STA.

IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL Time Started:____________

Private Time Ended:_____________
Santa Ignacia, Tarlac 2303 Time Elapsed:____________

4th PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION IN DISASTER AND RISK REDUCTION

March 02, 2020
Name:_____________________________ Score:_________
Grade and Section: G12- GENERALS
Multiple-Choice. Answer each of the following multiple-choice questions.
_______1. Hazard risks differ as a factor of which of the following?
a. How often they occur c. Both A and B
b. The impacts they cause d. Neither A nor B
_______2. Which of the following is not a recent global disaster trend?
a. The number of people affected by disasters is rising
b. Overall, disasters are becoming more costly
c. The number of disasters is increasing each year
d. Overall, disasters are becoming more deadly
_______3. Risk is a measure of likelihood and what other factor?
a. Consequence c. Fatalities
b. Resilience d. None of the above
_______4. Disasters that develop slowly over time are termed which of the following?
a. Latent c. Creeping
b. Delayed d. Sudden-onset
_______5. Which of the following is defined as “the propensity to incur loss”?
a. Exposure c. Risk
b. Vulnerability d. Resilience
_______6. Evidence of risk and emergency management practices can be dated as far back as which of the
following?
a. 12,000 BC c. 3,200 BC
b. 200 AD d. 1,300 AD
_______7. The particular period in recent history that witnessed the greatest overall move toward a centralized
safeguarding of citizens was which of the following?
a. The Civil Defense Era c. The Great Depression
b. World War I d. World War II
_______8. Which of the following is not one of the four phases of “Comprehensive Emergency Management?”
a. Preparedness c. Risk Management
b. Response d. Recovery
_______9. In 1978, at the request of the National Governors Association, President Carter initiated the
organization of a federal preparedness program, which resulted in the creation of FEMA, through which of the
following?
a. Reorganization Plan No. 3 c. P.L. 442
b. Presidential Decision Directive 12 d. None of the above
_______10. Which of the following was termed the “International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction”?
a. 1980-1989 c. 1985-1994
b. 1990-1999 d. 2005-2015
_______11. is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss of life,
injury or other health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihood & services, social & economic
disruption or environmental damage
a. disaster b. hazard c. risk d. exposure
_______12. Is the combination of all strengths and resources available within the community, society or
organization that can reduce the level of risk or effects of a disaster?
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Capacity
_______13. is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss of life,
injury or other health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihood & services, social & economic
disruption or environmental damage
a. Hazard b. Risk c. Vulnerability d. Disaster
_______14. Which of the following is NOT a variable/ factor that aggravates or mitigates the effects of hazards,
affecting the degree or scope of a disaster
a. physical b. socio – cultural c. economic d. none of choices
_______15. Which of the following statement is / are TRUE about disaster risk?
a. Disaster risk is a product of exposure to hazard and vulnerability over the capacity of the community.
b. Disaster risk could be aggravated by lack of knowledge and preparedness
c. Disaster risk can be lessen by capacitating the individuals and community on the possible hazards
d. None of the above
_______16. Which of the following impact of disaster that disturb social wealth and cohesion, wellbeing and
sometimes identity which may also result to psychological distress, conflicts and other social ills escalate.
a. Structural b. Environmental c. Socio-Economic d. Physical
_______17. Which of the following is a combination of Probability of an event to happen and its negative
consequences
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Capacity
_______18. Which of the following are the characteristics and circumstances of a community, system or
asset that make it susceptible to the damaging effects of a hazard.
a. Vulnerability b. Risk c. Exposure d. Disaster
_______19. Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT
a. Damage to the ecological environment
b. Destruction of a population’s homeland
c. Displacement of populations
d. Sustained public attention during the recovery phase
_______20. All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT
a. A disaster may be domestic or international
b. A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
c. A disaster always receives widespread media coverage.
d. A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
_______21. Which of the following is defined as “the propensity to incur loss”?
a. Exposure b. Risk c. Vulnerability d. Resilience
_______22. Which of the following is NOT a factor of vulnerability?
a. poverty b. religion c. physical disability d. mental state
_______23. Which of the following describes the inability of the people, organization and society to withstand
the adverse impact to hazards due to characteristics inherent to social interactions, institutions and system of
cultural values?
a. physical b. economic c. social d. environmental
_______24. Natural resources depletion and degradation is an example of which vulnerability?
a. physical b. environmental c. social d. economic
_______25. Which of the following instances makes the Philippines more vulnerable to disaster?
a. The Philippines is comprised of islands
b. Philippines is politically divided
c. The country is near the pacific ring of fire
d. Filipinos are resilient from disasters
__________26. are the potential disaster losses, in lives, health status, livelihoods, assets and services, which
could occur to a particular community or a society over some specified future time period?
a. Disaster Risk b. Disaster c. Disaster Management d. Hazard
_______27. Which of the following is an example of hydrometeoroligical hazard?
a. El Niño b. earthquake c. water pollution d. volcanic eruption
_______28. Tsunami is an example of which hazard?
a. geologic b. biological c. hydrometeorological d. technological

_______29. Which of the following is / are example/s of technological hazards?

cyber terrorism b. nuclear accidents c. epidemic diseases d. AIDS
_______30. Which of the following is not a common long term impact of hazards
a. psychological b. economic c. environmental d. technological
_______31. Disaster is frequently described as a result of various conditions except ________.
a. exposure to hazard
b. conditions of vulnerability at present
 c. having enough physical, social, and attitudinal capabilities
d. insufficient capacity or measures to cope with disasters.
_______32. Which can't be prevented but can be anticipated generally?
a. Human-made hazards c. Disasters
b. Socio-natural Hazards d. Natural Hazards
_______33. Which of the following is / are the hazards from an earthquake?
a. Liquefaction b. ground shaking c. fire d. storm surge
_______36. is a disruptive up-down and sideways movement or motion experienced during an earthquake.
a. Ground shaking b. ground rupture c. liquefaction d. faulting
_______37. is a displacement on the ground due to movement of fault?
a. Ground shaking b. ground rupture c. liquefaction d. grounding
_______38. are failures in steep or hilly slopes triggered by an earthquake?
a. ground shaking c. liquefaction
b. earthquake induced landslide d. erosion
_______39. This is a series of giant sea waves commonly generated by under-the-sea earthquakes and whose
heights could be greater than 5 meters
a. tsunami b. storm surge c. tide d. thunderstorm
_______40. During an earthquake, which among the following is / are the safe thing/s to do?
a. Do the “duck, cover and hold” c. Stay calm
c. Secure all your belongings d. Run immediately to a safe area
II. Fill-in-the-Blank . Answer each of the following fill-in-the-blank questions.
1. Through actions termed ___________ (hazard mitigation or mitigation), communities (and individuals
residing in those communities) either reduce the chances that a disaster will occur, or reduce the damages that
will result if in fact the event does occur.
2. We often look to trends to find how hazard risks ________ (change or shift) over time.
3. Changes in ______________ (human activities or development) cause the most significant increases in the
consequences of disasters.
4. A _____________ (hazard) is any event, object, situation, or other condition that has the potential to cause or
result in some negative impact.
5. When a hazard event is of such great magnitude that its consequences overwhelm the response capacities of
all administrative levels from local to Federal, the event is considered a ___________ (catastrophe).
6. The Roman Corps of Vigiles is considered the roots of the modern __________ (Fire Department).
7. During the past century, _________ (floods) were the most common and costly natural hazard.
8. The United Nation has noted a strong link between disaster risk management, climate change, and
sustainable ____________ (development).
9. The concept of the _____________ (all-hazards) approach is based on the idea that there are generic
processes for addressing most kinds of hazards and disaster.
10. FEMA was absorbed into the _________________ (DHS or Department of Homeland Security) in per the
Homeland Security Act of 2002.
11. ___________________ (Traditional Analysis) focuses on separating the individual pieces of what is being
studied, while ________________ (systems thinking) focuses on how the thing being studied interacts with the
other constituents of the system – a set of elements that interact to produce behaviour – of which it is a part.
12. Unlike the management of community-wide risks, many risks that affect us as individuals require little
more than _________ (split-second) decisions.
13. A systems approach is one that takes a more ___________ (holistic) view of the process for solving
problems, rather than simply prescribing a linear ‘step-by-step’ process.
14. The end goal of the comprehensive Hazards Risk Management (HRM) process is, as the name suggests,
_______________ (managed risk).
15. The Risk _____________ (Assessment) methodology helps to inform the user how risk rankings were
obtained.

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher
 STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL Time Started:____________
Private Time Ended:_____________
Santa Ignacia, Tarlac 2303 Time Elapsed:____________

4th PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION IN MEDIA AND LITERACY INFORMATION

March 02, 2020
Name:_____________________________ Score:_________
Grade and Section: G12- GENERALS
DIRECTIONS: Select the most appropriate answer to the questions below by encircling the letter of the correct
answer.
I. Identify the following. Write A if it refers to primary source and B if it is a secondary source.
____1. Information from a Civil War soldier's diary.
____2. An online journal article about the historical significance of Abraham Lincoln's "Gettysburg
Address"
____3. A letter from a soldier to his mother in an example of _______
____4. sources written by people who experienced the event first-hand
____5. sources written by people who have studied the event after the fact.
____6. sources written by people who were eyewitnesses to the event.
____7. sources written by people who have done extensive research about the even.
____8. Copy of authenticated birth certificate.
II. Write (T) if it’s True or (F) it is False
____9. Mr. Smith rents a video and brings it to school. As a reward, the video is shown in the
multipurpose room to reward students with perfect attendance. This is fair use.
____10. Discuss
____11. A teacher rents Gone With the Wind to show the burning of Atlanta scene to her class while
studying the civil war. This is fair use.
____12. A student is doing a multimedia report and wants to use a small portion of Kennedy’s "We Shall
Go to the Moon" speech. He presents the report to his class and then posts it on the school's local area
network. This is fair use.
____13. A student is writing a report for science class and uses copyright images downloaded from the
Internet and cited correctly. He submits his project to a competition that recognizes classroom work for
students and wins a prize for the school. This is covered under fair use.
____14. A student brings a CD to school and lends it to a friend to put in his Keynote Presentation. This is
fair use.
____15. A history teacher taped the original ABC news report showing Richard Nixon leaving the White
House after he resigned. She made it at home on her personal VCR and used her own tape. She uses the
entire news program every year in her classroom. This is fair use.
____16. A teacher produces a student video that they sell at the end of the year to buy equipment for the
school. They use well-known popular music clips. The money all foes to the school and the songs are
fully listed in the credits. This is covered under fair use.

II. Multiple choice select the best letter of the correct answer if there is no correct answer write F
________1. What types of work are copyrighted? Check all that apply.
a. Dramatic c. Graphical
b. Musical d. Speeches e. Literacy
________2. When does someone get copyright protection?
a. When the author gets paid.
b. As soon as the work is created.
c. When it is published with a © symbol.
d. When it is registered for copyright.
________3. How long in the U.S. does copyright last?
Forever, as long as someone holds the copyright
a. 70 years after it is created
b. A person's life plus 70 years after death
c. It depends on the type of registration that was bought
________4.What happens to the work after the copyright time has passed?
a. It can be bought
b. There is no time-limit on copyright
c. The work must be destroyed
d. It goes into the public domain
________5. Something must have the © sign to be copyrighted.
a. True, how else would you know if it was in the public domain or not?
b. False, a work belongs to the creator whether or not there is a © symbol
________6. What is fair use?
a. Paying the creator a fair price for the work
b. Using paid-for commercial products once and not sharing them
c. Limited copying or distribution of published works without the author's permission
d. Freeware that you obtain from the Internet
________7. What are the four factors that determine if the use of copyrighted material falls under fair use?
a. Purpose, Content, Amount, and Market Effect
b. Purpose, Amount, Environment, and Market Effect
c. Substantiality, Use, Nature, and Market Effect
d. Purpose, Nature, Amount, and Market Effect
________8. Non-profit and educational uses will generally weigh in favor of fair use as opposed to:
a. News Reporting
b. Scientific Use
c. Commercial Use
d. Respective Uses
________9. Understanding the difference between primary and secondary sources is important because...
a. different types of sources provide different kinds of information.
b. sometimes a primary source has a greater impact in a paper than a secondary source.
c. primary sources can often be biased and provide a skewed version of history, where secondary sources usually
remain neutral.
d. all of the above
________10. What form of digital media uses file formats with the abbreviations JPEG, PNG and TIFF
a. Images
b. Photographs
c. Video
d. Audio
________11. With images, audio and video, what is the usual relationship between file size and media quality
a. Smaller file = faster to download and better quality
b. Smaller file = faster to download but poorer quality
c. Bigger file = slower to download but better quality
d. Bigger file = slower to download and poorer quality
________12. Which of the following online services does not enable the sharing of videos?
a. SoundCloud
b. Tumblr
c. Flickr
d. None of the above - they all support video.
________13. Which of the following statements is false ?
a. Smartphones now have very high quality built in audio, video and photo capabilities. The results are just as good
as what can be obtained by using professional cameras and recording equipment.
b. If young people already have smartphones, they can be a handy way to generate photos, audio and video quickly.
The quality may not be great though.
c. The audio, video and photo quality of smartphones is so poor that they are not worth using for research purposes.
d. Modern smartphones can produce still images of a reasonable quality. The quality of video and audio they
produce is less good, but this can be improved by using certain apps and add-on devices.
________14. What do Audacity, Wavepad and GarageBand have in common?
a. They are all open source.
b. They are all used for audio editing and production.
c. They are all designed to work on mobile devices.
d. They are all free.
________15. Which of the following video editing packages are available for the iPad (There is more than one correct
answer.)
a. Final Cut Pro c. Avid Studio
b. iMovie d. Adobe Premiere
________16. What different audio-visual media can be embedded into Google maps
a. Only photographs.
b. Only video.
c. Photographs and video, but not audio.
d. Photographs, video and audio.
________17. What are the key differences between YouTube and Vimeo?
a. Vimeo is better quality than YouTube.
b. YouTube has more users than Vimeo.
c. It is easier to download videos from YouTube than Vimeo.
d. Vimeo allows you to upload longer videos than YouTube.
________18. Refers to the conventions, formats, symbols and narrative structures which indicate to an audience the
meaning of media messages. Symbolically, the language of electronic media work in much the same way as grammar
works in print media. (UNESCO MIL Curriculum for Teachers)
a. Media Codes, Conventions, Languages and Messages
b. Media Education
c. Media Literacy
d. Media Convergence
________18. Refers to materials, programs, applications and the like that teachers and students use to formulate new
information to aid learning through the use, analysis, evaluation and production of interactive and hands-on media.
a. Information
b. Media Convergence
c. Media Education
d. Manipulative Information
________19. Refers to a theory that people receive and interpret media messages in the light of their own history,
experience and perspective so that different groups of people may interpret the same message in different ways
a. Internet Addiction
b. Massive Open Online Course
c. Active audience
d. Audience
________20. Understanding and using mass media in either an assertive or non-assertive way, including an informed and
critical understanding of media, what techniques they employ and their effects. Also the ability to read, analyze, evaluate
and produce communication in a variety of media forms, e.g. television, print, radio, computers etc. Another
understanding of the term is the
a. Media Convergence
b. Media Education
c. Media and Information Literacy
d. Media Literacy
________21. Refers to virtual reality or interactive 3D and have a figurative appearance. Current examples range from 3D
printer, 3D films, holograms, etc.
a. Massive Open Online Course
b. People Media
c. Three Dimensional Technology
d. New Media
________22. Refers to content organized and distributed on digital platforms. (UNESCO MIL Curriculum for Teachers)
a. New Media
b. People Media
c. Media
d. Netiquette
________23. ability to decode, analyzes, evaluate and produce communication in a variety of forms.
a. Media Literacy
b. Media
c. Media Convergence
d. Media Codes, Conventions, Languages and Messages
________24. Refers to the abilities to recognize when information is needed and to locate, evaluate, effectively use, and
communicate information in its various formats.
a. Information Literacy c. Information
b. Internet d. Hoaxes
________25. Text Information and Media
physical object used to communicate media messages.
a. People Media
b. Netiquette
c. Media
d. Internet
________26. A broad term that can cover data, knowledge derived from study, experience, or instruction, signals or
symbols. In the media world, information is often used to describe knowledge of specific events or situations that has been
gathered or received by communication, intelligence or news.
a. New (Information) Age
b. Text Information and Media
c. Information
d. Information Literacy

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher
 STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL Time Started:____________
Private Time Ended:_____________
Santa Ignacia, Tarlac 2303
Time Elapsed:____________
4th PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION IN RESEARCH PROJECT
March 02, 2020
Name:_____________________________ Score:_________
Grade and Section: G12- GENERALS
Multiple Choice: Read each of the following statements /questions and choose the item that answers correctly the question or the best completes the
statements. Write the letter of your choice.
_______1. The purpose of research presents a picture of the specific of the details of a situation, social setting or relationship.
a. Exploratory c. Explanatory
b. Descriptive d. Quantitative
_______2. Educational qualifications of teachers affect their socioeconomic status because the higher the educational qualification, the
higher the salary will be. Educational qualification is.
a. Intervening variable c. Dependent variable
b. Independent variable d. Moderator variable
_______3. The characteristics of good research that any conclusion drawn is based upon hard evidence gathered from information
collected from real life experience or observation is?
a. Rigorous c. Systematic
b. Empirical d. Critical
_______4. A type of applied research that is a discipline process of inquiry conducted by and for those taking the action.
a. Impact assessment research c. Evaluation research
b. Action research d. Basic research
_______5. The third type of research aims to explore and describe.
a. Quantitative method c. Qualitative method
b. Mixed method d. Scientific research
_______6. The quantitative research is concerned with cause - and - effect relationship.
a. Non- experimental design c. Correlation design
b. Experimental design d. Survey research
_______7. This type of qualitative research describes experiences as they lived.
a. Ethnography c. Historical
b. Phenomenology d. Case study
_______8. An abstract form _________or idea, often conveyed on a single word which serves as a springboard or building blocks of
theory.
a. Theory c. Framework
b. Concept d. Paradigm
_______9. A method of acquiring knowledge based on the scientific method of inquiry to enrich the system of objective knowledge in
the field of natural and social sciences.
a. Discipline c. Theory
b. Research d. Model
_______10. The research considers the protection of research participants by obtaining approval from participants through voluntary
written consents.
a. Validation c. Reliability
b. Informed consent d. Interview
_______11. Since a study involves people, special care is taken into consideration to ensure that respondents are treated ethically in all
aspects.
a. Open coding c. Benchmarking
b. Ethical consideration d. Bracketing
_______12. A research process that uses more than one source of data to strengthen the validity of research by telling a more
comprehensive story of the things to be examined.
a. Correlation c. Complementarity
b. Triangulation d. Expansion
_______13. Civil status affects the performance of teachers in performing their duties. To which of the variables does civil status
belong?
a. Dependent variables c. Intervening variable
b. Control variable d. Moderate variable
_______14. The purpose of research is to formulate more precise questions that future research can answer.
a. Descriptive d. Combination
b. Exploratory
c. Explanatory
_______15. Treatment of time is another dimension in research. Researcher capture features of people or other unit at more than time.
a. Cross- sectional c. Summative
b. Longitudinal d. Formative
_______16. One important goal in conducting research is to
a. Advance the personal and professional qualification of practitioner
b. Produce evidence based practice
c. Focus direction of the research
d. Describe characteristics of a population
_______17. The first step in the research process begins with generating research ideas for research problems and synthesis.
a. Formulating research designs and methodology
b. Establishing problems and synthesis
c. Collecting data
d. Drawing conclusion and recommendations
_______18. Salinity is a variable that affect the growth of seaweeds. To which of the variables does salinity fall?
a. Independent variable c. Control variable
b. Dependent variable d. moderate variable
_______19. The first step in research is identifying a topic, conceptualizing a research topic would include
a. Title of research
b. Finding a focus
c. Where to start
d. Discuss with fellow researchers
_______20. A statement that makes a specific prediction between one to two variables.
a. Problem
b. Hypotheses
c. Gap in literature
d. Proposition
_______21. One important basic question asked about the research title.
a. Do they meet basic questions asked?
b. Does the title describe what the study is all about?
c. What are the factors that affect the skills of teachers
d. Thinks of a topic in research which can be made and used as the title of the study.
_______22. An introduction answers question about the problem, one of these is.
a. What is the methodology?
b. Why is it a problem?
c. What are the conclusions?
d. What are the recommendations?
_______23. The problem statement is
a. Background of the study
b. The verbalization and articulation as well as the analysis of the “question” in which the researcher wants the research to
answer.
c. Description of the issues
d. Analysis of the question
_______24. The purpose of a background study is to
a. Report observation or research results.
b. Help you to prove the relevance of your research question and to further develop the thesis
c. Go to the library to gather data
d. Complete the research
_______25. A hypothesis is not the research answer , but rather
a. A theory to be tested
b. A proposal to be tested and evaluated
c. Imaginary terms or situations
d. It is an assumption in a thesis
_______26. A statement about the population or populations being examined that states that there is no effect, no change or
relationship.
a. Alternative hypothesis
b. Null hypothesis
c. Research hypothesis
d. Independent and dependent hypothesis
_______27. There are several sources of research. These are published writings and reports that critique or reports on primary sources
and can be found in periodical and references books.
a. Primary sources
b. Secondary sources
c. Tertiary sources
d. Non- documentary searching
_______28. Organized related literature and studies to inform the reader of what is
a. A researchable area
b. A known and conflicting area
c. A research area of interest
d. A broad area of research
_______29. Component of research process wherein it describes properly the relationship of variables is
a. Assumptions c. Research design
b. Data processing d. Theoretical framework
_______30. A popular system of referencing is the APA format also called
a. A brief citation of the sources in text and full citations and all work cited in the text.
b. Author- date method of parenthetical documentation or in text citation.
c. Footnotes and endnotes used to acknowledge the source of the idea or authorship.
d. A list of citation of sources whereby each citation is given description historical and textual explanation.
_______31. Plagiarism is to
a. Use inappropriate statistical techniques in order to obtain favorable results and enhance the significance of one’s research.
b. Present someone else’s ideas or work as your own.
c. Publish the same paper in two different journals without informing the editor.
d. Discuss with your colleagues data from the paper that you are reviewing for a journal
_______32. Paraphrasing is
a. Harm that is physical, financial, or psychological experienced by the participants.
b. Using someone’s idea in own words to restate the author’s ideas and acknowledge to give credits to the original author.
c. Minimizing harm and risk to human lives
d. Making derogatory comments and personal attacks in the review of author’s submitted work.
_______33. Written documents such as books, periodicals, magazines, journals, newspapers and legal citations.
a. Primary sources
b. Related literature
c. Secondary sources
d. Related studies
_______34. Previous studies that involves similar variables including theses, dissertations, scholarly written papers, studies, published
and unpublished.
a. Primary sources c. Related literature
b. Related studies d. Secondary sources
_______35. The purpose of review of related literature and studies is to inform the reader about what already is known, what is not
known or research blank spots.
a. Blind spots/ conflicting areas
b. Unexplored areas
c. Research gap
d. Irrelevant statement
_______36. A written or visual presentation that explains either graphically or in narrative form, the main things to be studies, the key
factors, concepts or variables and the assumed relationship among them.
a. Independent variable c. Theoretical variable
b. Conceptual variable d. Dependent variable
_______37. One of the qualities of good researcher that he keeps on inventing unique, new, and original researches is
a. Efficient c. Resourceful
b. Creative d. Scientific
_______38. It is response variable which is observed and measured to determine the effect of stimulus variable is
a. Intervening variable c. Independent variable
b. Moderate variable d. Dependent variable
_______39. A statement showing the research design and methodology or the entire process of research using a theory or theories for
developing a hypothesis.
a. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework
c. Independent variable
d. Dependent variable
_______40. In interpreting hypothesis test result, any result that lies outside of the confidence level, can be
a. Confirmed c. Accepted
b. Rejected d. Alternated
_______41. In a final research output, the ____________ is referred to the “bottom line”.
a. Appendices c. Conclusions
b. References d. Recommendations
_______42. In a non-random sampling technique, the researcher uses _________ sampling when they include people that are available
as they are easily recruited.
a. Quota c. Convenience
b. Purposive d. Cluster
_______43. This technique is not a non-random sampling technique
a. Quota c. Convenience
b. Purposive d. Cluster
_______44. In one of the items below, it illustrates how recommendation in a research report should be stated: “Increase enrollment
through marketing campaign” this illustrates a recommendation that is ______________.
a. Specifically stated c. Time - bound
b. Measurable d. Result orient
_______45. The element in the front matter of a thesis that ensures the use of other works cited is in accordance with legal requirements.
a. Title page c. Copyright page
b. Approval sheet d. Acknowledgement
_______46. Which of the following refers to large scale collaboration in research?
a. Information and computer technology
b. Middleware
c. Cyber infrastructure
d. E - research
_______47. In writing the front matter of a thesis, the ________carries the names and signature of adviser and panel of examiners.
a. Title page c. Copyright page
b. Acknowledgement d. Approval sheet
_______48. Which of the following qualitative approaches describe individual experiences of a phenomenon?
a. Phenomenology c. Case studies
b. Ethnography d. Grounded theory
_______49. In organizing the research report, the chapter title assumes the ____________headings.
a. Multilevel headings c. First level
b. Third level d. Second level
_______50. For appropriate sub - heading of thesis elements, the statistical tools or treatment are cited in.
a. Sampling techniques
b. Data analysis
c. Data gathering procedure
d. Research problem
_______51. Which is not validating procedure?
a. Triangulation c. Reliability testing
b. Focus group discussion d. Clustering
_______52. In citing references, the notes- bibliography format list using __________ as heading.
a. Bibliography c. References
b. Work cited d. End notes
_______53. Which contain s the brief summary of a research report?
a. Acknowledgement c. Dedication
b. Abstract d. Approval sheet
_______54. This qualitative approach provides comprehensive description of the culture of group of people in a study.
a. Case studies c. Grounded theory
b. Ethnography d. Phenomenology
_______55. In the preliminaries, which elements provide the list of all content of front matter, body and back manner?
a. Acknowledge c. Abstract
b. Table of contents d. Copyright page
_______56. The use of footnote is common with _______ format.
a. Notes bibliography c. Parenthetical reference
b. Modern language Association d. APA Format
_______57. The sentence style capitalization of book title and other references are associated with form and style of a
a. Chicago style c. APA
b. Modern Language d. Turabian Form and Style
_______58. It refers to the following ethical considerations below, the “no harm”, “do good”, the focus in
a. Informed consent c. Non- malefience and beneficence
b. Justice and fairness d. Right to full disclosure
_______59. “Giving credit where credit is due”, illustrative which of the following ethical concerns.
a. Informed consent c. Non- malefience and beneficence
b. Justice and fairness d. Right to full disclosure
_______60. This is unethical when a researcher copy material intensively from others.
a. Informed consent c. Non- malefience and beneficence
b. Justice and fairness d. Right to full disclosure
_______61. When a researcher said, “there is no need to inform the parents of the pupils that we are changing the lunch schedule for
few minutes, anyway what they don’t know won’t hurt them”.
a. Informed consent c. Non- malefience and beneficence
b. Justice and fairness d. Right to full disclosure
_______62. Sampling design in which the investigator simply takes the closest individuals as subjects of the study because they are
most available is
a. Quota sampling c. Purposive sampling
b. Incidental sampling d. Cluster sampling
_______63. Sampling design in which the population is grouped into small units such as blocks or districts is
a. Quota sampling c. Purposive sampling
b. Incidental sampling d. Cluster sampling
_______64. The best random sampling design since every member in the population is given equal chance of inclusion in the sample is.
a. Systematic random sampling
b. Restricted random sampling
c. Stratified random sampling
d. Unrestricted random sampling
_______65. Sampling design intended to improve the validity of the sample and is applicable when the population being studied is
homogeneous is.
a. Unrestricted random sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Restricted random sampling
d. Systematic random sampling

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher
 STA. IGNACIA HIGH SCHOOL Time Started:____________
Private Time Ended:_____________
SANTA IGNACIA, TARLAC 2303 Time Elapsed:____________

4th PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION in SCIENCE 10

March 02, 2020
Name:________________________ Score:____________
Grade and Section:_____________
I.MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of your choice on the space provided before each number. If
none of the choices answers the question directly write letter E.
_____1. Why does an increase in volume of a given amount of gas at constant temperature cause a
decrease in pressure?
a. Because there are more molecules
b. Because there are fewer molecules
c. Because the molecules are moving slowly
d. Because the molecules are striking a larger area with the same force
_____2. Why should champagne and other carbonated drinks be served cold?
a. Because they taste flat when served
b. Because more gas would be retained in the solution at lower temperature
c. Because the solubility of gas is affected by the temperature of the liquid
d. Both b and c
_____3. Which of the graphs represents the relationship between volume and temperature?
a. b. c. d.

_____4. Which law is applied when you sip a liquid through a straw?
a. Boyles’s law
b. Charles’s law
c. Dalton’s law
d. Gay- Lussac’s law
_____6. A balloon that is placed in a freezer decreases in size. Which law can best explain this?
a. Boyles’s law
b. Charles’s law
c. Dalton’s law
d. Gay- Lussac’s law
_____7. According to Charles’s Law, if you have a balloon inside a car at noon during a hot summer
day the balloon molecules inside will
a. Increase in pressure
b. Decrease in pressure
c. Constant
d. Zero
_____8. Gas pressure is caused by
a. Gas molecules heating up
b. Gas molecules reacting with other gas molecules
c. Gas molecules hitting the walls of a container
d. Gas molecules hitting other gas molecules
_____9. As the volume of confined gas decreases at constant temperature, the pressure exerted by the
gas
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Stay the same
 d. Fluctuates
_____10. Assuming that the temperature remains constant. How can you increase the pressure of a
gas?
a. Increase the container volume
b. Add more molecules of the gas
c. Decreases the container volume
d. None of the above

_____11. Each of these flasks contains the same number of molecules. In which container is the
pressure highest?
a. Flask 1
b. Flask 2
c. Flask 3
d. Flask 4
_____12. If the volume of one mole of gas molecules remains constant, lowering the temperature will
make the pressure
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Decrease then increase
d. Increase then decrease
_____13. If the volume available to the gas is increased, the pressure exerted by one mole of gas
molecule will
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Decrease then increase
d. Increase then decrease
_____14. What happens to the volume of a confined gas if its pressure is doubled and its temperature
remains constant?
a. Volume will increase
b. Volume will decrease
c. Volume will remain the same
d. Volume will increase then decrease
_____15. Which of the following property does not describe a gas?
a. Ductility
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Volume
_____16. Why does pressure build up on tires on a hot day? (Assume the tire volume is constant)
a. As temperature increases, kinetic energy increases
b. As temperature increases, kinetic energy decreases
c. As temperature increases, pressure increases
d. Both a and c
_____17. Which of the following statements about kinetic theory of gases is FALSE?
a. Gas particles move at high speed
b. Gases move faster at high temperatures
 c. Particles of a gas move rapidly in all directions
d. There exists a strong attractive force between gas molecules.
_____18. Charles's Law deals with what quantities?
a. Pressure/temperature
b. Pressure/volume
c. Volume/temperature
d. Volume/temperature/pressure
_____19. Which law is demonstrated by a gas that expands when heated?
a. Boyles’s law
b. Charles’s law
c. Avogadro’s law
d. Graham’s law of diffusion
_____20. Which law is demonstrated by perfume when its scent fills the entire room?
a. Boyles’s law
b. Charles’s law
c. Avogadro’s law
d. Graham’s law of diffusion

II. PROBLEM SOLVING. Solve the following problems. Identify the given, show your solution and
box your final answer.
BOYLES’S LAW: (5 points each number)
1. A gas occupies 1.56 L at 1.00 atm. What will be the volume of this gas if the pressure
becomes 3.00 atm?
2. A gas occupies 11.2 liters at 0.860 atm. What is the pressure if the volume becomes 15.0 L?
3. 500.0 mL of a gas is collected at 745.0 mm Hg. What will the volume be at standard
pressure?
CHARLE’S LAW: (5 points each number)
1. Calculate the decrease in temperature when 2.00 L at 20.0 °C is compressed to 1.00 L.
2. 33. 600.0 mL of air is at 20.0 °C. What is the volume at 60.0 °C?
3. 34. A gas occupies 900.0 mL at a temperature of 27.0 °C. What is the volume at 132.0 °C?

Prepared by:

Ms. Mirasol Y. Verano

Subject Teacher