ccpc15 Supportive and Preventive Workbook
ccpc15 Supportive and Preventive Workbook
Medicine
Amy L. Dzierba, Pharm.D., BCPS, FCCM
NewYork-Presbyterian Hospital
New York, New York
Supportive and Preventive Medicine
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positive. Which would be the most appropriate A. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices.
statement regarding PPI use and CDI? B. Dalteparin 5000 units subcutaneously daily.
A. PPIs are a potential risk factor for CDI by C. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously daily.
producing hypochlorhydria and increasing the D. No VTE prophylaxis is indicated at this time.
host susceptibility to infections.
B. Prospective randomized controlled trials have 7. A 34-year-old man (weight 70 kg) is admitted to
shown that the risk of CDI is associated with the surgical ICU for acute respiratory failure from
PPI use. pancreatitis. He has no pertinent medical history.
C. Studies have shown that an increased risk of His current medications include norepinephrine at
CDI is associated with daily PPI use compared 0.07 mcg/kg/minute, dexmedetomidine at 0.7 mcg/
with PPI administration more frequently. kg/minute, ampicillin/sulbactam 3 g intravenously
D. Studies reporting on CDI and PPI use every 6 hours, famotidine 20 mg intravenously
have used the same definition of CDI and twice daily, and heparin 5000 units subcutaneously
implemented the same infection control three times daily. On day 3 of his ICU admission,
practices. the team suspects heparin-induced thrombocytope-
nia (HIT). The platelet count was 360,000/mm3 on
5. A 50-year-old woman (weight 70 kg) is admitted to admission, and today, it is 180,000/mm3. The 4T’s
the ICU after having an acute myocardial infarction. score is used to determine the probability of HIT.
She has a medical history significant for hypertension, The score is calculated as 3: low risk. The team
tobacco use, and osteoporosis. The next morning, would like to send the heparin–platelet factor 4
she is intubated and stabilized on a ventilator after an (PF4) immunoassay and initiate argatroban. Which
aspiration event. She has an NGT placed. Her current is the most appropriate response?
medications include piperacillin/tazobactam 4.5 g A. Discontinue all heparin products, but do not
intravenously every 8 hours (she has normal renal initiate argatroban.
function), famotidine 20 mg per NGT twice daily, B. Discontinue all heparin products, and initiate
metoprolol 50 mg per NGT every 8 hours, aspirin argatroban.
325 mg per NGT daily, and atorvastatin 80 mg per C. Send the heparin-PF4 immunoassay, and
NGT daily. Which would be the most appropriate continue low-dose unfractionated heparin until
VTE prophylaxis for this patient? the results come back.
A. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices. D. Do not send the heparin-PF4 immunoassay,
B. Enoxaparin 40 mg subcutaneously daily. and do not discontinue low-dose
C. Unfractionated heparin continuous infusion unfractionated heparin.
to maintain a therapeutic activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT). 8. Which would be the most important considerations
D. No VTE prophylaxis at this time. in a critically ill patient approaching the end of life?
A. Pain management, tight glucose management,
6. A 34-year-old woman (weight 65 kg) is admitted to and control of secretions.
the ICU with several fractures, a closed-head injury, B. Routine vital sign checks, discontinuation
and a grade 4 liver laceration after sustaining a motor of unnecessary medications, and control of
vehicle crash. Her medical history is not significant. secretions.
She is admitted to the ICU on a ventilator after C. Pain management, control of secretions, and
surgery. Current laboratory values are as follows: discontinuation of unnecessary medications.
sodium 145 mEq/L, potassium 3.1 mEq/L, chloride D. Discontinuation of unnecessary medications,
97 mEq/L, carbon dioxide 18 mEq/L, blood urea insertion of a Foley catheter, and treatment of
nitrogen (BUN) 70 mg/dL, and serum creatinine nausea and vomiting.
(SCr) 3.5 mg/dL. Which would be the most
appropriate VTE prophylaxis for this patient?
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A. FAST-HUG is a mnemonic emphasizing important aspects of ICU medicine that can be applied at least
daily to all critically ill patients to ensure safe, effective, and efficient care (Crit Care Med 2005;33:1225-9).
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B. Daily Checklists
1. Checklists aim to provide a framework of standardization and regulation of interventions in a
systematic manner, allowing individuals to assess the presence or absence of the items.
2. Provides structure to important ICU-related interventions in an effort to reduce errors of omission and
increase compliance with evidence-based practices to improve outcomes in the ICU patient population
(N Engl J Med 2006;355:2725-32; N Engl J Med 2009;360:491-9)
Patient Case
1. A 68-year-old man (weight 85 kg) is admitted to the ICU for management of severe hypoxemic respiratory
failure associated with community-acquired pneumonia. He is endotracheally intubated and placed on
mechanical ventilation. His medical history consists of Child-Pugh class B cirrhosis secondary to alcohol
abuse, heart failure, and myocardial infarction. His laboratory values show a white blood cell count
(WBC) of 15 x 103 cells/mm3, platelet count 75,000/mm3, BUN 15 mg/dL, SCr 1.1 mg/dL, potassium 4.5
mEq/L, international normalized ratio (INR) 1.0, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 58 IU/mL, and alanine
aminotransferase (ALT) 49 IU/mL. His current medications include ceftriaxone 1 g intravenously daily,
vancomycin 1250 mg intravenously every 12 hours, heparin 5000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours,
fentanyl drip at 50 mcg/hour, midazolam drip at 1 mg/hour titrated to a Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale
(RASS) of 0 to -1, and a regular insulin drip at 1.5 units/hour titrated to maintain blood glucose 140–180
mg/dL. Currently, the patient’s head is 30 degrees above the bed, his RASS is documented as -4, he is on
minimal ventilator settings, and he has an NGT placed. As the clinical pharmacist rounding on this patient,
you go through the FAST-HUG mnemonic. Which are the best recommendations to make to the team?
A. Initiate enteral nutrition by NGT, add SUP, and discontinue fentanyl and midazolam drips.
B. Initiate enteral nutrition by NGT, discontinue deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis, and transition
insulin drip to sliding scale.
C. Transition insulin drip to sliding scale, add SUP, and discontinue fentanyl and midazolam drips.
D. Discontinue fentanyl and midazolam drips, discontinue DVT prophylaxis, and add SUP.
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B. Characteristics of SRMD
1. Multiple superficial erosive lesions occurring early in the course of critical illness, potentially
progressing to deep ulcers.
2. Stress ulcers are diffuse in nature and are not amenable to endoscopic therapy; they generally heal over
time, without intervention, as the patient’s clinical status improves.
C. Pathophysiology of SRMD
1. Decreased splanchnic blood flow is the primary cause of stress ulcer-related bleeding.
2. Reduced splanchnic blood flow is caused by mechanisms common to critical illness:
a. Hypovolemia
b. Reduced cardiac output
c. Proinflammatory mediator release
d. Increased catecholamine release
e. Visceral vasoconstriction
3. Additional factors leading to stress ulcer-related bleeding:
a. Decreased gastric mucosal bicarbonate production
b. Decreased gastric emptying of irritants and acidic contents
c. Acid back-diffusion
d. Reperfusion injury that may occur following restoration of blood flow after prolonged periods of
hypoperfusion
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2. Sucralfate (Carafate)
a. Complexes with albumin and fibrinogen to form a viscous, adhesive substance that adheres to
ulcers in the presence of a pH less than 4
b. Not recommended for routine use because of adverse effects (constipation, aluminum toxicity,
hypophosphatemia) and interactions by chelation
c. Sucralfate is less efficacious than H2RAs
3. Histamine-2 receptor antagonists
a. Competitive blockers of histamine subtype 2 receptor on the basolateral membrane of the parietal
cells. In addition, H2RAs inhibit gastrin secretion to reduce acid production; however, they do not
reliably inhibit vagally induced acid secretion.
b. In animal models, H2RAs may also attenuate reperfusion injury by decreasing interleukin-6 and
neutrophil activation, reducing inflammation by enhancing cell-mediated immunity, and acting as
a weak free radical scavenger.
c. Dose-dependent increase in gastric pH
d. Data against SRMD-related bleeding are primarily with the intravenous route of administration.
i. Previous studies used either continuous-infusion H2RAs or combined H2RAs with intermittent
antacids to maintain pH greater than 4.
ii. Current practice is to use intermittent administration of H2RAs without pH monitoring.
May offer reduction in bacterial overgrowth and thereby less aspiration pneumonia and less
tachyphylaxis
e. Adverse effects
i. Mental status changes such as confusion, hallucinations, agitation, and headaches (mainly
associated with cimetidine)
ii. Thrombocytopenia (occurs over several days from hapten formation; may occur within hours
if patient is sensitized)
iii. Rapid infusion-related hypotension
iv. Sinus bradycardia
v. Risk of nosocomial pneumonia
f. Drug interactions
i. Cimetidine inhibits cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes 3A4, 2D6, 2C9, 2C19, and 1A2.
ii. pH-dependent interactions
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G. Infectious Complications
1. Increases in gastric pH promote bacterial overgrowth, potentially leading to infectious complications.
Both H2RAs and PPIs will cause changes in gastric pH; however, because tachyphylaxis occurs with
H2RAs, PPIs have a greater propensity to maintain a sustained higher pH.
2. Pneumonia
a. Meta-analyses showed lower pneumonia rates with sucralfate compared with H2RAs alone or
H2RAs combined with antacids and no differences in pneumonia rates when H2RAs were compared
with PPIs. Many of the trials included in the analysis have variable definitions of pneumonia.
b. An observational study of cardiac surgical patients detected a higher rate of pneumonia with PPIs
than with H2RAs (relative risk [95% confidence interval {CI}]) 1.19 [1.03–1.38] after propensity
score adjustment (BMJ 2013;347:f5416).
3. C. difficile infection
a. A cohort study observed incremental increases in the risk of nosocomial CDI as the level of
acid suppression increased. After adjustment, the CDI increased from an odds ratio of 1 (1 =
reference of no acid suppression) to 1.53 (95% CI, 1.12–2.10) for H2RA to 1.74 (1.39–2.18) with
daily PPI use, and to 2.36 (1.79–3.11) for more frequent administration of PPI (Arch Intern Med
2010;170:784-90).
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b. There are no prospective trials evaluating the risk of CDI in ICU patients. Furthermore, many
published trials have different definitions of CDI, unclear association of antisecretory therapy
initiation and CDI diagnosis, and variable infection control practices.
H. Duration of SUP: Continued as long as one or more risk factors are present
I. Pharmacoeconomics
1. According to the landmark trial comparing H2RAs with sucralfate, H2RAs may be more cost-effective
because of reduced incidence of bleeding without an increase in pneumonia rates.
2. Cost-effectiveness models have compared H2RAs with PPIs in relation to clinically important bleeding
and adverse effects (ventilator-associated pneumonia [VAP] and CDI), yielding discordant results:
a. Use of PPI therapy for SUP resulted in a $1250 net cost savings per patient compared with H2RAs.
Univariate sensitivity analysis showed that with changing the probability of VAP rates, PPI
therapy would not be as cost-effective (Value Health 2013;16:14-22).
b. Use of H2RA therapy for SUP resulted in a $1095 net cost savings compared with PPIs. Univariate
sensitivity analysis showed that assumptions of pneumonia and bleeding rates were the primary
drivers of incremental costs (Crit Care Med 2014;42:809-15).
3. Cost minimization is best practiced by initiating SUP in patients at risk and appropriately discontinuing
SUP when a patient no longer possesses any of the risk factors for stress-induced bleeding.
J. Guideline Recommendations: The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines published in 2012 recommend PPIs over
H2RAs for SUP (weak/low quality evidence) (Crit Care Med 2013;41:580-637).
Patient Cases
2. Which best reflects this patient’s number of risk factors for stress-related bleeding?
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Four.
D. Five.
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A. Risk Factors
1. Malignancy, previous VTE, immobility, known thrombophilia, recent (1 month or less) surgery or
trauma, older age (70 years or older), heart or respiratory failure, sepsis, obesity (body mass index of
30 kg/m2 or more), pregnancy, erythropoiesis-stimulating agents with hemoglobin 12 g/dL or more,
hormonal therapy, recent transfusions of concentrated clotting factors, central venous lines, and long-
distance travel.
2. Additional VTE risk factors in critically ill patients:
a. Single-center prospective cohort (n=261) identified four independent risk factors for ICU-acquired
VTE, including personal or family history of VTE (multivariate hazard ratio [HR] 4.0; 95%
CI, 1.5–10.3; p=0.004), end-stage renal failure (HR 3.7; 95% CI, 1.2–11.1; p=0.02), platelet
transfusion (HR 3.2; 95% CI, 1.2–8.4; p=0.02), and vasopressor use (HR 2.8; 95% CI, 1.1–7.2;
p=0.03) (Crit Care Med 2005;33:1565-71).
b. In the critically ill patient population, there are no validated risk assessment models to estimate the
risk of VTE.
B. Prevention of VTE in the General Critically Ill Patient Population – Summary of recommendations (Chest
2012;141:S195-226)
1. Routine ultrasound screening is not recommended.
2. Either low-dose unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin should be initiated in a
critically ill patient over no prophylaxis.
3. Mechanical VTE prophylaxis should be used in a critically ill patient if bleeding or at high risk of
bleeding. Once bleeding risk abates, initiate pharmacologic VTE prophylaxis.
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Major
Screening Bleeding
Citation Study Type Population Intervention Methods VTE Rates Rates
Crit Care Single-center 119 medical- LDUH 5000 Daily 13% in Not reported
Med surgical ICU units SC 125
I-labeled LDUH vs.
1982;10: patients twice daily vs. fibrinogen leg 29% in
448-50 placebo scanning placebo;
p<0.05
Am J Multicenter, 221 MV Nadroparin Weekly Doppler 15% in 6% in
Respir Crit double-blind patients with (weight ultrasonography nadroparin nadroparin
Care Med COPD based) SC and day 21 group vs. 28% group and 3%
2000;161: daily vs. in placebo in placebo
1109-14 placebo group; group; p=0.28
p=0.045
Thromb Multicenter, 1935 patients LDUH 5000 Doppler 5.6% in Not reported
Haemost double-blind with severe units SC ultrasonography LDUH group
2009;101: sepsis twice daily vs. between days vs. 5.9% in
139-44 receiving enoxaparin 40 4 and 6 enoxaparin
drotrecogin mg SC daily group vs.
alfa vs. placebo 7.0% in
(activated) placebo
group; p=NS
Blood Single-center, 156 surgical LDUH 5000 Doppler 2.7% in 2.7% in the
Coagul double-blind patients units SC ultrasonography LDUH group LDUH group
Fibrinolysis undergoing twice daily vs. 5–7 days after vs. 1.2% in vs. 1.2% in
2010;21: major elective enoxaparin 40 surgery and enoxaparin enoxaparin
57-61 surgery mg SC daily when clinically group; p=0.51 group; p=0.48
indicated
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Table 9. VTE Prophylaxis Recommendations in the General and Abdominal-Pelvic Surgical Patient
Risk Level for VTE Risk of Bleeding Prophylaxis
Very low Low Early ambulation
Low Low IPCD
Low LMWH, LDUH, or IPCD
Moderate
High IPCD
Low LMWH or LDUH with elastic stockings or IPCD
Low with contraindications to
Low-dose aspirin, fondaparinux, or IPCD
High LMWH or LDUH
IPCD until risk of bleeding abates, then pharmacologic
High
prophylaxis should be initiated
IPCD = intermittent pneumatic compression device; LDUH = low-dose unfractionated heparin; LMWH = low molecular weight heparin; VTE =
venous thromboembolism.
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3. Frequency of HIT
a. Higher in patients receiving unfractionated heparin compared with low molecular weight heparin,
occurring in 1%-5% of patients versus less than 1%, respectively.
b. Occurs in less than 1% of ICU patients
c. Higher risk in cardiac or orthopedic surgical patients receiving unfractionated heparin (1-5) than in
medical patients (0.1-1)
4. Alternative causes of thrombocytopenia in critically ill patients include extracorporeal devices,
intra-aortic balloon pumps, sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, bleeding, and medications.
Platelets may decrease post-cardiac bypass surgery and subsequently recover. A secondary drop in
platelets may signal potential HIT.
5. The clinical diagnosis of HIT
a. Suspected when a patient has a decrease in absolute platelet count to less than 150,000/mm3
or a relative decrease of at least 50%, skin lesions at injection sites, or systemic reactions after
intravenous boluses.
b. The typical onset is 5–10 days after heparin exposure, though it can be delayed and occur up to
3 weeks after cessation of therapy.
c. Recent heparin exposure may result in rapid-onset HIT, occurring within hours after rechallenge.
d. Patients with recent unfractionated heparin/low molecular weight heparin exposure and new
thrombosis should have their platelet counts checked before starting anticoagulant therapy.
6. Probability of HIT
a. The 4T’s pretest clinical scoring system has a high negative predictive value; however, it requires
further investigation in ICU patients.
b. The HEP (HIT Expert Probability) score has not been assessed in ICU patients.
7. Laboratory testing
a. Platelet factor 4 (PF4): ELISA
b. Antibody present if sample from patient binds to the heparin-PF4–coated wells, leading to a
color-producing reaction. A higher antibody concentration leads to more color production and a
higher optical density reading. Optical density readings of 0.4 or greater are considered positive
and indicate the presence of HIT antibodies.
c. High sensitivity (greater than 90%)
d. Low to moderate specificity
i. As low as 20%, depending on the patient population studied
ii. Clinically insignificant HIT antibodies are often detected among patients who have received
heparin 5-100 days earlier.
iii. Detects a range of immunoglobulin (Ig) A and IgM antibodies that are not pathogenic
e. Heparin-induced platelet aggregation (HIPA) and C14 serotonin release assay (SRA): Functional
assays
i. Patient serum is mixed with washed platelets from healthy volunteers and low and high
concentrations of heparin. In the presence of HIT antibodies, platelets are activated in low
concentrations of heparin and detected using radioactive serotonin (SRA) or visually (HIPA).
ii. High sensitivity and specificity
iii. Technically challenging and not readily available
8. Treatment of HIT
a. Immediately discontinue all sources of heparin and initiate an alternative non-heparin anticoagulant.
b. Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitors are the agents of choice for anticoagulation in the setting
of acute HIT because they have no cross-reactivity with heparin. Some studies support the use
of the factor Xa inhibitor, fondaparinux for the treatment of HIT, although there are reports of
fondaparinux-induced HIT.
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c. Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitors are associated with a higher rate of major bleeding
complications compared with unfractionated heparin, and no antidote is available for excessive
anticoagulation.
d. Initiate warfarin once the platelet count has recovered and is within normal limits (at least
150,000/mm3) and after at least 5 days of therapy with an alternative anticoagulant. Alternatively,
conservative warfarin dosing may begin once platelet count is recovering. If a patient is on
warfarin at the time of HIT diagnosis, reversing with vitamin K is recommended.
e. Argatroban dosing in the critically ill population (Crit Care 2010;14:R90; Ann Pharmacother
2007;41:749-54)
i. Mean dose in critically ill patients was 0.24 (±0.16) mcg/kg/minute.
ii. Mean dose in critically ill patients with multiple organ dysfunction was 0.22 (±0.15) mcg/kg/
minute.
iii. Lower doses, 0.5 mcg/kg/min should be considered in severe liver impairment.
iv. Target aPTT is 1.5–3 times baseline.
f. Bivalirudin dosing in the critically ill population (Pharmacotherapy 2006;26:452-60)
i. Dose reduced to 0.05–0.1 mg/kg/hour, depending on renal function and bleeding risks.
ii. Slightly higher doses may be necessary with continuous renal replacement therapy
(0.07 mg/kg/hour).
iii. Target aPTT is 1.5–2.5 times baseline.
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Patient Cases
5. A 93-year-old bedbound man (weight 45 kg) is admitted from a nursing home with a chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease exacerbation requiring mechanical ventilation. He has a history of diabetes mellitus and
heart failure. His laboratory values are all within normal limits except for a BUN of 35 mg/dL and an SCr
of 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 0.5). Which would be the most appropriate recommendation for VTE prophylaxis in
this patient?
A. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices.
B. Enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously once daily.
C. Heparin 5000 units subcutaneously twice daily.
D. Fondaparinux 2.5 mg subcutaneously daily.
7. Three days later, both the heparin-PF4 immunoassay and the SRA (serotonin release assay) return positive,
and the patient has a new DVT. The team would like to initiate warfarin. The patient’s current platelet count
is 130,000/mm3. Which would be the most appropriate response?
A. Discontinue argatroban and initiate warfarin at 5 mg orally daily.
B. Discontinue argatroban and initiate warfarin at 10 mg orally daily.
C. Warfarin should never be used in patients with HIT.
D. Warfarin should not be initiated now.
B. The World Health Organization describes palliative care as “an approach that improves the quality of life of
patients and their families facing the problems associated with life-threatening illness, through the prevention
and relief of suffering by means of early identification and impeccable assessment and treatment of pain and
other problems, physical, psychosocial, and spiritual” (Global Atlas of Palliative Care at the End of Life).
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D. Categories of Support
1. Pain management is of paramount importance for comfort and reduction of distress. Providers and
families can collaborate to identify the sources of pain and relieve them with drugs and other forms of
therapy.
2. Symptom management involves treating symptoms other than pain such as nausea, thirst, bowel and
bladder problems, depression, anxiety, dyspnea, and secretions.
3. Emotional and spiritual support is important for both the patient and the family in dealing with the
emotional demands of critical illness.
E. General Considerations
1. Minimization of uncomfortable or unnecessary procedures, tests, or treatments.
2. Minimizing or discontinuing routine vital sign checks, patient weights, cardiac or other electronic
monitoring, fingersticks, and intermittent pneumatic compression devices.
3. Consider discontinuing routine blood draws, radiologic imaging, and other diagnostic procedures.
4. Consider discontinuing all medications not necessary for patient comfort.
F. Symptom Management
1. Pain
a. Opioids are the mainstay of treatment for patients experiencing pain at the end of life.
b. Administer opioid as an intravenous bolus dose and begin an intravenous continuous infusion,
adjusting rates to maintain comfort; avoid using subcutaneous or enteral routes because the onset
is delayed.
c. No evidence that unconscious patients do not experience pain; therefore, opioid administration
should be initiated or continued
d. Bolus and titrate infusions to control labored respirations; specific dosages of medications are less
important than the goal of symptom relief. Optimal dose is determined by assessing the patient
and rapidly increasing it as needed until symptoms are no longer present. Dose determined by
symptom relief and adverse effects (excessive sedation, respiratory depression [rare])
e. Suggested goals include keeping the respiratory rate at or below 30 breaths/minute and eliminating
grimacing and agitation.
f. Never use neuromuscular blocking agents to treat pain.
g. Morphine most commonly used; hydromorphone and fentanyl are alternatives.
h. In addition, opiates will reduce dyspnea.
i. Tolerance may develop over time.
j. Evidence is good that pain can be improved with correct dosing and titration without causing
respiratory depression or hastening death (JAMA 1992;267:949-53; Crit Care Med 2004;32:1141-8).
2. Anxiety/agitation/delirium
a. Symptoms at the end of life can relate to acute or chronic anxiety, delirium, or terminal delirium.
b. Nonpharmacologic treatments for agitation and anxiety can include frequent reorientation to the
environment and reduction in noise and other bothersome or stimulating environmental factors.
c. Intravenous haloperidol may be used without electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring because the
benefits outweigh the risks of prolonged QTc (corrected QT interval), given the goals of care.
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Patient Case
8. An 88-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU for decompensated heart failure and acute kidney injury.
This is her fourth admission to the ICU in the past 5 months. Speaking with the patient, you find that she
wishes not to be resuscitated or intubated but only to be comfortable. In a meeting with the patient’s family,
all members agree that they do not want to see their loved one suffer any longer. It is decided to initiate a
morphine drip at 2 mg/hour. Titration parameters include giving a bolus dose equivalent to the current rate
and increasing the infusion by 25%. The nurse taking care of the patent believes that the titration parameters
are too aggressive. Which would be the most appropriate change in titration parameters?
A. Change the parameters to increase only the morphine drip when the patient shows signs of discomfort,
such as an increase in blood pressure or heart rate.
B. Discontinue titration parameters, keeping the morphine infusion at the current rate.
C. Discontinue titration parameters, keeping the morphine infusion at the current rate and adding a
midazolam infusion at 2 mg/hour.
D. Do not change the titration parameters at this time.
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Prophylaxis Against Deep Venous Thrombosis or in critically ill patients with hepatic and/or renal
Pulmonary Embolism dysfunction. Pharmacotherapy 2006;26:452-60.
1. Beiderlinden M, Treschan TA, Görlinger K, et al. 12. Linkins LA, Dans AL, Moores LK, et al.
Argatroban anticoagulation in critically ill patients. Treatment and prevention of heparin-induced
Ann Pharmacother 2007;41:749-54. thrombocytopenia: Antithrombotic Therapy and
2. Cade JF. High risk of the critically ill for venous Prevention of Thrombosis, 9th ed: American
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3. Cohen AT, Spiro TE, Büller HR, et al. Rivaroxaban Clinical Practice Guidelines. Chest 2012;141(2
for thromboprophylaxis in acutely ill medical suppl):495S-530S.
patients. N Engl J Med 2013;368:513-23. 13. Phung OJ, Kahn SR, Cook DJ, et al. Dosing frequency
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thrombosis in medical-surgical critically ill patients: meta-analysis. Chest 2011;140:374-81.
prevalence, incidence, and risk factors. Crit Care 14. Saugel B, Phillip V, Moessmer G, et al. Argatroban
Med 2005;33:1565-71. therapy for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
5. Cook D, Meade M, Guyatt G, et al. Dalteparin versus in ICU patients with multiple organ dysfunction
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Engl J Med 2011;364:1305-14. 2010;14:R90.
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study. Arch Intern Med 2008;168:1805-12. 2. Global Atlas of Palliative Care at the End of Life.
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11. Kiser TH, Fish DN. Evaluation of bivalirudin
treatment for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
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1. Answer: A 4. Answer: C
The mnemonic FAST-HUG stands for Feeding, Once the risk factors are no longer present, SUP should
Analgesia, Sedation, Thromboembolic prophylaxis, promptly be discontinued (Answer C is correct).
Head of bed elevation, stress Ulcer prophylaxis, and This patient no longer has risk factors (mechanical
Glycemic control. Using this mnemonic as a “checklist” ventilation, coagulopathy acute kidney failure, and
every day for each critically ill patient will assist in severe sepsis). In addition, there is no evidence that SUP
maximizing therapeutic interventions and promote should be continued until hospital or ICU discharge or
patient safety. This patient would benefit from having when antimicrobial therapy is complete (Answers A, B,
enteral nutrition initiated (patient has an NGT already and D are incorrect).
placed and has a working GI tract), a sedative interruption
(current RASS [Richmond Agitation Sedation Scale] is 5. Answer: C
above the designated goal), and the addition of SUP (risk The patient has several risk factors for VTE, including
factors include mechanical ventilation) (Answer A is immobility and respiratory failure, making heparin 5000
correct). Critically ill patients with risk factors for VTE, units subcutaneously twice daily an appropriate choice
should remain on VTE prophylaxis (Answers B and D for VTE prophylaxis (Answer C is correct). Neither
are incorrect); moreover, sliding-scale insulin should enoxaparin nor fondaparinux is appropriate for this
be initiated when the patient is not critically ill, adding patient, who has acute kidney injury with an estimated
another reason why Answer B is incorrect, as well as CrCl of less than 20 mL/minute (Answers B and D are
making Answer C incorrect. incorrect). Intermittent pneumatic compression would
be insufficient in a patient with no contraindication to
2. Answer: C pharmacologic prophylaxis (Answer A is incorrect).
Two independent risk factors for SRMD include
respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation for 6. Answer: A
48 hours or longer and coagulopathy (platelet count less Diagnosing HIT is difficult in a critically ill patient
than 50,000/mm3, INR greater than 1.5, or aPTT time because there are many alternative causes of
greater than 2 times the control). This patient has both thrombocytopenia. Clinical assessment is essential
of these risk factors. In addition, this patient has severe in diagnosing HIT because of the immediate need for
sepsis, as evidenced by end-organ dysfunction and acute treatment and the delay in laboratory testing (Answers B
kidney injury (Answer C is correct). Answers A, B, and D and D are incorrect). Clinically, this patient has a greater
are incorrect as this patient has four risk factors for SUP. than 50% drop in platelet count within 5 days of receiving
heparin. This patient had a DVT 2 months ago, when he
3. Answer: D was probably exposed to heparin products. The first step
Antacids are not recommended for routine use because in managing suspected HIT is to ensure that all forms of
of their frequency of administration, adverse effects, heparin are discontinued, including flushes or heparin-
and interactions (Answer B is incorrect). In a large coated catheters. The next step is to initiate an alternative
randomized controlled trial, sucralfate was inferior to form of anticoagulation. Direct thrombin inhibitors are
H2RAs in preventing clinically significant bleeding from the agents of choice for anticoagulation in the setting of
SRMD and is generally not recommended because of acute HIT because they have no cross-reactivity with
its adverse effect profile (Answer A is incorrect). Proton heparin (Answer A is correct). Factor Xa inhibitors have
pump inhibitors are no better than H2RAs in preventing been used in the management of HIT; however, they
SRMD and are associated with increased infectious would not be the best choice in this patient, who has
complications, including pneumonia and CDI (Answer acute kidney injury (Answer C is incorrect).
D is correct). Meta-analyses have favored PPIs to H2RAs
for GI bleeding; however, the individual trials included
lacked methodological quality (Answer C is incorrect).
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7. Answer: D
Warfarin can be initiated (Answer C is incorrect) once
the platelet count has recovered to at least 150,000/mm3
and after at least 5 days of therapy with an alternative
anticoagulant (Answer D is correct). Because this
patient’s platelet counts have not reached 150,000/mm3
and only 3 days of argatroban have been completed,
warfarin therapy should not be initiated at this time
(Answers A and B are incorrect). Argatroban should
be continued, and warfarin may be considered at low
doses (maximum 5 mg) as the platelet count continues to
recover (Answer B is incorrect).
8. Answer: D
Up to 50% of seriously ill, hospitalized patients will
experience moderate or severe pain. Opioids are the
mainstay of treatment for patients experiencing pain and
dyspnea at the end of life. Assessing pain in the ICU can
be particularly challenging because many patients have
impaired cognition and communication. The use of vital
signs alone should not be used alone for pain assessment
(Answer A is incorrect). Evidence suggests that pain can
be improved with correct dosing and titration (Answers
B and C are incorrect) without causing respiratory
depression or hastening death (Answer D is correct).
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1. Answer: C 4. Answer: A
The FAST-HUG mnemonic can serve as a “checklist” Proton pump inhibitors are potent inhibitors of gastric
for every patient admitted to the ICU. Every patient acid production and are the drug of choice for treatment of
should be assessed for a sedation interruption in an gastroesophageal reflux disease. To date, no prospective
effort to minimize sedative exposure and maintain a randomized controlled trials have evaluated the risk
light level of sedation (Answer C correct). To decrease of CDI with PPI use (Answer B is incorrect). A cohort
the risk of nosocomial pneumonia, each patient should study showed an increased risk of CDI when PPIs were
have his or her head 30–45 degrees above the head of used more frequently than daily (Answer C is incorrect).
the bed (Answer C correct). Enteral nutrition should be All published trials assessing the risk of CDI with PPI
initiated as soon as possible—typically, once the patient use have been limited by the inconsistent definitions of
is stabilized; however thromboprophylaxis should be CDI and the variable infection control practices (Answer
initiated in every patient, using pharmacologic agents D is incorrect). Gastric juice is strongly bactericidal for
preferentially to mechanical prophylaxis (Answer B is microorganisms. Proton pump inhibitors are commonly
incorrect). Stress ulcer prophylaxis should be initiated used to increase the gastric pH; therefore, they act as a
only in patients who have risk factors present and should potential risk factor for CDI (Answer A is correct).
be discontinued when the risk factor does not exist
(Answer A is incorrect). Insulin infusions should be 5. Answer: B
initiated only if blood glucose readings are not within Low-dose unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-
the range of 140–180 mg/dL (Answer D is incorrect). weight heparin should be initiated for VTE prophylaxis
in a critically ill patient over no prophylaxis (Answer
2. Answer: C D is incorrect). Intermittent pneumatic compression
Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over the surface devices would be insufficient prophylaxis in a patient
of the stomach, reducing exposure to acidic gastric with several risk factors for VTE (Answer A is incorrect).
contents; therefore, sucralfate has no effect on gastric pH A continuous infusion of heparin is inappropriate for the
(Answer A is incorrect). Compared with H2RAs, PPIs prevention of VTE (Answer C is incorrect). Enoxaparin
seem to be more effective in reducing gastric acidity, but may be used in a critically ill patient with stable renal
no well-conducted trial has shown PPIs to be superior function for VTE prophylaxis (Answer B is correct).
in preventing clinically significant bleeding (Answer B
is incorrect). Tolerance to any H2RA may occur, but not 6. Answer: A
with PPIs (Answer C is correct). Antacids have some This patient sustained a closed-head injury, placing her
effect on reducing stress ulceration, provided the gastric at high risk of VTE (Answer D is incorrect). The patient
pH is kept above 3.5, but frequent dosing (up to every 2 is at high risk of having major bleeding and experiencing
hours) is required to achieve this goal, making their use acute kidney injury; therefore, use of a low-molecular-
impractical (Answer D is incorrect). weight heparin or a factor Xa inhibitor would not be
the best option in this patient (Answers B and C are
3. Answer: D incorrect). Mechanical prophylaxis with intermittent
The patient has an indication for SUP (mechanical pneumatic compression devices is preferred to no
ventilation). The patient has an NGT in place and is prophylaxis in the absence of lower extremity injury
tolerating tube feedings, indicating a functioning gut; until the bleeding risk is no longer present (Answer A
therefore, intravenous therapy is not required (Answers A is correct).
and B are incorrect). The patient has erosive esophagitis,
for which a PPI will be more effective than an H2RA 7. Answer: D
(Answer C is incorrect). Omeprazole suspension Clinical assessment is essential in the diagnosis of HIT
is effective in the prevention of SRMD; therefore, because of the immediate need for treatment and the
omeprazole suspension would be the most appropriate delay in laboratory testing. Although this patient did
choice for this patient (Answer D is correct). experience a 50% decrease in his platelet count, the
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8. Answer: C
General considerations in the critically ill patient at the
end of life include minimization of uncomfortable or
unnecessary procedures, tests, or treatments, including
fingersticks, Foley catheters, and routine vital signs
(Answers A, B, and D are incorrect). Symptom
management of pain and anxiety, fever, cough, secretions,
nausea and vomiting, and delirium should be considered
in the dying patient (Answer C is correct).
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