Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-4
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-4 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.

2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

Direction(Q1 to Q5) : Complete the following patterns:
1. 7 , 25 , 61, 121, 211,? 5. 4, 27, 25, 343, 121, 2197, ?

(1) 410 (2) 413 (1) 225 (2) 169

(3) 2307 (4) 289
(3) 337 (4) 381
6. If ABILITY is coded as CDKNKVA, then HUMAN is
2. 6, 11, 27, 51, 123,? codded as
(1) 171 (2) 146 (1) JWQCP (2) JWOCP
(3) JWNCQ (4) JWNCP
(3) 210 (4) 217
7. Mirror is to reflection as water is to
3. 17, 20, 26, 35, 47?
(1) Conduction (2) Dispersion
(1) 72 (2) 62 (3) Immersion (4) Refraction
(3) 58 (4) 68 Directions(Q8 to Q12): In the following questions find
the option which represents the odd relation from the
4. 3, 4, 5, 8, 6, 10, 15, 8, 17, ?, ?, ?
others.
(1) 26, 12, 28 (2) 20, 18, 28 8. (1) Scissors - Cloth (2) Knife - Bread
(3) 24, 10, 26 (4) 24, 12, 30 (3) Axe - Wood (4) Hammer - Nail

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

9. (1) Oil - Lamp (2) Water - Tap Directions (Q21 to Q25): Six friends A, B, C, E, F and
G, went to a hotel. They are to be accommodated in a
(3) Power - Machine (4) Oxygen - Life
row of nine rooms numbered 1 to 9 continuously. Each
10. (1) 43 (2) 53 to a room. A, E and F do not want to be in a room at
the end of the row. B and A must not have anybody
(3) 63 (4) 73
adjacent to their rooms. There is only an empty room
11. (1) Tree (2) Leaf between A and F . C is adjacent to both G and F. E is
next to the room number 1.
(3) Creeper (4) Herb
21. What is the maximum number of consecutive
12. (1) Mathematics (2) Algebra rooms that are occupied?
(3) Trigonometry (4) Geometry (1) 2 (2) 3
13. A is the brother of B, D is the daughter of A, G and (3) 4 (4) 1
B are sisters. How is G related to D?
22. Which rooms are empty?
(1) Sister (2) Mother-in-Law
(1) 1, 6, 8 (2) 1, 5, 8
(3) Aunt (4) Mother
(3) 4, 5, 6 (4) 5, 6, 8
Directions(Q14 to Q18): Complete the following patterns: 23. Who is in the third room?
14. Z, W, S, P, L, I, E, ? (1) G (2) C
(1) D (2) F (3) F (4) A
(3) K (4) B 24. Who is in the ninth room?
15. A, E, I, M, Q, U, ?, ? (1) A (2) C
(1) B, F (2) Y, C (3) G (4) B
(3) G, I (4) Y, F 25. Who is between C and E?
16. LMN, NOL, PQJ, RSH, ? (1) A (2) B

(1) UVE (2) TUF (3) G (4) F

(3) TVE (4) TRH Directions(Q26 to Q28): The questions are based on
the given diagram in which triangle stands for honest
17. a_cd_c_a_da_d_b_ persons, circle stands for educated persons, square
(1) ccbadcb (2) adcbdca stands for hardworking persons and rectangle stands for
poor persons. Different regions in the diagram are
(3) bbdcbac (4) bbbcdac numbered from 1 to 12 which shows the number of
18. ab_ac_ab_a_cabb different types of persons. Study the diagram carefully
to answer.
(1) bcbc (2) bcab
(3) acbb (4) cbcb 5

19. A walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and

12 3 7
walks 2 km. He again turns left and walks 3 km 2
and turns towards his right and starts walking 4 1 6
straight. In which direction is he walking now? 9
8
(1) East (2) West 11
10
(3) North (4) South
20. If the first day of the year of 1991 was Tuesday,
then what day of the week must have been on 26. Number of people who are neither hardworking nor
1st January 1998 ? educated but honest are
(1) Thursday (2) Wednesday (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) Friday (4) Saturday (3) 6 (4) 7

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

27. Number of people who are honest as well as Directions(Q34 to Q37): Given below are the two sets
hardworking and educated but not poor are of figure, the problem figures and the answer figures
marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). Which figure would be the
(1) 1 (2) 2
next in the series of the problem figures?
(3) 3 (4) 4 34. Problem figures

D D


28. Number of people who are poor, hardworking and 
educated are D D
(1) 7 (2) 8 D


(3) 9 (4) 10 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
29. In a certain code language, if the word Answer figures
"SEGMENT" is coded as RFFNDOS, then  D
"RITUAL" is coded as D
(1) QJSVZM D D 


(2) QHUBTK (1) (2) (3) (4)

(3) QJRWZM 35. Problem figures



(4) QJUTBK
30. If "MAMMALS" = 49 and "WINDOW" = 36 then
 


WILL is equal to
(1) 43 (2) 34 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Answer figures
(3) 16 (4) 69


31. The water image of GR9AP76ES is
(1) 


(2) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(3) 36. Problem figures
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32. Find the missing number in the following figure.

3C 27D 9E (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Answer figures
7I 21K 3M
4D ? 7J

(1) 35E (2) 35I (1) (2) (3) (4)

(3) 28G (4) 28F 37. Problem figures

33. Find the number of triangles in the following figure. Z
 
Z

 Z

Z

Z
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Answer figures
 Z
Z

(1) 24 (2) 26 Z   Z
(3) 28 (4) 32 (1) (2) (3) (4)

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

38. A dice is rolled twice and the two positions are 44. If '–' stands for '×', '×' stands for '+', '+' stands for
shown in the figure below. What is the number of '' and '' stands for '–', then what is the value of
dots at the bottom face if the top face is having 3 9  18 × 15 + 3 – 6 × 12 ?
dots?
(1) 42 (2) 56
(3) 33 (4) 24
45. At which time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the
minute hand and the hour hand make an angle of
(1) 6 (2) 5 90º with each other?
(3) 1 (4) 2
3 2
39. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left (1) 36 min past 4 (2) min past 4
11 11
and goes in a semi-circular round a hillock and
then turns left at right angles. In which direction is
the river finally flowing? 2 3
(3) 38 min past 4 (4) 33 min past 4
11 11
(1) East
(2) West Directions(Q46 to Q50): The questions that contain a
set of figures showing a sequence of folding of piece of
(3) North-West paper. The dotted lines in last figure shows the manner
(4) South in which the folded paper was cut. The figure are
followed by four answer figures marked (1), (2), (3) and
40. Find the odd figure from the given figures.
(4) from which you have to choose a figure which would
closely resembles the pattern in which the cutting
appear when the paper is unfolded.
46. Problem figures
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d
41. Find the total number of squares of any size in a
8 × 8 chessboard.
(1) 64 (2) 204 Answer figures

(3) 196 (4) 169

42. Two trains are 400 km apart. If they move towards
each other, then they take 2.5 hours to meet and
if they move in same direction, then they take (1) (2) (3) (4)
8 hours to meet each other. The speeds of the 47. Problem figures
trains are
(1) 55 km/h and 105 km/h
(2) 60 km/h and 100 km/h
(3) 120 km/h and 60 km/h
(4) 70 km/h and 110 km/h

⎛ 11 ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ Answer figures
43. ⎜ 30% of 60 ⎟  ⎜ 39% of 2 ⎟ is equal to
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
4 1
(1) (2)
39 4
1 1 (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) (4)
8 13

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test / Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

48. Problem figures 50. Problem figures

Answer figures
Answer figures

(1) (2) (3) (4)

49. Problem figures

(1) (2)

Answer figures

(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (4)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)
Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages 52. The passage intends to
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing (1) Depict the rise and fall of Naturalism
the most suitable option.
(2) Quantify the characteristics of Naturalistic and
A. Naturalism tries to offer a photographic reproduction Realistic art forms
of reality in order to emphasize the material
(3) Portray the ambiguity behind the term
aspects of human existence. The term itself is
Naturalism
ambiguous referring both to a style of art in general
and to a specific literary and theatrical movement (4) Draw the lines between Naturalism and
that reached its high point between 1880 and Realism
1890. Terms Naturalism and Realism both apply to 53. The relationship between Naturalism and Realism
that movement and are often used as synonyms. is that
Even though the two terms go hand in hand they (1) The former leads to the belief in the latter
are not fully interchangeable. The term Naturalism
(2) The former represents a theory and its outlook
refers to the theoretical basis shared by all the
and the latter depicts the effect and technique
dramatists who formed the movement, and their
approach to representing the world. The term (3) The former is the cause of latter's existence
Realism applies to the intended effect and the (4) The former depicts a literary movement and the
stage technique associated with it. latter positions its manifestation on the stage
51. The peak of Naturalistic theatre and literary 54. 'Photographic reproduction' of reality refers to
movement was seen in (1) Immaterial existence of the human world
(1) Mid nineteenth century (2) Duplicate manifestation of literary theory
(2) Early nineteenth century (3) Precise and lifelike replication of the
(3) Early twentieth century surrounding world
(4) Late nineteenth century (4) Cinematic portrayal of life

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

55. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to 57. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the
the word ‘ambiguous’? word 'fashioned'?

(1) Coherent (2) Swift (1) Imagined

(2) Construction
(3) Cautious (4) Livid
(3) Published
B. Simply an idol is image or statue of a deity
fashioned to be an object of worship, which can be (4) Cast
actually or symbolically. In this sense Hinduism 58. According to the author, the 'murti' is more than a
presents several concepts for the word idol. Pratima _________.
is a Sanskrit word that means "image or likeness (1) Conform
of the deity". Murti is a Sanskrit word that means
(2) Resemblance
"form" or "manifestation". It's the most common
name for a sculptural image of a Hindu deity (3) Likeability
fashioned by human beings, rather than those that (4) Relationship
are self-manifested (svayambhu images) forms of
59. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to
the deity. Thus, the murti is more than a likeness;
the word 'pronounced'?
it is the deity itself taken "form". The uses of the
word murti in the Upanishads and the Bhagavad- (1) Futile (2) Fair
gita suggest that the form is its essence. Vigraha (3) Faint (4) Fumble
is a Sanskrit word that means "form". It refers to
60. Which of the following is FALSE w.r.t. the
a sacred image or depiction of a deity. Svayambhu Svayambhu images?
images are the self-manifested images of the
(1) These images are of deities that revealed
deities, it denotes any image of a Hindu divinity
themselves as divine figures
believed to exist by virtue of divine self-revelation,
rather than by being made or established by human (2) These images are the only representatives of
hands. These images are believed to be intensely static symbolism
holy and powerful, and to have a more pronounced (3) These images are believed to be more
sense of the deity's presence. They mark sympathetic to requests of devotees
instances where these deities have revealed (4) These images are believed to be more powerful
themselves out of grace, in order to become and intensely holy
accessible to their devotees (bhakta), and they are
Directions (Q61 to Q65) : Fill in the blanks with the
places where the deities are believed to be
most appropriate option.
particularly present and "awake," and thus more
receptive to requests for favors. Svayambhu images 61. If the bee disappeared _________ the face of the
can be found for each of the three major Hindu Earth, man would only have four years _________
deities. Images of the Goddess are often natural to live.
rock formations, such as the image of the goddess (1) off, left
Kamakhya, which is a natural cleft in the rock. (2) of, left
From these terms we can conclude that idols are
(3) from, remaining
a part of static symbolism in Hinduism.
(4) with, remaining
56. The above given passage becomes an answer to
which of the following questions? 62. Gardening is a _________ pastime and a right step
towards _________ the environment.
(1) What is idol-worship?
(1) good, maintaining
(2) How to justify an idol?
(2) creative, protecting
(3) What is Hindu worship? (3) worthy, conserving
(4) What is an idol? (4) wonderful, harnessing

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

63. Although Aurangzeb's predecessors were 70. (1) discrimination (2) fair
_________ towards all religions, he _________
(3) favoured (4) discriminating
strict Islamic law called the Fatwa-e-Alamgiri.
(1) silent, forced Directions (Q71 to Q75) : In the following sentences
few parts have been highlighted and each part is labeled
(2) quiet, floundered as (1), (2), and (3), respectively. Identify which part is
(3) tolerant, prescribed unacceptable in Standard English Usage. If there is no
mistake in any part, mark (4).
(4) tolerant, enforced
71. Over a hundred countries are today practicing
64. One should not _________ someone due to his/her
physical disability. (1) (2)
(1) pick at democracy by holding elections and
guaranteeing rights to citizens. No Error
(2) pick on
(3) pick upon (3) (4)

(4) pick over 72. Money is anything that is commonly

65. Democracy is the only system of _________ that (1)

can preserve the Indian entity. accepted as a medium of
(1) leadership
(2)
(2) policy
exchange and discharge of debts. No Error
(3) governance
(3) (4)
(4) power
73. Neither the tenants nor the
Directions (Q66 to Q70) : Fill in the blanks with the
(1)
most appropriate option to complete the passage.
landlord have objected to
A person with a refined aesthetic sense 66
(2)
discriminate subtle differences 67 a less the illegal construction work. No Error
observant person would see nothing. Such a (3) (4)
person is discriminating. This kind of discrimination
74. It would not be in public interest
is 68 . To discriminate unfairly, though, is (1)
to 69 differences that shouldn't make a revealing the deployment of the army units as
difference. It is unfair - and illegal - to discriminate it is
between black people and white people. Such a (2)
practice is not 70 but discriminatory a sensitive matter and might create unrest
(3)
66. (1) is able to (2) was able to
among people. No Error
(3) is unable to (4) was unable to
(4)
67. (1) if (2) when
75. Her appearance, as well as her
(3) where (4) and
(1)
68. (1) had been good (2) is a good thing
strange way of talking, make me suspicious of
(3) reflects good (4) was good (2) (3)
69. (1) dwell in (2) dwell up her. No Error
(3) dwell at (4) dwell on (4)

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

Directions (Q76 to Q78) : Identify the synonym of the 82. S1 : It is accurate to refer to poets as dreamers
given capitalized word.
S2 : _________________________
76. ANIMOSITY S3 : _________________________
(1) Hateful (2) Careless S4 : _________________________
(3) Hostility (4) Stoicism S5 : Where they differ from the logician and the
77. ALLEVIATE scientist is in the temporal sense: they are
ahead of their time
(1) Lessen (2) Censure
P : Beyond the realm of literary diversion
(3) Emphasize (4) Deny
Q : But it is not discerning to infer that the
78. SIMULATE dreams of poets have no practical value
(1) Approve (2) Ponder R : The truth is that poets are just as practical
as people who build bridges or look into
(3) Activate (4) Pretend
microscopes
Directions (Q79 & Q80) : Identify the most appropriate
Choose the correct option.
one word substitution for the given definition.
(1) RQP (2) QRP
79. A foretelling of probable developments
(3) QPR (4) RPQ
(1) Diagnosis (2) Prognosis
83. S1 : Beauty is, as Plato said, the splendour of
(3) Agnostic (4) Theology Truth
80. Belief that God is in nature S2 : _________________________
(1) Prognosticate (2) Iconoclasm S3 : _________________________
(3) Pantheism (4) Agnosticism S4 : _________________________
Directions (Q81 to Q83) : Five parts of a paragraph are S5 : It is not his function to exhort mean to good
given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the works, but merely to exhibit them
ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
P : The artist, as an artist, must be content with
jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
the splendour
parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
paragraph. Q : He has no business with truth as such as
the philosopher, for instance, has
81. S1 : There is some truth in the common saying
that while dogs become attached to persons, R : And through this splendour strive to convey
the truth
S2 : ______________________
Choose the correct option.
S3 : ______________________
(1) PQR (2) QRP
S4 : ______________________
(3) RPQ (4) PRQ
S5 : A cat does not seem to be capable of the
Directions (Q84 & Q85) : The last sentence of each
personal devotion often shown by a dog
paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
P : A dog will follow his master anywhere, option to complete the paragraph.
Q : But a cat keeps to the house it is used to 84. A : Over-eating is one of the most wonderful
living in practices among those who think that they
can afford it.
R : Cats are generally attached to places
B : In fact, authorities say that nearly all who
Choose the correct option.
can get as much as they desire, over-eat to
(1) PQR (2) RPQ their disadvantage.
(3) QRP (4) PRQ C : ____________________________________.

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

(1) This class could easily improve their health by 90. On the drawing board
missing one meal per week
(1) A primary understanding
(2) A heavy meal at night is the fashion with many
(2) A refined plan
and is often taken before sleeping
(3) In the planning stage
(3) Over-eating conserves energy and reduces the
exertion of body (4) A contested situation

(4) Over-eating often leads to excess fat Directions (Q91 to Q94) : Identify the antonym of the
given capitalized word.
85. A : Water conservation is a much larger issue
now than it ever was in the past. 91. CONFRONT

B : What we do now makes a difference. (1) Reject (2) Spare

C : ____________________________________. (3) Attribute (4) Connect

(1) Not taking right steps now will make it too late 92. ASSUMED

(2) Much could be done to fix this problem (1) Genuine (2) Polite

(3) We must do all we can to make sure our (3) Pretentious (4) Covert
future is safe 93. SHODDY
(4) We use much more water today than we ever (1) Perfection (2) Immaterial
did in the past
(3) Planning (4) Careful
Directions (Q86 to Q90) : Identify the meaning of the
given idiom/phrase. 94. MENACING
(1) Shrewd (2) Auspicious
86. Walk on air
(3) Fruitful (4) Profound
(1) Daydream
Directions (Q95 to Q97) : Identify the relationship
(2) Feel cheated
between the first two words and choose the option that
(3) Illusion exhibits a similar relationship with the third word.
(4) Feel elated 95. Fearsome : Friendly : : Cordial : ?
87. Kick up a row (1) Beneficial (2) Intense
(1) To misguide (3) Eager (4) Mild
(2) To follow 96. Tackle : Question : : Envisage : ?
(3) To create disturbance (1) Grapple (2) Presume
(4) To threaten (3) Anticipate (4) Hopeful
88. Take the edge off 97. Omen : Ill : : Poem : ?
(1) Reduce the impact of (1) Poet (2) Ode
(2) Make things effective (3) Lyrics (4) Verbatim
(3) Initiate an action Directions (Q98 to Q100) : Identify the misspelled word.
(4) Give a handful 98. (1) Significance (2) Remmittance
89. In dire straits (3) Impervious (4) Sheaf
(1) In a relaxed state 99. (1) Catapult (2) Cauldron
(2) In extreme difficulty (3) Canistter (4) Resilience
(3) In a conflicting situation 100. (1) Ammicable (2) Allegiance
(4) Distanced from all (3) Foretell (4) Remembrance

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. A body is released from a top of a tower of ‘h’ 106. What does not change when sound enters from
height. It takes ‘t’ time to reach the ground. Where one medium to other?
t (1) Speed (2) Frequency
is the body second after release?
2
(3) Wavelength (4) Both (2) and (3)
h
(1) At m from the ground 107. A boy stands straight in front of a mirror at a
4
distance of 30 cm from it. He sees his erect image
h
(2) At m from the ground 1
th
6 whose height is of his real height. The mirror
5
h
(3) At m from the ground he is using is
2
(1) Convex (2) Concave
3h
(4) At m from the ground (3) Plane (4) Plano-convex
4
102. A bus starts from rest and moves with constant 108. An iron block at 80°C dipped in water at 20°C. The
acceleration 8 m/s 2. At the same time, a car mass of water is 4 kg. The temperature of the
travelling with a constant velocity 16 m/s overtakes water when the equilibrium is established between
and passes the bus. At what distance the bus iron block and liquid is
overtakes the car? (Take : heat capacity of iron block = 840 J/K,
(1) 16 m (2) 64 m specific heat of water = 4200 J/kgK)
(3) 24 m (4) 128 m (1) 22.86°C (2) 26.42°C
103. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by a light (3) 31.56°C (4) 42.23°C
string passing over a fixed smooth pulley. When 109. What will be effect on image, if lower half of the
set free m1 moves downward by 2 m in 2 s. The lens is wrapped in black paper?
ratio of m1/m2 is
(1) There will no effect
11 14
(1) (2) (2) The image will disappear
9 13
11 (3) The brightness of the image will be reduced
13
(3) (4)
11 8 (4) The size of the image will be reduced to half
104. A stone is projected vertically upwards from the 110. n-small drops of same size are charged to ‘v’ volt
ground reaches a maximum height ‘h’. When it is each. If they collapse to form a single large drop,
3h then its potential will be
at a height from the ground, the ratio of its 2
4
kinetic and potential energies is (1) nv (2) n 3 v
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 3 1
v
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 1 (3) n 3 v (4)
n
105. If a body moves with constant speed in a circle, 111. A unit positive charge has to be brought from
then infinity to a mid-point between two charges 20C
(1) No force act on it and 10C separated by a distance of 50 m. How
(2) No work is done on it much work will be required?

(3) No acceleration produced on it (1) 10.8 × 103 J (2) 0.54 × 105 J

(4) Its velocity remains constant (3) Zero (4) 9.0 × 107 J

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

112. If the ammeter ‘A’ shows a zero reading and 118. Read the following statements carefully :
voltmeter reads 2 V in the circuit shown below, the Statement-1 : The total number of isomers of the
value of resistance R is alkane having molecular mass 72 'u' is 4
V Statement-2 : The functional group present in
10 V 2V
ethanal is aldehyde
R A
500  Now, choose the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(1) 500  (2) 100 
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) 150  (4) 125 
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
113. If a charged particle enters perpendicularly in the
(4) Only statement-2 is correct
uniform magnetic field, then
119. Which of the following mixtures will take maximum
(1) Energy and momentum both remain constant
time to diffuse?
(2) Energy remains constant but momentum
(1) Ink in water (2) Vinegar in water
changes
(3) Lemon juice in water (4) Honey in vinegar
(3) Both energy and momentum change
120. A student was making a 100 g of 20% (w/w) sugar
(4) Energy changes but momentum remains
solution. He added 15 g of sugar in the solution but
constant
later on he realised that he should have added
114. In a chemical reaction, the number of atoms are more amount of sugar. What amount of sugar
equated on both the sides of a reaction in order to should be further added to make the concentration
satisfy the law of 20%(w/w)?
(1) Definite proportion (1) 5 g (2) 7 g
(2) Multiple proportion (3) 6.25 g (4) 4.15 g
(3) Conservation of mass 121. The total number of atoms and molecules
(4) Reciprocal proportion respectively present in 5.6 L CO2 at STP are

115. Find the incorrect match : (1) 4.5 × 1023 and 2.5 × 1023

(1) Oxyacids  Sulphuric acid (2) 4.5 × 1023 and 1.5 × 1023
(2) Hydraacids  Hydroiodic acid (3) 2.5 × 1023 and 7.5 × 1023
(3) Dibasic acid  Phosphoric acid (4) 1.5 × 1023 and 4.5 × 1023
(4) Monobasic acid  Acetic acid 122. On analysis, it was found that the amount of S
and O present in the compounds are as given
116. Consider the given reactions :
below :
P4 + aCl2  cPCl5
Phosphorus
Pentachloride Compound of
% of S % of O
S and O
P4  bCl2  dPCl3
Phosphorus I 51 49
trichloride
II 41 59
The ratio of a : b is
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5
If the above data is in accordance to the law of
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 1 multiple proportion then the ratio of oxygen in the
117. The phenomenon of 'allotropy' is shown by two compounds is
(1) Compounds (2) Elements (1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(3) Mixtures (4) Alloys (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

123. The atomic number and mass number of an 129. All of the following are the methods of ex situ
element 'E' are 26 and 56 respectively. The number conservation, except
of electrons, protons and neutrons in dipositive ion
(1) Zoological park (2) Botanical garden
E2+ respectively are
(3) Gene bank (4) National park
(1) 56, 26, 30 (2) 26, 56, 30
130. Identify the palindromic nucleotide sequence
(3) 56, 56, 30 (4) 24, 26, 30
cleaved by EcoRI from the following.
1 (1) –AACTT– (2) –GAATTC–
124. The total number of electrons with s   and
2
–TTGAA– –CTTAAG–
n = 4 are
(3) –GGATTC– (4) –CCCGGG–
(1) 32 (2) 16
–CCTAAG– –GGGCCC–
(3) 8 (4) 12
131. Which of the following valves is present between
125. The mole fraction of CHCl3 in a solution formed by
the right atrium and right ventricle?
mixing 25.5 g of CHCl3 and 40 g of CH2Cl2 at 298
K is (1) Tricuspid valve (2) Mitral valve
(1) 0.68 (2) 0.31 (3) Sinoatrial valve (4) Ileocaecal valve
(3) 0.24 (4) 0.73 132. Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form carbonic
acid that lowers the pH in active tissue and
126. The number of  bonds present in but-2-ene is
induces oxyhaemoglobin to give up more of its
(1) 11 (2) 12 oxygen. This phenomenon is called
(3) 10 (4) 16 (1) Haldane effect (2) Bohr effect
(3) Chloride shift (4) Founder effect
127.
133. Which type of joint is present between the atlas
and axis vertebrae?
A B C D (1) Pivot joint (2) Gliding joint

Which of the above cells is involved in (3) Hinge joint (4) Saddle joint
(a) Phagocytosis? 134. Which of the following groups of organisms
(b) Clotting of blood? possess pneumatic bones and special organ,
syrinx?
(a) (b)
(1) B D (1) Necturus, Ichthyophis, Amphioxus, Kiwi
(2) A B (2) Ostrich, Penguin, Pteropus, Draco
(3) C D (3) Columba, Kiwi, Camelus, Pteropus
(4) A C
(4) Columba, Passer, Kiwi and Penguin
128. A person went to the doctor with following
symptoms. 135. Mumps is characterised by painful swelling of

• Persistent cough (1) Sub-lingual glands

• Sputum containing blood (2) Parotid glands
• Chest pain and breathlessness (3) Adrenal glands
Which of the following is the causative agent of the (4) Sub-maxillary glands
disease, the person is suffering from?
136. Which part of the plant should Roshni place in the
(1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis soil in order to propagate ginger and sweet potato,
(2) Salmonella typhi respectively?
(3) Vibrio cholerae (1) Tuber and stolon (2) Bulb and root
(4) Rubeola virus (3) Stolon and leaf bud (4) Rhizome and root

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

137. A connective tissue connects a muscle and a Graph I

bone. It is tough and inelastic. Fibroblasts are
present in rows. The tissue is B C D
A E GH
(1) Ligament (2) Adipose tissue DO
140. (ppm) F
(3) Tendon (4) Hyaline cartilage
138. ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are the three cells present in a gland Time
which consists of both endocrine and exocrine Graph II
tissue. The cells X and Y secrete antagonistic
X
hormones and Z produces hormone that controls
W Y
the secretion of hormones from X and Y. Identify RS Z
the cells ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Q T
BOD P U
X Y Z (Mg/L) V
(1) Delta cells Beta cells Alpha cells
(2) Gamma cells Delta cells Beta cells Time
(3) Alpha cells Beta cells Delta cells The two graphs (Graph I and Graph II) represent
(4) Beta cells Alpha cells Gamma cells the BOD and DO levels of a river flowing next to
a paper industry. At which points of the graph I
UV radiations and II, waste products were added (discharged)
139. O2 Q+Q
into the river, respectively?
O2 + Q R
Graph I Graph II
The compound ‘R’ is present in which layer of the
(1) F R and V
atmosphere?
(2) D P and V
(1) Troposphere (2) Mesosphere (3) D S and X
(3) Exosphere (4) Stratosphere (4) G X and P

SECTION-II
141. The product of all the factors of 5184 is 143. If 24x + 17y = 18 and 17x + 24y = 14, then
(1) (1225)2 x2 – y2 is equal to

(2) (5184)35 145 169

(1) (2)
239 271
(3) (72)35
128 172
(4) (52)35 (3) (4)
287 327
142. If the given graph is of the polynomial ax2 + bx 144. In the given PQR, if bisectors of P and R
+ c, then which of the following options is correct? QS
Y meet each other at point S, then will be
ST
always equal to
P

X X T
O
S
Q R
PQ  PR PQ  QR
Y (1) (2)
QR PR
(1) a < 0, c < 0, b < 0 (2) a > 0, c > 0, b < 0
PQ PR  RQ
(3) a > 0, c > 0, b > 0 (4) a > 0, c < 0, b > 0 (3) (4)
QR PQ
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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

145. Which of the following is smallest? 152. In the given figure, the ratio of areas of circumcircle
of AOB to AOC is
(1) 12  6
Y
(2) 18  14 A(0, 8)
(3) 14  6
(4) 21  14
146. The ratio of maximum to minimum value of P,
⎛ ⎞ X X
where P = 5cos + 3cos ⎜   ⎟  8 , is B(–4, 0) O C(6, 0)
⎝ 3⎠
(1) 15 : 1 Y
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 2 : 3
(2) 5 : 4
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 3 : 4
(3) 16 : 1
153. In the given figure, if the perimeter of the given
(4) 8 : 34 regular hexagon ABCDEF is 84 cm, then the sum
of the perimeters of circumcircles of all the
147. The product of all the integral values of x for which
triangles formed with the circumcentre of the
x2 + 19x + 92 is a perfect square is
hexagon is
(1) 276 (2) 19
E
(3) 88 (4) 44

1 1 1 1 1 F D
148. The value of 3      is
4 28 70 130 208
11 5 O
(1) 2 (2) 3
16 16
1 3 A C
(3) 2 (4)  5
16 16
149. If the sides of a triangular field are 7 cm, 9 cm and B
14 cm, then the length of its shortest altitude is (1) 176 3 cm (2) 1232 cm
(1) 14 5 cm (3) 88 3 cm (4) 504 cm
154. In the given figure, if BD is a diameter of the circle,
14 5
(2) cm where D is the mid-point of AC and the perimeter
3 of the isosceles triangle ABC is 18 cm such that
12 5 the unequal side BC is of length 8 cm, then the
(3) cm length of AE is equal to
7
(4) 12 5 cm A

150. Perimeter of a right angled triangle whose one leg

is 13 cm will be E

(1) 30 cm D
(2) 182 cm
(3) 110 cm
(4) 169 cm C
151. In ABC, if AB > AC and AD is the bisector of B
A, then which of the following is always true?
(1) AD = DC (2) AB = AD
(1) 1.5 cm (2) 0.75 cm
(3) AB > AD (4) AB < AD (3) 1 cm (4) 1.25 cm

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

155. If a four-digit number is formed by using the digits 158. If a hollow hemispherical bowl of thickness 1 cm
3, 2, 7 and 6 without repetition, then the probability has an inner radius 5 cm, then the volume of the
that it will be an even number is metal required to make the bowl is
5588 572
1 3 (1) cm3 (2) cm3
21 3
(1) (2)
2 5 4006 3899
(3) cm3 (4) cm3
11 11
2 3 159. If p, q and r are real and 4p2 + 16r2 + 9q2 – 6pq
(3) (4)
5 10 – 8pr – 12qr = 0, then p : q : r is
(1) 4 : 2 : 3 (2) 6 : 4 : 3
16log3 (3) 2 : 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 6 : 3
156. If = 1, then x will be equal to
9log x
160. In the given figure, if AC and AB are tangents to
the circle having centre O, then the value of x is
(1) 4 (2) 2
F
(3) 3 (4) 16 C
157. A shopkeeper offers successive discount of 50%,
30°
30% and 20% on shirts whose marked price is D O
70° A
` 1800. If Amul purchase three such shirts, then
x
how much amount Amul has to pay?
B
E
(1) ` 3888 (2) ` 1512
(1) 65° (2) 55°
(3) ` 1615 (4) ` 864 (3) 70° (4) 45°

SECTION-III
161. Monsoon hits the Indian sub-continent 164. Which among the given drainage pattern
approximately on represents trellis drainage pattern?
(1) 1st June
(2) 10th June
(1)
(3) 15th June
(4) 1st July
162. Highest population among the given states is of (2)
(1) West Bengal
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Bihar (3)

(4) Uttar Pradesh

163. Which state of India does not lie on tropic of
Cancer?
(1) Bihar (4)
(2) Tripura
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Mizoram

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

165. Consider the following statements about retreating 173. Assertion (A): India has one of the largest road
monsoon. Identify the correct ones. networks in the world.
I. The withdrawl of the monsoons begins in the Reason (R): Golden Quadrilaterals Super
northwestern states of India by early Highways major objective is to reduce time and
September. distance between mega cities.

II. By mid-October, it withdraws completely from (1) A is true but R is false

the northern half of the peninsula. (2) A is false but R is true
III. By early December, the monsoon withdraws (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
from the rest of the country. explanation of A
(1) I Only (2) II and III only (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(3) I and III only (4) All
174. Assertion (A): India always had retained the top
166. Which of the crop is associated with winter position in tea production in world.
rainfall?
Reason (R): Major tea producing states are
(1) Zaid (2) Rabi Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts
(3) Kharif (4) All of these of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala

167. Red Data Book Provides data on (1) A is true but R is false

(1) Red flowered plants (2) A is false but R is true

(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(2) Red corals
explanation of A
(3) Cutting down of forests
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) Endangered plants and animals explanation of A
168. Which among the following is not a Bio-reserve? 175. Assertion (A): The Deccan plateau is a rectangular
landmass that lies to the north of the river Narmada.
(1) Sunderbans (2) Simlipal
Reason (R): The broad base of the Deccan
(3) Jim Corbett (4) Kanchenjunga plateau is flanked by the Satpura range in the
169. The factor (s) responsible for the fearful depletion North.
of flora and fauna is/are (1) A is true but R is false
(1) Minning (2) A is false but R is true
(2) Building of dams (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(3) Grazing and fuel wood collection
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(4) All of these
explanation of A
170. Which among the following does not occur as a 176. Which among the following is not a feature of
part of sedimentary rocks? federalism?
(1) Gypsum (2) Zinc (1) Two or more levels of government
(3) Potash (4) Sodium salts (2) Source of revenue for each level of government
171. The largest wind farm cluster is located in are clearly specified to ensure financial
autonomy
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) The fundamental provisions of government can
(3) Gujarat (4) Kerala be unilaterally changed by one level of
172. The powerplant which is non-nuclear is government
(4) Courts have the power to interpret the
(1) Tarapur (2) Rawat Bhata
constitution and the powers of different levels
(3) Trombay (4) Naraura of government

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

177. The rationale behind decentralisation is 183. The past two decades of globalisation has seen
(1) Local problems can be best settled at local rapid movements of ______ between countries.
level I. Goods II. Services
(2) Direct participation in decision making of local III. People
people
(1) I and II only (2) I, II and III
(3) Inculcates a feeling of democratic participation
among people (3) Only III (4) Only II

(4) All of these 184. Which among the following is not the basic
requirement for production of goods and services?
178. How many Lok Sabha seats have been reserved
for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes? (1) Land (2) Labour
(1) 79 (2) 41 (3) Capital (4) Transport
(3) 120 (4) 81 185. Assertion (A): Healthy population is considered to
179. Freedom of speech and expression does not give be an asset rather than liability to the nation.
the right to a person for Reason (R): Population becomes human capital
(1) Criticism of a government policy in your when there is investment made in the form of
conversation with friends, family members or education, training and medical care.
parents (1) A is true but R is false
(2) Criticism of a government policy through (2) A is false but R is true
magazine, pamphlet or newspaper
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(3) Criticism of a person to defame a person
explanation of A
causing damage to a persons reputation
regarding a government policy (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(4) Criticism of a government policy through
paintings, poetry, songs or cartoons 186. Massais are the cattle herders of
180. Assertion (A): The post of president of India is to (1) Tanzania (2) India
a large extent ceremonial in nature. (3) Indonesia (4) Mongolia
Reason (R): President is not directly elected by
187. Who was the Indian revolutionary who founded
the people rather indirectly through MPs and
Mexican Communist Party and a prominent
MLAs.
comintern leader in India?
(1) A is true but R is false
(1) S.C. Bose
(2) A is false but R is true
(2) M.N. Roy
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A (3) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) J.L. Nehru
explanation of A 188. Which among the following was not witnessed
181. Who publishes the Human Development Report? during the Great Economic Depression?
(1) National Sample Survey Organisation (1) Crash of wall street exchange and short term
(2) Ministry of Human Resource Development loan extension to Germany by USA was
stopped
(3) United Nations Development Programme
(4) International Human Development Department (2) German industrial production nose divided to
40% of 1929 level
182. Which sector of the economy is largely associated
with services? (3) Nazi party got a stronghold of the German
political atmosphere and emerged as the
(1) Primary sector
largest party
(2) Secondary sector
(4) Though the national income of USA fell by half
(3) Information technology sector
but the banking system in Germany saw an
(4) Tertiary sector unprecedented growth

(17)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

189. Who were Kalangs? (1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(I) Community of skilled forest cutters of Java. (2) Subhash Chandra Bose
(II) Community of shifting cultivators of Java. (3) B.G. Tilak
(III) Community of Java recruited by the Dutch to (4) C.R. Das
fight the Java monarchy. 197. Which congress session law the adoption of Non-
(1) Only I (2) Both I and II cooperation programme?
(1) Nagpur session, 1920
(3) Both II and III (4) All of these
(2) Ahmedabad session, 1921
190. What was the time period of American war of
Independence? (3) Amritsar session, 1919
(4) Bombay session, 1918
(1) 1775 to 1783 (2) 1700 – 1743
198. Assertion (A): The value of British exports to India
(3) 1798 to 1813 (4) 1801 – 1814
was much higher than the value of British imports
191. What was/were the virtue/s of civil code of 1804 from India.
usually known as the Napoleonic code? Reason (R): Britain had a trade surplus in India
(1) Privileges based on birth were removed which helped to pay the so-called ‘home charges’
(2) Establishment of equality before law which included private remittances.
(3) Abolition of feudal system and freeing (1) A is true R is false
peasants from serfdom (2) A is false R is true
(4) All of these (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
192. Who wrote the book, “The History of the loss of
Vietnam”? (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) Phan Boi Chau (2) Phan Chu Trinh
199. Assertion (A): Participation of the industrial
(3) Huynh Phu So (4) HO Chi Minh workers in large number in the Civil Disobedience
193. The most important factor which led to the Movement was the most striking feature of this
decimation of American communities and its movement.
colonialisation was Reason (R): Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off
(1) Spanish fire power the Civil Disobedience Movement and enter into a
pact with Lord Irwin on 5th March, 1931 consenting
(2) Eurpopean navigation system
to attend the round table conference in London.
(3) Spanish and Portuguese battle skills
(1) A is true R is false
(4) Germs and diseases like small pox carried by (2) A is false R is true
the Europeans
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
194. When did Bombay became the capital of the explanation of A
Bombay presidency? (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) 1785 (2) 1872 explanation of A
(3) 1819 (4) 1661 200. Assertion (A): Tsar allowed the creation of an
195. Who wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the elected consultative Parliament or Duma during
motherland? the 1905 revolution.
Reason (R): Creation of Duma was to check the
(1) Rabindranath Tagore
rights of Tsar and illegal use of power.
(2) Ravi Varma
(1) A is true R is false
(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(2) A is false R is true
(4) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
196. Who was instrumental in the formation of the explanation of A
swaraj party with in the congress to argue for a (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
return to council politics? explanation of A

  
(18)
 
  


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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-4
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-4 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (2) 81. (2) 121. (2) 161. (1)
2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (2) 162. (4)
3. (2) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (4) 163. (1)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (1) 124. (2) 164. (2)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (2) 165. (4)
6. (2) 46. (4) 86. (4) 126. (1) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (4) 87. (3) 127. (3) 167. (4)
8. (4) 48. (3) 88. (1) 128. (1) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (2) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (3) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (4) 91. (2) 131. (1) 171. (1)
12. (1) 52. (4) 92. (1) 132. (2) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (1) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (4) 174. (2)
15. (2) 55. (1) 95. (4) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (4) 96. (3) 136. (4) 176. (3)
17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (2) 137. (3) 177. (4)
18. (1) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (2) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (3) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (1) 62. (2) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (4)
23. (1) 63. (4) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (2)
24. (4) 64. (1) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (4)
25. (3) 65. (3) 105. (2) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (2) 66. (1) 106. (2) 146. (1) 186. (1)
27. (2) 67. (3) 107. (1) 147. (3) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (1) 188. (4)
29. (1) 69. (4) 109. (3) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (4) 110. (2) 150. (2) 190. (1)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (1) 151. (3) 191. (4)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (1)
33. (3) 73. (2) 113. (2) 153. (1) 193. (4)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (4) 194. (3)
35. (4) 75. (3) 115. (3) 155. (1) 195. (4)
36. (3) 76. (3) 116. (1) 156. (1) 196. (4)
37. (2) 77. (1) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (1)
38. (2) 78. (4) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (3)
39. (1) 79. (2) 119. (4) 159. (2) 199. (2)
40. (3) 80. (3) 120. (1) 160. (1) 200. (1)

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 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-4

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. Answer (3)
23 – 1, 33 – 2, 43 – 3, 53 – 4, 63 – 5, 73 – 6 = 337
2. Answer (1)
22 + 2, 32 + 2, 52 + 2, 72 + 2, 112 + 2, 132 + 2 = 171
3. Answer (2)
4. Answer (3)
Pythagorian triplets
5. Answer (4)
Square of prime and cube of next prime.
6. Answer (2)
7. Answer (4)
8. Answer (4)
9. Answer (2)
10. Answer (3)
All are prime other than option (3).
11. Answer (2)
12. Answer (1)
13. Answer (3)

Brother Sister
A B G
Daughter
D

14. Answer (4)

15. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
17. Answer (3)

a b cd | b c d a | c da b | d a b c

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

18. Answer (1)

ab b |ac c |ab b |ac c |abb

19. Answer (2)
20. Answer (1)
Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997
Odd days 1 2 1 1 1 2 1
Total number of odd days = 9
Remaining odd days = 2
So, second day after Tuesday is Thursday.
21. Answer (3)

X E G C F X A X B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
22. Answer (1)
23. Answer (1)
24. Answer (4)
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (2)
27. Answer (2)
28. Answer (4)
29. Answer (1)
30. Answer (3)
(number of letters)2
31. Answer (4)
32. Answer (3)
33. Answer (3)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (4)
36. Answer (3)
37. Answer (2)
38. Answer (2)
39. Answer (1)
40. Answer (3)
Only in figure (c), the two arrows are attached with the line segment which is common to triangle and square.
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (1)

400 400
x+y= and x – y = , where x and y are the speeds of trains.
2.5 8

43. Answer (2)

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

44. Answer (3)

45. Answer (3)
11
90 = m – 30 h
2
11
 90 = m – 30 × 4
2

420
 m=
11

2
 = 38 min
11
46. Answer (4)
47. Answer (4)
48. Answer (3)
49. Answer (2)
50. Answer (2)

  

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (4)

52. Answer (4)
53. Answer (2)
54. Answer (3)
55. Answer (1)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (4)
58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (3)
60. Answer (2)
61. Answer (1)
62. Answer (2)
63. Answer (4)
64. Answer (1)
65. Answer (3)
66. Answer (1)
67. Answer (3)
68. Answer (2)
69. Answer (4)
70. Answer (4)
71. Answer (2)
Tense error - ‘today practice’ is the correct usage
72. Answer (3)
Preposition error - ‘in’ is required before ‘discharge’
73. Answer (2)
Subject-verb agreement error - ‘has’ is required in place of ‘have’
74. Answer (2)
Verb for error - ‘to reveal’ should be used in place of ‘revealing’
75. Answer (3)
Subject-verb agreement error - ‘makes’ should be used for singular subject ‘appearance’
76. Answer (3)
77. Answer (1)
78. Answer (4)
79. Answer (2)
80. Answer (3)

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

81. Answer (2)

82. Answer (3)
83. Answer (4)
84. Answer (1)
85. Answer (3)
86. Answer (4)
87. Answer (3)
88. Answer (1)
89. Answer (2)
90. Answer (3)
91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4)
94. Answer (2)
95. Answer (4)
‘Fearsome’ is the opposite of ‘Friendly’; ‘Cordial’ is the opposite of ‘Mild’
96. Answer (3)
‘Tackle’ and ‘Question’ are synonymous as verbs; ‘Envisage’ and ‘Anticipate’ are synonymous
97. Answer (2)
‘Ill’ is a kind of ‘Omen’; ‘Ode’ is a form of ‘Poem’
98. Answer (2)
Remittance
99. Answer (3)
Canister
100. Answer (1)
Amicable

  

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Answer (4)

1 2
h gt
2
2
1 ⎛t ⎞
h´ g
2 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠

1 gt 2 1 ⎛ 1 2 ⎞
h´  ⎜ gt ⎟
2 4 4⎝2 ⎠
1 h
h´  gh  
4 4
h
h´´ h – h´ h –
4
3
h´´ h
4
102. Answer (2)
Displacement of car = displacement of bus
at the time of overtakes
1
16  t  0   8t 2
2
4t2 = 16t sec
t=4
s = 4 × 16 = 64 meter
103. Answer (1)
1 2
at  2
2
4
a. 2
2
a = 1 ms–2 m1

⎛ m – m2 ⎞ m2
a⎜ 1 ⎟g
⎝ m1  m2 ⎠
m1 + m2 = (m1 – m2)10
m1 + m2 = 10m1 – 10m2
9m1 = 11m2

m1 11

m2 9

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

104. Answer (2)

v2 – u2 = –2gh
v=0
u2 = 2gh

u2
h
2g

⎛ 3h ⎞
v 2 – u 2  –2g ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
3gh
v 2 – u2  –
2
3gh
v2  –  u2
2
3gh
v2  –  2gh
2
1
v2  gh
2

3h
at  h ' 
4
⎛ 3h ⎞
P.E.  mg ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 4 ⎠
1 ⎛1 ⎞
K.E.  m gh
2 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
mgh
K.E. 
4
mgh
K.E. 1
 4 
P.E. 3 3
mgh
4
105. Answer (2)


F .r  F .r cos90  0
106. Answer (2)
Frequency remain unchanged
107. Answer (1)
108. Answer (1)
Heat lost by iron block = Heat gained by water
mcT = mwcwT
840 × (80 – T) = 4 × 4200 × (T – 20)
 T = 22.86°C

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

109. Answer (3)

Brightness decreases as number of light ray passing through the lens decreases
110. Answer (2)

KQ
v
r
v .r
Q
k
For n drops
Qt = total Q

n.vr
Qt  …(i)
k
Volume remain same

4 4
n. r 3  R 3
3 3
1
n 3 r R
–1
r
 n  3 …(ii)
R
Potential at large sphere

k
Qt  v´
R
v´R
Qt  …(iii)
k
vr v´
n.  R
k k
r
v ´ n.v
R
–1
v´ n.v  n  3

2
v ´ n .v
3

111. Answer (1)

dW = q(VB – VA)
50 m

20C 10C

k.20  10 –6 k  10  10 –6
 
25 25

⎡ –6 ⎤
 k ⎢ 30  10 ⎥
⎣⎢ 25 ⎦⎥
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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

9  109  30  10 –6
=
25

9  30  1000
25
= 10800 V
W = 1 (10800 – 0)
W = 10800 joule
 1.08 × 104 joule
 10.8 × 103 joule
112. Answer (4)
2V

10 V
500  R A
I

IR = 2V

R  10
IR 
500  R

R  10
 2V
R  500
5R = R + 500
4R = 500
R = 125 
113. Answer (2)
Energy remain constant as speed remain constant and path of particle is circle.
114. Answer (3)
115. Answer (3)
116. Answer (1)
117. Answer (2)
118. Answer (4)
119. Answer (4)
120. Answer (1)
Let the total amount of sugar present in 20% (w/v) solution in 100 be x g.

x
So, 20 = 100   100

x = 20
Amount of sugar to be added
= 20 – 15 = 5 g

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

121. Answer (2)

5.6
Mole of CO2 = = 0.25
22.4
Number of molecules = 0.25 NA , Number of atoms = 0.25 × 3 × NA
122. Answer (2)

49
Amount of oxygen that combines with 1 g of S in compound I is = = 0.96 g
51

59
Amount of oxygen that combines with 1 g of S in compound II is = = 1.44 g
41

OI 0.96 8 2
Ratio of O  1.44  12  3
II

123. Answer (4)

124. Answer (2)
n=4
Total number of electron = 2(4)2
= 32
Half of them will have clockwise spin i.e., 16

125. Answer (2)

nCHCl3
x CHCl3 =
nCHCl3 + nCH2Cl2

25.5
 119.5
25.5 40

119.5 85

0.21
 = 0.31
0.21  0.47

126. Answer (1)

127. Answer (3)
Platelets are involved in clotting of blood and neutrophils are involved in phagocytosis.
128. Answer (1)
The person is suffering from tuberculosis.
129. Answer (4)
In ex situ conservation, threatened plants and animals are protected outside their natural habitats but in a
special setting similar to their natural habitat.

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

130. Answer (2)

EcoRI cleaves –GAATTC– sequence in the DNA.

–CTTAAG–
131. Answer (1)
Tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle.
132. Answer (2)
133. Answer (1)
The pivot joint allows only a rotary movement of one bone on the other, which remains stationary.
134. Answer (4)
Pneumatic bones and syrinx are the characteristic features of Aves.
135. Answer (2)
Mumps is the infectious viral disease of salivary glands.
136. Answer (4)
Ginger is propagated by stem and sweet potato by roots.
137. Answer (3)
Tendon connects bone to muscles.
138. Answer (3)
Pancreas produce insulin and glucagon which are antagonistic in function.
139. Answer (4)
Ozone is present in stratosphere of the atmosphere.
140. Answer (2)
1
BOD 
DO

SECTION-II
141. Answer (3)
Total divisors
Product of all the factors of a number N = (N ) 2

2 5184
2 2592
2 1296
2 648
2 324
2 162
3 81
So, 5184 = 26 × 34
3 27
3 9
3 3
1
So, the total number of factors of 5184 is equal to (6 + 1)(4 + 1) = 35.
35
Hence, the product of all the factors = (5184) 2 = (72)35

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

142. Answer (2)

143. Answer (3) Y
144. Answer (2)
In PQT,
PQ QS
= ...(i) [By internal angle bisector theorem]
PT ST X X
o
In QRT,
QR QS
= ..(ii) [By internal angle bisector theorem]
TR ST
So, from (i) and (ii), we get
Y
QS PQ QR
= =
ST PT TR
QS PQ  QR PQ  QR
So, = =
ST PT  TR PR
145. Answer (2)
146. Answer (1)
⎛ ⎞
5cos   3cos ⎜  ⎟  8
⎝ 3⎠
⎛  ⎞
= 5cos   3 ⎜⎝cos   cos  sin   sin ⎟⎠  8
3 3
13 3 3
= cos   sin   8
2 2
2 2 2 2
⎛ 13 ⎞ ⎛3 3⎞ 13 3 3 ⎛ 13 ⎞ ⎛3 3⎞
∵  ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠  ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠  cos   sin   ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠  ⎜⎝ ⎟
2 2 2 2 2 2 ⎠
13 3 3
= 7  cos   sin   7
2 2
13 3 3
So, 1  cos   sin   8  15
2 2
147. Answer (3)
Let x2 + 19x + 92 = p2 for some integer p.
So, x2 + 19x + 92 – p2 = 0 ...(i)

19  361  4(92  p2 )

x =
2
x will attain integral value if 361 – 4(92 – p2) is a perfect square of an odd integer.
So, 361 – 4(92 – p2) = (2n + 1)2 for n  I
4p2 – 7 = (2n + 1)2
(2p)2 – (2n + 1)2 = 7
(2p – 2n – 1)(2p + 2n + 1) = 7
So, 2p + 2n + 1 = 7 and 2p – 2n – 1 = 1 or 2p + 2n + 1 = 1 and 2p – 2n – 1 = 7.
In both the cases, we get p = 2
On putting p = 2 in (i), we get
x2 + 19x + 88 = 0
So, the required product = 88

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

148. Answer (1)

⎛1 1 1 1 1 ⎞
3⎜    
⎝ 4 28 70 130 208 ⎟⎠
⎛ 1 1 1 1 1 ⎞
= 3  ⎜⎝ 1  4  4  7  7  10  10  13  13  16 ⎟⎠

1⎛ 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1⎞
= 3 ⎜ 1         ⎟
3⎝ 4 4 7 7 10 10 13 13 16 ⎠
1⎛ 1⎞
= 3 ⎜⎝ 1  ⎟⎠
3 16
1 15
= 3 
3 16
5
= 3
16
48  5 43 11
=  = 2
16 16 16
149. Answer (3)
150. Answer (2)
A

m 13 cm

C B
n
m2 – n2 = (13)2
 (m – n)(m + n) = 169
= 1 × 169
= 13 × 13
Therefore, m – n = 1, m + n = 169 or m – n = 13, m + n = 13
So, m = 85 and n = 84 is the only possible value
So, perimeter will be (85 + 84 + 13) cm = 182 cm
151. Answer (3)
A

1
1

2 3
B C
D
Given, AB > AC.
So, C > B ...(i)

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Now, exterior angle is greater than each of its interior opposite angle.
 2 > C
So, 2 > B [From (i)]
Hence, AB > AD.
152. Answer (3)
Y
A(0, 8)

M N

X X
B(–4, 0) O C(6, 0)

Y
AOB and AOC are right angled triangles.
So, the mid-point of hypotenuse will be the circumcentre of triangle ABC and OM and ON will be their radii
Now, M  (–2, 4) and N (3, 4)

So, OM = 2 5 and ON = 5

  OM 2 2 52 5
So, required ratio = 2 = =4:5
  ON 55
153. Answer (1)
84
Each side of regular hexagon = = 14 cm
6
Now, each of the given triangle will be equilateral triangle of side 14 cm.

OP = 7 3 cm
O
2 3 14
And circumradius =   OA = cm
3 2 3 cm
14

Hence, total perimeter of all six circumcircles 14 Q

cm

= 6 × 2r
A B
22 14 528 P
= 12   = = 176 3 cm 14 cm
7 3 3
154. Answer (4)
A
Perimeter of triangle ABC = 18 cm
So, 2AC + 8 = 18
E
 AC = 5 cm
Now, BD is a diameter. D
So, AC must be a tangent to the circle.
 AD2 = AB × AE
AC 2 C
 = AC × AE
4 B
5
 AE = = 1.25 cm
4

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Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A)

155. Answer (1)

156. Answer (1)

16log3
=1
9log x
16log3 = 9logx
Taking log on both sides, we get
log16log3 = log9logx
4(log3)(log2) = 2(log3)(logx)
x = 4
157. Answer (2)
⎛ 100  50 ⎞ ⎛ 100  30 ⎞ ⎛ 100  20 ⎞
Final selling price of one shirt = 1800 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎟
100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠ ⎝ 100 ⎠
50 70 80
= 1800   
100 100 100
= ` 504
So, the price of three shirts = 504 × 3 = ` 1512
158. Answer (2)
159. Answer (2)
4p2 + 16r2 + 9q2 – 6pq – 8pr – 12qr = 0

1
 [(4p2 + 9q2 – 12pq) + (4p2 + 16r2 – 16pr) + (9q2 + 16r2 – 24qr)] = 0
2
(2p – 3q)2 + (2p – 4r)2 + (3q – 4r)2 = 0 ...(i) [∵ a2 + b2 – 2ab = (a – b)2]
This is possible only when 2p – 3q = 0, 2p – 4r = 0 and 3q – 4r = 0.
2p = 3q = 4r
p : q : r = 6 : 4 : 3
160. Answer (1)
F
C

30°
D O
70° A
x
B
E
In quadrilateral OCAB,
COB = 360° – 70° – 90° – 90° = 110°
Join CB.
In OCB,
COB + 2OBC = 180°
OBC = 35°
Now, DBE = DCB [Using alternate segment theorem]
So, x = 30° + 35° = 65°

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-4 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

SECTION-III
161. Answer (1)
162. Answer (4)
163. Answer (1)
164. Answer (2)
165. Answer (4)
166. Answer (2)
167. Answer (4)
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (4)
170. Answer (2)
171. Answer (1)
172. Answer (3)
173. Answer (3)
174. Answer (2)
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (3)
177. Answer (4)
178. Answer (3)
179. Answer (3)
180. Answer (3)
181. Answer (3)
182. Answer (4)
183. Answer (2)
184. Answer (4)
185. Answer (4)
186. Answer (1)
187. Answer (2)
188. Answer (4)
189. Answer (2)
190. Answer (1)
191. Answer (4)
192. Answer (1)
193. Answer (4)
194. Answer (3)
195. Answer (4)
196. Answer (4)
197. Answer (1)
198. Answer (3)
199. Answer (2)
200. Answer (1)

  
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