, but simultaneously lowers their CO2
levels in the blood quite signifi cantly. CO2 is required to 33. Which of the following is most serious heat related
stimulate the respiratory centre. After some time of disorder in which thermo- regulation is maintained?
underwater swimming, the blood oxygen is used up, but A. Heat syncope
carbon dioxide levels do not rise enough to cause air B. Heat cramps
hunger. The wimmer does not feel the need to come up. C. Heat exhaustion
Lowered oxygen levels cause him to loose consciousness D. Heatstroke
and the swimmer drowns inadvertently. C
Heatstroke is a still more serious condi tion, but in this
29. The term "Kotzwarraism" or "Kocz- warism" refers condition, thermoregulation breaks down.
to:
A. Manual strangulation 34. In a heat acclimatized individual, sweating is:
B. Choking A. Delayed and greater
C. Autoerolic asphyxia B. Earlier and greater
D. Traumatic asphyxia C. Earlier and lesser
C D. Delayed and lesser
It is an archaic term but may still be asked as an interesting B
MCQ. The term comes from the name of an 18th Century

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35. Most serious heat related disorder is:

A. Heat cramps
B. Heat syncope
C. Heatstroke
D. Heat exhaustion
C
36. Heat acclimatization generally occurs in:
A. 2 hours
B. 2 days
C. 2 weeks
D. 2 months
C
37. In a heat acclimatized individual:
A. Core Temperature is reduced
B. Body heat production is lower
C. Thirst is improved
D. All of the above
D

The following things occur in a heat acclimatized individual.

o Thermal Comfort-Improved.
o Exercise Performance-Improved.
o Core Temperature-Reduced.
o Sweating-Earlier and Greater.
o Skin Blood Flow-Earlier.
Body Heat Production-Lower.
Heart Rate-Lowered.
Thirst-Improved.
Salt Losses (sweat and urine)- Reduced.
Organ Protection-Improved.
38. The maximal temperature tolerance limits for human
cells range from:
A. 0°C to 37°C
B. 0°C to 45°C
C. 10°Cto40°C
D. 10°Cto50°C
B
At 0°C there is ice crystal formation. At about 45°C there is
thermal coagulation of intracellular proteins.

39. Miner's cramps result from:

A. Low altitude
B. Mountaineering
C. Exposure to excessive heat
D. Scuba diving
C

40. Which of the following is the simplest and least

obnoxious of the following heat related disorders?
A. Heatstroke
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Heat prostration
D. Heat cramps
D

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Forensic Medicine Day 3 Class 7. If death has occurred in police custody, it would
be investigated by:
Topic - Introduction and Legal Procedure A. Deputy Inspector General of Police
1. Forensic Medicine deals with: B. Home Minister and officials under him
A. Crime and Punishment C. An executive magistrate
B. Medicine and toxicology D. A judicial magistrate
C. Study of firearm and finger prints C
D. Application of medical knowledge for the purposes of law Executive magistrate would also conduct an inquest when
and administration of justice death has occurred in jail, during police interrogation, police
D lock-up or during police firing. Variant of this question: In
case of lock up, the inquest is held by (a) A police officer
2. Forensic Medicine is synonymous with: (b) Magistrate (c) Panchayat officer (d) District attorney. e
A. Law answer is (b) Magistrate.
B. Medicine used in courts
C. Legal medicine 8. Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with:
D. Autopsy A. Magistrate's inquest
C B. Coroner's inquest
C. Police inquest
3. Medical Jurisprudence deals with:
D. None of the above
A. Conventional laws of courtesy observed between medical
C
personnel
B. ethical behavior of the doctor with respect of his patients 9. Dowry death is investigated by:
C. Legal responsibilities of the physician with reference to A. Police Officer
physician-patient relationship B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
D. study of trauma illegally causes to a person C. Judicial 1st Class Magistrate
C D. District Magistrate
4. Moral principles which should guide members of the D
medical profession in their dealings with each other, Section 174(4) specifically specifies which magistrates are
with their patients, and with their State would empowered to hold inquests. They are (i) District
together would be grouped as: Magistrate (ii) Sub-divisional Magistrate and (iii) Any other
A. Medical Etiquette Executive Magistrate specifically empowered in this behalf
B. Moral medicine by the State Government or the District Magistrate. Note
C. Principled Forensic Medicine that Judicial Magistrates are not included.
D. Medical ethics 10. The term "Panchanama" refers to:
D A. Order by a police officer compelling the witness to appear
Ethical behavior is not legally enforceable. It is a self-imposed in police station
duty on the doctor him self. Some examples of good ethical B. A local body of five people deciding criminal cases
behavior are (a) not criticizing the professional ability of C. Inquest report
another doctor (b) dealing with the female patients with D. Order by the court compelling the witness to appear before
utmost respect (c) not administering narcotic drugs to the it
patients for the sake of satisfying their addictive behavior. C
5. Medical etiquette deals with: Traditionally a police officer investigating a murder case, used
A. Application of moral principles to the practice of medicine to record information from five (Hindi: Panch) witnesses.
B. Conventional laws of courtesy observed between members These witnesses were preferably some respectable people
of the medical profession from the locality who were supposed to speak the truth.
C. Conventional laws of courtesy observed by a male doctor The report thus prepared was called panchanama. Now
towards a female patient usually statements from two witnesses are recorded.
D. Seeing an old and debilitated patient out of turn 11. Which of the following is the superior most form of
D inquest?
6. In which part of India, coroner's system of inquest A. Police inquest
is present? B. Magistrate's inquest
A. in Madras C. Medical Examiner system
B. Nowhere in India D. Coroner's inquest
C. in Calcutta C
D. inMumbai 12. Which is the highest Judicial Tribunal in India?
B A. Rajya Sabha
Coroner's inquest is nowhere held in India now. The last city B. Lok Sabha
to abolish it was Mumbai, where it was abolished on 29th C. Supreme Court
July 1999. D. The President
C

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The President is not the Judicial Tribunal, although he can purpose of voir dire is to provide the attorneys with a feeling
hear the mercy petition in case of condemned criminals. for the jury panel's personalities and likely views.
Sometimes, the judge will ask the majority of the questions,
13. The different criminal courts of India and their
while in some courts, lawyers have substantial latitude
powers have been defined in:
and time to make inquiries. The judge can dismiss jurors
A. Constitution of India
if not found suitable.
B. Indian Evidence Act
Attorneys may discard others in "peremptory" challenges
C. Criminal Procedure Code
without indicating a reason (Peremptory Challenge refers
D. India Penal Code
to a limited number of challenges each side in a trial can
C
use to eliminate potential jurors without stating a reason.
14. How many High Courts are there in India? May not be used to keep members of a particular race or
A. Only one sex off the jury). In England, the process of voir dire consists
B. Ten of the single question: "Can you give a fair hearing to both
C. Twenty one the crown and the defense?" Any prospective juror who
D. One in each State affirmatively answers the question is impaneled on the
C jury.
Much against popular belief, High courts do not exist in every
17. Which is the maximum sentence which a District
state. Many states together have a single High Court. For
and Sessions Judge (DSJ) may pass?
instance the Guwahati High Court caters to all the seven
A. Death sentence
States of North East (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur,
B. Life imprisonment
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura). Mumbai High
C. Imprisonment upto 7 years
Court caters to the State of Maharashtra and Goa (as well
D. Death sentence, but it must be confirmed by the High Court
as Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman
D
and Diu). High Courts are not necessarily located in the
This is given in Section 28(2) ofCr.P.C. Section 366 of Cr.P.C.
State Capitals.
further says that when the Court of Sessions passes a
For instance the High Court of Uttar Pradesh is located at
sentence of death, the proceedings shall be submitted to
Allahabad (not at Lucknow, which is its capital). Other High
the High Court and the sentence shall not be executed
Courts not located at State capitals are Chhattisgarh High
unless it is confirmed by the High Court.
Court at Bilaspur, Kerala High Court at Ernakulam, Madhya
Pradesh High Court at Jabalpur, Orissa High Court at 18. Which of the following judicial officers can pass a
Cuttack, Rajasthan High Court at Jodhpur and Uttranchal maximum sentence of imprisonment of upto 10
High Court at Nainital. years?
Between 28 States and 7 Union Territories of India there are A. An Assistant Sessions Judge
a total of 21 High Courts at present. B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. Judicial Magistrate of the first class
15. Which of the following statements is correct
D. Judicial Magistrate of the Second Class
regarding trial by jury in India?
A
A. It is only done in the Supreme Court
B. It is done only in High Court and Supreme Courts 19. Which is the maximum sentence which Judicial
C. It is done only in Mumbai Magistrate of the First class may pass?
D. It has been abolished in India A. 5 years and a fine of Rs 3000
D B. 3 years and a fine of Rs 5000
C. 1 year and a fine of Rs 1,000
16. The phrase "vo/r dire" refers to:
D. 3 years and a fine of Rs 10,000
A. The process of declaring a witness hostile
D
B. The process of selecting a jury that is competent and not
Previously First class magistrate could pass a sentence of 3
biased
years and a fine of Rs. 5000, but by a new amendment in
C. The process of taking an oath
2005, he can now impose a fine upto Rs. 10,000.
D. The stage of cross-examination
B 20. The maximum sentence which can be passed by a
The phrase "voir dire" [pronounced as vwahr (with a near- Judicial Magistrate of the Second class is:
silent "r") deer] is derived from French, meaning "to see A. Imprisonment of 1 year and Rs 1000
to speak". In English it has come to mean "to speak the B. Imprisonment of 3 years and a fine of Rs 3000
truth". The process refers to the interrogation of C. Imprisonment of 1 year and/or fine of Rs 5000
prospective jurors by the attorneys and judge in court. D. Imprisonment of 1 year and/or fine of Rs 3000
Voir dire determines whether any of the jurors are biased C
and/or cannot deal with the case's issues fairly, or if there This is given in Section 29(3) ofCr.P.C. Previously First class
is just cause to not allow a juror to serve (such as magistrate could pass a sentence of 1 year and a fine of
knowledge of facts; acquaintanceship with parties, witness Rs. 1000, but by a new amendment in 2005, he can now
or attorneys; occupation which might lead to bias; prejudice impose a fine upto Rs. 5,000/-
against the death penalty; or similar experiences). The

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21. Which is the maximum sentence which a Chief 25. Under which of the following sections does the
Metropolitan Magistrate can pass? court derive power to recall and reexamine any
A. Upto 10 years person already examined as a witness?
B. Upto 7 years A. Section 45 Indian Evidence Act
C. Fine upto Rs 25,000 B. The court does not hold this power under any law
D. Both (B) and (D) C. Section 114 A Indian Evidence Act
B D. Section 311 Cr.P.C.
Chief Metropolitan Magistrate sits in Metropolitan cities (like D
Delhi) and has the same powers as the powers of a Chief Under section 311 Cr.P.C. not only can any court recall and
Judicial Magistrate (Please refer also to question 32). reexamine any person already examined, it can indeed
summon any person as a witness, even if not directly
22. Which is the maximum sentence which a connected with that case, if the court thinks that it is
Metropolitan Magistrate can pass? essential to the just decision of the case. The court can do
A. Imprisonment for 5 years and fine of Rs 10,000 this at any stage of trial.
B. Imprisonment for 3 years and fine of Rs 3,000
26. The person who initiates a lawsuit is known as:
C. Imprisonment for 1 year and fine of Rs 10,000
A. Plaintiff
D. Imprisonment for 3 years and fine of Rs 5,000
B. Defendant
D
C. Public prosecutor
A Metropolitan Magistrate sits in Metro politan cities and has
D. Complainant
the same powers as the powers of a Judicial Magistrate of
A
the 1st Class.
The person who initiates a lawsuit by filing a complaint is
called the plaintiff. When the document that initiates a
23. Metropolitan Magistrate has the same powers as
lawsuit is a. petition rather than a complaint, the initiating
that of:
person is usually referred to as the petitioner rather than
A. An Assistant Sessions Judge
the plaintiff. A petition is a request, directed to a court or
B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
adminis trative tribunal, seeking some sort of relief such
C. Judicial Magistrate of the first class
as a court order.
D. Judicial Magistrate of the first class
C 27. A doctor may be called to testify as:
A. Ordinary witness
24. "Juvenile Justice Board" is presided over by: B. Expert witness
A. Metropolitan magistrate C. Physician who treated a patient
B. Judicial magistrate of the first class D. Any of the above
C. Judicial magistrate of the first class who must be a woman D
D. Either (A) or (B)
28. The word subpoena means:
D
A. penal erasure of name
Section 4 of the "The Juvenile Justice (Care of Protection of
B. Under penalty
Children) Act, 2000" discusses about the constitution of
C. Cross examination
the Juvenile Justice Board. It consists of three persons
D. Taking oath
i. Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the first
B
class. He is designated as the Principal Magistrate.
ii. Two social workers, of whom at least one shall be a woman. 29. Which of the following facts is true about Subpoena
This Board has all the powers of a Judicial Magistrate of the duces tecum ?
first class, i.e. it can pass a sentence of 3 years and a fine A. It compels a witness to give evidence and also bring with
of Rs. 5000 only. him certain documents in his possession
B. It means the medical witness can
The term "Juvenile Justice Board" is often substituted by
send reply by post
"Juvenile Court" in many MCQ books. This is incorrect.
C. It means the medical witness can be examined via
The Juvenile Justice Act does not talk about the term
telephone, this being used only for very busy medical
"Juvenile Court" at all, although in common parlance it is
practitioners
usual to refer to the Juvenile Justice Board as Juvenile
D. The court officially personally accorn" panies medical
Court.
witness to the court
The Act prescribes qualifications for both the magistrate and
A
the social workers. No magistrate can be appointed as a
Subpoena is of two types: (i) Subpoena ad testificandum: It
member of the Board unless he has special knowledge or
compels a witness to attend and give evidence and (ii)
training in child psychology or child welfare. No social
Subpoena duces tecum: It compels a witness to give
worker can be appointed as a member of the Board unless
evidence and also bring with him certain documents in his
he has been actively involved in health, education, or
possession (usually the post mortem or the medicolegal
welfare activities pertaining to children for at least seven
report) specified in the subpoena.
years.

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30. The word subpoena is synonymous with; 36. If a doctor issues a false medical certificate,
A. Res ipsa loquitur under which of the following sections will he be
B. Resjudicata prosecuted?
C. Summons A. Section 197 of I.P.C.
D. Solemn affirmation B. Section 197ofCr.P.C.
C C. Section 198 of I.P.C.
D. Section 201 of I.P.C.
31. Conduct money in civil cases is given by:
A
A. The lawyer who calls the witness
Although the witness is quite commonly seen to be confused
B. The party which calls the witness
during the cross- examination, this can not be considered
C. The government
the purpose of cross examination. The main pur pose of
D. The opposite party to that which calls the witness
cross examination remains to test the accuracy of statement
B
of witness.
32. Medical evidence is recorded in a certain sequence.
37. Which of the following witnesses can not testify in
Which of the following seq uence is the correct
a court of law?
sequence?
A. A child below 12 years
A. Examination-in-Chief, Cross-exami nation, Oath, Questions
B. A prosecuted criminal
asked by the Judge, Reexamination
C. A lunatic who can not understand questions because of
B. Oath, Questions asked by the Judge, Examination-in-Chief,
his lunacy
Cross-exami nation, Reexamination
D. All of the above
C. Oath, Examination-in-Chief, Cross- examination,
C
Reexamination, Questions asked by the Judge
Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, clearly states
D. Oath, Cross-examination, Examination- in-Chief,
that everyone can testify in a court of law, unless the court
Reexamination, Questions asked by the Judge
considers that one can not understand questions put to
C
them, or give rational answers to those questions because
33. If a medical witness refuses to take oath before of very young age (note that no age is specified), extreme
giving evidence: old age or some disease of body or mind. Even a lunatic
A. He may be imprisoned for upto 6 months and/or fined can give evidence if he is not prevented by his lunacy to
upto'Rs. 1000 understand questions, or give rational answers to them.
B. He would only be asked to solemnly affirm
38. Section 141 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872:
C. His evidence would be taken without oath
A. Defines rules for taking oath
D. His evidence would not be taken, and he would be asked
B. Defines a leading question
to leave the court
C. Bars an insane person to give evidence in a court of law
A
D. Gives the correct sequence in which medical evidence
This is in accordance with Section 178 of I.P.C.
should be recorded
B
34. Which of the following is the main purpose of cross-
It defines a leading question like this: Any questions
examination?
suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes
A. To help the accused win the case
to receive or expects to receive is called a leading question.
B. To help the judge understand the case
C. To confuse the witness' 39. Leading questions are generally permitted in:
D. To test the accuracy of statement of witness A. Examination-in-Chief
D B. Cross-examination
Although the witness is quite commonly seen to be confused C. Reexamination
during the cross- examination, this can not be considered D. All of the above
the purpose of cross examination. The main pur pose of B
cross examination remains to test the accuracy of statement This is in accordance with section 143 of IEA.
of witness.
40.During which part of the recording of medical
35. Perjury means: evidence are leading questions normally not
A. Contempt of court allowed?
B. Cases tried with the help of jury A. Examination-in-Chief
C. To act according to law B. Cross-examination
D. False evidence given by a witness after taking oath C. Reexamination
D D. Both (A) and (C)
D
This is in accordance with section 142 of IEA.

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47. Which of the following regarding the Executive
Topic - Law in Relation to Medical Men; Medical Ethics Committee of the Medical Council of India is
correct?
41. Law which is laid down by the Judges by their A. It holds office for a period of six years
judgements is: B. It comprises of the President, Vice President, Secretary
A. Law of torts and Joint Secretary
B. Statute law C. It comprises of the President, Vice President and 25 other
C. Law of courts members
D. Common law D. It comprises of the President, Vice President and 7-10 other
D members
D
42. The law of torts is created by:
The Executive Committee does not hold office for a period
A. Parliament
more than five years. The Council appoints a Registrar
B. State legislatures
and a Secretary for its day-to-day functioning.
C. President
D. Courts of law 48. The responsibility of maintaining standards of
D medical education in India is that of:
A. State Medical Association
43. The main law which deals with procedures to be
B. Medical Council of India
followed in a criminal case is:
C. National Board of Examinations
A. Cr.P.C.
D. Indian Medical Association
B. Indian contract Act
B
C. Indian evidence Act
D. I.P.C. 49. Which one of the following is not a function of State
A Medical Councils?
A. Issue of warning notices
44. A district consumer redressal forum can entertain
B. Maintenance of Medical Register
claims for compensation up to a maximum of:
C. Disciplinary Control of Medical PrO' fession
A. Rs. 50,000
D. Maintenance of Standards of Medical education
B. Rs. 1 lakh
D
C. Rs. 5 lakh
D. Rs. 20 lakh 50. Which one of the following is NOT a privilege (right)
D of a Registered Medical Practitioner?
Previously, the district forum could enter tain claims for only A. Running a drug store or medical shop
upto 5 lakh, but by an amendment of 2002, which came B. Right to add title, description etc. to his name
into force with effect from 15 March 2003, the jurisdiction C. Possessing and supplying dangerous drugs to his patients
is now 20 lakh D. Recovery of fees from his patient
A
45. The National Consumer Redressal Commission can
Other privileges of a doctor are: Right to dispense medicines.
entertain claims for compensation only when they
Regarding right to choose a patient, the doctor does not
are of more than:
have an unconditional right. According to latest Supreme
A. Rs. 15 lakh
Court verdicts, a doctor must treat a patient in emergency.
B. Rs. 20 lakh
He does not have a right to choose a patient in such cases.
C. Rs. 1 crore
He has to administer treatment.
D. Rs. 5 crore
C 51. Which of the following is an example of privileged
Previously, the National Commission Could entertain claims communication?
of more than Rs. 20 lakh, but by an amendment of 2002, A. Doctor is appointed on the panel of the Life Insurance
which came into force with effect from 15 March 2003, Corporation. He reveals the information that the person
the jurisdiction is now more than 1erwe taking the policy is suffering from some life threat ening
disorder
46. Which of the following facts about Medical Council
B. Patient sues the doctor for not
of India is correct?
treating him properly. During the trial, the doctor reveals
A. The President and Vice President of the Council are elected
to the court that the patient is suffering from an incurable
from amongst the members of the Council
disorder
B. The President is elected but the Vice President is nominated
C. A teenager suffering from suicidal ten dencies. The doctor
by the Central Government
reveals this condition to his parents
C. The President is nominated by the Central Government
D. All of the above
but the Vice President is elected
D
D. Both the President and Vice President are nominated by
Disclosures made in doctor's self interest (choice B above)
the Central Government
and patient's self interest (choice C above) are also included
A
in privileged communication.

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52. AH of the following are related to medical on X-ray to be in the abdominal cavity (ii) amputation of
negligence except: the wrong limb.
A. Section 304A I.P.C. 56. An intern is conducting a laparotomy under
B. Section 37 I.P.C. supervision of his Head of Depart ment of Surgery.
C. Section 351 I.P.C. An artery forceps is left in the abdominal cavity
D. Section 312 I.P.C. because of which the patient suffers ill health and
B agony. The patient files a criminal case against the
This question is very frequently asked by students. Section hospital, the intern and the Head of Department.
304A I.P.C. is causing death by rash and negligent act. Which of the defences can the intern effectively
Section 351 is assault, which is just making any threatening take?
gesture (Actual touching of the body is dealt with by Section A. Res ipsa loquitur
350, which is Criminal Force). If a doctor examines a patient B. Respondent superior
without his or her consent, he may be charged under C. Novus actus interveniens
section 351. Section 312 is causing miscarriage inten D. Res judicata
tionally. B
53. Professional death sentence can be passed by: Respondent superior literally means "Let the superior reply".
A. Supreme Court An intern is only liable to conduct surgeries and prescribe
B. Consumer Court drugs under the supervision of a full fledged doctor, and
C. Medical Superintendent of a Hospital he can take this defence. Another example: If a dog bites
D. State Medical Council a man and the man files a case against the owner of the
D dog, the owner of the dog can not say, "go and hang my
dog". The sufferer has a right to say, "let the superior (in
54. A civil wrong is known as: this case-owner) reply."
A. Mutatis mutandis
B. Pan passu 57. If the damage to the patient has been caused
C. Tort where both doctor and the patient have been
D. Ultra vires negligent at the same time, the situation may best
C be described as:
All these four terms are legal terms, of which most relevant A. Criminal negligence
to forensic medicine is "tort". Tort means civil wrong, such B. Ethical Malpraxis
as applying the plaster so tightly that gangrene sets up in C. Vicarious liability
foot. It might be helpful to know the meaning of other D. Contributory negligence
distracters. D
The meaning of mutatis mutandis is "with the necessary 58. Law does not consider one of the following
changes having been carried out". It is generally used in doctrines in a charge of criminal negli gence.
the context of making allowances for differences in small, Identify it:
inessential details when comparing cases that are A. Contributory negligence
substantially the same. For example: "What is said of the B. Vicarious liability
army here is to be taken also to apply mutatis mutandis, C. Novus actus interveniens
to the air force and the navy." D. Res ipsa loquitur
Paripassu is Latin for "with equal step" (par, equal; passus, A
step). It means "at an equal rate of progress". In legal 59. Contributory negligence is a valid defence to the
context it means "equitably" or "without unfair preference". doctor in:
Examples: "Expand the state and [its] destructive capacity
A. Civil negligence
necessarily expands too, pari passu", or "proceed with B. Criminal negligence
warlike measures and conciliatory measures pari passu ". C. Both civil and criminal negligence
Ultra vires means "beyond the legal power or authority of D. Ethical misconduct
a person or official or body etc" or "beyond the scope or in A
excess of legal power or authority" such as "an ultra vires
contract". This phrase is used frequently in relation to acts 60. A conduct on the part of a medical practi tioner
or enactments by corporations in excess of their chartered during the practice of his pro fession, which would
or statutory rights. The opposite is intra vires. be reasonably regarded as disgraceful or
dishonourable by his professional colleagues of
55. Example of res ipsa loquitur is: good repute and competency is known as:
A. A drug for external use prescribed for taking by mouth
A. Civil negligence
B. Death due to anesthesia B. Criminal negligence
C. Operating a patient without a post graduate degree in
C. Professional misconduct
surgery D. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Tetanus infection to an indoor patient C
A
Other valid choices could be (i) a swab or instrument found

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61. In a case the doctor as well as the patient have loss he sustains as a result of the breach, and he (patient)
been negligent. The patient suffers damage as a can charge the party in default (doctor) with such damages
result. However the doctor had a clear and only as, with reasonable endeavors and expense and
unambiguous opportunity to avert the damage without risk of additional substantial loss or injury, he could
caused by the patient's own negligence. The doctor not prevent.'
takes the defence of contributory negli gence by Here the patient could have avoided the consequences by
the patient. Which of the following rules/doctrines not being negligent. But he did not do so. The doctor gets
act against the doctor in this case? the benefit here.
A. The avoidable consequences rule 63. Unexpected complications of medical procedures
B. The last clear chance doctrine is termed as:
C. Therapeutic misadventure A. Therapeutic misadventure
D. Corporate negligence B. Vicarious liability
B C. Therapeutic privilege
The "last clear chance doctrine" is an important limitation to D. Diminished liability
the doctrine of contributory negligence. Here if it is shown A
that the defendant (doctor in this case) had a "Last Clear
Chance" to avert the damage caused to the patient, and 64. Repeated advertisements in newspapers by a
he did not avail of this chance, the doctor loses his defence medical practitioner is an example of:
of contributory negligence. A good example of "last clear A. Infamous conduct
chance doctrine" is the Mississippi case of Fuller v. Illinois B. Civil malpraxis
Central R.R., (1911). Although this is a non-medical case, C. Criminal negligence
it serves to explain the concept very well. D. Privileged communication
In this case the plaintiff (Fuller) used a dirt track which A
crossed a railway line to get to his home. At the time of This is a violation of the Code of Medical Ethics. Such a
the accident the train was half an hour late, and so was violation is called serious professional misconduct or
running much faster than usual. The train gave its usual infamous con duct. Some authors call it ethical malpraxis
signal nine hundred feet from the crossing that alerted the or ethical negligence, but it is not a widely accepted term
train station further down the track of its imminent arrival. and should best be avoided.
Almost immediately afterwards, the 28 Self Assessment 65. If the life support systems of a severely defective
and Review of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology plaintiff, infant is turned off to put an end to his life, this
over seventy years old, began to cross the tracks in his would be called:
horse and cart. He had looked neither left nor right and A. Infant euthanasia
was killed instantly. B. Involuntary euthanasia
Here undoubtedly the old man was negligent in causing his C. Non-voluntary euthanasia
own death. Thus the railway company could take the D. Both (B) and (C)
defence of contributory negligence. However the driver of C
the train still had the "last clear chance" to stop the train Voluntary euthanasia is when a person is suffering greatly
and save the old man. If he had exercised reasonable care and has given his consent for death. Non-voluntary
and prudence, he could have avoided the accident. The euthanasia is different from involuntary euthanasia. Non-
defendant had the "last clear chance" to avoid the accident voluntary euthanasia refers to a situation where the person
but did not act upon it. So railroad company was found is incapable of making his wish known (as in comatosed
guilty. persons, mentally retarded individuals and severely
62. The doctor is found negligent in a particular case. defective infants). Involuntary euthanasia on the other hand
The patient suffers dam age as a result. Later he means killing against the wishes of the person, i.e.
(the patient) himself becomes negligent too and compulsory. Many opponents of euthanasia believe that
aggravates his injury. The patient claims most cases of so-called voluntary euthanasia are actually
compensation for the aggravated injury caused as cases of involuntary euthanasia, i.e. they are forced to
a result. The doctor can take advantage of which give consent for dying.
of the following rules/ doctrines? 66. In Indian law, which of the following forms of
A. The last clear chance doctrine euthanasia is allowed?
B. The avoidable consequences rule A. Voluntary
C. Res Judicata B. Involuntary
D. Novus Actus Interveniens C. Non-voluntary
B D. None
The "doctrine of avoidable consequences" or the "avoidable D
consequences rule" states as follows:
'Where one party to a contract (doctor in the above case)
commits a breach of contract, the other party (the patient)
is required by the "avoidable consequences" rule of
damages to make all reasonable efforts to minimize the

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67. Consent is legally defined in which of the following 72. Under section 53 Cr.P.C, which of the following
legal statutes: persons, can be examined by a medical practitioner
A. Indian Consent Act without consent?
B. Indian Evidence Act A. An insane person
C. Code of Criminal Procedure B. A woman who has been raped
D. Indian Contract Act C. A minor
D D. An arrested person
Consent is defined in section 13 of this Act (this fact can D
indeed form another MCQ question). The definition is: Two Following provisions must be remembered in connection with
or more person are said to consent when they agree upon Section 53 Cr.P.C. (i) The person must be arrested on a
the same thing in the same sense. charge of committing an offence (ii) requesting police
officer should not be below the rank of sub-inspector or
68. A 20-year-old young female conies to a male any person acting in good faith in his aid and under his
gynaecologist for pelvic exami nation. The consent direction (iii) examination must be such as is reasonably
for examination is: necessary in order to ascertain the facts which may afford
A. Implied consent useful evidence (iv) reasonable force to do such
B. Written consent examination may be applied.
C. Verbal consent
D. Informed consent 73. If a doctor is examining a female under section 53
A Cr.P.C, which of the following conditions must be
satisfied?
69. If an unconscious patient needs to be operated A. The police officer accompanying her should be female
upon immediately to save his life, and relatives are B. The doctor should either be a female, or if male, he should
not traceable for taking consent, which of the be under the supervision of a female doctor
following procedures must a doctor follow? C. The examination must be made in a police station and not
A. He should operate without consent in any other place
B. At least two doctors must consent D. All of the above
C. Consent taken from police officer B
D. Consent taken from Medical Super intendent of the Hospital This is provided in Section 53(2) Cr. P.C.
A 74. Which of the following conventions or declarations
formulated a modernized version of Hippocratic
70. If a doctor performs an emergency sur gery in an oath?
unconscious patient, without consent from the A. Geneva Conventions 1949
relatives because they were not available, which B. Declaration of Helsinki, 1964
of the following statutes of law provide him C. Declaration of Tokyo, 1975
protection? D. Declaration of Geneva, 1948
A. Section 53 Cr.P.C. D
B. Section 88 I.P.C. This was Adopted by the 2nd General Assembly of the World
C. Section 92 I.P.C. Medical Association, Geneva, Switzerland, in Sep tember
D. He gets no protection because although he may be morally 1948. Amended by the 22nd World Medical Assembly,
right, he has committed a legal wrong Sydney, Australia, August 1968, and by the 35th Assembly
C in Venice, 1983.
71. What is the doctrine of "in loco parentis"? 75. For which of the following persons is it legal to use
A. Consent for life-threatening operations in case of minors Red cross emblem for trade or business?
can only be taken from a parent and not from a legal A. A registered nurse
guardian B. A registered allopathic doctor
B. If the question is of a life-threatening operation on a minor, C. Medical men of the armed forces
both parents must consent D. All of the above
C. Consent of any one of the two parents is sufficient for C
ordinary operations 76. The declaration of Tokyo, 1975 by World Medical
D. In Emergency surgery, the person immediately in-charge Association adopted guidelines for medical doctors
of the minor such as a teacher or warden can give consent regarding which of the following issues?
D A. Torture and other cruel treatment in relation to detention
"In loco parentis" is a Latin phrase, which when translated in and imprisonment
English means "In place of a parent". Thus teacher or B. Always taking informed consent from the patient
warden can act in place of a parent, if they are not C. Keeping the ethical values of doctors at the highest level
immediately D. It was basically a resolve among doctors to keep themselves
available for giving consent. abreast of latest developments
A

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It was the 29th assembly of the World Medical Association 5. Declaration of Oslo (1970)-*Adopted by the 24th World
(WMA), which was held in 1975 at Tokyo, Japan, which Medical Assembly held at Oslo, Norway in 1970. It is a
adopted this declaration. The dec laration adopted at this statement on therapeutic abortion. One of the principles
assembly basically asserted that no doctor would participate adopted was that "abortion should be performed only as a
in the practice of torture or other forms of cruel, inhuman therapeutic measure". However Indian parliament passed
or degrading procedures. It was modified in 2005. MTP Act only next year (1971), where MTP was allowed
Mnemonic: T for Tokyo and T for Torture. on virtually every case (The Act came into force on April 1,
A note on Assemblies of the World Medical Association: 1972). The famous American case of abortion [Roe v. Wade
World Medical Association held its 1st assembly in 1947 at 410 US 113 (1973)] was decided on 22 January 1973. So
Paris, France. Since then it has been holding annual at least in the area of medical termination of pregnancy,
assemblies at different cities. Only one assembly, the 16th India was definitely the leader. Mnemonic: (O)slo->
(1962) has been held in India, and that was in New Delhi. Ab(o)rtion,
For a brief period, the assemblies were held biannually 6. Declaration of Tokyo (1975)^ Adopted by the 29th World
(1981 and 1983). Medical Assembly at Tokyo, Japan in October 1975 and
In several of these assemblies, important ethical declarations amen ded in 2005. These prescribe Guidelines for Medical
have been adopted by the World Medical Association, which Doctors Concerning Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or
are important from our view point. Most of these have Degrading Treatment or Punishment in Relation to Detention
been modified by further assemblies, but they are always and Imprisonment. Mnemonic:
known by the very first place (and year) where they were (T)okyo-KT)orture. Other important declarations worth
first adopted. Most important of these declarations are: mentioning are as follows (with first year as the year of
1. Declaration of Geneva (1948)-* adoption and subsequent years indicating years of
Adopted by the 2nd assembly at Geneva, Switzerland. amendments):
Amended in 1968, 1983, 1994 and 2005. It is a modernized 1. Declaration of Lisbon on the Rights of the Patient (1981,
version of Hippocratic oath. Also known as Physician's Oath. 1995, 2005).
It basically prescribes an oath to be taken by medical 2. Declaration of Venice on Terminal Illness (1983).
doctors at the time of being admitted as a member of the 3. Declaration of Madrid on Professional Autonomy and Self-
medical profession. Mnemonic: (G)eneva->(H)ippocratic Regulation (1987).
oath. 'G' is followed by 'H' in English alphabet. 4. Declaration of Hong Kong on the Abuse of the Elderly (1989,
2. International Code of Medical Ethics 1990).
(1949)->Adopted by the 3rd General Assembly of the World 5. Declaration of Malta on Hunger Strikers (1991, 1992).
Medical Association at London, England in October 1949, 6. Declaration of Hamburg Concerning Support for Medical
It was amended by the 22nd World Medical Assembly Doctors Refusing to Participate in, or to Condone, the Use
Sydney, Australia (August 1968) and the 35th World of Torture or Other Forms of Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading
Medical Assembly Venice, Italy (October 1983). It Treatment (1997).
prescribes duties of physicians in general, duties of 7. Declaration of Ottawa on the Right of the Child to Health
physicians to the sick and duties of physicians to each other. Care (1998).
3. Declaration of Helsinki (1964)-> 8. Declaration on Ethical Considerations Regarding Health
Adopted by the 18th WMA General Assembly held at Helsinki, Databases (2000).
Finland in June 1964, and subsequently amended five times 9. Declaration of Washington on Biological Weapons (2002).
(1975,1983,1989,1996 and 2000). These prescribe ethical
Principles for Medical Research Involving Human Subjects 77. Which of the following professionals can legally use
(Human Experimentation). Mnemonic: (H)elsinki->(H)uman the Red Cross emblem to further their profession?
experimentation. A. Allopathic doctors
4. Declaration of Sydney (1968)-> B. Homeopathic doctors
Adopted by the 22nd World Medical Assembly at Sydney, C. Members of the medical service of an army
Australia in August 1968. It is a statement on when to D. All of the Above
pronounce death. The assembly recognized that two recent C
developments namely (a) the ability to maintain by artificial Red Cross Act, 1938 Section 4: On and after the date of the
means the circulation of oxygenated blood through tissues establishment of the Society it shall not be lawful for any
of the body which may have been irreversibly injured and person to use for the purpose of trade or business or any
(b) the use of cadaver organs such as heart or kidneys for other purpose whatsoever, without the consent of the
transplantation, necessitated a proper definition of death. Minister for Defence, the heraldic emblem of the red cross
It was decided that ECG was the most helpful diagnostic aid on a white ground formed by reversing the Federal colours
in the diagnosis of death, and If transplantation of an organ of Switzerland or any emblem closely resembling such
is involved, the decision that death exists should be made heraldic emblem, or the words "Cros Dearg", "Cros na
by two or more physicians and the physicians determining Geineibhe", "Red Cross" or "Geneva Cross" or any words
the moment of death should in no way be immediately closely resembling the words "Cros Dearg", "Cros na
concerned with performance of transplantation. Mnemonic: Geineibhe", "Red Cross" or "Geneva Cross".
Si(d)ney ->(D)eath.

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78. Which of the following conventions or declarations 83. What is the meaning of the word Corpus delicti?
drew up a code of ethics on human A. Dead body
experimentation? B. Body of crime
A. Geneva Conventions 1949 C. Enquiry made by the police
B. Declaration of Helsinki, 1964 D. Dereliction of duty
C. Declaration of Tokyo, 1975 B
D. Declaration of Geneva, 1948 The meaning of corpus delicti is "body of crime" or "essence
B of crime". It is used mostly in relation to murder, and is
used to denote that evidence, which confirms that the
Topic - Personal Identity person is indeed dead. If for example, a person is found
missing from a village, it would be difficult to conclude
79. The first modern system of criminal identification that he has been murdered, until and unless some evidence
was: is brought forthwith which conclusively proves that the
A. Superimposition of the skull person is indeed dead. This could include his dead body, a
B. Finger prints photograph of his dead body, his blood stained clothes, his
C. Bertillonage severed head etc. All these from corpus delicti.
D. Lip prints
84. Surest or the most reliable method of identification
C
is:
A. DNA Profiling
80. The term "Corpus delicti" includes the following
B. Dactylography
except:
C. Gustafson's method
A. Body of the victim
D. Anthropometry
B. Photographs of the deceased showing fatal wounds
B
C. Clothing showing marks of weapons
This is a tricky question, many students choosing "DNA
D. Inquest report
profiling" as the right answer. Since DNA is similar in
D
identical twins, DNA profiling can not distinguish between
them, while dactylography or fingerprints can distinguish
81. Davidson body is an indicator of:
between them too (since they are different even in identical
A. Age
twins). Sometimes choice (b) is replaced with "Galton
B. Sex
method", which is also a correct choice (Dactylography is
C. Race
sometimes referred to as Galton system or Galton method).
D. Height
Interesting/act: Besides fingerprints, another major
B
identification criteria, that is different even in identical twins
These bodies are named after William M. Davidson of King's
is the frontal sinus pattern.
college hospital medical school, London, who first described
these bodies in 1954. 85. If maximum breath of the skull is taken as "B", its
maximum Length as "L", and its maximum height as
82. Which of the following statements about the chilotic
"H", the Cephalic index would be denoted by which
line are correct?
of the following formulae?
A. It is present on the femur and is useful in the determination
A. (B/L) x 100
of race
B. (H/L) x 100
B. It is present on the femur and is useful in the determination
C. (L/B) x 100
of sex
D. (L+B/L) x 100
C. It is present on the hipbone and is useful in the
A
determination of race
o Because differences in skin color were apparent when
D. It is present on the hipbone and is useful in the
different human groups came into contact, skin color
determination of sex
became one of the most common traits of racial
D
classification.
Chilotic line is the line extended backwards from the
o Johann Friedrich Blumenbach (1752- 1840), German
iliopectineal eminence to the nearest point on the anterior
physiologist and compara tive anatomist, frequently called
margin of the auricular surface and then to the iliac crest.
the father of physical anthropology, proposed one of the
The auricular point divides this chilotic line into anterior
earliest classifications of the races of mankind. He classified
(pelvic) and posterior (sacral) segments, each of which is
humans into four races. He used skin color [white
expressed as a percentage of other. These chilotic indices
(Caucasians), yellow (Mongolians), brown (Malayan), and
display reciprocal values in the sexes, the pelvic part of
black (Ethiopian)] as well as other traits, but emphasized
the chilotic line being relatively prominent in the female,
that humans do not fall neatly into these categories.
the sacral part in the male. (From Gr. Cheilos, a margin,
Some workers added a fifth category- red (American Indians).
lip, brim. Called so because it is at the brim of pelvis.
Later Anders Retzius (1796-1860), a Swedish Profes sor
Related word is Cheiloscopy, which is study of lip prints).
of Anatomy introduced the concept of cephalic index in
1842, but it too fell into disrepute.

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86. A skull will be called dolichocephalic if its cephalic Blumen-bach (1752-1840), a German physiologist,
index is: anthropologist and comparative anatomist classified
A. Less than 60 humans into four races. He used SKIN color (white, yellow,
B. Between 70-74.9 brown, and black) as well as other traits, but emphasized
C. Between 75-79.9 that humans do not fall neatly into these categories.
D. 80 and above Europeans believed that Caucasoids were the superior race,
B and from the very beginning they were out to find a
biological trait to prove this. They found this in cephalic
87. The Brachycephalic (short) type of skull is seen in index, and immediately announced that cephalic index can
A. Mongolians indeed differentiate the so called "superior" race like
B. Europeans Caucasoids from an "inferior" race such as Negroids.
C. South Indians Believing that head shape was a stable "racial trait", a
D. Negroes Swedish scientist Anders Retzius developed the cephalic
A index in 1842 to describe the shape of the head.
Believing that head shape was a stable "racial trait", Anders According to him, a head with a width that measures less
Retzius (1796-1860), a Swedish Professor of Anatomy, than 75% of its length is termed dolichocephalic; one with
developed the cephalic index in 1842 to describe the shape a width that measures between 75 to 79.9% of its length
of the head. A head with a width that measures less than is termed mesocephalic; and one with a width that is more
75% of its length is termed dolichocephalic. One with a than 80% of its length is termed brachycephalic.
width that measures between 75 to 79.9% of its length is Quite interestingly, Europeans dropped the concept of cephalic
termed mesati cephalic (or mesocephalic). One with a index like a hot potato, when they discovered that allegedly
width that is more than 80% of its length is termed superior dolichocephalic northern Europeans shared a
brachycephalic. The cephalic index ceased to be used as a similar head shape with some so-called "inferior" African
racial trait when it was dis covered that allegedly superior populations.
dolicho cephalic northern Europeans shared a similar head Currently race is not an easily defined term - to the extent
shape with some so-called "inferior" African populations. that many scientists do not believe in this term at all.
88. The Cephalic index of Indians is between: Certainly it is not a biological construct. One great reason
A. 70-75 to think so is that the genetic variations within groups (say
B. 75-80 within several members of Caucasoids themselves) is vastly
C. 80-85 greater than the genetic variation between groups (i.e.
D. 85-90 between Negroids and Caucasoids).
B It is now amply clear that traditional racial traits have a
This is basically an absurd question, and should never have continuous range of pheno-typic variation and it is
found a place in any MCQ book. The only justification of its impossible to construct discrete phenotypic or genotypic
inclusion here is that it has been asked so many times in boundaries around populations (such as cephalic index).
examinations. The question is given here with what is 89. Brachycephaiy may result as a result of premature
generally expected to be the correct answer. However many fusion of:
authors think that "the population of the Indian subcon A. Sagittal suture
tinent are allied with the European population in terms of B. Coronal suture
anthropological kinship". If that is taken to be true, the C. Parietal suture
correct answer should be (A). Quite understandably, this D. Lambdoid suture
is a controversial question. There are two basic problems B
in this question. Normal skull growth occurs perpendicular to each suture.
1. First and foremost is-whom does one consider a typical The primary factor that keeps sutures open is ongoing
Indian? Is a Kashmiri with more Caucasoid features an brain growth. If one or more cranial sutures fuse
Indian, or a Dravidian (Tamil) with more Negroid features prematurely (craniosynostosis) it may result in an abnormal
an Indian, or a Manipuri with Mongoloid features an Indian? head shape.
It is com mon knowledge that all three are Indians. If that Brachycephaly: Early bilateral coronal suture fusion.
be the case, then what is the point in asking the cephalic Scaphocephaly: Early fusion of the sagittal suture.
index of an Indian? Anterior plagiocephaly: Early fusion of 1 coronal suture.
2. Secondly and still a very important point is that race is a Posterior plagiocephaly: Early closure of 1 lambdoid suture.
very ill-defined concept. Not many physical anthropologists Trigonocephaly: Early fusion of the metopic suture.
believe in this concept any more. Some feel that it is more
a culturally defined concept than a biologically defined one. 90. Crual index is calculated as:
Or perhaps even a geographically defined concept. We A.Length of radius Length of humerus x 100
might perhaps -have to go into historical Background of B.Length of tibia Length of femur 100
race too for a better understanding. Because differences C.Length of tibia Length of fibulax 100
in SKIN color were apparent when different human groups D.Length of (humerus + radius Length of (femur 100+ tibia)
came into contact, SKIN color became one of the most B
common traits of racial classification. Johann Friedrich The word "crural" comes from Latin crus meaning leg (this

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serves as a good mnemonic too). In this index the two 96. Chromosomal pattern in Turner's syndrome is:
major leg bones- one representing the lower part and the A. 46/XO
other representing the upper part are compared with each B. 45/XO
other. All indices (cephalic index, medullary index, sternal C. 47/XXY
index, ischiopubic index etc.) are basically comparisons D. 45/YO
between two measurements (of bone, hair etc.), the shorter B
of which generally goes in the numerator.
Thus in cephalic index, breadth-the shorter of the two 97. Colonel Victor Barker's case was a case of:
A. Intersex
measurements-goes in the numerator. Similarly in crural
index length of the shorter bone -the tibia-goes in the B. Concealed sex
numerator. By multiplying the ratio with 100, we basically C. True Hermaphrodite
try to represent this ratio as a percentage. Thus, crural D. Female pseudohermaphrodite
index is a way of representing the length of tibia as a B
percentage of the length of the longer bone-the femur. Colonel Sir Victor Barker's case is one of the most amazing
cases of concealed sex. Barker (1895 - 1960) was born a
91. X-chromosome can usually be demons trated by: female (Valerie Lilias Barker), who acted like a man
A. Quinacrine staining between 1923 and 1929. In 1918, she married an
B. Feulgen reaction Australian Officer Harold Arkell-Smith. She now became
C. Gustafson's method known as Valerie Lilias Arkell-Smith. The marriage however
D. Gettler's test was a failure almost immediately. Later she married Ernest
B Pearce-Crouch - another Australian - with whom she had
In Feulgen reaction, Acriflavin Schiff reagent is used for 2 children, a boy and a girl. In 1923, she left her second
staining. X-chromosome is seen as a bright yellow spot. husband too (and her children) and on 14 November 1923,
posing as a man (Sir Victor Barker), married a woman
92. Y-chromosome can be demonstrated by: Elfrida Haward. Always living above his means, Sir Victor
A. Quinacrine staining was indicted for bankruptcy in 1929. It soon emerged that
B. Gustafson's method the 'Colonel' was a woman who had been passing herself
C. Gettler's test off as an Army officer for years. She was charged with
D. Sudan red perjury and with making a false statement in a marriage
A register and in court. Elfrida abandoned her, claiming she
Y-chromosome, when stained with Quinacrine dihydrochloride had no idea her husband was a woman. Arkell-Smith was
demonstrates fluorescence. found guilty and sentenced to nine months imprisonment.
93. "Barr bodies" were first demonstrated by: She was thus able to conceal her sex for full six years
A. Robert Koch (from 1923 till 1929) and it is possible that if she were not
B. Priestley caught by law, she might have kept up the deception until
C. Huxley and Smith her death.
D. Mary Barr and Ewart Bertram During the period she posed as man, she played for a cricket
D club, moved about in the streets in Khaki shorts with a
shirt open at the neck, dropped in at pubs for drinks, and
94. If a person has been accused of gagging someone, most of all, lived with another woman as her "husband"!
and the gagging material has been recovered from For more on concealed sex, see question 22).
the accused's house, detection of buccal epithelium
on the gagging material may help: 98. Which of the following bones give maxi mum
A. To establish the sex of the victim accuracy in sexing?
B. To establish the sex of the accused A. Pelvis
C. To ascertain the age of the victim B. Skull
D. To ascertain the age of the accused C. All the long bones together
A D. Sternum
This is an old question, and the intended answer is (A). This A
can be done by looking at Barr bodies (see the previous 99. If the entire skeleton is available, the accuracy in
question). However now a complete DNA profile of the estimating the sex is:
victim can be made from a few buccal epithelial cells and A. 80%
a positive identity can be established. B. 90%
C. 98%
95. In gonadal agenesis, the nuclear sexing is: D. 100%
A. Female D
B. Male According to Krogman, the accuracy in sexing the adult human
C. Female in some cells, while male in others skeleton is as follows: Entire skeleton, 100%; Pelvis alone,
D. Negative 95%; Skull alone 90%, Pelvis plus skull 98%, Long bones
D alone 80%.

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100. Which of the following aspects of a skull help to 106.The dental formula of children is:
differentiate sex? A. 2123/2123
A. Digastric groove B. 2102/2123
B. Frontal eminence C. 2102/2102
C. Foramen magnum D. 2123/2102
D. All of the above C
D
Digastric groove is deeper in males. Frontal eminence is small 107.The dental formula of adult human beings is:
A. 2123/2123
in males. Foramen magnum is relatively large and long in
males, and relatively small and round in females. B. 2102/2123
C. 2102/2102
101.Which of the following fact regarding human skull D. 2123/2102
is wrong? A
A. Until the age of puberty there is little difference between
the skull of the two sexes 108.First deciduous tooth appears at the age of:
B. Sexual dimorphism is less marked in mankind than in A. 6-8 months
gorilla, orang utan and many species of baboon B. 12-14 months
C. The capacity of the male skull is about 10% more than C. 17-18 months
that of the female D. 6-7 years
D. Teeth are larger in females A
D Remember the following mnemonic for deciduous teeth:
South Indian Idlis, mothers can make. South-"Indicates lower
102.Which of the following is true of a male skull? teeth appear first (especially incisors) Indian-"Incisors,
A. Orbits have rounded margins central (lower)-"6 months Incisors, central (upper)->8
B. Mastoid process is round months Idlis->Incisors, lateral (upper)-* 10 months (Lateral
C. Foramen magnum is smaller incisors are an exception, in as much as the upper appear
D. Both (A) and (B) first) Incisors, lateral (lower)-"12 months Mothers-"Molars
D (first)->14 months Can-"Canine-" 18 months Make-"Molars
Generally structures are rounded in females and pointed in (second)-"24-30 months Remember, the ages start at 6
males. The two notable exceptions are given in this months. After this one goes on adding 2 months to go to
question. Note that the margins are rounded in males. next step. Nothing appears at 16, 20 and 22 months.
The orbits themselves are rounded in females and square
in males! 109.Permanent lateral incisor appears approximately
at the age of:
103.Preauricular sulcus is used for the determination A. 4-5 years
of: B. 6 years
A. Race C. 8 years
B. Sex D. 11 years
C. Age C
D. Both race and sex The order of appearance of permanent teeth, with a few
B months' variation on either side is like this:
104.Which of the following statements regarding These eruption ages are true for maxillary teeth. Generally
the 3rd Molar is correct? speaking, the tnandibular teeth would appear a few months
A. It first erupts in right lower quadrant earlier. The major exception is in the case of canines, which
B. It first erupts in left lower quadrant appear lot earlier - almost 2 years earlier. Thus the lower
C. It first erupts in right upper quadrant canine would appear at 9 years.
D. There is no significant difference in the age of eruption in Premolars are an exception in the sense that they appear
the four quadrants earlier in the upper jaw first. Thus lower first premolar
D would appear at 10 years, and lower second premolar
would appear at 11 years. The whole subject of dental
105.Which of the following teeth is not present in eruption, especially that of permanent dentition may sound
human primary dentition? complex, but can thankfully be remembered by an
A. Molars interesting mnemonic. Mama Is In Pain; Papa Can Make
B. Premolars Medicine The first letter of each word indicates the first
C. Canines letter of the maxillary tooth. The mnemonic can be decoded
D. Incisors thus Interestingly there is yet another good mnemonic for
B remembering the same sequence. Mother is in bed; baby
comes Monday morning Here the letter 'b' in 'bed' and
'baby' should remind us of the word Bicuspid, which is
sometimes used for Premolars. Rest of the letters are as
in the previous mnemonic.

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110.A child has a total of 24 teeth. His probable age 114.Age from teeth is estimated by:
is: A. Galton system
A. Less than 6 B. RuleofHasse
B. Between 6 to 9 years C. Trotter and Glesser's formula
C. Between 6 to 11 years D. Gustafson's method
D. Between 12 and 18 years D
C Galton system is another name for finger printing. Rule of
This is a question which stumps many students. During Hasse is used to determine the intrauterine age of a fetus.
examinations students are seen counting teeth in their Trotter and Glesser's formula is used to determine the
minds, wasting much of their time. In reality this is a very stature of a human being from a single long bone.
simple question if the concept of superadded and Gustafson's method was pioneered by Professor GOsta
successional teeth is kept in mind [see question 110 below]. Gustafson of Sweden in 1950.
This automatically ousts choice (D). Table 3.5: A
comprehensive table showing the relative number of 115.Which of the following is NOT a criteria used in
temporary and permanent teeth at various ages Gustafson's method?
o Molars are the only superadded teeth. A. Root resorption
o Molars erupt at 6, 12 and 18 years - a simple multiplication B. Periodontosis
table to remember (the eruption of last is variable, but for C. Width of enamel prisms
the purposes of this question we can take the age as 18). D. Secondary dentin formation
o Thus the total number of teeth changes only at 6, 12 and C
18.
o Since one molar erupts in each quadrant at these ages, 116.Gustafson's method for age deter- iw mination
the total number of teeth will increase by 4. from teeth is most useful in which one of the
Now remember that the child completes his primary dentition following age groups?
at two and a half years of age. The total number of teeth A. <5 years
B. 6-10 years
at this time is 20. Thus we can make the following table
3.4: Table 3.4: Total number of teeth at various ages C. 11-15 years
D. Above 25 years
111.If a child has 20 permanent teeth and 4 temporary D
teeth, his age is likely to be:
A. 6 years 117.Which is the MOST useful single criterion in
B. 8 years Gustafson's method?
C. 10 years A. Transparency of the root
D. 14 years B. Root resorption
C C. Cementum apposition
D. Attrition
112.Which of the following is the age of mixed A
dentition? Since 1992, Lamendin method has come in vogue, which
A. 4 to 6 years uses only two criteria (i) gingival recession (perio- dontosis)
B. 7 to 10 years and (ii) transparency of the root. This is because the method
C. 6 to 11 years is easy to apply, and it makes use of a single rooted tooth
D. 6 to 18 years which needs no preparation. This is said to give a better
C result than Gustafson' s method. It was advocated in 1992
by H. Lamendin.
113. Which of the following permanent teeth are most
erratic in eruption and of little value in determining 118.Total weight of adult male skeleton is:
age? A. 3 kg
A. Third molar B. 4.5 kg
B. Premolars C. 7.5 kg
C. Second molars D. 9.5 kg
D. Incisors B
A
As can be seen in the question above, third molars can erupt 119.Total weight of adult female skeleton is:
anytime between 18 to 24 years. Sometimes they fail to A. 3 kg
erupt even after 24. Thus they are quite unreliable in the B. 4.5 kg
determination of age. C. 7.5 kg
D. 9.5 kg
A

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120.The two halves of mandible join together by: 123.According to Indian law, if several close relatives
A. 5-6 month of intrauterine life die in a mass disaster, without having written a
B. 5-6 month of extra uterine life valid will, and the question is of inheritance and
C. 2nd year of life succession to property, what is the rule that is
D. 5-6 years of life followed?
C A. Male survived the female
At birth the mandible is in two separate halves united in |he B. Younger survived the elder
median plane by fibrous tissue. This union is known as C. Taller person survived the shorter
symphysis menti. After birth, in the first year, the two halves D. There is no law in India catering to this situation
of the bone begin to join from below upwards. A trace of B
separation may still be visible at the beginning of the second Explanation and additional info:
year. By the completion of two years, the two halves are According to section 21 of "The Hindu uccession Act, 1956",
completely joined. in such cases, the younger would be presumed to survive
the elder, i.e. the younger person died later than the elder.
124.Identification in a case of mass disaster can be
Topic - Mass Disasters
achieved by:
A. Appearance
121. In cases of mass disaster, which of the following
B. Fingerprints
is true?
C. Neck prints
A. If whole body is not available, and only parts such as arms
D. Dental data
and legs are available, the medical officer must delay the
A,B,D
autopsy till the police recovers the whole body
B. The autopsy can not legally be conducted by a single doctor;
it must be conducted by a board of three doctors
Topic - Medicolegal Autopsy
C. The doctor must conduct autopsy on whatever fragments
are available 125.The object of conducting a medicolegal autopsy is
D. A single doctor can not legally conduct autopsies on more to find out:
than 3 persons dying in a single incident A. The cause of death
C B. The time since death
C. The manner of death
122.The term 'commorientes' refers to: D. All of the above
A. Simultaneous death of more than 100 persons in a mass D
disaster
B. Mass disaster due to a human mistake, such as fire in a 126.Which of the following incisions is employed during
a medicolegal autopsy?
building due to short circuiting
C. A special form of mass disaster when planes are crashed A. Y-shaped
in buildings B. Modified Y-shaped
D. Two or more people dying simultaneously or in C. I-shaped
circumstances rendering it uncertain which of them survived D. Any of the above
the other or others D
D 127.The actual dissection of the body during
An example of "com- morientes" is when a plane carrying medicolegal autopsy should be carried out by:
hundreds of passengers crashes and everyone dies. In A. The mortuary attendant
such a case, all people dying in the crash would be referred B. The mortuary technician
to as "commorientes". This is a situation having a special C. The forensic pathologist himself
medicolegal significance, as the questions of inheritance D. Any of the above
etc would depend much on the knowledge of who died C
first. For instance if a wealthy childless couple, having not This is not a question of mere academic importance, and
written their will, were travelling in a plane and it crashed, may carry severe legal repercussions. If the dissection is
it would be important to know who died first. If the wife carried out by the mortuary attendant or the mortuary
died first, the husband would have legally deemed to have technician, and later the doctor tenders evidence in a court
passed on his wealth to his immediate relatives (such as of law, he must specifically spell out to the court who carried
his own brothers). But if he died first, his wife would be out the actual dissection. Generally the doctor asserts on
legally deemed to have acquired all his wealth just after oath, that he conducted the post mortem examination,
his death. In that case the wealth would pass on to her which inherently means he himself carried out the
relatives (e.g. her brothers). It can be appreciated from dissection. If he did not actually carried out the dissection,
this situation that most countries have appropriate laws it may amount to perjury.
resolving such a situation.

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128.To carry out a medicolegal autopsy, which one of 131. Which of the following valves has the largest
the following is not an essential pre-requisite? circumference?
A. The consent of the relatives A. Tricuspid
B. The complete inquest report B. Mitral
C. Identification by the police officer accompanying the body C. Aortic
D. Identification by a relative or two accompanying the body D. Pulmonary
A A
Medicolegal autopsy is conducted to solve a specific question Remember the word TaMPA, which is a place in Florida.
of law, and the consent of relatives is of no conse quence. Tricuspid, Mitral, Pulmonary and Aortic valves have
However in a different kind of autopsy-the hospital autopsy, circumferences in this order. Actual circumferences:
or the patho logical autopsy-which is done merely for Tricuspid ->12 cm Mitral ->10 cm Pulmonary -"8.5 cm
research, the consent of relatives is a must. So before Aortic ->7.5 cm
answering the question, do carefully read the question, Note that the differences are 2.0, 1.5 and 1.0 cm respectively.
and find out if the question is referring to a medicolegal This is an easy series to remember because it is in
autopsy or to a hospital autopsy. Arithmetic Progression. The only figure to remember is
the first one, i.e. 12 cm.
129.After fixation in formalin, the weight of the brain: This question is relevant in forensic pathology, because by
A. Remains unchanged measuring the circumferences of the valves, we can say if
B. Increases by about 5-10% the deceased was suffering from stenosis or regurgitation.
C. Decreased by about 5-10%
D. Increases in cases of males, and decrea ses in cases of 132."Cardiac polyp" is a term used for postmortem:
females A. Fibrinous clots in hearts
B B. Aneurysms in heart
C. Infarcts in heart
130.Psychological autopsy is the name given to: D. Pale patches in heart
A. A detailed examination of brain, especially its limbic system A
B. An attempt to reconstruct the dead person's psychological Cardiac polyp is the name given to two things: either a ball
state prior to death thrombus or a tumor attached by a pedicle to the inside of
C. An autopsy at the scene of crime the heart.
D. Histological examination of the pineal gland
B 133.How best can you distinguish sub- arachnoid
In many suspicious deaths it is essential to assess the mental hemorrhage (SAH) from subdural hemorrhage
state of the deceased prior to death. This is done by several (SDH)?
methods, most important of which is to interview people A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is more clearly visible
who were known to him, such as his relatives, friends, B. Subdural hemorrhage is more clearly visible
employers and others. This is known as "psychological C. Subdura! hemorrhage can be washed off, while
autopsy" or "psychiatric autopsy". Another name given to subarachnoid can not be
this technique is "recons tructive psychological evaluation". D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage can be washed off, while
This technique is not yet popular in India, but quite popular subdural can not be
in the US. C
Psychological autopsy is helpful to law enforcement agencies This is so, because subara- chnoid is covered with arachnoid
in several ways. For instance in the much publicized case membrane. Subdural is exposed after removal of skull and
of State v Jones 1978, a woman who killed her sleeping dura.
husband got away with a verdict of involuntary
manslaughter (a much less serious charge than murder). 134."Undertaker's fracture" is commonly seen in:
A psychiatric autopsy done by an expert on her dead A. Skull
husband revealed that he used to batter his wife (the B. Cervical spine
defendant) and on the night of the killing, her husband C. Lumbar spine
had even announced to her that he was going to kill their D. Pelvis
children before she woke up. B
The results of this psychological autopsy went in favor of the Undertaker's fracture is basically a post mortem fracture,
woman who got away with a much lesser sentence. and occurs due to careless handling of the dead body by
If a person has tried to commit suicide on a number of undertakers; in fact this fracture can be produced by anyone
occasions before and his dead body is found in suspicious who has to do anything with the dead body. Pathologists
are known to extend the head to make the removal of the
circumstances, it would be useful to know that he had
suicidal tendencies. neck structures easier. To do this, they usually insert a
block about 10-15 cm high under the shoulders. If this is
done carelessly, the neck may fall forcibly backwards,
producing this fracture. It involves subluxation of the lower
cervical spine due to tearing of the intervertebral disc at
about C6-C7.

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135.After postmortem examination, the body has to Topic - The Pathophysiology of Death
be handed over to the: (Including Sudden and Unexpected Death)
A. Investigating officer
B. Relatives 140.Forensic thanatology deals with:
C. The authorities of the nearest crema torium or burial ground A. Study of maggots swarming the body after death
depending upon the religion of the dead person B. Study of cooling of the body after death
D. Medical superintendent of the hospital in which the post C. Medico legal study of death
mortem was conducted D. Suspended animation
A C
It is important to remember that the doctor hands over the
body to the investigating officer only (to the police in cases 141.Magnus test was used in the 19th Century to
of police inquest and to the magistrate in cases of detect the stoppage of function of:
magisterial inquest). It is the investigating officer who A. Lungs
passes on the body to the relatives. The relatives then B. Heart
take the body to the crematorium or burial ground. C. Brain
Frequently-especially in bride burning deaths-the parties D. Both brain and heart
of both sides (maternal as well as in-laws) claim the dead B
body of the bride. The doctor does not decide whom to Magnus test was suggested by an Italian Ugo Magnus in 1879.
pass on the body to. He simply hands over the body to the It was a test to see the stoppage of circulation. The test
investigating officer, and it is the I.O.'s problem to pass on consisted of tying a string around one of the fingers of the
the body further. supposedly dead man. The pressure applied had to be
just above that in venous channels, but just below that in
Topic - Exhumation arterial channels. This would occlude the venous channels
but not the arterial channels. If the circulation was still
136.Which of the following regarding exhumation is maintained the finger distal to the ligature would swell.
correct? Although stethoscope had been discovered by Lae'nnec in
A. It is done in the presence of a police officer 1816, it was still very basic in design, and it could not be
B. It is done under the supervision of a medical officer used reliably to listen to heart sounds, especially if it was
C. It can be done after a written order from a District o-j beating very feebly. Magnus test was in vogue for
Magistrate sometime, but is now completely outdated.
D. All of the above
D 142.Icard's test was once used to detect the stoppage
of function of:
137.For which of the following reasons can an A. Brain
exhumation be done? B. Lungs
A. For establishing the identity of the deceased C. Diaphragm
B. To reestablish the cause of death, if some doubt occurs D. Heart
later D
C. For civil purposes, such as compensation Icard's test was suggested by Dr. Severin Icard of France in
D. For any of the above 1895. It was another test of circulation. It consisted of
D subcutaneous injection of a strongly fluorescent
compound. If the circulation was still going on, the whole
138.What is the time limit of exhumation in India? skin would turn a: vivid yellow. This phenomenon would
A. 10 years last 3 until the compound had been completely metabolized.
B. 30 years It was suggested that the test should be conducted only
C. 35 years in daylight, as the yellow color was difficult to appreciate
D. No time limit in the artificial light. The fluorescent compound which was
D usually employed was fluorescein with sodium bicarbonate.
If the person was already dead, no such change would be
139. Which of the following are genuine recognized seen. This test is completely outdated now.
artefacts produced due to exhumation?
A. Fungal growth in and around body orifices-removal of this 143.Winslow's test was once used to detect the
fungal growth leaves a discolored area, which may simulate stoppage of:
bruising A. Brain function
B. Gastric hemorrhages produced due to long burial B. Liver function
C. Digging tools producing postmortem fractures C. Respiration
D. Retinal hemorrhages D. Circulation
A,C C
Postmortem fractures produced by digging tools may be very This test was suggested by the Danish physician Jacques-
difficult to differentiate from genuine antemortem fractures. Benigne Winslow. It consisted of keeping a small pot
containing water or mercury over the thoraco-abdominal

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region (usually just at or below xiphisternum). A ray of 147. Which of the following is the correct definition of
light was allowed to fall over the liquid. If the respi ration suspended animation?
was taking place, the ray of light (over the surface of the A. It is the period of first 2 hours after death, i.e. when somatic
liquid) would appear to move. This test is also outdated. death has occurred, but molecular death has not occurred
The three tests-Magnus, Icard and Winslow-however weird B. It is a state when signs of life are not found, although the
they may appear today, were once widely accepted. They person is alive
gained prominence because the stethoscope had not been C. It is the name given to the position of the dead body in
developed fully and in cases of suspended animation, one cases of hanging
could easily mistake a living person for dead. D. It is the name given to the time period during which a
doctor is not allowed to conduct autopsies because of some
144.Which of the following is NOT a test of circulation? temporary disability
A. Magnus test B
B. Icard's test
148.What is the usual percentage of negative
C. Winslow test
autopsies?
D. Diaphanous test
A. <0.01%
B. 2-5%
145."Tower of silence" is used by ........... To dispose
C. 10-15%
off dead body:
D. 20-30%
A. Muslims
B
B. Parsees
C. Buddhists 149.Most common cause of sudden death due to CNS
D. Nagas lesions is:
B A. Subarachnoid or intracerebral haemor rhage
B. Meningitis
Known also as "dakhma", the "tower of silence" is a Parsi C. Encephalitis
funerary tower erected on a hill for the disposal of the D. Tumors of the fourth ventricle
dead according to the Zoroastrian rite. Such towers are A
about 25 feet (8 m) high, built of brick or stone, and contain
gratings on which the corpses are exposed. After vultures Topic - Postmortem Changes and Time Since
have picked the bones clean, they fall into a pit " below. Death (Including Presumption of Death and
This fulfils their belief that a corpse must not suffer contact Survivorship)
with either fire or earth.
150.Siiggilation is a term synonymous with:
A. Cooling of the body
146. Zsako's phenomenon is the name given to:
B. Postmortem staining
A. Dilation of pupils just after somatic death
C. Rigor mortis
B. Growing of hair after death
D. Cadaveric spasm
C. Contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscle on
B
mechanical stimulation just after somatic death
The term "suggilate" in English means "to beat black and
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration observed just before death in
blue". Since postmortem stain ing has a similar color, the
many cases
term "suggilation" is sometimes used to denote it. Other
C
terms synonymous with postmortem staining are: (i)
postmortem hypostasis (ii) subcutaneous hypostasis (iii)
Just after somatic death and before molecular death (i.e.
livor mortis (iv) cadaveric lividity and (v) darkening of
within the supravital period), it is possible to show in a
death. Vibices are tiny spots often seen within the area of
number of ways that individual cells are still functional.
- postmortem staining. These form because i of
One of these ways was first described by Zsako and is
postmortem mechanical rupture of subcutaneous
known after him as Zsako's phenomenon (also known as
capillaries and smaller vessels- predominantly veins.
Tendon reaction). It is elicited as follows: the lower third
151.Tache noir de la sderotiques are seen within
of the quadriceps femoris muscle is struck with a reflex
of death on ..............
hammer about 4-5 fingerbreadths (about 10 cms) above
A. 1 hour, nasal septum
the patella.
B. 3 hours, sclera
The patella moves upwards because of the contraction of
C. 6 hours, lungs
the quadriceps femoris muscle. Another similar test is
D. 24 hours, gastric mucosa
idiomuscular contraction (bulge). It was first described by
B
Dotzauer and Prokop. The biceps brachii muscle is struck
Tache noir de la sclerotique are nothing but two yellow
with the back of a knife. It causes a muscular bulge at the
triangles of desiccated discoloration. These appear on each
point of contact due to local contracture of the muscle.
side of the cornea, with their bases resting on the
circumference and apices jutting into the inner and outer
canthi (Fig. 9.1). Later these become brown and then black.
They indicate that the eyes were open after death.

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152.Cooling of the body is also known as: method can be used not only to determine time of death
A. Rigor mortis of an individual, but to determine the time period of virtually
B. Livor mortis any system that cools.
C. Algor mortis One can easily use this method to determine, say, when a
D. Colliquative putrefaction cup of coffee was prepared. This method can similarly be
C used on systems that cool much more slowly (such as a
153.Rate of cooling helps in determining: body of lava or magma, which may take years to cool). In
A. Time of death fact, Lord Kelvin attempted to use this method to date the
B. Manner of death age of the earth! However, because many of his
C. Place of death assumptions were incorrect, he found an age of 24,000,000
D. Cause of death years, which falls far short of the currently-accepted value.
A 156.Which of the following names is given to tiny, spot-
154.In which of the following conditions post mortem like, oval-to-round, bluish black hemorrhages of
postmortem origin?
caloricity may be seen?
A. Massive haemorrhage in the liver A. Vibices
B. Cyanide poisoning B. Postmortem ecchymoses
C. Corrosive poisoning C. Death spots
D. Septicemia D. All of the above
D D
A variant is often asked like this: The following situations are All the three names mentioned above have been given to
associated with rise of temperature after death except (a) these tiny spots, which form: because of postmortem
Burns (b) Heat stroke (c) Pontine haemorrhage (d) mechanical rupture of subcutaneous capillaries and smaller
Septicaemia. The expected answer is (a). It has been vessels-predominantly veins. After death, blood pools up
traditionally believed that the temperature of the body in the most dependent parts of the body, causing increased
should increase after death in other three conditions, intravascular pressure in the capillaries of these regions.
although a convincing scientific reason has never been This is the main cause of the rupture. Vibices are thus
offered. The authenticity of this fact is very much doubtful. formed in most dependent parts of the body.

155.A dead body of a male is found lying in a courtyard 157.Postmortem Hvidity is unlikely to develop in a case
on 25 June at 5.30 am. Its rectal temperature is of
91.0°F. What is the approximate time of death? A. Drowning in a well
A. 8.30 pm on 23 June B. Drowning in a fast flowing river
B. 4.00 pm on 24 June C. Postmortem submersion
C. 7.30 pm on 24 June D. Drowning in a chlorinated swimming po.ol
D. 1.00 am on 25 June B
C For postmortem lividity to develop, the dead body must be in
This is a rather tricky question. In such types of questions, a fixed position for some length of time. Since in a fast
first of all the student must see the date given in the flowing river, the body would keep turning about, it is
question. This will tell us the season. In the given question, difficult for postmortem lividity to develop.
we know that it is summer. Had it been, say, 25 December, 158.Rigor mortis first starts in:
we would know it is winter. In India, generally the fall in A. Eyelids
rectal temperature occurs like this: B. Gluteus maximus
In summersg0.75°F/hour. C. Neck muscles
In wintersg 1.5 °F/hour. D. Trapezius
In the given case, since it is the summer season, the body A
would cool 0.75°F7hour. Rigor mortis appears first in involuntary muscles followed by
We would assume that the rectal temperature at the time of voluntary muscles. The first organ traditionally thought to
death was 98.5°F (To be exact s , it is 98.4°F, but assuming undergo rigor mortis is heart. Within voluntary muscles,
it to be 98.5°F will make matters simpler for us, without rigor mortis typically has a proximo-distal progression, i.e.
compromising too much on accuracy). it starts in the facial muscles and then spreads down - to
The loss of rectal temperature is 98.5°Fg91.0°Fg7.5°F. Since neck, upper limbs and lower limbs in that order. Some
in summers the body cools 0.75°F/ hour, the body must be questions will give "upper eyelids" and "lower eyelids" as
lying dead for 7.5°F/ 0.75°F or 10 hours. The time of two separate choices. These can not be regarded as ideal
discovery of body is 25 June at 5.30 am. We subtract 10 questions (because the rigor mortis starts in both eyelids
hours from this, and we get 7.30 pm on 24 June. almost simultaneously), but if they are encountered, the
Additional facts: After death, the body cools obeying the intended choice is "upper eyelids". Variant: A variant is
Newton's law of cooling, which states, "For a body cooling often asked like this - Rigor mortis first starts in (a) Right
in a draft (i.e., by forced convection), the rate of heat loss iliac fossa (b) Left iliac fossa (c) Brain (d) Heart. The correct
is proportional to the difference in temperatures between answer to this question is (d) Heart.
the body and its surroundings." It is worth noting that this

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159.Rigor is initiated when the ATP concen tration There have been semi-apocryphal tales of dead changing
falls to: the position of their limbs after death. In 1833, this was
A. 15% of the normal attributed by Sommer to contraction of muscles after death
B. 45% of the normal due to rigor mortis. Since then these movements have
C. 65% of the normal been known as Sommer's movements.
D. 85% of the normal 165.Which of the following statements about rigor
D mortis in a fetus is correct?
160.Which of the following facts about Cadaveric A. It does not appear in a fetus less than seven months of
spasm is NOT CORRECT? age
A. It is instantaneous in onset B. It does appear but may be so feeble as to be unappreciable
B. It is confined to a small group of muscles C. It appears in upper limbs but not in lower limbs
C. It occurs only in voluntary muscles D. It appears in lower limbs but not in upper limbs
D. It shows that the person was sleeping at the time of his B
death Many books in the past have suggested that rigor mortis does
D not appear in a fetus below seven months of age. This is a
complete myth, and there is absolutely no reason, why it
161.Rigidity of the muscles is at maximum when the shouldn't. Rigor mortis is due to the formation of
level declines to: actinomyosin and it can form in a fetus as completely and
A. 15% of the normal efficiently as in an adult. Perhaps the only reason this myth
B. 45% of the normal gained ground is that the rigor mortis in infants is very
C. 65% of the normal feeble and difficult to appreciate. Another reason could be
D. 70% of the normal that rigor mortis in a fetus appears and passes off very
A early.
162.In rigor mortis, the muscle: 166.Breaking of rigor mortis usually occurs during:
A. Just stiffens but does not shorten A. Routine inspection of the body
B. Shortens but does not stiffen B. Transportation of the body
C. Both stiffens and shortens C. Preservation of the body in cold chamber
D. Stiffens and lengthens D. Opening of the skull
C B
The stiffening is the more prominent change. Shortening is
there but is not very prominent. Shortening in various 167.Immediate rigidity of a group of muscles without
organs can cause different phenomena. It is useful to passing into a stage of primary relaxation is called:
remember them: A. Cadaveric spasm
o Rigor in iris->causes pupil to change in size, making its B. Instantaneous rigor
postmortem position an unreliable indicator of toxic or C. Rigor mortis
neurological conditions during life. D. Both a and b above
o Rigor in heart-"may be mistaken for ven tricular hypertrophy D
(can be resolved by measuring total weight of the heart). 168.Color changes of putrefaction are first observed
Rigor in dartos, seminal vesicles, prostate -^postmortem in:
extrusion of semen from urethral meatus. A. Right iliac fossa
o Rigor in erector pili muscles->pimpling or "goose-flesh" B. Left iliac fossa
appearance of the skin. May also give a false impression C. Popliteal fossa
that the beard grows after death. D. Cubital fossa
o Rigor in pregnant uterus->may cause postmortem delivery. A
163.In electrocution, rigor mortis: Right iliac fossa is affected first, as caecum is located there.
A. Appears late but passes quickly Putrefactive bacteria form hydrogen sulfide there, which
B. Appears late and passes late converts haemoglobin into sulphmethe-moglobin, which
C. Appears early and passes early is greenish in color. Thus the first change is greenish
D. Never appears discoloration of right iliac fossa.
C 169.Which of the following facts regarding
164.Sommer's movements are: putrefaction of internal organs is NOT correct?
A. Involuntary tetanic movements of muscles just before death A. Softer organs putrefy earlier
&I B. Organs which contain more blood putrefy earlier
B. Continuation of beating of the heart for about 5 minutes C. Organs nearer to the source of bacteria putrefy earlier
after death me D. Organs composed of less muscular and fibrous tissue
C. Changing of position of limbs after death allegedly due to putrefy earlier
contraction of muscles due to rigor mortis D
D. Involuntary tetanic movements of mus cles just after death Organs composed of muscular tissue and those containing
C large amount of fibrous tissue resist putrefaction longer
than the parenchymatous organs.

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170.Putrefaction is delayed in: 175.Mummification is likely to occur in which of the

A. Organophosphorus poisoning following environment?
B. HC1 A. Cold and dry
C. Carbolic acid B. Warm and dry, with hot air blowing constantly
D. Oxalic acid C. Cold and humid, with icy cold winds blowing
C D. Warm and humid, with humid air blowing
171.Which of the following is the Casper's dictum? B
A. Time taken for same amount of putrefaction to occur
when the body is in air, water and buried in earth is in the Topic - Injuries: Classification and
ratio of 1:2:8 Medicolegal Aspects
B. Body putrefies fastest when buried in earth
C. Postmortem lividity does not appear when the body is buried 176. Grievous hurt includes which of the following
immediately after birth injuries?
D. Rigor mortis does not appear in water A. Injury which keeps the patient away from work for 10
A days
Remember the mnemonic is AWE (Air, Water, Earth, with B. Fracture of radius
putrefaction occurring fastest in air and slowest in earth). C. Abdominal trauma
In water and earth, atmosphere is not available for D. Laceration on the thigh
putrefaction. In water, moisture may cause faster B
putrefaction than when the body is in earth. Related fact: Grievous hurt includes the following eight
Variant: A variant is often asked like this -asper's dictum clauses:
regarding the time taken for equal amount of putrefaction First-Emasculation.
to occur in air:water:buried bodies is (a) 8:1:2 (b) 1:4:16 Secondly-Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.
(c)l:2:8 (d)l:2:4. The correct answer is (c) 1:2:8. Thirdly-Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear.
Fourthly-Privation of any member or joint.
Fifthly-Destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of
172.The correct sequence of putrefaction (earliest to any member or joint.
last) of the internal organs is: Sixthly-Permanent disfiguration of the head or face.
A. Brain-Heart-Spleen-Kidney Seventhly-Fracture or dislocation of a bone or tooth.
B. Heart-Spleen-Uterus-Brain Eighthly-Any hurt which endangers life or -v; ?, which causes
C. Heart-Trachea-Bone-Uterus the sufferer to be during the space of twenty days in severe
D. Stomach-Brain-Kidney-tendons bodily pain, or unable to follow his ordinary pursuits.
D A number of questions are encountered in MCQs on Grievous
The internal organs putrefy in the following order (i) Larynx hurt. To solve them, please note the following points:
and trachea (ii) Stomach, intestines, spleen (iii) Liver, lungs o First and foremost, in Indian law, nowhere does the phrase
(iv) Brain (v) Heart (vi) Kidney, Bladder, Uterus (vii) Skin, "simple injury" exist (although this phrase is talked about
muscle, tendons (viii) Bones. a lot in emergency and casualty wards).
Hint to tackle such questions: If you can't remember the whole Indian law only mentions "Hurt", which is described in section
sequence, just try to remember the first and last organs. 319 of I.P.C. and "Grievous Hurt", which is described in
If you don't see them in their proper place, that choice is section 320. For the same reason it is fallacious to speak
most probably wrong. Also remember that "watery" organs of grievous injury; one should instead speak of grievous
putrefy earlier. "Drier" organs like tendons and bones hurt, as it is the latter term which is defined in law. However
putrefy latter. by common usage, simple injury has come to refer to "hurt"
(section 319 I.P.C); similarly the term "grievous injury" too
173.Which of the following organs is the last to putrefy is often used synonymously with "grievous hurt".
in males? Emasculation is confined to males only. It means depriving a
A. Seminal vesicles man of his virility or of his masculine vigour, i.e. of his
B. Prostate power to have intercourse. Castration - which means
C. Testes removal of testicles - is not same as emasculation.
D. Liver However castration is also a case of grievous hurt, because
B it comes under fourth clause. If in a femaler clitoridectomy
(as in Female Genital Mutilation, FGM) is done, it too comes
174.Mummification refers to: under fourth clause and not under emasculation.
A. Hardening of muscles after death It is of no consequence that after surgery/ treatment, the
B. Colliquative putrefaction patient was alright. The rule of the thumb is what would
C. Saponification of subcutaneous fat have happened to the patient in the natural course of events,
D. Desiccation of the dead body i.e. without treatment. A question is frequently asked where
D a patient sustains an injury to the cornea, but after
corneoplasty he can see clearly. Though the patient is able
to see clearly, this is a case of grievous hurt, as his vision

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would have been impaired without treatment. by dangerous weapons or means). The punishment for
The meaning of the word "privation" is not clear to many both is ten years and fine.
students. It only means some "compromise" of function; A person is hospitalized for 18 days, but his life was in danger
thus only a partial loss of eye or ear function would qualify for one day only during this period. This is a case of grievous
for being a grievous hurt. Note that the word "deprivation" hurt.
is not used in this section, which would have meant A contusion of bone is not a grievous hurt.
complete loss. A single contusion or even a few contusions do not constitute
The meaning of the word "member" must also be clarified. grievous hurt. However multiple contusions all over the
"Member" usually means an organ or a limb. However it body (as may occur in police beating) may endanger life,
could also be taken to mean an organ with a specific and and thus may collectively constitute grievous hurt.
distinct function. Hair is not considered "member" in the Burns covering one-third of the body surface may endanger
usual sense of the word. Regarding nails the situation is life and may thus be classified as grievous hurt.
somewhat trickier. Avulsion of a single nail has been o Coma for twenty days due to head injury of course is a
considered grievous many authorities, while many others grievous hurt.
regard it as simple. But it is difficult to regard avulsion of, o Forearm laceration requiring stitches is simple in nature.
say, all ten nails as simple. So avulsion of just one nail
may be taken is simple, while of all ten nails, it may be 177. Grievous hurt includes all of the following except:
grievous. A. Emasculation
What constitutes "head" or "face"? It is not clear if the scalp B. Permanent privation of hearing
comes within this definition. However in a practical sense, C. Privation of any member or joint
incised or lacerated wounds of the scalp are treated as D. Inability to follow one's ordinary pursuits for a period of a
simple, until and unless they can fit in some other clause. week
Look at clause seven. Some confusions exist here too. Fracture D
of a bone through and through is of course grievous, but a The correct period for choice (D) would be 20 days.
cut on the bone is generally not taken to be as grievous.
The cut must reach the medullary cavity to be taken as 178. A 25-year-old person sustained injury in right
grievous. Greenstick fractures, which do not result in eye. He developed right corneal opacity following
complete separation of the two ends are grievous as well. the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision.
Fracture of just one table of skull - either inner or outer - Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was
is generally taken as grievous. Dislocation of a temporary restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
tooth is grievous too. A. Simple
A question is often asked, "Name a grievous hurt which can B. Grievous
be corrected within minutes". The usually expected answer C. Dangerous
in such cases is "dislocation of shoulder". Dislocation of D. Serious
shoulder (in fact any joint) is a grievous hurt, and it can be B
corrected within minutes. The answer of course is "Grievous", and not "simple" as many
Look at clause eight. The person must be unable to pursue students might believe.
his ordinary pursuits during the space of 20 days. The
The only confusing aspect here is that corneoplasty restored
ordinary pursuits are brushing teeth, going to toilet, taking
the vision. The poor vision in the left eye is immaterial,
bath etc. If the person was bedridden for 20 days or more,
and that fact has been introduced only to cause some
the injury could qualify as grievous. A mere hospital stay
confusion. The age - 25 years - is also of no consequence.
for 20 days may not necessarily be grievous. What has to
be proved is that the patient was in severe bodily pain The legal philosophy in this case is "WHAT WOULD HAVE
during this period or he was unable to do his ordinary HAPPENED IN THE NATURAL COURSE OF EVENTS". And it
pursuits. Please note that the law does not insist that these is clear that in the natural course of events the corneal
twenty days have to be continuous. opacity would not have dissolved.
Thrusting of a lathi in the anus of a person is grievous, Take another example. A teacher hits a student on the temple
because it endangers life. with the result that his tympanic membrane ruptures.
A person is stabbed in the abdomen. It is a grievous hurt, Despite the fact that a myringoplasty can restore the
even if his hospitalization was less than 20 days, because tympanic membrane - and his hearing -it is a grievous
any stab injury to abdomen (and for that matter to chest) hurt.
is a dangerous injury.
All dangerous injuries are grievous hurt, but all grievous hurt 179.Which of the following sections defines
are not dangerous injuries. If a hurt is dangerous (e.g. a dangerous weapons?
stab in the abdomen), it is upto the doctor to label it as A. Section 320 I.P.C.
dangerous or grievous. If the injury is labelled as B. Section 324 I.P.C.
dangerous, the Investigating Officer (I.O.) will charge the C. Section 326 I.P.C.
accused under section 3071.P.C. (attempt to murder). If D. Both (B) and (C)
the injury is labelled as grievous, the I.O. will charge the D
accused under section 326 I.P.C. (Voluntarily causing hurt These sections attempt to give guidelines on what a
dangerous weapon is. A dangerous weapon is said to be

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any instrument for shooting, stabbing or cutting, or any Note that the interesting thing here is just offer, threat or
instrument which used as a weapon of offence, is likely to attempt. ACTUAL FORCE IS NOT USED. If actual force is
cause death. used, it becomes a different offence altogether; it is then
called use of criminal force. While assault is defined in
180.The punishment for voluntarily causing grievous section 351 of I.P.C., criminal force is defined in section
hurt by dangerous weapons or means is given in: 350 of I.P.C.. In English law these terms are known as
A. Section 320 I.P.C. assault and battery respectively. If the assault is
B. Section 320 Cr.P.C. consummated by the unlawful application of force, the
C. Section 324 I.P.C. crime is called battery (as a mnemonic, remember "battered
D. Section 326 I.P.C. baby syndrome"). The term battery is nowhere used in
D Indian law.
The answer is NOT (A) as
many students might believe. Section 320 185.Dowry death is defined under:
I.P.C. defines grievous hurt, but does not give punishment A. S. 498A I.P.C.
for it. Similarly Section 319 I.P.C. defines hurt, but does B. S. 304A I.P.C.
not give punishment for it. The punishment for hurt and C. S. 304B I.P.C.
grievous hurt are given in Sections 323,324, 325 and 326 D. S. 302 I.P.C.
I.P.C. The punishments are: C
Section 323 I.P.C: Punishment for voluntarily causing hurt-"l
year or Rs 1000 or both. 186.What is the punishment for dowry death?
Section 324 I.P.C: Punishment for voluntarily causing hurt by A. A minimum of 7 years, but which may extend to
dangerous weapons or means-"3 years or fine or both. imprisonment for life
Section 325 I.P.C: Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous B. A maximum of 7 years
hurt-" 7 years and fine. C. Maximum 7 years and a fine of Rs.100,000 .
Section 326 I.P.C: Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous D. Capital punishment
hurt by dangerous weapons or means -"10 years and fine. A
The law is silent on whether the imprison ment will be simple
181.Section 320 of I.P.C. deals with: or rigorous. Strangely, no fine has been prescribed for
A. Assault this crime. Students must be on the lookout for this
B. Hurt distractor. The punishment is prescribed in Section 304 B
C. Grievous hurt (2), which can form the basis of yet another possible
D. Causing grievous hurt by a dangerous question.
weapon More on Minimum punishments: There are very few crimes
C for which a minimum punishment has been prescribed.
These are:
182.Culpable homicide has been defined in:
i. Section 304 B (2)-Dowry Death->A minimum of 7 years,
A. Section 299 I.P.C.
but which may extend to imprisonment for life. No mention
B. Section 299 Cr. P.C.
about simple or rigorous.
C. Section 304 I.P.C-
ii. Section 376 (1 )-Rape-"A minimum of 7 years (of either
D. Section 304 Cr. P.C.
description), but which may extend to imprisonment for
A
life.
183. Murder has been defined in: iii. Section 376 (2)-Rape under special circumstances (such
A. Section 300 I.P.C. as custodial rape, gang rape, rape of a child below 12
B. Section 302 I.P.C. years, rape on a pregnant woman)->Minimum 10 years
C. Section 304 I.P.C. rigorous. May extend upto life imprisonment. Also liable to
D. Section 300 Cr.P.C. fine.
A iv. Section 398 (not concerning forensic specialists though)-
This is a common "catch" question. Most students think murder Attempt to commit robbery or dacoity when armed with
is defined in section 302 I.P.C. Remember, section 302 I.P.C. deadly weapon->The imprisonment shall not be less than
defines punishment for murder, but not murder itself. seven years (no mention about simple or rigorous here as
Murder is defined in Section 300 I.P.C. well).
184.Legally speaking, any offer, threat, or attempt to
187.Section 113B of Indian Evidence Act deals with:
apply criminal force to the body of another in a
A. Presumption of death of a person if he has not been heard
hostile manner is called:
for last 7 years
A. Injury
B. Abetment of suicide of a woman within 7 years of marriage
B. Grievous hurt
C. Absence of consent in case of rape, if female asserts she
C. Assault
did not consent
D. Hurt
D. Presumption of dowry death
C
D

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188.Attempt to commit suicide is defined under: However section 309 remained struck off only for about two
A. Section 306 IPC years. In March 1996, it was reinstated in the case of Gian
B. Section 307 IPC Kaur v. State of Punjab [(1996) 2 SCC 648], where a five-
C. Section 308 IPC judge Constitution Bench of the court overruled the P.
D. Section 309 IPC Rathinam's case and held that 'Right to Life,' under Article
D 21 of the Constitution, does not include 'Right to Die' or
When the British framed the Indian Penal Code in 1860, the 'Right to be Killed'. It was held that the Right to Die is
English law at the time regarded suicide as a felony. So inherently inconsistent with the Right to Life. It was held
they kept section 309 in Indian Penal Code too as a crime. that in the earlier judgment the issues of euthanasia were
However with the passage of time, viewpoints changed. It not considered, and the "legal sanction" given to suicide
was increasingly felt that it was not just to punish a person could be used by criminal elements to cover cases of
who was already under so much suffering that he had euthanasia (killing old and disabled parents for instance)
contemplated suicide. Henry Romilly Fedden, author of and even dowry death.
"Suicide: A Social and Historical Study" (London, 1938) 189.The minimum amount of fat necessary to cause
wrote, "it seems a monstrous procedure to inflict further fat embolism is:
suffering on an individual who has already found life so A. 5-10 ml
unbearable, his chances of happiness so slender, that he B. 12-120 ml
has been willing to face pain and death in order to cease C. 220-300 ml
living". Subsequently the UK in its Suicide Act, 1961 D. 320-440 ml
specifically decriminalised suicide and attempt to suicide. B
In India however the situation remained unchanged. In Two related facts which may be of use in other MCQs are (i)
1971, ten years after the Suicide Act was passed in the Fat Emboli were first noted by F.A. Zenker in 1861 in a
UK, the Law Commission in India recommended repeal of railroad worker with a thoraco- lumbar crush injury (ii)
section 309. Interestingly it quoted Romilly Fedden in its The Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) was first described by
recommendation. Subsequently the Indian Penal Code Von Bergman in 1873 in a diagnosis confirmed by post
(Amendment) Bill to repeal section 309 was passed in the mortem examination. This patient had a fractured femur.
Rajya Sabha in 1978. It was pending in the Sixth Lok Sabha
when it was dissolved in 1979. Attempts to repeal section 190.The fat in fat embolism is derived from:
309 were forgotten afterwards. A. The bone marrow after trauma
In 1986, P Rathinam assailed the constitutional validity of B. From the plasma by agglutination of chylomicrons
section 309 IPC in the Supreme Court. The court (a two- C. Infusion of exogenous fat
judge bench comprising Mr. Justice R.M. Sahai and Mr. D. All of the above
Justice B.L. Hansaria) took into consideration issues of D
religion and morality in arriving at a decision. They declared Two theories mainly explain the patho- genesis of fat
section 309 unconstitutional and struck it down. Following embolism. First is the mecha nical theory, which is quite
reasonings were offered: straightforward. Fat cells and venous sinuses are disrupted
i. Examples were cited from mythology of Lord Rama taking after a bony trauma or injury to adipose tissue. The
Jal Samadhi in Saryu to Buddha and Mahavira achieving liberated fat globules enter the circulation by means of
death by seeking it. The court declared that suicide could lacerated veins in the traumatized area. Fat droplets of
not be termed as an irreligious act. between 20-40 micron diameter block the smallest
ii. Furthermore it observed that suicide-prone persons need branches of the pulmonary vasculature whereas smaller
soft words and wise counselling, not "stony dealing by a fat droplets may pass through the capillaries and enter
jailor following harsh treatment meted out by a heartless the systemic circulation.
prosecutor". Mechanical theory is not able to explain convincingly how
iii. The court listed several circumstances in which people bigger fat droplets (>20-40 microns) can be found in the
may wish to end their lives, including disease, cruel or brain. Two mechanisms have however been suggested (i)
unbearable condition of life, and a sense of shame or They may pass through arteriovenous shunts in the lungs
disenchantment with life. It was held that everyone should (ii) They may pass through patent foramen ovale. The
have the freedom to dispose of his life as and when he paradox of how fat can pass from lower pressure right
desires. atrium to higher pressure left atrium (even if there were a
iv. Fundamental rights were held to have positive as well patent foramen ovale) is explained like this.
asnegative aspects. For instance, the freedom to speech In the initial phase pulmonary emboli with fat droplets less
and expression included the freedom not to speak. Similarly, than 20-40 microns in size occur. Pulmonary-artery and
freedom of association and movement included freedom right-heart pressures increase in response to multiple
not to join any association or move. On a parity of episodes of pulmonary embolization. The increased
reasoning, the freedom to live was held to include the pressure in the right heart causes the bigger emboli to
freedom not to live. The court delivered its judgment in pass into the left side of the heart. From here they get
April 1994 (P. Rathinam v. Union of India [(1994) 3 SCC distributed to the brain. Shunting across a patent foramen
394]), observing that penalising an attempt to suicide was ovale can also occur during coughing, after the release
unconstitutional and violative of the right to life under Article phase of the Valsalva maneuver, and during mechanical
21.

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ventilation. It is important to note that 20 to 34 percent of same principles of management used in patients who have
people have a patent foramen ovale. Since fat is readily the acute respiratory distress syndrome. Early
deformable, it accounts for the passage of masses larger immobilization of fractures and methods to reduce the
than the diameter of the patent foramen ovale. intra-medullary pressure during total hip arthro-plasty have
Second is the biochemical theory. According to this theory, reduced the incidence of operative fat embolisation.
embolic fat is derived NOT from bone marrow or Corticosteroids either before or after the development of
traumatized adipose tissue, but from circulating blood lipids respiratory or cerebral symptoms are not of any benefit.
in a diverse series of nontraumatic conditions (e.g. Fulminant fat embolism syndrome is caused by a sudden
diabetes mellitus, chronic pancreatitis, alcoholism, sickle intravascular liberation of a large amount of fat causing
cell disease and acute decompression syndrome). pulmonary vascular obstruction, severe right heart failure,
According to this theory, trauma and/or subsequent sepsis shock and often death within the first 1-12 hours of injury.
causes hormonal changes (most notably catecholamine
release). Topic - Mechanical Injuries (Including Torture)
This causes mobilization of lipids. The increased blood levels
of neutral fats and free fatty acids may then induce the 192.Which of the following is an open wound?
formation of more and larger chylomicrons. Acute phase A. Contusion
reactants, such as C-reactive proteins (CRP), cause these B. Abrasion
chylomicrons to coalesce into still bigger droplets. CRP is C. Laceration
synthesised in the liver in association with a variety of D. Concussion
inflammatory and malignant processes. It is also formed C
in association with trauma. Chylomicrons are known to
undergo calcium dependant agglutination by CRP. These 193.Which of the following is a characteristic feature
droplets then travel to lungs, brain and skin and cause fat of healing by second intention?
embolism. A. Inflammatory reaction is more intense
The biochemical theory helps explain several features of fat B. Much larger amounts of granulation tissue are formed
C. There is significant amount of contraction
embolism not properly explained by mechanical theory.
For instance (i) why fat embolism is sometimes seen in D. All of the above
non traumatic cases, such as diabetes (ii) how fat emboli D
greater than 20-40 microns in diameter escape the lung A defect of about 40 sq cm in the skin of a rabbit is reduced
capillaries to get lodged in brain. in approxi mately 6 weeks to 5-10% of its original size,
largely by contraction (to about 2-4 sq cm).
191. Mortality rate in Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES) is: 194. Which of the following best defines abrasion?
A. 0.5-1.0% A. It is a superficial injury involving only the superficial layers
B. 4-6% of the skin
C. 10-20% B. It is an injury involving epidermis and dermis, but not the
D. >80% muscles
C C. It is an injury from which blood does not ooze
About 1-2% cases of fat embolism develop Fat Embolism D. It is any injury which is caused by a sharp edged weapon
Syndrome (FES), a clinical disorder with respiratory, A
Injuries: Classification and Medicolegai Aspects cerebral
and dermal manifestations (respiratory failure, diffuse or 195.Crescentic abrasions are caused by:
focal cerebral disturbance and petechiae). Rarely, fat A. Blunt knife
embolism produces a fulminant fat embolism syndrome B. Nails
due to mechanical obstruction within the pulmonary C. Wooden sticks
circulation causing a severe right heart failure. D. Scissors
B
The fat embolism syndrome is believed to be caused by the These are often seen on the victim's neck in throttling. See a
toxic effects of free fatty acids (FFAs) liberated at the related question in chapter 18 (Deaths from asphy xia).
endothelial layer. The sequence is like this: (i) Subsequent 196.Contusions are synonymous with:
to trauma, fat collects in the pulmonary or systemic capillary A. Abrasions
network (ii) it is acted upon by lipoprotein lipases which B. Bruises
are activated by catecholamine release (iii) this liberates C. Lacerated wounds
high concentrations of toxic FFAs locally (iv) the toxic effect D. Incised wounds
of FFAs results in platelet aggregation, capillary disruption, B
perivascular haemorrhage, a mild disseminated
197. Greenish color in a contusion is due to:
intravascular coagulation, disruption of the pulmonary and
A. Haemosiderin
cerebral capillary walls and oedema.
B. Haematoidin
The syndrome is largely self limiting with treatment being
C. Sulphmethemoglobin
symptomatic. Mortality is 10-20%. Therapy is directed at
D. Methaemoglobin
maintaining respiratory function and largely follows the
B

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Haematoidin is a loose term formerly applied to the crystals 203."Hilt bruise" or "Hilt abrasion" can be seen around
of bilirubin or biliverdin. Besides occurring in old contusions the stab wound when:
it also sometimes occurs in faeces after intestinal A. The knife has been partially plunged in the victim with
haemorrhage. When present in the corpora lutea it is called relatively lighter force
haemolutein. Important thing to remember is that while B. The knife has been fully plunged in the victim with great
haemosiderin contains iron, haematoidin is iron free. force
C. The knife has been obliquely plunged
198. In a large bruise, color changes begin: D. Stab is made by a lance
A. From the center B
B. From the periphery
C. From an area somewhere in the middle of centre and 204. Where does a lacerated wound appear like an
periphery incised wound?
D. At the same time everywhere A. Abdomen
B B. Thorax
A large bruise takes longer time to heal than a smaller bruise. C. Hand
The color changes begin at the periphery first. A large old D. Forehead
bruise may contain all possible colors seen in a bruise - D
from purple in the centre to yellow at the edges. Whereever in the body, the skin lies directly over the bone,
with a scanty layer of fat in between, lacerated wounds
199.Artificial bruise can be produced by:
appear like incised wounds. These are known as incised
A. Marking nut
looking lacerated wounds. Other areas where lacerated
B. Whipping
wounds would appear like an incised wound are scalp,
C. Dhatura
chin, eyebrows, lower jaw, iliac crest and shin.
D. Opium
A
205.A heavy-edged weapon such as chopper, axe or
Whipping will produce a true bruise. Dhatura and Opium do
hatchet can produce:
not produce any bruise. Marking nut is botanically known
A. Tears
as Semecarpus anacardium.
B. Split lacerations
200. Which of the following is true about a stab wound? C. Stretch lacerations
A. Its breadth is maximum D. Cut lacerations
B. Its length is maximum D
C. Its depth is maximum This is a commonly asked question. To solve this and related
D. It has a wound of entry and exit questions, the student should have a clear concept of
C various types of lacerations. Forensic pathologists usually
A stab wound is often known as a. punctured wound too, encounter five different types of lacerations:
especially if it is produced by a pointed object such as an 1. Tear: The most common and frequently encountered is
ice pick, needle or screw driver. the tear. This is the most general kind of laceration. It has
ragged and bruised margins and is caused by a heavy
201.When a wound enters a body cavity such as chest
blunt weapon such as a cricket bat, a hockey stick or a
or abdomen, it is usually referred to as a:
lathi acting upon an area of a body where there is sufficient
A. Near fatal wound
amount of underlying fat and muscle, as on a thigh
B. Langerhans wound
2. Split laceration: If the same weapon hit upon an area of
C. Perforating wound
the body where there was scanty layer of tissue underneath
D. Penetrating wound
(such as the scalp), the skin would be split between the
D
weapon and the underlying bone. This results in a split
202.When a weapon enters the body on one side and
laceration which appears very much like an incised wound
come out through the other, it is usually referred
- so much so that it is often called an incised looking
to as?
lacerated wound. There are ways to differentiate between
A. Double sided wound
the two however (the student must try to learn these as
B. Perforating wound
many MCQs are based on this information). The edges
C. Entry-exit wound
are ragged in laceration but to naked eye the raggedness
D. Penetrating wound
may not be readily apparent. An examination with a hand
B
lens can immediately reveal the raggedness of the edges.
This question has alternately been asked as follows: A
Furthermore the edges are bruised in a true lacerated
perforating injury is one which (a) perforates the eye (b)
wound but not in a true incised wound. The blood vessels
is circular in shape (c) penetrates a body cavity (d) has an
and other structures such as muscles, nerves and tendons
entry and exit wound. The answer is (d) has an entry and
at the base of the wound are crushed in a true lacerated
exit wound. The concept of punctured, penetrating and
wound but cleanly cut in a true incised wound. If the area
perforating wounds is best understood with the following
is hairy (as in scalp), the hair are crushed in a true
diagram
lacerated wound (Fig. 11.6) but clean cut in a true incised

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wound. Forensic Medicine Day 3 Quiz

The differences between an incised-looking wound and an
incised wound may be tabulated as Table 11.1: 1. Which of the following is a "suppositions child"?
As mentioned earlier, several multiple choice questions have A. A child fictitiously claimed by a woman to be hers
been framed on this information. One frequently asked B. The second child born in a twin preg nancy
question is->Incised looking lacerated wounds can best C. A child born out of wedlock
be differentiated from incised wounds by (a) toluidine blue D. A child who was conceived by AIH
stain (b) histological examination (c) comparison A
microscope (d) hand lens. The answer is (d) hand lens. . A woman may produce a suppositious child in order to extort
Stretch laceration: If the force is applied in such a manner money from some rich male with whom she has had sexual
that a portion of the skin is overstretched, as in a glancing relations and now claims that the child was his. Sometimes
kick by a shod foot (foot wearing a shoe), it would result in she may indeed have become pregnant as a result of such
a large flap on one side. This is the stretch laceration. The relationship, but may have given birth to a dead child. In
mechanism such cases, she may try to switch the dead child with a
4. Cut laceration: This type of laceration is produced by heavy live child (stolen from somewhere). This is also a
cutting weapons, such as a chopper, axe, hatchet or meat suppositious child. A widow may in certain situations (as
cleaver. This wound may be visualized as a "cross" between in order to inherit family property) produce a suppositious
a true laceration and a true incised wound. The edges of child supposedly fathered by her own husband who is now
the weapon do cut the skin, but since the edges are heavy, deceased. In all such cases, the medical officer can tell
they crash and bruise the margins of the wounds too. The that the child is suppositious by the following:
underlying bones are frequently found fractured. This Comparing the age of the child with the period when she
indicates that a heavy weapon was used. These wounds was pregnant. A gross dissimilarity would prove that the
are often known as chop wounds. child is suppositious. This is helpful in cases, when the
5. Avulsion: If the type of force used is grinding compression woman was indeed pregnant and gave birthto a baby, albeit
(as a fast moving tire of a heavy motor vehicle, or a rotating dead. If the woman was never pregnant and simply feigned
heavy industrial machine) large areas of skin may be pregnancy, it would be useful to look for signs of pregnancy
avulsed (separated) from their underlying attachments and and recent delivery, such as (i) enlarged, tense and knotty
lost, resulting in large lacerated wounds devoid of any breasts, lax abdomen, striae gravidarum and linea nigra
overlying skin. etc. If facilities for DNA profiling are available, comparing
the DNA profiles of mother with that of the child.
206.Small superficial lacerations on the back caused
by whipping with a cycle chain, roughly reflecting 2. On pressure, colostrum can be squeezed out of
its shape may best be described as: breasts for about……… after delivery:
A. Patterned lacerations A. 24 hours
B. Avulsion B. Ten days
C. Stretch lacerations C. 3 weeks
D. Split lacerations D. 6 weeks
A B
Patterned lacerations are a well-known entity. They do not 3. The intermittent contractions of the uterus, known
reproduce the shape of the injuring agent as well as do as after-pains are usually present for………….after
patterned abrasions and patterned bruises. But in some delivery:
cases - as in the example above - they do serve to indicate A. 4-5 hours
the nature of the weapon. Lacerations caused by a bicycle B. 4-5 days
chain is perhaps the best example of a patterned laceration C. 3 weeks
(Fig. 11.10). A hammer blow on the head may occasionally D. 6 weeks
cause a circular laceration outlining the periphery of the B
striking surface. This is also a fairly good example of a
patterned laceration. 4. Under which section of the Indian law is
Many students ask, where do patterned lacerations fit in our homosexuality punishable?
scheme of classification of lacerations (see answer to A. 375 I.P.C.
previous question). Patterned lacerations are actually small B. 376 I.P.C.
tears which are arranged in a pattern reflecting the shape C. 377 I.P.C.
of the weapon. D. 375 Cr.P.C.
C
5. Under Indian law, the maximum punish ment for
homosexuality is:
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. 10 years
D
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The imprisonment can be of any description. No minimum other couples.
punishment has been prescribed, as in Sect 376. In o Mixoscopic bestialis->Sexual delight in watching an
addition, he is also liable to fine. intercourse between a person and an animal.
6. Sin of Gommorrah is another name for: o Mixoscopic zoophilia->Sexual delight in watching animals
A. Anal intercourse copulate.
B. Lesbianism o Mysophilia->Sexual arousal by filth such as by sweaty
C. Buccal coitus underwears or used menstrual pads.
D. Tribadism o Narrotophilia->SexuaI stimulation from reading erotic
C materials.
According to the Bible, buccal coitus was prevalent in a town o Necrophagia->Sexual gratification through eating the flesh
called Gomorrah. Hence the name. Note all the other of dead people (psychiatric disorder).
major sexual perversions, which can be asked as MCQs. o Necrophilia->Intercourse with dead people.
These are also known as paraphilias: o Nymphomania->Excessive sexual desire in females (cf.
o AIgolagnia->Same as sadism. See below. Satyriasis).
o Anilingus->Oral stimulation of the anus o Oedipus complex->Intended sex between mother and
o BestiaIity->Sex with animals. son.
o Buccal coitus->Intercourse through mouth. Sin of o Olfactory eroticism->Getting sexual stimulation by the odour
Gomorrah. of vaginal secretions.
o Buggery->Same as sodomy. o Paederasty->Same as Pedophilia.
o Coitus per os->Same as buccal coitus. o Passive algolagnia->Same as maso chism.
Coprolalia->Sexual stimulation by making obscene telephone o Passive scopophiIia->The desire to be looked at by others.
calls, or by conversing with a member of the opposite A form of exhibitionism.
sex in an obscene language. o Pedophilia->Sex or sexual activity with children who have
CoprophiIia->Sexual arousal by faeces. Cunnilingus->Oral not reached puberty. Also known as Paederasty.
stimulation of the female genitalia. 7. Pedophilia is having anal intercourse with:
DippoIdism->Sexual gratification from beating children. A. Older women
Supposedly named after Dippold, a German schoolmaster. B. Children
Ecouteurism->Sexual gratification by listening to stories C. Homosexual adult
of sexual encounters of others or to sounds of others D. Hijra
produced during intercoursej either live Or recorded. B
Electra complex->These are intended sex between father
and daughter. Eonism->These are same as trans-vestism. 8. Zenanas are:
The term is derived from the name of a Frenchman A. Male prostitutes whose genitalia are intact, but they wear
Chevalier d'Eon de Beaumont (1728-1810), who suffered female clothings to give an impression that they are females
from this. B. Male prostitutes who have been castrated and in whom
Exhibitionism->These are obtaining sexual arousal by artificial vaginas have been constructed
exposing genitals to an unsuspecting stranger. Fellatio-> C. Another name for female prostitutes
Oral manipulation or stimulation of the penis. D. Female pseudohermaphrodite
Fetishism->Obtaining sexual arousal using or thinking about A
an inanimate object or part of the body. The inanimate Zenanas make their living through prostitution. Intercourse
object is generally a piece of cloth such as a handkerchief is offered via mouth or some other route. The student
or undergarments of the opposite sex. must also remember another term -Hijrahs, since this can
Frotteurism->Obtaining sexual arousal and gratification by also form a good MCQ. Hijrahs are males who have been
rubbing one's genitals against others in public places. castrated before puberty. When the wound heals, the scar
Gerontophilia->Sex with old people. Klismaphilia->Sexual invaginates, the local area resembling superficially that of
arousal by giving or receiving of enemas. Lesbianism- the female. Due to the resulting hormonal imbalance they
>Sex between two women. The term comes from the also develop feminine characters such as high pitched
name of an island, the Isle of Lesbos, mentioned in Greek voice, female distribution of hair etc. They also act as
mythology, where women used to practice homosexuality. prostitutes. Both Hijrahs and Zenanas are genetically
Also known as tribadism. males; zenanas have their genitals intact while hijrahs have
o Masochism->Reverse of sadism. Sexual arousal through them removed.
getting pain inflicted on oneself through another person, 9. Which of the following is associated with shotgun
usually a partner of the opposite sex. Named after an alone?
Austrian novelist Leopold Sacher Masoch (1836-1895), A. Gunpowder
who suffered from this perversion. Also known as passive B. Primer
algolagnia. C. Projectile
o Masochism->Sexual arousal by having pain and/or D. Wads
humiliation inflicted upon oneself. D
o Menage a ftws->Same as Troilism.
o Mixoscopia->Observing the sex performance of

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10. The effective range of shotgun is: FG stands for "fine grain". Since black powder is essentially a
A. 10-15 yards surface burning powder, larger the surface area, the
B. 20-30 yards quicker it will burn. Larger surface area is produced by
C. 30-40 yards griding the black powder very fine.
D. 60-80 yards The four most commonly used granulations are graded as
C FFFFg, FFFg, FFg, and Fg (also known as 4Fg, 3Fg, 3Fg
Effective range (sometimes also referred to as "killing range") and Fg respectively). More the F's, finer the grain, with
is the distance upto which a victim can be hurt or killed. It FFFFg being the finest and Fg the coarsest. Thus 4Fg would
depends on a number of factors including degree of burn fastest and Fg, slowest.
choking too. 30-40 yards is for a full choke gun. Effective Elephant Brand black powder (now sold under Schuetzen
range is often contrasted with total or maximum range, Powder, LLC) was once made in FFFFFg (5Fg) grain size,
which refers to the total distance upto the missile will travel the; smallest known. Small (fine) granulations burn faster
(without necessarily hurting the target). and are used in small bore guns, where larger (coarser)
granulations, are used for largert" bore guns and cannons,
11. Helixometer is used for:
and for launching Aerial Shells out of mortars. Using a
A. Finding the effective range of a gun
finer granulation for the large bore guns and cannons puts
B. Finding the gauge or bore of a gun
too much strain on the gun (or shell or mortar) because
C. Examining the interior of the barrel
the powder burns much faster and creates a fast pressure
D. Calculating the amount of gunpowder placed in a cartridge,
increase that could damage whatever one is trying to
so spurious cartrid ges could be separated
launch, or the gun/mortar itself.
C
Helixometer was designed by John H. Fisher in 1925 for 14. Gunshot residue on hands can be detected by:
Bureau of Forensic Ballistics to examine the twist or helix A. Phenolphthalein test
of the rifling in a gun barrel. It found limited application B. Dermal nitrate test
and fell into disuse. C. Benzidine test
D. Hydrogen Activation Analysis -
12. The principal residues formed after burning of the
B
black powder are:
o This is also known as paraffin test or diphenylamine test.
A. Potassium permanganate
o It was introduced in the United States in 1933 by Teodoro
B. Potassiuln sulfate
Gonzalez of the Criminal Identification laboratory, Mexico
C. Potassium carbonate
City police headquarters.
D. Both (B) and (C)
o This is done to determine whether an individual has fired
D
a firearm or not.
The equation guiding the burning of the black powder is:
o The principle behind this test is that if an individual has
8C + 3S + 10 KNO3 -> 3K2SO4 + 2K2CO3 + 6CO2 + 5N2
fired a firearm, nitrite and nitrate residues (from burnt
However this equation represents complete burning. Rarely
gunpowder) would be present in his hands.
is burning complete in a cartridge and much unburnt carbon
o These nitrite and nitrate residues are determined by dermal
and sulfur is ejected as well.
nitrate test in the following manner:
It is important to realize that the products of burning of black
o The hands are coated with a layer of paraffin.
powder in a closed cartridge do not follow any simple
o After cooling, the casts are removed and treated with an
equation. Much depends on the exact proportion of
acid solution of diphenylamine.
chemicals used. A simple, commonly cited, chemical
o A positive test is indicated by the presence of blue flecks in
equation for the combustion of black powder is: 3C + S +
the paraffin.
2 KNO3 -> K2S + N2 + 3CO2 It is estimated that one gram
o False negative results (when the person has not fired a
of black powder leaves about half gram of residue
gun, yet the test comes positive) may be obtained in
(composed of unburnt powder and burned products).
following cases.
These residues eject in the form of grayish white smoke,
o If the person has handled fertilizers, urine or cigarettes (all
which causes blackening. Some of this residue deposits
these contain nitrites and nitrates).
on the inside of the barrel (known as fouling). Because of
o Nowadays dermal nitrate test is rarely performed. Better
this, the barrel of a gun using black powder has to be
tests have become available.
cleaned again and again (which incidentally is a very
Variant: A variant of this question is often asked like this->
arduous and time consuming chore). Immediate cleaning
Paraffin test detects on hands (a) Cyanide (b) Gun
is necessary as this residue is very corrosive in nature,
powder (c) Blood stains (d) Prints. The answer is (b)
and if allowed to remain for long, may corrode the inside
Gunpowder.
of the barrel.
15. Stellate wound is produced with firearm in:
13. The terms "FFFFg", "FFFg", "FFg", and "Fg" are used
A. Contact wound
in relation to:
B. Close shot
A. Cartridge
C. Range within 60 cms
B. Black powder
D. Distant shot
C. Bore of a gun
A
D. Wadding of the shot gun

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In contact wound, all gases enter the wound. They are under 19. Comminuted fracture is:
pressure and tend to come back through the same wound, A. Breaking of a bone in multiple pieces
producing the stellate wound. B. A cut on a bone extending up to medullary cavity
C. A dent in the skull cap, especially in infants
16. A wound produced by a ricochet bullet shows which
D. Separation of skull sutures
of the following features:
A
A. It is small and round
Comminute means "to reduce to powder" or "to pulverize". It
B. It is large, irregular and elongated
comes from Latin roots "com" and "minuere" meaning "to
C. Abrasion collar is very prominent
lessen". It is usually seen in the skull, when skull cap is
D. Burning and blackening at the margins is more than that
broken into several small pieces.
seen in normal entry wounds
B 20. In the skull, fractures caused NOT at the point of
impact, but some distance away from it are known
17. Blackening in an entry wound produced by a shot
as:
gun is typically seen upto:
A. Diagonal fractures
A. 6"
B. Atypical skull fractures
B. 12"
C. Bursting fractures
C. 24"
D. Depressed fractures
D. 36"
C
C
Bursting fractures of the skull are often seen in falls from
This is a typical question, which students find hard to answer.
heights, when the vertex undergoes sudden flattening. They
The problem is that there are three major classes of guns
are also seen in contact firearm wounds of the skull, where
(pistols and revolves, rifles and shotguns) and three
the fractures are often seen away from where the bullet
different effects to be remembered (burning and singeing,
enters the skull.
blackening and tattooing) making a total of nine
combinations which need to be remembered. 21. Traction fracture is most commonly seen in:
A few facts to clarify first. Please look at figure 12.3. The A. Mandible
figure shows the ejection of flame, smoke and unburnt B. Clavicle
powder particles from the gun just as it is fired. As can be C. Patella
seen, flame leaps out the shortest distance; smoke goes D. Scapula
after that; and unburnt powder particles leap out the C
farthest. Traction fractures occur when a bone is pulled apart by
Now remember the following: traction. The best example is fracture of patella, which
Flame->is responsible for burning, scorching and singeing. may occur when the quadriceps muscle is contracting but
These effects can be detected by looking at the hair around, the knee joint is straightening (a so-called 'eccentric
which would be found singed. contraction'; an eccentric contraction occurs when a muscle
Smoke->is produced by complete combustion of gun powder. is contracting, and an external force is trying to lengthen
It is responsible for blackening. Smoke simply deposits on the muscle). When the muscle pulls in this manner, the
the skin, without actually entering inside the dermis. Thus patella can fracture.
if one takes a wet cotton gauge, sponge or towel and tries The above figure illustrates how patella can sustain a traction
cleaning the wound, the blackening would vanish. If one fracture. Here the muscle is contracting while the knee is
looks at the cotton, one would find it has blackened. bending, trying to "lengthen" the muscle. Since patella is
Blackening is also known as smudging. embedded in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle,
it experiences opposing forces, causing it to fracture.
18. Pond fracture is:
A. A simple dent of the skull 22. Counter-coup injury is seen in:
B. Caused by falling into a deep pond A. Gunshot wound
C. Mostly seen in bones of infants B. Head injury
D. Both (A) and (C) above C. Wound in the abdomen
D D. Chest wounds
(i) It is caused often by obstetric forceps (ii) only outer table B
is fractured (iii) resembles the indentation produced by variant of this question is:
squeezing a table tennis ball; when elevated it resumes Counter-coup injuries are seen in (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Liver
and retains its normal position. Sometimes also known as (d) Pancreas The answer is (a).
ping-pong fracture for this reason.
Variant: Pond fracture is common in (a) children (b) adults 23. The most common type of haemorrhage seen in
(c) elderly (d) menopausal women. The answer is (a) boxers is:
children. A. Extradural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Intracerebral
B

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Extr&dxu&l haemorrhage almost never occurs in boxers, since kills even under delusions of infidelity is not entitled for an
frac tures of skull occur rarely. Subarachnoid haemorrhage exception under section 84 of l.P.C.
may occur rarely if berry aneurysm was present. 29. Lucid interval is seen in:
A. Insanity
24. Which of the following is more dangerous in causing B. Malignant disease
spinal damage? C. Electric shock
A. Hyperextension of the neck D. Syphilis
B. Hyperflexion of the neck Ans A
C. Both hyperflexion and hyperextension of the neck Lucid interval means "a clear interval". In several forms of
D. None can cause spinal damage insanity, a person may be completely normal between two
A bouts of insanity. This normal period between two bouts
Hyperextension is more dangerous because flexion is of insanity is known as "lucid interval".
protected by the contraction of strong posterior neck Lucid interval, or a clear period is also seen in head injury.
muscles. In comparison, the anterior longitudinal ligament Here lucid interval refers to a period of consciousness
(which would protect from injuries during hyperextension) between two successive periods of unconsciousness. First
is quite weak. the person falls unconscious due to concussion immediately
after he gets a head injury. He then recovers, but after
25. Rapid accumulation of a minimum of c.c. of blood in
sometime becomes unconscious once again due to slowly
the pericardium can cause cardiac tamponade?
developing extradural hematoma.
A. 3 c.c.
Sometimes there is a delay (or lucid interval) between trauma
B. 30 c.c.
involving multiple fractures and cerebral fat embolism. This
C. 300 c.c.
occurs after fat is released from the fatty bone marrow
D. 3000 c.c.
and then embolized in the brain. This may be clinically
C
confused with the development of extradural haematoma.
26. Which of the following facts about "respirator lung" 30. Which of the following facts regarding the
are correct? discharge of a voluntarily admitted patient is
A. This condition is seen when a patient dies after several INCORRECT?
days on a ventilator A. A voluntarily admitted patient can get a discharge whenever
B. It is a heavy, stiff, rigid lung he likes, and the medical officer in charge has absolutely
C. Such a pathological entity is unknown no control over this matter
D. Both (A) and (B) above B. If a minor who was admitted by his guardian attains
D majority while in hospital, it is the duty of the medical
"Respirator lung" is a well-known entity. The lungs, though officer in charge to inform him as soon as possible that he
heavy do not usually appear edematous. Microscopically has attained majority
the findings are presence of proteinaceous fluid and C. If a minor was admitted on a voluntary basis by his
proliferative cells in the alveoli. guardian, and he has attained majority while in the hospital,
27. The Mental Health Act in India was passed in: he must make a request for his continuance as an inpatient
A. 1912 within one month, if he wants to continue as an inpatient
B. 1974 D. If a medical officer in charge has received an application
C. 1987 of discharge from a voluntarily admitted patient, he can
D. It is still lying in Parliament for approval make a Board consisting of 2 doctors, and if the opinion of
Ans C the Board is that the patient needs further treatment, the
medical officer in charge can deny discharge to him
28. A person is suffering from delusions of infidelity. Ans A
Under a false delusion that his wife is infidel, he It is an interesting fact that although a person can get himself
kills his wife and her supposed paramour. Which of voluntarily admitted in a psychiatric hospital, he can not
the following options applies best to his case? get a discharge at his own will. Some interesting facts
relating to discharge are:
A. He can get relief under section 84 I.P.C. 31. A person accused of murder alleges that by reason
B. He can get relief under section 85 I.P.C. of unsoundness of mind, he did not know the nature
C. Hecangetrelie funder McNaghten's rule of the act he committed. On whom lies the burden
D. He is not entitled to any relief of proving that he was of unsound mind at the time
Ans D of committing the act?
While applying section 84 l.P.C. one cannot get a blanket relief A. Police
if he is suffering from delusions or some other mental B. Magistrate
disorder. The rule of the thumb is to see, what should C. On person himself
have been the course of action of a normal person, if the D. On all of the above
delusions were deemed to be true. No one is entitled to Ans C
kill his wife, even if she is actually infidel. At most he is Section 105 of Indian Evidence Act clearly states that in the
entitled to divorce her, but not kill her. So a person who above case the burden of proof lies on the accused person
himself and not on any other person.

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32. Acid phosphatase activity in semen is 37. Which of the following statements about
A. 500-1000 times lesser than in any other normal bodily fluid heatstroke are correct?
B. 50-100 times lesser than in any other normal bodily fluid A. Nonexertional heatstroke is classically seen among the
C. 50-100 times greater than in any other normal bodily fluid elderly
D. 500-1000 times greater than in any other normal bodily B. Exertional heatstroke is classically seen among young
fluid persons who perform strenuous tasks in hot and humid
Ans D climate
33. Florence test detects: C. The two forms of heatstroke are clinically indistinguishable
A. Bilirubin D. All of the above
B. Urine D
C. Semen 38. In which of the following conditions, there is no
D. Blood water or salt depletion?
Ans C A. Heat syncope
(i) Florence test is not proof of seminal fluid. It only indicates B. Heat exhaustion
presence of some vegetable or animal substance (ii) C. Heat cramps
Florence test detects choline, which originates from the D. Heatstroke
seminal vesicles, but may originate from a number of other A
sources (iii) Crystals formed are of choline iodide (iv) This condition is caused by an intense peripheral vasodilatation
Crystals of choline iodide formed in Florence test resemble which leads to peripheral pooling and hypotension. Blood
haemin crystals, but are larger. is diverted away from brain which is responsible for
syncopal attack. There is no water or salt depletion in this
34. Spermine in semen is detected by: condition.
A. Barberiotest 39. Which of the following disorders is divided in three
B. Florence test types: pure salt depletion type, anhidrotic and pure
C. Takayama test water deficiency types?
D. Ammonium Molybdate test A. Heat exhaustion
Ans A B. Heat cramps
A saturated aqueous or alcoholic solution of picric acid when C. Heatstroke
added to seminal fluid gives rise to yellow needle shaped D. Heat syncope
crystals of spermine picrate. This is the Barberio test. It A
depends on the presence of prostatic secretion. 40. Which of the following conditions has the worst
Florence test is to detect Choline. Dark brown rhombic crystals prognosis?
of choline iodide are formed in this test. Florence test is A. Heat syncope
indicative of seminal fluid. B. Heat exhaustion
Following (Table 29.4) about the two most often asked tests C. Heatstroke
of semen will be helpful. D. Heat cramps
35. Jaffe reaction would detect the presence of: C
A. Urine 41. Decerebrate rigidity may be seen in:
B. Bile A. Heatstroke
C. Milk B. Heat cramps
D. Saliva C. Heat exhaustion
Ans A D. Heat syncope
Presence of urea, creatinine or amines is presumptive evidence A
of presence of urine. In the presence of picric acid and a 42. During pregnancy, abdomen gradually enlarges in
weak base, creatinine would give a bright-red coloration. size after the:
This is the so called Jaffe reaction. A. 8th week
B. 12th week
36. Which of the following factors predispose an C. 16th week
individual to heatstroke and other heat related D. 20th week
disorders? B
A. Obesity 43. If a woman sentenced to death is found pregnant,
B. Alcohol which of the following courses of action HAS TO BE
C. Intake of anticholinergics TAKEN by law?
D. All of the above A. The sentence of death has to be commuted to that of life
D imprisonment
B. The sentence of death has to be postponed
C. The woman will be given amnesty
D. The woman will be sent to a women's welfare board,
where she will work till death
A

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Section 416 of Criminal Procedure Code states, "If a woman o In all tests, woman's urine is injected in the animal. In
sentenced to death is found to be pregnant, the High Court some tests the animal has to be killed.
shall order the execution of the sentence to be postponed, o The details of test (See Table 24.1).
and may, it thinks fit, commute the sentence to 46. Male frogs or male toads were once used in the
imprisonment of life". diagnosis of pregnancy in the following test:
This section makes it mandatory for the High Court to stay A. Hogbentest
the order of execution. Till what time the order of execution B. Friedman test
will be stayed is not clearly defined in this section. Many C. Galli-Maininitest
students wrongly believe that the period upto which the D. Aschheim-Zondek Test
order of execution will be stayed is legally fixed as 6 months C
(or one or two years) after birth of the child. This is not
so. Generally it would be upto the delivery of the baby and 47. For a child to be termed LEGITIMATE, he must be
perhaps for some period after that. born within days of the dissolution of the marriage
The sentence may even be commuted to that of life of his mother:
imprisonment, but it is not mandatory. It depends on the A. 266 days
judgment of the High Court. B. 270 days
C. 280 days
44. Weight of a virgin uterus is: D. 296 days
A. 30-40 g C
B. 100-120 g This is prescribed in Section 112 of Indian Evidence Act. The
C. 200-250 g usual interpretation is that the marriage dissolved either
D. 400-500 g by divorce or death of the husband. [For discussion on all
A related IEA sections, please see, chapter 25 (sexual
Remember these additional facts, which may be asked as offences and sexual perversions), where sll4A is
MCQ questions: discussed.]
o Adult uterus measures 7.5 cm x 5 cm x 2.5 cm.
o It is divided into two parts - Body or corpus (5.0 cm) and
Forensic Medicine Day 4 Class
cervix uteri (2.5 cm).
o In fetal life, cervix is considerably larger than the body. Topic - Anaesthetics and Operative Deaths
o After parturition, the uterus nearly regains its usual size,
weighing on an average the same as the virgin uterus, but 1. The first successful public demonstration of general
its cavity is larger than in the nulliparous state. anaesthesia was done in the year………..
Note: The size and weight of ovaries has rarely been asked By…….. Using…..?
in examination, yet it is useful to know the figures. The A. 1812, Joseph Priestley, chloroform
size of each adult ovary is 3 cm x 1.5 cm x 1 cm. B. 1831, Humphry Davy, pancuronium bromide
Interestingly the same figures in inches would give you C. 1845, Horace Wells, nitrous oxide
the size of the uterus! Alternatively remember that uterus D. 1846, William T.G. Morton, diethyl ether
is about 2.5 times bigger (in eyery dimension) than each D
ovary. The weight of each ovary in a non pregnant state is Combinations in choice (A) and (B) are completely fictitious.
between 2 to 3.5 gm. In 1845, Horace Wells, a dentist, did try to publicly
demonstrate general anaesthesia by nitrous oxide at the
45. The earliest Aschheim-Zondek test is able to detect Massachusetts General Hospital in Boston, but the patient
pregnancy is after days of conception: cried out in pain, and the demonstration was deemed a
A. 2-4 days failure. In 1846, William T.G. Morton-surprisingly still a
B. 6-10 days second year medical student-success- fully demonstrated
C. 10-14 days anaesthesia with diethyl ether (again at the Massachusetts
D. 28-30 days General Hospital).
D
Aschheim-Zondek test is one of the several biological tests of Although in the beginning the crowd which had gathered as
pregnancy that were in vogue before 1960s. They are no well as the surgeon who had to conduct the operation (Dr.
more used now, and do not find a place in modern text Warren) were sneering at Morton, they were all
books of obstetrics or forensic medicine. Yet sometimes appreciative at the end, as the patient did not feel any
the student may face an odd question related to these pain whatsoever. At the end of the operation, Dr. Warren
tests. The facts to remember about these tests are: turned to the audience and made this famous statement,
o All biological tests for pregnancy become positive about 2 "Gentlemen, this is no humbug". Another famous surgeon
weeks after the first missed period, i.e. about 4 weeks Dr. Henry J. Bigelow, who had come to attend the
after conception. demonstration, said, "I have seen something today that
o There are four main biological tests namely (i) Aschheim- will go around the world".
Zondek test (ii) Friedman test (iii) Hogben test (iv) Galli-
Mainini test.
o All biological tests aim to detect Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin (hCG) in the woman's urine.

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2. If death has occurred during anaesthesia, which 5. In a medicolegai investigation of alleged death due
of the following is the most appropriate step? to Anaesthesia, all of the following are correct
A. The body must be sent for post-mortem statements except:
B. Death certificate should be signed by the Head of the A. Blood samples of the cadaver must be taken
Department of Surgery B. Devices introduced into the patient, such as endotracheal
C. Death certificate must be signed by Head of the tubes, catheters etc. must be removed before starting
Department of Anaesthesia autopsy
D. Death Certificate should be jointly signed by anaesthetist, C. Injuries due to resuscitative measures may mimic
surgeon and the medical superintendent of the hospital strangulation
A D. Radiographs of the dead body must be taken before
autopsy
3. The term "etheromania" refers to: B
A. Delirium due to ether overdose Devices introduced in the patient must not be removed, as it
B. Idiosyncrasies due to ether anaesthesia is very important to know their position within the body.
C. Addiction to use of ether Blood samples are necessary for analytical tests.
D. Psychosis induced in a patient after administration of Radiographs of the body are necessary in order to know
ether the correct position of various devices such as endotracheal
C tubes.
Recreational ether- drinking (ether-sniffing or inhalation is
7. The incidence of halothane producing fulminant
an equally popular form of intake) began on a serious scale
hepatic necrosis is:
only after its anaesthetic pro perties were discovered in
A. 1 in 500 patients
1846 by Thomas Morton, who marketed it as 'letheon'.
B. 1 in 5,000 patients
4. All of the following are true about malignant C. 1 in 10,000 patients
D. 1 in 100,000 patients
hyperthermia except:
C
A. It can follow administration of anaesthesia
This is known as "halothane hepatitis".
B. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
C. There is dark brown coloration to urine
8. Halothane hepatitis has a fatality rate of:
D. Blood chemistry shows decreased blood levels of creatine
A. 10%
phosphokinase (CPK)
D B. 25%
C. 50%
Blood CPK is increased in malignant hyperthermia. Also
D. >80%
increased are blood potas sium, uric acid and phosphate.
C
Hyperkalemia, raised CPK and myoglobinuria, can be
explained by damaged cell membranes. Additional info:
Malignant hyperthermia- often noted for the first time during Topic - Deaths from Starvation
administration of anesthesia-is a group of inherited muscle
problems characterized by muscle breakdown following 9. During starvation, how much of the body weight
certain stimuli- uch as anesthesia, extremes of exercise should be lost when life is threatened?
(particularly in hot conditions), fever, or use of stimulant A. 20%
drugs. The problems associated with this condition result B. 40%
from over-excitable muscles that contract uncontrollably, C. 60%
severe fever, abnormal heart rhythms, and kidney failure. D. 70%
The anesthetized patient rapidly develops a high fever and B
muscle rigidity. During these episodes, muscle tissue is
destroyed and break-down products of muscle may damage 10. Total lack of food, when water is available, is likely
the kidneys and cause acute renal failure. The urine may to cause death in about:
turn dark due t o re leas ed m uscl e pi gments A. 10-12 days
(rhabdomyolysis). B. 30-35 days
The best course of action for this condition is prevention. If a C. 50-60 days
general anesthetic is to be given, pretreatment with D. 90-100 days
dantrolene sodium is recommended. C

11. How many calories are needed to maintain body

weight in active adults?
A. 800-1000 calories
B. 1500-1900 calories
C. 2000-2500 calories
D. 2500-3000 calories
B

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12. In how many days would a normally nourished Declaration of Malta is specifically on the role of doctor in
person die, if both water and food are withdrawn? case of Hunger strikers. It realizes that the doctor indeed
A. 5-7 days is under a serious conflict. On one hand, "there is a moral
B. 10 days obligation on every human being to respect the sanctity of
C. 20 days life. This is especially evident in the case of a doctor, who
D. 30 days exercises his skills to save life and also acts in the best
B interests of his patients" and on the other hand "it is the
duty of the doctor to respect the autonomy which the patient
13. In death due to starvation, what is the major
has over his person. A doctor requires informed consent
finding in the gall bladder?
from his patients before applying any of his skills to assist
A. Its walls show numerous ulcerations
them, unless emergency circumstances have arisen in
B. It is empty
which case the doctor has to act in what is perceived to be
C. It shows several small stones
the patient's best interests." Following guidelines are given
D. It is full
to resolve this conflict:
D
o The doctor should ascertain on a daily basis whether or
An interesting related fact: Parenteral nutrition leads to the
not the patient wishes to continue with his hunger strike.
formation of gall stones
o The ultimate decision on intervention or non-intervention
should be left with the individual doctor without tHfe-
14. Biochemical manifestations of starvation include:
intervention of third parties (such as jailor etc) whose
A. A low blood sugar
primary interest is not the patient's wel fare. However, the
B. A low non-protein nitrogen
doctor should clearly state to the patient whether or not
C. High level of chlorides
he is able to accept the patient's decision to refuse treatment
D. High levels of cholesterol
or, in case of coma, artificial feeding, thereby risking death.
A
If the doctor cannot accept the patient's decision to refuse
such aid, the patient would then be entitled to be attended
by another physician (article 4 of the preamble of this
15. A political prisoner has gone on a hunger strike
Declaration).
and the jailor requests the jail doctor to force-feed
The hunger striker must be professionally informed by the
the prisoner in order to save his life. The current
doctor of the clinical consequences of a hunger strike, and
legal situation in this country is:
of any specific danger to his own particular case. An
A. That the doctor should force feed the prisoner
informed decision can only be made on the basis of clear
B. That the doctor should not force feed the prisoner
communication. An interpreter should be used if indicated.
C. That the doctor should inform the prisoner's family and
The doctor has a responsibility to inform the family of the
then go according to the family's wishes
patient that the patient has embarked on a hunger strike,
D. Ambiguous
unless this is specifically prohibited by the patient.
D
When the hunger striker has become confused and is therefore
The legal situation in this country currently is quite ambiguous.
unable to make an unimpaired decision or has lapsed into
There are arguments that if the doctor does not force feed
a coma, the doctor shall be free to make the decision for
the prisoner, he may be sued for abetment of suicide (under
his patient as to further treatment which he considers to
section 306 of IPC). On the contrary if the doctor force
be in the best interest of that patient, always taking into
feeds the prisoner against his wish, he may be sued for
account the decision he has arrived at during his preceding
using criminal force under section 350 and 352 of Indian
care of the patient during his hunger strike, and reaffirming
Penal Code. A good lawyer could argue the case from
article 4 of the preamble of this Declaration.
either side. World Medical Association has however given
Basically both these Declarations respect the autonomy of
guidelines to doctors in its Declaration of Tokyo (adopted
the patient, and very much weighed towards the opinion
in 1975 and amended in 2005) and Declaration of Malta
that the doctor should NOT force feed such cases.
(adopted in 1991 and amended in 1992).
Declaration of Tokyo basically gives guidelines to physicians
concerning torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading
Topic -Deaths from Asphyxia
treatment or punishment in relation to detention and 16. The true etymological meaning of asphyxia is:
imprisonment. Among other things it says that "Where a A. Pulselessness
prisoner refuses nourishment and is considered by the B. Breathlessness
physician as capable of forming an unimpaired and rational C. Oxygen lack
judgment concerning the consequences of such a voluntary D. Difficult breathing
refusal of nourishment, he or she shall not be fed artificially. A
The decision as to the capacity of the prisoner to form Although this term signifies lack of oxygen, its true etymological
such a judgment should be confirmed by at least one other meaning is pulselessness. The term derives from Greek
independent physician. The consequences of the refusal words "a" (not), plus "sphyzein" (pulse), [sphyzein also
of nourishment shall be explained by the physician to the gives rise to the word sphygmanometer, or an instrument
prisoner." which measures pulse pressure]. Because it was seen that

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cases in which there was lack of oxygen, were associated 23. Most specific and diagnostic feature of antemortem
with a feeble or depressed pulse, this term came to be hanging is:
applied to these conditions A. Dribbling of saliva
B. Ligature mark
17. Diatom test may be useful as an investigational
C. Hyoid fracture
aid in deaths due to:
D. Thyroid fracture
A. Hanging
A
B. Strangulation
This is supposed to be due to pressure and irritation of the
C. Drowning
parotid gland caused by the knot.
D. All asphyxial deaths
C 24. A pressure of Kg is required to close jugular veins:
A. 2 kg
18. One of the features in asphyxia is cyanosis. How
B. 5 kg
much should be the concen tration of reduced
C. 15 kg
haemoglobin after which it becomes visible?
D. 30 kg
A. 2 grams %
A
B. 5 grams %
The pressures required to close various structures in the neck
C. 6 grams %
were determined by experiments conducted in 1897 by
D. 7 grams %
Professor Brouardel (1837-1906), a pro fessor of legal
B
medicine at the University of Paris. The usually accepted
19. "le fades sympathique" was once associated figures are:
with: Jugular veins-> 2 kg
A. Hanging Carotid arteries-> 5 kg
B. Electrocution Trachea->15 kg
C. Strangulation Vertebral arteries->30 kg.
D. Smothering
A
"Le fades sympathiques" is more or less a mythical 25. In a case of hanging where the feet of the victim
phenomena, and no serious forensic pathologist believes are touching the ground, which : of the following
in this phenomenon anymore. It was once believed to be a facts is true?
hallmark of antemortem hanging. In this phenomenon, the A. It can not be a case of hanging
right eye was believed to remain open and the left closed B. It is a sure case of homicidal hanging
with the left pupil small and right dilated. It was believed C. It is a case of partial hanging
to result as a result of unequal tension on the neck D. It is a sure case of post-mortem hanging
structures. The only justification of inclusion of this question C
is that this question is still being asked in various It is wrong to think that if the feet are touching the ground, it
examinations. . can not be case of hanging. Several cases of genuine
suicidal hanging are seen where the feet are touching the
20. "/e fades sympathique" was once thought to be a
ground. These cases are known as partial hanging. If no
sure sign of:
part of the body is touching the ground, it is known as
A. Antemortem hanging
"complete hanging".
B. Postmortem hanging
C. Both antemortem and postmortem hanging 26. Carotid arteries may be torn transversely in:
D. Masochistic hanging A. Suicidal hanging
A B. Homicidal hanging
C. Judicial hanging
21. Horizontal ligature mark is usually seen in:
D. All of the above
A. Throttling
C
B. Ligature strangulation
Damage to the carotid arteries is seen mainly in judicial
C. Complete hanging
hanging. This damage is because of the big drop.
D. Partial hanging
B 27. In a case of hanging, ligature marks are most
typical examples of:
22. Hanging is defined as that form of asphyxia which
A. Contusions
is caused by:
B. Pressure abrasions
A. Suspension of body by a ligature encircling the neck the
C. Lacerations
constricting force being the weight of the body
D. Grazes
B. Suspension of a body by a ligature after death
B
C. Obliteration of air passages by any means over the level
of the chest 28. Pin point haemorrhages often seen under the skin,
D. Any kind of mechanical interference to respiration sclera and thoracic serous membranes in some
A kinds of asphyxial deaths are known as:

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A. Gettlers' haemorrhages 1829. Hare turned approver so he was forgiven.

B. Tardieu's spots 30. Burking consists of:
C. Paltauf s haemorrhages A. Smothering and traumatic asphyxia
D. Washer woman's haemorrhages B. Choking and drowning
B C. Gagging only
In 1866, French Professor Ambroise Auguste Tardieu (1818- D. Traumatic asphyxia only
1879) demonstrated petechial haemorrhages in the visceral A
pleura of the bodies of infants who were claimed to have
31. The term "Burking" is derived from the name of:
died due to overlaying. These spots later came to be known
A. An instrument used for murder
as Tardieu's spots, and were thought to be present in all
B. A place
asphyxia deaths. Remember the following facts about
C. A person
Tardieu's spots:
D. A firearm
o Tardieu's spots vary in size between 0.1 to 2 mm. If they
C
are larger than this, they are technically known as
ecchymoses. 32. The method of sitting over the victim's chest and
o They are caused by an acute rise in venous pressure, which closing his nostrils and mouth to cause asphyxial
is most often brought about by compression of the neck death is known as:
(as in strangulation) or chest (as in traumatic asphyxia). It A. Gagging
is rare to see these petechial haemorrhages in asphyxial B. Overlaying
deaths unaccompanied by such compression (e.g. C. Choking
drowning, plastic bag suffocation and deaths due to D. Burking
entering inert atmospheres). D
o It is hypothesized that hypoxia of the vein wall is another 33. Burking is smothering and:
mechanism causing these A. Throttling
• haemorrhages - hypoxic vein walls allowing easier leaking B. Gagging
of blood. But this claim has not been verified experimentally C. Strangulation
and is at best conjectural. The rapidity with which petechial D. Traumatic asphyxia
haemorrhages appear in asphyxial deaths makes this D
mechanism quite unlikely.
Deaths from Asphyxia 181 34. Congestion of the face is maximum if the death was
o Petechiae are rarely seen in parietal pleura and peritoneum due to:
except in deaths due to haemorrhagic diatheses. In the A. Choking
thorax, they are most commonly seen on the visceral pleura B. Hanging
especially around the hilum and in the interlobar fissures. C. Strangulation
o Petechiae - both cutaneous and visceral - can not only D. Drowning
enlarge after postmortem, they can appear ab initio as a C
postmortem phenomenon. It has been shown by some 35. Cafe coronary commonly occurs when a person is:
workers that the number of petechiae seen on the body A. Intoxicated
are directly proportional to the number of hours the person B. Smoking in an inebriated state
has been dead, although no attempts have been made to C. Eating fatty food
mathematically link the two. D. Eating fish
A
29. Which of the following is a combination of homicidal
Cafe coronary is the term given to death occurring due to
smothering and traumatic asphyxia?
impaction of food in trachea, when an intoxicated person
A. Choking
is eating. Death is not typically due to asphyxia; it is due to
B. Gagging
vagal inhibition of the heart.
C. Throttling
D. Burking 36. When strangulation is effected by com pressing
D the neck of the victim within the bend of the elbow,
The term Burking derives from the name of William Burke it is technically termed as:
(1792- 1829), who along with his friend William Hare killed A. Bansdola
almost 16 poor beggars and supplied their dead bodies B. Mugging
for dissection to an anatomist Dr. Robert Knox, who would C. Garrotting
pay them handsomely for this favor. Burke and Hare would D. Throttling
invite poor beggars to their home and intoxicate them with B
liquor. When the victim was drunk enough, Hare would An assailant can strangulate his victim in a number of ways.
wrestle him to the floor and close his mouth and nostrils Different terms are used depending on how the
with his hands (smothering), while Burke would sit on the strangulation was brought about. If the neck was
victim's chest (traumatic asphyxia). Thus the death was compressed within two bamboo rods, or wooden poles, it
due to an effective combination of smothering and traumatic is known as bansdola (literally "doing away with bamboos").
asphyxia. Burke was hanged for his crimes on 28 January

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It is quite common in India. If the strangulation is achieved A. Cutis anserina

by com pressing the neck in the bend of the elbow, it is B. Washer woman's hands
known as mugging. Many blacks in USA 18.1: The official C. Weed and grass in the hands
Garrotte once used in Spain are known to extort money D. Cyanosis
from their victims in this way; they are known as "muggers". C
Garrotting was once used as a method of execution in Cutis anserina and washer woman's hands are not signs of
Spain (it is no more used now, the last garrotting occurring antemortem drowning. Cutis anserina may be seen in any
in 1974). death due to rigor mortis of erector pilae muscles. Washer
Interesting fact: Garrotting developed from the early Chinese woman's hands are merely signs of submersion. Variants
form of execution known as the bow-string, in which the of the choices in this question: Other correct choices can
criminal was tied to an upright post with two holes bored be (i.e. changes which indicate antemortem drowning).
in it. Ends of a cord from a long bow were passed through o Copious froth at mouth and nostrils. Other incorrect choices
these holes. These were pulled tight round the neck by can be (i.e. changes which DO NOT indicate antemortem
the executioner until the condemned strangled. drowning).
The Spanish equivalent had several versions. In one version o Postmortem lividity over the face, neck, and front of chest.
the prisoner was made to sit on a shorter post with his (Postmortem lividity over the face etc. indeed develops in
back to the main post and a rope loop was placed round drowning deaths, but it is NOT a sign of antemortem
his neck and around the post. The executioner twisted a drowning. It is simply because the centre of gravity of the
stick inserted in the loop to tighten the rope and slowly dead human body is so placed, that the body comes to lie
strangle the prisoner. face downwards when suspended in water, and hence the
Another form comprised a wooden stool on which the development of postmortem lividity in face in cases of
prisoner sat with his back to the post (see Fig. 18.1). In drowning. This phenomenon would occur in postmortem
yet another form, a strong wooden chair was used and drowning as well).
the condemned was strapped at the wrists, arms, waist Topic - Traffic Accidents
and legs. In both types, behind the seat, was a substantial
post to which was affixed a heavy screw operated by a 41.Whip lash injury is most often seen:
handle or a weighted lever in both cases connected to a A. When the person is beaten by a whip
spike or a small star shaped blade which ran through the B. In a pedestrian
post. When the screw/lever mechanism was operated the C. In an occupant of an automobile
blade entered the criminal's neck and severed the spinal D. In a cyclist
column. This was done in order to achieve a quick death; C
in earlier forms the victim strangled slowly.
Throttling is another name for manual strangulation. In this 42. Which of the following statements regarding
form the compression of the neck is effected by hands. "Bumper Fractures" is true?
Multiple crescentic nail marks on the neck of the victim are A. Usually the tibia is fractured
the hallmark of this form of strangulation. B. Usually the fibula is fractured
37. All are seen in drowning except: C. Usually calcaneum is fractured
A. Miosis D. Invariably all three, i.e. tibia, fibula and the calcaneum
B. Wet heavy lungs are fractured
A
C. Water and weeds in stomach and lungs
D. Froth from nose and mouth Usually tibia is fractured, although very rarely fibula may also
A fracture. The fractured fragment of tibia is triangular in
shape. The base of the triangular fragment indicates the
38. Most common consistent feature in a child who has site of impact, and the apex points in the direction in which
died from drowning in a pond is: the vehicle was travelling. Occassionally there are no
A. Water in the alveoli of lungs fractures, or even any evidence of external injury, but there
B. Petechial hemorrhages in the lungs may be internal haemorrhage in the calves.
C. Washer woman's hands
D. Cyanosis 43. If at the time of impact, the vehicle was braking
A violently, the bumper fractures be:
39. Most common type of drowning is: A. At the same height as that of bumper
A. Suicidal B. At a height higher than that of bumper
B. Accidental C. At a height lower than that of bumper
C. Homicidal D. Seen in the fibula instead of tibia
D. Immersion syndrome C
B Usually-if the vehicle was neither accelerating nor
decelerating-the fractures of tibia would be at the same
40. Which of the following signs would indicate that height as that of the bumper. Indeed the height of the
the death was antemortem? fracture from the heel should be measured by the forensic
pathologist, as it can give an idea of the height of the

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bumper and thus help to identify the car. However if the syndrome is seen with much less frequency with these
car was braking violently, the forward portion of the car types of belts. A further safety feature is the inertia reel.
would dip down, and the bumper fractures would be at a In this system, a retractor reel lets out the strap or pulls it
lower level than that back as needed, and in the event of an accident the reel
locks, preventing any more strap to come out and holding
44. A proper postmortem examination of a victim of the passenger in the car.
automobile accident must begin with the
examination of his clothes because: 47. Which of the following injuries may be termed
A. They may show small fragments of paint and glass from "patterned injuries"?
the vehicle A. Tyre marks on the legs
B. There may be grease on the clothes B. Graze abrasion on the back
C. There may be tire marks on the clothes C. Circular abrasion on a driver's chest from impact of
D. All of the above steering wheel
D D. Lacerations on the thighs SK"
Forensic pathologists usually ignore a proper examination of E. Imprint of the headlight on the thigh of a pedestrian
the clothing of the deceased. Recovery of paint and glass A,C,E
particles from the clothes, or of the grease marks left from Patterned injuries are injuries which depict a specific pattern
the vehicle or tire marks can be very valuable pieces of of the object causing the injury. A detailed inspection of
evidence to link the vehicle to the deceased. these injuries can vastly help in reconstruction of the
45. The so called motorcyclist's fracture is: accident.
A. Ring fracture
B. Division of base of skull into two halves -an anterior and
a posterior Topic -Hypothermia
C. Division of base of skull into two halves -a left lateral
and a right lateral 48. Cold is endured longer by:
D. Comminuted fracture of the vault A. Men
B B. Women
Motorcyclists' fracture is seen in motorcyclists as a result of C. New born infants
falling on the ground. It is seen as a transverse crack across D. Old people
the middle cranial fossa behind the greater wing of sphenoid B
bones. It crosses through the pituitary fossa to reach the This is because of higher fat content in women. The aged
opposite side. Frequently it continues upwards to the and the infants are most vulnerable to cold.
temporal bones as a fissured fracture. It thus divides the
skull roughly into two equal halves - an anterior and a 49. "Systemic hypothermia" is a condition when the
posterior. The two halves can be moved independently of core body temperature drops below:
each other like a hinge. This fracture is seen both in the A. 37°C
driver as well as in the pillion rider. B. 35°C
C. 30°C
46. "Seat belt syndrome" typically seen in drivers of D. 0°C
cars involved in collisions involve: B
A. Injuries to the abdominal viscera 35°C is equivalent to 95°F, so keep this choice in mind too.
B. Fractures of the lumbar spine
C. Fracture of multiple tarsal bones
50. In hypothermia, which is the "cut off rectal
D. Both (A) and (B) above
temperature in degrees Celsius below which death
D
will usually ensue?
Seat Belt Syndrome, or SBS, is a phrase that was originally
A. 35
coined by the medical community in the late 1950s and
B. 31
early 1960s to describe injuries that physicians were seeing
C. 26
as a result of occupants wearing lap-belt-only restraints
D. 15
(much like we see in aircrafts today) in frontal collisions.
C
During the collision, the driver was forced forwards
violently, causing his body to "jack-knife" over the lap belt,
at the waist. This typically caused injury to the abdominal 51. In hypothermia, the surface of the body becomes:
viscera, most typically a tear or perforation of the intestine A. Hyperemic
and its mesentery. It was usually accompanied by fracture B. Pale
or dislocation of the mid-lumbar spine, sometimes leading C. Blackish brown
even to paralysis. D. Light greenish in color due to production of haematoidin
Because of this defect, modern car seat belts are of lap- B
strap and shoulder diagonal type. This is the so-called "three
point attachment belt" (Fig. 17.3A and B). Seat belt

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52. The mechanism of death in hypothermia is: 55. Which of the following is the correct treatment of
A. Cessation of circulation usually preceded by ventricular frostbite?
fibrillation A. Rub snow on the affected part
B. Hypothermic coagulation of proteins B. Rapidly rewarm in clean water at 40°- 42°C for about
C. .Asphyxia brought about by inability to breath cold air 10-30 minutes or until the extremity becomes pliable
D. Paralysis of the diaphragm again
A C. Rapidly rewarm with a heater or fire directly in front of
53. How many times faster is body heat lost in water the limb
than in dry, cold air at the same temperature? D. Thaw the frozen part and let it freeze again
A. It looses equally fast in both cases A
B. 3 times Rubbing snow on the affected part is a folk remedy. It is not
C. 12 times only useless, but dangerous. Dry heat (to thaw the affected
D. 20 times part) must be avoided, as it can desiccate the damaged
B tissue. Heating in clean water is the desirable course. Avoid
Body heat is lost faster in water, because it conducts heat smoking (nicotine contracts blood vessels), but alcohol may
away from the body faster. Because of this reason, be helpful (it dilates blood vessels). Frostbite is a tetanus
immersion hypothermia is extremely dangerous. prone wound. Tissue injury is greatest when tissue is
partially thawed and allowed to refreeze. Blisters must
54. Which of the following facts are true about not be punctured.
Trenchfoot?
A. It is due to exposure to temperatures below 0°C Topic - Deaths due to Heatstroke and Related
B. It is named after the condition suffered by many soldiers Causes
in the trenches during World War I
C. Dampness is an important factor in producing this 56. The body's basal metabolic rate (BMR)is:
condition A. 10-20 kcal/h/m2
D. Usually affected body parts are the extremities B. 25-35 kcal/h/m2
B,C,D C. 50-60 kcal/h/m2
Cold injuries are divided into two general groups: those that D. 500-600 kcal/h/m2
occur without any freezing of the body tissues and those C
that result from the freezing of the skin or a body part The body's basal metabolic rate (BMR) is 50-60 kcal/h/m2
(generally the fingers, toes, ears, nose and cheeks). (approximately 100 kcal/h for a person weighing 70 kg).
Examples of cold injuries without tissue freezing include In the absence of adequate thermoregulatory mechanisms,
chilblains and "trench foot" (also known as immersion foot). the BMR may lead to an increase in body temperature of
Examples of cold injuries with tissue freezing include approximately l.l°C/h. The rate of increase may be
frostnip and frostbite. significantly higher during periods of heavy exercise or in
Frostbite is a cold injury that is associated with tissue freezing. the setting of high environmental heat loads.
It occurs at temperatures below 0°C. In this injury, ice
crystals form in the skin and deeper tissue. Ice crystals 57. Insensible perspiration is the name given to:
exert osmotic force, causing water to move from A. Perspiration through nostrils and mouth
intracellular space. This causes swelling of tissues (filling B. Loss of moisture from the nonsweating body
up of intercellular spaces with fluid). At the same time C. Loss of moisture large enough to cause a dulling of
there is cellular dehydration and hyperosmolarity. There senses
is also denaturation of proteins and destruction of enzymes. D. Perspiration through the hairy portionsof the body such
The skin is numb and discolored; it is purple in most severe as scalp, axilla etc.
cases. On touching the skin, it does not feel like normal B
"bouncy" skin; instead it feels just like a rock, block of ice
or perhaps like a piece of chicken from the freezer. Blisters 58. Evaporation of 1 mL of sweat results in the loss of
appear, which may become hemorrhagic. Frostnip is an kcal of heat:
early -and least serious-stage of frostbite. The symptoms A. 0.18
are numbness and tingling, but no actual tissue injury B. 0.58
occurs. The symptoms occur when the blood vessels C. 58
supplying the affected tissues constrict. The skin appears D. 580
white and waxy or gray and mottled but feels normal to B
touch. Trench foot is less severe than frostbite, and there 59. In response to thermal stress which of the
is no permanent injury in trench foot. Trench foot occurs following types of sweat glands respond maximum?
generally at 5-8°C (no tissue freezing occurs at this A. Eccrine glands
temperature), while frostbite appears at temperatures less B. Apocrine glands
than 0°C (tissue freezing occurs here). Dampness is an C. Hypothermal glands
important factor in production of trench foot. D. Hyperthermal glands
A

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There are two types of sweat glands: eccrine and apocrine. 62. The external temperature within which the
Eccrine glands are "true" sweat glands, which res pond to haemostatic mechanism of thermo- regulation in
thermal stress. Found in large num bers only in man and humans is not stressed is:
some primates, they are distributed over the entire skin A. 18°C
surface. The duct from eccrine glands opens directly onto B. 21° C
the skin surface. These glands are innervated by C. 29° C with a 2° C variation on either side
sympathetic cholinergic fiber. Thermal sweating occurs over D. 35° C with a 2° C variation on either side
most of the body integument. Emotional stress can induce C
eccrine sweating, in selected areas like the palms, soles, The external temperature within which the haemostatic
axillae and forehead by a mechanism that is not well mechanism of thermoregulation is not stressed and the
understood. basal heat production rate is at its minimum is called the
Apocrine glands on the other hand produce an oily fluid (not zone of thermoneutrality. In the resting person, this is 2°C
sweat) which acquires a scent only after it interacts with on either side of 29°C depending on whether the person is
skin surface bacteria. These glands are found in many clad or not. Deviation from this zone sets the homeostatic
mammals. In man they are localized mainly to the axillary, thermo-regulatory mechanism in action. On the hotter side;
areolar, anus and genital regions; (modified apocrine glands the heat loss is increased while on the cooler side the heat
are found in the breast and the external auditory canal). conservation is stimulated. Body loses and gains heat by
The ducts from these glands open into the hair follicle conduction, convention and radiation. In addition heat loss
above the entrance of the . sebaceous duct. Myoepithelial occurs by evaporation as well.
cells, surrounding the gland, help to force the secretions
outward. 63. Biological adaptation that reduces physiologic
Apocrine glands continuously produce their secretions. Their strain, improve physical work capabilities, improve
function is presumed to be the production of sexual olfactory comfort and protects vital organs from heat injury
messages. Apocrine glands are better developed in women is known as:
than in men, are best developed in the Negro race and A. Heat safety mechanisms
their secretion does not appear before puberty. B. Heat syncope
Memory aid->Remember A for Apocrine and A for Axilla. C. Heatstroke
This should remind us that apocrine glands are located D. Heat acclimatization
only at a few places and thus have specialized functions. D
However they can better be remembered by their actualy
etymology, which is like this: 64. Degeneration of neurons in brain -mostly in the
Apocrine-"Greek prefix "apd" means "from". Latin "crinis" Purkinje cell layer of cerebellum-are seen in:
means "hair". Thus the term literally means "coming from A. Heatstroke
hair". Recall that apocrine glands appear mainly in hairy B. Heat cramps
areas and their ducts open in hair follicles. The Greek root C. Heat exhaustion
"apo" is seen also in apomorphine (from morphine) and D. Heat syncope
apothecary (from a box or chest). A
Eccrine->Greek prefix "ec" means "away from". Thus eccrine
means "away from hair". Eccrine glands are true sweat 65. Which of the following factors can aggravate the
glands, which appear all over the body - not just on hairy causation of heatstroke?
regions. The root "ec" is also seen in "eccentric" (away A. Alcoholism
from the circle) or "ecbolic" (a drug which throws something B. Humid atmosphere
away from the uterus, "bole" means "throw"). C. Dysentery
D. All of the above
60. At the upper limits of temperature tolerance, A
sweat can amount up to: 66. Which of the following conditions, if not treated
A. 0.5 liters per hour immediately, can lead to heatstroke?
B. 1.5 liters per hour A. Heat syncope
C. 2.5 liters per hour B. Heat exhaustion
D. 3.5 liters per hour C. Heat cramps
D D. Miner's cramps
B
61. Generalized or Jacksonian (focal) convulsions
are most typically seen in: 67. The classical triad of increased tempe rature, dry
A. Heat cramps skin and neurological deficit are typically seen in:
B. Heat exhaustion A. Heatstroke
C. Heat syncope B. Miner's cramps
D. Heatstroke C. Heat prostration
D D. All of the above
A

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68. Which of the following may be confused with 74. A person who is impotent quoad hoc is:
heatstroke? A. Medically impotent but legally potent
A. Falciparum malaria B. Medically potent but legally impotent
B. Morphine poisoning C. Impotent both medically and legally
C. Dhatura poisoning D. Impotent towards one particular woman only
D. Both (A) and (C) above D
D "Quoad hoc'" is a Latin phrase meaning "As to this" or "with
Both Falciparum malaria and Dhatura poisoning cause the respect to this". Thus "impotent quoad hoc" would literally
classical triad of dry skin, rise in body temperature and mean "impotence with respect to". Because of psychological
neurological deficit as is seen in heatstroke. Morphine does factors it is perfectly possible for a person to be impotent
not present this classical picture. Skin is cold and clammy towards one particular woman, but not towards the rest.
in morphine poisoning.
75. Fecundatio ab extra refers to:
69. Neurological deficit is most char acteristically A. Conception occurring in a woman, when she is already
seen in: pregnant
A. Heat exhaustion B. Conception occurring in a woman when the semen was
B. Heatstroke deposited on her thighs or on the vulva
C. Heat syncope C. Superfecundation
D. Miner's cramps D. Pregnancy advancing beyond the legal limit of 280 days
B B
70. Sweating ceases completely from the trunk and If a person is impotent, he may not be able to penetrate the
limbs, but continues in face and neck in: vagina. Instead the semen may be deposited on the
A. Thermogenic anhidrosis woman's thighs or on the vulva. Rarely spermatozoa in
B. Heat hyperpyrexia such cases can travel up the genital passage and give rise
C. Heat cramps to pregnancy. This is known as "Fecundatio ab extra".
D. Heat syncope It is important to note that impotence at the time of marriage
A is a ground for annullment of marriage if marriage has not
been consummated (i.e. there has been no sexual
Topic - Impotence and Sterility intercourse after marriage) because of this. If a baby is
born to a couple after marriage, and sometime after this,
71. Which of the following females would ordinarily be the wife files a suit for annullment of marriage on the
called a sterile woman? ground that the marriage has not been consummated, it is
A. A woman who is incapable of having a normal sexual possible for her to get the marriage annulled if she can
intercourse prove that the pregnancy was as a result of "fecundatio ab
B. A woman who can not be sexually aroused extra".
C. A woman who can not conceive This can perhaps be proved if it could be shown that her
D. All of the above hymen was intact. To be sure, the husband on his part,
C may try proving, she was a case of "false virgin", i.e. a
proper intercourse did take place but the hymen remained
72. Which of the following males would ordinarily be intact because of its abnormally high elasticity. Much would
called a sterile male? depend on the doctor's testimony here. "Fecundatio ab
A. A person who is unable to beget children extra" does not constitute consummation of a marriage.
B. A person who is unable to have normal sexual
intercourse
C. A person who has a premature ejaculation 76. Artificial introduction of semen into the vagina,
D. All of the above cervix or uterus to produce pregnancy is known
A as:
A. Extramarital conception
73. Inability to perform or take part in sexual B. Premarital conception
intercourse by a male is known as: C. Illegal insemination
A. Sterility D. Artificial insemination
B. Impotence D
C. Frigidity
D. Fertility 77. When only the semen of husband is used for
B artificial insemination, the procedure is known as:
Frigidity is a term reserved mainly for females. It means A. AIH
inability to respond warmly to sex arousal stimuli. This B. AID
fact is often asked - though rather incorrec tly - as follows- C. AMD
"The feminine of impotence is (a) Rigidity (b) Frigidity (c) D. Fecundatio ab extra
Sterility (d) Nymphomania. The intended answer is (b). A

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78. When the semen of donor is mixed with that of 82. An 18-year-old unmarried female has been brought
the infertile husband, the procedure is known to a doctor. On examination the hymen is found to
as: be intact, labia majora are separated and flabby,
A. AIH the labia minora are cutaneous in appearance and
B. AID separated, the fourchette is torn and the vagina
C. AIHD is roomy and enlarged. Most probably the woman
D. None of the above is:
C A. A true virgin
AIHD stands for Artificial Insemination by Husband and Donor. B. A false virgin
It is sometimes also known as Artificial Insemination Mixed C. Sterile
(AIM). This method offers no special advantage over AID, D. In premenstrual stage
except that the husband may believe that he could be the B
father of the child. In fact AIHD has been criticized since Traditionally it has been believed that if the hymen of a female
semen from the infertile husband may contain antibodies is intact, she is a virgin, i.e. she has not experienced sexual
which could interfere with normal sperm function. However intercourse. However this has proved to be false on a
studies have not confirmed this. In some foreign number of occasions. There are several cases on record
jurisdictions AIHD is outlawed. Indian law is silent onthis. where a female has had sexual intercourse and yet her
hymen was intact. Hymen has been found intact in women
79. Sterilization done in order to prevent danger to coming for delivery, and even in prostitutes. The following
the life of the woman due to a future pregnancy is definitions are important:
known as: True virgin: A woman who has'never experienced sexual
A. Compulsory sterilization intercourse. Her hymen may or may not be intact.
B. Therapeutic sterilization False virgin: A woman who has experienced sexual
C. Eugenic sterilization intercourse, but her hymen is intact. To differentiate
D. Contraceptive sterilization between a true and a false virgin, accessory signs of virginity
B are to be seen to ascertain if the woman was a true or a
Compulsory sterilization is referred to when sterilization is false virgin. In the given question, all accessory signs are
done against the wishes of a person. Reports of compulsory in favour of sexual intercourse having taken place, so the
sterilization trickled in during the Emergency period in India. girl is a false virgin.
It may also be done on mentally defective people, or as a 83. All of the following could be seen in a false virgin
punishment for sexual crimes. It is not legal in India. except:
Sterilization performed to prevent the conception of children A. Flabby breasts
who are likely to be physically or mentally defective is known B. Tight and narrow vagina
as eugenic sterilization. Contra ceptive sterilization is used C. Labia separated
for family planning. D. Thick and elastic hymen
B
Topic -Virginity, Pregnancy and Delivery
84. The most important finding/sign: of defloration is:
80. Which of the following facts about human hymen A. Enlarged nipple
is correct? B. Dilation of vaginal canal
A. The broadest part of the hymen lies anteriorly C. Enlarged breasts
B. It is a fold of mucus membrane about 5 mm thick D. Ruptured hymen
C. An average hymen consists of folds of membrane having D
annular or crescentic shape 85. When a virgin has her first intercourse, the hymen
D. Both (B) and (C) above is most often torn at:
C A. 12 O' clock position
(i) The thickness of hymen is about 1 mm. (ii) The broadest B. 3 O' clock position
part lies posteriorly (iii) Hymen may even be cartilagenous C. 6 O' clock position
sometimes (iv) At 10 years of age, the tip of small finger D. 9 O' clock position
can be passed through it; at puberty, one finger can be C
passed. 6 O' clock is same as posteriorly. Watch out for this, as the
o examiner may ask the question in this form.
81. A virgo intacta is:
A. Another name for an intersex 86.Carunculae myrtiformes are:
B. A woman who has never had any sexual intercourse A. A type of bacteria found in bacterial secretions
C. A woman who does not have any hymen B. Healed tags of hymeneal tissue remaining attached to
D. A woman who has a congenitally torn hymen the margin after the hymen is torn
B C. Prominent tubercles found on the areola of the breast -
D. Fresh tears of the hymen
B

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Another name for Carunculae myrtiformes is Carunculae 91. Which one of the following types of hymen can
hymenales. Watch out for both names. resemble a torn hymen?
87. In cases of sexual assault on a female child, the A. Crescentic
hymen often escapes injury because it is: B. Semilunar
A. Deeply seated C. Fimbriated
B. Very tough D. Cribriform
C. Absent in children, developing only at puberty C
D. Very elastic Various types of hymen can best be appreciated by having a
A look at them. Here are the diagrammatic representation
of some common types of hymen
88. Sola pith is sometimes used by prostitutes to: 92. Of the following types of hymen men tioned, which
A. Dilate the vagina of very young girls one is never found?
B. Repair their own torn hymen so they can pass off as A. Annular
virgins B. Septate
C. Enlarge their breasts C. Vertical
D. Strengthen the vaginal muscles D. Cruciate
A D
Sola is an Indian plant with stems containing woody pith. 93. Which of the following is the most common type of
This pith - the "Sola Pith" - is sponge wood with great hymen?
absorptive powers. (It is often carved into delicate flowers, A. Semilunar
toys and deities. Sola topee is sun helmet, made from B. Annular
sola pith). C. Cribriform
To initiate very young girls into the business of prostitution, D. Septate
their mentors have to dilate their vagina. This is done by B
inserting a piece of sola pith into their vagina (the piece is
as large as the vagina can contain), and then asking the 94. When the hymenal membrane is pierced by many
girl to sit in a tub of water. The absorbent sponge wood small perforations it is known as hymen:
absorbs water and swells up, enlarging the vagina. The A. Semilunar
process is repeated with bigger pieces of sola pith, till the B. Septate
vagina is roomy enough for sexual intercourse. C. Annular
The hymen is torn in this process. So this is one of the causes D. Cribriform
of torn hymen too. D
95. When the hymen has two openings with a broad
89. All of the following are likely to cause rupture of vertical septum dividing them, it is known as:
hymen except: A. Vertical
A. Insertion of sanitary tampons B. Semilunar
B. Ulceration from diphtheria C. Septate
C. Riding, jumping and dancing D. Annular
D. Masturbation C
C Other name for septate hymen is biforis hymen.
Situation of the hymen is such that riding, jumping and dancing
are not likely to cause rupture of hymen. Forcible separation Topic -Sexual Offences and Sex Perversions
of thighs will not usually cause rupture until and unless
perineal tears are produced. 96. Under which section of the Indian law is rape
90. Hymen can be ruptured by: defined?
A. Sola pith A. 320 I.P.C.
B. Masturbation B. 375 I.P.C.
C. Sanitary tampons C. 375 Cr.P.C.
D. Any of the above D. 376 I.P.C.
D B
Sola is an Indian plant with stems containing pith. It can absorb 97. A valid consent for sexual intercourse cannot be
water like a sponge and swell. A piece of sola pith - as given by a girl below:
large as the vagina can accommodate -is inserted into the A. 15 years
vagina of the young girl, who is then made to sit in a tub of B. 16 years
water. The pith absorbs water, swells, grows bigger, and C. 18 years
dilates the vagina. The size of the pith is gradually increased D. 21 years
for further dilatation. This tears the hymen. B
This practice is followed by prostitutes to initiate young girls
into prostitution

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98. In India a boy below years cannot be charged with Punishment for rape is defined u/s 376 (1). The punishment
rape? is for a minimum of 7 years (simple or rigorous). However
A. 7 years if the court wants to give a lesser sentence for some
B. 12 years adequate and special reasons, these reasons have to be
C. 14 years mentioned in the judgment.
D. There is no such age limit
A 103.In which of the following circumstances, a man
According to Section 82 of I.P.C., a child below 7 years can can legally rape his own wife?
not be charged for any offence whatsoever. A. When she has not consented for sexual intercourse
B. When the wife is menstruating
99. According to Indian law, all of the following would
C. When the wife is below 15 years of age
be instances of rape except:
D. Both (A) and (C) above
A. The sexual intercourse is done via anal route without
C
consent
In Indian law, a denial of consent by wife is not a ground for
B. The sexual intercourse is done vaginal ly without consent
constituting the offence of rape, as she is deemed to have
C. Sexual intercourse is done with a 20- year-old prostitute
given unconditional consent for sexual intercourse at the
without her consent and against her will
time of marriage.
D. Sexual intercourse is done with a 14-year- old girl with
The correct answer here is (c). This choice is often confusing
her consent
to students, because the legal age of marriage for girls in
A
India is 18 [section 5 (iii) Hindu Marriage Act 1955]. But
If the intercourse is done via anal route, the offence is
the fact is that younger girls are getting married in our
classified NOT as rape, but as unnatural sexual intercourse,
society.
which is punished under section 377 of IPC. Additional info:
According to section 18 (a) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955
According to Indian law, if one has legally married a woman
(Note that the section is 18 which may act as a good
above 15 years, he can have intercourse with her even
mnemonic), if a boy below 21 years, or a girl below 18
against her will and without her consent, as his wife is
years do marry, the punishment is simple imprisonment of
deemed to have given an unconditional consent for
a maximum of 15 days or fine upto 1000 Rupees or both.
intercourse at the time of marriage.
The marriage is NOT dissolved, because it is considered a
100. If a man has married a girl below 15 years of age,
very sacred institution in India.
which of the following statements is true?
A. He can have sexual intercourse with her but only with 104.Statutory rape is:
her consent A. Rape on a girl below 16 years
B. He can have sexual intercourse with her even without B. Rape of another person's wife
her consent, as she is deemed to have given C. Intercourse with one's own wife without her consent
unconditional consent for sexual intercourse at the time D. Intercourse through anus
of marriage A
C. He can have vaginal intercourse with her, but not anal Section 375 of I.P.C. lays down that sexual intercourse with a
intercourse, which is per missible only after 16 years of girl under 16 years shall be regarded as rape, whether or
age not the intercourse was done with her consent. This is
D. It is illegal for him to have sexual inter course with her known as "statutory rape".
D Explanation'. In English law-from which Indian law mostly
Sexual intercourse with or without consent of wife below 15 derives-two varieties of law are recognized: common law
years is illegal and it would be termed as rape. However and statutory law. Common law is the unwritten law and it
the sentence given to the husband for raping his own wife is based mostly on usage and custom.
(between 12 and 15 years of age) is much less - a Statutory law on the other hand is duly passed by legislature
maximum of two years of imprison ment (simple or and is properly written and codified. Any act proclaimed
rigorous) and/or fine. as an offence by statutory law is known as statutory offense
101.Under which section of the Indian law is rape or statutory crime. Since it is written in our law that sexual
punishable? intercourse with a girl under 16 years of age - with or
A. 320 I.P.C. without her consent - is to be regarded as rape, it is known
B. 375 I.P.C. as statutory rape.
C. 375 Cr.P.C.
D. 376 I.P.C. 105.Gang rape has been defined in Indian law as:
D A. Rape committed on a woman by a member of a criminal
102.Under the Indian law, the punishment for rape is: gang
A. Capital punishment B. Rape committed by a member in order to induce the
B. Not less than 7 years, but which may extend to life woman to join their gang
C. Maximum 7 years C. A rape by one or more in a group of persons acting in
D. The judge may give any sentence without mentioning furtherance of their common intention
any justifications in the judgment D. Rape followed by killing of the woman
B C

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An example would make the concept clear. If there is a group 110.The court shall presume the absence of consent
of five people, four of whom merely restrain the limbs of in certain prosecutions for rape. This provision is
the woman (say one limb restrained by each person) and provided in which of the following sections?
actual rape is committed by just the fifth person, each A. Section 375 I.P.C.
person will be deemed to have committed gang rape. B. Section 376 I.P.C.
Interestingly according to this definition, even a woman C. Section 114A Indian Evidence Act
can legally rape a woman, if she happens to be one of the D. Section 327(2) Cr.P.C
group! C
106.A rape by a woman on a man is: Section 114 of IEA deals with the presumption by the Court
A. Possible in Indian law of certain facts. An example is that if a man is in possession
B. Not possible in Indian law of stolen goods soon after the theft, and can not account
C. Possible only in very special circums tances, which are for his possession, he may be presumed by the court to be
not explicitly defined in Indian law either the thief, or has received the goods knowing them
D. Possible only if the woman is a hirsute and the man a to be stolen.
zenana In 1983, by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983, Section
B 114 A was added to this section, because it deals with the
107.If a man has sexual intercourse with his own wife presumption by the court regarding the consent. In essence,
without her consent, who is living separately from the section says that if the sexual intercourse by the accused
him under a decree of separation or under any is proved and the question is whether it was without the
custom or usage, he shall be punished with: consent of the woman alleged to have been raped and
A. Maximum imprisonment of 7 years but no fine she states in her evidence before the court that she did
B. Maximum imprisonment of 7 years but with fine not consent, the Court shall presume that she did not
C. Minimum imprisonment of 2 years but no fine consent.
D. Maximum imprisonment of 2 years and fine Additional Notes: Chapter VII of Indian Evidence Act (s. 101 -
D 114) deals with "burden of proof, and several sections are
This maximum imprisonment of 2 years can either be simple of interest to us as medical professionals.
or rigorous in nature. This is prescribed under section 376A o S.105->A man wants to take defence u/s 84 IPC. The burden
of Indian Penal Code. of proving that he was insane at the time of committing
that offence is on him. If he enjoys lucid interval, the
108. If the superintendent or manager of a jail, remand presumption will be that he committed the offence during
home or a women's or children's institution takes the lucid interval.
advantage of his official position and induces or o S.107->Presumption of life: Court will presume a person
seduces any female inmate of such jail, remand to be alive if he is shown to be alive within last 30 years.
home or institution to have sexual intercourse with The burden on proving that he is dead lies on the person
him, and such sexual intercourse does not amount who asserts this.
to the offence of rape (i.e. committed with her valid o S.108->Presumption of death: Court will presume a person
con sent), which of the following statements is dead, if he is not heard of within last 7 years, by the persons
true? who should normally have heard from him. The burden of
A. Such a person cannot be charged under any section of proving that he is alive is on the person who asserts this.
Indian Penal Code o S.I M->Period of Legitimacy: A child is legitimate, if he is
B. Such a person would not be punishable under Indian born within 280 days after the dissolution of marriage.
Penal Code but under Police Act o S. 113 A->Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a
C. He can be charged under section 376C of Indian Penal married woman: Woman within 7 years of marriage
Code, for which the punishment is up to a maximum of subjected to cruelty. It is shown she was subjected to
five years and fine cruelty (meaning of cruelty explained in s498A of IPC) by
D. He will still be charged under rape, as he has used his husband
official position to obtain consent. ->Court will presume abetment of suicide by the husband.
C o S. 113B->Presumption as to dowry death:
109.Which of the following is NOT rape? Question is of dowry death of a woman. It is shown that a
A. Sexual intercourse with wife below 15 years of age with person subjected her to cruelty in connection with dowry.
her consent The presumption is that, that person caused dowry death.
B. Sexual intercourse with wife above 20 years without her Note: Difference between 113A and 113B is that in the former
consent there is NO mention of dowry, while in the latter there is a
C. Sexual intercourse with a girl below 16 years with her mention of dowry.
consent o S.ll 4A->Presumption of absence of consent: Prosecution
D. Sexual intercourse with a woman above 20 years without for rape. Female asserts she did not consent. The court
her consent will presume she indeed did not consent.
B
It might appear that sexual intercourse with a non-consenting
wife is rape. But this is not true. Sexual intercourse with
wife below 15 years-even with her consent-is rape.

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111.Whoever discloses the identity of a victim of rape A. 498 I.P.C

by printing or publishing shall be punished with B. 375 I.P.C.
imprisonment of either description for a term C. 377 I.P.C.
extending to two years and shall also be liable to D. It is not punishable
fine. This punishment is provided in which of the D
following sections?
115.Bestiality is:
A. Section 228A of I.P.C.
A. Having intercourse with an animal
B. Section 375 of I.P.C.
B. Cruelty to animals
C. Section 376 of I.P.C.
C. Cruelty to fellow humans
D. Section 327(2) of Cr.P.C.
D. Beast like behavior of an insane
A
A
Related fact: Section 228 of IPC deals with intentional insult
Strangely incest is not punishable in Indian law. We can only
to public servant sitting in judicial proceeding. In 1983, by
guess the reasons why this is so. When the English
the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983, section 228A
formulated the Indian Penal Code in 1860, they must have
was added. According to this section, neither the name of
observed that marriages between cousins (and other close
the accused, nor the name of the victim can be published
relatives) was common in many tribes and cultures. Eager
or printed (say, in a newspaper). However there are a few
to maintain social norms, they did not make it a criminal
riders to this. The following things are not covered by this
offence, although in their own law, incest is punishable.
section.
Interestingly Indian Government too - after coming to power
i. When the investigating officer is publishing such information
in 1947 - has preferred not to disturb this law.
for investigation purposes.
Variant: This question is asked in several variants. One variant
ii. When the victim gives authorization in writing.
is like this->Which of the following is not an offence in
iii. When the victim is dead, or minor, or of unsound mind,
India? (i) Bestiality (ii) Sodomy (iii) Incest (iv) Paedophilia.
then next of kin can give consent. Such consent by the
The correct answer is (iii) Incest. Interestingfact: Incest is
next of kin can only be given to any recognized welfare
not a crime in India, but a crime in Britain. Homosexuality
institution or organisation. This rider is not applicable if
even between two consenting adults is a crime in India
the victim herself is giving authorization.
(under section 377 of IPC) but not in Britain!
iv. Printing or publication of the judgment of any High Court
or the Supreme Court does not attract the provisions of
this section. Topic -Firearm Injuries

112.The enquiry into and trial of rape shall be 116.A thermodynamic machine in which the potential
conducted in camera. This provision is provided by energy of the gun-powder is transformed into the
which of the following sections? kinetic energy of the projectile is known as:
A. Section 375 I.P.C. A. A shot gun
B. Section 376 I.P.C. B. A rifle
C. Section 113 of Indian Evidence Act C. A revolver
D. Section 327(2) of the Cr.P.C. D. A firearm
D D
Related fact: Section 327 of the Cr.P.C. > prescribes that
117.The branch of ballistics that deals with what
Criminal courts will be open for general public (so far as
happens to a cartridge and its bullet from the time
the same can conveniently contain them). This was causing
the trigger of the gun is pulled until the bullet exits
embarrassment to the victims of rape, who were not
from the gun barrel is known as:
coming forward with their allegations. So in 1983, by the
A. Terminal ballistics
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1983, this section was
B. Trigger ballistics
added to Section 327, and original section was renumbered
C. Internal ballistics
as 327(1). The section says that notwithstanding anything
D. Cartridge and bullet ballistics
contained in section 327(1), the trial for rape shall be
C
conducted in camera.
The other name for this branch is Interior ballistics. It can be
easily remembered by recalling that it deals with those
113.Which of the following can be called incest?
things that happen in the interior of the gun barrel and
A. Anal intercourse
chamber. Also remember that it deals with primers, primer
B. Intercourse with one's daughter
ignition, gunpowders, burn rate, rifling, rate of rifling twist,
C. Oral intercourse
chamber and barrel dimensions and breech pressure. The
D. Intercourse with an animal
question can be cleverly changed to include these things.
B
118.The branch of ballistics that deals with what
happens to a bullet or projectile from the moment
it leaves the gun barrel to the moment of impact
114.Under which section of the Indian law is incest
on a target or object is known as:
punishable?

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A. Terminal ballistics However it is widely alleged that Belgium used Dum dum
B. External ballistics bullets during the first world war. Germany made such
C. Projectile ballistics allegations against Belgium. Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany
D. Impact ballistics even wrote a telegram to U.S. President Woodrow Wilson
B on 7 September 1914 protesting such use. The Belgians
The other name for this branch is Exterior ballistics. It can be however strongly denied these charges.
easily remembered by recalling that it deals with what
122.Which of the following cartridges are fired from
happens to the bullet or projectile exterior or external to
launchers called rocket hand guns?
the firearm. It deals with such things as flight of the bullet,
A. Tracer bullets
bullet-trajectory, air resistance, bullet drop and gravity,
B. Gyrojets
bullet drift and bullet stability.
C. Dum dum
119.Black powder consists of: D. Ricochet
A. 50% Potassium nitrite, 25% charcoal and 25% sulphur B
B. 50% Potassium chlorate, 20% charcoal and 30% sulphur Gyrojet cartridges eject small rockets rather than bullets.
C. 50% Potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulphur These rockets contain solid fuel which keeps burn ing during
D. 75% Potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulphur its flight for much of its course after it comes out of the
D barrel of the gun. This greatly increases the range. An
These percentages are by weight, not volume. The charcoal interesting forensic implication is that the entrance wound
serves as the fuel, sulfur is the binding agent, and the caused by such projectiles will show a singeing effect even
potassium nitrate (saltpeter) is the oxidizer. As an oxidizer, at very large distances.
any nitrate salt can be used, but KNO3 works best as it is
least hygroscopic (absorbs water less rapidly than other 123.12 bore gun technically means that a sphere of:
nitrates). Because black powder goes dead when it absorbs A. 1/6 pound of lead will exactly fit the bore of the gun
water, powders made from hygroscopic calcium nitrate B. 1/12 pound of iron will exactly fit the bore of the gun
[Ca(NO3)2] and sodium nitrate [NaNO3] have short shelf C. 1/12 pound of lead wi 11 exactly fit the bore of the gun
lives and must be used quickly. As it turns out, one of the D. 1 /24 pound of lead will exactly fit the bore of the gun
main roles of sulphur in black powder (besides being a C
binding agent) is to improve shelf life by reducing water This is a good question and the student would do well to
absorption. understand the basics behind ! this question. Many students
find it quite odd that this strange formula is used to
120.Mercury fulminate is used in firearm ammunition
determine; the bore of a gun rather than simple
as:
measurement (in cm or inches) of the inside of the barrel
A. Primer
of the gun. This has an ancient tradition, when bores of
B. Smokeless powder
cannons were measured in terms of the weight of the
C. Black powder
ammunition it would shoot out. Thus a 12 pounder would
D. Mixed powder
fire a 12 pound spherical ball (usually of cast iron, but
A
sometimes of lead too). Similarly a 6 pounder would fire a
Sometimes the students would see "detonator" as a choice
6 pound (2.7 kg) spherical ball.
instead of primer, which should be marked as a correct
choice.
Problems arose with smaller cannons and shot guns. One
121.Which of the following bullets has an exposed lead can have one pounder (one which shoots a ball of one
nose which undergoes rapid expansion on impact pound of lead) or may be half pounder (one which shoots
thus increasing the amount of destruction? a ball of half pound of lead), but with smaller diameters it
A. Tracer bullet is much more comfortable to talk of balls made from one
B. Incendiary bullet pound of lead. Thus as we go down the diameters, we
C. Tandem bullet would come across a gun, which can, say, fire a lead ball,
D. Dum dum bullet weighingjust 1/12 pounds. Instead of calling it, say, "one-
D by-twelve pounder", it was more comfortable to call it a
Dum Dum bullet was a British military bullet developed for 12 bore gun; everyone concerned automatically
use in India during the late 1890s, so called because it understood that it fired a lead ball weighing 1/12 pounds.
was produced at the Dum-Dum amm- unition factory near In other words, if 12 equal sized balls were made from
Kolkata. It is a jacketed .303 bullet (meaning its diameter one pound of lead, each would fit exactly in the barrel of
was 0.303 inches) with the jacket nose open to expose its the gun.
lead core. It immediately balloons out on impact with the This gave us the much touted definition of the bore of a gun
target thus increasing the damage. The phrase 'Dum-Dum' as below:
is now taken to include any soft-nosed or hollow pointed In the smooth-bore gun, the bore is defined as the number
bullet. of equal sized spherical balls made from one pound of
It was used by the British on India's North West Frontier and lead, each of which exactly fits the inside of the barrel. By
in the Sudan in 1897 and 1898. The Hague Convention of knowing that the density of lead is 11.352 g/cm3 and that
1899 outlawed the use of dum-dum bullets during warfare.

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one pound is equal to 453.5924 g, one can actually calculate A. Toothed forceps
the diameter in inches or cms. Common bores in use vary B. Hands
from 8 bore to 28 bore. It is important to realize that a C. Scissors
larger bore indicates a smaller diameter and vice versa. D. Needle
Here is the full conversion (Table 12.1): B
The bores marked * are found in punt guns When a bullet is fired, important markings known as primary
which are very rarely used now. Punt guns were extremely and secondary markings are left on it, which are
large shotguns used in the 19th and 20th centuries for instrumental in determining the firearm from which it was
shooting large numbers of waterfowls for commercial fired. Handling the bullet with hard objects like toothed
purposes. They could have bore diameters up to 2 inches. forceps, scissors or needle may produce markings of their
A single shot could kill a whole flock of waterfowl resting own, making the job of ballistic expert very diffi cult. The
on the water's surface. They were too large to hold and same precaution must be followed during post-mortem
the recoil so large that they were mounted directly on the examination. Bullet may also be picked up with a pair of
punts used for hunting, hence their name. They have now forceps whose tips have been covered with a rubber sheath
been banned. or cotton.
There is one bore which is smaller than even 28. It is
commonly referred to as .410 gauge (mainly by convention). Topic -Thermal Injuries
In this case the number refers to the internal diameter of
the firearm, i.e., 0.41 inches (equal to 10.41mm), and not 126.Mammalian tissues can survive within a very
the number of balls. If we were to convert this into bores, narrow range of temperatures. This range of
it would be 68 bore, i.e. the internal diameter of this gun temperature is generally taken to be between:
is so small that 68 equal sized balls may be made from A. -12 to 37 degrees Celsius
one pound of lead, each fitting its barrel. This gun is B. 5 to 42 degrees Celsius
commonly referred to as "four-ten" (from 0.410 inches) C. 20 to 44 degrees Celsius
or sometimes 10 mm gun (from nearly 10 mm size). D. 30 to 55 degrees Celsius
If we were to draw a one inch line and mark all common C
bores on this, we would find that all would fit within a very
narrow spectrum - between 0.5" to 1.0" range (Fig. 12.1). 127.Burns are classified by which of the following
"Four-ten" is the only gun which falls between the 0"-.5" classifications?
spectrum. Please note that the middle point (0.5") has A. Dupuytren's
been referred to as the "break point". This is not a technical B. Hebra's
terminology. It is just a way to remember that guns lying C. Wilson's
on right side of it are said to have bores; guns.lying on the D. All of the above
left side (there is only one though) are known by their D
actual internal diameters. The break point is technically
equal to 32 bore. 128.The lowest temperature that can cause thermal
damage to the human body is:
124.Which of the following facts about a carbine are A. 40 degrees Celsius
correct? B. 44 degrees Celsius
A. It is a short barreled firearm C. 54 degrees Celsius
B. It can either be a musket or a rifle D. 80 degrees Celsius
C. It was once chiefly a cavalry weapon B
D. All of the above To cause thermal damage at 44°C, the heat would have to
D be applied for at least 5 hours! This is not just trivia but an
Carbine is a light, short-barrelled musket or rifle. The word, important medical fact to keep in mind; of late there have
the source of which is obscure, seems to have originated been many medical negligence lawsuits where paramedical
in the late or mid-16th century. The carbine, in various personnel have forgotten hot water bottles in the beds of
versions corresponding to the different full-sized military unconscious patients causing burns. As temperature increa
arms, was chiefly a cavalry weapon until the 18th century. ses, the time required to cause damage drops exponentially;
Then some unmounted officers, artillerymen, and other if the temperature is 60°C, only 3 seconds are needed to
specialists began to carry carbines. By the 1980s the trend cause burns.
toward general use of light assault rifles (e.g., the Soviet
AK-47 or the U.S. Ml 6) was making the carbine obsolete 129.Which of the following burns are most painful?
as a military weapon. However, its light weight and short (Classification given by Dupuytren)
length had long made it a popular sporting arm for hunting A. First degree
in heavy brush and also as a scabbard weapon for horseback B. Second degree
use. C. Third degree
D. Fourth degree
125.During operative procedures on a victim of firearm C
injury, the bullet should preferably be taken out of
the body with:

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130.If the burns have caused blisters, it is degree burns Topic - Explosion Injuries
(Dupytren's classi fication):
A. First degree 135. Deaths by which of the following explo sion devices
B. Second degree are commonly investigated by a forensic
C. Third degree pathologist?
D. Fourth degree A. Letter bombs
B B. Car bombs
131.Rule of nine is employed to find out: C. Parcel bombs
A. The cause of burns D. All of the above
B. The area of burns D
C. The depth of burns
D. The prognosis of burns 136.In ordinary "civilian" explosions ordi narily
B encountered by forensic patho- logists, the
According to this rule all areas of the body have areas in pressures generated may be up to:
multiples of nines (Fig. 13.1). A. 150 atm
Thus head and neck are 9%, front of chest 9%, back of chest B. 1,500 atm
9%, front of abdomen 9%, back of abdomen 9%, right C. 15,000 atm
upper limb 9%, left upper limb 9%, front of right lower D. 150,000 atm
limb 9%, back of right lower limb 9%, front of left lower D
limb 9% and back of left lower limb 9%. This makes 99%. 137.Death and injury from explosions is caused by:
The remaining 1% is allotted to genitals. found over the A. Impact of projectiles derived from the explosive device
superior sagittal sinus) or from the diploe of the skull. The B. Impact from surrounding objects and debris impelled by
blood from diploe, supposedly "boils out" due to great heat the explosion
and passes through emissary veins, to come to lie just C. Blast effects
beneath the skull (and outside the dura).Heat hematoma D. All of the above
can be differentiated from "normal" traumatic extradural D
hematoma, by following facts: o Blood in heat hematoma In addition to these three, death and injury from explosions
is spongy from gas bubbles, o The color is tawny or are also caused by (iv) burns from hot gases and incadescent
chocolate brown, o Heat hematoma would contain carbon objects and (v) secondary injuries from falling masonry,
monoxide and its levels would match that of peripheral beams and furnishings disloged by the explosion.
blood.
138.Molotov cocktail is:
132.In a completely charred body, in order to A. A special cocktail of strong alcohols which perpetrators
determine that the burns were ante- mortem, the take to increase their courage before using explosives
medical officer can best rely on which of the B. A petrol bomb
following findings: C. A recently discovered special decoction used for
A. Soot in respiratory passages treatment in victims of explosions
B. Cyanosis of fingernails D. A special and highly destructive bomb used in Brazil by a
C. Congestion of the kidneys gang known as Molotov
D. Pale internal organs B
A A Molotov cocktail (also known as a petrol bomb) consists of
133. Heat ruptures show: a glass bottle partly filled with flammable liquid, usually
A. Smooth and even margins petrol (gasoline) or alcohol (generally methanol or ethanol).
B. Irregular margins The mouth of the bottle is stoppered With a cork or other
C. Ruptured vessels in the floor type of airtight bung (rubber, glass, or plastic), and a cloth
D. Clotted blood in the wound rag is fixed securely around the mouth. The weapon is
B used by first soaking the rag in a flammable liquid
134.The usual site of Curling's ulcers in burn victims immediately prior to using it, lighting the rag, and throwing
is: the bottle at the target. The bottle shatters on impact,
A. Pharynx and oesophagus spilling the flammable liquid over the target, which is then
B. Duodenum ignited by the burning rag.
C. Caecum
D. Sigmoid colon It is a common practice to throw several unlit, full, bottles to
B saturate an area, then finish with a lit one. This avoids
some of the risk of throwing several lit devices. If one
uses lit bottles each time, the enemy would see the flaming
bottles approaching and know which direction to start
shooting. There is also the possibility of missing target or
dropping the device after being lit. Many substances such
as white phosphorus, tar, palm oil, acids etc. may be added

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to the basic Molotov cocktail to enhance its use as a 144. "Joule burn" is the name given to:
weapon. Named after Vyacheslav Mikhailovich Molotov A. Electric entry mark
(1890-1986) a Soviet politician, who first advocated it. B. Electric exit mark
C. Flash burns caused by electricity
139.Typical injury in a bomb explosion is: D. Burns caused by AC rather than by DC
A. Abrasion A
B. Punctate bruises Remember the following facts which may be helpful in other
C. Puncture lacerations related MCQs:
D. A tiad of punctate bruises, abrasions and puncture 1. "Joule burn" is an endogenous thermal burn, i.e. the heat
lacerations is generated within the body due to the passage of current.
D 2. It is different from "exogenous burn"where the burn is
caused by sparking. Note that in this case, the source of
Topic - Electrocution, Atmospheric Lightning, Radiation heat is outside the body. The heat is NOT generated within
Injury the body, as in case of "joule burn".
3. If the skin touching the conductor is well- moistened, it
140.Which of the following tissues is most resistant may not show any electrical burn mark (less resistance
to electric current? would mean less generation of heat). Thick dry skin will
A. Muscle show a well-circumscribed electrical burn mark. Variant:
B. Skin A variant of this question is often asked like this->Joule
C. Bone burn is seen in (a) Electrocution (b) Thermal injury (c)
D. Blood Radiation injury (d) Lightning. The answer is (a)
B Electrocution.
The most resistant tissular layer of the body is the skin,
followed in order of decreased resistance, by bone, fat, 145.Which one of the following statements is NOT true
nerve, muscle, blood, and body fluids. Variations in resis regarding the joule burn:
tance are primarily determined by the water content of A. It indicates exit point of current
the tissues. Dry skin has a higher resistance than skin moist B. It is usually round or oval in shape
with sweat. C. It is usually seen as a shallow crater
D. It has a grayish or pale base
141.In electrocution, death may occur due to: A
A. Primary shock Exit point of a current is very rarely seen. It is seen in areas
B. Secondary shock where the body was earthed or "grounded". Even when it
C. Paralysis of respiratory centre is seen, it is usually not called Joule burn; it is known simply
D. Coma as "exit point" or "exit mark". Joule burn is usually round
C or oval in shape, although sometimes it can take a linear
shape, reflecting the shape of the conductor (wire).
142.Which of the following statements regarding 146. Which of the following is the most characteristic
electricity is correct? feature of a joule burn?
A. A.C. is more dangerous than D.C. A. It is round in shape
B. D.C. is more dangerous than A.C. B. It has a depressed base
C. Both are equally dangerous C. There is an areola of blanched skin at the periphery
D. Which is more dangerous depends on the fact if one is D. It is usually green in color
standing on a wet or a dry surface C
A An areola of blanched skin at the periphery of the Joule burn
A.C. is about 4-5 times as dangerous as D.C. It is because of is considered the most use ful indicator of Joule burn. This
the tetanoid contractions effected by the A.C. An A.C. of is presumably due to arteriolar spasm from the effects of
70-80 mA may be lethal, whereas a D.C. with an intensity the current. Often there are areas of hyper-emia both inside
of 250 mA may be tolerated without damage. and outside this zone. Thus extending outside from the
crater, one can often see a spectrum like this: crater->
143.Which of the following is a characteristic reddening-"pallor-" reddening.
postmortem finding of a death due to electrocution?
A. Honeycomb liver 147. Electrocution as a method of judicial execution is
B. Local hemorrhages and/or tears in the muscles followed in:
C. Tache noir de la sclerotiques A. All states of US
D. All of the above B. Only a few states of US
B C. United Arab Emirates
The hemorrhages/tears are especially abdundant in muscles D. India
of the extremity. These are due to forcible contraction and B
spasm induced by the passage of current. Only six US states, Alabama, Florida, Georgia, Kentucky,
Nebraska and Tennessee, use electrocution for judicial
execution.

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Topic - Regional Injuries 153.Average thickness of skull is:

A. 1-2 mm
148."Retraction balls" are seen after injuries to: B. 3-5 mm
A. Liver C. 1 cm
B. Spleen D. 2 cm
C. Lungs B
D. Brain 154. Jefferson's fracture is a name given to:
D A. A fracture of ribs caused by sudden and inadvertent
Blunt force that causes sudden angular deceleration or coughing
acceleration of the brain can often cause Diffuse Axonal B. A fracture of the metatarsals usually seen in soldiers,
Injury (DAI). The axons are broken; the broken axons which entitles them to compensation
retract into a ball like structure, known as "retraction balls" C. A fracture of the tibia caused by a speeding car
(or "axonal spheroids"). The presence of "Retraction balls" D. A bilateral bursting fracture of anterior and posterior
thus indicate axonal damage. They are seen microscopically arches of Cl against the occipital condyles.
in the white matter usually after a few days of injury. D
Jefferson's fracture is caused by an axial loading from the
149."Retraction balls" are seen in: top of the skull.
A. Cerebral lacerations
B. Cerebral contusions 155."Fractures a la signature" is a:
C. Diffuse axonal injury A. Depressed fracture
D. Injuries to tendons B. Counter coup fracture
C C. Fracture dislocation of the 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae
D. Fracture of the terminal phalangeal bone of the right
150.Kernohan's notch is seen in: thumb
A. Lungs A
B. Liver These fractures are also known as "signature fractures". They
C. Spleen are medicolegally important because their shape
D. brain resembles that of the striking surface of the weapon. These
D are mostly seen on the skull. In the case of a hammer, the
Sometimes severe brain swelling or a space occupying lesion fracture is circular having the same diameter as the striking
such as a large subdural or extradural haematoma may surface. When the butt of a firearm strikes the skull full
cause increased intracranial pressure above the tentorium. faced, the fracture is rectangular; when the corner of the
This can cause either unilateral or bilateral compression butt strikes, the fracture is triangular. At the postmortem
of the midbrain against the free edge of the tento rium. If examination, it is important to preserve the fragments,
unilateral, it causes grooving of a cerebral peduncle known which can later be reconstructed for demonstration
as "Kemohan's notch" (Fig. 16.1). When bilateral, it causes purposes.
grooving of the uncus on both sides. In extreme cases it
can cause infarction of the parahippocampal gyri on both Topic - Examination of Decomposed and
sides. Mutilated Bodies, Fragmentary
Remains,Bones, Etc.
151.Duret hemorrhages are seen in:
A. Endocardium of the heart 156. If a decomposed body has been brought by
B. Conjunctiva the police, which has earth and clothes stuck to it,
C. Middle ear with lots of maggots crawling around, what should
D. Brain the pathologist preferably do?
D A. Put the body on flame to burn all maggots
Duret hemorrhages are teardrop shape hemorrhages in the B. Put the body in cold room and come back next day to
brainstem. They are indicative of raised intracranial dissect, so that all maggots crawl away
pressure, which results in brainstem herniation through C. Put the body in a tank of weak carbolic acid for a day or
foramen magnum. They are thus secondary herniation two and then start dissection
hemorrhages and range from small streaks to massive D. Put the body in boiling water to kill the maggots
confluent Haemorrhage. They commonly occur with B
asymmetrical herniation of the brain stem. Peeled off skin CAN be used for finger printing

152.The thickness of outer table of skull is: 157.If the police brings only the peeled off skin of an
A. Same as that of the inner table individual, can the fingerprints be taken from it?
B. Twice that of inner table A. Yes
C. Half that of inner table B. No
D. One-third of that of inner table C. Yes but only in women
B D. Yes but only if the skin was from the right hand
A

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It is common knowledge that lower end of femur can help in 161.MTP Act was passed in:
age determination (e.g. by seeing whether the epiphysis A. 1951
has appeared or not, and whether it has united with the B. 1970
shaft or not). What is not commonly known is that it can C. 1971
be used to determine sex also. In fact four different features D. 1973
of femur can be used to determine sex. These are (i) Ans C
Vertical diameter of the head (ii) Popliteal length (iii) Although MTP Act was passed in 1971, it came into force
Bicondylar width and (iv) from April 1, 1972.

Topic : Abortion 162.What is the age at which a woman can give a valid
consent for MTP under the MTP Act 1971?
158. Which of the following statements concerning A. 12 years
abortion is NOT correct? B. 16 years
A. Legally speaking abortion is the expulsion of the products C. 18 years
of conception at any period of gestation before full term D. No age has been defined
B. The distinction between abortion, miscarriage-and Ans C
premature labor are NOT recognized in Indian Law Three ages that are very important from a medicolegal angle,
C. Abortion can be either natural or artificial and which are quite often confused together are 12 years,
D. Natural abortion occurs in about 0.5% of all pregnancies 16 years and 18 years. Please remember the following
Ans D facts:
The rate is about 10 to 15%. 12 years: Age of consent for general physical examination.
16 years: Age of consent for a girl for sexual intercourse.
159.Which of the following is the CORRECT definition 18 years: Age of consent for MTP. This leaves a few legal
of abortion legally? dilemmas though:
A. Termination of pregnancy before 28 weeks of pregnancy i. A 17-year-old girl (in fact any girl between 16-18 years)
B. Termination of pregnancy AFTER the woman has can give a valid consent for sexual intercourse, but if she
become' quick' with the chi Id becomes pregnant as a result, she can not give a valid
C. Termination of pregnancy any time before full term consent for MTP.
D. Termination of pregnancy after 24 weeks of pregnancy ii. A 14-year-old girl (in fact any girl between 12-16 years)
Ans C can have voluntary sexual intercourse with her boy friend.
The definition of abortion in a LEGAL SETTING is required If the girl's parents want to sue the boy by asserting that it
ONLY when there is a charge on someone that he has was a case of statutory rape, the girl can always refuse
done criminal abortion on a woman. The word "abortion" physical examination.
as such is NOWHERE defined in Indian law, neither in IPC,
nor in MTP. The word that comes closest to abortion in 163.Injection of fluid into the uterus causes abortion
Indian law is "miscarry", and it is defined in section 3121.P.C. due to:
This is taken as equivalent of abortion. According to Section A. Reflex stimulation of the uterine nerves causing it to expel
312 I.P.C. if abortion is done in an "illegal manner" any contents
time before full term, the abortionist would be held liable. B. Detachment of parts of the amniotic sac and placenta
This question can be changed slightly and asked like this- from the uterine walls
>Legally "abortion" is termination of pregnancy (a) before C. Uterine atony
6 weeks (b) before 16 weeks (c) before 26 weeks (d) D. Escape of liquor amnii from the uterus
before full term. The answer is (d). Ans B
160.Which of the following is the CORRECT definition 164.An ecbolic:
of abortion medically? A. Increases uterine contractions
A. Premature expulsion of fetus/products of conception at B. Increases the flow of menstrual blood
ANY time before full term C. Causes uterine atony
B. Premature expulsion of fetus/products of conception D. Increases the flow of urine
before 12 weeks Ans A
C. Premature expulsion of fetus/products of conception
between 12 and 20 weeks 165.An emmenagogue:
D. Premature expulsion of fetus/products of conception A. Decreases uterine contractions
before 28 weeks B. Decreases the flow of menstrual blood
Ans D C. Increases the flow of menstrual blood
If the fetus was expelled AFTER 28 weeks of pregnancy, it D. Causes uterine atony
would be called stillbirth, if it was alive just before delivery Ans C
but did not show any signs of life after being born.

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166.Diachylon, once commonly used to procure Ans A

criminal abortion mainly contained: For a death to be termed stillbirth, the child must be born
A. Juice of Semecarpus anacardium after 28 weeks of pregnancy. Before 28 weeks, it is usually
B. Leadoleate known as abortion.
C. Oil of pennyroyal
171.Spalding's sign is seen in:
D. Mercuric nitrate
A. Live born premature child
Ans B
B. Dead born child
Diachylon is in fact plaster originally composed of the juices
C. Still born child
of several plants, but now made of lead salts and oil. It
D. Both (B) and (C) above
essentially consists of glycerin mixed with lead salts of the
Ans B
fatty acids (e.g. lead oleate). This plaster was often scraped
Spalding's sign [named after Alfred Baker Spalding, American
to recover the metallic lead and ingested. Though abortion
obstetrician and gynecologist, 1874-1942] is a radiological
did occur sometimes, illness and death with acute and
sign. It is overlapping of fetal skull bones seen on x-ray (or
subacute poisoning was commoner.
ultrasound) examination. It occurs due to shrinkage of
cerebrum after intrauterine death.
167."Utus paste" was once commonly used to procure
criminal abortion. Which was its main component 172.Spalding sign is diagnostic of:
responsible for causing abortions? A. Prematurity
A. Iodine or some salt of iodine such as potassium iodide B. Postmaturity
B. Oil of pennyroyal C. Fetal death
C. Borax D. Hydrocephalus
D. Some salt of lead Ans C
Ans A
"Utus paste" is a mixture of soap, myrrh resinoid and 173. According to Indian law, which of the following
potassium iodide, where the iodide acted as an irritant constitutes birth of a living child?
causing abortion. It was once used for legitimate abortions A. If any part of the child has been brought forth from the
as well, but soon became popular with criminal birth canal, even though the child may not have breathed
abortionists. It was particularly useful in late abortions. or been completely born
This paste is injected into the cervix from a collapsible B. If any part of the child has been brought forth from the
tube (much like a modern toothpaste tube) with a uterine birth canal, and the child has shown signs of respiratory
applicator. efforts
It was a hazardous method of procuring abortion, death C. The child must have been completely brought forth from
occurring chiefly due to necrosis, infarction of the uterine the birth canal, respired and the umbilical cord has been
wall,-poisoning, air or fat embolism (note the paste severed
contained soap also). D. Nowhere does Indian law define the birth of a living child
Ans A
Topic : Infanticide Including Battered Baby The definition of live birth is different in different countries,
Syndrome and even in our own country different according to different
168.Which of the following facts regarding infanticide statutes.
is NOT correct? English law: According to the English law, live birth means
A. Infanticide has not been defined in the Indian Penal Code that the child must be born completely external to the
B. Infanticide is punishable under section 302 I.P.C. mother, irrespective of the attachment or severance of the
C. In a case of infanticide the mother is NOT punishable in cord, and manifesting some sign of independent life. Thus
India if the entire body of the child has issued forth from the
D. In a case of infanticide a post mortem examination is a mother, but one leg is still in the birth canal, and the child
must is crying, according to English law it would not be a live
Ans C birth.
Indian law: In India, at least two different bodies of law define
169.Filicide is: live birth.
A. Sudden infant death syndrome i. Section 2(d) of The Registration of Births And Deaths Act,
B. Stabbing ofa child by a metal file 1969 is more like the English law above. According to it,
C. Beating ofa child by its parents "live-birth" means the complete expulsion or extraction
D. Killing of a child by its parents from its mother of a product of conception, irrespective of
Ans D the duration of pregnancy, which after such expulsion or
170.All of the following facts about stillbirth are extraction, breathes or shows any other evidence of life,
correct except: and each product of such birth is considered live-born.
A. The child is born before 28 weeks of pregnancy ii. Explanation 3 of section 299 of I.P.C. defines live-birth
B. After being born it did not show any signs oflife completely differently. According to this explanation, a child
C. The child was alive in utero may be called "live born", if any part of that child has been
D. The child dies during the process of birth brought forth, though the child may not have breathed or

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been completely born. simultaneously checking if the liver is also floating in water
Consider these three situations now: or not.
Situation 1: The child has issued forth completely from the Normally liver should sink in water. But if even the liver floats,
birth canal. The cord may or may not have been severed. it is a clear indication that putrefactive changes have set
It is live, birth according to English law as well as both in. Liver should be floated in water only if there are no
organs of Indian law mentioned above. naked eye appearances of putrefaction. If naked eye
Situation 2: Most of the body of child has issued forth from changes of putrefaction, such as greenish discoloration of
the birth canal, and the child is respiring; but a part of it is the body, and foul smell etc are present, it is a foregone
still inside the birth canal, say a leg. This is NOT live birth conclusion, that the hydrostatic test is useless.
according to English law or The Registration Of Births And 2. Artificial respiration: If the child was born dead, and efforts
Deaths Act, 1969 of India. But it is live birth according to were made to revive him by giving forceful respiration
Explanation 3 of section 299 of IPC. If such a child is killed, (either mouth-to-mouth, or by a cannula), much air may
it would be considered equal to causing the death of a reach the lungs, causing them to float.
living child and not foeticide.
177.If the baby is born alive, the combined weight of
Situation 3: Only a part of the body, say an arm has issued
lungs will be 1/x of the total body weight. What is
forth from the birth canal. The situation is same as situation
the value of x here?
2 above. Causing the death of such a child would not be
A. 3.5
considered foeticide; it would be considered equal to
B. 7.0
causing death of a living child.
C. 35
174.Hydrostatic test is based on the following fact: D. 70
A. Weight of liver increases after birth, because portal vein Ans C
brings in more blood This is the Ploucquet's test. Before respiration the lungs weigh
B. Specific gravity of the lungs decreases after birth due to 1/70 of the total body weight.
respiration
C. Umbilical arteries obliterate after birth 178.Testing for the presence of air in the middle ear
D. Umbilical veins obliterate after birth is:
Ans B A. Fodere's test
To be sure, the weight of lungs increases due to blood flowing B. Ploucquet's test
in them. But at the same time their volume increases too C. Breslau's second life test
because of inspirations. The increase in volume more than D. Wreden's test
compensates for the increase in weight. The net effect is Ans D
a decrease in specific gravity. The specific gravity of lungs During embryonic life, the middle ear contains gelatinous
before respiration is said to be 1.04 to 1.05, while after tissue. During efforts of breathing, some air enters the
respiration it is 0.94. This causes the lungs to float in water middle ear through the Eustachian tube. Thus if the air is
(sp gr 1.00) in a live born child. In a child who has never found in the middle ear, it is quite reasonable to suppose
respired after birth, the lungs would drown. that the child had been born alive. Named after Roberto
Wreden of St.Petersburgh.
175.Hydrostatic test is also known as:
Note: This test is sometimes wrongly spelt as "Wredin's test".
A. Fodere's test
B. Ploucquet's test
179.Vagitus vaginalis is:
C. Wreden's test
A. An infection of vagina
D. Raygat's test
B. An infection of uterus
Ans D
C. A cry of unborn baby while within vaginal canal
D. Combined infection of both vagina and the uterus
176.Unaerated lungs may float in hydrostatic test in
Ans C
following conditions:
A. When gases have been released as a result of
180.In India, what is usually taken as the age of viability
putrefaction
of a child?
B. When artificial respiration has been given
A. 24 weeks (168 days)
C. Unaerated lungs never float in hydrostatic test
B. 28 weeks (196 days)
D. Both (A) and (B) above
C. 210 days
Ans D
D. 280 days
Not only do the aerated lungs sink, some times unaerated
Ans C
lungs may float giving one the impression that the baby
Nowhere in Indian law has viability been defined as in the
had been born alive, while he was actually born dead. The
English law. It is however taken as 210 days (from LMP)
conditions under which this happens are as follows:
by common consensus. In English law the age of viability
1. Putrefactive gases: If the child has been dead for some
has been defined. It is 24 weeks [The Infant Life
time (enough for putrefactive changes to set in),
(Preservation) Act, 1929].
putrefactive gases within the lungs would make them lighter
than water. This fallacy can be checked to some extent by

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181.All the following facts about concealment of birth 3Such as unnecessary, repetitive movements..
by secret disposal of dead body are correct except: The condition affects between one-half and one percent of
A. It is punishable u/s 318 of IPC the world's population, occurring with equal frequency in
B. The maximum punishment for this crime is 7 years males and females (although the onset of symptoms is
C. The crime is punishable irrespective of the fact whether usually earlier in males).
the child had died before, during or after birth Historically, schizophrenia was classified into catatonic,
D. It is applicable not just to parents but to anyone who hebephrenic, and paranoid, but now this classification is
conceals birth in this way obsolete. DSM-IV- TR (please see answer to an earlier
Ans B question) now classifies schizophrenia into five subtypes4:
The maximum punishment for this crime is imprisonment of 4To make matters somewhat confusing, ICD-10 (International
2 years and/or fine. The complete statement of this section Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision), uses nine
is as follows: subtypes: These are:
S 318. Concealment of birth by secret disposal of dead body- F20.0 Paranoid schizophrenia
Whoever, by secretly burying or otherwise disposing of F20.1 Hebephrenic schizophrenia
the death body of a child whether such child die before or F20.2 Catatonic schizophrenia
after or during its birth, intentionally conceals or endeavours F20.3 Undifferentiated schizophrenia
to conceal the birth of such child, shall be punished with F20.4 Post-schizophrenic depression
imprisonment of either description for a term which may F20.5 Residual schizophrenia
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. F20.6 Simple schizophrenia
F20.8 Other schizophrenia
182.Violent shaking of a child is most likely to produce:
F20.9 Schizophrenia, unspecified (A short note on
A. Rupture of the spleen
International classification of Diseases: ICD-10 was
B. Fracture of long bones
endorsed by the Forty-third World Health Assembly in May
C. Subdural haematoma
1990 and came into use in WHO Member States as from
D. Fracture of the orbital plates of the skull
1994. This classification had its origins in the 1850s. The
Ans C
first edition, known as the International List of Causes of
183.All of the following signs indicate live birth, except: Death, was adopted by the International Statistical Institute
A. Presence of air in the middle ear in 1893. WHO took over the responsibility for the ICD at its
B. Presence of milk in the stomach creation in 1948 when the Sixth Revision, which included
C. Diaphragm at the level of 6th or 7th rib causes of morbidity for the first time, was published.
D. Presence of vernix caseosa over the body ICD-10 is the latest in this series. Unlike DSM-V, which is
Ans D slated to appear in 2011, there are no immediate plans to
develop an ICD-11.
Topic : Forensic Psychiatry While ICD-10 attempts to classify all diseases, DSM-IV-TR
classifies only psychiatric illnesses. Unfortunately ICD-10
184."Waxy flexibility" is typically seen in: and DSM-IV-TR (the two major "disease classification
A. Catatonic type schizophrenia indices" in existence today) do not always agree on the
B. Paranoid type schizophrenia classification of psychiatric illnesses. However for
C. Disorganized type schizophrenia classification of psychiatric illnesses, DSM-IV-TR is by and
D. Residual type schizophrenia large considered the Bible).
Ans A o Disorganized type (295.1) [earlier known as hebephrenic
Additional info: Schizophrenia is a mental illness characterized schizophrenia].
by disordered thinking, delusions, hallucinations, emotional o Catatonic type (295.2).
disturbance, and withdrawal from reality. Some experts o Paranoid type (295.3).
view schizophrenia as a group of related illnesses with iv. Undifferentiated type (295.9).
similar characteristics, typified by (i) 'positive symptoms' v. Residual type (295.6).
[presence of symptoms which should not be there e.g. [The numbers within brackets refer to the numerical codes
delusions and hallucinations], (ii) 'negative symptoms' which DSM gives to these subtypes.]
[absence of behaviors/traits, which should be there1 e.g. Major diagnostic criteria of each type are as below:
inappropriate emotion, poverty of speech (alogia), and lack o In disorganized type, thought disorder (e.g. knight's move
of motivation (avolition), absence of normal social and thinking) and flat or inappropriate emotions (incongruous
interpersonal behaviors] and (iii) 'disorganized symptoms' grinning and grimacing) are present together. Behavior and
[consisting of thought disorders like knight's move speech are disorganized; they often burst out laughing for
thinking2, and disorganized behavior3 and speech]. no apparent reason. Their contact with reality is extremely
2Knight's move thinking (or derailment) is said to occur when poor. Their behavior is best described as silly or fatuous.
the patient moves from one train of thought to another These are the typical "paagal" patients as a common man
which has no apparent connection to the first ("I was going understands it.
from Mumbai to .... where did you buy that tie?"). The o In catatonic type, marked peculiarities of posture or
name apparently takes its name from the chess piece that movement are present. These may comprise waxy
moves two steps forward and one to the side. flexibility, where the patient's limbs can be 'molded' into a

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position and they would remain fixed in that position for 186.Clérambault-Kandinsky syndrome is an example of:
long periods of time.5 Disorganized and catatonic A. Illusion
schizophrenia affect a very small percentage of people. B. Hallucination
5Other major motor symptoms seen in catatonic C. Delusion
schizophrenia are (i) Echopraxia (automatic imitation of D. Alcoholic neurosis
another person's movements even when asked not to) Ans C
(ii) Negativism (motiveless resistance to instructions and Clérambault-Kandinsky syndrome (also known as Kandinsky-
attempts to be moved, or doing the opposite of what is Clerambault syndrome) is a clinical entity in which the
asked) and (iii) Posturing (adoption of inappropriate or patient believes his mind is being controlled by someone
bizarre bodily posture continuously for a substantial period else or external forces. Since it is a false belief in something
of time without tiring) which is not a fact, it is a kind of delusion. Several types
o In paranoid type, delusions and hallucinations (most are recognized. In one form - known - as command
commonly auditory, but may also be visual) are present. It automatism - activities are carried out without conscious
is the most prevalent type, found in some 40% of affected knowledge on the part of the subject, with automatic
persons. obedience to any command or suggestion.
o In undifferentiated type, the patient meets the basic criteria The syndrome is named after a French physician Gaëtan
for schizophrenia, but cannot be classified as either Gatian de Clerambault (1872-1934), and the Russian
paranoid, disorganized, or catatonic types. It forms the psychiatrist Victor C. Kandinsky (1825-1889) who described
second largest group after paranoid type. this syndrome.
o In residual type, the patient at one time met criteria for Additional info: de Clerambault's name has been applied to
catatonic, disorganized, paranoid or undifferentiated yet another syndrome known as de Clerambault's syndrome
schizophrenia. But currently the patient no longer has or simply Clerambault's syndrome. This is the delusion
pronounced catatonic behavior, delusions, hallucinations that one is loved by another person, usually of higher social
or disorganized speech or behavior. status or celebrity.
The patient however is still ill, as indicated by either (i) Negative
symptoms such as flattened affect (emotions), reduced 187.An hallucinatory or dream-like state caused by
speech output or lack of volition, or (ii) An attenuated form such conditions as prolonged deprivation of sleep,
of at least 2 characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia, such sensory isolation, or drugs is known as:
as odd beliefs (related to delusions), distorted perceptions A. Oneirophrenia
(hallucinations), odd speech (disorganized speech) or B. Somnolentia
peculiarities of behavior (disorganized behavior). Several C. Semisomnolence
variants can be asked on this question based on the above D. Lucid interval
information. Ans A
One frequently asked question is->Most common The term comes from the Greek words "oneiros" (dream)
hallucinations seen in schizophrenia are (a) u,., visual (b) and "phrenos" (mind). Also known as "oneiroid state", it
auditory (c) tactile (d) olfactory. The answer is (b) auditory. has some of the characteristics of simple schizophrenia,
Historically, schizophrenia was classified into catatonic, such as a confusional state and clouding of consciousness.
hebephrenic, and paranoid, but now this classification is Persons affected by oneirophrenia have a feeling of dream-
obsolete. DSM-IV- TR (please see answer to an earlier like unreality which in its extreme form may progress to
question) now classifies schizophrenia into five subtypes4: delusions and hallucinations. Therefore, it is considered
an schizophrenia-like acute form of psychosis. A person
185.An aerial root is dangling from a tree and it is doing a criminal act during an oneiroid state may not be
perfectly visible as such to normal people. However held responsible for his criminal actions.
a psychiatric patient perceives it as a snake. This
is an example of: 188.Pseudodementia is seen in:
A. Illusion A. Anxiety neurosis
B. Delusion B. Schizophrenia
C. Hallucination C. Manic states
D. Fugue D. All of the above
Ans A Ans B
False perception of a stimulus (an aerial root or a rope), Dementia is significant loss of intellectual abilities such as
which has a real existence is called illusion. A variant of memory capacity, severe enough to interfere with social
this question may be asked like this->The false perception or occupational functioning. Dementia is more frequent
of a stimulus, which has a real existence is called (a) with increasing age. Alzheimer's disease is the most
delusion (b) illusion (c) fugue (d) hallucination. The answer common form of dementia. Among other causes are
is (b) illusion. medical conditions (thyroid disease, drug toxicity, thiamine
deficiency with alcoholism, and others), brain injury,
strokes, multiple sclerosis, infection of the brain (such as
meningitis and syphilis), HIV infection, hydrocephalus, Pick's
disease, and brain tumors.

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Pseudodementia (false dementia) is an extreme condition of 192.Christmas tree stain may be used to
general apathy simulating dementia, possibly with no actual detect:
defect of intelligence. It is seen in organic brain disease, A. Spermatozoa in vaginal swabs
epilepsy or schizophrenia. B. Y-chromosome in mucosal cells
C. Urine stains
189.According to the old system of classification of D. Occult blood
the mentally retarded, an idiot was one, who had Ans A
an IQ: Christmas tree stain is a very common staining technique
A. Below 20 used to detect spermatozoa. It uses two dyes - Nuclear
B. Between 20-49 Fast Red dye and Picroindigocarmine (PIC). The former
C. Between 50-69 (Nuclear Fast Red dye) stains nuclear material red while
D. Between 70-80 the latter (Picroindigocarmine) stains most other cellular
Ans A material (e.g. epithelial cells) various shades of green. It
Old system of classification of mental retardation used three is called Christmas tree stain because red and green are
terms - idiot, imbecile and moron. These terms have traditional Christmas colors (the appearance is much like
become so stigmatized today that they are no more used red ornaments on a green Christmas tree).
by psychiatrists. Unfortunately questions continue to be
asked on these, so it is useful to remember this older 193.Kastle-Mayer test is also known as:
classification: A. Benzidine test
Idiot: IQ below 20. Their mental age is below a three year B. Precipitin test
old child; they are clumsy, awkward, untidy and require C. Phenolphthalein test
constant supervision in the performance of the simplest D. Haemochromogen test
requirement of living. Ans C
Imbecile: IQ between 20-49. They may attain a mental level
of six or seven years. Imbeciles can generally talk with a 194.Takayama reagent is used in:
very crude vocabulary, can be taught simple manual tasks. A. Guaiacum test
Moron: IQ between 50-69. The moron ranges in mental B. Kastle-Meyer test
accomplishment between the eight-year level and the C. Haemin crystal test
lower adult normal which is ordinarily reached at about D. Haemochromogen crystal test
the fifteenth year. Ans D
Borderline deficiency: IQ between 70-80. Takayama reagent is used in Haemochromogen crystal test.
As stated above, these terms are now largely obsolete and The crytals are of salmon pink color. Shape is feathery. No
mental deficiency is now generally called mental heating is required. Slide is examined under the microscope
retardation. just in five minutes. Test is of more value than Teichmann
Table 28.1 shows the currently used classi-fication of mental test or Haemin crystal test.
retardation in the USA: Mnemonic for the tests:
It would be interesting to note the classification of individuals o Teichmann"Haemin ? minimum value " Described earlier
with higher IQs too. Cognitive psychologist Lewis Madison (in 1853 by Ludwig Teichmann of Kracow, Poland).
Terman (1877-1956) of US classified higher intelligence o Takayama ? Haemochromogen ? More value ? Described
as follows (Table 28.2): later (in 1912 by Masaeo Takayama, Japan).
Related facts for Teichmann test (of less value).
Topic : Forensic Examination of Biological o Test consists of heating dried blood in the presence of
Fluids, Stains, Trace Evidence and glacial acetic acid and a halide (usually chloride) to form a
Other Material (Hair Etc.) hematin derivative.
o Place a sample of suspected blood on a microscope slide,
190.Barberio's test is done for: add a small amount of chloride-containing glacial acetic
A. Blood acid, and heat.
B. Urine o Crystals formed are Hemin or Ferri-protoporphyrin chloride.
C. Saliva o Crytals formed are observed micro-scopically; brown,
D. Semen rhombic.
Ans D o Stain age is not a problem in experienced hands.
o Greatest difficulty in performing the test is controlling the
191.When two objects come in contact, a mutual heating of sample. Very easy to overheat or underheat the
exchange of material takes place between them. preparation, resulting in failure of crystals to form.
This principle is known as: o This problem is removed by Takayama, in which no heating
A. Galton exchange principle is required (watch out for this fact, as this can form a
B. Locard exchange principle good MCQ question).
C. Bertillion system Related facts for Takayama test (of more value):
D. The rule of Haase o Principle: If heme is gently heated with pyridine uner alkaline
Ans B conditions in the presence of a reducing sugar such as

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glucose, crystals of Haemochromogen or Pyridine Benzidine test is merely used for screening of blood. It does
ferroprotoporphyrin are formed. Note that though heating not confirm blood. Haemin crystal test confirms blood, but
is not essential (unlike in Teichmann test), gentle heating does not give the species. It is the precipitin test which
at 37°C in an incubator, especially in cold weather will gives the species.
hasten reaction.
o This reaction was examined in detail by Takayama. 196.Child's own gamma globulin begins to form from:
According to him, the mixture that gives best results is: A. Third month of intrauterine life
o Water: Saturated glucose solution: Sodium hydroxide B. Birth
(10%): pyridine = 2:1:1:1. C. Third month of extra uterine life
o This fact can be asked in an MCQ like this? Which of the D. Second year of extra uterine life
following tests for blood uses saturated glucose solution Ans C
and sodium hydroxide? (a) benzidine (b)Takayama (c) At birth newborn has all gamma globulin from his mother. As
Teichmann (d) Spectroscopy ? Answer of course is (b) such Gm and Inv studies are useful in cases of mix up or
Takayama. exchange of babies in hospitals.
o Another related MCQ could be ?Which of the following is
NOT a constituent of Takayama reagent? (a) Sodium 197.In old blood stained fibre, blood grouping is done
chloride (b) Glucose (c) Sodium Hydroxide (d) Pyridine ? by:
The answer is (a) Sodium chloride. Remember ? Sodium A. Benzidine test
chloride is used in Teichmann test, NOT in Takayama test. B. Acid elution test
o A related MCQ on Teichmann test could be ? Which of the C. Precipitin test
following reagents is NOT used in Teichmann test? (a) D. Hem in crystal test
Glacial acetic acid (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sodium hydroxide Ans B
(d) Both (a) and (c) ? The correct answer is (c) Sodium When blood dries to form a stain, blood cells - like other cells
Hydroxide. - dehydrate and their structures are damaged. Since the
How the Takayama test is conducted? RBCs are broken in stains, it is not possible to do their
o Place dried stain extract, or powdered material scrapped blood grouping by conventional methods. Staining is done
from the stain on a glass slide and cover with a cover slip. by indirect methods utilizing the fact that antigens are still
o The cover slip is generally very small (2 millimeters square sticking to the broken RBC cell walls.
or even smaller). This allows the test to be carried out on If for example a small amount of Anti-A is added to an A
a small stain quantity. stain, the A antigen present in the broken RBC walls would
o Two or three drops of Takayama's reagent solution are "absorb" Anti-A, making Anti-A ineffective for subsequent
allowed to run in under the cover slip and saturate the clumping of known group A blood.
sample. This is known as "absorption inhibition" test (because
o Slide is examined under the microscope after five minutes. antibodies are "absorbed" and the subsequent clumping is
o Pink feathery crystals are seen, which confirm presence "inhibited"). This is one method by which blood group of
of hemoglobin. blood stain can be determined (Fig. 29.4).
o The test is effective on aged stains. In the above case, it is possible to detach (or elute) the A
o The test gives positive results. antibodies absorbed on to the stain, by heat (56°C), ether
o Most recent improvement of Takayama test has been or acid. This "eluted" antibody can then be used to clump
offered by A.L.Hatch in 1993. It is known that oxygen and known A cells. This is known as "absorption elution" or
pyridine compete for the same binding site on the heme "acid elution" test. This is the second method of
molecule. Hatch used Cleland's reagent (dithiothreitol) to determination of blood group of stains (Fig. 29.5).
reduce this competition and shift the reaction in favor of By repeating the above two tests by different antisera (Anti
pyridine. This increases the rate at which hemochromogen A, Anti B and Anti H), blood group of any stain can be
crystals are formed. determined. Acid elution method is considered to be the
o Related MCQ on this could be ? Cleland's reagent could be best method for determining blood group of stains.
used to accelerate which of the following tests? (a) There are two more methods for deter-mination of blood
Teichmann's test (b) Ammonium molybdate test (c) group of stains. One is "mixed agglutination" method and
Florence test (d) Takayama test ? The correct answer is the other is "Lattes crust method". A detailed discussion of
(d) Takayama test. these tests is beyond the scope of this book.

195.Which of the following tests can best be used to 198.Guaiacum test gives……color in the presence of
determine the human origin of a blood stain? blood:
A. Precipitin test A. Pink
B. Benzidine test B. Deep blue
C. Haemin crystal test C. Bright green
D. Any of the above D. Yellowish brown
Ans A Ans B

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Six color tests have been traditionally used by forensic True negative is also always 100%.
scientists to detect blood stains. All these tests use the A good screening test must have a very high true positive
peroxidase like activity of heme to knock a nascent oxygen rate, say 99.9%, i.e. it must almost always be able to
atom off hydrogen peroxide. This nascent oxygen atom detect blood when it is present.
brings about a color change in various reagents. These It is quite possible that such a test may have a high false
color changes have often been asked in exami-nations. positive rate also, but that does not really matter, as our
Here are all color changes (Table 29.2): main interest is in the fact that true blood stains may not
Mnemonic: Remember B both for Benzidine and Blue. Ortho- be missed.
tolidine and TMB are both related to benzidine so the color A good confirmatory test must have a very low false positive
is similar (blue green). R emember P both for rate, say 0.1 %, i.e. it must almost never say the stain is
Phenolphthalein and pink. blood, when it actually is not.
Note:
i. Guaicum impregnated paper is also used to detect occult 200.All of the following are tests for seminal stains
blood in stool. The principle is same. except:
ii. All color tests mentioned above use hydrogen peroxide. A. Takayama test
B. Barberio's test
199.Which of the following is usually employed as a C. Florence test
screening test for blood? D. Acid phosphatase test
A. Takayama test Ans A
B. Teichmann test Takayama test is for confirmation of blood.
C. Kastle -Meyer test
D. Spectrophotometry Forensic Medicine Day 4 Quiz
Ans C
The correct answer is Kastle-Meyer test - also known as the 1. "Interrupting once widely used for procuring
Phenolphthalein test. All other tests are confirmatory tests. criminal abortion contained
Additional info: Students may want to know more about A. Mercuric nitrate
screening tests and confirmatory tests. To understand these B. Borax
tests, the concept of "sensitivity of a test" and "specificity C. A mixture of Colocynth and Aloes
of a test" need to be appreciated. D. Elemental iodine
The specificity of a test has nothing to do with detection at Ans D
low concentrations; instead it signifies the ability of the "Utus paste", interruptin was also a paste used exactly in a
test to come positive ONLY WHEN BLOOD IS PRESENT. If, similar manner. It contained elemental iodine which acted
for example, we take 100 suspicious stains of blood of as an irritant. The risks were the same as with "Utus paste".
which the stain was truly of blood only in, say, 63 cases, a
test with a very high specificity would be positive only in 2. A 24 weeks pregnant woman goes to a quack and
those 63 cases; in all other cases, it would be negative. A requests him to conduct an abortion. The quack
test with lesser specificity may come positive when the takes a written consent. He then tries some
stain was other than blood (false positive) or may come unscientific procedure on her following which the
negative when the stain was really blood (false negative). woman dies. The quack can be successfully
In other words a test with a high specificity should ideally prosecuted under which of the following sections?
have a 0% false positive and a 0% false negative rate. A. S 302 IPC
Tests that are used for screening purposes usually have high B. S312 IPC
sensitivity (99 percent) even at the expense of a low C. S313 IPC
specificity, since once a test result is negative, further testing D. S314 IPC
is usually not done. Ans : D
Benzidine, Ortho-tolidine, Tetramethyl-benzidine (TMB),
Phenolphthalein (Kastle -Meyer test), Leucomalachite green Section 314 I.P.C. deals with death of mother caused by an
and Guaicum tests are screening tests of blood, i.e. they act done with intent of miscarriage with or without the
are able to detect blood at very low concentrations. They consent of the woman. The student should remember
do not have a very high specificity, i.e. they may come following sections related to abortion:
positive even when the stain was not really blood. On the S 312gCausing miscarriage with woman's consent: Woman
other hand tests like Takayama and Teichmann have a herself can be charged under this section if she tries
very high specificity (even though they may have a low miscarriage on herself. If she was not quick with the child,
sensitivity), i.e. they are confirmatory tests of blood. These punishment is 3 years and fine; if quick the punishment is
tests come positive ONLY when the stain is that of blood. 7 years and fine.
We of course must know the reason why this is so - because S 313gCausing miscarriage without woman's consent: The
they make crystals of hemoglobin. punishment is life imprisonment with fine whether or not
A look at the Table 29.3 may also be helpful. the woman was quick with the child or not.
It must be appreciated that for every test True positive + S 314gDeath caused by act done with intent to cause
False negative is always 100%. Similarly False positive + miscarriage: Remember that in both s 312 and s 313, death

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of mother is not caused. If however the death is caused 5. Autolytic decomposition of the dead foetus in an
the person will be charged under this section. Punishment aseptic environment, as in the uterus is known as:
is 10 years and fine, if the woman had given consent for A. Putrefaction
miscarriage, and life imprisonment and fine, if the woman B. Adipocere
had not consented. C. Mummification
S 315gAct done with intent to prevent chi Id being born alive D. Maceration
or to cause it to die after birth: The person carrying out Ans D
miscarriage is liable to be prosecuted under this section if Variant: A variant is often asked like this ->Asceptic autolysis
the pregnancy was greater than 28 weeks. By this time is seen in (a) Maceration (b) Mummification (c) Adipocere
the child becomes viable and by trying this procedure, he (d) Putrefaction. Answer is (a) Maceration.
is preventing the child to be born alive. 6. Robert's sign is a sign of:
A. Down's syndrome in the fetus
B. Gonadal agenesis in the fetus
S 316gCausing death of quick unborn child by act amounting C. Intrauterine growth retardation
to culpable homicide: This is rather complex. The best D. Intrauterine death
example is this-"A person attacks a pregnant mother with Ans D
knife. The mother is quick with the child. The person had Robert's sign is a sign of intrauterine fetal death usually seen
no intention to cause miscarriage. His intention was to kill radiologically or ultra- sonographically during the 2nd and
mother. He stabs the mother. The knife enters the uterus 3rd trimesters. Robert's sign is said to be positive, when
and kills the child. The mother is subsequently saved. The air is seen in aorta, pulmonary vessels or abdomen.
attacker can not take defense that he had no intention to Robert's sign is the earlier sign to appear; it appears as
cause miscarriage. He would be charged under this section early as 12 hours after intrauterine death. Spalding's sign
(Fig. 26.1). appears as late as about 7 days after death.
Major signs of intrauterine death (seen sono-v graphically)
3. Which of the following facts about the Infanticide are:
Act of England, 1938 is incorrect? o Absent cardiac activity.
A. It deals with killing of a child under 12 months of age o Exaggerated curvature (hyperflexion) of the fetal spine.
B. It applies only to the mother o Crowding of the ribs shadow with loss of normal
C. It applies to everyone who kills a child below 12 months parallelism.
of age o Air in aorta, pulmonary vessels or abdomen (Robert's sign).
D. In India, there is no equivalent Act o Overlapping skull bones (Spalding's radiographic sign).
Ans C o Reduction of biparietal diameter by 5 mm at 4 days' interval.
Under the Infanticide Act, 1938, of England, killing of a child o Lack of all fetal motion during a 10-minute period of careful
under 12 months of age by its mother is a crime which observation.
deserves leniency, because the mother's mental faculties o Fetal maceration.
may be disturbed (this is a known physiological fact). The
Infanticide Act, 1938 provides a defence to mothers where 7. Macerated fetus indicates:
"at the time of the act or omission the balance of her mind A. A dead born child
was disturbed by reason of her not having fully recovered B. A stillborn child
from the effect of giving birth to the child or by reason of C. A live born child
the effect of lactation consequent upon the birth of the D. Intra Uterine Growth Retardation
child." "special defence" is available only to mothers and Ans A
not to anyone else. There is no such equivalent law in 8. Hydrostatic test is done to:
India. Hence if in India, a mother kills her child under effects A. Differentiate between a stillborn and a dead born child
of ia\ delivery or lactation, she would be charged under S. B. Differentiate between a live born and still born child
302. She can take a defence under s.84 of IPC C. Assess the time interval for which the child survived after
(unsoundness of mind), but it may prove difficult. birth
Additional info: England has traditionally viewed infanticide D. Assess if the child was capable of being born alive or
as a "special crime" passing its first Infanticide Act in 1623 not
under the Stuarts and subsequently the Infanticide Acts of Ans B
1922 and 1938. Most recently England passed the Infanticide
Act of 1978 which allows a lesser sentence for attempted 9. For hydrostatic test to be positive at all stages,
infanticide. the following must be present inside lung alveoli:
A. Residual air
4. Neonaticide is killing of a child within: B. Tidal air
A. 1 hour of its birth C. Exudates and tidal air
B. 24 hours of its birth D. Amniotic fluid
C. 15 days of its birth Ans A
D. One month of its birth The capacity of the lungs is physiologically divided into three
Ans B areas: (i) Residual air, which is air that is left in the
lungs after full expiration (ii) Tidal air, which is the ebb

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and flow of normal breathing (0.5 Liters) and (iii) Vital test on such a child, one would tend to think that the child
capacity, which is the total amount of air that can be had never respired (and thus born dead) although the truth
exhaled from full inspiration to full expiration (4 to 5 is otherwise.
Liters). 4. Complete absorption of air from the lungs: It is well-known
Also ismember that: that the heart keeps beating even after respiration has
Vital capacity - tidal air volume = reserve volume. stopped. If the heart beats for an unusually long period
Hydrostatic test is performed in following four stages: after cessation of respiration, all air within the lungs would
1. Whole thoracic pluck consisting of both lungs and heart be absorbed by the circulation.
are placed in a bucket of water. If the pluck floats, it indicates 11. Which of the following refers to Fodere's test?
that the infant may have born alive. If the pluck sinks, A. There is air in the stomach and intestine
move to second stage. B. There is air in the middle ear
2. Each brochus is tied, and lungs severed above the ligature. C. The weight of both lungs (combined) is about 30-40 g
Each lung is then placed separately in water. If either lung before respiration and about 60-70 g after respiration
floats, it indicates that the infant may have born alive. If D. Before respiration, both lungs together form about 1/70
either lung sinks, move to third stage. of the total body weight of the infant. After respiration
3. Cut each lung in 12-20 pieces, and then observe if they they weigh about 1/35 of the total body weight
float. Same criteria applies as above. Ans C
4. Each piece is now taken out of water, wrapped in a piece Lungs increase in absolute weight after birth. This is the
of cloth and squeezed by putting a weight. This is an Fodere's test. The test referred to in choice (D) is the
important step as it removes the tidal air. Residual air still Ploucquet's test.
remains within the alveoli, which can not be talcen out by Variant: This question has also been asked as Fodere's test
any means. If the pieces of lung still float, the live birth of is for (a) Homicide (b) Live birth (c) Mercury poisoning (d)
the infant is said to have been established. Methanol poisoning. The answer is (b) Live birth.
If the lungs were earlier floating due to artefacts (such as
gases introduced by artificial respiration), the pieces of 12. Breslau's second life test for the presence of air
lung would not continue to float till the last stage. in:
Additional info: A. Stomach and intestines
1. A piece of liver is also sunk in water as control. It must B. Lungs
sink in normal conditions. If it floats, the test may be of C. Middle ear
dubious value. D. Anal canal
2. Radiography of lungs may be done to see air within them. Ans A
3. At the third stage, when each lung has been divided into Breslau's second life test is another test to indicate whether
12-20 pieces following two examinations may be done: the baby was born alive. During respiration, usually some
i. Dip each piece under water and squeeze between thumb air enters the GIT too. If the stomach and intestines are
and finger and see if any bubbles are escaping. removed en bloc, their both ends tied and placed in water,
ii. Roll a piece of lung gently between a finger and thumb they would float if there is air within the stomach. The test
near the ear and see if there is a crackling crepitant noise. has been called the second test of life, because in mediaeval
times, the test of primary importance was considered to
10. Aerated lungs may sink in hydrostatic test in be hydrostatic test, this (Breslau's test) being only a
following conditions: corroborative test.
A. Presence of an alveolar duct membrane Thus if the stomach and intestines floated, it would mean
B. Complete absorption of air from the lungs that the child had been born alive.
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. Aerated lungs always float in hydrostatic test 13. Vagitus uterinus is a condition when:
Ans C A. Uterus is atrophied and is imperceptibly merged with
If the child has respired, one would expect the lungs to float, vagina
yet they may sink because of certain reasons. They are: B. Uterus protrudes out of vagina, making it medico legally
1. Diseases: Some diseases which cause consolidation, may impossible to differentiate between live born and dead
cause even the aerated lungs to sink, leading to born child
misinterpretation of the test. These diseases are C. Child cries when still in uterus
pneumonia, and acute oedema. D. The uterine outlet fails to relax, making it difficult for
2. Alveolar duct membrane: Normally this membrane is absent child to be born, causing )X to die within the uterus
at the time of birth. But if it is present, it would prevent Ans C
entry of air in the alveoli, even if violent efforts were made Rarely after the early rupture of membranes, air may enter
to inhale. the uterus and the child may breathe and cry. This crying
3. Feeble respiratory effort: If after the initial few normal may even be heard by anxious relatives waiting outside
respirations, the respiratory efforts become feeble, more the delivery room. They may believe that the baby has
air would be expelled during the expiration, than would be been born, and is alive and healthy. If this baby later dies
taken in during inspiration. This would cause all air to be within the birth canal for natural reasons, it could be
expelled from the lungs eventually. By conducting hydrostatic extremely difficult to convince them that the child was never

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born alive in the first place. 15. Legal age in India by which fetus is capable of
They would always believe that the child died because of independent existence is:
medical negligence. If hydrostatic test is performed in A. 180 days
these cases, it would indicate respiration further B. 210 days
corroborating the doubts of the relatives. C. 220 days
A similar cry when the child is within the vagina is known as D. Not defined in Indian law
vagitus vaginalis. A related question is below. Ans D
As stated earlier, age of viability of an infant is not defined
14. Which of the following is the earliest to close? legally in India. However by common consensus it is taken
A. Umbilical artery to be 210 days. At the age of viability, a special chemical,
B. Umbilical vein called the pulmonary surfactant appears in the alveoli of
C. Ductus venosus lungs. This chemical reduces the surface tension of the
D. Ductus arteriosus alveoli and they become able to inflate. When the
Ans A pulmonary surfactant is deficient, neonatal respiratory
This is one of the most tricky questions students can face. distress syndrome (RDS, also called hyaline membrane
Remember this mnemonic: disease) may result.
A->V -> V ->A -> 0 Additional info: Pulmonary surfactant is rich in disaturated
This stands for Arteries [umbilical, there are two of them), phosphatidyl choline (lecithin). Lecithin synthesis in the
Veins (ductus venosus and umbilical vein (left umbilical lung increases dramatically as the lung matures and
vein; remember only left is left!), Arteriosus (ductus), Ovale begins producing surfactant. Lecithin levels are generally
(foramen)]. expressed as a ratio against sphingo-myelin, a non-
The position of Ductus venosus: pulmonary lipid whose concentration is relatively constant
It is in the liver. It starts where umbilical vein joins the left in amnio-tic fluid (Remember L for lung, and lecithin).
branch of portal vein, and ends when it joins the left hepatic Thus the lecithin level is generally expressed as a lecithin-
vein to v immediately end in IVC. to-sphingomyelin ratio or L/S ratio. L/S ratios of greater
than 2 are rarely associated with RDS. L/S ratios of less
than 2 indicate increased risk of RDS.
Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) is another lipid that shows a similar
time course. It is also an indicator of lung maturity.

16. Caffey's syndrome is another name for:

A. Secondary drowning of infants in amniotic fluid
B. Munchausen's syndrome by proxy
C. Battered baby syndrome
D. Sudden infant death syndrome
Ans C

17. Exposure and abandonment of child under twelve

years by his parents may lead to their prosecution
under section:
A. 301 I.P.C.
B. 317 I.P.C.
C. 318 I.P.C.
Sometimes fossa ovalis can take longer to close, and D. 363 I.P.C.
sometimes remains open throughout life. In that case it Ans B
may give rise to a condition, known as morbus ceruleus. This question often appears wrongly in several MCQ books
The peritoneum lining the lower part of the anterior as->Negligence on the part of the father towards the son
abdominal wall is raised into five ridges. The one in the can be punished under section (a)319 (b)317 (c) 315
median plane extends from the apex of the urinary bladder (d)318. The intended answer is (b) 317, but this is a wrongly
to the umbilicus. It contains the urachus and is termed the framed question.
median umbilical fold.
Lateral to this are the medial umbilical folds, which contain 18. Psychiatric diseases are currently classified
the obliterated umbilical arteries, and still lateral to them according to:
are the lateral umbilical folds, which contain the inferior A. DSM-III
epigastric artery. B. DSM-IV
The spaces between the median and medial umbilical folds C. DSM-IV-TR
are called supravesical fossae. Space between medial and D. DSM-V
lateral umbilical folds is called the medial inguinal fossa. Ans C
The space lateral to lateral umbilical fold is the lateral DSM or "The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
inguinal fossa. Disorders" was published by the American Psychiatric

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Association first in 1952, mainly to bring a uniformity in Fugue state is important in forensic psychiatry because a
the naming of psychiatric disorders, many of which were person who commits a crime under the fugue state may
haphazardly named before this date. Same disease was claim defence under section 84 of the l.P.C.
often called by different names in different cultures 22. A psychoanalytical technique of curing patients,
making a meaningful communication between whereby long forgotten and other traumatic
psychiatrists a near impossibility. The first edition of this experiences or repressed emotions are revived and
manual was called DSM-1 and it contained about 60 brought into consciousness is known as:
different disorders.
Subsequently this manual has been revised a number of A. Fugue
times. DSM-II was published in 1968, DSM-III in 1980, B. Empathy
DSM-III-R (Revised) in 1987, DSM-IV in 1994 and finally C. Oneiroid state
DSM-IV-TR (Text Revision) in 2000. Work on DSM-V has D. Abreaction
already begun and it will be published in 2011. Ans D
19. A false belief in something which is not a fact is The term abreaction has a long history in psychiatry and has
called: its origins in psychoanalysis. Many psychiatrists believe that
A. Illusion patients repress their past traumatic experiences (such as
B. Delusion childhood sexual abuse) into their subconscious. This may
C. Delirium give rise to several psychological disorders. If some how
D. Hallucination these traumatic experiences are brought at their conscious
Ans B level, their psychological symptoms will disappear.
20. A psychiatric person hears sounds of daggers being Many techniques including drugs (e.g. barbiturate-assisted
sharpened, while normal people around him do not interviewing) are used for this. This is known as abreaction.
hear anything. This is an example of: An abreaction is typically an unpleasant state; sometimes
A. Illusion a client will cry after experiencing it.
B. Obsessive compulsive behavior Abreaction is used rarely and only by a minority of consultants.
C. Hallucination Future psychiatrists are unlikely to be skilled in the use of
D. Fugue abreaction and its use will decline. Abreaction is still used
Ans C in Asia and the US.
Conditions where there is no real stimulus, yet the person 23. Metis rea refers to:
perceives them are termed hallucinations. Any sense A. Guilty action
organ may be involved; visual hallucinations involve sight B. Guilty mind
(someone seeing snakes dangling from a branch when C. Civil responsibility of the insane
there is absolutely nothing dangling from there; not even D. Sleepwalking
aerial roots as in the previous question), auditory Ans B
hallucinations involve hearing (as in the above example) Legally speaking, a crime is said to consist of two components
and tactile hallucinations involve sense of touch (someone - a guilty mind or mens rea and a forbidden act or actus
feeling ants crawling underneath his skin). Gustatory and reus. If either of the two is missing, criminal responsibility
olfactory hallucinations are less common. is diminished or absent.
A variation of the question may be asked like this->The false The concept of mem rea is central to forensic psychiatry.
perception in the absence of any stimulus is called (a) Insane people may commit a forbidden act (say murder),
delusion (b) illusion (c) fugue (d) hallucination. The but they do not have a guilty mind, as they do not know
answer is (d) hallucination. what they are doing. So they are exempt from punishment.
21. A disorder in which a person suffers about of 24. Indian lunacy act was passed in:
amnesia and then flees his home and forgets his A. 1804
identity is known as: B. 1881
A. Abreaction C. 1912
B. Impulse D. 1921
C. Affect Ans : C
D. Fugue This Act has now been repealed, and has been replaced by
Ans D the Mental Health Act.
The word "fugue" comes from the Latin fuga (flight) andfugere 25. Which of the following sections of the Indian law
(to flee). Also known as dissociative fugue or psychogenic incorporates the McNaugh-ten's rule?
fugue, it is a curious disorder in which a person suffers a A. Section 44 I.P.C.
bout of amnesia and then flees his home and forgets his B. Section 84 I.P.C.
identity. Often the person will travel far away from his C. Section 87 I.P.C.
home, assume a new identity, and live as a different person D. Section 84 Cr.P.C.
until he "snaps out" of his amnesic state. A fugue state is Ans B
often triggered by stress.

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26. Which of the following has been used as the rule A. 5 days
for the criminal responsibility of the insane? B. 10 days
A. McNaughten's rule C. 30 days
B. Durham's rule D. There is no such limit
C. Curren's rule Ans : B
D. All of the above Whenever a wandering, dangerous or cruelly treated mentally
Ans : D ill person is brought before the magistrate for a reception
order, the procedure is that the magistrate will examine
A variant of this question is->A11 of the following are related the person himself and cause him to be examined by the
to legal responsibility of an insane person except (a) medical officer. However if it appears to the medical officer
McNaughten's rule (b) Durham's rule (c) Rule of nine that such a person is feigning insanity (perhaps if he has
(d) Curren's rule. The answer is (c). committed a crime), he may need to watch him for an
extended period of time.
27. Which of the following facts regarding voluntary To enable him to do so, the magistrate can pass an order to
admission in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric detain the allegedly mentally ill person for a period of 10
nursing home is INCORRECT? days [section 28 (1) of Mental Health Act]. If more period
A. Under section 15 of the Act, any mentally ill person can of detention is required, further orders for detention have
himself get admitted in a psychiatric hospital or to be passed. However any single order canjriot be for,more
psychiatric nursing home, without the opinion of any than 10 days, arid the" total detention period can not be
relative or friend more than 30 days [section 28(2)].
B. In case of a minor who is mentally ill, only a guardian This fact is quite often wrongly asked as this->For diagnosis
can make an application for his admission in a psychiatric of lunacy a person can be kept under observation at a
hospital or psychiatric nursing home stretch for (a) 2 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 30 days.
C. When a person wants to get admitted in a psychiatric The intended answer here is (c), but it is important to
hospital or psychiatric nursing home, the medical officer appreciate that this is not a correct question. A period of
in charge of the hospital or nursing home MUST admit detention of 10 days in one order, and 30 days in total is
him within a period of 24 hours prescribed only under Section 28 (1) and 28 (2), which
D. The request for discharge by a patient who has got deal with wandering, dangerous or cruelly treated mentally
admitted on a voluntary basis, can be made by himself ill persons.
Ans : C Such is not the case with, say, a voluntary patient. If he
requests the medical officer incharge for admission (u/s
The Mental Health Act 1987 makes the following provisions 15), the medical officer must dispose of his application (by
regarding voluntary admission of patients: either admitting him, or refusing admission) within 24 hours
o Any major can make an application for admission if he of such request. In other words, in this case, the medical
thinks that he is mentally ill (under section 15 of the Act), officer has . to diagnose mental illness within 24 hours!
but it is not mandatory for the doctor to admit him.
o If the mentally ill person is a minor (below 18 years), he 29. Edmond Locard is known for:
can not make an application on his own behalf. The A. System of personal identification using the body
application must be made by his guardian (Section 16 of measurements
the Act). B. Study of fingerprints
o It is important to note that if an application is made under C. Formula for estimation of stature
section 15 or 16 of the Act, the medical officer in charge of D. Principle of exchange
the hospital is NOT BOUND to admit such patient. Section Ans : D
17 of the Act empowers him to make such enquiries as he Edmond Locard (1877 -1965) was a French criminalist, who
may deem fit, to find out if he indeed is mentally ill. If he is known for two main contributions (i) his principle of
finds that the applicant is NOT mentally ill, he may not exchange, widely known as Locard's principle of exchange
admit him (he must however make such enquiries within and (ii) Poroscopy. Briefly stated, his principle of exchange
24 hours of receipt of application. says that when two things come in contact with each other,
In other words, the medical officer in-charge may admit the there is always a mutual transfer of material between them.
patient or reject admission; either action has to be taken This principle is very helpful in criminal investigation. For
within 24 hours of the receipt of application). Hence choice instance if a person has raped a female, according to this
(C) is the intended choice. principle, some public hair from the male would transfer
to those of the female and vice-versa.
28. If a wandering, dangerous or cruelly treated
mentally ill person is brought before a magistrate 30. Disputed paternity or maternity can be solved by
for a reception order, the magistrate may order using all the following except:
the detention of the person in an observation ward A. Blood grouping
for enabling a doctor to certify him as mentally ill. B. HLA typing
How long can such a person be detained by a single C. Precipitin Test
magisterial order? D. DNA profiling

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Ans C
Precipitin test is used to determine the species origin of blood.
All other tests can be used to solve disputed paternity or
maternity. With DNA profiling, it can be done in 100% cases,
but with blood grouping and HLA typing it is useful in select
cases.

31. The following tests are used for a blood stain

except'.
A. Benzidine test
B. B. Florence test
C. Guaiacum test
D. Leucomalachite Green test
Ans B
32. Takayama test detects:
35. Both mother and father have AB blood group. The
A. Seminal stains
blood group of the children can be:
B. Saliva stains
A. A only
C. Bloodstains
B. A and AB only
D. Urine stains
C. Band AB only
Ans C
D. A,B or AB
33. In Takayama test, which of the following is seen Ans D
under microscope? A number of other permutations and combinations of this
A. Yellowish to brownish rhomboid crystals question may be asked. Inheritance of ABO blood groups
B. Yellow needle shaped crystals can be recapitulated by following table (Table 29.1).
C. Pink feathery structures To help solve such questions also remember the following
D. Spherical granules three laws (often known as Bernstein's laws):
Ans C i. Agglutinogen A or B can not be present in the blood of the
34. Test for detection of old blood Stain is: child, unless it is present in the blood of one or both its
A. Gel diffusion parents.
B. Precipitin ii. Parents belonging to group O can not beget a child belonging
C. Absorption elution to group AB and parents belonging to group AB can not
D. Benzidine beget a child of group O.
Ans : D iii. If an individual is homozygous for a blood group gene, its
o Benzidine test is also known as Adlers test, because much product must appear in the blood of all his children.
of the early forensic work with benzidine was done by
Adlers as early as in 1904.
o Color developed is blue, which may eventually turn to
brown.
o Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
recognized benzidine as a carcinogen in 1974, and is thus
seldom used in forensic laboratories today.
o O-tolidine is a closely related compound. It is a 3,3' dimethyl
derivative of benzidine. It was also once used as a screening
test for blood, but like benzidine, it is also found to be
carcinogenic and thus its use has also been stopped now.
Since 1992, tetra-methylbenzidine (TMB), a 3,3',5,5'
tetramethyl derivative of benzidine is being used (Figs 29.1
to 29.3). Related question: A related question is often asked like this
97->Bernstein's laws are concerned with (a) Cephalic index
(b) Blood groups (c) Dental maturity (d) Postmortem
changes. The answer is (b) Blood groups.
36. Invisible blood stains at a scene of crime can be
made visible by one of the following agents:
A. O-tolidine
B. Benzidine
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Luminol
Ans : D

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Luminol (3-aminophthal-hydrazide) has a property of

luminescing after oxidation in acid or alkaline solution. Heme
group of blood is known to accelerate this process. The test
is most suitable to detect blood in hidden nooks and corners
of houses, cars etc. The area is darkened completely and a
mixture of luminol and a suitable oxidant is sprayed over
suspected areas. If blood is present over an area, it would
immediately start glowing with a blue-white light.

The test is so sensitive that blood in a dilution of 1 in 5,000,000

can be detected. Thus if the criminal has so thoroughly
washed the area, that blood is not visible to the naked
eye, luminol test would still show the presence of blood.
Since the glow is transient in nature, it is important to
record the luminol reaction with photography.

37. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following

tests for blood except:
A. Benzidine test
B. Orthotolidine test
C. Luminol test
D. Teichmann's test
Ans C
C Note: This rather confusing question has stumped students
since long. As noted above both benzidine and orthotolidine
tests are color tests, which involve hydrogen peroxide.
Teichmann's test as such does not use hydrogen peroxide.
It involves formation of haemin crystals with glacial acetic
acid and sodium chloride. However similar crystals may
be obtained from indigo dyed fabrics.
To differentiate these from true haemin crystals, a drop of
hydrogen peroxide is added, when true haemin crystals
will give off bubbles of gas, but false crystals will not. This
is because heme group in blood has a peroxidase like
activity and it knocks off an oxygen atom from hydrogen
peroxide. Luminol test does not use hydrogen peroxide at
any stage.
Variant: In some interesting variants of this question-possibly
to confuse students-the choices given are like this (a}
Benzidine test (b)Phenolphthalein test (c) o-toluidine test

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(d)Teichmann's test. In this variation (c) o-toluidine True negative is also always 100%.
becomes the right answer (Note the different spellings of A good screening test must have a very high true positive
this compound), o-toluidine is a test for chloride ions in rate, say 99.9%, i.e. it must almost always be able to
water and not for blood. This test does not use hydrogen detect blood when it is present. It is quite possible that
peroxide and is of no particular interest to forensic such a test may have a high false positive rate also, but
scientists. that does not really matter, as our main interest is in the
38. Which of the following is usually employed as a fact that true blood stains may not be missed.
screening test for blood? A good confirmatory test must have a very low false positive
A. Takayama test rate, say 0.1 %, i.e. it must almost never say the stain is
B. Teichmann test blood, when it actually is not.
C. Kastle -Meyer test
D. Spectrophotometry
Ans C
The correct answer is Kastle-Meyer test - also known as the
Phenolphthalein test. All other tests are confirmatory tests.
Additional info: Students may want to know more about
screening tests and confirmatory tests. To understand these
tests, the concept of "sensitivity of a test" and "specificity
of a test" need to be appreciated. 39. Which of the following facts about normal semen
is NOT correct?
A. The quantity of seminal fluid in a single emission is 2-5
ml
B. There are about 60 to 150 million sperms per ml of
semen
C. There are about 60 to 150 million sperms in any one
emission
The specificity of a test has nothing to do with detection at
D. Spermatozoa constitute about 10% of the volume of
low concentrations; instead it signifies the ability of the
semen
test to come positive ONLY WHEN BLOOD IS PRESENT. If,
Ans : C
for example, we take 100 suspicious stains of blood of
40. Which of the following facts about seminal stains
which the stain was truly of blood only in, say, 63 cases, a
is NOT correct?
test with a very high specificity would be positive only in
A. Seminal stains fluoresce with a bluish-white color, when
those 63 cases; in all other cases, it would be negative.
examined under filtered ultraviolet light
A test with lesser specificity may come positive when the
B. Fluorescence of seminal stains depends on choline
stain was other than blood (false positive) or may come
portion of semen
negative when the stain was really blood (false negative).
C. Fluorescence of seminal stains is very specific as other
In other words a test with a high specificity should ideally
albuminous materials do not fluoresce
have a 0% false positive and a 0% false negative rate.
D. Fluorescence of seminal stains is masked by blood and
Tests that are used for screening purposes usually have high
disappears if the stain is soaked in water.
sensitivity (99 percent) even at the expense of a low
Ans : C
specificity, since once a test result is negative, further testing
Other albuminous materials and even detergents are known
is usually not done.
to fluoresce under UV light, so fluorescence of seminal
Benzidine, Ortho-tolidine, Tetramethyl-benzidine (TMB),
stains is NOT specific.
Phenolphthalein (Kastle -Meyer test), Leucomalachite green
and Guaicum tests are screening tests of blood, i.e. they
41. Prostate specific antigen is found in:
are able to detect blood at very low concentrations. They
A. Seminal plasma
do not have a very high specificity, i.e. they may come
B. Male urine
positive even when the stain was not really blood.
C. Male blood
On the other hand tests like Takayama and Teichmann have
D. All of the above
a very high specificity (even though they may have a low
Ans : D
sensitivity), i.e. they are confirmatory tests of blood. These
Prostate Specific antigen is also known as PSA or p30 (because
tests come positive ONLY when the stain is that of blood.
it has a molecular weight of about 30 Kilo Daltons). It was
We of course must know the reason why this is so -
identified by Sensabaugh in 1978 as a suitable marker for
because they make crystals of hemoglobin.
semen.
A look at the Table 29.3 may also be helpful.
It is a glycoprotein with protease activity. PSA is unique to
prostatic tissue and is located in the cytoplasm of the
prostatic ductal epithelium and in secretions of the ductal
lumina. Its concentration in semen varies from 300 to 4200
micrograms per ml with a mean of 1200 micrograms per
ml.
It must be appreciated that for every test True positive +
False negative is always 100%. Similarly False positive +
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Elevated serum PSA concentrations have been associated It is useful to remember that this Act does not apply to the
with prostate cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy. dispensing by a doctor for his own patients.
It is found in seminal plasma, male urine and male blood, but
47. Which of the following Acts provides for the issue
in none of the female tissues or fluids. That is why detection
of cash memo for sale, marking of prices, and
of p30 in the vagina is a reliable indicator of semen.
exhibiting list of prices of various drugs?
PSA can be detected by a number of techniques. Main among
A. Poisons Act 1919
these are (i) Thin layer immunoassay (ii) Commercially
B. The Drugs and Cosmetic Act 1940
available enzyme linked immunosorbent assays.
C. The Pharmacy Act 1948
42. Florence solution used in Florence test is composed
D. The Drugs Control Act 1950
of:
Ans : D
A. Potassium iodide, iodine and water
B. A saturated aqueous or alcoholic solution of picric acid
48. The object of which of the following acts is to ban
C. Sodium hydroxide, pyridine and glucose
advertisements which offend decency or morality?
D. Sodium chloride and glacial acetic acid
A. The Drugs and Cosmetic Act 1940
Ans A
B. The Pharmacy Act 1948
43. Edelman test is done to detect: C. The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act 1954
A. Bile stains D. The Drugs Control Act 1950
B. Fecal stains Ans C
C. Urine stains
D. Saliva stains 49. Substances which oxidise poisons and thus render
Ans B them inactive may be called:
Edelman test is based on the fact that urobilinogen is present A. Mechanical antidotes
in fecal stains. First urobilinogen is oxidized to urobilin by B. Chelating agents
alcoholic mercuric chloride. In the next stage alcoholic zinc C. Chemical antidotes
chloride is added. If urobilin has been formed it would D. Physiological antidotes
form a zinc-urobilin complex, which gives a green E. None of the above
fluorescence. Ans C
44. The word "toxicology" comes from: 50. The usual dose of activated charcoal, when used
A. An Egyptian word meaning "killing shrewdly" as an antidote for poisoning, is:
B. A Roman word meaning "poisons" A. 2-4 g
C. A Greek word meaning a bow B. 15-20 g
D. A Sanskrit word meaning "bitter substance" C. 50-100 g
Ans C D. 400-500 g
The word "toxicology" comes from the Greek word toxon Ans C
which means a bow for shooting arrows. The word Activated charcoal is a fine, black powder that is odorless,
toxeuma meant an arrow. Since in ancient times, poisons tasteless, and nontoxic. It is often given after gastric lavage
were often used on the tips of arrows to render them (and not before). It is considered to be the single most
more lethal, the word toxicos came to refer to such a effective agent available today. The usual adult dose 50-
poison. The Greek word logos means "the study of or "the 100 g mixed in about 8 ounces of water (this is about the
science of. Combining the two Greek words, we get the volume of one average bottle of cold drink. 1 ounce is 30
word toxicology. ml). The pediatric dose is 1 g/kg.
45. Which of the following is usually regarded as the Activated charcoal is not the same thing as burnt toast as
father of toxicology? many students believe. It is prepared by a speci al technique
A. Hippocrates - destructive distillation of such substances as wood, pulp,
bone, starch, petroleum, lactose, sucrose and coconut
B. Galen
C. Sushruta shells.
D. Orfila
Ans D
His full name was Mathieu Joseph Bonaventure Orfila (1787-
1853). He was a French toxicologist.
46. The object of which of the following acts is to allow
only the registered pharmacists to compound,
prepare, mix or dispense medicines on the
prescription of a medical practitioner?
A. The Pharmacy Act 1948
B. The Drugs Control Act 1950
C. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985
D. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 This process opens up millions of tiny pores between the
Ans A carbon atoms.

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Activated charcoal is good at trapping other carbon-based

impurities ("organic" chemicals), as well as single
molecules like chlorine. Many other chemicals are not
attracted to carbon at all - e.g. sodium, nitrates, etc. -so
they pass right through. This property is incidentally
exploited in industry in charcoal based filters. An activated
charcoal filter will remove certain impurities while ignoring
others. Once all the bonding sites are filled, an activated
charcoal filter stops working. At that point one must replace
the filter.
Surface area of activated charcoal is very large (about 1000
squre meters/g) allowing it to adsorb (not absorb) large
quantities of poisons on its surface. Super-activated
charcoal (Super-Char) has a surface area of about 2500-
3000 square meters/g. Compare this with the area of a
soccer field, which is about 7300 square meters.
The word adsorb is important here. When a material adsorbs
something, it attaches to it by chemical attraction
(absorption on the other hand is physical in nature). The
huge surface area of activated charcoal gives it countless
bonding sites. When poisons pass next to the carbon
surface, they attach to the surface and are trapped.

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