1.

Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

1)- b

2. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

2)- b

3. If an expected result is not specified then:

a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs

3)- c

4. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure

1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure

4)- d

5. Test are prioritized so that:

a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults

5)- b

6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique

a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections

6)- a

7. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?

a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing

7)- d

8. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion

8)- c

9. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?

a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on

9) � b

10. The purpose of requirement phase is

a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above

10) � d

11. The process starting with the terminal modules is called -

a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration

11) -b

12. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above

12) � a

13. Function/Test matrix is a type of

a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report

13) � c

14. Defect Management process does not include

a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above

14) � b

15. What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside
your country, versus testing software developed by a contractor within your
country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control

15) � b

16. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?

a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10

16) � b

17. A reliable system will be one that:

a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users

17) � b

18. How much testing is enough

a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special
requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

18) � b

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?

a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness

19) � d

20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.

a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box

20) � a

21. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above

21) � d

22. To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the
function and passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

22) � b

23. Equivalence partitioning is:

a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

23) � c

24. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

24) � a

25. Inspections can find all the following except

a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered

25) � d
1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality
of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that
exercises a feature of a product in full detail.
b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment)
and for some features detail testing is not required. It�s a mix of both breadth
and depth testing.

So, the answer is �A�

2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects

a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false

b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

Evaluating the options:

Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator.
Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In
Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for
option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.

The answer is �B�

3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the
correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up

a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi

Evaluating the options:

Formal review process is �Inspection�. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can
eliminate option �b�. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will
be Kick off. That�s it we found the answer. Its �C�
The answer is �C�

4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which
is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on
to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Speed2 ---(C)-- > Off ---(A)---> Speed1 --- (B)--> Speed2

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch
coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A

Evaluating the options:

In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The
coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-
switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with
initial state and go till end state. It does not test �sequence of two state
transitions�). In this case the start state is �OFF�, and then press of the button
turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and
the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like
what if the start state is �Speed 1� or �Speed 2� etc.

An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with
�OFF� state. So we have options �a� and �c� to select from. As per the state
diagram from �OFF� state the dryer goes to �Speed 1� and then to �Speed 2�. So our
answer should start with �A� and end with �C�.

The answer is �C�

5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-

a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique

Evaluating the options:

I guess no evaluation is required here. It�s a straight answer. White box
techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)

The answer is �A�

6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?

a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes
a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a
test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range
becomes a test case.

Evaluating the options:

Let�s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into
valid and invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an
input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value
between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield same
output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.

The answer is �B�

7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases

a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use
of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing
use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world
use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

Evaluating the options:

Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide �Use cases
describe the �process flows� through a system based on its actual likely use�
(actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are
useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use
case uncovers defects in process flow during real world use of the system.

The answer is �A�

8. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible

Evaluating the options:

From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it
is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So
eliminate option �d�. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option �c�. But
implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is
impractical but possible

The answer is �A�

9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word �not� in the question. Test implementation does
include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate
options a, b and c. The only option left is �D�. Designing activities come before
implementation.

The answer is �D�

10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?

a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis

Evaluating the options:

Please take care of the word �not� in the question. We have to choose the one which
is not a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms
used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black
box.

The answer is �D�

11. A Project risk includes which of the following

a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it�s a part of software.
d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it�s a
part of software.

The answer is �A�

12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :

i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as
possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Evaluating the options:

a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For
e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we
can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk
c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize
testing to find defects asap.
d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the
impact on the project as a whole.
Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its �B�

The answer is �B�

13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test
tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Evaluating the options:
Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities
mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).

The answer is �B�

14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-

a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

Evaluating the options:

In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity.
It�s a post task. Hence eliminate option �b�. Individual meeting preparation is an
activity for individual. It�s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option �d�.
Now we are left with 2 options �a� and �b�, read those 2-3 times. We can identify
that option �b� is most appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include
selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part
of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)

The answer is �B�

15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were
identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager

Evaluating the options:

I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.

The answer is �B�

16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager

a) i,ii,iii,iv are true

b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Evaluating the options:

The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to
identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and
Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select
from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in
Inspection.

The answer is �B�

17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics

Evaluating the options:

Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal
process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating �b�, �c� and �d�.

The answer is �A�

18. What can static analysis NOT find?

a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (�dead�) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Evaluating the options:

Static analysis cover all the above options except �Memory leaks�. (Please refer to
the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)

The answer is �C�

19. Incidents would not be raised against:

a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Evaluating the options:

The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The
last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and
not an incident.

The answer is �D�

20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to

detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing

Evaluating the options:

The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards
the security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In
security testing we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.

The answer is �A�

21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Evaluating the options:

The question is about �not� a major task. Option �a� is a major task. So eliminate
this. Option �b� is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important).
Option �c� and �d� both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.

The answer is �B�

22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to
measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the
test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing

Evaluating the options:

Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen
from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate
them.

The answer is �A�

23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in
the interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing

Evaluating the options:

We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to
interaction or integration. Option �a� is not related to integration. Option �c� is
unit testing. Option �d� component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence
eliminating these three options.

The answer is �B�

24. Static analysis is best described as:

a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.

Evaluating the options:

In this case we have to choose an option, which �best� describes static analysis.
Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully
read them.
a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which
describes static analysis.
b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which
describes static analysis.
c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
d) Option d: This option ca be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.

The answer is �C�

25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric
values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book

Evaluating the options:

As we know, alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to
choose an option which has both of these.
a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in
capitals)
b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is
that all letters are not in capitals)
c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers
d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case

The answer is �C�

26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking
at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option �a� is
about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option �b� is about
implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best
option is �a�.

The answer is �A�

27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects
while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is �B�

28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document

Evaluating the options:

We have to choose an option which does �not� come under Configuration Management
(CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data
and documentation.
a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in
the test cycle is part of CM.
b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is �live data� which is not
part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
The only option that does not fall under CM is �c�

The answer is �C�

29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase

a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Evaluating the options:

Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not
part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating
exit criteria. After closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance
organization.

The answer is �C�

30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is
turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values
which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19

Evaluating the options:

Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from same class. So first
divide the classes. When temperature falls below 18 switch is turned off. This
forms a class (as shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is
turned on. For values between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class
as shown below.

Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)

Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)

From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular
class. Option �a� values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option �b� values are
not in one class, so eliminate. Option �c� values are in one class. Option �d�
values are not in one class, so eliminate. (please note that the question does not
talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)

The answer is �C�

1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected

behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x � z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

4 Testing should be stopped when:

a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999
inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for
only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:

a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:

a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for
integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statements

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software
performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test
cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print �Large�
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print �P Large�
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:

Switch PC on
Start �outlook�
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14 Given the following code, which is true:

IF A > B THEN
C = A � B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print �Error�
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the
television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:

a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?

a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (�dead�) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

20 Beta testing is:

a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer�s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by
developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:

a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is
false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:

a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side
effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating
those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same
environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent
testers

27 Expected results are:

a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:

a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:

a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests

is
called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:

a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review

processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:

a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:

a) expected outcomes are defined by the software�s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and
databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:

a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:

a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test
Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:

a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best used

a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

ANSWERS
1 C 11B 21B 31A
2 C 12B 22D 32B
3 E 13B 23A 33E
4 E 14B 24D 34A
5 C 15E 25A 35B
6 A 16C 26A 36B
7 B 17B 27D 37D
8 B 18C 28C 38D
9 C 19C 29A 39C
10 E 20A 30E 40B

1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools
providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100%
branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100%
statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more
faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect
more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4 Which of the following requirements is testable?

a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:

Ask: �What type of ticket do you require, single or return?�
IF the customer wants �return�
Ask: �What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?�
IF the customer replies �Cheap-day�
Say: �That will be �11:20�
ELSE
Say: �That will be �19:50�
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: �That will be �9:75�
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6

6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?

a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test
suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements
covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:

a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity
descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v � test control
w � test monitoring
x � test estimation
y � incident management
z � configuration control
1 � calculation of required test resources
2 � maintenance of record of test results
3 � re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 � report on deviation from test plan
5 � tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11 Which of the following is false?

a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12 Enough testing has been performed when:

a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won�t find any serious faults.

13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under
test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?

a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15 Which of the following is false?

a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a
fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT

correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?

a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?

a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19 The oracle assumption:

a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most
expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix
then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most
expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases,
they are cheapest to fix then.

21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?

a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn�t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the
use
of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26 Data flow analysis studies:

a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has �4000 of salary tax free. The next �1500 is taxed at 10%
The next �28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test
case?
a) �1500
b) �32001
c) �33501
d) �28000

28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User
Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?

a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained
moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained
moderator.

31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in
the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32 Integration testing in the small:

a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33 Static analysis is best described as:

a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34 Alpha testing is:

a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer�s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer�s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has �4000 of salary tax free. The next �1500 is taxed at 10%
The next �28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) �4800; �14000; �28000
b) �5200; �5500; �28000
c) �28001; �32000; �35000
d) �5800; �28000; �32000

37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39 Test cases are designed during:

a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

Answers.
1 A 11 A 20 A 31 C
2 A 12 B 21 D 32 B
3 D 13 A 22 A 33 C
4 C 14 C 23 B 34 C
5 A 15 B 24 C 35 B
6 A 16 B 25 D 36 D
7 C 17 D 26 C 37 C
8 B 18 D 27 C 38 D
9 C 19 B 28 A 39 D
10 D 20 A 29 C 40 B

* Number of tests = sum of ( If statments ) + 1

there is another coverage type [[ decision condition coverage ]] and the rule is
(2n+1) where n=the number of conditions.
example (IF x==y OR z==m && s==t)
then we have Two Condition Operators so number of test cases is (2*2)+1 = 5