B737-300 Appendix / Oral Questions

Oral Table of Contents:

Questions
Introduction
Aircraft General 3
Pneumatics 5
FOR TRAINING ONLY! Air Conditioning 7
Pressurization 9
ORAL QUESTIONS Fuel System 10
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) 11
These oral questions are based on an old copy of a Hydraulics 12
Boeing 737-300 training document (circa 1987?) that has Landing Gear 14
been floating around the 737 pilot group for many years. Brakes 15
I scanned the list into the computer, cleaned it up, and Flight Controls 16
offer it to new hires as a study aid. Electrical System 18
There is a possibility that errors exist. I have not gone Ice and Rain Protection 21
through this document. Always cross reference your oral Fire and Overheat Protection 22
study with the Flight Manual (which is always the final Powerplant 24
authority). Oral Examples 29
Good luck on your school daily exams, on your Practice Oral (Misc. Topics) 30
initial oral, and future PC orals!
There are differences for the B737-4-5-6-7-800.

Captain Bruce Sprague CO737

Thanks Bruce
Readers:
When you do find something that needs to be
changed, advise me (please send complete OLD Q/A,
referencing system and question number, with your
re-write).
Bill Bulfer
[email protected]

Page 1
Aircraft General cockpit or aft F/A station.
17 Which switch overpowers all others?
1 What is the maximum gross takeoff weight of the Ans: the aft F/A station.
737? 18 How long will the emergency lights stay
Ans: 135,000 lbs. illuminated?
2 What is the approximate OEW of the 737? Ans: 20 minutes.
Ans: 72,000 lbs. 19 What is unique about the overwing exits?
3 What is the approximate fuel load capacity of the Ans: if they are opened, their individual lights
737? illuminate.
Ans: 35,800 lbs. 20 How many overwing exterior lights are there?
38,500 lbs. with the aux tank Ans: Two. One illuminates the immediate exit
4 What is the maximum gross landing weight of the area, the other illuminates the trailing edge of the
737? wing.
Ans: 114,000 lbs. 21 What other emergency lights are there?
5 What is the maximum ZFW of the 737? Ans: the slides have lights installed at the base of
Ans: 106,500 lbs. the slides.
6 What is the approximate range of the 737? 22 What flotation devices are on the 737? (typical)
Ans: 2,300 nm. Ans: seat cushions and a life vest under each
2,460 nm.with the aux tank passenger seat for the passengers. There
7 What is the seating configuration of the 737-300? are life vests installed in the flight attendant seat-
Ans: 10/118 (typical) backs and in the cockpit.
8 How many emergency exits are there on a 737? 23 How many personal oxygen bottles are on board?
Ans: 8. 2 aft, 2 overwing, 2 forward, 2 cockpit Ans: 5 plus the cockpit walk-around; the bottle in
windows. the center-aft closet is a smaller unit than the rest
9 What is unique about the cockpit door? (need one per flight attendant; need one FA for
Ans: it has two sets of panels which are hinged. every 50 seats or portion of)
The lower "Blow-out" panels will pop into the 24 What type POB is in the cockpit?
cockpit in the event of a rapid decompression. The Ans: full face type with a demand type regulator.
upper panels have a handle and can be pulled 25 How many halon fire extinguishers are there on
inward from the cockpit side as a means of board?
escape. Ans: 3.
10 What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure? 26 Where are they located? (typically)
Ans: 15°C/59°F Ans: one in the cockpit, one in the forward galley,
2 crew - 470 psi one in the aft closet.
3 crew - 655 psi 27 How many water type extinguishers are there on
11 What is unique about the passenger oxygen units? board?
Ans: they are individually supplied with the Ans: one in the aft closet
oxidizing supply units. If one mask is activated, 28 How many first aid kits are there on the 737?
the unit is activated and will supply oxygen for 12 Ans: two, plus the emergency medical kit in the
minutes. cockpit.
12 How many masks are in each unit? 29 Where are the first aid kits located? (typically)
Ans: 4 for each 3 seats Ans: in the fore & aft overhead compartments
13 What other positions have oxygen masks? along with a megaphone at both of the same
Ans: two masks at: stations.
1. Each f/a station. 30 How many flashlights are installed on the aircraft?
2. Each lavatory. Ans: four (two at each f/a seating station)
14 What will make the PSUs available? 31 Which cockpit lights come on automatically with
Ans: 1. Automatic activation at 14,000 cabin loss of normal Power?
altitude. Ans: the fluorescent lights, at a prefixed lower
2. Manual activation using the overhead intensity, the dome light, and standby compass
cockpit switch light.
15 Are all the slides automatic? 32 What is the power source for the cockpit dome
Ans: yes. lights?
16 How can the emergency lights be activated? Ans: the battery bus.
Ans: automatically - loss of normal AC power 33 Can the cockpit emergency exit light be used as a
(which causes loss of #1 DC bus) with portable light?
the system armed OR Manually - from the Ans: no
Page 2
34 How many exterior emergency lights are there on 45 How are the annunciator warnings organized?
the 737? Ans: They are general and specific. If a problem
Ans: 8 exists, the "master caution" lights illuminate along
35 Where is the potable water quantity gauge located? with a general annunciation on the forward panel.
Ans: in the right aft galley. These general annunciation's indicate to the pilots
36 How is this gauge operated? which area to specifically check the specific
Ans: pushing the test button lights up the level. If warning lights, located adjacent to their associated
the 1/4 LED and 1/2 LED control, are then checked for the problem.
illuminate, the tank is 1/2 full. All LEDs
illuminated indicates a full tank.
37 Where is the water service panel and shutoff valve
located?
Ans: below the left aft galley door, nearly on the
belly of the aircraft.

38 What will cause the wheel well lights to remain

illuminated?
Ans: 1. leave the switch in the main WW at the
"on position" will keep the main WW
lights on, and leaving the nose WW light
on, at the Ext. Power panel, will leave the
nose WW lights on (you can't turn these
off from the cockpit).
2. cockpit WW light switch on
39 What type engines are on the 737?
Ans: CFM-56-3.
40 What is the power rating of the 737 engines?
Ans: 20,000 lbs. thrust.
41 What is the primary thrust source for these
engines?
Ans: the fan provides 80% of the engine power.
42 What will cause the intermittent takeoff warning to
sound?
Ans: 1. Stab trim not in the green band.
2. Flaps not in the takeoff range (1 - 15
degrees).
3. LEDs not in proper position with respect
to flap setting
4. Speed brake not in the down detent
position
5. Parking brake set (-500 only)
43 What will cause the steady landing warning to
sound?
Ans: any landing gear not down and locked and:
a. Flaps between 1 and 10 degrees and low
throttle angle,
b. Flaps at 15 degrees and:
1. One throttle at 30 degrees or
greater with the other at less than 10
degrees, or:
2. Both throttles less than 30 degrees,
c. Flaps greater than 15 degrees with the
gear up.
44 Which of these conditions can be silenced?
Ans: "A" and "B-1" only.

Page 3
Pneumatics C, or excessive bleed pressure.
16 Where would this temperature be indicated?
1 What stages of bleed air do the engines use? Ans: only on the bleed trip off light.
Ans: Fan, 5th, & 9th 17 Where is the supply duct temperature read from?
2 What is the fan air used for? Ans: downstream from the mix manifold.
Ans: precooler and CSD cooling.
3 Is the fan air regulated? 18 What is the highest temperature you would
Ans: yes, there is a thermostatic regulator on the normally expect to see?
precooler heat exchanger. Ans: 140 degrees, if the topping circuit is working
4 How does this regulator operate? properly.
Ans: if the bleed air temperature leaving the 19 What does the duct overheat light indicate?
precooler increases, the regulator Ans: a duct temperature in excess of 190 degrees
modulates the fan valve open. F.
5 What is the relationship between 5th stage air and 20 What would you do about this condition?
9th stage air? Ans: select a cooler temperature.
Ans: 5th stage air is the primary source of bleed 21 When does a duct overheat cause a pack trip?
air with 9th stage air supplementing Ans: above 250 degrees F.
whenever the pressure falls below 29 psi. 22 How would you reset this condition?
6 How does this relationship operate? Ans: push the reset button when the temperature
Ans: 5th stage air will normally maintain a duct reduces.
pressure of 30 - 40 psi, if the 23 Is it necessary to first turn off the pack?
pressure falls below 29 psi, the 9th stage valve Ans: no
will open to maintain a minimum 24 How does the isolation valve operate?
pressure of 29 psi. Ans: the isolation valve separates the left & right
7 How is the 5th stage air regulated? halves of the pneumatic system, with the valve in
Ans: only by the engine bleed valve; it does not the open position, the two halves are connected.
have a separate shutoff valve, only The valve may be manually opened, or will
the 9th stage air has a modulation/shutoff valve. automatically open, with the switch in the AUTO
8 Where are the engine bleed valves located in the position, if either of the bleed or pack switches is
system? turned off ("switch
Ans: they are downstream of the 5th stage air and 24 When is the ISOL valve open?
the 9th stage modulation / shutoff Ans: 1. Whenever any of the bleed or pack
valve. switches is off.
9 How are the bleed valves operated? 2. Whenever it is manually selected open.
Ans: they are DC activated, pneumatically 25 What is the power source of the ISOLATION
operated. valve?
10 What is the function of the engine bleed valves? Ans: transfer bus #1,
Ans: they act as. 1. Shutoff valves. 2. Check 26 When does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate?
valves (reverse flow). 3. Pressure Ans: whenever there is a potential for back-
regulators. pressuring the APU. It will normally
11 What pressure does the engine bleed valve illuminate during engine start.
normally limit? 27 What happens to the engine bleed valves upon
Ans: it limits pressure to a maximum of 45 psi. engine shutdown?
12 Does the engine bleed valve regulate a minimum Ans: they automatically close (pneumatically)
value? 28 Is this true of the APU bleed valve also?
Ans: no, at less than 45 psi, they are full open. Ans: yes, the APU bleed valve also shuts off with
13 Is there an exception to this? APU shutdown.
Ans: yes, if the temperature downstream of the 29 What does the left WING-BODY OVERHEAT
precooler is excessive, the bleed valve light indicate?
reduces the bleed flow. Ans: a bleed leak:
14 Can the engines be started with the engine bleed 1. In the leading edge area.
valve switches in the "off" position? 2. In the engine strut.
Ans: yes, the engines may still be started using 3. In the left pack bay.
APU or ground air with the engine 4. In the keel beam area.
bleed valves closed. 5. In the APU bleed duct.
15 What causes a bleed trip?
Ans: a bleed supply temperature in excess of 255°
Page 4
30 What does the right WING-BODY
OVERHEAT light indicate?
Ans: a bleed leak:
1. In the leading edge area.
2. In the engine strut.
3. In the right pack bay.
31 What would cause a faulty indication?
Ans: direct sunlight on a hot day for an extended
period of time.
32 How would you verify that this was a faulty
indication?
Ans: turn off all bleed sources.

33 What does the overheat test function do?

Ans: it checks circuit continuity

Page 5
Air Conditioning (FM 7-12).
18 What is the source of air for the recirculating fan?
1 Where do the air conditioning packs get their air Ans: air directly from the passenger cabin and the
supply? E & E compartment via a shroud
Ans: 1. from the individual engine bleeds above the forward cargo compartment.
2. from the opposite bleed if the ISOL 19 When does it operate?
valve is open Ans: at all times except when both packs are
3. from the APU operating and one or both of the packs
4. from ground air is in the HI mode, or when fan is manually turned
2 Where does ground preconditioned air enter the off.
system, when used? 20 Why should we maintain an awareness of this
Ans: it is pumped directly into the mix manifold fan?
3 Why is this information important to the pilots? Ans: because it is the most likely candidate for
Ans: because the cockpit will not receive much of electrical smoke or fumes in the
this air. passenger compartment or cockpit (only if left
4 Is ground air (unconditioned) biased to either pack? pack is off, FM 7-13). The source of
Ans: yes, it enters the system on the right side such smoke or fumes could be either from the fan
5 Can it be used for the left side? itself, or overheating equipment in
Ans: yes, provided that the isolation valve is open the E & E compartment.
6 Where does the APU air enter the system? 21 What powers the recirculating fan?
Ans: On the left side Ans: gen bus #2.
7 When does the HIGH function of the A/C packs 22 Why is this bus important to this fan?
operate? Ans: it will be downloaded during a power
Ans: 1. during single pack operation in the transfer if #2 gen bus is lost.
air if the flaps are retracted 23 If power is lost to the recirculating fan, what action
2. if manually selected to HIGH takes place automatically?
8 What is the function of the air conditioning turbo Ans: the forward outflow valve remains open to
fan? maintain the warming airflow.
Ans: it supplies additional cooling air to the packs 24 Is there a condition when the forward valve would
9 What is the power source for the turbo fan? still close?
Ans: it is powered by bleed air Ans: yes, if the cabin pressure was insufficient,
10 When does the turbo fan operate? the valve would still close in
Ans: whenever the packs are operating on the conjunction with that problem.
ground, or in the air with the flaps 25 When is the forward outflow valve open?
extended Ans: whenever the main outflow valve is open by
11 Where is the cockpit air supply taken from? more than 3 degrees or when the
Ans: from the left pack, upstream of the mix recirculating fan is off.
manifold 26 When is the forward outflow closed?
12 What is the power source for the pack valves? Ans: when the main outflow valve is within 1/2
Ans: the battery bus degree of being closed or whenever
13 How are the pack valves operated? the recirculating fan is operating,
Ans: they are electrically controlled, pneumatically 27 When does the equip cooling fan operate?
operated Ans: at all times.
14 What malfunctions does the reset button affect? 28 When would the equip cooling off light
Ans: 1. bleed trip illuminate?
2. pack trip Ans: whenever the airflow was insufficient to
3. duct overheat/pack trip (does not cool the airflow sensor.
reset a wing body overheat) 29 How does this sensor operate?
15 If a pack trip occurs during wing anti-ice usage, Ans: it is a heat source/detector circuit. If there is
would you lose wing anti-ice to that side? insufficient airflow, the heat
Ans: no source activates the sensor on the opposite side of
16 Where is the cabin temperature read from? the duct and the off light \ illuminates.
Ans: from the forward passenger cabin, row 3. 30 What should your action be if the equip cooling
17 What is the function of the recirculating fan? off light illuminates?
Ans: it reduces bleed demand by the packs by Ans: switch to the alternate fan.
increasing the volume of air into the
mix manifold. Reduces air conditioning pack load
Page 6
31 What is the source of this airflow?
Ans: air from around the cockpit circuit breaker
panels and air from the lower
E & E compartment racks.
32 Where is the equipment cooling air exhausted?
Ans: On the ground or in flight, the air is
normally exhausted through a belly port, unless
the pressure is greater than 2.5 psid. Otherwise it
goes through the forward outflow valve, unless
the recirc fan is on, then it goes out the aft outflow
valve.
1. on ground or if in air (if psid is less than 2.5),
through the flow control valve (belly port).
2. if psid greater than 2.5, than flow control valve
closes, air circulates around forward cargo, and
vents out the forward outflow valve if it is open.
3. if recirculation fan is on, then forward outflow
is closed and the equipment cooling air, after
circulating around the forward cargo, is drawn by
the recirculating fan into the mix manifold, and
out the aft main outflow valve.
33 Would you expect the pressure to exceed 2.5 psid
on the ground?
Ans: No, that exceeds limitations (the limitation is
only for TO and LDG)
34 How is the exhaust air routed before it exhausts
overboard?
Ans: at a pressure differential less than 2.5 psid, it
is exhausted through the belly port. At pressures
greater than 2.5 psid, it is circulated around the
forward cargo compartment, then overboard
through the forward outflow valve, or aft outflow
valve if recirc fan is on.
35 What mechanism directs the equipment cooling
air, and how does it operate?
Ans: the flow control valve controls the airflow. It
aerodynamically positions itself
according to how much air is flowing through it.
36 When does the air conditioning ram air deflector
door open?
Ans: when the aircraft is on the ground.

Page 7
Pressurization 14 If the aircraft does not attain the scheduled cruise
altitude, where is the landing pressure scheduled?
1 Where does the auto function receive its BARO Ans: departure elevation minus 300'
reference? 15 Upon touchdown, what does the auto-controller
Ans: from the Captain's altimeter. do?
2 Where does the STBY function get its BARO Ans: it selects field elevation minus 200'.
reference? 16 If the AUTO mode is inoperative, how should you
Ans: from the First Officer's altimeter operate the standby mode?
3 When does the forward outflow valve close? Ans: For takeoff: set the CAB ALT to 200'
Ans: whenever the recirculating fan is operating or below field elevation.
whenever the main outflow valve During climb: set CAB ALT according to the
4 is within 1/2 degree of being closed. placard.
What would cause the AUTO FAIL light? During descent: CAB ALT to 200' below
Ans: 1. Loss of AC for 15 seconds. destination field elevation.
2. Excessive cabin altitude (13,875') 17 If the automatic mode did not detect the aircraft
3. Excessive cabin rate (±1800 fpm) leaving the ground, what climb schedule would it
5 Which outflow valve motor does the AUTO maintain?
function use? Ans: it would maintain departure field elevation
Ans: the AC motor. minus 200' until reaching 7.45 psid,
6 Which outflow valve motor does the standby mode then it would then maintain 500 fpm climb.
use? Above 7.9 psid, the cabin would climb
Ans: the DC motor. with the aircraft.
7 In the AUTO mode, where does the controller
derive its altitude information?
Ans: from the static ports.
8 In the standby mode, where is the altitude
information derived from?
Ans: from the air data computer.
9 When the FLT/GND switch is placed in the FLT
position, what does the system do?
Ans: it sets the pressure at .1 psid or 200' below
field elevation.
10 What is the pressurization schedule?
Ans:
On the ground:.125 psid max (1 psid normal)
Less than 18,500': Sea level
Above 18,500'; below FL280:
7.45 psid ±.1 (constant rate)
Above FL280
7.80 psid ±.1 (constant rate)
Maximum 8.65 psid
11 When will the OFF SCHED DESCENT function
disarm?
Ans: 1. Within 1,000' of the selected cruise
altitude.
2. When a lower-than-existing altitude is
selected.
3. When STBY is selected.
12 What are the system limits in the event of an off
schedule climb?
Ans: max rate of climb of 500 fpm, up to 7.9 psid
13 Assuming a scheduled cruise altitude above
28,000, what differential pressure does the AUTO
controller schedule?
Ans: 7.8 ±.1 psid

Page 8
Fuel System 18 What prevents tank surge pressure damage?
Ans: a system of surge tanks and vents.
1 How much usable fuel does each tank hold? 19 Where is the fueling station located?
Ans: 1 and 2 - 10,118 lbs.; Ans: in the leading edge area of the right wing,
Center - 15,613 lbs. Aux - 2,632 lbs. outboard of the engine.
2 Where is the aux tank located, when installed? 20 Where is the manual defueling valve located?
Ans: in the forward end of the aft cargo hold. Ans: between the fueling station and #2 engine.
3 Where are the main fuel shutoff valves located? 21 In simple terms, what does this valve do?
Ans: at each engine mount on the wing Ans: it connects the engine feed system with the
4 What powers these valves? refueling station.
5 Ans: the hot battery bus. 22 What functions does this valve serve?
6 What powers the crossfeed valve? Ans: 1. System defueling
Ans: the battery bus 2. Ground fuel transfer between tanks
7 What ensures that the center tank fuel will be used 3. Pressure fueling of the aux tank.
before the wing tank fuel when all boost pumps 23 What is the maximum imbalance between tanks 1
are operating? and 2?
Ans: center tank check valves open at a lower Ans: 1000#
differential pressure than the check valves in the 24 What is a precaution regarding refueling
#1 and #2 tanks. operations?
8 What ensures that the aux tank fuel will be used Ans: the wing tanks must be loaded
before the wing tank fuel when all boost pumps symmetrically.
are operating? 25 What is the normal order of refueling?
Ans: aux fuel pumps have a higher output Ans: tanks 1 and 2. Then the center tank, then the
pressure. aux tank if installed.
9 In an aircraft with the aux tank installed, how is the
fuel normally used?
Ans: the aux tank will automatically supply the
left engine until it is depleted, with the center tank
supplying the right engine until the aux tank is
depleted; then the system will operate as though
there was no aux tank on board,
10 With regard to refueling operations, do the cockpit
fuel switches enter the refueling picture in the case
of an aircraft with an aux tank?
Ans: yes, all fuel pump switches must be off
11 How is the center tank system different from the
wing tanks?
Ans: there is no suction feed on the center tank,
and there are no drip sticks installed
12 Does the aux tank have suction feed?
Ans: no
13 What is different about the center tank low
pressure lights?
Ans: they will not illuminate with the power
switches in the "off" position
14 Is this statement also true with regard to the aux
tank?
Ans: yes
15 When will the forward panel fuel annunciator
illuminate?
Ans: wing tank: when both low pressure lights in
the same tank illuminate,
center tank: one light and one pump off
16 Where is the fuel temperature probe located?
Ans: in #1 tank.
17 Is this a self-powered probe?
Ans: no, it uses AC power.
Page 9
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) 16 Can the center tank right boost pump supply the
APU?
1 What does the LOW QUANTITY light indicate? Ans: yes, if the crossfeed is opened
Ans: the APU oil quantity is down to the 1 1/2 17 Can the APU fuel be heated?
quart level. This equates to 10 hours of operation Ans: yes, there is an automatic heating function
left. You may operate the APU, but you better which utilizes bleed air
have maintenance check 18 What is the fuel consumption rate of the APU?
(you may have a leak)! This is an advisory light Ans: 250 pph
only. 19 When may the APU be utilized after starting?
2 What are the altitude limits of the APU? Ans: immediately for electrical, after one minute
Ans: 1. air AND electrical - 10,000' for a pneumatic source
2. air OR electrical - 17,000' 20 How long should the APU be operated without a
3. electrical - 35,000' pneumatic load before shutdown?
3 What will cause the APU to shut down Ans: 1 minute
automatically? 21 If a start is aborted, how long should you wait
Ans: 1. overspeed before attempting another start?
2. low oil pressure Ans: 4 minutes
3. high oil temperature 22 If there is no indication that the starter engaged,
4. fire warning input what should your action be?
4 Will the APU fire detection system automatically Ans: turn the switch to "off" for 20 seconds
discharge the fire bottle? before attempting another start. This
Ans: no, it will only shut it down allows the inlet door to recycle.
5 Does the APU have an overheat warning? 23 How many start attempts should be made?
Ans: no, only a fire warning Ans: 2 on the ground, 4 in the air (with 4 mins
6 Will the APU operate with the battery switch turned between each attempt)
off? 24 What would be your indications of a hung start?
Ans: only in flight Ans: the "APU GEN OFF BUS light would fail
7 Why is the system set up that way? to illuminate
Ans: to preclude an undetected APU fire while the 25 How high may the APU be started?
aircraft is unattended on the Ans: not assured over 25,000'
ground (detection circuit on BATTERY bus) 26 Why should you always use a boost pump to
8 Is it possible to have the APU power both busses in pressurize the APU?
flight? Ans: to extend fuel control unit life.
Ans: only if you takeoff in that configuration 27 How are the generator and oil cooler provided with
9 What are the temperature limits of the APU? cooling air?
Ans: start: 760 degrees C Ans: by a gear driven cooling fan.
max cont: 710 degrees C 28 Is this air regulated?
10 What is the maximum electrical load on the APU? Ans: yes, an air supply valve opens when APU
Ans: ground operation: 150 amps bleed air pressure is detected in the
inflight operation: 125 amps APU bleed air supply duct.
11 Can the APU be started without the battery? 29 How is the APU exhaust shroud cooled?
Ans: yes. Using an external DC input plug Ans: exhaust air flows by a venturi in the exhaust
12 Are there any precautions involved in doing this? duct, drawing ambient air around
Ans: yes, if the aircraft battery is low, it must be the exhaust shroud, providing cooling.
disconnected 30 If the APU inadvertently flames-out on the
13 When the APU is started, what normal indications ground, what could be the cause?
are you looking for with respect to the load meter? Ans: low fuel in the tanks, causing the supply
Ans: the meter will show a slight discharge at first point to become uncovered during
as the air inlet door opens, then a ground maneuvering.
high discharge as the starter engages.
14 What is the normal fuel source for the APU?
Ans: #1 fuel tank.
15 What is the preferred source if going to run for a
long time?
Ans: CTR tank using left boost pump pressure

Page 10
Hydraulics Ans: it provides backup pressure for the autoslats
13 What is the fluid source for the PTU?
1 What provides pressure to the A system? Ans: "B" reservoir below the standpipe
Ans: an engine driven pump and an electric 14 When would the PTU become operational?
pump. Ans: 1. Flaps between 1 and 5
2 What is the power source for the electric pump? 2. A loss of pressure from system B engine
Ans: gen bus #2. driven pump is sensed
3 What provides pressure to the B system? 15 What is the power source for the PTU?
Ans: it is constructed the same as the A system Ans: "A" system drives pump, to push "B"
with the gen bus #1 powering the electric pump. system fluid (no fluid transfer)
4 What is normal system pressure? 16 How does this operate?
Ans: 3,000 psi. Ans: "A" system pressure will drive the PTU
5 Why are the "A" and "B" system reservoirs which will pump "B" system reservoir fluid, to
pneumatically pressurized? operate the autoslats
Ans: to prevent foaming of the fluid (causes 17 Where is the cooling unit for the "A" system?
pump cavitation). Ans: in the #1 tank, "B" system cooler is in #2
6 Why isn't the standby system pneumatically tank
pressurized? 18 Where are the hydraulic reservoirs located?
Ans: it is designed without a provision for air to Ans: in the wheel well. A in the middle, B on the
be in the reservoir, but it is pressurized right side.
hydraulically by a balance line from B system. 19 What is the normal fluid level for system "A"?
7 If a leak developed in the "A" system engine driven Ans: full - 4.7 US gals , refill - 4.2 US gals
pump, what indication would you expect to see on 20 What is the normal fluid level for system "B"?
the quantity gauge? Ans: full - 7.2 US Gals
Ans: the quantity gauge would read one quarter refill - 6.4 US Gals
full. 21 If a leak developed in the engine driven pump,
8 If a leak developed elsewhere in the "A" system, what indication would you expect to see in the "B"
what indication would you expect to see on the system?
quantity gauge? Ans: the quantity gauge would read half full.
Ans: quantity would read zero and the pressure 22 If a leak developed in the "B" system electric
would be lost pump, what indication would you expect?
9 Which annunciator lights would illuminate with a Ans: the quantity gauge would read nearly empty
complete loss of "A" system hydraulics? and "B" system pressure would be
Ans: 1. MASTER CAUTION lost.
2. FLT CONTROL 23 Where are the thermal sensors located for the
3. HYD electric pumps?
4. SYSTEM "A" FLT CONTROL LOW Ans: in the pump case drain lines and pump
PRESSURE housing.
5. FEEL DIFF PRESS 24 Where are the temperature sensors for the engine
6. SYSTEM "A" ENG and ELEC PUMP driven pumps?
LOW PRESS Ans: the engine driven pumps do not have
10 What components would become inoperative with sensors.
this condition? 25 When do the electric pumps automatically shut
Ans: 1. PTU down?
2. normal landing gear extension Ans: they don't.
3. NLG steering 26 What prevents each system ("A" or "B") from
4. alternate brakes being totally lost due to a pump related leak?
5. ground spoilers Ans: a system of stand pipes and check valves.
6. inboard flight spoilers 27 Will the engine driven pumps be harmed by
7. "A" autopilot pulling a fire handle?
8.engine #1 has standby reverse operation Ans: yes, pulling the fire handles will block pump
11 What should you know about reverser operation in input and will cause the pumps to
this condition? be ruined if the engine continues to windmill.
Ans: the reverser will probably act slower than
normal and may induce a control
problem if reverse is used too quickly
12 What is the function of the PTU?
Page 11
28 What does the control switch do to the engine
driven pumps?
Ans: it blocks pump output and will not cause
harm to the pump if the engine continues to run or
windmill.
29 Which annunciator lights illuminate with a loss of
"B" system pressure?
Ans: 1. MASTER CAUTION
2. FLT CONTROL
3. HYD
4. SYSTEM "B" FLT CONTROL LOW
PRESSURE
5. SYSTEM "B" ENG & ELEC PUMP
LOW PRESS
6. FEEL DIFF PRESS
30 What components will be lost with a loss of "B"
system pressure?
Ans: 1. Normal brakes
2. Outboard flight spoilers.
3. Normal leading and trailing edge flaps
and slats
4. Yaw damper
5. "B" autopilot.
6. B thrust reverser slow
7. LGTU (landing gear transfer unit)
31 What else would you lose with a loss of "B"
system?
Ans: alternate gear retraction
32 If a leak developed in the lines of the electric pump
and all pressure was lost, would the PTU still be
operational?
Ans: yes
33 How is the standby system reservoir pressurized?
Ans: it is pressurized by fluid from "B" system
through a balance line
34 How is the standby system activated?
Ans: 1. by placing either flight control switch to
its "standby rudder" position
2. placing the alternate flap master switch to
"on"
3. automatically if either "A" or "B" system
pressure is lost and:
A. the flaps are extended
B. the aircraft is airborne or the wheel
speed is above 60k on the ground
35 What else happens when you place either flight
control switch to the STANDBY RUDDER
position?
Ans: the normal flight control hydraulics are shut
off for the associated "A" or "B"
system
36 When is the STANDBY LOW QUANTITY light
armed?
Ans: it is always armed
37 When is the STANDBY LOW PRESSURE light
armed?
Ans: whenever the standby pump is operating
Page 12
Landing Gear 15 During normal operations, when would you
expect to see the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light
1 What is the nacelle (NLG) turning authority? illuminate?
Ans: 7 degrees through the rudder pedals, 78 Ans: 1. When the takeoff is rejected
degrees through the nacelle steering between 60 & 90 knots
2 What does the nacelle lockout pin do? 2. 2 minutes after landing if the selector
Ans: it locks out "A" system pressure to the switch has been left in the RTO
nacelle position.
3 How is the nacelle lockout pin installed? 16 Beyond 90k, when will autobraking be initiated?
Ans: the cylinder dome must be pushed inward to Ans: when the throttles are brought to idle.
install the pin 17 What level of braking is applied by the RTO
4 Does this mean that the aircraft can be safely towed feature?
with the system pressurized? Ans: the equivalent of full manual braking.
Ans: yes 18 What are the requirements to arm the auto brake
5 Where is nacelle steering fluid taken from? system?
Ans: from the "down" side of the landing gear Ans: 1. the aircraft must be in flight
hydraulic system 2. the anti-skid switch must be on
6 What is the function of the landing gear transfer 3. the auto brake switch must be selected to
unit (LGTU)? the desired braking level
Ans: it ensures gear retraction in the event of a 19 Will auto braking be available if "B" system
loss of power (N2 -56%) on engine #1 pressure is lost?
on takeoff Ans: no
7 What is the power source for the LGTU? 20 Once activated, how are the Autobrake feature and
Ans: "B" system engine driven pump RTO disarmed?
8 What activates the LGTU? Ans: 1. moving the speed brake handle to
Ans: #1 engine rpm dropping below a set value the down position
(N 2 -56%) with the Landing gear 2. advancing the thrust levers
lever in the "UP" position (and the gear not up) 3. positioning the switch to "off"
9 What is the normal fluid decrease with gear 4. application of manual brakes
retraction? 21 When will the "Anti-skid inop" light illuminate?
Ans: .8 gal Ans: whenever there is a system malfunction or a
10 What is the normal decrease with flap extension? disagreement between the parking
Ans: .4 gal brake lever and the parking brake shutoff valve
11 What accounts for this fluid variation? position.
Ans: led extension and retraction, the flaps are 22 With the flaps set at 1 degree through 10 degrees,
operated by a hydraulically driven when would you first expect to get a landing gear
jackscrew warning horn?
12 What conditions are required for the "RTO" to Ans: when either or both thrust levers are between
arm? idle and approximately 10 degrees
Ans: 1. the aircraft must be on the ground from the idle position.
2. wheel speed must be less than 60k 23 Can this horn be silenced?
3. anti-skid must be on Ans: yes.
4. RTO must be selected 24 With the flaps set at 15 degrees, when would you
5. thrust levers must be positioned to idle expect to get a warning horn?
6. normal "B" system pressure available Ans: with either thrust lever between idle and 10
degrees with the other thrust lever
13 When will the RTO normally be disarmed? set at 30 degrees or greater, this horn can also be
Ans: 1. when the switch is placed to the silenced.
"off" position 25 When would you get a landing gear warning horn
2. when the aircraft becomes airborne (right which couldn't be silenced?
main gear strut extended) Ans. With the flaps at 15 degrees with both thrust
14 How do you know that the RTO is operational? levers below 30 degrees, or when
Ans: when RTO is selected, the "AUTO BRAKE the flaps are set at more than 15 degrees with the
DISARM" light illuminates for gear up, regardless of thrust lever
approximately 2 seconds, as a self-test. position.

Page 13
26 What does the tire screen annunciator light
indicate?
Ans: that one of the tire screen locking pins is not
properly seated/screens not secure
27 If this light illuminated on the ground, what would
your action be?
Ans: have the problem corrected. Equipment
damage could result if the gear was
retracted with a loose screen.
28 How can the tire screen light be extinguished?
Ans: only by correcting the problem

Brakes

29 How is hydraulic fluid routed for normal braking?

Ans: through the brake metering valves and the
anti-skid valves.
30 Can the brakes be locked with the anti-skid system
operational?
Ans: no (unless braking action is "nil")
31 When will alternate braking be in effect?
Ans: whenever "B" system pressure is low
32 Will alternate anti-skid also be available?
Ans: yes.
33 How does alternate anti-skid differ from normal
anti-skid?
Ans: alternate anti-skid controls each pair of
wheels, as opposed to individual wheels.
34 When alternate braking is being used, how is the
fluid routed?
Ans: it is routed through the alternate brake
metering valves and the alternate
anti-skid valves, using hydraulic system A.
35 If both system "A" and "B" pressure is lost, is
there any power source for brake application?
Ans: yes, from the brake accumulator
36 What is the brake accumulator precharge?
Ans: 1000 psi

Page 14
Flight Controls 14 What three things does the alternate flap switch
do?
1 What is a key for remembering the components on Ans. 1. it closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve
the "B" system? 2. it activates the standby hydraulic pump
Ans: 1. B system provides for the primary flight 3. it arms the alternate flap position switch
controls (along with A system) 15 If RTO is selected, is it necessary to position the
2. thereafter: "Break (brakes) out the leading speed brake lever to the "Armed position?
and trailing edge (outboard flight Ans: no, a piston will drive the lever upward.
spoilers) flap yaw damper for alternate gear 16 Whenever the RTO function operates, what is the
retraction," all other sequence of events for the RTO function?
components and the primary flight controls Ans:1. below 60k, RTO may be armed
are on the "A" system. 2. between 60 and 90 knots, AUTO
2 With all hydraulic pressure lost, how are the BRAKE DISARM light illuminates, and
controls moved? auto braking is not initiated, but spoilers
Ans: the control surfaces are being operated come up
directly, not through tab movement 3. ≥ 90k, the spoilers will deploy and full
3 When do the spoilers displace for roll movements? braking will be applied
Ans: when the yoke is moved beyond 10 degrees 17 When is the RTO feature disarmed?
4 In the event of a jammed aileron condition, what Ans: when the right strut extends or the switch is
controls could the First Officer operate? placed to the OFF position
Ans: the spoilers only 18 What is a requirement for the RTO and Auto
5 Given the same condition, what controls would the Brake functions to work?
Captain's yoke operate? Ans: the anti-skid must be "ON"
Ans: none, the ailerons and the Captain's yoke are 19 What does the "SPEED BRAKE DO NOT
inoperative (if the ailerons jam, the FO has ARM" light tell us?
spoilers, and if the spoilers jam, the Captain has Ans: there is a failure in the automatic system, the
ailerons). speed brake should not be armed for landing. It
6 What devices provide the pilots with control feel? must be manually raised on landing.
Ans: the feel mechanism (ailerons & rudder) and 20 When would you expect to see this light
the elevator feel computer illuminate?
7 What is the function of the trim override switch? Ans: only when the speed brake is raised from the
Ans: it bypasses the control column cutout switch, full down position
permitting trim to be used when
the control column is in an opposing position 21 If the speed brakes lever is in the armed position,
8 What powers the yaw damper? when will the flight spoilers raise on touchdown?
Ans: "B" system hydraulics Ans: 1. when any two main wheels spin-up, and:
9 In the event of a "B" system pressure loss, is the 2. both thrust levers are in the idle position.
yaw damper disengaged? 22 When will the ground spoilers deploy?
Ans: no, this will only occur if the "B" flight Ans: when the right strut switch is activated
control switch is positioned to "off",(the yaw 23 If wheel spin-up is not detected, how does the
damper switch will then move to the "off" system operate?
position,) Ans: the speed brakes lever will move to the up
10 Does this mean that the yaw damper is still position and all spoilers will deploy upon
effective with a loss of "B" system pressure? activation of the right strut switch.
Ans: no, the system is still sensing, but cannot 24 When will the ground and flight spoilers retract
function without "B" system pressure after touchdown?
11 When else would you expect the yaw damper to Ans: when either thrust lever is advanced from the
automatically disengage? idle position
Ans: with a power loss 25 What does the Mach trim system do?
12 Does the yaw damper function the same Ans: provides speed stability at the higher Mach
throughout all regimes of flight? numbers. It adjusts the elevators with respect to
Ans: no, the air data computer limits the yaw the stabilizer
damper response at higher airspeeds 26 When is the Mach trim activated?
13 How many switches could turn on the standby Ans: above Mach .615
hydraulic pump? 27 What is the speed limit if the Mach trim is
Ans: three, either flight control switch or the inoperative?
alternate flap switch Ans: Mach .74
Page 15
28 If a single Mach trim channel is inoperative, will 41 What is the normal maximum altitude for flap
you see the problem annunciated? operation?
Ans: no, not until the recall function is used. This Ans: 20,000 feet
is a dual channel system 42 What powers the trim system?
29 When would you expect to see this problem Ans: the stabilizer trim is electric/manual, the
automatically annunciated? ailerons and rudder are hydraulic only
Ans: only when both channels have failed 43 What determines the stabilizer trim motor speed?
30 How does the speed trim system operate? Ans: it operates at high speed with the flaps
Ans: it uses various logic sensors to "conclude" extended, low speed with the flaps up
that the aircraft has: 44 If hydraulic power is lost to the ailerons or rudder,
1. a low gross weight can they be trimmed in any other way?
2. a slow speed (90-250 kts) Ans: no. Only the stabilizer trim has a manual
3. an aft CG backup.
5. flaps extended 45 With respect to the aileron and rudder trim, what
6. Five seconds since release of trim mechanism does the trim directly effect?
7. 10 seconds after liftoff Ans: the feel and centering mechanism
8. autopilot not engaged 46 What will cause the elev feel diff press light to
It uses the autopilot trim to reposition the stabilizer illuminate?
to a new "neutral" position to offer more nose- Ans: a 25% difference between system "A" &
down authority. "B" (with flaps extended, light will not
31 When is the speed trim armed? illuminate).
Ans: whenever the flaps are extended 47 What would typically cause this light to
32 What would cause the speed trim light to illuminate?
illuminate? Ans: a blocked probe on the vertical stabilizer or a
Ans: failure of both channels. loss of one hydraulic system.
Dual channel system 48 How does the flap load limiter operate?
33 What is the normal pressure source for the LEDs? Ans: when the flaps are at 40 degrees, the flaps
Ans: "B" system hydraulics will automatically reposition to 30
34 What is the alternate pressure source? degrees when the airspeed exceeds approximately
Ans: standby pressure 158 ±2 knots. They will again
35 When will the leading edge flaps extend fully? position to 40 degrees when the speed falls below
Ans: when the flap handle is moved from the approximately 152 ±2 knots.
"up" position 49 How are the alternate flaps operated?
36 When do the leading edge slats normally extend Ans: the alternate flap switch must be positioned
fully? to the arm position, the flaps are
Ans: when the flap lever is moved beyond the 5 then actuated using the adjacent toggle switch.
degree position
37 When would you expect the autoslats to operate?
Ans: at a high angle of attack, prior to the onset of
the stick shaker, (flaps must be
extended 1 through 5 degrees.)

38 What is the normal pressure source for the

autoslats?
Ans: "B" system
39 What is the alternate source of pressure?
Ans: the PTU, using "A" system pressure to
power a hydraulic motor/pump unit,
which uses "B" system fluid to pressurize the
LEDs
40 What is important for you to know about the
position of the flaps?
Ans: from 1 degree through 15 degrees, you are
gaining primarily lift. The flaps are
not that effective as drag devices until past flaps
15

Page 16
Electrical System 14 What other lights would you expect to see?
Ans: the MASTER CAUTION lights and the
1 What are the electrical sources for the 737? ELEC annunciator
Ans: 1. Engine driven generators. 15 If this condition occurred, is there any way to
2. APU. "manually" initiate the transfer of power?
3. Ground power Ans: no, you could only try recycling the
4. Battery for Standby Bus associated switches and circuit breakers.
2 What is the max rated output for the engine driven 16 Why should you be careful in doing this?
generators? Ans: the problem could be due to a catastrophic
Ans: 125 amps, 45 kva. failure which would invite trouble by re-exciting
3 How are the normal AC busses arranged? the circuit.
Ans: each generator "system" consists of a 17 If you were in doubt as to whether you lost a
generator, main, and transfer bus. The generator or a generator bus, how could you
high load items are on the gen & main busses, so determine which you had lost?
that in the event of an emergency Ans: try putting the APU generator on the
power transfer, the electrical system can't be appropriate bus.
overloaded. 18 What forward panel annunciator light would you
4 How else could you describe the generator and expect to see if a CSD encountered a high oil
main busses? temperature condition?
Ans: they could be described as "Non-Essential Ans: "ELEC"
busses" 19 Where is the CSD oil pressure sensor located?
5 What is the distinction between the generator & Ans: in the inlet line to the CSD
main busses? 20 When would you expect to see the blue "APU
Ans: they are separated by a 50 amp circuit GEN" light illuminate?
breaker Ans: whenever the APU is capable of supplying
6 Would it then be safe to describe the transfer busses normal AC power to the aircraft and
as "Essential busses"? neither bus is currently being supplied by the
Ans: yes. APU. Does not mean this is good power.
7 What is the main advantage of this type of 21 If ground power is being supplied to the aircraft
arrangement? and APU power is put on one bus, does the
Ans: downloading and paralleling are never a ground power trip off the line?
problem Ans: only to the side being powered by the APU,
8 How would you describe the power transfer system it will continue to supply power to
on the 737? the other side until ground power is removed, or
Ans: it is a partial power transfer system another power source powers that
9 How does this work? bus.
Ans: if a generator bus fails, its associated transfer 22 What is the primary source for DC power?
bus automatically switches to the Ans: three normal TRs and a ground service TR.
opposite generator bus. Also, "auto load 23 How are the TRs designed to operate?
shedding" takes place. Ans: under normal conditions, TR 1 & 2 power
10 When you place the gen switch to "ON", what is their respective DC busses from
taking place within the circuitry? their respective transfer bus and "backup" each
Ans: the generator field is being energized other. TR 3 normally supplies the
11 What problem source is indicated if a generator is battery bus and it will back-up TRs 1 & 2.
showing a fluctuating frequency? 24 Can either TR #1 or #2 backup TR #3?
Ans: a CSD problem Ans: no
12 What problem source is indicated by a fluctuating 25 Under what conditions would TR #3 not back up
voltage? DC bus #1?
Ans: normally, a voltage regulator problem; if it is Ans: whenever the bus transfer switch is "off" or
associated with a high amperage, both nav receivers are tuned to the
it could be a system short circuit. same localize frequency and the glideslope has
13 If a generator failed and automatic switching of the been captured during an autopilot or flight director
transfer bus failed, what would be your indication ILS approach.
of this condition?
Ans: you would see the TRANSFER BUS OFF,
BUS OFF, and GEN OFF BUS lights
illuminated.
Page 17
26 What would you expect to see on the DC meters if 38 Will the normal (#1 transfer bus) power source be
#1 TR or #2 TR failed? disconnected if the standby switch is placed in the
Ans: zero amps when the failed TR was selected, BAT position?
as well as an increased load on the Ans: yes.
working TR. Voltage would be normal. 39 When will the auto standby system work?
27 What would your indication be if TR #3 was Ans: in the air only.
selected and #3 TR had failed? 40 Why is this information important to us?
Ans: zero volts and amps. Ans: in the event of an evacuation, the standby
28 Why do you get these particular indications? switch must be positioned to BAT to use
Ans: voltage for TR/s #1 & #2 are read from the the #1 radio.
associated load bus (amps from 41 Under what normal condition would you expect to
TR); readings for TR #3 are taken directly from see the Stby Pwr Off light illuminated?
the TR. Ans: when turning on the battery switch on a
29 What is the power source for TR #3? "cold" airplane.
Ans: #2 main bus 42 How else might you think of the standby power
30 How could you verify that TR #1 had failed? off light?
Ans: place the bus transfer switch to "off". This Ans: it could be thought of as an essential power
isolates TRs #1 & #2, therefore, if warning light
TR #1 has failed, it will show zero volts and 43 What would be a reason to switch the standby
amps. switch to BAT on the ground?
31 If you lost a DC bus, what indication would you Ans: when refueling a "cold" airplane or needing
have? to use the #1 VHF radio
Ans: component loss only, there is no annunciator 44 How does the bus transfer system work?
or warning light associated with a Ans: If a GEN BUS lost power, the respective
lost DC bus. transfer BUS will automatically
32 Is there a desirable position for the DC meter receive power from the other GEN BUS.
selector? 45 What happens when the bus transfer switch is
Ans: yes, the #3 TR position. In this position, you placed to the "off" position?
can monitor #3 TR & possibly see Ans: the transfer busses are isolated and the TR
a load increase if #1 or #2 TR failed. This position #3 Disconnect relay is opened. The
also gives you the knowledge battery charger will be prevented from switching
that the battery bus is being powered normally. to its alternate power source (main
33 What is the normal power source for the standby bus #2).
AC bus? 46 What is a unique characteristic of the battery bus?
Ans: #1 transfer bus. Ans: it is a "floating bus". It is normally
34 If the DC meter switch is placed to the STBY connected to TR 3, however it is unpowered
PWR position, what would you be able to read? with the battery switched off and it is again
Ans: voltage only powered from the hot battery bus with
35 Normally, what would you expect to happen if the the STBY switch in the BAT position.
#1 DC bus or the #1 transfer bus failed? 47 What is a more accurate perception of the "Battery
Ans: the battery bus would automatically power Switch"?
the standby AC and DC busses. Ans: it may be more accurately thought of as the
What would indicate that the battery bus and the "battery bus switch"
#1 transfer bus had failed? 48 When is the battery being charged?
Ans: the standby power off light would illuminate Ans: whenever there is AC power on the airplane,
(which means that you have lost the ground service bus is normally
power to the AC STBY bus) powering the battery charger with main bus #2 as
36 What else would this light tell you? an alternate
Ans: that the protective circuit had failed to 49 In the event of an automatic power transfer, is the
automatically switch the battery bus to battery still being charged?
the hot battery bus, or that you have lost the Ans: yes,
battery bus. 50 Can the battery be charged from an external battery
37 What would your corrective action be? cart?
Ans: place the standby switch to BAT. Ans: no, the battery is paralleled with the external
cart

Page 18
51 Can the battery bus be powered from two sources
at once?
Ans: no
52 What is the rating of the battery?
Ans: 36 amp hour
53 What is considered the "normal" voltage range of
the battery?
Ans: 22 - 30 volts
54 How long should it last in a standby power
operation?
Ans: 30 minutes
55 In the event of a total loss of electrical power, what
should one of your first actions be?
Ans: check the clock to time your battery reserve
56 What is the minimum battery voltage for starting
the APU?
Ans: 23 volts
57 What are the two direct sources of power for the
battery bus?
Ans: #3 TR, or the hot battery bus
58 Which is the primary source?
Ans: #3 TR
59 What are the indirect sources of power for the
battery bus?
Ans: the battery or the battery charger.
60 What are the two direct sources of power for the
battery charger?
Ans: the ground service bus with the main bus #2
as a backup.
61 What are the two sources of power for the ground
service bus?
Ans: 1. the #1 generator bus
2. ground power unit via the Gnd Service
Switch
62 Is there a condition when the battery charger could
be unpowered while an AC source was operating
and available?
Ans: yes, if the ground service bus was
unpowered with the bus transfer switch in the
"off" position.
63 What is the normal voltage range of the TRs?
Ans: 24 - 30
64 What is the normal load limit of the TRs?
Ans: 65 amps with cooling; 50 amps without
cooling.
65 What normal loads would you expect to see on the
TRs?
Ans: 5 - 15 amps. Max to 65 amps.
66 When is the ground service bus powered?
Ans: whenever external power is available and the
Ground Service Switch is "on"
or the generator bus #1 is powered.
67 Where is the ground service switch located?
Ans: at the forward flight attendant station by the
forward entry
68 What is the power source for galley power?
Ans: the generator busses.
Page 19
Ice and Rain Protection 16 If the wing TAI switch is left in the "on" position,
when will it trip to "off"?
1 What do the amber lights indicate on the windshield Ans: On liftoff. The valves will close when the
Anti Ice control panel? throttles are advanced.
Ans: that power has been removed to that window 17 With this in mind, what should you be careful to
or an overheat condition consider when departing in icing conditions?
2 How do you test the window heat? Ans: be careful to remember to turn the wing TAI
Ans: place the test switch to the overheat position back on when airborne (800')
and observe the illumination of the 18 If a pitot heat annunciator light illuminates, will
amber light. you expect to see any other lights?
3 What is a precaution to observe when using the Ans: yes, the master caution and the anti-ice
power test? annunciator light.
Ans: don't test if all green lights are on.
4 If the window heat switches are on and there are no
lights illuminated, what condition is indicated?
Ans: the windows are up to design temperature or
window heat inop
5 What is unique about the #3 side window?
Ans: it is not heated, but the double pane is vented
to cabin
6 What bus controls the engine TAI?
Ans: the battery bus.
7 How is the engine TAI valve operated?
Ans: it is electrically controlled, pneumatically
operated.
8 What causes the illumination of the amber COWL
ANTI-ICE light?
Ans: high temperature or over pressure.
9 What does the engine TAI control operate?
Ans: the engine cowl bleed air valve.
10 What weather conditions require the use of engine
TAI?
Ans: whenever icing conditions are anticipated.
This is normally defined as a
temperature below 50 degrees F, with visible
moisture or fog with a visibility
less than 1 mile.
11 What would your indication be of a disagreement
between the engine TAI switch and the cowl anti-
ice valve position?
Ans: you would see a bright blue COWL
VALVE OPEN light.
12 Does the wing TAI also protect the leading edge
flaps?
Ans: no, only the 3 outboard slats (there are 3
slats on each side; total of 6).
13 How are the wing TAI valves operated?
Ans: they are motor operated, powered from the
opposite transfer bus. The control
switch is on the battery bus.
14 How is the bleed air carried to the individual slats?
Ans: through telescoping ducts.
15 On the ground, when can the wing TAI valves
open?
Ans: when the thrust is below the takeoff warning
level and the bleed air
temperature is below 125 degrees C.
Page 20
Fire and Overheat Protection 17 Does the APU detector (T handle light) indicate
an overheat condition as well as a fire?
1 What type of fire detectors does the 737 use? Ans: no, only a fire
Ans: kiddie loops for the engines and APU; and a 18 Does the APU DET INOP light indicate a circuit
phenol metallic loop in the wheel fault or a detector fault?
well area. Ans: indicates a fault in: FM 10-10 says
2 How many detectors does each engine have? "detection circuit", and FM 10-2 says
Ans: 4 dual element overheat/fire detection loops "fire detection loop". Circuit fault is most
installed in each engine nacelle accurate.
3 How many for the APU? 19 Normally, what does the FAULT light indicate?
Ans: one Ans: a valid test or a failure in both loops of
4 How does the system distinguish between an either engine
overheat and a fire? 20 What is the exception to the "both" requirement?
Ans: by a preset temperature threshold Ans: If the detector is set in either A or B position
5 Normally, how many loops are required to be in an as opposed to "normal".
overheat condition to signal a warning? 21 With the test switch placed in the FAULT/INOP
Ans: two position, what is being indicated?
6 What is the exception? Ans: the APU fault monitoring circuit and APU
Ans: if one loop has failed or either A or B are detector circuit is being tested. Not
selected on the fire panel, as opposed the detectors.
to "normal". 22 How many lights would you expect to see
7 fire detection? illuminated during this test?
Ans: the battery bus Ans: five.
8 What is the power source for the engine and APU 23 What is being tested with the same switch placed
protection? in the OVHT/FIRE position?
Ans: the hot battery bus Ans: all of the detectors.
9 Does the wheel well light indicate a fire or an 24 How many lights would you expect to see
overheat condition? illuminated during this test?
Ans: only a fire Ans: 11, if the aircraft has normal AC power; 10
10 Why is a wheel well fire warning so serious on the if not.
B-737? 25 Which light would not illuminate without AC
Ans: because a subsequent tire explosion could power?
damage much of the hydraulics and Ans: the wheel well light.
the engine fire bottles. 26 What is the power source for the wheel well fire
11 What would this threat lead you to believe? detection?
Ans: that gear extension is an immediate priority Ans: #1 AC transfer bus
in the event of a wheel well fire 27 What is being tested in the case of the wheel well
warning. fire test?
12 Where is the external APU fire control panel Ans: circuit continuity. The detectors are not
located? being heated.
Ans: in the right wheel well 28 How are the "Bottle discharge" lights tested?
13 What would be the external indication of an APU Ans: with the forward panel light test switch
fire? 29 What is being tested with the "EXT TEST"
Ans: an intermittent horn and a flashing red light switch?
on the external APU fire control Ans: the individual fire bottle squids.
panel. 30 How many lights illuminate with the switch placed
14 Will the horn sound in the air? in the #1 or #2 position?
Ans: no, on the ground only. Ans: three lights in both positions
15 What would be an indication that the cockpit crew 31 How many ways can you silence the fire bell?
had canceled the fire bell in the cockpit? Ans: Ans: three:
the red light on the external APU fire control panel 1. Either fire master warning light
would change from 2. The fire panel "BELL CUTOUT"
flashing to steady. switch
16 When would this light completely extinguish? 3. The wheel well fire panel cutout switch
Ans: only when the detector had cooled below the
alarm threshold.

Page 21
32 What technique should you use in discharging a
fire bottle?
Ans: rotate the handle and hold it until you see the
"discharge" light illuminate.

33 When you pull an engine fire handle, what actions

take place?
Ans: 1. One discharge squid is armed on each
fire bottle.
2. Closes the: A. Fuel shutoff valve. B.
Bleed air C. Thrust reverser, and D.
Hydraulic shutoff valve.
3. Trips the generator control relay and
generator breaker.
4. Disarms the associated hydraulic "LOW
PRESSURE" light.
34 What actions take place when you pull the APU
fire handle?
Ans: 1. The fire bottle discharge squid is armed.
2. Closes the air inlet door, fuel shutoff
valve, and the bleed air valve.
3. Trips the generator control relay and
generator breaker.
35 What precludes the accidental pulling of the fire
handles?
Ans: a lock which must be manually unlocked or
electrically unlocked due to a fire
warning.
36 What would your indication be of a lavatory fire
bottle discharge?
Ans: a blackened temperature "dot" and a silvered
discharge nozzle tip.
37 What is the normal engine fire bottle pressure?
Ans: 800 psi. at 70 degrees F. (see in wheel well)
38 What is the normal APU bottle pressure?
Ans: 600 psi. (can't see)
39 What would be your external indication of an
APU fire bottle discharge?
Ans: a missing yellow disc on the right aft
fuselage (the other disc is red for thermal)
40 What agent is used for the extinguishers?
Ans: freon

Page 22
Powerplant 16 How does the high idle feature work?
Ans: it precludes the engines from being
1 What is the designation of the engines on the B- unspooled in the air.
737-300? 17 What determines the "high idle" power setting?
Ans: CFM-56-3. Ans: go-around capability
2 What is the thrust rating of these engines? 18 When will the engines again go to "low" idle?
Ans: 20,000 lbs. Ans: on landing when the aircraft has been on the
3 Where is most of the thrust of the engines obtained? ground for 4 seconds or longer.
Ans: from the fan blade (80%). 19 What is the approximate "high" idle setting?
4 Ans: variable, from about 29% N 1 on the ground
Ans: it could be described as a fixed pitch, ducted to about 34% N 1 at cruise
turbo-prop. 20 When does the LOW IDLE light (overhead panel)
5 How would you describe the function of the fuel illuminate?
control system? Ans: whenever the "high" idle feature fails and is
Ans: the power is primarily set through the MEC, required (ie: you're in Low, when
according to throttle position, and it should be in High)
then "trimmed" through the PMC. 21 What is the approximate "low" idle setting?
6 How would you describe the fuel control Ans: 21.5% N1
mechanism?
22 What drives the first and second stages of the fuel
Ans: it is an electronically monitored Fuel Control
pump?
Unit (FCU), using an electronic
Ans: N2
power management control.
7 How may the PMC be bypassed? 23 How is the MEC valve operated?
Ans: by turning off the PMC switches or by an Ans: it is mechanically connected to the start lever
automatic shutdown. 24 How is the main fuel shutoff valve operated?
Ans: it is a motor operated valve powered by the
8 What inputs does the PMC use? battery bus, (connected to the start
Ans: throttle angle, N 1 speed, inlet temperature lever and fire switch).
25 When is the fuel heated?
and pressure.
Ans: it is constantly heated
9 Is the PMC dependent on throttle position?
26 How is the fuel heated?
Ans: no, it only uses throttle position as an
Ans: it is heated through an engine oil heat
information input.
exchanger
10 Does the PMC offer overspeed or over-
27 Where is the oil pressure sensed?
temperature protection?
Ans: on the outlet side of the oil pump
Ans: yes, both.
28 What is a characteristic of the oil pressure?
11 Why is this information important to you?
Ans: it is unregulated and will vary widely.
Ans: if you needed to "firewall" the engines in an
29 What is the minimum oil pressure under any
emergency, the PMCs could limit
conditions?
your power availability to a dangerous degree.
Ans: 13 psi. Less than 13 psi will illuminate the
12 With regard to this possibility, what should you be
warning light.
aware of?
30 Where is the oil temperature sensed?
Ans: if you could anticipate such a situation, it
Ans: the temperature is sensed as the oil leaves the
might be prudent to turn off the PMCs
engine.
prior to "firewalling" the engines.
31 How do the reversers operate?
13 When does the PMC affect the engine?
Ans: fan air is deflected forward by a translating
Ans: above 46% N 2
sleeve on the engine cowling.
14 When would you expect the PMC to automatically 32 What are the requirements for the engine reversers
shut down? to operate?
Ans: whenever its self-test feature detects a fault Ans: 1. The fire switch must be off.
15 How would you know that it had automatically 2. The squat switch must be activated or
shut down? either radar altimeter sensing less than 10'.
Ans: it would illuminate the master caution, PMC 33 What actuates the reversers?
INOP and the ENG annunciator. Ans: normally, "A" system operates engine 1,
The engine N 1 would also start to drift. "B" system operates engine 2. Standby
hydraulics will operate both reversers, however
they will be slower acting.

Page 23
34 If normal hydraulics fail on a reverser, how is the 47 What fuel flow would you expect to see for a
standby pressure actuated? normal start?
Ans: through a pressure operated shuttle valve Ans: 720 pph.
35 If the reverser(s) are being operated from the 48 During a battery start, when would you raise the
standby system what other factors should you be start lever?
aware of? Ans: after 30 seconds of starter engagement.
Ans: the reversers may not act symmetrically and 49 When would you expect to see starter cutout?
the reversers may not completely Ans: 46% N2
stow after use 50 When is the latest that you must see oil pressure
36 What hydraulic valves are being operated by the indicated?
reverse levers? Ans: by the time the engine is stabilized at idle
Ans: the isolation valve (held open by solenoid) 51 Does the igniter selector control individual igniters
and the "deploy/stow" selector valves or each igniter on both engines.?
37 Is the selector valve mechanically or electrically Ans: each igniter on both engines.
operated? 52 Which igniters does the FLT position power?
Ans: it is mechanically operated Ans: both igniters on the individual engine.
38 When does the overhead reverser light illuminate? 53 Which igniters will the CONT position power?
Ans: whenever there is a disagreement between Ans: the selected igniter(s) on the individual
the positions of the isolation valve engine.
position and the selector valve position or 54 What is the power rating of the igniters?
between the reverser sleeve position Ans: 20 joule.
sensors. 55 What is the power source for the igniters?
39 When would you normally expect these lights to Ans: the left igniters are powered by the AC
illuminate? transfer bus, while the right igniters are
Ans: during reverser deployment or stowage powered by the AC standby bus (required for
40 If there was a problem with the system during dispatch).
stowage, when would you expect to see an 56 What is the significance of this information?
annunciation of the problem? Ans: the right igniters are a NO-GO item per the
Ans: if a disagreement is sensed for more than 12 MEL.
seconds, the MASTER caution light 57 How could you check the right igniters?
will illuminate as well as the ENG annunciator. Ans: start the engines using the right igniters, then
41 Under normal conditions, what would you expect use the left igniters for other
to happen if a reverser inadvertently moved aft? needs.
Ans: the "auto restow" function would
automatically command the reverser to stow.
42 In flight, what would be an indication that the
reverse lock had failed and the system was
working properly?
Ans: the reverser UNLOCKED light would cycle,
indicating the system was
constantly detecting the condition and correcting it.
43 What is the function of the reverse interlock?
Ans: it limits the amount of thrust which can be
applied when the reversers are in the
incorrect position for the forward or reverse thrust
commanded.
44 When is the interlock taken out of the system?
Ans: whenever the reverser sleeves are in the
process of being deployed or stowed. What is the
minimum pneumatic pressure for engine starting?
Ans: 30 psi. (minus 1/2 psi per 1000' elevation)
45 What is the normal N2 for raising the start lever?
Ans: 25% normal, 20% minimum (max
motoring)
46 When is the latest that you would expect to see N1
rotation?
Ans: 20% N2 .
Page 24
FAA oral given several years ago: Typical oral:
A. what do you have left when on standby power? ALL Limitations! Must know ALL limits up front, or
B. what engine instruments are left on standby? the oral stops at that point!
C. what are the red lights on N1, N2 & EGT (at 2 & 3 Basic questions on almost all switch, light, and flag
o’clock)? functions; if you know them, you're golden. Moved
D. if start valve does not close, what do you do and in depth on some things, but if you've got the basics,
why? you can stumble a little here. P&P problem
E. what is difference between LE flaps transit light on concerning Max landing weights (use Approach
fwd panel and transit yellow lights on aft Climb Limit charts, deduct for icing conditions, etc.).
overhead?
F. what are little bars under numbers on flap indicator?
Discussion of asymmetrical flaps (2°). Led into
low idle light, what is it, when is it on? Flap limit
speeds? Don’t call for flap speeds till you see that
flaps are moving else could exceed flap limit
speeds. Look for this on the sim check.
G. Hydraulic
1. what to look for on gages? What do you see if a
leak in A or B? Discussion of Landing Gear
Transfer Unit. Do system A and B mix fluid?
Yes, through LGTU. Boeing incident.
H. Alternate flap limit = 1 cycle. What is 1 cycle?
15° or 40°?, therefore don’t normally have to
worry about time limit on alternate flaps.
Discussion of why time limit, i. e. 0 - 15 = more
lift, 15 - 30 = more drag; therefore more effort for
motor to drive flaps down.
I. limitations? - all
J. discuss standby power switch - what does it do?
K. discuss bus transfer switch - what does it do?
1. why are these two switches here? to isolate systems
L. what does flight recorder off light mean? Can you
go without F. R.?
M. discussion of duct overheat lights? What if in
conjunction w/ bleed trip off? What to do, i. e.
warm up, cool off?
N. L Wing body overheat light on. where are sensors?
What to do? Turn bleeds off and pressure stays
up, why? How to find pressure source? Why
important? What to do?
O. pressurization - what power sources? What
indicators do you have with electrical failure?
(Cabin rate of climb). How to control pressure?
P. discussion of fire warning system. What do you
see? What do you see on test? Discussion of
where are fuel valves and what opens or closes
them (fire switch @ fuel control, start lever @
strut). Mentioned to watch for fuel valve closed
light to indicate that valve actually closed. Look
for this in sim check
Q. Discussion of zero fuel weights

Page 25
PRACTICE ORAL (Misc. Topics) 9. If the Bleed Trip Off light illuminates, what has
happened?
(the following practice questions were compiled by a Ans. Sec 7-1,24 Indicates excessive engine bleed air
fellow pilot; reference page numbers are off slightly temperature or pressure.
due to flight manual changes) Associated bleed air valve closes automatically &
requires reset.
1. Does the B737 have fire extinguishers in cargo
compartments? 10. With the RECIRC FAN in Auto, when does the fan
Ans. No. Class D, no air circulation & fire is begin to operate?
unsustainable. Ans. Sec 7-25. Fan is signaled on except when both
2. With the Emer. Exit lights in the armed position what packs are operating with either
will cause the lights to come on Automatically? Pack switch in HIGH.
Ans. Sec 6-32; If the 28v DC Bus fails or if AC 11. What is purpose of the forward outflow valve and
power has been turned when does it open?
off, the Emer. Exit lites illuminate. i.e. loss of Ans. Opens when the RECIRC FAN is off. To
normal electrical power. Last approx. circulate air around forward cargo
20 mins.. Handout Gen. p. 6., Panel notes p. 38. 1 compartment for heating when RECIRC FAN is off.
minute on takes 48 min. to recharge. Forward outflow valve is
3. In flight if the gear horn sounds, under what conditions normally closed but will come on if RECIRC FAN
can it be silenced? goes off. It will close if main
Ans. Sec 6-37. Flaps 1 thru 10: can be silenced. outflow valve comes within 1/2 degree of closed.
Flaps 15: Either Th. lever <10 deg & opposite >30 12. Can the Wing-Body-Overheat lite be reset with the
deg: can be silenced. Trip Reset Button?
Both Th. levers <30 deg: CANNOT be silenced. Ans. No
Flaps Greater than 15: Regardless of throttles 13. What areas are covered by the Wing-Body-Overheat
position, CANNOT be Silenced. sensors?
4. What is inhibited with the GPWS Switch? Ans. Sec 7-4: Left Light: Left eng. strut, left leading
Ans. Sec 6-45. Inhibits or cancels warnings/alerts edge, left-hand air cond. bay, keel
caused by the flaps not in a landing beam, bleed duct from APU.
position. i.e. not gear & flaps like some airplanes. Right Light: right eng. strut, right leading edge, right
5. What conditions will activate the GPWS? air cond. bay.
Ans. Sec 6-38. 14. When does the flow control valve open?
Mode 1 - Excessive Descent Rate Ans. Sec 7-18. Opens to exhaust the cooling air from
Mode 2 - Excessive Terrain Closure Rate the E & E compartment
Mode 3 - Altitude Loss After Takeoff or Go-Around overboard during ground operation, unpressurized
Mode 4 - Unsafe Terrain Clearance when not in the flt., & pressurized flt below approx.
Landing Config. 2.5 psid
Mode 5 - Excessive Deviation below ILS GS (> 1.3 15. When would the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN (blue)
dots) light be illuminated?
Mode 6 - Below Selected Minimum Radio Altitude Ans. Sec 7-11: Whenever the temp. in the
Mode 7 - Windshear Condition Encountered (Takes compressor discharge side is high enough to
Priority) require more cooling. ie when on the ground or
6. With the isolation valve in Auto, what will cause it to during slow fight with the flaps not
open? fully retracted.
Ans. Any Engine bleed or Pack valve switch to off. 16. Horn sounds in the nose wheel well while doing your
Any of 4 corner switches to off. I.E. is "switch walk around. What does this mean to you?
sensitive". Ans. Sec 7-15. Loss of airflow due to failure of an
7. If the 5th stage bleed air is insufficient, is there an Equipment Cooling Fan. Will
augmenting system? illuminate the EQUIP COOLING OFF lite in
Ans. Yes, 9th stage. Sec. 7-3,1 cockpit.
8. Engine bleed valve acts as a pressure regulator, shutoff 17. What is the max diff. pressure expected on ground
valve & reverse flow pressure check valve. How is while taxing ?
this bleed valve powered? Ans. .125 psi.
Ans. Sec 7-1: DC activated & Pneumatically
operated. ie electrically
activated (controlled) & pneumatically operated.

Page 26
18. What conditions will cause the AUTO FAIL light to 27. What causes the amber OVERSPEED lite to
illuminate? illuminate?
Ans. Sec. 7-21 Ans. Sec 8-4.
- Loss of "AUTO AC" Power - APU excessive speed causing auto shutdown
- Excessive Rate of Cabin Pressure change (+/- 1800 - aborted start prior to reaching governed cutout
fpm) speed, but extinguishes following a
- High Cabin Altitude (13,875 feet) normal start.
19. Which manual mode of operation of pressurization is - during APU shutdown indicates overspeed
faster? AC or DC? shutdown protection is lost.
Ans. AC is twice as fast as DC. 28. When the APU electrical & pneumatic load cause
20. What will happen if you climb above the Flt Alt set is EGT to rise above acceptable loads, what happens?
Auto window? Ans. The APU bleed valve will modulate toward the
Ans. Maintains present altitude until 7.9 psid & then closed position.
will climb at 500 fpm. ie, electrics have priority. As EGT increases, you get
less & less bleed air until bleed
21. When using the STANDBY MODE , how would completely closes.
you set up the Pressurization panel? 29. What happens on the ground if you turn Batt Switch
Ans. 7-22: On Grd: set CAB ALT to 200 ft below to off & the APU is running.
Takeoff airport Elev. Ans. Sec 8-2. Will Auto shut down APU. Will not
After takeoff: Set CAB ALT via Placard shutdown in flight.
In Descent: Set CAB ALT window to 200 ft below 30. What does the APU LOW OIL QUANTITY (Blue)
landing field elev. Light illuminated mean to you?
Standby rate indexes DECR = 50 FPM; Middle Ans. Sec 8-4
index = 300 fpm; INCR = 2000 FPM - quantity is insufficient for extended operation.
Sec 7-29 - Light is disarmed when APU Switch is in off
22. Under what conditions will the DUAL BLEED light position.
illuminate?
Ans. Sec 7-24 31. What are the APU altitude restrictions? Sec 1-5
APU bleed air valve OPEN & No. l engine bleed - Bleed & Electrical: 10,000 ft.
switch ON, OR - Bleed OR Electrical: 17,000 ft.
No. 2 engine bleed switch ON, APU bleed valve & - Electrical only: 35,000 ft.
isolation valve OPEN. i.e. 32. What are the Max EGT temps for APU? Sec. 1-5
anytime engine bleeds can back pressure the APU - Max EGT: 760 deg C
check valve. Don't - Max Cont: 710 deg C
increase power above idle until close APU BLEED 33. If the APU OVERSPEED lite illuminates during a
SWITCH. normal shutdown, what's happened?
23. In flight with both EQUIP COOLING (NORMAL Ans. Indicates overspeed auto shutdown protection is
& ALTERNATE) fans INOP , do you Lost. Sec 8-4.
have sufficient cooling & what do you do. 34. Is it possible to start the APU using electrical power
Ans. Yes, no further action is necessary in flight source other than the Battery?
24. On normal APU start, where does APU get its Ans. Yes, using the external power receptacle below
electrical power? the Battery in E&E compartment.
Ans. Battery only. Sec 8-5
25. Normal fuel source to start APU? 35. Can you use regular external power to start APU if
Ans. No. l tank. If running APU for long time & battery is low?
want to prevent fuel imbalance: Use No, it will not work.
center tank & turn on left pump. 36. What happens to Battery Charger during APU
26. What conditions cause APU auto shutdown? START?
Ans. same as 3 amber lites + fire. Ans. Is isolated during start.
Low Oil Press, High oil Temp, Overspeed and fire. 37. How long should APU be operated before using as
Pneumatic source?
Ans. One minute.
38. What are the maximum number attempts allowed to
start APU?
- GRD 4 mins. between starts, max. of 2 attempts
- AIR 4 mins. between starts, max of 4 attempts

Page 27
39. What are the Max APU generator loads. Sec 1 Ans. 3 things
- GRD 150 amps -Allows auto transfer of TRANSFER BUSSES
- AIR 125 amps. upon failure of GEN BUS to the
40. The APU must be shut down approx. 20 sec. before opposite GEN BUS
placing the Batt Switch to off. Why? - Allows TR2 & TR3 to supply DC BUS #1 (via
Ans. To allow the APU door to cycle closed. TR3 Disconnect Relay)
41. What would be the proper indication of a APU start - Allows Battery Charger to auto switch to its
cycle? alternate source, Main Bus #2.
Ans. Sec 8-5 (See Cockpit Panel Notes p. 57) 52. Must the Battery Switch be on to use External
- DC meter Selector---- Bat Power?
- APU switch---------- Start Ans. Battery switch must be on for use of normal
- Low Oil Pressure Lite----Illuminates ground power but not for use of
- DC Ammeter-----Full scale Negative deflection GROUND SERVICE BUS (via forward FA Panel
- Low Oil Pressure Lite-- Extinguished Sw).
- Monitor EGT 53. Name 3 conditions that will restrict the Battery
- APU GEN OFF BUS LITE--- BLUE illuminates Charger to the trickle mode of operation.
- Operate one full minute before using as pneumatic Ans. Grd Pwr Plugged In with GRD POWER
source. AVAILABLE blue lite
42. What are the two sources of power to the Battery - TR3 not powered
Bus? - Standby Power Switch to BAT
Ans. TR3 is primary & alternate is Battery Charger 54. What is the power source for fire extinguishing?
via Battery or Hot Battery Bus. Ans. Protection = Hot Battery Bus; Detection Battery
Bus
43. What is the primary backup for the Transfer Busses? 55. During the preflight OVHT/FIRE test what indication
Ans. Opposite Generator Bus via Transfer Bus relay. would you have if you had a fault in the detection
44. Primary source for DC busses 1 and 2? system?
Ans. DC Bus #1 is Transfer Bus l thru TR1 & DC Ans. You would get amber FAULT lite illuminated.
Bus #2 is Transfer Bus #2 This indicates a single loop failure.
thru TR2. Would have to test loop A then Loop B to determine
which loop is bad. Bad loop would
45. What is the backup power source for DC Busses 1 & not give fire warning during test. If both loops were
2. bad the fault lite would be on
Ans. With the BUS TRANS switch in Auto, any TR before you started Test.
will supply DC Busses #1 & #2. 56. If loop A detects OVHT & loop B detects a fire, what
46. What is the normal & backup power sources for the warning will you get?
AC Standby & the DC Standby Buses? Ans. OVHT Warning light. It takes both loops
Ans. Normal power for AC Standby is Transfer Bus sensing a fire before get Fire
#1. For DC Standby Bus is #1 DC Warning.
Bus. Backup for AC Standby Bus is Battery Bus via 57. If you had an actual Fire with OVHT DET switch in
Invertor. Backup for DC Standby normal with a fault in one loop, would the Fire
Bus is direct from Battery Bus. Auto in flight only. Warning Sound?
Loss of either AC or DC. Ans. Yes, the faulted loop is automatically deselected
47. What is "auto load shedding"? by the fault monitoring circuit.
Ans. Automatic switching off of galley power with Only during test do you discover this.
loss of any generator bus.
48. What are the power sources for the Battery Charger? 58. In flight you look down & see the amber FAULT lite
Ans. Ground Service Bus with Main Bus #2 as illuminated. What does this mean?
backup. Ans. Both loops in any circuit have failed
49. What does the Standby PWR OFF lite illuminated 59. What actions occur when Engine Fire Switch (T
indicate? handle) is pulled? Sec 10-4
Ans. AC Standby Bus is inactive (not powered) F uel
50. Explain how you can tell if a TR has failed? B leed
Ans. TR1 & TR2 would show 0 amps on DC E ng Hyd Pump
Selector. TR3 would show 0 volts & 0 A rms Squib
amps. L ight Deactivated (Hyd L.P)
51. What function does the BUS TRANS switch allow in G en
Auto position? T hrust Rev
Page 28
60. Does APU fire automatically shut down the APU? 69. If the ailerons mechanically jam, is roll control still
Yes, pulling the fire handle backs it up. available?
61. What should be the indication of a fire in lavatory? Ans. Sec 11-2. Yes, a transfer mechanism allows the
Sec 10-8 F/O to bypass the aileron system
Early Type: Cabin chimes every 4 seconds & amber and operate the flight spoilers for roll control. The
call light at Lav. ailerons & the Capt's control wheel
Later Type: alarm horn activated with continuous are inoperative.
tone with red indicator light 70. In the event of B Hydraulic system failure, will the
illuminated. trailing edge flaps be available for landing? How?
62. With APU Fire, what indication will occur in cockpit Ans. Yes, Electrically via the ALTERNATE FLAPS
& wheel well? switch.
Ans. Cockpit: Master Fire Light, Bell, APU Fire 71. If the spoiler system becomes jammed, is roll control
handle illuminated. Bell cutout handle available? How?
or pushing Master Fire Lite silences bell & Ans. Sec 11-2. Force applied to the Capt's control
extinguishes Master Fire Light & resets wheel provides roll control from the
warning system. ailerons. The spoilers & the F/O control wheel are
Wheel Well: Get Horn & flashing red light. Pushing inoperative.
horn cutout silences horn & causes 72. What would cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to
red light to go from flashing to steady. Horn can be illuminate?
silenced from cockpit by Bell Ans. Flaps up: Hydraulic Sys A or B failure, or
cutout handle or pushing Master Fire warning Light. blockage of elevator feel pitot system.
63. If you were fighting a APU FIRE in right wheel well, The light is armed when the trailing edge flaps are up.
how would you know the fire extinguisher bottle Illuminated lite indicates
discharged? excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel
Ans. Check to see if the yellow discharge disc is computer. Sec 11-16 (diag. 11-5)
missing on right side of aircraft tail 73. How would you recognize a Mach Trim failure?
or go into cockpit & see if APU BOTTLE Ans. Single Channel: have to press recall on system
DISCHARGED light is illuminated. annunciator (SA) and get Mach
64. When do the Auto-Slats activate? Sec 11-1,14 Trim Fail on overhead & Master Caution along with
Ans. At high angles of attack with flaps at 1,2 or 5. FLT CONT on SA.
Designed to occur prior to stick DUAL CHANNEL: Get Master Caution , FLT
shaker activation. CONT on SA & Mach Trim Fail on
65. What is the normal & backup power source for Auto overhead. MACH .74 Max Sec 11-4,16
Slats? 74. During takeoff or Go-Around at light gross weights,
Ans. Normal source is B Hyd. Sys, upon failure of B you notice the trim wheel moving without activating
Sys., backup is the PTU using electric trim. What is happening?
Sys. A Hyd Pressure. Ans. Sec 11-6, 16. The Speed Trim System is
66. There has been complete loss of System B hydraulic providing inputs to the stabilizer during
fluid due to leak in electric pump. Are the Auto Slats low speed operations with a low gross wt, aft center
still available? of gravity, and flaps extended.
Ans. Yes, there is certain amount of fluid saved in 75. There is a runaway trim condition occurring and you
bottom of reservoir to operate PTU. go to cutout with the Stab Trim switch, however the
67. Which Hydraulic system normally operates the trim condition continues to run away. What has
trailing edge flaps? What is the alternate source? happened?
Ans. B System Alternate Source is electrically via Ans. Stabilizer brakes have failed. You should grab
ALTERNATE FLAPS switch the trim wheel & hold to stop the
with 25 minutes between 0-15-0 cycles. No runaway. Sec 11-6A & Sec 3-46
asymmetry protection. 76. When would you use the Column Actuated Stab
68. If during normal flap extension, if an asymmetrical Trim Switch to OVERRIDE?
condition develops, what will happen? Ans. Ans. Sec 3-37 & Sec 11-18. Jammed Elevator, to
Sec 11-12. Hydraulic power will automatically be restore electric trim. With a jammed
removed from flap drive unit. elevator, manual or electrical stab. trim may be used
to trim in either direction to
unload control column forces. If electric trim is
desired, the COLUMN ACTUATED
STAB TRIM SWITCH must be positioned to
OVERRIDE.
Page 29
77. Which FLT CONTROL PANEL switches will modes of the autopilot.
activate the Standby Hydraulic Pump? Ans. Sec 12-3. Command allows all commands of
Ans. A & B Flt Control Switches to STDBY RUD, MCP. In CWS , the A/P maneuvers
ALTERNATE FLAP master switch the airplane in response to control pressures applied
to arm. by either pilot. When control
78. What is the max airspeed for alternate flap operation? pressure is released, the A/P holds existing attitude.
Ans. 230 knots to extend Sec 1-8 90. Can you go to CWS while the A/P is in Command
79. Can the leading edge devices be retracted using the mode?
alternate flap method? Ans. Yes
Ans. No (with loss of B hyd), Yes (if TE flap 91. Review how to enter a flight plan into FMC from
malfunction, with flaps retracted and flap lever IAH to Den.
positioned 92. What is the Max fuel imbalance ?
to up, and placing the alternate flap Master Switch to Ans. 1000 lbs between tank 1 & 2 wings tanks
off) (Note: no asymmetrical protection using 93. Describe the normal fueling sequence.
alternate flaps) Ans. Main tanks, center and then Aux.
80. Under what conditions will the flaps move from 40 to 94. With all tanks full, how is fuel scheduled to engines
30 without moving the flap handle? Ans. & why?
Sec 11-12. A flap load limiter will auto retract to 30 Ans. Sec 4-87: Eng #2 is being fed from center tank,
if airspeed exceeds 158±2 Eng #1 from the Aux tank. When
knots. Flaps will return to 40 when airspeed is Aux runs dry, the center tank feeds both engines.
reduced to 152±2 knots. After center runs dry Eng #1 is fed
81. How is a single channel failure of the AUTO SLAT from Main tank No. 1 & Eng #2 from Main tank
system detected by the flight crew? Ans. Sec 11-16. No.2. Center tank check valves open
By activating Recall on the SA, giving AUTO SLAT at a lower differential pressure than the check valves
FAIL lite on in the No. 1 & No. 2 Main tanks ,
overhead, Master caution, & Flt Cont on SA. ensuring that center tank fuel is used before Main
tank fuel, even though all fuel pumps
82. How are the ailerons normally powered? are operating.
Ans. Hyd Sys. A & B Sec 14-1 diag. 95. Where does the fuel temp. gage get its reading?
83. What is the normal power to the elevators? Ans. From No.1 Main tank.
Ans. Hyd Sys A & B. 96. Explain the logic of the fuel low pressure lights with
84. With loss of Hyd Sys A & B, how are the ailerons & respect to switch position & annunciator/recall
elevators powered? Sec 11-2, 4 system.
Ans. Manual Reversion via balance tabs and either Ans. Sec 13-6. Any low Pressure lite can be
control column. illuminated on recall. Center & Aux Low
Pressure lites are armed only with switches in on
85. Describe the two trim modes of the main electric position. Main tank Low P. Lites are
trim? always armed regardless of switch position. 2 low P.
Ans. Sec 11-6: High speed with flaps down: Low lites in same tank gives master
speed with flaps up. caution & Fuel lite on SA. One low P. lite in a tank
86. What is the normal power source for the Rudder? will cause the master caution &
Ans. Hyd Sys A & B. Fuel lite on SA to illuminate on Recall only.
87. What is the alternate power source for Rudder? Exception: in Center tank with one
Ans. Standby Hyd Sys. Sec 14-1 & 11-8 pump turned off, the other on pump Low Pressure
88. In the airspeed window of the MCP, what does the Lite illuminated will give master
blinking alpha symbol (A) mean? caution & Fuel Lite illuminated.
Ans. Sec 12-15 - Minimum Airspeed Reversion: 97. With the aircraft parked, normal AC electric on,
Actual speed has become equal to or engine fuel levers in cutoff position, what indication
slightly less than minimum for the current flap do you have that the fuel valve are closed?
configuration and the AFDS reverts to Ans. The blue FUEL VALVE CLOSED lites will be
"LVL CHG". Selecting a speed 15 knots greater than dim on fuel panel.
minimum speed reactivates normal 98. In flight, with total loss of normal AC power, can the
MCP speed selection control. When actual speed engine be provided fuel feed? If so, How?
becomes 15 knots greater than Ans. Yes, from Main tanks No. 1 & No. 2 only via
Minimum Speed, the underspeed(A) symbol suction feed from engine pumps.
disappears.
89. What is the difference in the Command and CWS
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99. Which method eliminates fuel faster to the engine, 110. What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer
fuel lever to cutoff or pulling fire handle? Why? Unit?
Ans. The start lever to cutoff, shuts off fuel at the Ans. Sec 14-9: To provide Sys B Hyd P. for raising
MEC, so is faster. The fire handle the gear with loss of No. 1
shuts off fuel in wing. Engine (No. l N2 drops below a limit value).
100. Heat is supplied to fuel under what conditions? Sec 111. Which Hyd Sys. provides normal Brake system
18-5,4 pressure.
Ans. Continuously via Fuel/Oil heat exchanger. Ans. Sys B, Alternate Brake Sys = A Sys Hyd.
101. Minimum fuel to operate the Electric Hydraulic 112. Does the antiskid system work with alternate Brake
pumps on the ground? system?
Ans. 1,676 lbs in each wing tank Sec 1-10 Ans. Yes, but touchdown & locked wheel protection
102. What lites would you expect to see on overhead & are not available with the alternate
forward panel if you loose Sys A hydraulic System? brake sys. Note: Autobrakes are inop. when sys B is
Ans. Eng 1 Elec & Hyd Low Pressure, Elevator not available.
Feel, Flt Control A Low Pressure, 113. What conditions must be met to activate the RTO
HYD & Flt Control on SA, & master caution lite. function of the Autobrakes?
103. What would you expect to see if Sys A Hyd Engine Ans. Sec 14-14. RTO selected, grd speed of 90 kts,
pump develops a leak? retard throttles to idle.
Ans. Sec 14-2. 1/4 full approx (stops at standpipe). 114. As you advance throttles for takeoff, you notice that
Note: if get electric pump leak quantity goes to zero. the AUTO BRAKE DISARM lite illuminates. What
104. What would you see if B Eng Pump developed Hyd should you do?
leak? Ans. Turn selector to off. Lite must be out for T/O.
Ans. 1/2 full approx. Cannot be re-armed unless
Note: electric pump leak = zero, but sufficient fluid throttles at idle & speed < 60 kt.
for PTU to work Auto slats. 115. If you left selector in RTO for landing, what kind of
105. If you lost all Standby Sys. Hyd. fluid, would you auto braking would you get on landing?
have a cockpit indication? Ans. None
Ans. Yes, The Standby Low Quantity lite will be 116. How do you disarm Auto Brakes after touchdown?
illuminated and Sys B will be 3/4 full Ans. - Manual brakes
to standpipe. - Advancing throttles
106. What activates the Standby Hyd Pump? - Moving speed brake handle to down detent
Ans. Sec 14-6, 7. Activation in the event of a loss of - Auto Brake selector to off
Sys A or B during TKO or 117. Are the Auto Brakes available with alternate Brakes?
Landing, wheel speed must be >60 kts, or the Ans. No
airplane must be airborne with the flaps 118. When does the Anti-Skid Inop lite illuminate?
extended. The Auto activation is deactivated when Ans. A sys malfunction or there is a disagreement
flaps are moved to up. between the Parking Brake lever &
107. What verification is there that the Standby Rudder the parking brake shutoff valve position.
Shutoff valve is open? 119. Following the illumination of the Anti-Skid Inop
Ans. The Flt Control Low Pressure Lite will be lite, the Speed Brake handle is positioned to armed,
extinguished (Out). The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM lite
108. If the Standby Hyd Pump is activated by Auto illuminates. Why?
method, what difference if any for the verification Ans. The Anti-Skid sys is required for the speed
that the Standby Rudder Shutoff valve has open? brakes to operate automatically.
Ans. There is no verification until Flt Control Sw is 120. When will the Auto Brakes be activated for landing?
moved to STDBY RUD position, Ans. Takes one wheel each side. Armed, wheel spin
then the Flt Control Low Pressure lite becomes a up, throttles idle.
position monitoring lite for the 121. Nose wheel is stopped by snubbers on retraction.
Standby Rudder Shutoff valve. ie lite comes on if How are mains stopped on retraction?
Standby Rudder Shutoff valve closes Ans. pressure from alternate brake sys.
when the Standby pump should be activated. 122. What components are powered by Standby Hyd
109. Is the Standby HYD LOW QUANTITY LITE Pumps?
always armed? Ans. Sec 14-1: Rudder, No. 1 & 2 Thrust Rev,
Ans. Yes Extension only of Leading edge flaps &
Note: Low Pressure lite only armed when Standby slats.
Pump is activated.

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123. What indication would you have in cockpit if tire
screen were loose?
Ans. Doors lite on SA referring to overhead Tire
Screen lite.
124. How many Brake applications are there on
accumulator?
Ans. Several
125. Why is there no gear horn on missed approach with
flaps 15?
Ans. Sec 6-37. Both throttles are >30 deg.
126. What does the amber COWL ANTI-ICE lite
illuminated indicate.
Ans. Over temp or Over Pressure.
127. With L or R VALVE OPEN illuminated bright blue
with the Wing Anti Ice switch "on", what must you
do?
Ans. Valve is not fully open or in selected position,
so avoid icing conditions.
128. What windows are heated with the FWD switch
"on"?
Ans. L1 or R1. Side = L2 or R2 + eyebrows L4 &5
or R4 & R5
L3 & R3 not heated.
129. How do you know which windows are being
heated?
Ans. Green "on" lites
130. Is there an Overheat lite for L4 & L5 (eyebrows)?
Ans. No, they are not monitored. Sec 15-3.
131. Can the Engine anti-ice valves be checked prior to
engine start?
Why or why not & discuss indications.
Ans. Sec 15-7. Cannot be checked prior to engine
start because they are electrically
controlled & pressure actuated. Air can't get from
APU because Cowl Anti-ice valve is
inside Engine Bleed valve which acts as check valve
not letting APU air back inside
bleed valve.

Remember, if you find any errors in these oral questions,

that contradict the Flight Manual, please tell me.
<bbulfer@firstnethoulcom>

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