Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-5
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-5 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.

2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

Directions (Q1 & Q2) : In each of the following 5. Which number is like the given set of numbers?
questions, four groups of letters are given, three of them (39, 14, 84)
are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose (1) 48 (2) 105
the odd one. (3) 155 (4) 220
6. 26 : 6 : : 32 : 6 : : 48 : 8 : : 34 : ?
1. (1) NAGE (2) TUHO
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) DABA (4) PAKE
(3) 7 (4) 12
2. (1) EGKS (2) NPTB 7. Select the missing number.
(3) JLPW (4) ACGO
4 4
Directions (Q3 & Q4) : Choose the odd pair in each of
2 27 3 18
the following questions.

3. (1) 24 – 118 (2) 32 – 132 2 36 12 3

(3) 21 – 121 (4) 23 – 162 ? 6

4. (1) 22 – 4 (2) 37 – 7 (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 12 – 2 (4) 44 – 8 (3) 12 (4) 10

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

8. Find the missing number. 16. Choose a group of letters given below, which
3 6 2 5 complete the given sequence?
a_ba_c aa_aa_a_b_ac
1 65 7 2 37 44 101 69 ? 2
(1) abbcab
2 5 1 3 (2) bacacb
(1) 145 (2) 125 (3) aabcaa
(3) 89 (4) 110 (4) abcabc
9. Identify the missing number in the following
17. The number of square in the given figure is
sequence.
6, 8, 11, 16, 23, 34, ?
(1) 28 (2) 48
(3) 64 (4) 47
10. Find the number that does not belong to the (1) 25 (2) 49
following group.
(3) 55 (4) 65
112, 223, 334, 445, 555, 666
18. Find the missing number.
(1) 555 (2) 666
9 14 16 12
(3) 334 (4) 223
11. The reflex angle between the minute hand and hour
4 20 24 ?
hand of a clock at 9:30 pm is
2 3 3 5 6 2 5 4
(1) 255° (2) 265°
(1) 24 (2) 29
(3) 270° (4) 245°
(3) 37 (4) 34
12. At what time between 7 and 8 O'clock will the
hands of a clock are in straight line and points in 19. If 1 × 1 = 0, 2 × 2 = 2, 3 × 3 = 9, 4 × 4 = 24,
opposite directions? then 5 × 5 is equal to

4 1 (1) 44
(1) 50 min past 7 (2) 9 min past 7
11 11 (2) 48
5 6 (3) 50
min past 7
(3) 5 (4) 10 past 7
11 11
(4) 52
13. The last day of century can be
20. In a 100 m race, X beats Y by 10 m and Z by
(1) Sunday (2) Tuesday 13 m. In a race of 180 m, Y will beat Z by
(3) Thursday (4) Saturday
(1) 4.5 m
14. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday, what was the
(2) 5 m
day of the week on 23rd Jan, 2001?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) 6 m

(3) Thursday (4) Saturday (4) 7.5 m

15. Which letter replace the question mark? Directions (Q21 to Q24) : In a group of 200 students,
20 played football only, 36 played vollyball, 40 played
2 3 1 5
hockey only, 8 played football and volleyball, 20 played
4 ? O 6 football and hockey, 28 played hockey and vollyball and
80 played hockey. Some students do not play any
4 L I 10 game.
5 6 1 9 21. The number of students who played football is
(1) O (2) S (1) 20 (2) 40
(3) T (4) R (3) 45 (4) 50

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

22. The number of students who played volleyball only Directions (Q29 to Q31) : A cube of side length 5 cm
is is painted with red colour on two opposite faces and
blue colour on two other opposite faces. The remaining
(1) 16 (2) 20 two faces are uncoloured. Now, the cube is cut into
smaller cubes of unit length.
(3) 8 (4) 28
29. The number of smaller cubes which have one red
23. The number of students who played all the three and one blue coloured face is
games is
(1) 10 (2) 16
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 20 (4) 24
(3) 10 (4) 12 30. The number of smaller cubes which have only one
blue coloured face is
24. The number of students who did not play any of the
above three games is (1) 20 (2) 24

(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 28 (4) 30

(3) 92 (4) 64 31. The number of smaller cubes which have all faces
uncoloured is
25. In a group of 50, 22 students like to eat mango, 17
(1) 30 (2) 45
like to eat orange and 12 like both. The number of
students who like neither mango nor orange is (3) 60 (4) 75

(1) 15 (2) 25 32. Four diagrams marked (1), (2), (3) and (4) are given
below. Choose the one that best illustrates the
(3) 23 (4) 45 relationship among three given classes :

26. If the product of 15 positive real numbers is 1, then Mammals, Dogs, Parrots.
the minimum value of their sum is

(1) 1 (2) 15 (1) (2)

1
(3) (4) 1515
15
(3) (4)
27. A can do a piece of work in 40 days. A works for
8 days and then B finished the rest of work in 16 33. Choose a figure which is different from the other
days. How long will they together take to complete three.
the work?
1112 1
40 10 2
(1) 10 days (2) days (1) 9 3
3 8 4
7 6 5
50
(3) days (4) 20 days 1112 1
3 10 2
(2) 9 3
8 4
28. A number of cats got together and decided to catch 7 6 5
667 mice by them. Every cat caught an equal
1112 1
number of mice. If each cat caught more mice than 10 2
(3) 9 3
there were cats, then the sum of all cats and 8 4
7 6 5
number of mice each cat caught is
1112 1
10 2
(1) 62 (2) 96 (4) 9 3
8 4
7 6 5
(3) 84 (4) 52

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

Directions (Q34 & Q35) : Each of the following

questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures A, B, 37.
C and D constitute the problem set while figures (1), (2),
(3) and (4) constitute the answer set. There is a definite
relationship between figures A and B. Establish a
similar relationship between figures C and D by
choosing a suitable figure D from the answer set.

(1) (2)
34.

A B C D
(3) (4)

(1) (2) 38. The water image of the given figure is

(3) (4)

35. (1) (2)

?
A B C D
(3) (4)

39. The mirror image of the given figure is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) (2)
Directions (Q36 & Q37) : In the following questions,
complete the given pattern by selecting the missing
portion from the given options (1), (2), (3) and (4).
36.
?
(3) (4)

40. A die is thrown four times and the different

positions are recorded as follow :

6 6 5 1
3 2 2 4 6 4 4 2
(1) (2)
Which number is on the face opposite to 2?
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) (4)
(3) 4 (4) 5

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

Directions (Q41 to Q44) : Six friends A, B, C, D, E and 46. In a certain code language AMITA is coded as 11,
F are students and play a different game of football, DOLLY is coded as 17, DEFA is coded as 4, then
cricket, tennis, basketball, badminton and volleyball. in that language ARPIT is coded as
(1) E, who is taller than A and D plays tennis. (1) 8
(2) The tallest among them plays basketball. (2) 16
(3) The shortest among them plays volleyball. (3) 20
(4) B and D neither play volleyball nor basketball. (4) 24
(5) C plays volleyball. 47. In a certain language MUMBAI is coded as
OXQGGP, then which word would be coded as
(6) E is between B, who plays football and A in
ETAWAH?
order of height.
(1) CQWRVA
41. Who among them is tallest?
(2) CQVWRA
(1) A
(3) CQWPVB
(2) D
(4) CQWRUA
(3) E
48. My watch reads 3:00 O'clock and I found that hour
(4) F
hand is pointing south west. In what direction, the
42. What does D play? minute hand of my watch is at that time?
(1) Cricket (1) North-east
(2) Badminton (2) South-east
(3) Football (3) North-west
(4) Either cricket or badminton (4) South
43. Who among them is taller than D but shorter than 49. P is R's father’s nephew, S is R's cousin but not
B? the brother of P. If R's father has only brother, then
how is S related to P?
(1) F
(1) Father
(2) C
(2) Sister
(3) E
(3) Mother
(4) Can’t determine
(4) Aunt
44. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
50. Arrange the following words in meaningful
(1) A is shorter than C
sequence of events.
(2) B is taller than D
(a) Consultation
(3) D is taller than C
(b) Recovery
(4) E is taller than C
(c) Illness
45. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs
(d) Doctor
are 10 less than four times the number of heads.
The number of hens is (e) Treatment
(1) 5 (1) (c), (a), (d), (e), (b)
(2) 10 (2) (c), (d), (e), (a), (b)
(3) 8 (3) (c), (d), (a), (e), (b)
(4) 4 (4) (c), (a), (d), (b), (e)

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages 51. According to the passage, which of the following is
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing a true statement about the narrator as a child?
the most suitable option.
(1) He or she preferred cooler weather
A. The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones.
(2) He or she liked staying indoors
We spend all year looking forward to nice weather
and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary gray (3) He or she had no siblings
days and bitter cold, we dream of those endless (4) He or she was often bored on summer days
days at the beach, laying on the sand and soaking
52. Compared to how he or she was as a child, the
in the bright and burning sun. And then, summer
narrator as an adult is
comes, and it rains. As a child, I would wake up
to rainy summer days and come close to crying. (1) Less excitable (2) Less calm
It wasn't fair. We suffered through months of (3) More idealistic (4) More realistic
school and miserable weather for those scant ten 53. As used in the final paragraph, the word ‘reprieve’
weeks of freedom and balmy weather. Any day that most nearly means
I could not spend at the beach or playing ball with
my friends seemed like a punishment for (1) A short continuation
something. On those rainy summer days, I had (2) A temporary break
nothing fun to do and could only sit inside, staring (3) A permanent conclusion
out at the rain like a Dickensian orphan. I was an
(4) A higher level of pain
only child, so there was no one else to play with.
My father worked from home, so I was not truly 54. According to the passage, summer rain is different
alone, but he could not actively play with me since for adults because
he was technically at work. It was those days that (1) The weather is much warmer than it is for
I would resign myself to whatever was on television children
or any books that I could find lying around. I'd
(2) They do not get a long time off from work for
crawl through the day and pray each night that the
the season
rain would not be there the next day. As an adult,
though, my opinion of summer rain has changed. (3) They better know how to occupy their
When you have to work every day, summer is not downtime
as eagerly anticipated. Mostly, the days run (4) Rain brings with it a brief respite from the hot
together, bleeding into each other so that they no days followed by a considerably cooler weather
longer seem like separate entities and instead feel
55. The tone of the author in the passage is
like continuations of the same long day. Everything
seems monotonous and dull, and an ennui or (1) Nostalgic (2) Formal
listlessness kicks in. Such a mindset makes you (3) Ambiguous (4) Metaphorical
cheer for anything new or different. I spend the B. Many years ago, when the art of stunting plants
winter dreaming of summer and the summer was quite unheard of except in remote areas of
dreaming of winter. When summer comes, I India, Buddhist monks in isolated monasteries in
complain about how hot it is. And then I look Tibet stunted trees like the oak, orange tree, peepal
forward to the rain, because the rain brings with it tree, watching with excitement, the tree still
a cold front, which offers a reprieve-admittedly one flowering and bearing fruit regardless of this
that is all too short-from the torture of 100° and "deformity". Since the trees looked so artistically
humid days. Rainy days are still the worst days of beautiful, the art was learnt by some Chinese
the summer, but summer rain today means monks who taught "Bonsai" making, an art that
positively beautiful-and considerably cooler-weather became most sought after in China. Every garden,
tomorrow. among plant lovers, had at least half a dozen

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

'bonsais'. China and India claimed rights to the art, Directions (Q61 to Q65) : The following sentences have
till Japan followed enamoured by its beauty. Today been divided into parts and each part is labelled as (1),
Japan leads in Bonsai making of plants and has (2), and (3), respectively. Identify which part is
derived new methodologies to make the plants look unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If there is no
aesthetic and rustic. The most beautiful is the mistake in any part, mark (4).
cherry blossom that is breathtakingly attractive. 61. The present speech is / mild contrasted with his /
The bonsai remains full grown for even more than (1) (2)
a year, although it needs constant pruning,
past utterrance on the same topic. / No error
watering, shaping and correct environment. The
trees can be planted in colorful containers of your (3) (4)
choice. 62. He is confident / to secure the /
Innumerable schools have mushroomed where the (1) (2)
art is taught and cultivated. Best known among first prize in the competition. / No error
them is the Indian Bonsai association.
(3) (4)
India has great demand for Bonsai and hotels,
63. She is respectful to / her superiors, /
homes, garden houses, farmhouses, restaurants,
guest houses, invariably to decorate lobby's dining (1) (2)
halls, drawing rooms with these exotic plants. It is without being servile. / No error
aptly said that "a thing of beauty is a joy forever". (3) (4)
Indeed the bonsai lasts in one's imagination long
64. No doubt she has achieved much, /
after the plant has lived its life.
(1)
56. ________ were the first, who began to stunt trees
and plants. but we still cannot give /
(1) Chinese craftsmen in remote colonies (2)
(2) Japanese saints in Buddhist monasteries her credit for all that she boasts. / No error
(3) Indo-Chinese monks of Tibet (3) (4)
(4) Buddhist monks in isolated monasteries in 65. Hard work and perseverance is / indispensable to /
Tibet (1) (2)
57. According to the author, what makes bonsai trees success in life. / No error
unique?
(3) (4)
(1) The constant need of pruning
Directions (Q66 to Q70) : Fill in the blanks with the
(2) The ease of decoration most appropriate option.
(3) Their artistic beauty despite their disfigurement 66. He was angry ________ me, because he thought
(4) The great demand worldwide my remark was aimed ________ him.
58. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the (1) on, at (2) with, at
word 'mushroomed'? (3) at, on (4) with, on
(1) Reciprocated (2) Proliferated 67. In his journal he refers ________ his abhorrence
(3) Designed (4) Contracted ________ smoking.
59. With newer derived methodologies, Japan has been (1) to, of (2) to, in
able to make bonsai plants which are (3) on, of (4) on, with
(1) Urbane yet crude 68. On account _______ her age, she was disqualified
(2) Both homely and artless ________ competing.
(3) Both simple and fantastical (1) with, of (2) of, for
(4) Artistic yet pastoral (3) of, from (4) with, from
60. Which of the following is an antonym of the word 69. Some ________ the members of the committee
'enamoured'? complained _______ increased military expenditure.
(1) Sinister (2) Deviant (1) of, at (2) of, of
(3) Careless (4) Apathetic (3) of, for (4) of, in

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

70. She was indebted ________ her friend ________ a 81. Hatred of women
large sum. (1) Misogynous (2) Misanthropic
(1) to, for (2) on, for (3) Misogyny (4) Misogamy
(3) with, on (4) for, with Directions (Q82 to Q84) : Five parts of a paragraph are
Directions (Q71 to Q75) : Fill in the blanks with the given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the
most appropriate option to complete the passage. ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
An ancient Greek mused 71 meaning of parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
life, and philosophy was born. The first Roman paragraph.
82. S1 : A literary education is simply one of many
72 to build a road instead of cutting a different kinds of education
path through the jungle, and engineering came S2 : ______________________
73 . One day in primitive times, a human S3 : ______________________
S4 : ______________________
being lent to another whatever 74 passed
S5 : It should not be the only form of education
for money and got back his original investment that one should possess
75 more - and banking had started. P : Should have an exclusively literary education
71. (1) about the (2) about Q : It is not wise that more than a small
percentage
(3) at (4) at the
R : Of the people of any country
72. (1) had decided (2) decided
Choose the correct option.
(3) decides (4) having decided
(1) RQP (2) PQR
73. (1) to existence (2) for existing
(3) QPR (4) QRP
(3) into existence (4) to be existing 83. S1 : We cannot justly interpret the religion of
74. (1) then (2) than anyone,
(3) it (4) since S2 : _________________________
75. (1) plus little (2) plus a little S3 : _________________________
(3) but little (4) but a little S4 : _________________________
Directions (Q76 to Q79) : Identify the antonym of the S5 : It is faith that sometimes blinds us to reality
capitalized word from the given options. P : That we ourselves are liable to error
76. ACUMEN Q : In matters of faith
(1) Fear (2) Hostility R : Unless we are prepared to admit
(3) Stupidity (4) Petty Choose the correct option.
77. UNANIMOUS (1) QPR (2) RPQ
(1) Divided (2) Dispute (3) PQR (4) RQP
(3) Dangerous (4) Confused 84. S1 : Pope professed to have learned his poetry
from Dryden
78. VERSATILITY
S2 : _________________________
(1) Monopoly (2) Monotonous
S3 : _________________________
(3) Monomial (4) Monomania
S4 : _________________________
79. CIRCUMSPECT
S5 : This liberality is one of his defining
(1) Doubtful (2) Careless characteristics
(3) Opposite (4) Surrounding P : He praised him throughout his whole life
Directions (Q80 & Q81) : Identify the most appropriate Q : With unvaried liberality
one word substitution for the given definition. R : Whenever an opportunity was presented
80. Devotion to a lonely and austere life Choose the correct option.
(1) Adroitness (2) Asceticism (1) PQR (2) RPQ
(3) Philanthropy (4) Rustic (3) QRP (4) QPR

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

Directions (Q85 & Q86) : The first line of each Directions (Q90 to Q92) : Identify the synonym of the
paragraph is missing. Identify the most appropriate underlined word as per the usage in the sentence.
option to complete the paragraph. 90. Education is the most pressing need of our
85. A : ___________________________________. country.
B : He controls his temper and does nothing in (1) Importance (2) Persistent
excess. (3) Immediate (4) Necessity
C : He is courteous and dignified, even to 91. The indiscriminate reading of fiction novels is
persons whom he wishes to be far away. injurious to ones thinking habits.
(1) A high-bred man never forgets himself (1) Unwanted (2) Imminent
(2) A complacent man is always content with his (3) Continuous (4) Thoughtless
ways
92. He had sown seeds of dissension in his family that
(3) Someone belonging to intelligentsia can be led to the dispute among brothers.
easily distinguished
(1) Contest (2) Discord
(4) A well read man holds a dignified identity
(3) Arrogance (4) Difference
86. A : ___________________________________.
Directions (Q93 to Q96) : Identify the misspelled word.
B : The poet chooses instinctively words of
93. (1) Allegiance (2) Fascination
beautiful sound and arranges them such that
words together harmonise in sound, so as to (3) Parallelled (4) Engagement
produce what may be called "word music". 94. (1) Counterfiet (2) Amphitheatre
C : He varies this music to suit the subject, so (3) Emblem (4) Trespass
that the sound of the lines helps to make 95. (1) Cleanse (2) Wholesome
their meaning clearer. (3) Satchle (4) Wretched
(1) Verbal music depends not only on the musical 96. (1) Assasinate (2) Hypothesis
sound of words but also on rhythm
(3) Dilemma (4) Cigarette
(2) Words rhyme together to give musical chime
Directions (Q97 to Q100) : Identify the most appropriate
of sound
meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
(3) The first characteristic of poetry is verbal music
97. To put your feet down
(4) A poem is characterized by regular rhythm,
(1) Remain firm
rhyme and stanzas
(2) With all your power
Directions (Q87 to Q89) : Identify the relationship
between the given two words and choose the option that (3) Remain hostile
depicts a dissimilar relationship. (4) Where the trouble lies
87. Benign : Hateful : : ? 98. To cut a poor figure
(1) Lucid : Clear (1) To produce no effect
(2) Beneficiary : Giver (2) To produce a poor impression
(3) Fidelity : Unfaithfulness (3) To ruin yourself
(4) Complacent : Discontented (4) To follow submissively
88. Convivial : Friendly : : ? 99. A man of straw
(1) Urbane : Sophisticated (1) A man of vested interests
(2) Intrepid : Timid (2) A man faithful to cause
(3) Magnanimous : Noble (3) A man of no substance
(4) Stoical : Unemotional (4) A man who refuses to surrender
89. Gluttonous : Greed : : ? 100. To speak volumes for
(1) Vivid : Sharpness (1) Project a faithful picture
(2) Vivacious : Liveliness (2) Protect the surroundings
(3) Apathetic : Indifference (3) Draw a correct inference
(4) Ascetic : Boredom (4) Serve as a strong testimony

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. A stone is dropped from a balloon which is moving 105. The frequency of seconds pendulum is
vertically upwards with constant speed of 10 m/s.
(1) 2 Hz
The stone is dropped when the balloon is at height
of 400 m from the ground. The time taken by the (2) 0.5 Hz
stone to reach the ground (take g = 10 m/s2) is
(3) 1 Hz
(1) 8 s (2) 10 s
(4) 0.25 Hz
(3) 5 s (4) 9 s
102. When three bodies are kept in contact on a 106. In the given circuit, the effective resistance between
horizontal smooth floor and horizontal force is A and B when K1 and K2 is open and closed.
applied on the body of mass m 3 then the K2
magnitude of contact force acting in between
masses m2 and m3 is
R

F B
R
m1 m2 m3 R
R R

m1F m2F A
(1) (m  m  m ) (2) (m  m  m )
1 2 3 1 2 3
R
m3 F (m1  m2 )F
(3) (m  m  m ) (4) (m  m  m ) K1
1 2 3 1 2 3

103. Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight 5R

line is as shown in the graph. Mass of the particle (1) 3R and (2) 3R and 2R
3
is 2 kg. Work done by all the forces acting on the
particle in time interval between t = 0 to t = 10 s
is 5R
(3) 3R and (4) 3R and 4R
2
V(m/s)
107. A wire loop ABCD formed by joining two
10
semicircular wire of radius R1 and R2 carries a
current as shown in figure. The magnetic field at
0
10 t(s) the centre O is given by

–20 I

I
(1) 300 J (2) –300 J R2
(3) 400 J (4) –400 J R1
104. If height of mercury column exerts the same D C
pressure as the water of column ‘hw’. The height of A I O I B
mercury column depends upon
0I  0 I 
(1) Height of water column only (1) 4R (2) 4R
(2) Density of water only 2 1

(3) Density of mercury only

0 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 0 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
(4) Height of water column, density of water and (3) 4 I  ⎜ R  R ⎟ (4) 4 I  ⎜ R  R ⎟
mercury ⎝ 1 2⎠ ⎝ 1 2⎠

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

108. In nuclear reactor, slow neutrons are captured with 114. Decomposition of lead nitrate leads to the formation
the help of of a colourless and odourless gas 'X', 'X' in the
(1) Heavy water presence of UV rays, gets oxidised to a triatomic
molecule Y. 'X' and 'Y' respectively are
(2) Liquid sodium
(3) Boron or cadmium (1) Nitrogen dioxide and nitrogen pentoxide
(4) Graphite and heavy water (2) Lead oxide and lead
109. Which of the following is correct?
(3) Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide
(1) If the incident rays diverge from an object, the
object is a virtual object (4) Oxygen and ozone
(2) If the rays diverge from a point after reflection
115. The total number of moles of water molecule(s)
or refraction, a real image is formed
obtained during complete combustion of 2 mol of
(3) If the incident rays converge and appear to ethanol is
intersect at a point behind the mirror or lens,
the point is virtual object (1) 2 (2) 4
(4) If the reflected or refracted rays intersect, the (3) 6 (4) 8
point of intersection is a virtual image
110. 68°F in celsius scale is 116. The pH of 0.01 M aqueous hydrochloric acid is
(1) 32°C (2) 26°C (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 34°C (4) 20°C
(3) 10 (4) 100
111. Two satellites A and B go round the earth in
circular orbits at heights of RA and RB respectively 117. Consider the following
from the surface of the earth. Assuming earth to be
a uniform sphere of radius R e , the ratio of Metal ores
magnitudes of their orbital velocities is

RB Re  RB A B
(1) RA (2) R  R
A e
Electrolysis Roasting
2
Re  RB ⎛ RA ⎞ Metal ‘X’ Metal oxide
(3) RA  Re (4) ⎜ ⎟
⎝ RB ⎠ Reduction
112. The potential difference between A and B in the Metal ‘Y’
given figure is
Metal 'X' and 'Y' can respectively be
1A 4 5 3 1A
(1) Sodium and Zinc (2) Mercury and Zinc
A 6V 8V B
(3) Potassium and Gold (4) Copper and Gold
(1) –10 V (2) 10 V
(3) 26 V (4) 14 V 118. Consider the following part of the Modern Periodic
113. A ball is projected vertically upward from a point A Table :
at the top of a tower, reaches at the surface of
earth in time t1 seconds. If it is projected vertically S.No. Gp - 13 Gp - 14 Gp - 15 Gp - 16
downward from A with the same velocity, it reaches
Period
at the surface of earth in time t2 seconds. If it falls B D
freely from A, the time taken by it to reach the II
earth surface in t time is given by Period
C
t t III
(1) t  t1t2 (2) t  1 2
2 Period
A
(3) t  t1  t2 (4) t  t1 – t 2 IV

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

Now, choose the incorrect statement from the 124. If CaCl2 completely ionises in the solution and its
following: certain amount is dissolved in water at 27°C then
(1) Element B and D combine to form two types 2.5 L solution of osmotic pressure 0.75 atm is
of oxides i.e., acidic and neutral formed. The amount of CaCl 2 present in the
solution is
(2) A is a metal which can melt at 30°C
(1) 2.775 g (2) 3.245 g
(3) Size of B is less than that of D
(3) 3.825 g (4) 4.635 g
(4) C is a non-metal
Cond- Process
125. Consider the following statements :
119. Y ensation Gaseous ‘X’ Plasma I - Same substance can act as an antiseptic as
state state state well as disinfectant by varying the concentration.
Process ‘Z’
II - 2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while its
1% solution is disinfectant.
State Y and the processes X and Z respectively
are Now, choose the correct option.

(1) Liquid, ionisation and vaporisation (1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Solid, sublimation and ionisation (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) BEC, ionisation and vaporisation (3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Liquid, deposition and vaporisation (4) Only statement II is correct
120. Carbon monoxide is highly poisonous because of 126. Which of the following has the maximum number
of hydrogen atoms?
(1) Its pungent odour
(2) Its ability to form a complex with haemoglobin (1) 5.4 g of water
which forms a poisonous liquid in lungs (2) 3.65 g of hydrochloric acid
(3) Its ability to form a stable complex with (3) 1.96 g of sulphuric acid
haemoglobin which does not allow (4) 4.22 g of sodium hydroxide
haemoglobin to carry oxygen
127. Samarth was taking notes of the steps involved in
(4) Its highly acidic nature DNA fingerprinting. But in a hurry he noted them in
121. A charged specie carries 3.0 × 10–15C of static a random order.
electric charge. The number of electrons present in (a) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
it is
(b) Isolation of DNA
(1) 9.114 × 1025 (2) 8.125 × 1010
(c) Blotting of separated DNA fragments on nylon
(3) 1.834 × 108 (4) 1.875 × 104
membrane
122. If an element 'A' occurs in nature in two isotopic
(d) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
38 40
forms 18 A and 18 A and their abundance is 40% (e) Detection of hybridised fragments by
and 60% respectively then the average atomic autoradiography
mass of the element 'A' is (f) Separation of DNA fragments by
(1) 38.8 u (2) 40.0 u electrophoresis
(3) 39.2 u (4) 40.5 u Select the correct order of the steps.
123. Centrifugation technique cannot be used (1) (b)  (d) (c) (f) (a) (e)
(1) In diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine (2) (b)  (d) (f) (c) (a) (e)
test
(3) (d)  (b) (f) (c) (e) (a)
(2) In dairies to separate cream from milk
(4) (b)  (d) (f) (c) (e) (a)
(3) In washing machines to squeeze out water
128. Morphine is extracted from the latex of
from wet clothes
(4) In industries to separate pigment from natural (1) Papaver somniferum (2) Erythroxylum coca
colours (3) Atropa belladonna (4) Datura

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

129. Which of the following pigments is present in cone

133.
cells of eyes?
Lungs B
(1) Retinal A

(2) Rhodopsin
(3) Scotopsin
(4) Iodopsin C D
Body organ
130. In which sub-phases of prophase I the following
events occur?
(a) Formation of synaptonemal complex Identify A, B, C and D blood vessels and the type
of blood they carry.
(b) Crossing over
A B D
(c) Disjunction (1) Aorta Vena cava Pulmonary vein
Oxygenated Deoxygenated Deoxygenated
(d) Terminalization blood blood blood
(2) Pulmonary vein Pulmonary Aorta Vena cava
(a) (b) (c) (d) Deoxygenated artery Oxygenated Deoxygenated
blood oxygenated blood blood
(1) Diplotene Diakinesis Leptotene Zygotene
(3) Pulmonary
artery
Pulmonary vein
Deoxygenated
Vena cava Aorta
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(2) Zygotene Pachytene Diakinesis Diplotene Oxygenated blood blood blood
(3) Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Diakinesis blood
(4) Pulmonary Pulmonary vein Vena cava Aorta
(4) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene artery Oxygenated Deoxygenated Oxygenated
Deoxygenated blood blood blood
blood

131.

134.

Which mode of asexual reproduction is depicted

above?
(1) Binary fission
(2) Budding
The type of coelom depicted above occurs in which
(3) Fragmentation
of the following organisms?
(4) Multiple fission
(1) Spongilla, Wuchereria, Echinus and Aphrodite
(2) Nereis, Echinus, Mystus and Draco 135. Inhibits Stimulates
(3) Ascaris, Antedon, Pila and Bufo Hypothalamus
High level

Low level

P P
(4) Canis, Sycon, Hydra and Planaria Anterior pituitary
Q Q
132. 'X' is an organism transmitted through contaminated Thyroid gland
water and food. It causes a disease 'Y' whose R R
primary treatment is ORS. 'X' and 'Y', respectively
are
P, Q and R, respectively are
(1) Varicella zoster virus, Chicken pox
(1) TSH, TSH - RH and Thyroxine
(2) Plasmodium, Malaria (2) TSH - RH, TSH and Thyroxine
(3) Vibrio cholerae, Cholera (3) Thyroxine, TSH and TSH - RH
(4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Tuberculosis (4) TSH, Thyroxine and TSH - RH

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

136. Which of the following processes adds oxygen to 139.

the atmosphere?
(1) Respiration
(2) Combustion
(3) Photosynthesis (A) (B)
(4) Nitrogen fixation The tissues 'A' and 'B' depicted above are located in
137. If a plant with genotype PpQQ is crossed with A B
another plant with genotype ppQq, then how many (1) Oesophagus Oviducts
plants would have both the genes with (2) Ducts of salivary Lining of the stomach,
heterozygous alleles if 500 offspring are produced? glands and sweat small intestine and colon
(1) 125 (2) 150 glands
(3) Pancreatic lobules Lining of lymph vessels
(3) 250 (4) 200
(4) Lining of blood Lining of Bowman's
138. For enriching the soil with nitrogen, Sujita added
vessels capsule
nitrogenous fertilizers instead of compost because
compost 140. Which of the following would not be observed
during inhalation?
(1) Protects our environment
(1) Increase in the volume of thoracic cavity
(2) Is of low cost
(2) Diaphragm becomes flat
(3) Increases the number of friendly microbes in
the soil (3) Intercostal muscles pull the ribs inward
(4) Is not nutrient specific (4) The pressure of the thoracic cavity decreases

SECTION-II
141. If n is a natural number such that 3n + 3n+1 + 3n+2 145. For any point O in the interior of the quadrilateral
+ 3n–1 is always divisible by k, then the number of ABCD, which of the following is not correct?
possible values of k > 1 is
(1) AB + BC + CD + AD > AC + BD
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 7 (4) 8 (2) OA + OB + OC + OD < AC + BD
142. If the quadratic polynomial (1 + m2)x2 + 2mcx + (3) AB + BC + CD + AD < 2(AC + BD)
(c2 – a2), where a  c  0 has equal zeros, then
m2 is equal to (4) 2(OA + OB + OC + OD) > (AB + BC + CD + AD)

1  a2 1  c2 ⎛ 1 1 1⎞ 24
(1) 2 (2) 146. If 2x = 4y = 8z and ⎜   ⎟ = , then
c a2 ⎝ 2 x 4 y 6z ⎠ 7
c 2  a2 the value of x is (x, y, z 0)
(3) (4) a2(1 – c2)
a2 7 7
(1) (2)
143. If (log23)(log34)(log45) ... (logn(n + 1)) = 10, then 16 32
the value of n is
7 7
(1) 1024 (2) 99 (3) (4)
48 12
(3) 1023 (4) 100
147. If a > 0, b > 0, c > 0 and a + b + c = 1, then the
144. ABC is an isosceles triangle such that AB = AC maximum value of ab2c3 is
and D is the mid-point of AC. A circle is drawn
taking BD as a diameter which intersects AB at 1 1
(1) (2)
point E. The ratio of ar(AED) to ar(BED) is 216 432
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3 1 3
(3) (4)
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 5 864 432
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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

148. In the given quadrilateral ABCD, if A + B = 90°

and B + C = 90°, then which of the following is r
not a correct conclusion?
C O

50 200
E (1) (2)
1067 1067
D 150 100
(3) (4)
1067 1067
153. 2tan2 + tan4 – 2cot2 – cot4equals
A B
F (1) sec4 + cosec4
(1) AB2 + CD2 = AC2 + BD2 (2) sec2·cosec2 (sec2 – cosec2)
(2) BC2 + AD2 = AC2 + BD2 (3) sec2 – cosec2
(3) Points A, C, E and F lie on a circle (4) sec2cosec2
(4) Points A, B, C and D are concyclic 154. ABCD is a parallelogram such that BC is bisected
at E and CD is bisected at F. AE and DC are
149. A shopkeeper gains ` 70 by selling one article at
produced to meet at G and AF and BC are
20% profit and another on 15% discount while
there is no gain and no loss, if profit on the first ar( AGH )
produced to meet at H. is equal to
article is 15% and discount on the second is 20%, ar( ABCD )
then the cost of the first article added to the list 2 3
price of the second is equal to (1) (2)
3 2
(1) ` 2400 (2) ` 1400 4 3
(3) (4)
3 4
(3) ` 1700 (4) ` 1900
155. A flask which is in the shape of a cylinder
150. If two zeros of the polynomial x3 + px2 + qx – r surmounted by a hemisphere is filled with acid upto
are reciprocal of the zeros of the quadratic the brim. The height and radius of the cylinder are
polynomial ax 2 + bx + c, then which of the 14 cm and 4.2 cm respectively. The acid filled in
following is always true? this flask is to be transferred into test tubes of
(1) b = rc + ap (2) b = pc + qr length 10 cm and radius 0.42 cm with hemisphere
at the bottom. How many such maximum number
(3) ap + br = cq (4) rc2 = ab – apc of test tubes can be filled completely?
151. In a certain school, 40% of the students play (1) 186 (2) 163
basketball, 25% play football and 10% play both.
The percentage of students who play neither (3) 165 (4) 178
football nor basketball is 156. Which of the following can be considered as the
(1) 33% (2) 35% equivalent version of Euclid's fifth postulate?

(3) 45% (4) 55% (1) Two distinct points define a unique line

152. In the given figure, the radius (r) of each of the 4 (2) Two distinct intersecting lines are never parallel
equal circles is 14 cm. If the centre of the larger to each other
circle is at O, then the probability of a random (3) Two lines have maximum one point in
throw to strike on the shaded region is common if they are distinct
(Assume throw always strike in the larger circle (4) Two intersecting distinct lines can be defined
only and take 2 = 1.41) by two points

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

157. A triangle is having dimensions 15 m, 28 m and (1) m(x – x0) – (y – y0) = 0

41 m. This triangular plot is to be floored with (2) m(x – x0) + (y – y0) = 0
triangular tiles of sides 9 cm, 40 cm and 41 cm.
(3) (x – x0) – m(y – y0) = 0
How many such minimum number of tiles are
required? (4) (x – x0) + m(y – y0) = 0
159. Two trains running in opposite direction cross a
(1) 7650 (2) 7266 man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and
(3) 7000 (4) 6100 20 seconds respectively and they cross each other
in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds can be
158. The point P(x, y) is equidistant from two fixed
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 3 : 4
points A(x 1 , y 1 ) and B(x 2 , y 2 ). Which of the
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4
following relations is satisfied by the coordinates of
160. Mean of n terms of the sequence formed by the
⎛ y1  y 2 ⎞
P ? [Consider m = ⎜ , x0 = ⎛⎜ x1  x2 ⎞⎟ , general term xi = 2i + 6i2 (i > 0, i  N) is
⎝ x1  x2 ⎟⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ y1  y 2 ⎞ (1) 2n2 (2) 2(n + 1)2
y0 = ⎜⎝ ⎟
2 ⎠ (3) 2(n – 1)2 (4) 2(n2 + 1)

SECTION-III
161. Assertion (A): In 1774, Louis XVI of Bourbon (1) A is true, R is false
family of kings ascended the throne of France. (2) A is false, R is true
Reason (R): Under Louis XVI, France helped the (3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct
thirteen American colonies to gain their explanation of A
independence from the common enemy Britain.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) A is true, R is false explanation of A
(2) A is false, R is true 164. Match the following:
(3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct Column-I Column-II
explanation of A. (Workers association) (Country)
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct a. Social Democratic (i) India
explanation of A. Party
162. Assertion (A): The representatives of third estate b. Labour party (ii) France
formed National Assembly in France. c. Socialist party (iii) Germany
Reason (R): The views of the representatives of (iv) Britain
first and second estates were not according to the
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii)
expectations of Louis XVI.
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(iii)
(1) A is true, R is false
165. Choose the correct response from the given
(2) A is false, R is true responses. In Russia, the Revolution of 1905 took
(3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct place because.
explanation of A. (1) Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct real wages declined by 20 percent
explanation of A. (2) Four members of Assembly of Russian
163. Assertion (A): On 5th
May, 1789, Louis XVI called workers were dismissed at the Putilov Iron
together an assembly of the estates general. Works

Reason (R): This assembly was called to pass (3) Poor working conditions
proposals for new taxes. (4) All of these

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

166. On 16 th October 1917, Lenin persuaded the 173. Who formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress
petrograd Soviet and Bolshevik party to agree to to argue for a return to council politics?
(1) Agricultural reforms (1) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Subhash Chandra
(2) Economic reforms Bose

(3) A socialist seizure of power (2) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

(4) For the reduction of working days of workers (3) Mahatma Gandhi and C.R. Das
in industries (4) C.R. Das and Jawahar Lal Nehru
167. German expert, Dietrich Brandis was made the 174. Which one of the following options is incorrect
first Inspector General of Forests in with respect to the Dandi March?
(1) Germany (2) France (1) Mahatma Gandhi started it accompanied by
(3) India (4) Russia thousands of his trusted volunteers
168. June 28, 1919 is famous for (2) The March was over 240 miles from Gandhiji's
(1) Treaty of Versailles ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal
town of Dandi
(2) Beginning of Second World War
(3) The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10
(3) Allied victory miles a day
(4) Beginning of World War First
(4) On 6th April, he reached Dandi
169. Choose the correct response from the given
175. "Hind Swaraj" was written by
options. In 1903, the modern party of Hanon was
struck by (1) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(1) Unemployment (2) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Poverty (3) Mohammed Iqbal
(3) Bubonic plague (4) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(4) A typhoon 176. Assertion (A): Most of Himalayan rivers are
170. The book ‘The Social Contract’ was written by perennial.

(1) Voltaire Reason (R): These rivers have water throughout

the year.
(2) Jean Paul
(1) A is true, R is false
(3) Rousseau
(2) A is false, R is true
(4) Rouget de Lisle
(3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct
171. Arrange the following satyagrahas of Mahatma
explanation of A
Gandhi in accordance with the year (or
chronologically) (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
a. Kheda b. Champaran explanation of A

c. Ahmedabad 177. Assertion (A): Wular lake is located in Jammu

and Kashmir.
(1) a, b, c (2) b, a, c
Reason (R): It is the largest fresh water lake in
(3) c, b, a (4) b, c, a
India.
172. At the ________ session of the congress in
(1) A is true, R is false
September _______ Mahatma Gandhi convinced
other leaders of the need to start a non- (2) A is false, R is true
cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as (3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct
well as for Swaraj. explanation of A
(1) Haripura, 1938 (2) Belgaum, 1924 (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(3) Kolkata, 1920 (4) Ramgarh, 1940 explanation of A

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

178. Assertion (A): Land mass of India has an area of 187. All the following are non-leguminous crops except
32.8 million square km. (1) Millets (2) Pulses
Reason (R): Area-wise, India is the seventh (3) Wheat (4) Rice
largest country in the world.
188. Match the following columns.
(1) A is true, R is false
Column-I Column-II
(2) A is false, R is true
a. Rabi crops (i) Wheat
(3) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A b. Kharif crops (ii) Potato

(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (iii) Rice
explanation of A (iv) Maize
179. The tropic of cancer does not pass through (1) a(i, iii), b(ii, iii) (2) a(iii, iv), b(i, ii)
(1) Rajasthan (2) Odisha (3) a(i, iii), b(ii, iv) (4) a(i, ii), b(iii, iv)
(3) Tripura (4) Chhattisgarh 189. In Jharkhand, ‘Koderma’ is famous, for which
180. Which of the following countries does not share mineral?
land boundary with India? (1) Iron ore (2) Copper
(1) Bhutan (2) Tajikistan (3) Mica (4) Bauxite
(3) Bangladesh (4) Nepal 190. Monazite sand is rich in
181. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India (1) Francium (2) Uranium
forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively (3) Thorium (4) Plutonium
called as
191. All the given arguments are usually put forth in
(1) Himachal (2) Purvanchal favour of and against power sharing, except.
(3) Uttarakhand (4) Koromandel (1) Reduces conflict among different communities
182. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is (2) Decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
(1) Anai Mudi (2) Mahendragiri (3) Promotes people’s participation in government
(3) Kanchenjunga (4) Khasi (4) Delays decision making process
183. According to 2011 census, the population of India 192. If a country is federal, it means
is
(1) National government gives some power to the
(1) 1.01 billion (2) 1.21 billion provincial governments
(3) 1.27 billion (4) 1.29 billion (2) Power is distributed among the legislature,
184. Which one of the following is the main cause of executive and judiciary
land degradation in Punjab? (3) Elected officials exercise supreme power in
(1) Intensive cultivation (2) Over irrigation the government
(3) Deforestation (4) Overgrazing (4) Governmental power is divided between
185. Black soil is found in which of the given state? different levels of government

(1) Rajasthan (2) Gujarat 193. Communalist is

(3) Jharkhand (4) Jammu and Kashmir (1) A person who believes in equal opportunities
and rights for men and women
186. In which of the following states, terrace cultivation
is practised? (2) A person who says that religion is the
principal basis of community
(1) Punjab
(3) A person who thinks that caste is the principal
(2) Haryana basis of community
(3) Plains of Uttar Pradesh (4) A person who does not discriminate others on
(4) Uttarakhand the basis of religions beliefs

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

194. Who was the president of constituent assembly? 197. The tenth five year plan has focused on increasing
(1) Rajendra Prasad (2) Sarojini Naidu the enrolment in higher education from

(3) B.R. Ambedkar (4) Motilal Nehru (1) 2 to 5 percent (2) 3 to 6 percent

195. Match the following. (3) 5 to 7 percent (4) 6 to 9 percent

Column-I Column-II 198. Which of the following issue/s is/are related to

poverty?
a. Sovereign (i) Government will not favour
any religion (1) Landlessness (2) Unemployment

b. Republic (ii) People have the supreme (3) Size of families (4) All of these
right to make decisions. 199. Classification of economy into organised and
c. Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an unorganised sectors is on the basis of
elected person (1) Inflation
d. Secular (iv) People should live like (2) Literacy
brothers and sisters (3) Wages
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) Employment conditions
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 200. All the given factors cause exploitation of
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) consumers, except
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(ii) (1) Lack of awareness among consumers
196. Economic activities related to agriculture are (2) Greed of business person
(1) Primary activities (2) Secondary activities (3) Lax enforcement of rules
(3) Tertiary activities (4) Quaternary activities (4) Fast process of consumer grievance redressal

  

(19)
 
  


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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-5
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-5 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (3)
2. (3) 42. (4) 82. (4) 122. (3) 162. (1)
3. (4) 43. (3) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (4)
4. (4) 44. (1) 84. (2) 124. (1) 164. (3)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (4)
6. (4) 46. (2) 86. (3) 126. (1) 166. (3)
7. (1) 47. (4) 87. (1) 127. (2) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (2) 88. (2) 128. (1) 168. (1)
9. (4) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (4) 50. (3) 90. (2) 130. (3) 170. (3)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (2) 171. (2)
12. (3) 52. (3) 92. (2) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (2) 93. (3) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (2) 54. (4) 94. (1) 134. (1) 174. (1)
15. (3) 55. (1) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (3) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (4)
17. (3) 57. (3) 97. (1) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (4) 178. (2)
19. (3) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (2) 179. (2)
20. (3) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (3) 180. (2)
21. (2) 61. (3) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (2) 102. (4) 142. (3) 182. (1)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (2)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (2)
25. (3) 65. (1) 105. (2) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (2) 66. (2) 106. (3) 146. (1) 186. (4)
27. (2) 67. (1) 107. (3) 147. (2) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (3) 148. (4) 188. (4)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (3) 149. (2) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (1) 110. (4) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (2) 71. (1) 111. (3) 151. (3) 191. (4)
32. (3) 72. (2) 112. (2) 152. (1) 192. (4)
33. (4) 73. (3) 113. (1) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (1) 114. (4) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (3) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (3) 116. (2) 156. (2) 196. (1)
37. (4) 77. (1) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (4)
38. (1) 78. (4) 118. (3) 158. (4) 198. (4)
39. (4) 79. (2) 119. (1) 159. (2) 199. (4)
40. (4) 80. (2) 120. (3) 160. (2) 200. (4)

(1)
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-5

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. Answer (4)
Sum of places of alphabets is a perfect cube.
2. Answer (3)
+2 +4 +8

E G K S
+2 +4 +8

N P T B
3. Answer (4)
Product of digits in both numbers is same.
4. Answer (4)
4 × 5 + 2 = 22
7 × 5 + 2 = 37
2 × 5 + 2 = 12
5. Answer (3)
33 + 32 + 3 = 39, 23 + 22 + 2 = 14.
6. Answer (4)
LCM of digits
LCM (2, 6) = 6
LCM (3, 2) = 6
7. Answer (1)
2 × 4 × 27 = 23 × 33 = 216
4 × 18 × 3 = 23 × 33 = 216
12 × 3 × 6 = 23 × 33 = 216
8. Answer (2)
(7 + 1)2 + (3 – 2)2 = 65
(4 + 2)2 + (6 – 5)2 = 37

(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

9. Answer (4)
6 + 2 = 8, 8 + 3 = 11
11 + 5 = 16, 16 + 7 = 23
23 + 11 = 34, 34 + 13 = 47
10. Answer (4)
Only prime number.
11. Answer (1)
12. Answer (3)
13. Answer (1)
14. Answer (2)
15. Answer (3)
16. Answer (3)
17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (2)
(22 + 32) – 9 = 4
(32 + 52) – 14 = 20
(62 + 22) – 16 = 24
(52 + 42) – 12 = 29
19. Answer (3)

13  12
1 1  0
2
23  22
2 2  2
2
33  3 2
33  9
2
53  5 2
 55   50
2
20. Answer (3)
21. Answer (2)
22. Answer (3)
23. Answer (2)
24. Answer (3)
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (2)
27. Answer (2)
28. Answer (4)
667 = 23 × 29
 23 + 29 = 52
29. Answer (3)
30. Answer (4)

(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

31. Answer (2)

32. Answer (3)
33. Answer (4)
Sum is prime number except (4)
1+4=5
12 + 7 = 19
8 + 5 = 13
12 + 8 = 20
34. Answer (3)
35. Answer (3)
36. Answer (2)
37. Answer (4)
38. Answer (1)
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4)
41. Answer (4)
A – Cricket or Badminton
B – Football
C – Volleyball
D – Badminton or Cricket
E – Tennis
F – Basketball
F > B > E > A, D > C
42. Answer (4)
43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (1)
45. Answer (1)
Let the number of cows be x and number of hens be y
4x + 2y = 4(x + y) – 10
y 5
46. Answer (2)
Sum of all places of alphabets divided by 4.
47. Answer (4)
M U M B A I
+2  +3  +4  +5  +6  +7 
O X Q G G P
48. Answer (2)
49. Answer (2)
50. Answer (3)

  
(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (3)

52. Answer (3)
53. Answer (2)
54. Answer (4)
55. Answer (1)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3)
58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (4)
60. Answer (4)
61. Answer (3)
Spelling error - ‘utterance’ is the correct spelling
62. Answer (2)
Verb error - ‘of securing’ is the correct form
63. Answer (4)
64. Answer (3)
Preposition error - ‘boasts about’ is the correct usage
65. Answer (1)
Subject verb agreement error - ‘are’ is required in place of ‘is’
66. Answer (2)
67. Answer (1)
68. Answer (3)
69. Answer (2)
70. Answer (1)
71. Answer (1)
72. Answer (2)
73. Answer (3)
74. Answer (1)
75. Answer (2)
76. Answer (3)
77. Answer (1)
78. Answer (4)
79. Answer (2)
80. Answer (2)
81. Answer (3)

(5)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

82. Answer (4)

83. Answer (2)
84. Answer (2)
85. Answer (1)
86. Answer (3)
87. Answer (1)
‘Benign’ and ‘Hateful’ are opposites; ‘Lucid’ and ‘Clear’ are synonyms of each other
88. Answer (2)
‘Convivial’ and ‘Friendly’ are synonyms; ‘Intrepid’ and ‘Timid’ are opposites
89. Answer (4)
A ‘Gluttonous’ person has ‘Greed’ as a characteristic quality. ‘Boredom’ is not a characteristic of ‘Ascetic’.
90. Answer (2)
91. Answer (4)
92. Answer (2)
93. Answer (3)
Paralleled
94. Answer (1)
Counterfeit
95. Answer (3)
Satchel
96. Answer (1)
Assassinate
97. Answer (1)
98. Answer (2)
99. Answer (3)
100. Answer (4)

  

(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I
101. Answer (2)
u = 10 m/s, h = 400 m, g = 10 m/s2
1
400 = –10t + × 10t2
2
5t2 – 10t – 400 = 0
(t + 8) (t – 10) = 0
 t = –8, 10 s
Time is no negative.
102. Answer (4)
Acceleration of the system
F
a
(m1  m2  m3 )
 Magnitude of contact force acting in between masses m2 and m3
F1 = (m1 + m2)a
(m1  m2 )F

(m1  m2  m3 )
103. Answer (1)
104. Answer (4)
 m = Pw
mghm = wghw
w hw
hm 
m
105. Answer (2)
A second pendulum has time period of 2 s
1
 f = 0.5 Hz
2
106. Answer (3)
When K1 and K2 open then the equivalent circuit is
R R
R R
A B
R R
RAB = 3R
When K1 and K2 is closed then the equivalent circuit is
R
R R
B
A
R
5R
RAB  
2

(7)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)
107. Answer (3)
Net magnetic field at centre O :
0 I   I
B  0 
4 R1 4 R2

0 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
B I ⎜  ⎟
4 ⎝ R1 R2 ⎠
108. Answer (3)
Slow neutrons are captured by the control rods (B, Cd)
109. Answer (3)

I
O

110. Answer (4)

We know that
9
(F  32)  C
5
9
 (68  32)  C
5
or C = 20°
111. Answer (3)
Speed is inversely proportional to square root of radius of the orbit

VA Re  RB
 
VB Re  RA
112. Answer (2)
For given circuit,
VA – (4 × 1) – 6 – (5 × 1) + 8 – (3 × 1) = VB
VA – 4 – 6 – 5 + 8 – 3 = VB
VA – VB = 4 + 6 + 5 + 3 – 8
VA – VB = 10 V
113. Answer (1)
1
H  –ut1  gt12 ...(i)
2
u
1
H  ut 2  gt22 ...(ii) u u=0
2
1 t2
H  0t  gt 2 ...(iii)
2 t1 t
By elimination method
We can obtain

t  t1t2

(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

114. Answer (4)


O2
2Pb(NO3)2   2PbO + 4NO2 + ⎛ colourless ⎞
⎜ and ⎟
⎜ odourless ⎟
⎝ ⎠

UV rays
3O2   2O3
115. Answer (3)
2C2H5OH + 6O2  4CO2 + 6H2O
116. Answer (2)
pH = – log [0.01]
=2
117. Answer (1)
118. Answer (3)
119. Answer (1)
120. Answer (3)
121. Answer (4)

3  10 15
Number of electrons = = 1.875 × 104
1.6  10 19

122. Answer (3)

 38  40    40  60 
Average atomic mass =
100

1520  2400
=
100

3920

100

= 39.2 u
123. Answer (4)
124. Answer (1)

inRT
Osmotic pressure  =
V

3 × n × 0.0821 × 300
0.75 =
2.5

n = 0.025
mass of CaCl2 = 111 × 0.025
= 2.775 g
125. Answer (3)

(9)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

126. Answer (1)

Total number of hydrogen atoms in

5.4
(1) Water  ×NA  2 = 0.6 N
18 A

3.65  NA  1
(2) HCl  = 0.1 NA
36.5

1.96
(3) H2SO4   NA  2 = 0.04 N
98 A

4.22  NA  1
(4) NaOH  = 0.105 NA
40

127. Answer (2)

128. Answer (1)
Morphine is extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
129. Answer (4)
Rods and cones are cells present on retina of the eye.
130. Answer (3)
131. Answer (2)
It represents true coelom.
132. Answer (3)
133. Answer (4)
134. Answer (1)
Binary fission occurs in Amoeba.
135. Answer (2)
Thyroid gland produces thyroxine.
136. Answer (3)
During photosynthesis, plants take in carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.
137. Answer (1)
25% of the offsprings would have genotype PpQq.
138. Answer (4)
Fertilizers are nutrient specific.
139. Answer (2)
A is cuboidal epithelium and B is columnar epithelium.
140. Answer (3)
During inhalation, intercostal muscles pull the ribs outwards.

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

SECTION-II
141. Answer (3)
3n + 3n+1 + 3n+2 + 3n–1
= 3n–1 (3 + 32 + 33 + 1) = 40(3n–1)
Now, the number of factors of 40 is 8 i.e., 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 20, 40.
Since k > 1, therefore there are 7 possible values.
142. Answer (3)
143. Answer (3)
A
144. Answer (1)
AED ~ ADB [By AA similarity rule] E
 AD2 = AE × AB
1 D
1 ⎡ ⎤
 AB 2 = AE × AB ⎢⎣∵ AD  2 AB ⎥⎦
4
 AB = 4AE

1 1
B
 AB  ED C
ar( AED ) 2 4 1
Now, = 
ar( BED ) 1 3 3
 AB  ED
2 4
145. Answer (2)
A
AB + AD > BD ...(i) B
BC + CD > BD ...(ii)
O M
AB + BC > AC ...(iii)
AD + CD > AC ...(iv)
D C
Adding (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
AB + BC + CD + DA > AC + BD
OA + OC > AC ...(v)
OB + OD > BD ...(vi)
Adding (v) and (vi), we get
OA + OB + OC + OD > AC + BD
Also, AM + MB > AB ...(vii)
DM + MC > DC ...(viii)
AM + MD > AD ...(ix)
MB + MC > BC ...(x)
Adding (vii), (viii), (ix) and (x), we get
2(AC + BD) > AB + BC + CD + DA
Now, AO + OD > AD ...(xi)
OD + OC > DC ...(xii)
OC + OB > BC ...(xiii)
OA + OB > AB ...(xiv)
Adding (xi), (xii), (xiii) and (xiv), we get
2(OA + OB + OC + OD) > AB + BC + CD + DA

(11)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

146. Answer (1)

2x = 22y = 23z  x = 2y = 3z
1 1 1 24
Now,   =
2 x 4 y 6z 7
1 1 1 24 3 24 7
   =  = x =
2x 2x 2x 7 2x 7 16
147. Answer (2)
Use AM  GM for the following numbers :
b b c c c
a, , , , ,
2 2 3 3 3
148. Answer (4) C
A + B = 90° ...(i)
 E = 90°
Also, B + C = 90° ...(ii)
 F = 90° E
AB2 + CD2 = AE2 + BE2 + DE2 + CE2 D
= AE2 + EC2 + BE2 + DE2
= AC2 + BD2
BC2 + AD2 = CF2 + BF2 + FD2 + AF2 A B
F
= AC2 + BD2
From (i) and (ii), we have
A + B = B + C
 A = C on same segment FE.
 ACEF is a cyclic quadrilateral.
149. Answer (2)
Let the cost of first article be ` x.
Let the list price of the second article be ` y.
According to the question,
20 x 15 y
 = 70 20x – 15y = 7000
100 100
4x – 3y = 1400
15 x 20 y
Also, =  3x = 4y ...(i)
100 100

⎛ 4y ⎞
 4  ⎜ ⎟  3 y = 1400 [From (i)]
⎝ 3⎠

 16y – 9y = 4200
 7y = 4200
 y = 600
 x = 800
 x + y = 1400

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

150. Answer (4)

Let the zeros of ax2 + bx + c be and .
b
Now, + =
a
c
and =
a

1 1
Now, let the zeros of the polynomial x3 + px2 + qx – r be , and .
 

1 1
    = – p       = – p
  
b
a  b
 = – p  = p ...(i)
c c
a
1 1 a rc
Also,  = r = = ...(ii)
  c a
From (i) and (ii), we get
b  pc rc
=
c a
ab – apc = rc2
151. Answer (3)
152. Answer (1)
Let r be the radii of the smaller circles.
r

 Radius of the larger circle =

2 2r  2r 
= r  2  1
2 O

= 14  2  1 cm [∵ r = 14]

14  2  1 ⎤
22 ⎡ 2
Area of the larger circle =
7 ⎣ ⎦
= 22  2  7  2(2  1  2 2) cm2
= (22 × 28 × 5.82) cm2
Area of the shaded region =Area of the square – Area of the 4 sectors
= 4r2 – r2
22
= 4  196   14  14
7
= 784 – 616 = 168 cm2
168 50
 Required probability = =
22  28  5.82 1067
153. Answer (2)
(2tan2 + tan4 + 1) – (2cot2 + cot4 + 1)
= (tan2 + 1)2 – (cot2 + 1)2
= sec4 – cosec4 = (sec2 – cosec2)(sec2 + cosec2)
= sec2(1 + cot2)(sec2 – cosec2)
= sec2·cosec2(sec2 – cosec2)

(13)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

154. Answer (2)

ADF HCF
HC = AD = BC
ABE  GCE
AB = CG = DC
H
HCG  BCD
D
1 F
Now, ar(ADC) = ar( ABCD )
2
C
1 1
ar( AFC ) = ar( ADC ) = ar( ABCD ) A
2 4 G
E
1
ar(ACE) = ar( ABCD ) B
4
1
ar(HCF) = ar( ABCD )
4
1
ar(GCE) = ar( ABCD )
4
1
Also, ar(HCG) = ar( ABCD )
2
⎛ 1 1 1 1 1⎞
Now, ar(AGH) = ⎜⎝     ⎟⎠ ar(ABCD)
4 4 4 4 2
3
= ar( ABCD )
2
ar( AGH ) 3
 =
ar( ABCD ) 2
155. Answer (2)
2
Volume of the flask = × (4.2)2 × 14 + (4.2)3
3
2⎛ 2 ⎞ 3
=   (4.2) ⎜⎝ 14   4.2⎟⎠ cm
3
2 2
Volume of one test tube =   (0.42)  10   (0.42)3
3
⎛ 2 ⎞
(0.42)2 ⎜⎝ 10   0.42⎟⎠ cm3
3
  (4.2)2  16.8 1680
Number of test tubes = = = 163.4
  (0.42)2  10.28 10.28
So, 163 test tubes can be filled completely.
156. Answer (2)
157. Answer (3)
158. Answer (4)
PA = PB or PA2 = PB2
(x – x1)2 + (y – y1)2 = (x – x2)2 + (y – y2)2
x2 + y2 – 2xx1 – 2yy1 + x12 + y12 = x2 + y2 – 2xx2 – 2yy2 + x2 + y2

(14)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

2x(x1 – x2) + 2y(y1 – y2) – (x12 – x22) – (y12 – y22) =0

(x1 – x2)[2x – (x1 + x2)] + (y1 – y2)[2y – (y1 + y2)] = 0
⎡ ⎛ x1  x2 ⎞ ⎤ ⎛ y1  y 2 ⎞ ⎡ ⎛ y1  y 2 ⎞ ⎤
 ⎢ x  ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ ⎥  ⎜ x  x ⎟ ⎢ y  ⎜⎝ ⎟⎥
2 ⎠⎦ = 0
⎣ ⎦ ⎝ 1 2⎠⎣

(x – x0) + m(y – y0) = 0

159. Answer (2)
Let the speed of first train be x m/s and the speed of second train be y m/s.
Length of first train is 27x m.
Length of second train is 20y m.
27 x  20y
Now, = 23
xy
27x + 20y = 23x + 23y
4x = 3y
x 3
 =
y 4
160. Answer (2)
n n n
∑ xi = 2∑ i  6∑ i
2

i 1 i 1 i 1

n(n  1) (n )(n  1)(2n  1)

= 2 6
2 6
= n(n + 1)(1 + 2n + 1)
n(n  1)(2n  2)
 Mean = = 2(n + 1)2
n

SECTION-III
161. Answer (3)
162. Answer (1)
163. Answer (4)
164. Answer (3)
165. Answer (4)
166. Answer (3)
167. Answer (3)
168. Answer (1)
169. Answer (3)
170. Answer (3)
171. Answer (2)
172. Answer (3)
173. Answer (2)
174. Answer (1)
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (4)

(15)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-5 (Code-A)

177. Answer (3)

178. Answer (2)
179. Answer (2)
180. Answer (2)
181. Answer (2)
182. Answer (1)
183. Answer (2)
184. Answer (2)
185. Answer (2)
186. Answer (4)
187. Answer (2)
188. Answer (4)
189. Answer (3)
190. Answer (3)
191. Answer (4)
192. Answer (4)
193. Answer (2)
194. Answer (1)
195. Answer (2)
196. Answer (1)
197. Answer (4)
198. Answer (4)
199. Answer (4)
200. Answer (4)

  

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