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photocopying, or otherwise without the prior permission of the author.

GATE SOLVED PAPER

Civil Engineering
2005

Copyright © By NODIA & COMPANY

Information contained in this book has been obtained by authors, from sources believes to be reliable. However,
neither Nodia nor its authors guarantee the accuracy or completeness of any information herein, and Nodia nor its
authors shall be responsible for any error, omissions, or damages arising out of use of this information. This book
is published with the understanding that Nodia and its authors are supplying information but are not attempting
to render engineering or other professional services.

NODIA AND COMPANY

B-8, Dhanshree Tower Ist, Central Spine, Vidyadhar Nagar, Jaipur 302039
Ph : +91 - 141 - 2101150
www.nodia.co.in
email : [email protected]
 GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE
2005

Q. 1 The permissible stress in axial tension sst in steel member on the net effective
area of the section shall not exceed ( fy is the yield stress)
(A) 0.80 fy (B) 0.75 fy

(C) 0.60 fy (D) 0.50 fy

Q. 2 An unstiffened web I-section is fabricated from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet

welding as shown in the figure. If yield stress of steel is 250 MPa, the maximum
shear load that section can take is

. i n
c o
a .
d i
o
.n
(A) 750 kN (B) 350 kN

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(C) 337.5 kN (D) 300 kN

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Q. 3 A fillet-welded joint of 6mm size is shown in the figure. The welded surfaces meet
at 60-90 degree and permissible stress in the filled weld is 108 MPa. The safe load

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that can be transmitted by the joint is

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(A) 162.7 kN (B) 151. 6 kN
(C) 113.4 kN (D) 109.5 kN

Q. 4 Which one of the following is NOT correct for steel sections as per IS:800-1984 ?
(A) The maximum bending stress in tension or in compression in extreme fibre
calculated on the effective section of a beam shall not exceed 0.66 fy .
(B) The bearing stress in any part of a beam when calculated on the net area
shall not exceed 0.75 fy .
(C) The direct stress in compression on the gross sectional area of axially
loaded compression member shall not exceed 0.6 fy
(D) None of the above
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 5 A cantilever beam of length L, width b and depth d is loaded with a concentrated

vertical load at the tip. If yielding starts at a load P , the collapse load shall be
(A) 2.0 P (B) 1.5 P
(C) 1.2 P (D) P

Q. 6 Consider the matrices X(4 # 3), Y(4 # 3) and P(2 # 3) .

The order of [P (XT Y) - 1 PT ]T will be
(A) (2 # 2) (B) (3 # 3)
(C) (4 # 3) (D) (3 # 4)

Q. 7 Consider a non-homogeneous system of linear equations representing

mathematically an over-determined system. Such a system will be
(A) consistent having a unique solution
(B) consistent having a unique solution

in
(C) inconsistent having a unique solution
(D) inconsistent having no solution
.
. co
Q. 8 Which one of the following is NOT true for complex number Z1 and Z2 ?
(A) Z1 = Z1 Z22
a
r

i
Z2 Z2

d
(B) Z1 + Z2 # Z1 + Z2

o
(C) Z1 - Z2 # Z1 - Z2

. n
(D) Z1 + Z2 2 + Z1 - Z2 2 = Z1 2 + 2 Z2 2

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Q. 9 Which one of the following statement is NOT true ?

w
(A) The measure of skewness is dependent upon the amount of dispersion
(B) In a symmetric distribution, the values of mean, mode and median are the
same
w
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(C) In a positively skewed distribution : mean > median > mode
(D) In a negatively skewed distribution : mode > mean > median

Q. 10 Consider the system of equation A(n # n) X(n # t) = l(n # 1) where, l is a scalar. Let
(li, Xi) be an eigen-pair of an eigen value and its corresponding eigen vector for
real matrix A. Let be a (n # n) unit matrix. Which on of the following statement
is NOT correct ?
(A) For a homogeneous n # n system of linear equations, (A - l ) x = 0 having
a nontrivial solution, the rank of (A - l ) is less than n .
(B) For matrix Am, m being a positive integer, (lmi , X im) will be the eigen-pair for
all i.
(C) If AT = A- 1, then li = 1 for all i
(D) If AT = A , then li is real for all i

Q. 11 Transformation to linear form by substituting v = y1 - n of the equation

dy
+ p (t) y = q (t) yn; n > 0 will be
dt
(A) dv + (1 - n) pv = (1 - n) q (B) dv + (1 - n) pv = (1 - n) q
dt dt
(C) dv + (1 + n) pv = (1 - n) q (D) dv + (1 + n) pv = (1 + n) q
dt dt
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 12 A rail engine accelerates from its stationary position for 8 seconds and travels a
distance of 280 m. According to the Mean Value Theorem, the speedometer at a
certain time during acceleration must read exactly
(A) 0 (B) 8 kmph
(C) 75 kmph (D) 126 kmph

d 2y dy dy x
dx a 4 k
Q. 13 The solution of + 2 + 17y = 0; y (0) = 1, = 0 in the range
dx 2 dx
0 < x < p is given by
4
(A) e b cos 4x + 1 sin 4x l
-x
(B) ex b cos 4x - 1 sin 4x l
4 4
(C) e- 4x b cos x - 1 sin x l (D) e- 4x b cos 4x - 1 sin 4x l
4 4

Q. 14 Value of the integral # (xydy - y2 dx), where , c is the square cut from the first
c

quadrant by the line x = 1 and y = 1 will be (Use Green’s theorem to change the

in
line integral into double integral)
(A) 1
.
co
(B) 1
2

.
(C) 3 (D) 5
2 3
Q. 15

i a
Consider the likely applicability of Cauchy’s Integral Theorem to evaluate the

d
following integral counter clockwise around the unit circle c.

o
I = # sec zdz ,

.n
c
z being a complex variable. The value of I will be

w
(A) I = 0 : singularities set = f
(B) I = 0 : singularities set = &! 2n + 1 p, n = 0, 1, 2...............0
w 2

w
(C) I = p/2 : singularities set = {! np; n = 0, 1, 2...............}
(D) None of above

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Statement For Linked Answer Q. 16 and 17 :
Give a > 0, we wish to calculate its reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton Raphson
Method for f (x) = 0 .
Q. 16 The Newton Raphson algorithm for the function will be
(A) Xk + 1 = 1 aXk + a k (B) Xk + 1 = aXk + a X k2 k
2 Xk 2
(C) Xk + 1 = 2Xk = aX k2 (D) Xk + 1 = Xk - a X k2
2

Q. 17 For a = 7 and starting with x 0 = 0.2 , the first two iterations will be
(A) 0.11, 0.1299
(B) 0.12,0.1392
(C) 0.12, 0.1416
(D) 0.13, 0.1428
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 18 Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of

(A) total organic nitrogen
(B) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
(C) total ammonia nitrogen
(D) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen

Q. 19 1 TCU is equivalent to the color produced by

(A) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
(B) 1 mg/L of platinum ion
(C) 1 mg/L platinum in form of choloroplatinate ion
(D) 1 mg/L of organo-chloroplatinate ion

Q. 20 In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas convert

in
(A) NH 3 to NO2

.
(B) NO 2- to NO 3-

co
(C) NH 3 to N2 O

.
(D) NO 2- to HNO 3

Q. 21 Bulking sludge refers to having

i a
d
(A) F/M<0.3/d

o
(B) 0.3/d<F/M<0.6/d

. n
(C) F/M=zero
(D) F/M>0.6/d

w
w
Q. 22 If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1, the hydrogen ion concentration will be
(A) 10.94 # 10- 5 mol/L

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(B) 9.94 # 10- 5 mol/L

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(C) 8.94 # 10- 6 mol/L
(D) 7.94 # 10- 5 mol/L

Q. 23 List-I contains some properties of water/waste water and List-II contains list of
some tests on water/waste water. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Suspended solids concentration 1. BOD
b. Metabolism of biodegradable 2. MPN
organics
c. Bacterial concentration 3. Jar test
d. Coagulant dose 4. Turbidity
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 24 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists :
List-I List-II
a. Thickening of sludge 1. Decrease in volume of sludge by chemical
oxidation
b. Stabilization of sludge 2. Separation of water by heat or chemical
treatment
c. Conditioning of sludge 3. Digestion of sludge
d. Reduction of sludge 4. Separation of water by floatation or
gravity
Codes:
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1

in
(D) 2 1 3 4
Q. 25

.
A circular primary clarifier processes an average flow of 5005 m3 /d of municipal

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waste water. The overflow rate is 35 m3 /m2 /d . The diameter of clarifier shall be

.
(A) 10.5 m (B) 11.5 m

a
(C) 12.5 m (D) 13.5

Q. 26

d i
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given

o
below the lists:

.n
List-I List-II

w
a. Release value 1. Reduce high inlet pressure to lower outlet
pressure
b.
w
Check value 2. Limit the flow of water to single direction

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c. Gate value 3. Remove air from the pipeline

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d. Pilot value 4. Stopping the flow of water in the pipeline
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Q. 27 In a certain situation, waste water discharged into a river mixer with the river
water instantaneously and completely. Following is the data available :
Waste water DO = 2.00 mg/L
Discharge rate = 1.10 m3 /s
River water DO = 8.3 mg/L
Flow rate = 8.70 m3 /s
Temperature = 20cC
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of waste and river shall be
(A) 5.3 mg/L (B) 6.5 mg/L
(C) 7.6 mg/L (D) 8.4 mg/L
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Statement For Linked Answer Q. 28 and 29 :

A city is going to install the rapid sand filter the sedimentation tanks.
Use the following data.
Design loading rate to the filter - 200m3 /m2 d
Design flow rate - 0.5m3 /s
Surface area per filter box - 50m2
Q. 28 The surface area required for the rapid sand filter will be
(A) 210m2 (B) 215m2
(C) 216m2 (D) 218m2

Q. 29 The number of filters required shall be

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

. in
An inert tracer is injected continuously from a point in an unsteady flow field.
Q. 30

co
The locus of locations of all tracer particles at an instance of time represents
(A) Streamline (B) Pathline
(C) Streamtube

a . (D) Streakline

Q. 31

d i
The reading of differential manometer of a Venturimeter, placed at 45c to the
horizontal is 11 cm. If the Venturimeter is turned to horizontal position, the
manometer reading will be

n o
.
(A) zero (B) 11 cm
2
(C) 11 cm
w (D) 11 2 cm

Q. 32
w
A horizontal bed channel is followed by a steep bed channel as shown in the

w
figure. The gradually-varied profiles over the horizontal and sleep beds are

(A) H2 and S2 respectively

(B) H2 and S1 respectively
(C) H 3 and S2 respectively
(D) H 3 and S1 respectively

Q. 33 A stream function is given by :

Y = 2x2 y + (x + 1) y2
The flow rate across a line joining points A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
(A) 0.4 units (B) 1.1 units
(C) 4 units (D) 5 units
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 34 The circulation 'G' around a circle of radius 2 units for the velocity field u = 2x + 3y
and v =- 2y is
(A) - 6p unit (B) - 12p units

(C) - 18p units (D) - 24p units

Q. 35 A tank and a deflector are placed on a frictionless trolley. The tank issues water
jet (mass density of water = 1000 kg/m3 ), which strikes the deflector and turns
by 45c. If the velocity of jet leaving the deflector is 4 m/s and discharge is 0.1
m3 /s , the force recorded by the spring will be

. in
co
(A) 100 N (B) 100 2 N
(C) 200 N

.
(D) 200 2 N

i a
Q. 36 Cross-section of an object (having same section normal to the paper) submerged

d
into a fluid consists of a square of sides 2 m and triangle as shown in the figure.

o
The object is hinged at point P that is one meter below the fluid free surface. If
the object is to be kept in the position as shown in the figure, the value of 'X'

.n
should be

w
w
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©
(A) 2 3 (B) 4 3
(C) 4 m (D) 8 m

Q. 37 Critical depth at a section of a rectangular channel is 1.5 m. The specific energy

at that section is
(A) 0.75 m (B) 1.0 m
(C) 1.5 m (D) 2.25 m

Q. 38 A partially open sluice gate discharge water into a rectangular channel. The tail
water depth in the channel is 3 m and Froude number is 1 .
2 2sluice gate after the
If a free hydraulic jump is to be formed at downstream of the
vena contract a of the jet coming out from the sluice gate, the sluice gate opening
should be (coefficient of contraction Cc = 0.9 )
(A) 0.3 m (B) 0.4 m
(C) 0.69 m (D) 0.9 m
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 39 A triangular irrigation lined canal carries a discharge of 25 m3 /s at bed slope

= 1 . If the side slopes of the canal are 1:1 and Manning’s coefficient is 0.018,
6000
the central depth of flow is equal to
(A) 1.98 m
(B) 3,62 m
(C) 4.91 m
(D) 5.61 m

Q. 40 Root time method is used to determine

(A) L, time factor
(B) Cv , coefficient of consolidation
(C) av , coefficient of compressibility

in
(D) mv , coefficient of volume compressibility

.
Negative skin friction in a soil is considered when the pile is constructed through

co
Q. 41
a

a.
(A) fill material (B) dense coarse sand

i
(C) over consolidated stiff clay (D) dense fine sand

d
Q. 42 There are two footings resting on the grounds surface. One footing is square of

o
dimension 'B' . The other is strip footing of width 'B' . Both of them are subjected

. n
to a loading intensity of q . The pressure intensity at any depth below the base of
the footing along the centre line would be

w
(A) equal in both footings

w
(B) large for square footing and small for strip footing

w
(C) large for strip footing and small for square footing
(D) more for strip footing at shallow depth (# B) and more for square footing

©
at large depth (> B)

Q. 43 A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture
content of 12%. A contractor during the construction of core of an earth dam
obtained the dry density 15.2 kN/m3 and water content 11%. This construction
is acceptable because
(A) the density is less than the maximum dry density and water content is on
dry side of optimum
(B) the compaction density is very low and water content is less than 12%
(C) the compaction is done on the dry side of the optimum
(D) both the dry density and water content of the compacted soil are within the
desirable limits

Q. 44 In a constant head parameter with cross section area of 10 cm2 , when the flow
was taking place under a hydraulic gradient of 0.5, the amount of water collected
in 60 seconds is 600 cc. The permeability of the soil is
(A) 0.002 cm/s
(B) 0.02 cm/s
(C) 0.2 cm/s
(D) 2.0 cm/s
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 45 Two observation wells penetrated into a confined aquifer and located 1.5 km
apart in the direction of flow, indicate head of 45 m and 20 m. If the coefficient
of permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel
of an inert tracer from one well to another is
(A) 416.7 days
(B) 500 days
(C) 750 days
(D) 3000 days

Q. 46 Assuming that a river bed level does not change and the depth of water in river
was 10 m, 15 m and 8 m during the months of February, July and December
respectively of a particular year. The average bulk density of the soil is 20 kN/m3
. The density of water is 10 kN/m3 . The effective stress at a depth of 10 m below
the river bed during these months would be
(A) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 July and 320 kN/m2 in December
(B) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2 July and 100 kN/m2 in December

in
(C) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and 180 kN/m2 in December

.
(D) 300 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 July and 280 kN/m2 in December

co
Q. 47 For a triaxial shear test conducted on a sand specimen at a confining pressure

.
of 100 kN/m2 under drained conditions, resulted in a deviator stress (s1 - s3) at

a
i
failure of 100 kN/m2 . The angle of shearing resistance of the soil would be

d
(A) 18.43c (B) 19.47c

o
(C) 26.56c (D) 30c

.n
Q. 48 A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a saturated sand (saturated due to

w
capillary action) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and angle of shearing resistance 30c
. The change in magnitude of active earth pressure at the base due to rise in

w
ground water table from the base of the footing to the ground surface shall

w
(gw = 10 kN/m3)
(A) increase by 20 kN/m2

©
(B) decrease by 20 kN/m2
(C) increase by 30 kN/m2
(D) decrease by 30 kN/m2

Q. 49 For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition and other in submerged condition)
in a sand deposit having the angle of shearing resistance 30c, factor of safety was
determined as 1.5 (for both slopes). The slope angles would have been
(A) 21.05c for dry slope and 21.05c for submerged slope
(B) 19.47c for dry slope and 18.40c for submerged slope
(C) 18.4c for dry slope and 21.05c for submerged slope
(D) 22.6c for dry slope and 19.47c for submerged slope

Q. 50 A strip footing (8 m wide) is designed for a total settlement of 40 mm. The safe
bearing capacity (shear) was 150 kN/m2 and safe allowable soil pressure was 100
kN/m2 . Due to important of the structure, now the footing is to be redesigned for
total settlement of 25 mm. The new width of the footing will be
(A) 5 m (B) 8 m
(C) 12 m (D) 12.8 m
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 51 During the subsurface investigations for design of foundations, a standard

penetration test was conducted at 4.5 m below the ground surface. The record of
number of blow is given below :
Penetration depth (cm) Number of blows
0 - 7.5 3
7.5 - 15 3
15 - 22.5 6
22.5 - 30 6
30 - 37.5 8
37.5 - 45 7
Assuming the water table at ground level, soil as fine sand and correction factor
for overburden as 1.0, the corrected 'N' value for the soil would be

in
(A) 18 (B) 19

.
(C) 21 (D) 33

co
Q. 52 A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50 % sand and 10% silt. This soil can be
classified as

a .
i
(A) silty sandy gravel having coefficient of uniformly less than 60.

d
(B) silty gravelly sand having coefficient of uniformly equal to 10.

o
(C) gravelly silty sand having coefficient of uniformly greater than 60.

. n
(D) gravelly silty sand and its coefficient of uniformity cannot be determined.

w
Q. 53 A saturated soil mass has a total density 22 kN/m3 and a water content of 10%.
The bulk density and dry density of this soil are

w
(A) 12 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively

w
(B) 22 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively

©
(C) 19.8 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively
(D) 23.2 kN/m3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively

Q. 54 The length of summit curve on a two lane two way highway depends upon
(A) allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
(B) coefficient of lateral friction
(C) required stopping sight distance
(D) required overtaking sight distance

Q. 55 Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY), launched in the year 2000, aims
to provide rural connectivity with all-weather roads. It is proposed to connect the
habitation in plan areas of population more than 500 persons by the year
(A) 2005 (B) 2007
(C) 2010 (D) 2012

Q. 56 List-I contains some properties of bitumen. List-II gives a list of Laboratory

Tests conducted on bitumen to determine the properties. Match the property the
corresponding test and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

List-I List-II
a. Resistance to flow 1. Ductility test
b. Ability to deform under load 2. Penetration test
c. Safety 3. Flash and fire point test
Codes :
a b c
(A) 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 2
Q. 57 Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of
(A) fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(B) fine aggregate and bitumen
(C) coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler and bitumen

in
(D) coarse aggregate, filler and bitumen

.
Q. 58 For a 25 cm thick cement concrete pavement, analysis of stresses gives the

co
following values :

.
Wheel load stress due to corner loading .....................30 kg/cm2

a
Wheel load stress due to edge loading ........................32 kg/cm2

i
Warping stress at corner region during summer............9 kg/cm2

d
Warping stress at corner region during winter .............7 kg/cm2

o
Warping stress at edge region during summer...............8 kg/cm2

.n
Warping stress at edge region during summer...............6 kg/cm2
Frictional stress during summer ....................................5 kg/cm2

w
Frictional stress during winter ......................................4 kg/cm2

w
The most critical value for this pavement is
(A) 40 kg/cm2

w
(B) 42 kg/cm2

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(C) 44 kg/cm2
(D) 45 kg/cm2

Q. 59 The following observations were made of an axle-load survey on a road.

Axle load (kN) Repetitions per day
35-45 800
75-85 400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN. Equivalent daily number of repetitions for the
standard axle-load are
(A) 450 (B) 480
(C) 800 (D) 1200

Q. 60 A standard company operates a scheduled daily truck service between city P and
city Q. One way journey time between these tow cities is 85 hours. A minimum
layover time of 5 hours is to be provided at each city. How many trucks are
required to provide this service ?
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 61 A single lane unidirectional highway has a design speed of 65 kmph. The

perception-brake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5 seconds and the average length of
vehicles is 5 m. The coefficient of longitudinal friction of the pavement is 0.4. The
capacity of this road in term of ‘vehicles per hour per lane’ is
(A) 1440 (B) 750
(C) 710 (D) 680

Q. 62 A road is having a horizontal curve of 400 m radius on which a super-elevation

of 0.07 is provided. The coefficient of lateral friction mobilized on the when a
vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(A) 0.07 (B) 0.13
(C) 0.15 (D) 0.4

Q. 63 When the outflow from a storage reservoir is controlled as in a freely operating

in
spillway, the peak of outflow hydrograph occurs at

.
(A) the point of intersection of the inflow and outflow hydrographs

co
(B) a point, after the intersection of the inflow and outflow hydrographs

.
(C) the tail of inflow hydrographs

a
(D) a point, before the intersection of the inflow and ouflow hydrographs

Q. 64

d i
The intensity of rainfall and time interval of a typical storm are :

o
Time interval Intensity of rainfall

n
(minutes) (mm/minute)
0-10
. 0.7

w
10-20 1.1

w
20-30 2.2
30-40 1.5

w
40-50 1.2
50-60 1.3

© 60-70
70-80
0.9
0.4

The maximum intensity of rainfall for 20 minutes duration of the storm is

(A) 1.5 mm/minute (B) 1.85 mm/minute
(C) 2.2 mm/minute (D) 3.7 mm/minute

Q. 65 On which of the canal systems, R.G. Kennedy, executive engineer in the the
Punjab Irrigation Department made his observations for proposing his theory on
stable channels ?
(A) Krishna Western Delta canals (B) Lower Bari Docab canals
(C) Lower Chenab canals (D) Upper Bari Doab canals

Q. 66 Which one of the following equations represents the downstream profile of Ogee
spillway with vertical upstream profile ? (x, y) are the coordinates of the point
on the downstream profile with origin at the crest of the spillway and Hd is the
design head.
y y
=- 0.5 a x k =- 0.5 a x k
1.85 1/1.85
(A) (B)
Hd Hd Hd Hd
y y
=- 2.0 a x k =- 2.0 a x k
1.85 1/1.85
(C) (D)
Hd Hd Hd Hd
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 67 The culturable commanded area for a distributary is 2 # 108 m2 . The intensity of

irrigation for a crop is 40%. If kor water depth and kor period for the crop are 14
cm and 4 weeks, respectively, the peak demand discharge is
(A) 2.63 m3 /s (B) 4.63 m3 /s
(C) 8.53 m3 /s (D) 11.58 m3 /s

Q. 68 Uplift pressure at point E and D (figure A) of a straight horizonal floor of negligible

thickness with a sheet pile at downstream end are 28% and 20%, respectively. If
the sheet pile is at upstream end of the floor (figure B), the uplift pressures at
point D1 and C1 are

. in
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(A) 68% and 60% respectively (B) 80% and 72% respectively

.
(C) 88% and 70% respectively (D) 100% and zero respectively

Q. 69

i a
A launching apron is to be designed at downstream of a weir for discharge intensity

d
of 6.5 m3 /s/m . For the design of launching aprons the scour is taken two times

o
of Lacey scour depth. The silt factor of the bed material is unity. If the tailwater

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depth is 4.4 m, the length of launching apron in the launched position is
(A) 5 m (B) 4.7 m
(C) 5 m
w (D) 5 5 m

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Statement For Linked Answer Q. 70 and 71 :

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A four hour unit hydrograph of a catchment is triangular in shape with base of
80 hours, the area of the catchment is 720 km2 . The base flow and f-index are
30 m3 /s and 1 mm/h, respectively. A storm of 4 cm occurs uniformly in 4 hours
over the catchment.
Q. 70 The peak discharge of four unity hydrograph is
(A) 40 m3 /s (B) 50 m3 /s
(C) 60 m3 /s (D) 70 m3 /s

Q. 71 The peak flood discharge due to the storm is

(A) 210 m3 /s (B) 230 m3 /s
(C) 260 m3 /s (D) 720 m3 /s

Q. 72 IS:1343-1980 limit the minimum characteristic strength of pre-stressed concrete

for post tensioned work and pretension work as
(A) 25 MPa, 30 MPa respectively (B) 25 MPa, 35 MPa respectively
(C) 30 MPa 35 MPa respectively (D) 30 MPa, 40 MPa respectively
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 73 The partial factor of safety for concrete as per IS:456-2000 is

(A) 1.50 (B) 1.15
(C) 0.87 (D) 0.446

Q. 74 A rectangular column section of 250 mm # 400 mm is reinforced with five steel

bars of grade Fe-500, each of 20 mm diameter. Concrete mis is M 30. Axial load
on the column section with minimum eccentricity as per IS:456-2000 using limit
state method can be applied upto
(A) 1707.37 (B) 1805.30
(C) 1806.40 (D) 1903.7

Q. 75 A concrete beam of rectangular cross section of 200 mm # 400 mm is prestressed

with a force 400 kN at eccentricity 100 mm. The maximum compressive stress in
the concrete is

in
(A) 12.5 N/mm2 (B) 7.5 N/mm2

.
(C) 5.0 N/mm2 (D) 2.5 N/mm2

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Q. 76 The flexural strength of M30 concrete as per IS:456-2000 is

.
(A) 3.83 MPa (B) 5.47 MPa
(C) 21.23 MPa
i a (D) 30.0 MPa

Q. 77

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In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete, one sample consists
of X number of specimens. These specimens are tested at 28 days and average

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strength of these X specimen is considered as test result of the sample, provided
the individual variation in the strength of specimens is not more than ! Y per

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cent of the average strength. The values of X and Y as per IS:456-2000 are

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(A) 4 and 10 respectively

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(B) 3 and 10 respectively
(C) 4 and 15 respectively

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(D) 3 and 15 respectively

Statement For Linked Answer Q. 78 and 79 :

Assume straight line instead of parabola for stress-strain curve of concrete as
given and partial factor of safety as 1.0

A rectangular under-reinforced concrete section of 300 mm width and 500 mm

effective depth is reinforced with 3 bars of grade Fe-415, each of 16 mm diameter.
Concrete mis is M20.
Q. 78 The depth of the neutral axis from the compression fibre is
(A) 76 mm (B) 81 mm
(C) 87 mm (D) 100 mm
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Q. 79 The depth of the neutral axis obtained as per IS:456-2000 differs from the depth
of neutral axis obtained in Q.30 by
(A) 15 mm (B) 20 mm
(C) 25 mm (D) 32 mm

Q. 80 The symmetry of stress tensor at a point in the body under equilibrium is obtained
from
(A) conserved of mass (B) force equilibrium equations
(C) moment equilibrium equations (D) conservation of energy

Q. 81 The components of strain tensor at a point in the plane strain case can be
obtained by measuring longitudinal strain in following directions
(A) along any two arbitrary directions
(B) along any three arbitrary directions
(C) along two mutually orthogonal directions
(D) along any arbitrary direction

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Q. 82 If principal stresses in a two-dimensional case are - 10 MPa and 20 MPa

.
respectively, then maximum shear stress at the point is

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(A) 10 MPa (B) 15 MPa

.
(C) 20 MPa (D) 30 MPa

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The bending moment diagram for a beam is given below :
Q. 83

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The shear force at sections aal and bbl respectively are of the magnitude
(A) 100 kN, 150 kN
(B) zero, 100 kN
(C) zero, 50 kN
(D) 100 kN, 100 kN

Q. 84 A circular shaft shown in the figure is subjected to torsion T at two point A and
B. The torsional rigidity of portions CA and BD is GJ1 and that of portion AB
is GJ2 . The rotations of shaft at points A and B are q1 and q2 . The rotation q1 is
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

(A) TL (B) TL
GJ1 + GJ2 GJ1
(C) TL (D) TL
GJ2 GJ1 - GJ2

Q. 85 For a linear elastic frame, if stiffness matrix is doubled with respect to the existing
stiffness matrix, the deflection of the resulting frame will be
(A) twice the existing value (B) half the existing value
(C) the same as existing value (D) indeterminate value

Q. 86 Considering beam as axially rigid, the degree of freedom of a plane frame shown
below is

. in
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(A) 9

i a (B) 8

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(C) 7 (D) 6

Q. 87

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Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given

.
below the lists :

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List-I List-II

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a. Slope deflection method 1. Force method

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b. Moment distribution method 2. Displacement method
c. Method of three moments

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d. Castigliano’s
Codes :
a b
second theorem

c d
(A) 1 2 1 2
(B) 1 1 2 2
(C) 2 2 1 1
(D) 2 1 2 1
Q. 88 All members of the frame shown below have the same flexural rigidity EI and
length L. If a moment M is applied at joint B , the rotation of the joint is

(A) ML (B) ML
12EI 11EI
(C) ML (D) ML
8EI 7EI
GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

Common Data For Questions. 89 & 90 :

A truss is shown in the figure. Members are of equal cross section A and same
modulus of elasticity E. A vertical force P is applied at point C.

Q. 89 Force in the member AB of the truss is

(A) P (B) P

in
2 3

.
P

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(C) (D) P
2

.
Q. 90 Deflection of the point C is
(A) c 2 2 + 1 m PL
2 EA
ia (B) 2 PL
EA
(C) (2 2 + 1) PL
EA
o d (D) ( 2 + 1) PL
EA

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**********

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GATE SOLVED PAPER - CE 2005

ANSWER KEY
2005
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) (D) (C) (D) (B) (A) (A) (C) (D) (D)
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
(A) (D) (A) (B) (A) (C) (B) (B) (C) (A)
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(A) (D) (B) (A) (D) (A) (C) (C) (C) (D)
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
(C) (A) (C) (B) (D) (A) (D) (C) (A) (B)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

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(A) (C) (D) (D) (C) (B) (B) (B) (A) (D)

.
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

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(C) (B) (B) (C) (B) (A) (C) (B) (A) (D)

a.
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

i
(C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (A) (B) (B) (C) (B)

d
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

o
(A) (D) (A) (A) (A) (A) (D) (D) (C) (C)
81 82 83 84

. n85 86 87 88 89 90

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(B) (B) (C) (A) (C) (D) (C) (B) (C) (C)

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