Quantum Field Theory Class: Assignment 1

Sungsoo, Jang∗
Department of Physics at the City College Of New York
(Dated: September 9, 2020)
The purpose of the assignment is to assess classical quantum field theory in terms of Euler’s
Lagrangian, and significantly reduced physical constants.

1. CHAPTER ONE: CLASSICAL FIELD THEORY

1. In SI units the permittivity of free space is 0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C 2 /N m2 . In this course it will be
convenient to set 0 = 1. This defines our unite of charge.
(i) Show that in 0 = c = ~ = 1 units electric charge is dimensionless.

Solution 1 : According to Maxwell’s wave equation in vacuum, the speed of light can be de-
termined in terms of electric and magnetic constants 1/0 µ0 = c2 . Thus the equation becomes
1/c2 µ0 = 0 , where magnetic constant, µ0 = 1 implies the electric constant is a unit-less con-
stant. Also, the electric constant represents 0 = e2 /4πα~c in SI unit, where α is a unit-less
fine structure constant. Now, by setting these three constants
√ as one,
√ the electric charge becomes
dimensionless as shown the following equation, e = 4π0 α~c → 4πα, where one can consider
the electric charge is unit-less constant

(ii) In these units, what is the charge of an electron

√
Solution 2 : From the conclusion of the solution 1, the electric charge is e = 4πα.

2. Consider the following Lagrangian for the vector potential Aµ ,

1
£ = − Fµν F µν , (1)
4
where Fµν = ∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ is the field strength.1 Vary the corresponding action with respect to
Aµ . Show that the principle of least action gives that two Maxwell’s equations which aren’t already
implied by writing the field strength in terms of the vector potential.

Solution 3 : By using the definition of functional derivative, as the small variationR of action
is corresponding to Aµ → Aµ + δAµ , the deviation of the least action becomes δS = d4 xδ£.
δS[∂µ Aν (xα )] −1
Z
= lim d4 x(∂µ (Aν + δ (4) (xα − x0α )) − ∂ν (Aµ + δ (4) (xα − x0α )))2 −
δAν (x0α ) →0 4

−1
Z
lim d4 x(∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 ,
→0 4

∗ Electronic address: [email protected]

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where

(∂µ (Aν + δ (4) (xα − x0α )) − ∂ν (Aµ + δ (4) (xα − x0α )))2 ≈ (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 +
∂
∂µ δ (4) (xα − x0α ) (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 .
∂(∂µ Aν )

Then
δS[∂µ Aν (xα )] −1
Z
∂
= d4 x(∂µ δ (4) (xα − x0α )) (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 , (2)
δAν (x0α ) 4 ∂(∂µ Aν )

By the products rule,

δS[∂µ Aν (xα )]
 
−1 (4) α 0α ∂ 2
= δ (x − x ) (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ ) −
δAν (x0α ) 4 ∂(∂µ Aν )
  (3)
−1
Z
4 (4) α 0α ∂ 2
d x(δ (x − x ))∂µ (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ ) } ,
4 ∂(∂µ Aν )

The first term of the equation (3) for delta vanishes with an assume of x0α in the xα , and for
the second term, the four-vector divergence of the the canonical momentum density becomes as
following,
 
∂ 0α 0α 2
∂µ (∂ A
µ ν (x ) − ∂ A
ν µ (x )) } = 2∂µ F µν (x0α ) = 0, (4)
∂(∂µ Aν (x0α )

The equation (4) by the principle of least action suffices Maxwell’s equations. Now, the rest of
the integral with a delta function becomes as following,
 
1 ∂
α
δS[∂µ Aν (x )] = ∂µ (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ ) δAν (x0α ) = 0
2
4 ∂(∂µ Aν )
   
1 ∂ 1 ∂
∂µ (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 δAν (x0α ) − (∂µ Aν − ∂ν Aµ )2 δ∂µ Aν (x0α ) = 0
4 ∂(∂µ Aν ) 4 ∂(∂µ Aν )
(5)

The equation above must vanish in order to satisfy the Euler-Lagrangian equation of motion.
Therefore, the variation of action is zero. Another way to prove whether the variation of the
action comes out to be zero is to treat the Lagrangian with a small variation of the vector fields
Aµ → Aµ + δ, Aµ , then δ£

∂£ ∂£ ∂£ ∂£
δ£(Aν , ∂µ Aν ) = δAν + δ(∂µ Aν ) = δAν + ∂µ δAν
∂(Aν ) ∂(∂µ Aν ) ∂(Aν ) ∂(∂µ Aν )
     (6)
∂£ ∂£ ∂£
= − ∂µ δAν + ∂µ δAν ,
∂(Aν ) ∂(∂µ Aν ) ∂(∂µ Aν )

where the Lagrangian density satisfies

 
∂£ ∂£
− ∂µ = 0. (7)
∂(Aν ) ∂(∂µ Aν )
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The last term of the equation (5) becomes

 
∂£
∂µ δAν = 0. (8)
∂(∂µ Aν )

As a result, the least action is depending on the equation (8), which is shown in the equation
(5) in action form.

3. Consider the following Lagrangian for a complex field Ψ(t, x).

∂Ψ ~2
£ = i~Ψ∗ − ∇Ψ∗ · ∇Ψ − V (x)Ψ∗ Ψ. (9)
∂t 2m
What is the equation of motion? Does it look familiar? We’ll have more to say about this Lagrangian
later in the couse. (Hint: when you have a complex field, you can vary Ψ and Ψ∗ as though they
were independent fields. If you don’t believe this, set Ψ = Ψ1 + iΨ2 and show that varying the real
and imaginary parts separately leads to the same answer)

Solution 4 : The equation of motion can be derived by using Euler’s Lagrangian. Since our
Lagrangian is not in energy density form but energy, the unit of wave function is unit-less, and
we can treat Ψ and Ψ∗ two different wave functions since the complex conjugated function lies
on different the complex plain.
 
∂£ ∂£
− ∇ = 0, (10)
∂Ψ∗ ∂(∇Ψ∗ )
This equation of motion gives Schrodinger’s equation. Also modifying the term i~Ψ∗ ∂Ψ/∂t into
i~∂(Ψ∗ Ψ)/∂t − i~Ψ∂Ψ∗ /∂t, we have
∂£ ∂Ψ∗
= −i~ − V (x)Ψ∗ (11)
∂Ψ ∂t

~2
 
∂£ ∗
∇ =∇ − ∇Ψ (12)
∂(∇Ψ) 2m
The equations (11) and (12) give also Schrodinger’s equation with complex function. As it were
hinted, we can pose the wave function with a complex linear combination of two independent-
real functions, whose domains are in real, then the complex function becomes Ψ = Ψ1 + iΨ2 .
The complex conjugated of this function gives a different wave function. In order to prove this,
we can modify our given Lagrangian in terms of the postulated function, Ψ = Ψ1 + iΨ2 , and
Ψ∗ = Ψ1 − iΨ2 Then,
∂ ~2
£ = i~(Ψ1 − iΨ2 ) (Ψ1 + iΨ2 ) − ∇(Ψ1 − iΨ2 ) · ∇(Ψ1 + iΨ2 )−
∂t 2m (13)
V (x)(Ψ1 − iΨ2 )(Ψ1 + iΨ2 ),
where we can derive from Euler’s Lagrangians respecting to Ψ1 and Ψ2 .
∂£ ∂
= 2i~ Ψ1 − 2V (x)Ψ1 (14)
∂Ψ1 ∂t
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~2
 
∂£
∇ =∇ − 2(∇Ψ1 ) (15)
∂∇Ψ1 2m

∂£ ∂
= 2i~ Ψ2 − 2V (x)Ψ2 (16)
∂Ψ2 ∂t

~2
 
∂£
∇ =∇ − 2(∇Ψ2 ) (17)
∂∇Ψ2 2m

The equation (14) and (15), and (16) and (17) gives, respectively

~2
 
∂£ ∂£ ∂
−∇ = 2i~ Ψ1 − 2V (x)Ψ1 − ∇ − 2(∇Ψ1 ) = 0 (18)
∂Ψ1 ∂∇Ψ1 ∂t 2m

~2
 
∂£ ∂£ ∂
−∇ = 2i~ Ψ2 − 2V (x)Ψ2 − ∇ − 2(∇Ψ2 ) = 0 (19)
∂Ψ2 ∂∇Ψ2 ∂t 2m

In deed, by summing equations (18) and (19), we will have the same conclusion as the equation
(10), resulting the very same Schrodinger’s equations. Since both Ψ1 and Ψ2 are real functions,
the Schrodinger’s equations for the both come out exact the same. Therefore, both Ψ1 and Ψ2
are the solution to Schrodinger’s equation. Then, the sum of linear combination Ψ = aΨ1 + bΨ2
is also a solution, where a and b can be complex numbers. This conclusion meets with the given
hints.

-The End of Assignment 1-