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1 FQA MCQ 2

2 FAQ Interview Question 24

3 IMPORTANT MCQ

4 Strength of MATERIALS 59

5 Thermodynamics 81

6 Heat transfer 139

7 Engineering Mechanics 163

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8 Fluid mechanics 191

9 Theory of machines 262

10 Machine design 300

11 IC Engine 337

12 Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines 364

13 Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines 414

14 EMM 483
Frequently Asked MCQ
1. The hardest known material is
a) Ceramic
b) High speed steel
c) Cemented carbide
d) Diamond

2. Which of the following welding process uses consumable electrodes

a) TIG
b) MIG
c) Thermit

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d) Laser

3. Wire is made by
a) Drawing
b) Forging
c) Rolling
d) Casting

4. A 1000 tonne press implies that

a) The weight of press is 1000 tonne
b) The press can handle works weighing up to 1000 tonne
c) It can exert pressure up to 1000 tonne
d) Its turn over in a day is 1000 tonne

5. Swaging is an operation of
a) Extrusion
b) Forging
c) Casting
d) Rolling
6. Which of the following is the most ductile material
a) Lead
b) Copper
c) Mild steel
d) Vanadium

7. Casting defects caused by the molten metal is

a) Blow holes
b) Swell
c) Scab
d) All of the above

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8. Forming operation which does not involve rotation of work piece is
a) Spinning
b) Thread rolling
c) Ring rolling d) Upsetting

9. Seamless rings are made by the process

a) Super-plastic forming
b) Mandrel forging
c) Ring rolling
d) Diffusion bonding

10. Trimming process is associated with

a) Polishing of metals
b) Machining
c) Electroplating
d) Forging

11. Brinell hardness tester uses a hardened steel ball of size

a) 1 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 15 mm

12. The crystal structure of alpha iron

a) BCC
b) FCC
c) HCP
d) Cubic

13. The phenomenon of weld decay occurs in

a) Cast iron

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b) Brass
c) Bronze
d) Stainless steel

14. Turbine rotor is made by

a) Rolling
b) Sand casting
c) Forging
d) Extrusion

15. Greater forging capacity is achieved with

a) Mechanical press
b) Power hammer
c) Hydraulic press
d) Non of them

16. Spring back phenomenon occurs in

a) Forging
b) Hot penning
c) Spinning
d) Bending

17. Pre heating is essential in welding of

a) High speed steel
b) German steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Cast iron

18. The transistor is made of

a) Silver
b) Germanium

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c) Copper
d) Cast iron

19. Foundry crucible is made of

a) Stainless steel
b) Mild steel
c) Lead
d) Graphite

20. Age hardening is related with

a) Stainless steel
b) Duralumin
c) Gun metal
d) Cast iron

21. In hot working process

a) Poor surface finish is produced
b) Scale formed
c) Close tolerance is difficult to maintain
d) All of the above

22. Forming operation which does not involve rotation of work piece is
a) Spinning
b) Thread rolling
c) Ring rolling
d) Upsetting

23. Casting defects caused by the molten metal is

a) Blow holes
b) Swell

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c) Scab
d) All of the above

24. Severe quenching can cause

a) Blow holes
b) Warping
c) Inclusions
d) Non of them

25. Sprue in casting refers to

a) Gate
b) Runner
c) Riser
d) Vertical passage

26. Fettling is an operation performed

a) Before casting
b) After casting
c) During casting
d) After heat treatment

27. Slag inclusion in the casting is a

a) Surface defects
b) Internal defect
c) Crack
d) Notch

28. Draft on pattern means

b) Allowance for machining
c) Locating pad

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d) Compensate for stripping
e) Compensation for shrinkage

29. The tool life is influenced maximum by

a) Cutting speed
b) Tool material and geometry
c) Cutting fluid
d) Surface conditions of the workpiece
e) Skill of the operator

30. Tool life may be measured by the

a) Total time the tool has been in contact with the job
b) Quantity of material removed between the total sharpening
c) Number of work pieces machined between tool sharpening
d) Time for the flank wear to reach a certain dimension
e) Any one of the above

31. Choose the coolant that would be most appropriate for light cuts on aluminum alloys
a) Kerosene
b) Mineral oil
c) Soluble oil or emulsions
d) Straight fatty oil

32. Which is not the primary function of coolant in a metal cutting operation
a) To cool the tool and work piece and conduct the heat generated
b) To improve the cutting action
c) To help in giving bright shining surface to the job
d) To reduce the friction at the cutting point

33. The cutting speed of a tool refers to

a) Revolution made by the tool in a specified time

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b) Revolutions turned by the job in a specified time
c) Distance travelled by the tool in one revolution of the job
d) Rate at which cutting edge of the tool passes over the surface of work piece

34. Tool signature

a) Is a pictorial view of the tool
b) Outlines the orthographic projection of the tool
c) Represents complete specification of the tool
d) Is a numerical method of tool identification
e) Indicate life of tool

35. With an increase in nose radius of single point cutting tools

a) Tool life increases
b) Excessive heat is generated
c) Surface finish deteriorates
d) Cutting speeds have to be kept small

36. Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have

a) Zero rack angle
b) Positive rack
c) Negative rack
d) Normal rack

37. Cutting tool may be provided with large positive rack angle to
a) Have a better heat dissipation
b) Avoid rubbing with the finished surface
c) Increase the strength of cutting edge
d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces

38. The angle between the face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is known as
a) Rack angle

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b) Clearance angle
c) Lip angle
d) Point angle

39. In metal cutting operation, the cutting angle is defined as the angle
a) between the flank and the horizontal machined surface
b) between the shear plane and the direction of tool travel
c) between the face of tool and the line tangent to the machined surface at the cutting point
d) between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank

40. The angle between the tool face and the plane parallel to the base of the cutting tool is
called
a) Lip angle
b) Cutting angle
c) Rack angle
d) Shear angle

41. Identify the single point cutting tool

a) Milling cutter
b) Hacksaw blade
c) Grinding wheel
d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine

42. Crater wear is predominant in

a) Carbon tool steels
b) Tungsten carbide tools
c) High speed steel tools
d) Ceramic tools

43. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to

a) Chemical action of the coolant

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b) Excessive heat generated during cutting operation
c) Rubbing of tool against the work piece
d) Abrasive action of the chip

44. Which part of the cutting tool is prone to crater wear

a) Flank
b) Face
c) Shank
d) Base

45. Metric thread have included angle:

a) 60°
b) 55°
c) 30°
d) None

46. During manufacturing of spring, the coiling pitch is assumed to be larger than specified
pitch by
a) 5-8%
b) 10-12%
c) 2-5%
d) none

47. Stretching of rolled rings is done to

a) To meet dimensional requirement
b) To relieve stresses
c) To introduce stresses
d) To improve finish

48. Liquid nitrogen containers can be made from

a) Ferritic stainless steel

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b) HSLA steel
c) Titanium
d) Austenitic stainless steel

49. Shell moulding process requires

a) Wooden pattern
b) Plastic pattern
c) Sand pattern
d) Metal pattern

50. The material of pattern in the investment casting is

a) Resin
b) Sand
c) Wax
d) Wood

51. Polymerization is associated with

a) Stainless steel
b) Cast iron
c) Thermoplastic
d) Duralumin

52. Which of the following is a non-destructive test

a) Impact test
b) Charpy test
c) Cupping test
d) Radiography test

53. The main purpose of heat treatment of steels is to change the

a) Chemical composition
b) Mechanical properties

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c) Surface finish
d) Physical properties

54. Normalizing operation is carried out in

a) Water
b) Oil
c) Air
d) Furnace

55. What size of material required for making rolled threads?

(a) Pitch diameter
(b) Root diameter
(c) Major diameter
(d) None

56. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine following stress on inclined surface
(a) Principal stresses
(b) Normal stresses
(c) Maximum shear stresses
(d) All of the above

57. What is Hertzian stress?

(a) Tensile stress on inner surface of cylinder
(b) Bending stress on two contact surface
(c) Contact stress on two contact surfaces
(d) Shear stress on two contact surfaces

58. Antifriction bearings are

(a) Thick lubricated bearing
(b) Thin lubricated bearing

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(c) Ball & roller bearing
(d) Plastic bearing

59. When two elastic bodies collide with each other

(a) Two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
(b) The two bodies tend to compress & deform at the surface of contact
(c) Two bodies begins to retain their original shape
(d) All of the above

60. Teflon is used for bearings because of

(a) Low co-efficient of friction
(b) Better heat dissipation
(c) Smaller space constraint
(d) All of the above

61. Backlash is
(a) Sum of the clearance of two gears
(b) Mutual play between two gears
(c) Amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on
pitch circle
(d) Any of the above

62. Principle effect of humidity is

(a) Corrosion
(b) Leaking from sealed enclosures
(c) Permanent set of packing and gaskets
(d) Differential contraction of metal parts

63. Stress concentration factor is defined as ratio of

(a) Max stress to endurance limit
(b) Nominal stress to endurance limit

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(c) Max stress to nominal stress
(d) Nominal stress to max stress

64. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

(a) Keeping the core dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded ortion of bolt
(b) Keeping the core dia of threads smaller than the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(c) Keeping the nominal dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(d) None of the above

65. A closed cycle gas turbine works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Atkinson cycle

66. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to diesel engine plant
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) Same
(d) May be higher or lower

67. Centre of pressure of an aerofoil with an increase of angle of attack will

(a) Move forward
(b) Move backward
(c) Not move
(d) None of the above

68. Short columns are preferred over long columns from

(a) Strength consideration
(b) Buckling consideration

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(c) Weight consideration
(d) None of the above

69. Mass balancing is done to

(a) Avoid flutter
(b) Increase bending stress
(c) Reduce drag
(d) Distributing mass on control surface

70. Slow plastic deformation of material under constant stress is

(a) Creep
(b) Fatigue
(c) Endurance
(d) Elastic deformation

71. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Discharge
(d) Velocity

72. In a refrigeration cycle, the moisture content is to be removed before it enters into
which system
A. Cold side of system
B. Evaporator
C. compressor
D. condenser

73. In one ton refrigeration machine, the term “one ton” implies
A. One ton refrigerant is used

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B. One ton water can be converted into ice
C. One ton ice when melts from and at 0oC in 24 hours, the refrigerating effects is equivalent to
3000 kcal/hour
D. None of the above

74. Capillary action of liquid is due to the

A. Viscosity of liquid
B. Cohesion of liquid particles
C. Surface tension
D. Adhesion of liquid particles on the surface

75. Cavitation in a pipe will begin when

A. Pressure at any location reaches pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of liquid
B. Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. Flow is increased
D. Pressure is increased

76. During idling process, a petrol engine requires

A. Lean mixture
B. Rich mixture
C. Variable mixture
D. None of above

77. A two-stroke engine is generally preferred to a four-stroke engine because

A. It offers low fuel consumption
B. It gives lesser shocks and vibrations
C. It can be easily started
D. It has smaller size for the same output.

78. In internal combustion engine piston the maximum temperature occurs at

A. Ring section

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B. Gungeon pin
C. Bottom centre
D. Top centre

79. Power available at the shaft of an I.C engine is known is

A. Brake horse power
B. Indicated horse power
C. Net indicated horse power
D. Pumping power

80. In internal combustion (I.C.) engines, combustion of fuel takes place in

A. Outside the cylinder
B. Inside the cylinder
C. Not in the cylinder
D. None of the above

81. In an I –section beam, the bending moment is resisted mainly by

A. Flanges only
B. Web only
C. Both by flanges and web
D. None of the above

82. In a rectangular beam, when width, depth and length are doubled, the bending stress
will be
A. Shall remain unchanged
B. Shall be doubled
C. Shall become ¼ th
D. Shall be halved

83. In a cantilever beam, maximum deflection occurs at where

A. Bending moment is zero

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B. Bending moment is maximum
C. Shear force is zero
D. Slope is zero

84. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as solid shaft transmits

A. Same torque
B. Less torque
C. More torque
D. Unpredictable

85. With rise in temperature , the specific heat of water

a) increases
b) decreases
c) first decreases to minimum and then increases
d) remains constant

86. A system comprising of a single phase , is known as

a) Open system
b) Closed system
c) Homogenous system
d) Heterogeneous system

87. In laminar flow , maximum velocity at the centre of the pipe is how many times
the average velocity?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None of these

88. The flow of water in the pipe of diameter 3000 mm can be measured by

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a) Venturimeter
b) Rotameter
c) Pilot tube
d) Orifice plate

89. The starting torque of slip ring induction motor is increased by

a) Adding external resistance to the rotor
b) Adding external induction to the rotor
c) Increasing the voltage fed to the motor
d) Adding external capacitance to the rotor

90. The function of commutator in a DC machine is

a) To improve commutation
b) To improve efficiency of motor
c) To change alternative voltage to direct
d) To change direct voltage to alternative voltage

91. If A.C. is fed by mistake to a DC motor then DC motor will

a) Burn as the eddy current in the field produce heat
b) Run at its normal speed
c) Run at a lower speed
d) Run continuously but the sparking takes place at the brushes

92. A floating battery is one

a) Which is getting charged
b) In which feeding loads
c) In which battery voltage is equal to charger voltage
d) Which gets charged and discharged simultaneously

93. Which of the following parameter will be more for 16 gauge copper wire in comparison
to 14 gauge copper wire

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a) Cost
b) Strength
c) Resistance
d) Weight

94. The induction of a coil can be increased by

a) Decreasing number of turns
b) Increasing core length
c) Using core material of highly relative permeability
d) None of the above

95. Which of the following displays has minimum power consumption

a) light emitting diode (LED)
b) liquid crystal display (LCD)
c) nixie tube
d) fluorescent

96. Transistor interjunction capacitance causes the following in the amplifier

a) noise
b) harmonic distortion
c) phase shift
d) parasitic oscillation

97. Which of the following rays has the lowest wavelength

a) radio waves
b) x rays
c) infrared waves
d) ultraviolet waves

98. The weight of one cubic meter of air would be around

a) 13 gm

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b) 130 gm
c) 1300 gm
d) 13000 gm

99. A real gas compared to idle gas at very high pressure occupies
a) Less volume
b) More volume
d) Same volume
c) More/less depending on gas

100. Sea water as compared to distilled water will boil at

a) Same temperature
b) Higher temperature
c) Lower temperature
d) Unpredictable

101. Which of the following has least hardness

a) Diamond
b) Topaz
c) Quartz
d) Talc

102. A solution that can resist change in its pH on addition of alkali/acid is called
a) Buffer solution
b) Neutral solution
c) Ideal solution
d) Zero pH solution

103. Brinell number of a metal or an alloy is a measure of its

a) tensile strength
b) toughness

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c) malleability
d) hardness

104. Which of the following materials has a linear stress strain curve
a) low carbon steel
b) copper
c) aluminium
d) rubber

105. For a solid cone of height h, the CG lies on the axis at the distance above the base
equal to
a) h/4
b) h/3
c) 2h/3
d) 3h/8

106. A particle covers equal distance around circular path in equal intervals of time. Which
of the following parameters connected with the motion of particle remains constant with
time?
a) displacement
b) speed
c) velocity
d) acceleration

107. In simple harmonic motion , acceleration is proportional to

a) displacement
b) linear velocity
c) angular velocity
d) rate of change of angular velocity

108. A Body is dropped from rest at height h. It covers a distance of 9/25 h in the last

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second. The height is about
a) 100 m
b) 115 m
c) 125 m
d) 150 m

109. A system of three forces acts on a body and keeps it in equilibrium. The forces need to
be
a) Coplanar Only
b) Concurrent Only
c) Coplanar as well as Concurrent
d) Coplanar but may be or may not be Concurrent

110. All of the following are scalar quantities except

a) Energy
b) Temperature
c) Time
d) Displacement
FAQInterview Questions

1. Why we do not use same technology to start both SI/CI engine?

2. Which one is more efficient? A four stroke engine or a two stroke and why?
3. 4 Stroke engine is more efficient primarily Because of the presence of valves
which precisely control the flow of charge into the chamber and exit the exhaust
gases with proper timing which is hard to achieve by ports in a 2 stroke engine.
4. Why there is no differential in a train. What happens when a train takes a turn?
5. A cantilever beam is loaded a point on its ends what will be the effect in shear
force?

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6. Why vehicle does not move when its gear is applied though parked in slope
area?
7. What is shear force in fluid particle?
8. How gear ratio helps in power variation?
9. What is the angle of twist in drill?
10. What is the difference between impact force and sudden force?
11. How to calculate the turbine efficiency?
12. Why centrifugal pump casing is called involutes casing?
13. What will happen if reciprocating compressor run in exactly opposite
direction?
14. What is the effect of clearance volume in performance of air compressor?
15. What is the advantages and disadvantages of critical speed of turbine?
16. What will happen if oil is mixed with boiler feed water? 17. What is difference
between fan and blowers?

17. What is difference between fan and blowers?

18. What are the protections required to protect turbine?
19. what is critical temperature?
20. Air is a bad conductor of heat. Why it becomes hot in summer?
21. How many stages in compressor in there in gas turbine?
22. Which is more efficient? A rear engine Volvo Bus or a Front engine Volvo
Bus? (Engine Capacity is same for both) why?
23. What is difference between stress and pressure?
24. What is Boiler HP?
25. What is Auto Dosing?
26. What happens when too much oil is injected in the working cylinder?
27. How many manholes should be there on boiler? Why?

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28. What is used to check the amount & quality of fuel in two stroke IC engine?
29. Work done in throttling process is given by which formula?
30. Function of the strainer in IC engine?
31. What is the difference between the air pre-heater & air blower?
32. Why the compression ratio of the diesel engine should be high?
33. A vertical plate and a horizontal plate are suspended in an open room. Both are
heated to the same temperature. Which one will cool first? Why?
34. What is the color of flame if the boiler is running?
35. Which is the best lubricant-air, oil or water?
36. Tell the octane number in Indian petrol?
37. Difference between enthalpy & entropy?
38. What is the difference between safety valve and relief valve?
39. Explain cooling and its types?
40. What is the working principal of air compressor?

41. What is cryogenics and what are its fundamentals?

42. What is the difference between a shaper machine and a planner machine?
43. Why stress relieving of stainless steel is not proffered?
44. What are the advantages of PID controllers compared with those of a PLC?
45. Which two continents are mirror images of each other?
46. Where half nut is used?
47. What is the need for drafting?
48. Turbo charger driven by………….? and what its speed
49. Why…? Turbo charger used in DG….?
50. The stage below saturation is called?
51. Why is a condenser used in a Rankin cycle?
52. What is servo motor?

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53. Can we use light duty vehicle axle into the heavy duty machinery axle? If no
then why?
54. Stress strain diagram for fluid?
55. Where manning formula used?
56. What is level of documentations for a ISO 9001 certified company?
57. What is back plate in centrifugal pumps and its purpose?
58. Why tyres are manufactured in black colour?
59. Whether ductile material can fail in brittle manner? When?
60. On what property u can distinguish material as brittle or ductile?
61. Name fuels used in nuclear power plant?
62. On what thermodynamic cycle nuclear power plant works?
63. How can you increase the efficiency of power plant without changing in effort?
64. What is purpose of governor in Diesel engine?

65. Why petrol engines have more power than diesel engines of same capacity?
66. What is the difference between Torque and Power (layman Idea)?
67. What will be the induced stress in the bar?
68. What is the Difference between Rated Speed and Economic Speed?
69. How to convert from HP to BHP or CC to Bhp please explain????????
70. How the material no. 2062 will mild steel of density 7.85 ? What are the other
codes?
71. Why petrol engine gives more power than diesel engine even though diesel
engine has high compression ratio?
72. What is mean by Resistance welding?
73. Compare Brayton and Otto cycle.
74. Why we have to know the specific frequency of any equipment? does anybody
know about specific frequency ?

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75. What is pulverization?
76. What is the function of an isolator?
77. Why the back wheel of tractor is bigger than front wheel?
78. Flow will increase or decrease or remain same?
79. Why Mechanical seal used in Pumps?
80. The ratio of Emissive to absorption power of heat by a body is equal to heat
emitted by a perfect black body. Who said the statement
81. What is colour of flame if the of Halide Torch detects a refrigerant leakage?
82. How can we remove paint from (painted over)plastic or nylon objects with out
damaging the object?
83. How to calculate or arrive the capacity of a mechanical press?

84. The property of a metal that is determined by the indentation on a metal surface
85. The amount of thickness of the metal sheet that can be welded by ultrasonic
welding is?
86. The amount of carbon present in Cast Iron?
87. Numeric control is used for?
88. The amount of moisture that is to be present in wood to be called dry wood is?
89. The pattern material used in Investment casting Process is?
90. What is the use of offset follower in cam? Why and where we have to use this
type of follower?
91. What is the use of offset follower in cam? Why and where we have to use this
type of follower?
92. State the difference between Forging & Fabrication?
93. What is flange rating?
94. What amount of heat energy loss in ESP?
95. What happen when diesel is injected in petrol engine?

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96. What do you mean by property of system?
97. Why joule-Brayton cycle is not suitable for a reciprocating engine.
98. How does “turbulence” differ from swirl?
99. Is octane number beyond 100 is possible?
100. Explain the effect of fuel structure on knocking.
101. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of LPG as a fuel in S.I. Engine?
102. What is the impact of using throttling device instead of expander in vapour
compression cycle?
103. What is moisture choking? Which refrigerants are more prone to it?
104. What is Montreal protocol and why CFCs are being phased out?

105. Why reverse Joule Brayton is used in aircraft refrigeration system?

106. Explain how solar-energy can used in refrigeration system?
107. Is wet bulb temperature a thermodynamic property?
108. What is the utility of comfort chart?
109. How would you decide whether a reciprocating compressor or centrifugal
compression is to be used in a refrigerating system?
110. Why smoking is not allowed in air conditioned enclosure?
111. Why desert coolers become ineffective in raining season?
112. Why package units are being preferred over central air conditioning system?
113. What is MAPI.
114. What is capital budgetary?
115. What is group technology layout?
116. What is leveling & smoothing in production technology?
117. What is deference between method study & work measurement?
118. How oil is produced? What is the size of well?
119. Pumps used in drilling procedure and why? Why not centrifugal pump? What

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if we want high head and high discharge?
120. Use of CNG, LNG, LPG etc.
121. What is FPPPA charge?
122. What is Whilling Charge?
123. What is preventive maintenances?
Important MCQ
1)   A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves _____

a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece

b. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
c. at an angle of 450
d. none of the above

ANSWER: perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece

2)   What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines?

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a. Drive the lead screw
b. Change the spindle speed
c. Drive the tail-stock
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Change the spindle speed

3)   Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the carriage along longitudinal
axis?

a. Cross-slide
b. Compound rest
c. Apron
d. Saddle

ANSWER: Apron

4)   The function of taper turning process is to ____

a. reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length
b. reduce the diameter by removing material about an axis offset from the axis of workpiece
c. remove the material from end surface of a workpiece
d. all of the above

ANSWER: reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length

5)   The process of bevelling sharp ends of a workpiece is called as ________

a. knurling
b. grooving
c. facing

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d. chamfering

ANSWER: chamfering

6)   In an isolated system, ________ can be transferred between the system and its surrounding.

a. only energy
b. only mass
c. both energy and mass
d. neither energy nor mass

ANSWER: neither energy nor mass

7)   Which of the following is an extensive property?

a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Viscosity
d. All of the above
 ANSWER: Volume

8)   How is absolute pressure measured?

a. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

b. Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
c. Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

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9)   The extensive properties of a system, _______

a. are independent of the mass of the system

b. depend upon temperature of the system
c. depend upon the mass of the system
d. none of the above

ANSWER: depend upon the mass of the system

10)   An isobaric process, has constant _____

a. density
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. volume

ANSWER: pressure
11)   Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?

a. Electrical generators
b. I. C engines
c. Condensers
d. All of the above

ANSWER: I. C engines

12)   Lancashire boilers are ______

a. externally fired boilers

1
b. internally fired boilers
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: internally fired boilers

13)   Smoke tube boilers have large water to steam ratio, hence _____

a. have high evaporation rates

b. are slow in operations
c. temperature stresses inducing failure of feed water arrangement are maximum
d. all of the above

ANSWER: are slow in operations

14)   Which of the following statements are false for reaction turbines?

1. Flow of water can be regulated without any losses

2. It works on the principle of impulse and reaction
3. They are suitable for low heads
4. Water flows at constant atmospheric pressure over the runner

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: 1 and 4

15)   In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in ______

1
a. two strokes of the piston
b. two revolutions of the crankshaft
c. three strokes of the piston
d. four revolutions of the crankshaft

ANSWER: two revolutions of the crankshaft

16)   Which type of bearings are known as anti friction bearings?

a. Sliding contact bearings

b. Rolling contact bearings
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Rolling contact bearings

17)   In roller bearings which type of rolling elements are used?

a. Cylindrical rollers
b. Taper rollers
c. Spherical rollers
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

18)   Why is the load carrying capacity low in ball bearings?

1. Due to line contact between inner race and the ball

2. Due to greater axial dimensions
3. Due to less radial dimensions

1
4. Due to point contact between inner race and the ball

a. 1 and 3
b. only 1
c. only 4
d. 2 and 4

ANSWER: only 4

19)   Cylindrical roller bearings have greater _____

a. axial load carrying capacity

b. thrust load carrying capacity
c. radial load carrying capacity
d. all of the above

ANSWER: radial load carrying capacity

20)   Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Jaw clutch is a positive clutch
b. The power transmitting
capacity of a friction clutch is inversely proportional to the
coefficient of friction between contacting surfaces
c. Driving and driven plates in friction clutches are held together due to radial force applied by the helical
springs
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Jaw clutch is a positive clutch

21)   Determine torque transmitted on the pinion shaft if torque transmitted on gear shaft is 20 Nm.
Consider Gear ratio = 4

1
a. 8 Nm
b. 5 Nm
c. 80 Nm
d. 16 Nm

ANSWER: 5 Nm

22)   Which of the following statements is/are true for gear drives?

a. They can be used for long centre distances

b. They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and parallel shafts
c. They cannot be used for high reduction ratios
d. All of the above

ANSWER: They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and parallel shafts

23)   In which power transmitting drive polygon effect is observed?

a. Belt drive
b. Chain drive
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Chain drive

24)   What is meant by gear ratio?

a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed

b. The ratio of number of teeth on pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Both a. and b.

1
d. None of the above

ANSWER: The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed

25)   Which gears are used to connect two intersecting shaft axes?

a. Crossed helical gear

b. Worm and worm wheel
c. Bevel gears
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Bevel gears

26)   In stress-strain diagram, up to proportional limit ______

a. stress is inversely proportional to strain

b. force is directly proportional to displacement
c. stress is directly proportional to strain
d. strain is directly proportional to stress
 ANSWER: stress is directly proportional to strain

27)   Deformation per unit length is called as ________

a. strain
b. stress
c. modulus of elasticity
d. none of the above

ANSWER: strain

1
28)   Which of the following materials do not have a well defined yield point?

a. Heat treated steel

b. Concrete
c. Carbon fiber
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

29)   Factor of safety is the ratio of _________

a. working stress and ultimate strength

b. yield strength and endurance strength
c. ultimate strength and yield strength
d. yield strength and working stress

ANSWER: yield strength and working stress

30)   The elongation of a bar is 0.5 mm, when a tensile stress of 200 N/mm2 acts on it. Determine original
length of a bar if modulus of elasticity is 150 x 103.

a. 375.93 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 360 mm
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 375.93 mm

Set 2

1
1)   Which of the following statements is/are true for alloy steels?

a. They contain carbon more than 1.7%

b. They are ductile
c. They have low resilience and toughness
d. All of the above

ANSWER: They are ductile

2)   Which of the following is a ferrous alloy?

a. Brass
b. Aluminum alloys
c. Cast steel
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Cast steel

3)   Copper when alloyed with zinc is known as

a. Brass
b. Bronze
c. Babbits
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Brass

4)   The plastic materials which do not undergo chemical change when heated are ____

a. Thermoplasts

1
b. Thermosets
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Thermoplasts

5)   Which of the following is a characteristic of Polytetra-flouro-ethylene?

a. High coefficient of friction

b. Tough at high temperature
c. Resistance to chemical attack
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Resistance to chemical attack

6)   Which of the following statements is/are true for mechanisms?

a. A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed
b. Three kinematic links joined together forms a mechanism
c. Kinematic chain is a part of kinematic pair
d. All of the above

ANSWER: A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed

7)   Which body transmits force with negligible deformation?

a. Elastic body
b. Resistant body
c. Deforming body
d. All of the above

1
ANSWER: Resistant body

8)   What is the primary function of mechanism?

a. Power transmission
b. Power absorption
c. Force transmission
d. Motion transmission

ANSWER: Motion transmission

9)   Which of the following is an inversion of four bar chain?

a. Coupled wheels of locomotive

b. Whitworth quick return mechanism
c. Reciprocating air compressor
d. Hand pump
 ANSWER: Coupled wheels of locomotiv

10)   What are the number of sliding and turning pairs in a slider crank mechanism?

a. 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

b. 2 sliding pairs and 2 turning pairs
c. 3 sliding pairs and 1 turning pair
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

1
11)   What is meant by drag in casting process?

a. Upper part of casting flask

b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
d. Upper and lower part of casting flask

ANSWER: Lower part of casting flask

12)   Casting replica used to make the cavity is called as

a. Mould
b. Pattern
c. Cope
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Pattern
13)   The process of joining similar or dissimilar materials by heating them below 450o C using non-
ferrous filler material is called as ______

a. Brazing
b. Soldering
c. Welding
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Soldering

14)   At forging temperature when a compressive force is applied on the material, it deforms

1
a. elastically in the direction of least resistance
b. elastically in the direction of maximum resistance
c. plastically in the direction of least resistance
d. plastically in the direction of maximum resistance

ANSWER: plastically in the direction of least resistance

15)   What is the average temperature required for hot forging of aluminium alloys?

a. 1100 oC to 1200 oC
b. 350 oC to 525 oC
c. 2000 oC to 2500 oC
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 350 oC to 525 oC

16)   Which process squeezes metals into peaks and troughs with plastic deformation?
a. Grooving
b. Knurling
c. Reaming
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Knurling

17)   Which of the following operations is/are performed on a lathe machine?

a. Spot-facing
b. Parting
c. Reaming

1
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Parting

18)   The process of chamfering the entrance of a drilled hole is known as_____

a. counter-boring
b. counter-sinking
c. counter-fillet
d. trepanning

ANSWER: counter-sinking

19)   On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming?

a. Enlargement of existing hole

b. Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
d. All of the above
 ANSWER: Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole

20)   Which of the following statements is/are false for machine tools?

1. Pillar drilling machine drills holes up to 75 mm

2. Regulating wheel is a component of surface grinding machine
3. Sensitive drilling machine is also known as bench drilling machine
4. The chuck of an internal grinding machine placed in tailstock is driven by an electric motor

a. Only 1
b. 2 and 4

1
c. 1 and 3
d. All of the above

ANSWER: 2 and 4

21)   The radiation pyrometers work on the principle of ______

a. Newton’s law
b. Stefan Boltzmann’s law
c. Zeroth law
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Stefan Boltzmann’s law

22)   Which of the following relations depict relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scale?

a. (oC / 5) = (oF – 32) / 9

b. (oC / 9) = (oF – 32) / 5
c. (oC / 32) = (oF – 9) / 5
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (oC / 5) = (oF – 32) / 9

23)   According to Joule’s law, the internal energy of a perfect gas is the function of absolute ______

a. density
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. volume

1
ANSWER: temperature

24)   According to
Kelvin-Planck statement, it is impossible to construct a device
operating on a cycle which transfers heat from ____

a. low pressure heat reservoir to high pressure reservoir

b. low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir
c. high pressure heat reservoir to low pressure reservoir
d. high temperature heat reservoir to low temperature reservoir

ANSWER: low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir

25)   Which of the following relations is true, for coefficient of performance (C.O.P)?

a. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator = 1

b. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator > 1
c. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator < 1
d. (C.O.P)heat pump – ( C.O.P)refrigerator = 0
 ANSWER: (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator = 1

26)   Thermal efficiency of S.I. engines is low, due to ____

a. low compression ratio

b. high compression ratio
c  medium compression ratio 
d. none

ANSWER: low compression ratio

1
27)   Pump transfers input mechanical energy of an engine, into ______

a. pressure energy of a fluid

b. kinetic energy of a fluid
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

28)   Which of the following protects penstock due to sudden variation of flow or velocity of water?

a. Anchors
b. Forebays
c. Trash rack
d. Surge tank

ANSWER: Surge tank

29)   One ton of refrigeration is equal to ______

a. 120 B Th U/hr
b. 200 B Th U/hr
c. 1200 B Th U/hr
d. 12000 B Th U/hr

ANSWER: 12000 B Th U/hr

30)   What is the function of a moderator?

a. Increases the speed of neutrons

1
b. Increases the speed of electrons
c. Reduces the speed of neutrons
d. Reduces the speed of electrons

ANSWER: Reduces the speed of neutrons

Set 3

1)   Which of the following is a power transmitting element?

a. Nuts and bolts
b. Sprockets and chains
c. Axles
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Sprockets and chains

2)   Machine elements such as bearings are _________
a. holding type elements
b. supporting type elements
c. power transmitting elements
d. all of the above

ANSWER: supporting type elements

3)   The shaft directly connected to the power source is called as ______

a. line shaft

1
b. counter shaft
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: line shaft

4)   Which of the following is a machine shaft?

a. Line shaft
b. Counter shaft
c. Crankshaft
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Crankshaft

5)   Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Axles are used to transmit power
b. Shafts and axles are rotating elements
c. Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Shafts transmit power while axles do not transmit power

6)   Which flat belt drive system has two pulleys mounted on driven shaft and one pulley on driving
shaft?
a. Multiple belt drive
b. Cone pulley drive

1
c. Fast and loose pulley drive
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Fast and loose pulley drive

7)   Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?

1. Belt drive is used in applications having constant speed drive
2. Belt drives can be used at extremely high speeds
3. Belt drives have low power transmitting capacity
4. Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

ANSWER: 1, 2 and 4
8)   Determine
power rating of an electric motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line
shaft transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume Reduction ratio = 1.6
a. 10.36 kW
b. 11.3 kW
c. 7.068 kW
d. 9.12 kW

ANSWER: 7.068 kW

1
9)   In simple
gear trains the direction of rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear only if______
a. even number of idler gears are present
b. odd number of idler gears are present

ANSWER: even number of idler gears are present

10)   Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?

a. To obtain minimum centre distance between driving and driven shaft
b. To have required direction of rotation
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: To have required direction of rotation

11)   The process
of creating mechanisms and shapes of mechanical elements for a machine
to get the desired output for a given input is called as ___
a. analysis
b. innovation
c. synthesis
d. designing

ANSWER: synthesis

1
12)   Which of the following is not a reason to design and redesign a product?
a. Optimum design
b. Innovation
c. Appearance
d. None of the above

ANSWER: None of the above

13)   In design process, which process is followed after selecting the material?
a. Selecting factor of safety
b. Synthesis
c. Analysis of forces
d. Determining mode of failure

ANSWER: Determining mode of failure

14)   Which design consideration deals with appearance of the product?
a. Ergonomics
b. Aesthetics
c. System design
d. Creative design

ANSWER: Aesthetics

15)   The objective of considering ergonomics in machine design is to ____

1. decrease physical stresses

1
2. make user adapt to the machine
3. make machine fit for the user
4. improve appearance of the product
a. only 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4

ANSWER: 1 and 3

16)   Hardness of a material enables it to resist _______

a. abrasion
b. penetration
c. plastic deformation
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

17)   The component deforming progressively under load at high temperatures is called as
a. Resilience
b. Creep
c. Fatigue
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Creep

1
18)   Which of the following ferrous alloys can be casted into intricate shapes?
a. Plain carbon steels
b. Alloy steels
c. Cast irons
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Cast irons

19)   Which of the following is not a property of copper alloy?

a. High electrical conductivity
b. High thermal conductivity
c. High strength
d. None of the above

ANSWER: High strength

20)   What is the percentage of carbon in plain carbon steel?
a. 60 to 80%
b. Less than 1.7%
c. Less than 7%
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Less than 1.7%

21)   What are the minimum number of kinematic pairs required in a kinematic chain?
a. 2 kinematic pairs

1
b. 3 kinematic pairs
c. 4 kinematic pairs
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 4 kinematic pairs

22)   According to Grashof’s law in a four bar chain, one link can complete a rotation only if
________
a. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≥ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
b. (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
c. (sum of longest and shortest link length) = (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
d. None of the above

ANSWER: (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)

23)   Beam engine mechanism is an example of

a. double crank mechanism
b. double lever mechanism
c. crank and lever mechanism
d. none of the above

ANSWER: crank and lever mechanism

24)   Which of the
following inversions of four bar chain, convert oscillatory motion from
one lever to another lever?
a. Ackermann steering gear mechanism

1
b. Beam engine mechanism
c. Coupled wheels of locomotive
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Ackermann steering gear mechanism

25)   In the
slider crank mechanism shown below, link 2 is fixed. This second
inversion of slider crank mechanism is observed in ______
 1
a. Reciprocating air compressor
b. I. C. engine
c. Whitworth quick return mechanism
d. Crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism

ANSWER: Whitworth quick return mechanism

26)   Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?

a. Honing
b. Buffing
c. Lapping
d. Turning

ANSWER: Turning
27)   Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the correct option.
1. Metal forming ————————————– A. Grinding
2. Surface finish ————————————— B. Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working ——————————- C. Extrusion
4. Metal joining —————————————-D. Blanking
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C

1
ANSWER: 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

28)   Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?

a. Blow holes
b. Gas cavities
c. Non-metallic incursions
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

29)   In which of
the following processes, material is neither added nor removed but is
deformed into desired shape?
a. Surface finishing process
b. Metal forming process
c. Casting
d. Machining
 ANSWER: Metal forming process

30)   Which of the following component(s) is/are manufactured by powder metallurgy processes?

a. Gears
b. Cutting tools
c. Bearing bushes
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

1
Strength of MATERIALS

1. Strain is defined as the

ratio of
(a) change in volume to original volume
(b) change in length to original length
(c) change   in   cross-sectional

1
area to original cross-sectional area
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

2. Hooke’s law holds good up to

(a) yield point
(b) limit of proportionality
(c) breaking point
(d) elastic limit
(e) plastic limit.
Ans: b

3. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of

(a) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b) lateral stress and lateral strain
(c) longitudinal   stress   and
 longitudinal strain
(d) shear stress to shear strain
(e) longitudinal stress and lateral strain.
Ans: c
4. The unit of Young’s modulus is
(a)mm/mm
(b)kg/cm
(c)kg
(d)kg/cm2
(e)kg cm2.
Ans: d

5.Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known

as
(a)strain
(b) lateral strain
(c) linear strain  

1
(d) linear stress
(e) unit strain.
Ans: c

6. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the
stress so produced is called
(a) internal resistanpe
(b) tensile stress
(c) transverse stress
(d) compressive stress
(e) working stress.
Ans: b

7. The materials having same elastic

properties in all directions are called
(a) ideal materials
(b) uniform materials
(c) isotropic materials
(d) paractical materials
(e) elastic materials.
Ans: c
8. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding
loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing
loads will behave as under
(a) uniform throughout
(b) increase uniformly
(c) first increase and then decrease
(d) increase uniformly first and then
increase rapidly
(e) increase rapidly first and then
uniformly.
Ans: d

9. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the

1
ratio of
(a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal
strain
(b) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(c) lateral stress and lateral strain
(d) shear stress and shear strain
(e) linear stress and lateral strain.
Ans: d

10. If the radius of wire stretched by a load

is doubled, then its Young’s modulus will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) become four times
(d) become one-fourth
(e) remain unaffected.
Ans: e

11. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel

compared to ultimate compressive stress is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

12. Tensile strength of a material is

obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the
(a) area at the time of fracture
(b) original cross-sectional area
(c) average of (a) and (b)
(d) minimum area after fracture
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

13. The impact strength of a material is an

1
index of its
(a) toughness      
(b) tensile strength
(c) capability of being cold worked
(d) hardness
(e) fatigue strength.
Ans: a

14. The Young’s modulus of a wire is defined

as the stress which will increase the length of wire compared to its original
length
(a) half
(b) same amount
(c) double
(d) one-fourth
(e) four times.
Ans: b

15. Percentage reduction of area in

performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 0%
(d) 15%
(e) 60%.
Ans: c

16. The intensity of stress which causes unit

strain is called
(a) unit stress    
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) principal stress.
Ans: d

1
17. True stress-strain curve for materials is
plotted between
(a) load/original cross-sectional area and
change in length/original length
(b) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area
original area and log.
(c) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area
and change in length/original length
(d) load/instantaneous area and instantaneous
area/original area
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

18. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section, maximum load

observed was 8 tonnes and area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm2. Ultimate
tensile strength of specimen is
(a) 4 tonnes/cm2
(b) 8 tonnes/cm2
(c) 16 tonnes/cm2
(d) 22 tonnes/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear
as compared to in tension is nearly
(a) same
(b) half
(c) one-third
(d) two-third
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: b

20. Which of the following has no unit

(a) kinematic viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) bulk modulus

1
(d) strain
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d

21. Which is the false statement about true

stress-strain method
(a) It does not exist
(b) It is more sensitive to changes in both
metallurgical and mechanical conditions
(c) It gives, a more accurate picture of the
ductility
(d) It can be correlated with stress-strain
values in other tests like torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.
(e) It can be used for compression tests as
well.
Ans: a

22. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen,

the breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on composition
(e) may have any value.
Ans: b

23. If a part is constrained to move and

heated, it will develop
(a) principal stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress
(d) shear stress  
(e) no stress.
Ans: c

24. Which of the following materials is most

elastic

1
(a) rubber
(b) plastic
(c) brass
(d) steel
(e) glass.
Ans: d

25. The value of modulus of elasticity for

mild steel is of the order of
(a) 2.1xl05 kg/cm2
(b) 2.1 X 106 kg/cm2
(c) 2.1 x 107 kg/cm2
(d) 0.1 xlO6 kg/cm2 (<?) 3.8 x 106 kg/cm2.
Ans: b

26. The value of Poisson’s ratio for steel is

between
(a) 0.01 to 0.1    
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33  
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: c

27. The buckling load for a given material

depends on
(a) slenderness ratio and area of
cross-section
(b) Poisson’s ratio and modulus of elasticity
(c) slenderness ratio and modulus of
elasticity
(d) slenderness ratio, area of cross-section
and modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson’s ratio and slenderness ratio.

1
Ans: d

28. The total elongation produced in a bar of

uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight is equal to
that produced by a weight
(a) of same magnitude as that of bar and
applied at the lower end
(b) half the weight of bar applied at lower
end
(c) half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(d) one-fourth of weight of bar applied at
lower end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

29. The property of a material by virtue of

which a body returns to its original, shape after removal of the load is called
(a) plasticity
(b) elasticity
(c) ductility
(d) malleability
(e) resilience.
Ans: b
30. The materials which exhibit the same
elastic properties in all directions are called
(a)  homogeneous
(b)  inelastic
(c)  isotropic
(d)  isentropic
(e)  visco-elastic.
Ans: c

31. The value of Poisson’s ratio for cast

iron is
(a) 0.1 to 0.2      
(b) 0.23 to 0.27

1
(c) 0.25 to 0.33  
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: b

32. The property of a material which allows

it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
(a) plasticity
(b) ductility
(c) elasticity
(d) malleability
(e) drawabihty.
Ans: b

33. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio

of
(a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal
strain
(b) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(c) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(d) lateral stress and lateral strain
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
34. For which material the Poisson’s ratio is
more than unity
(a) steel
(b) copper
(c) aluminium    
(d) cast iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

35. The property of a material by virtue of

which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
(a) malleability  
(b) ductility

1
(c) plasticity
(d) elasticity
(e) reliability.
Ans: a

36. The change in the unit volume of a

material under tension with increase in its Poisson’s ratio will ,
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase initially and then decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

37. The percentage reduction in area of a

cast iron specimen during tensile test would be of the order of
(a) more than 50%
(b) 25—50%      
(c) 10—25%
(d) 5—10%
(e) negligible.
Ans: e
38. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop
(a) thermal stresses
(b) tensile stress
(c) bending
(d) compressive stress
(e) no stress.
Ans: e

39. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit

zone, the
(a) tensile strain increases more quickly
(b) tensile strain decreases more quickly
(c) tensile strain increases in proportion to

1
the stress
(d) tensile strain decreases in proportion to
the stress
(e) tensile strain remains constant.
Ans: a

40. The stress necessary to initiate yielding

is
(a) considerably greater than that necessary
to continue it
(b) considerably lesser than that necessary
to continue it
(c) greater than that necessary to stop it
(d) lesser than that necessary to stop it
(e) equal to that necessary to stop it.
Ans: a

41. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of

slow extension of the material, i. e. stress increasing with the time at a
constant load is called
(a) creeping
(b) yielding
(c) breaking
(d) plasticity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

42. The stress developed in a material at

breaking point in extension is called
(a) breaking stress
(b) fracture stress
(c) yield point stress
(d) ultimate tensile stress
(e) proof stress.
Ans: a

43. Rupture stress is

1
(a) breaking stress
(b) maximum load/original cross-sectional
area
(c) load at breaking point/A
(d) load at breaking point/neck area
(e) maximum stress.
Ans: d

44. The elasticity of various materials is

controlled by its
(a) ultimate tensile stress
(b) proof stress
(c) stress at yield point
(d) stress at elastic limit
(e) tensile stress.
Ans: d

45. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear

strain within elastic limit is known as
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson’s ratio.
Ans: e

46. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric

strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of
equal intensity, is equal to
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) Poisson’s ratio.
Ans: b

1
47. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as
compared to the increase in load is called
(a) elastic point of the material
(b) plastic point of the material
(c) breaking point of the material
(d) yielding point of the material
(e) ultimate point of the material.
Ans: d

48. In question 56, the internal reaction in

bottom 80 cm length will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) zero in first case
(c) different in both cases
(d) data are not sufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

49. Flow stress corresponds to

(a) fluids in motion
(b) breaking point
(c) plastic deformation of solids
(d) rupture stress
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

50. When it is indicated that a member is

elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will
(a) not deform    
(b) be safest
(c) stretch
(d) not stretch
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

51. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is

1
strained within the elastic limits, is known as
(a) strain energy
(b) resilience
(c) proof resilience
(d) modulus of resilience
(e) toughness..
Ans: a

52. Resilience of a material is considered

when it is subjected to
(a) frequent heat treatment
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) shock loading
(e) resonant condition.
Ans: d

53. The maximum strain energy that can be

stored in a body is known as
(a) impact energy
(b) resilience
(c) proof resilience
(d) modulus of resilience
(e) toughness.
Ans: c

54. The total strain energy stored in a body

is termed as
(a) resilience
(b) proof resilience
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) toughness      
(e) impact energy.
Ans: a

55. Proof  resilience   per

1
material is known as
(a) resilience      
(b) proof resilience
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) toughness      
(e) impact energy.
Ans: c

56. The stress induced in a body due to

suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied gradually is
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times      
(d) four times
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

57. The strain energy stored in a body due to

suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied gradually is
(a) same
(b) twice
(c) four times    
(d) eight times
(e) half.
Ans: c

58. A material capable of absorbing large

amount of energy before fracture is known as
(a) ductility
(b) toughness
(c) resilience      
(d) shock proof
(e) plasticity.
Ans: b

59. Coaxing is the method of increasing

1
(a) strength by reversible cycling
(b) corrosion resistance by spraying
(c) hardness by surface treatment
(d) fatigue resistance by over-stressing the
metal by successively increasing loadings
(e) creep by head treatment.
Ans:

60. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the

load at the end is increased, the failure will occur
(a) in the middle
(b) at the tip below the load
(c) at the support
(d) anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

61. A non-yielding support implies that the

(a) support is frictionless
(b) support can take any amount of reaction
(c) support holds member firmly
(d) slope of the beam at the support is zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

62. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic

bar due to its own weight (W) as compared to another similar bar carrying an
additional weight (W) will be
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2.5
(e) 1 : 2.25.
Ans: b

63. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform

1
equally under axial stress, the unit stresses in two materials are
(a) equal
(b) proportional to their respective moduli
of elasticity
(c) inversely proportional to their moduli of
elasticity
(d) average of the sum of moduli of
elas-ticity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

64. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and tensile are
based on the
(a) size of rivet
(b) size of the drilled or reamed hole
(c) average of size of rivet and hole
(d) smaller of the two
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b

65. The distance between the centres of the

rivets in adjacent rows of zig-zag riveted joint is known as
(a) pitch
(b) back pitch
(c) diagonal pitch
(d) diametral pitch
(e) lap.
Ans: c

66. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the

ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist without failure) to the strength
of the unpunched plate in
(a) tension
(b) compression
(c) bearing

1
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

67. When two plates are butt together and

riveted with cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joi;it is known as
(a) lap point
(b) butt joint
(c) single riveted single cover butt joint
(d) double riveted double cover butt joint
(e) single riveted double cover butt joint.
Ans: d

68. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a

row is opposite to other rivet of the outer row, is known as
(a) chain riveted joint
(b) diamond riveted joint
(c) criss-cross riveted joint
(d) zig-zag riveted joint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
69. A riveted joint in which the number
otrivets decrease from innermost to outer most row is called
(a) chain riveted joint
(b) diamond riveted joint
(c) criss-cross riveted joint
(d) zig-zag riveted joint
(e) none of the above.
 Ans: b

70. If the rivets in adjacent rows are

staggered and the outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the
rivets is called
(a) chain riveting

1
(b) zig zag riveting
(c) diamond riveting
(d) criss-cross riveting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

71. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in

the case of following type of joint
(a) butt joint
(b) lap joint
(c) double riveted lap joints
(d) all types of joints
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72. Rivets are made of following type of

material
(a) tough
(b) hard
(c) resilient
(d) ductile
(e) malleable.
Ans: d
73. The weakest section of a diamond riveting
is the section which passes through
(a) the first row
(b) the second row
(c) the central row
(d) one rivet hole of the end row
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

74. The deformation of a bar under its own

weight compared to the deformation of same body subjected to a direct load equal
to weight of the body is
(a) same

1
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: c

75. The force acting along the circumference

will cause stress in the walls in a direction normal to the longitudinal axis
of cylinder; this stress is called
(a) longitudinal stress
(b) hoop stress
(c) yeiled stress
(d) ultimate stress
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

76. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate

thickness 1.5 cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m , then the hoop
stress will be
(a) 30 MN/m2    
(b) 50 MN/m2
(c) 100 MN/m2  
(d) 200 MN/m2
(e) 300 MN/m2.
Ans: c

77. A cylindrical section having no joint is

known as
(a) jointless section
(b) homogeneous section
(c) perfect section
(d) manufactured section
(e) seamless section.
Ans: e

78. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

(a) equal to the hoop stress

1
(b) twice the hoop stress
(c) half of the hoop stress
(d) one-fourth of hoop stress
(e) four times the hoop stress.
Ans: c

79. The safe twisting moment for a compound

shaft is equal to the
(a) maximum calculated value
(b) minimum calculated value
(c) mean value
(d) extreme value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

80. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is

expressed by the
(a) maximum torque it can transmit
(b) number of cycles it undergoes before
failure
(c) elastic limit up to which it resists
torsion, shear and bending stresses
(d) torque required to produce a twist of one
radian per unit length of shaft
(e) maximum power it can transmit at highest
possible-speed.
Ans: d

81. The value of shear stress which is

induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies
(a) from maximum at the center to zero at the
circumference
(b) from zero at the center to maximum at the
circumference
(c) from maximum at the center to mini-mum at

1
the cricumference
(d) from minimum at the centro to maxi-mum at
the circumference
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

82. A key is subjected to side pressure as

well at shearing forces. These pressures are called
(a) bearing stresses
(b) fatigue stresses
(c) crushing stresses
(d) resultant stresses
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

83. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is

doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes required
in key will be
(a) increase key length
(b) increase key depth
(c) increase key width
(d) double all the dimensions
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

84. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected

to tension will be
(a) maximum at periphery and zero at center
(b) maximum at center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) average value in center
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

1
Thermodynamics
1)   The energy of an isolated system

a. is always decreasing
b. is always constant
c. is always increasing
d. none of the above

ANSWER: is always constant

2)   The term which can differentiate thermodynamics from other sciences is ____.

a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Mass
d. none of the above
 ANSWER: Temperature

3)   The thermodynamic work done by the system on the surrounding is considered as ____.

a. positive
b. negative
c. neutral
d. none of the above

ANSWER: positive

4)   When the heat transfer into a system is more than the work transfer out of the system, then

1
a. the internal energy of the system remains constant
b. the internal energy of the system decreases
c. the internal energy of the system increases
d. none of the above

ANSWER: the internal energy of the system increases

5)   Practically heat and work are completely interchangeable forms of energy

a. True
b. False

ANSWER: False

6)   First law of thermodynamics provides

a. a statement that energy balance occurs when a system undergoes the change of state or the process
b. a statement about whether the change of state or the process is at all feasible or not
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: a statement that energy balance occurs when a system undergoes the change of
state or the process

7)   The
thermodynamic cycle in which net heat is transferred to the system and a
net work is transferred from the system is called as

1
a. refrigeration cycle
b. heat engine cycle
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: heat engine cycle

8)   Which of the following is NOT the heat engine cycle

a. refrigerator
b. stem power plant
c. mass of gas confined in a cylinder and piston machine
d. none of the above

ANSWER: refrigerator

9)   Efficiency of heat engine cycle is the ratio of

a. total heat input to the cycle (Qin) to net work output of the cycle (Wnet)
b. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to total heat input to the cycle (Qin)
c. net work output of the cycle (Wnet) to heat rejected from the system (Qout)
d. none of the above

ANSWER: total heat input to the cycle (Qin) to net work output of the cycle (Wnet)

10)   A thermal energy reservoir (TER) has

a. a finite heat capacity

b. an infinite heat capacity

1
c. a finite mass
d. none of the above

ANSWER: an infinite heat capacity

11)   Two reversible adiabatic paths

a. can intersect with each other

b. cannot intersect with each other
c. may intersect or may not intersect
d. none of the above

ANSWER: cannot intersect with each other

12)   Which property of a system is constant in reversible adiabatic process?

a. pressure
b. volume
c. temperature
d. entropy

ANSWER: entropy

13)   Thermodynamics is the study of

a. energy
b. equilibrium
c. entropy
d. none of the above

1
ANSWER: none of the above

14)   What is the cyclic integral of dQ/T for reversible process?

a. less than zero

b. zero
c. more than zero
d. none of the above

ANSWER: zero

15)   What is the cyclic integral of dQ/T for irreversible process?

a. less than zero

b. zero
c. more than zero
d. none of the above
 ANSWER: less than zero

16)   Any
reversible path may be substituted by a reversible zigzag path between
the same end processes such that the heat transfer during this zigzag
path is equal to the heat transfer during original path. What are the
processes involved in the zigzag path?

a. reversible polytropic and isobaric process

b. reversible polytropic and isothermal process
c. reversible adiabatic and isothermal processes

1
d. none of the above

ANSWER: reversible adiabatic and isothermal processes

17)   When a
system is taken from state A to state B through a reversible path 1 and
again the system is taken to its initial state A from B through
different reversible path 2, then what will be the effect on entropy?

a. entropy increases
b. entropy decreases
c. entropy remains constant
d. none of the above

ANSWER: entropy remains constant

18)   What is the exergy of a system?

a. The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium with
its surroundings
b. The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium
with its surroundings
c. The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches thermodynamic equilibrium with
its surroundings
d. none of the above

ANSWER: The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

1
19)   What is the effect on quality of the energy when it is conserved?

a. the quality of the energy increases while conserving its quantity

b. the quality of the energy decreases while conserving its quantity
c. the quality of the energy remains same while conserving its quantity
d. none of the above

ANSWER: the quality of the energy decreases while conserving its quantity

20)   Which
analysis/analyses is/are required to make energy conversion or energy
conveying system more efficient?

a. First law or energy analysis

b. Second law or exergy analysis
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a. and b.

21)   What is a pure substance?

a. a homogeneous mixture of two substances of same composition

b. a substance with constant chemical composition throughout its mass
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: a substance with constant chemical composition throughout its mass

1
22)   A pure substance exists in

a. solid phase
b. liquid phase
c. gaseous phase
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

23)   What is a mole of a substance?

a. One mole has a mass numerically equal to half the molecular weight of the substance
b. One mole has a mass numerically equal to the molecular weight of the substance
c. One mole has a mass numerically equal to double the molecular weight of the substance
d. none of the above

ANSWER: One mole has a mass numerically equal to the molecular weight of the substance
24)   According to
the Avogadro’s law, what is the relation between volume of 1 kg mol of
oxygen and volume of 1 kg mol of nitrogen, at normal pressure and
temperature? (Mass of 1 kg mol of oxygen is 32 kg and mass of 1 kg mol
of nitrogen is 28 kg)

a. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is greater than that of nitrogen

b. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen
c. volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is same as that of nitrogen
d. none of the above

ANSWER: volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is same as that of nitrogen

1
25)   A single phase pure substance has following properties p, V, T, S, U, H, F (Helmholtz function)
and G (Gibbs function). Any one in these properties may be expressed

a. as a function of the same property

b. as a function of any one other property
c. as a function of any two other properties
d. none of the above

ANSWER: as a function of any two other properties

26)   Joule-Kelvin effect can be carried out by

a. throttling process of gas

b. Joule-Thomson expansion of gas
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
 ANSWER: both a. and b.

27)   What will be the net change in internal energy of working fluid of power cycle over the
complete cycle?

a. net change in internal energy of working fluid will be positive

b. net change in internal energy of working fluid will be negative
c. no any net change in internal energy of working fluid
d. none of the above

ANSWER: no any net change in internal energy of working fluid

1
28)   What is the
relation between net energy transferred to unit mass of the working
fluid as heat in the power cycle and net energy transfer as work from
the working fluid in the same power cycle, if the cycle works ideally?

a. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is greater than net
energy transfer as work from the working fluid in the same power cycle
b. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is less than net
energy transfer as work from the working fluid in the same power cycle
c. net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle is equal to net
energy transfer as work from the working fluid in the same power cycle
d. cannot say

ANSWER: net energy transferred to unit mass of the working fluid as heat in the power cycle
is equal to net energy transfer as work from the working fluid in the same power cycle

29)   What is the formula for efficiency of vapour power cycle?

a. ηcycle = Wnet / Qin

b. ηcycle = (WT – WP) / Qin
c. ηcycle = (Qin – Qout) / Qin
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

30)   Which processes do the Rankine cycle contain?

a. two isothermal and two isochoric processes

b. two isentropic and two isobaric processes

1
c. two isentropic and two isothermal processes
d. two isothermal and two isobaric processes

ANSWER: two isentropic and two isobaric processes

31)   At ideal condition of vapour power cycle, reversible constant pressure heat rejection is carried
out at

a. boiler
b. turbine
c. condenser
d. feed pump

ANSWER: condenser

32)   Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle?

a. reversible adiabatic compression

b. reversible adiabatic expansion
c. reversible constant pressure heat addition
d. reversible constant pressure heat rejection

ANSWER: reversible adiabatic expansion

33)   In the T-s

diagram of vapour power cycle, what is the condition of stem at the
starting of turbine expansion?

1
a. wet with dryness fraction 0.8
b. wet with dryness fraction 0.99
c. dry saturated
d. superheated

ANSWER: dry saturated

34)   The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are

a. cyclic
b. non-cyclic
c. either cyclic or non-cyclic
d. none of the above

ANSWER: either cyclic or non-cyclic

35)   Internal combustion engine is the example of

a. cyclic heat engine

1
b. non-cyclic heat engine
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: non-cyclic heat engine

36)   The cycle which consists of two reversible isotherms and two reversible isochores is called as

a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle

ANSWER: Stirling cycle

37)   Two reversible isothermal processes and two reversible isobaric processes are carried out in

a. Rankine cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Stirling cycle
d. Ericsson cycle

ANSWER: Ericsson cycle

38)   Which thermodynamic cycle, for the same condition, has highest efficiency among the others?

a. Carnot cycle
b. Stirling cycle
c. Ericsson cycle

1
d. None. All of the above have same efficiency

ANSWER: None. All of the above have same efficiency

39)   What is the correct formula for net work done of reciprocating engine?

a. Wnet = mean effective pressure × clearance volume

b. Wnet = mean effective pressure × total volume of cylinder
c. Wnet = mean effective pressure × displacement volume
d. none of the above

ANSWER: Wnet = mean effective pressure × displacement volume

40)   What is the reason of the fact that the internal combustion engine does not complete
thermodynamic cycle?

a. because every time fresh air is taken inside the engine and combustion products are thrown out of the
engine
b. because permanent chemical change is undergone by the working fluid in combustion chamber
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

41)   The heat pump

a. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it to low temperature region with production
of useful work
b. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to high temperature region with production

1
of useful work
c. receives heat from high temperature region and discharge it to low temperature region with utilization
of external work
d. receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to high temperature region with utilization
of external work

ANSWER: receives heat from low temperature region and discharge it to high temperature
region with utilization of external work
 1
42)   What is correct formula for calculating COP of heat pump?

a. [COP]H. P. = Q1 / W
b. [COP]H. P. = Q2 / W
c. [COP]H. P. = W / Q1
d. [COP]H. P. = W / Q2

ANSWER: [COP]H. P. = Q1 / W

43)   How is the COP of a refrigerator calculated?

 1
a. [COP]Ref. = Q1 / W
b. [COP]Ref. = Q2 / W
c. [COP]Ref. = W / Q1
d. [COP]Ref. = W / Q2

ANSWER: [COP]Ref. = Q2 / W

44)   Where is main concentration in refrigeration for its calculation?

a. high temperature reservoir

b. low temperature reservoir
c. both high temperature and low temperature reservoirs
d. none of the above

ANSWER: low temperature reservoir

45)   What is the relation between [COP]H. P. = [COP]Ref.?

a. [COP]H. P. = [COP]Ref.
b. [COP]H. P. + [COP]Ref. = 1
c. [COP]H. P. – [COP]Ref. = 1
d. [COP]H. P. × [COP]Ref. = 1

ANSWER: [COP]H. P. – [COP]Ref. = 1

46)   What is the effect of decrease in temperature difference between two reservoirs of heat pump
on its COP?

1
a. COP increases with decreases in temperature difference between two reservoirs
b. COP decreases with decreases in temperature difference between two reservoirs
c. COP does not affected by change in temperature difference between two reservoirs
d. cannot say

ANSWER: COP increases with decreases in temperature difference between two reservoirs

47)   Dry air does NOT contain

a. krypton
b. argon
c. neon
d. none of the above

ANSWER: none of the above

48)   The ratio of
partial pressure of water vapour in a mixture to the saturation
 pressure of water at the same temperature of the mixture is called as

a. humidity
b. partial humidity
c. specific humidity
d. relative humidity

ANSWER: relative humidity

49)   What is the specific humidity?

1
a. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
b. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
c. the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
d. the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour

ANSWER: the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and
water vapour

50)   The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called as

a. fire tube boiler

b. water tube boiler
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: water tube boiler

SET 2
1. Which of the following
variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d

2. Which of the following laws is applicable

for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle’s law    
(b) Charles’law

1
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule’s law.
Ans: d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

(a) Centigrade    
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit      
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne              
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is

(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour              
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is

(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer      
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

1
(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect

gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as
(a) temperature    
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept
constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and
temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at

very high pressure occupies
(a) more volume  
(b) less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behaviour
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a

10. General gas equation is

(a) PV=nRT      
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b

11. According to Dalton’s law, the total pres

1
sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided
by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as

gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly encountered
temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the
boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries

1
of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the

absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the

collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a

18. The pressure’of a gas in terms of its

mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3

1
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms

of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves

(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system
becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of – 273 °K
Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) – 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure  
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c

1
23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e.,

absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of – 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can’t be attained.
Ans: a

25. Intensive property of a system is one

whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system, like
volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the
system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but
on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not
on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure

is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24

1
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is

equal to
(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp – Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully

determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
 Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d

30. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b

1
31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of
temperature
(a) Charles’ law  
(b) Joule’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Boyle’s law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat

of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles’ Law  
(b) Joule’s Law
(c) Regnault’s Law
(d) Boyle’s Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy  crosses the
boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries
of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy

1
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
 Ans: c

35. According to which law, all perfect gases

change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C
change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule’s law    
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles’ law.
Ans: e

36. Gases have

(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and
sometimes two values of specific heat.
Ans: b
37. According to Avogadro’s Hypothesis
(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect
gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of
two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the
molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed
systems.
Ans: a

38. Extensive property of a system is one

1
whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system like
volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the
system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but
on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not
on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of

all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(b) Dalton’s law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule’s law.
Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to

gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases
is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight

1
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure,

keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to
(a) + v
(b) – ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the
system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the
boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries
of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the
energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: b
44. Properties of substances like pressure,
temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b

45. Which of the following quantities is not

the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature

1
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d

46. According to Avogadro’s law, for a given

pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume  proportional to its
molecular weight
(b) occupies volume  proportional to its
specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to
its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to
its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a

(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.
Ans: d

48. Which of the following is the property of

a system
(a) pressure and temperature
(b) internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following

parts of oxygen

1
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the

intensive property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Ans: d

51. Which of the following items is not a

path function
(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy
(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between

a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heattransferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a

53. Heat and work are

(a) point functions

1
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.
Ans: c

54. Which of the following parameters is

constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic

process indicates it to be
(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.
Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have

(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two
values under other conditions.
Ans: a

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at

constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is
(a) 54°C

1
(b) 327°C
(c) 108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C
Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B

and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV”=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a

polytropic process pV” = C, then the process is known as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature    
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

60. The index of compression n tends to reach

ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat
does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat
changes with temperature.
Ans: d

1
61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the
heat supplied at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.
Ans: a

62. The term N.T.P. stands for

(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.
Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the

product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) isentropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e

64. In an isothermal process, the internal

energy of gas molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the
properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behaviour.
Ans: c

1
65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and
irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in
equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each
other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.
Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed

with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.
Ans: b

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic

property of temperature is given by
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro’s hypothesis.
Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to

(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.

1
Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following

process
(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

70. For which of the following substances,

the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V

changes from 1 m  to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04kiojoules.
Ans: c

72. The value of the product of molecular

weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.

1
Ans: c

73. On volume basis, air contains following

parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.
Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as

equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular

weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.
Ans: b

76. For which of the following substances,

the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.

1
Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process

(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
Ans: c

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand

through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: e

79. The specific heat of air increases with

increase in
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow
Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum

through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a

1
81. Which of the following processes are
thermodynamically reversible
(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e

82. Which of the following processes is

irreversible process
(a) isothermal      
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible,

following must be satisfied
(a) free expansion or friction resisted
expansion/compression process should not be encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature
of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature
of cold source and working sub-stance should be same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be

reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working substance
should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum

1
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible

when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at

600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a
87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a
movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the process 300
kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in
Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing

efficiency of Carnot engine is to

1
(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.
Ans: d

89. Entropy change depends on

(a) heat transfer  
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state
(e) change of pressure and volume.
Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change

in entropy is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.
Ans: c
91. Isochoric process is one in which
(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by
the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take
place.
Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) work done by a system is equal to heat
transferred by the system

1
(b) total   internal   energy
  of  a   system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor

destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the

relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is

equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal

energy

1
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed

system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at
constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: c

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold
substance.
Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known

as
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.
Ans: d

100. First law of thermodynamics

1
(a) enables to determine change in internal
energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the
system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in
entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work
and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to

a gas results in
(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing
external work
(e) doing external work.
Ans: d
102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.
Ans: a

103. Measurement of temperature is based on

(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics

1
(e) joule’s law.
Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material
around the engine.
Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

(a) initial temperature is 0°K
(b) final temperature is 0°K
(c) difference between initial and final
temperature is 0°K
(d) final temperature is 0°C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.
Ans: b

106. An engine operates between temperatures

of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal
work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible

manner, which of the following property of the working substance will change
accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy

1
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of

processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in
equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system
cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to
irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be
zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the

perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low
temperature source to high temperature source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its
own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature
differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed

having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistications

1
(e) desirable.
Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat

engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and
working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of
sophistications
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred

at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthaply
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: c
114. A diathermic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction

1
(e) dos not exist.
Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator

inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the
temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will
remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on
the capacity.
Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a

punctured football
(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depend-ing
upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.
Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made

to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the firuosphejric
pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric
pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c

1
119. During throttling process
(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of
steam
(d) all of the above
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears

as
(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.
Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading

is a
sign of approaching
(a) fine weather  
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.
Ans: c

122. The unit’of universal gas constant is

(a) watts/°K
(b) dynes/°C
(c) ergscm/°K    
(d)erg/°K
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

1
123. Calorie is a measure of
(a) specific heat  
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity  
(d)entropy
(e) work.
Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg    
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.
Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg  
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric

pressure is equal to
(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.
Ans: b

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the

law of

1
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.
Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is

(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion
would violate the laws of thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.
Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck’s law deals with

(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.
Ans: c

130. According to Clausis statement of second

law of thermodynamics
(a) heat can’t be transferred from low
temperature source to high temperature source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature
to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low
temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity
(d) heat can’t be transferred from low
temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy

1
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on

(a) Carnot cycle  
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an

irreversible cycle
(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four

processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and
one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant
pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine

depends on
(a) working substance
(b) design of engine
(c) size of engine

1
(d) type of fuel fired
(e) temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same

heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel
cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto
cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally
efficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is

maximum for
(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.
Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is

(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Ans: a

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four

processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics, and two constant

1
volumes.
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and
one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant
pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles

operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle
as compared to Carnot cycle
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles
(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Ans: a

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and

two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle      
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle    
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

1
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists’ of following

four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two   isentropics   and  
two   constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and
one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant
pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a

reversible cycle
(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at

constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.

1
Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with

decrease in cut off
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has

maximum efficiency
(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.
Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle

without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending  on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle

with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on
ap-plication

1
(e) unpredictable.   “
Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air

craft refrigeration
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

151. Gas turbine cycle consists of

(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and
one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant
pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
152. The thermodynamic difference between a
Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can’t work with saturated
steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature
below the maximum temperature of the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two
places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

HEAT TRANSFER
1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C  
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.

Ans: b

2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units

is
(a) J/m2 sec   
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K   
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.

Ans: e

1
3.     Thermal conductivity
of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)    remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e)    unpredictable.

Ans: b

4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic

amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e)    unpredictable.

Ans: b

5.     Heat transfer takes

place as per –
(a)     zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b)    first law of thermodynamic
(c)    second law of the thermodynamics
(d)    Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan’s law.

Ans: c

6.  When heat is transferred from one

particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated particles, it is
referred to as heat transfer by
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)     radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.

1
Ans: a

7.    When heat is transferred form

hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening
medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)     radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.
Ans: c

8.    Sensible heat is the heat required to

(a)    change vapour into liquid
(b)    change liquid into vapour
(c)    increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d)    convert water into steam and superheat it
(e)    convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c

9.    The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence

of moisture would
(a) increase   
(b) decrease
(c)    remain unaffected
(d)    may increase/decrease  depending  on
temperature and thickness of insulation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

10.    When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is

referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction      
(b) convection
(c) radiation   
(d) scattering

1
(e) convection and radiation.   
Ans: b

11.    Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection   
(c)     radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.
Ans: b

12.    Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by

radiation
(a)    blast furnace
(b)    heating of building
(c)    cooling of parts in furnace
(d)    heat received by a person from fireplace
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: d

13.    Heat is closely related with

(a) liquids   
(b) energy
(c) temperature     
(d) entropy
(e) enthalpy.
Ans: c

14.    Pick up tne wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to
other depends directly on
(a) face area   
(b) time
(c) thickness
(d) temperature difference
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: c

1
15.    Metals are good conductors of heat because
(a)    their atoms collide frequently
(b)    thier atoms-are relatively far apart
(c)    they contain free electrons
(d)    they have high density
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: a

16.     Which of the following is a case of steady state heat

transfer
(a) I.C. engine      
(b) air preheaters
(c) heating of building in winter
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

17.    Total heat is the heat required to

(a)    change vapour into liquid
(b)    change liquid into vapour
(c)    increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(d)    convert water into steam and superheat it
(e)    convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: d

18.    Cork is a good insulator because it has

(a)    free electrons
(b)    atoms colliding frequency
(c)    low density     
(d)     porous body
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: d

19.    Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in

temperature
(a) increases   

1
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

20.    Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

(a) 0.1   
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.42   
(d) 0.51
(e) 0.64.
Ans: d

21.    Temperature of steam at around 540°C canbe measured by

(a) thermometer  
(b) radiatiouv pyrometer
(c) thermistor       
(d) thermocouple
(e) thermopile.
Ans: d
22.    Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m
hr °C is of the order of
(a) 0.002   
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.01   
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b

23.    The time constant of a thermocouple is

(a)    the   time   taken  
to   attain   the   final temperature to be
measured

1
(b)    the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature
difference
(c)    the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial
temperature difference
(d)    determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

24.    Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)    remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

25.    Heat flows from one body to other when they have
(a)    different heat contents
(b)    different specific heat
(c)    different atomic structure
(d)    different temperatures
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d
26.    The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
used in heat transfer problems of
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)    radiation
(d)    all the three combined
(e)     conduction and comte_ction.
Ans: e

27.    In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity

(kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by
(a)      hr (time)   
(b)      sqm (area)

1
(c)    °C (temperature)
(d)     cm (thickness)
(e)      kcal (heat).
Ans: d

28.    The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

(a)    directly proportional to the surface area of the body
(b)    directly proportional to the temperature difference on
the two faces of the body
(c)    dependent upon the material of the body
(d)    inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

29.    Which of the following has least value of conductivity

(a) glass   
(b) water
(c) plastic   
(d) rubber
(e) air.
Ans: e
30.  Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal
conductivity
(a) steam   
(b) solid ice
(c) melting ice      
(d) water
(e) boiling water.
Ans: b

31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from

sample to sample because of variation in
(a) composition    
(b) density

1
(c) porosity   
(d) structure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the

(a)    quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm
cube of material when opposite faces ^re maintained at a temperature difference
of 1°C
(b)    quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of
the material of area one cm square, thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in
temperature by 1°C
(c)    heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit
thickness when a temperature difference of unity is maintained between opposite
faces
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
 Ans: d

33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

(a) aluminium      
(b) steel
(c) brass   
(d) copper
(e) lead.
Ans: a

34.    Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour

pressure unless it is prevented by
(a)    high thickness of insulation
(b)    high vapour pressure
(c)    less thermal conductivity insulator
(d)    a vapour seal  
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: d

35.    Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz,

1
conduction, convection and radiation in
(a)     electric heater
(b)     steam condenser
(c)    melting of ice
(d)    refrigerator condenser coils
(e)    boiler.
Ans: e

36.    According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

(a)    it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature
source to t high temperature source
(b)    heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
(c)    all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
(d)    heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by
combination of conduction, convection and radiation
(e)    rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and
temperature difference.
Ans: c

37.    The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same
thickness having their thermal conductivities as ATj – 2K2 will be
(a) I   
(b) 0.5
(c) 2   
(d) 0.25
(e) 4.0
Ans: c

38.    Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

(a)    its temperature
(b)    nature of the body
(c)    kind and extent of its surface
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

1
39. Thermal diffusivity is
(a)    a dimensionless parameter
(b)    function of temperature
(c)    used as mathematical model
(d)    a physical property of the material
(e)    useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
Ans: d

40.    Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

(a)    proportional  of thermal  conductivity
(b)    inversely proportional to k
(c)    proportional to (kf
(d)    inversely proportional to k2
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

41.    Unit of thermal diffusivity is

(a) m2/hr   
(b) m2/hr°C
(c) kcal/m2 hr      
(d) kcal/m.hr°C
(e) kcal/m2 hr°C.
Ans: a

43.    Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

(a) moisture   
(b) density
(c) temperature     
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

44.    In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water

tube, even though flow may be turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer
of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film takes

1
place by
(a)     convection      
(b)     radiation
(c)    conduction
(d)    both convection and conduction
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

45.    Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube

(a) Equivalent thickness of film
(b) Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscosity
(c) Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
(d) Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermal conductivity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

46.    Heat conducted through unit area and unit thick face per
unit time when temperature difference between opposite faces is unity,is called
(a)    thermal resistance
(b)    thermal coefficient
(c)    temperature gradient
(d)    thermal conductivity
(e)    heat-transfer.
Ans: d

49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid
angle, along a normal to the surface, is known as
(a)     emissivity   
(b)     transmissive
(c)    reflectivity
(d)    intensity of radiation
(e)    absorptivity.
Ans: d

50.    Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a

black body is

1
(a)     higher   
(b)     lower
(c)    same
(d)    depends upon the shape of body
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

51.    A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a)    varies with temperature
(b)    varies with wavelength of the incident ray
(c)    is equal to its emissivity
(d)    does not vary  with temperature and. wavelength of
the incident ray
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

53.    Two balls of same material and finish have their

diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are heated to same temperature and
allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to
smaller one will be in the ratio of
(a)  1 :1   
(b)  2: 1
(c)  1 : 2   
(d)  4 : 1
(e)  1 : 4.
Ans: c

55.    A non-dimensional number generally associated with

natural convection heat transfer is
(a)    Grashoff number
(b)    Nusselt number
(c)    Weber number
(d)    Prandtl number
(e)    Reynold number.
Ans: a

1
56.    LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as
compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is
(a)     higher   
(b)     lower
(c)    same
(d)    depends on the area of heat exchanger
(e)    depends on temperature conditions.
Ans: a

57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between

temperatures of
(a)    cold water inlet and outlet
(b)    hot medium inlet and outlet
(c)    hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
(d)    hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

58.   In counter flow heat exchangers

(a)    both the fluids at inlet (of heat exchanger where hot
fluid enters) are in their coldest state
(b)    both the fluids at inlet are in their hottest state
(c)    both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
(d)    one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state
at inlet
(e)    any combination is possible depending on design of heat
exchanger.
Ans: b

59.    A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating

materials put over each other. For best results
(a)    better insulation should be put over pipe and better one
over it
(b)    inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better
one over it

1
(c)    both may be put in any order
(d)    whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one
would depend on steam temperature
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: a

61.    Fourier’s law of heat conduction is valid for

(a)    one dimensional cases only
(b)    two dimensional cases only
(c)    three dimensional cases only
(d)    regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
(e)    irregular surfaces.
Ans: a

62.    According of Kirchhoff law,

(a)    radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute
temperature
(b)    emissive power depends on temperature
(c)    emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all
bodies
(d)    ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum
for perfectly black body
(e)    ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all
bodies is same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body.
Ans: e

63.    All radiations in a black body are

(a) reflected   
(b) refracted
(c) transmitted      
(d) absorbed
(e) partly reflected and partly absorbed.
Ans: d

64.    According to Kirchoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to

absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the emissive power of a
(a)    grey body

1
(b)    brilliant white polished body
(c)    red hot body   
(d)     black body
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

65.    The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

used in case of heat transfer by
(a)     conduction     
(b)     convection
(c)    radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.
Ans: d

66.    The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

(a) kcal/m2   
(b) kcal/hr °C
(c) kcal/m2 hr °C
(4) kacl/m hr °C   
(e) kcal/m3 hr °C.
Ans: c
68.    Joule sec is the unit of
(a)    universal gas constant
(b)    kinematic viscosity
(c)    thermal conductivity
(d)    Planck’s constant
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

69.    The value of Portland number for air is about

(a) 0.1   
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.7   
(d) 1.7

1
(e) 10.5.
Ans: c

70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
(a) Wien’s law
(b) Planck’s law
(c) Stefan’s law
(d) Fourier’s law
(e) Kirchhoff’s law.
Ans: a

72.    Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow

compared to parallel flow will be
(a)     same   
(b)     more
(c)    less
(d)    depends on other factors
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

73.    The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher

temperatures is largely in the range of
(a)    shorter wavelength
(b)    longer wavelength
(c)    remains same at all wavelengths
(d)    wavelength has nothing to do with it
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

74.    Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black

body is
(a) same   
(b) higher
(c) more or less same
(d) very much lower
(e) very much higher.

1
Ans: d

75.    According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit

radiant energy at a rate proportional to
(a)    absolute temperature
(b)    square of temperature
(c)    fourth power of absolute temperature
(d)    fourth power of temperature
(e)    cube of absolute temperature.
Ans: c

76.    Which of the following property of air does not increase

with rise in temperature
(a)    thermal conductivity
(b)    thermal diffusivity
(c)    density
(d)    dynamic viscosity
(e)    kinematic viscosity.
Ans: c

77.    The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is

(a) watt/cm2 °K    
(b) watt/cm4 °K
(c) watt2/cm °K4  
(d) watt/cm2 °K4
(e) watt/cm2 °K2.
Ans: d

78.    In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is

function of
(a)    Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
(b)    Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
(c)    Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(d)    Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

1
79.   Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)    radiation
(d)    conduction and radiation combined
(e)    convection and radiation combined.
Ans: c

80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally

(a)    more than those for liquids
(b)    less than those for liquids
(c)    more than those for solids
(d)    dependent on the viscosity
(e)    same as for the liquids.
Ans: a

81. The thermal diffusivity for solids are generally

(a)    less than those for gases
(b)    jess than those for liquids
(c)    more than those for liquids and gases
(d)     more or less same as for liquids and gases
(e)     zerci.
 Ans: c

83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is

(a)     directly proportional to thermal conductivity
(b)     inversely  proportional  to density 
of substance
(c)    inversely proportional to specific heat
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

85.    The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of

all bodies is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black

1
body. This statement is known as
(a)     Krichoff’s law
(b)     Stefan’s law
(c)    Wien’ law       
(d)     Planck’s law
(e)     Black body law.
Ans: a

86.    According to Stefan’s law, the total radiation from a

black body per second per unit area is proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) T2   
(c) T5
(d) t   
(e) l/T.
Ans: d

87.    According to Wien’s law, the wavelength corresponding to

maximum energy is proportion to
(a)    absolute temperature (T)
(b)    I2   
(c)     f
(d)    
t                      

(e)     1/r.
Ans: a

88.    Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be

white when
(a)    p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b)    p=l,T = 0anda = 0
(c)    p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d)    x = 0, a + p = 1
(e)    a = 0, x + p = 1.

1
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Ans: b

89.    Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be

black when
(a)    p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b)    p= l,T = 0anda = 0
(c)    p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d)    x = 0, a + p = 0
(e)    a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: a

90.    Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque

when
(a)    p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b)    p=l,x = 0anda = 0
(c)    p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d)    x – 0, a + p = 1
(e)    a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Ans: d
91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation
emitted by a black body per unit
(a) temperature    
(b) thickness
(c) area   
(d) time
(e) area and time.
Ans: d

92.    The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total

energy falling on it is called
(a)    absorptive power
(b)    emissive power

1
(c)    absorptivity     
(d)     emissivity
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

93.    40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a

thermally transparent body is reflected back. If the transmissivity of the body
be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
(a) 0.45   
(b) 0.55
(c) 0.40   
(d) 0.75
(e) 0.60.
Ans: a

94.    The amount of radiation mainly depends on

(a)    nature of body
(b)    temperature of body
(c)    type of surface of body
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d
95.    The e missive power of a body depends upon its
(a)    temperature
(b)    wave length
(c)    physical nature
(d)    all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
 Ans: d

96.    Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C

and 70°C. The heat transfer will take place mainly by
(a)     convection      
(b)     free convection
(c)    forced convection

1
(d)    radiation
(e)    radiation and convection.
Ans: d

97.    Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

(a)    at all temperatures
(b)    at one particular temperature
(c)    when system is under thermal equilibrium
(d)    at critical temperature
(e)    for a polished body.
Ans: c

98.    In re generator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes

place by
(a)     direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
(b)    a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
(c)    flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
(d)    generation of heat again and again
(e)    indirect transfer.
Ans: c

99.    A perfect black body is one which

(a)    is black in color
(b)    reflects all heat
(c)    transmits all heat radiations
(d)    absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on
it
(e)    fully opaque.
Ans: d

100.    Planck’s law holds good for

(a)    black bodies
(b)    polished bodies
(c)    all colored bodies
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.

1
Ans: a

101.    If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27°C

to 627°C, then its e missive power changes in the ratio of
(a) 3   
(b) 6
(c) 9   
(d) 27
(e) 81.
Ans: e

102.    Depending on the radiating properties, body will be

transparent when
(a)    p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b)    p=l,x = 0, and a = 0
(c)    p = 0, T= l, and a = 0
(d)    X = 0, a + p = 1
(e)     a = 0,x + p= 1.
Ans: c

103.   A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a)    varies with temperature
(b)    varies with the wave length of incident ray
(c)    varies with both
(d)    does not vary with temperature and wave length of the
incident ray
(e)     there is no such criterion.
Ans: d

Engineering Mechanics
1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b

2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units

is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram meter

1
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e

3. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton meter
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram meter/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b

4. Forces are called concurrent when their

lines of action meet in
(a) one point      
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a

5. Forces are called coplanar when all of

them acting on body lie in
(a) one point      
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b

6. A force acting on a body may

(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
(e) all of the above.

1
Ans: e

7. Which is the correct statement about law

of polygon of forces ?
(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point
can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then
the forces are in equilibrium
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting
at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point
can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

9. If a number of forces act simultaneously

on
a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through
C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
Ans: b

1
11. A force is completely defined when we
specify
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at

an angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d

13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts

of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of
their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e

14. The resolved part of the resultant of two

forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts
of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the
forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied

1
by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the
sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the
tangent of 9.
Ans: a

15. Which of the following do not have

identical dimensions ?
(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e

16. Which of the following is not the unit of

distance ?
(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimetre
(e) milestone.
Ans: e

17. Which of the following is not the unit of

power ?
(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e

18. Which of the following is not the unit of

work, energy and heat ?

1
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d

19. Which of the following is not the unit of

pressure ?
(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere  
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e

20. The weight of a body is due to

(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmosphere
(d) force of attraction experienced by
particles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards
the center of the earth.
Ans: e

21. The forces, which meet at one point, but

their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

22. When trying to turn a key into a lock,

1
following is applied
(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e

23. Which of the following is not a scalar

quantity
(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e

24. According to principle of

transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the center of
gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line
of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of
action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the
body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

25. Which of the following is a vector

quantity
(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum  

1
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c

26. The magnitude of two forces, which when

acting at right angle produce resultant force  of VlOkg and when acting at
60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

27. A number of forces acting at a point will

be in equilibrium if
(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two
per-pendicular directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces
acting in opposite direction
(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c

29. According to principle of moments

(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum
is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of

1
their moments about any point in their plane is zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any
two forces about any point is equal to moment of theiwesultant about the same
point
(d) positive and negative couples can be
balanced
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration  
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a

31. According to law of triangle of forces

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be
represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle
are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in
order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the
other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

33. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet
in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are

1
parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

34. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for

(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to
equivalent statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a

35. A heavy ladder resting on floor and

against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth
surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough
surfaces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all
conditions.
Ans: c

38. According to Lami’s theorem

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in
equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be
represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle
are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in
equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in

1
equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the
other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

39. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments

(a) balance each other
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e

40. A framed structure is perfect if it

contains members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) ‘2n-l
(d) n – 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
42. The product of either force of couple
with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

43. In detennining stresses in frames by

methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an imaginary
section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the

1
frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the
frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the
frame
(d) three members with known forces of the
frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b

44. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina

lies at
(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

45. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on

the axis at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above
the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

46. Center of percussion is

(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant
of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can

1
rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of gravity.
Ans: c

47. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone

lies on the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above
the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

48. The units of moment of inertia of an area

are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
49. The center of percussion of the
homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d

50. The center of gravity of a triangle lies

at the point of
(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes

1
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

51. The units of moment of inertia of mass

are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a

52. The possible loading in various members

of framed structures are
(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(d) all of the above
(e) bending.
Ans: a
53. A heavy string attached at two ends at
same horizontal level and when central dip is very small approaches the
following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola    
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b

54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter

length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20 meters apart. If the
horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span

1
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c

55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is

cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the
remainder from the center of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a

58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the

following :
(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the
inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance
of r/2 from the center
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its center.
Ans: d

59. The center of percussion of a solid

cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d

1
62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which
the body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body
which rolls on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in
space, around which a body is con-strained to turn
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

63. If a suspended body is struck at the

center of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing through the point
of suspension will be
(a) maximum    
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
65. The resultant of the following three
couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, – ve sense 40
kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, – ve sense
(b) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, – ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a

68. Angle of friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction

1
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal
reaction
(c) the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force
acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to
friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a

69. The coefficient of friction depends on

(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

70. Least force required to draw a body up

the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in the
direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of
friction to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal

reaction is known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a

1
72. Which one of the following statements is
not correct
(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is
equal to coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of
friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is
equal to coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal
to coefficient to friction
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and

leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
74. On the ladder resting on the ground and
leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper
end
(d) zero at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

76. Frictional force encountered after

commencement of motion is called
(a) post friction

1
(b) limiting friction
(c) kinematic
friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e

77. Coefficient of friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the
resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal
reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body
is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body
is in motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b

78. Pick up wrong statement about friction

force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the
surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact
surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact
surfaces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c

79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a

being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on the point of motion up the
plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)

1
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) Wan(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c

80. A particle moves along a straight line

such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t – 4), the
acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c

81. If rain is falling in the opposite

direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to
the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9 is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c

88. Limiting force of friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal-reaction
and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal

1
reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body
is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body
is in motion
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c

89. Coulomb friction is the friction between

(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a

90. Dynamic friction as compared to static

friction is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on nature
of surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c

92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

(a) kinetic friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d

93. Kinetic friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal reaction
and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction

1
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal
reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body
is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body
is in motion
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: d

95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and
angle of friction <j) is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a

96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat
surface horizontal and circular portion touching down. The coefficient of
friction between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is i. This disc is
to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains
horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force
will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of

radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A

1
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d

98. The algebraic sum of moments of the

forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(a) balance each other
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
100. If three forces acting in one plane upon
a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

101. The maximum frictional force which comes

into play when a body just begins to slide over another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction

1
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: a

102. The co-efficient of friction depends

upon
(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a

104. The necessary condition for forces to be

in equilibrium is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
105. If three forces acting in different
planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

106. If n = number of members andy = number

of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b) 2j-l

1
(c) 2/-3
(d) 3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c

107. A body moves, from rest with a constant

acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b

108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to

1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
109. Which of the following is the locus of a
point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed point is equal
to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

111. Which of the following is not the unit

of energy
(a) kg m

1
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c

112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air,

180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which is correct statement
about density of metal
(a) density of metal can’t be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on

the central radius 3r
(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d

117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be

at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a

119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone

of height h lies at the following distance from the base

1
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d

122. The M.I. of hollow circular section

about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about
horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b

126. Which of the following is the example of

lever of first order
(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

127. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of

the lever of
(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c

128. In the lever of third order, load W,

1
effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

129. The angle which an inclined plane makes

with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to move down is known as
angle of
(a) friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c

130. In actual machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than
velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity
ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than
velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

131. In ideal machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than
velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity
ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than

1
velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

136. A cable with a uniformly distributed

load per horizontal meter run will take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b

Fluid Mechanics
1)   Shear stress in a turbulent flow is given by the formula
τ = η (du / dy)
Where η (eta) is,
a. eddy viscosity
b. apparent viscosity
c. virtual viscosity
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

2)   Magnitude of eddy viscosity for laminar flow is

1
a. less than zero
b. zero
c. greater than zero
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: zero

3)   Kinematic eddy viscosity (ε) is the ratio of

a. eddy viscosity (η) to dynamic viscosity (μ)
b. eddy viscosity (η) to kinematic viscosity (ν)
c. kinematic viscosity to eddy viscosity (η)
d. eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)

ANSWER: eddy viscosity (η) to mass density (ρ)

4)   Friction factor for laminar flow is given by

a. (Re /64)
b. (64 / Re)
c. (Re / 16)
d. (16 / Re)

ANSWER: (64 / Re)

5)   What is temporal mean velocity?

a. The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time
b. The average of velocities of a single particle over different locations in a fluid flow
c. None of the abov

ANSWER: The average of velocities at a point over a certain period of time

1
6)   The friction factor in fluid flowing through pipe depends upon
a. Reynold’s number
b. relative roughness of pipe surface
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

7)   What is the effect of change in Reynold’s number on friction factor in turbulent flow?
a. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor increases in turbulent flow
b. As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in turbulent flow
c. change in Reynold’s number does not affect the friction factor in turbulent flow
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: As the Reynold’s number increases the friction factor decreases in turbulent flow

8)   What is the formula for determining the size of equivalent pipe for two pipes of lengths L1, L2
and diameters d1, d2 respectively?
Where,
L = L1 + L2
a. (L / d) = (L1 / d1) + (L2 / d2)
b. (L / d2 ) = (L1 / d12) + (L2 / d22)
c. (L / d3) = (L1 / d13 ) + (L2 / d23)
d. (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)

ANSWER: (L / d5) = (L1 / d15 ) + (L2 / d25)

9)   What is a syphon?
a. A long bend pipe used to
carry water from a reservoir at a higher level to another reservoir at a
lower level when two reservoirs are separated by a hill

1
b. A long bend pipe used to
carry water from a reservoir at a lower level to another reservoir at a
higher level with some work input when two reservoirs are separated by a
hill
c. A long bend pipe used to carry water from one reservoir to another reservoir when two reservoirs are at
same elevation
d. Unpredictable

ANSWER:
A long bend pipe used to carry water from a reservoir at a higher level
to another reservoir at a lower level when two reservoirs are separated
by a hill

10)   The highest point of syphon is called as

a. syphon top
b. summit
c. reservoir
d. none of the above

ANSWER: summit
11)   Match the following physical quantities in Group 1 with their dimensions in Group 2.
1. Work done (Energy) (W) —————————– A. [M L 2 T – 3 ]
2. Power (P) ———————————————— B. [M L – 1 T – 1 ]
3. Momentum (M) —————————————- C. [M L 2 T – 2 ]
4. Modulus of elasticity (E) —————————– D. [M L T – 1 ]
5. Dynamic viscosity (μ) ——————————— E. [M L – 1 T – 2 ]
a. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
b. 1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
c. 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(E), 4-(B), 5-(D)
d. 1-(D), 2-(E), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(C)

1
ANSWER: 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)

12)   Which of the following equations is not dimensionally homogeneous?

Consider standard symbols for quantities.
a. (Force) F = m x a
b. (Head Loss due to friction) hf = (f L V2) / (2 g d)
c. (Torque) T = F x Distance
d. None of the above

ANSWER: None of the above

13)   Which of the following is a dimensionless equation?

a. Reynold’s equation
b. Euler’s equation
c. Weber’s equation
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

14)   Which of the
following number is applicable in open hydraulic structure such as
spillways, where gravitational force is predominant?
a. Reynold’s Number
b. Euler’s Number
c. Weber’s Number
d. Froude’s Number

ANSWER: Froude’s Number

1
15)   Square root of the ratio of inertia force to elastic force is called as
a. Mach’s Number
b. Cauchy’s Number
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a. and b.

16)   Boundary layer thickness is the distance from the boundary to the point where velocity of the
fluid is
a. equal to 10% of free stream velocity
b. equal to 50% of free stream velocity
c. equal to 90% of free stream velocity
d. equal to 99% of free stream velocity

ANSWER: equal to 99% of free stream velocity

17)   The
component of the total force exerted by fluid on a body in the direction
parallel to the direction of motion is called as
a. lift
b. drag
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: drag

18)   The sum of components of shear forces in the direction of flow of fluid is called as
a. shear drag
b. friction drag
c. skin drag

1
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

19)   The body whose surface does not coincide with the streamline when places in a flow is called
as
a. streamline body
b. wave body
c. bluff body
d. induced body

ANSWER: bluff body

20)   Which type of body is an airfoil?

a. streamline body
b. wave body
c. bluff body
d. induced body
 ANSWER: streamline body

21)   Bulk modulus is the ratio of

a. shear stress to volumetric strain
b. volumetric strain to shear stress
c. compressive stress to volumetric strain
d. volumetric strain to compressive stress

ANSWER: compressive stress to volumetric strain

22)   When is a liquid said to be not in a boiling or vaporized state?

1
a. If the pressure on liquid is equal to its vapour pressure
b. If the pressure on liquid is less than its vapour pressure
c. If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapour pressure
d. Unpredictable

ANSWER: If the pressure on liquid is more than its vapour pressure

23)   One litre of a certain fluid weighs 8N. What is its specific volume?
a. 2.03 x 10– 3 m3/kg
b. 20.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
c. 12.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
d. 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg

ANSWER: 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg

24)   What is the correct formula for absolute pressure?

a. Pabs = Patm – Pgauge
b. Pabs = Pvacuum – Patm
c. Pabs = Pvacuum + Patm
d. Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge
 ANSWER: Pabs = Patm+ Pgauge

25)   According to
Archimede’s principle, if a body is immersed partially or fully in a
fluid then the buoyancy force is _______ the weight of fluid displaced
by the body.
a. equal to
b. less than
c. more than
d. unpredictable

1
ANSWER: equal to

SET 2

1)   Shear stress in static fluid is

a. always zero
b. always maximum
c. between zero to maximum
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: always zero

2)   Which branch
of fluid mechanics deals with translation, rotation and deformation of
the fluid element without considering the force and energy causing such
motion is called as
a. fluid dynamics
b. fluid kinematics
c. fluid kinetics
d. hydraulics

ANSWER: fluid kinematics

3)   Inter molecular cohesive force in the fluids is

a. less than that of the solids
b. more than that of the solids
c. equal to that of the solids
d. unpredictable

1
ANSWER: less than that of the solids

4)   The specific weight of the fluid depends upon

a. gravitational acceleration
b. mass density of the fluid
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

5)   Which property of the fluid offers resistance to deformation under the action of shear force?
a. density
b. viscosity
c. permeability
d. specific gravity

ANSWER: viscosity
6)   In which
method of describing fluid motion, the observer remains stationary and
observes changes in the fluid parameters at a particular point only?
a. Lagrangian method
b. Eulerian method
c. Stationary method
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Eulerian method

7)   The rate of
increase of velocity with respect to change in the position of fluid

1
particle in a flow field is called as
a. local acceleration
b. temporal acceleration
c. convective acceleration
d. all of the above

ANSWER: convective acceleration

8)   The actual path followed by a fluid particle as it moves during a period of time, is called as
a. path line
b. streak line
c. filament line
d. stream line

ANSWER: path line

9)   The imaginary
line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point
gives the direction of motion at the point, is called as
a. path line
b. streak line
c. filament line
d. stream line

ANSWER: stream line

10)   Which type of fluid flow is shown in below diagram?

1
a. Circular flow
b. Rotational flow
c. Irrotational flow
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Irrotational flow

11)   The study of force which produces motion in a fluid is called as

a. fluid statics
b. fluid dynamics
c. fluid kinematics
d. none of the above

ANSWER: fluid dynamics

12)   Which of the following forces generally act on fluid while considering fluid dynamics?
1. Viscous force
2. Pressure force
3. Gravity force
4. Turbulent force
5. Compressibility force
a. (1), (3), (4) and (5)

1
b. (1), (2), (3) and (5)
c. (1), (2), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)

ANSWER: (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)

13)   The net force of an ideal flow is equal to the sum of nonzero values of
a. pressure force and gravity force
b. viscous force and gravity force
c. pressure force and viscous force
d. pressure force, viscous force and compressibility force

ANSWER: pressure force and gravity force

14)   When the net

force acting on a fluid is the sum of only gravity force, pressure
force and viscous force, the equation is called as
a. Reynold’s equation of motion
b. Navier-stockes equation of motion
c. Euler’s equation of motion
d. none of the above

ANSWER: Navier-stockes equation of motion

15)   In a steady,
ideal flow of an incompressible fluid, total energy at any point of the
fluid is always constant. This theorem is known as
a. Euler’s theorem
b. Navier-stockes theorem
c. Reynold’s theorem
d. Bernoulli’s theorem

1
ANSWER: Bernoulli’s theorem

16)   The flow of fluid will be laminar when,

a. Reynold’s number is less than 2000
b. the density of the fluid is low
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

17)   How should be the viscosity of the flowing fluid for laminar flow?
a. viscosity of the fluid should be as low as possible, for laminar flow
b. viscosity of the fluid should be as high as possible, for laminar flow
c. change in viscosity of the flowing fluid does not affect its flow
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: viscosity of the fluid should be as high as possible, for laminar flow
18)   Below diagram shows the velocity distribution of fluid flow through a pipe. Flow is laminar.
What is the ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity?

1
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3.14

ANSWER: 2

19)   Coefficient of friction for laminar flow is given as

Where,
Re = Reynold’s number
a. (Re / 32)
b. (32 / Re)
c. (Re / 16)
d. (16 / Re)
 ANSWER: (16 / Re)

20)   What is the
ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity, when the fluid is passing
through two parallel plates and flow is laminar?
a. 3/2
b. 2/3
c. 4/3
d. 3/4

ANSWER: 3/4

1
21)   The head loss through fluid flowing pipe due to friction is
a. the minor loss
b. the major loss
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: the major loss

22)   What is Darcy-Weisbach formula for heat loss due to friction?

Where,
f = Darcy’s coefficient of friction
a. hf = (f l V2) / (g d)
b. hf = (f l V2) / (2 g d)
c. hf = (4 f l V2) / (2 g d)
d. hf = (16 f l V2) / (2 g d)

ANSWER: hf = (4 f l V2) / (2 g d)

23)   Minor losses occur due to

 a. sudden enlargement in pipe
b. sudden contraction in pipe
c. bends in pipe
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

24)   Minor losses do not make any serious effect in

a. short pipes
b. long pipes
c. both the short as well as long pipes
d. cannot say

1
ANSWER: long pipes

25)   What is the correct formula for loss at the exit of a pipe?

a. hL = 0.5 (V2 / 2g)
b. hL = (V2 / 2g)
c. hL = (2 V2 / g)
d. hL = (4 V2 / g)

ANSWER: hL = (V2 / 2g)

SET 3
1. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any
container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point
regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any
shear force
(e) flows.
Ans: d

2. Fluid is a substance which offers no

resistance to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume

1
(e) temperature.
Ans: c

3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d

4. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d

5.  A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e

6.  An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(a) Newton’s law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) Pascal’ law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d

7. If no resistance is encountered by
displacement, such a substance is known as

1
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e

8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused

by a resistance is known as
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e)     cohesion.
Ans: c

9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure
and temperature
(d) are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

10. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
Ans: c

11. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for

water at 0°C is
(a) 1

1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91
Ans: d

12. Property of a fluid by which its own

molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b

13. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due

to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c

14. The property of a fluid which enables it

to resist tensile stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

15. Property of a fluid by which molecules of

different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called

1
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a

16. The specific weight of water is 1000

kg/m”
(a) at normal pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above  
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

17. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is

equal to
(a) 1000 N/m3      
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c

18. When the flow parameters at any given

instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static    
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d

19. Which of the following is demensionless

(a) specific weight

1
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d

20. The normal stress in a fluid will be

constant in all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
Ans: e

21. The pressure at a point in a fluid will

not be same in all the directions when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e

22. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg

on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec    
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
Ans: a

23. The tendency of a liquid surface to

contract is due to the following property

1
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d

24. The surface tension of mercury at normal

temperature compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass
tube
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

25. A perfect gas

(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is in compressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

26. For very great pressures, viscosity of

moss gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behavior
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

27. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain

(a) tensile stress  

1
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress    
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

28. Viscosity of water in comparison to

mercury is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

29. The bulk modulus of elasticity with

increase in pressure
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first up to certain limit and
then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

30. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
Ans: b

31. A balloon lifting in air follows the

following principle
(a) law of gravitation

1
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.
Ans: d

32. The value of the coefficient of

compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and temperature in kg/cm
 is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
Ans: e

33. The increase of temperature results in

(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
Ans: d

34. Surface tension has the units of

(a) newtons/m    
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m    
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
Ans: c

35. Surface tension

(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal
to any line in the surface

1
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the
interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
Ans: a

36. The stress-strain relation of the

newtoneon fluid is
(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic      
(d) inverse type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

37. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a

volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk
modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2    
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

38. The units of viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec  per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

39. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(a) pressure

1
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
Ans: e

40. Units of surface tension are

(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

41. Which of the following meters is not

associated with viscosity
(a) Red wood      
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
42. Choose the correct relationship
(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x
density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x
density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x
gravity.
Ans: b

43. Dimensions of surface tension are

(a) MlL°T2

1
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
Ans: a

44. For manometer, a better liquid

combination is one having
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a

45. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by

water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
Ans: a
46. Choose the wrong statement.
Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the
inclined tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given
pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
Ans: a

47. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of

a drum of radius R due to rotation at corad/sec, full of liquid of density p

1
will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

48. The property of fluid by virtue of which

it offers resistance to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

49. Choose the wrong statement

(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the
containing vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot
sustain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain
shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of comprehensibility and offer little resistance to
form.
Ans: d

50. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.
Ans: c

51. If w is the specific weight of liquid and

1
k the depth of any point from the surface, then pressure intensity at that
point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b

52. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property
which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction
between fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with
in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
Ans: d

53. The units of kinematic viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

54.  The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
Ans: c

1
55.   Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
Ans: a

56. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

57. A one dimensional flow is one which

(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of
flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
Ans: d

58.  Alcohol is used in manometers because

(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low
density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
Ans:  d

59. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is

equal to

1
(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2    
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
Ans: b

60. Specific weight of sea water is more that

of pure water because it contains
(a) dissolved air  
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.
Ans: d

61. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one

cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass  
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

62. Free surface of a liquid tends to

contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion        
(e) adhesion.
Ans: a

63. A bucket of water is hanging from a

spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without touching sides of

1
bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of
immersion
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

64. Falling drops of water become spheres due

to the property of
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c

65. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion

forces as compared to cohesion forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high
temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b

66. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid

is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid
in a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

67. The point in the immersed body through

which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center    
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

68. The total pressure on the surface of a

vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the
water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.
Ans: d
69. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid
on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’ principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c

70. The resultant upward pressure of the

fluid on an immersed body is called
(a) upthrust

1
(b) buoyancy
(c) center of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.
Ans: b

71. The conditions for the stable equilibrium

of a floating body are
(a) the meta-center should lie above the
center of gravity
(b) the center of buoyancy and the center of
gravity must lie on the same vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.
Ans: d

72. Poise is the unit of

(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
Ans: c

73. Metacentric height is given as the

distance between
(a) the center of gravity of the body and the
meta center
(b) the center of gravity of the body and the
center of buoyancy
(c) the center of gravity of the body and the
center of pressure
(d) center of buoyancy and metacentre
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: a

74. The buoyancy depends on

(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

75. The center of gravity of the volume of

the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) meta-center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

76. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6

is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is
under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over
the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in
mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed
with its top surface just at mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

77. The angle of contact in case of a liquid

depends upon
(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free

1
surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: c

78. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to
smallest possible area due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
Ans: b

79.  Rain drops are spherical because of

(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
80.  Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to
    ..
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: b

81. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing
water is approximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm

1
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
Ans: e

82.  The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid
drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

83.  If the surface of liquid is convex, men

(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
84. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is
laid such that it is not more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

85. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a

syphon, an air vessel is provided
(a) at the inlet      
(b) at the outlet

1
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

86. The vapour pressure over the concave

surface is
(a) less man the vapour pressure over the
plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the
plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the
plane surface
(d) zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

87. The property by virtue of which a liquid

opposes relative motion between its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

88. The process of diffusion of one liquid

into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
Ans: b

89. The units of dynamic or absolute

viscosity are

1
(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

90. The continuity equation is connected with

(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
Ans: c

91. The rise or depression of liquid in a

tube due to surface tensionwim increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the
characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

92. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all

the directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal’s law  
(d) Newton’s formula
(e) Chezy’s equation.
Ans: c

93. Capillary action is due to the

(a) surface tension

1
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a
solid
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

94. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship

between
(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular
distortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of
angular distortion.
Ans: a

95. The atmospheric pressure with rise in

altitude decreases
(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

96. Pressure of the order of 10″‘ torr

can be measured by
(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.
Ans: d

1
97. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low
pressure measurement is based on the principle of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Charle’s law  
(d) Pascal’s law
(e) McLeod’s law.
Ans: b

98. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and

occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having
specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d

99. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

100. Mercury is often used in barometer

because
(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may
be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.

1
Ans: d

101. Barometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.
Ans: b

102. Which of the following instrument can be

used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep sea
(a) Venturimeter  
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

103. Which of the following instrument can be

used for measuring speed of an aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter  
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

104. Piezometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressures
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) flow.
Ans: c

105. Which of the following instruments is

1
used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli’s theorem
(a) Venturimeter  
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

106. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies

directly as its
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) absolute temperature,
Ans: e

107. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids

with rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

108. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases

with rise in temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

109. A metal with specific gravity of o

1
floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at
fluid surface
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

110. Euler’s dimensionless number relates the

following
(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.
Ans: d

111. Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure  between two
points
(e) velocity.
Ans: a

112. Which of the following manometer has

highest sensitivity
(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.
Ans: d

1
113. In order to increase sensitivity of
U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity of
inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) cas 9
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.
Ans: b

114. Working principle of dead weight

pressure gauge tester is based on
(a) Pascal’s law
(b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(c) Newton’s law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.
Ans: a

115. The resultant of all normal pressures

acts
(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at center of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.
Ans: c

116. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is

(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

1
117. Metacentric height is the distance
between the metacentre and
(a) water surface
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of gravity
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

118. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its
tendency to uplift the sub-merged body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) center of pressure.
Ans: c

119. The center of pressure of a surface

subjected to fluid pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant
pres-sure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational
force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic
thrust will act.
Ans: a

120. Buoyant force is

(a) the resultant force acting on a floating
body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the
fluid surrounding it

1
(c) equal  to  the  volume
 of liquid dis-placed
(d) the force necessary to maintain
equilibrium of a submerged body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

121. The horizontal component of buoyant

force is
(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero
Ans: c

122.  The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid
vertically above the body
(b) centre of the volume of floating body
(c) center of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
123.   Center of buoyancy is the
(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) center of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating ‘body
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

124.A body floats in stable equilibrium

(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it’s center of
buoyancy

1
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with
position of e.g. for determining stability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

125.A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when

submerged in water. Its specific gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans: d

126. The total pressure force on a plane area

is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centriod,
if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
127. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a
vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at water surface. The hydrostatic
force on square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg      
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.
Ans: b

128. The depth of the center of pressure on a

vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when the water surface
coincides with the top of the gate, is

1
(a) 2.4 m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)”2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.
Ans: b

129. If the atmospheric pressure on the

surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure at a
depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 meters of water column
(b) 3 meters of water column
(c) 5 meters of water column
(d) 6 meters of water Column
(e) 7 meters of water column.
Ans: d

130. Metacentre is the point of intersection

of
(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of
body and center line of body
(b) buoyant force and the center line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and center of
buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

131. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The horizontal component of the
hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal force on the vertical
projection of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the
center of pressure for the vertical projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydrostatic
force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of the liquid above

1
the area
(d) he vertical component passes through the
center of pressure of the volume
(e) Center of pressure acts at a greater
depth than center of gravity.
Ans: d

132. For a body floating in a liquid the

normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

133. Choose the wrong statement

(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant
force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force
acts, is called the center of buoyancy
(d) Center of buoyancy is located above the
center of gravity of the displaced liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be
determined by means of the depth of flotation of hydrometer.
Ans: d

134. According to the principle of buoyancy a

body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force
equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the

1
fluid displaced hy the body.
Ans: d

135. When a body floating in a liquid, is

displaced slightly, it oscillates about
(a) e.g. of body    
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre    
(e) liquid surface.
Ans: d

136. Buoyant force is

(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(c) force necessary to keep a body in
equilibrium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the
fluid surrounding it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
137. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

138. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to

travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
 at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec

1
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Ans: c

139. A model of a reservior is drained in 4

mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How long should it
take to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes  
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.
Ans: e

140. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec.

The prototype is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has
been used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5″
(e) 1 : 53/2
Ans: a

141. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force

is known as
(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

142. For a floating body to be in stable

equilibrium, its metacentre should be

1
(a) below the center of gravity
(b) below the center of buoyancy
(c) above the center of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and center of pressure
(e) above the center of gravity.
Ans: e

143. For a floating body to be in equilibrium

(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on
same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. The two important forces for a floating

body are
(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Ans: a

145. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The center of buoyancy is located at the
center of gravity of the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the
center of gravity of body must lie directly below the center of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide,
the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or
spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the center of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.

1
Ans: e

146. Center of pressure on an inclined plane

is
(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at center of pressure.
Ans: c

147. An open vessel of water is accelerated

up an inclined plane. The free water surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclination
of inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to
inclination of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
148. The line of action of the buoyant force
acts through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the
body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

149. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the

case of an immersed body acts through
(a) centre of gravity

1
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
Ans: b

150. The centre of gravity of the volume of

the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) centroid.
Ans: d

176. Differential monometer is used to

measure
(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure  between two
points
(e) velocity in pipes
Ans: d

177. The pressure in the air space above an

oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm”.
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 3.5 metres of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

178. The time oscillation of a floating body

1
with increase in metacentric height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

179. In an immersed body, centre of pressure

is
(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing
on density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

180. The normal stress is same in all

directions at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and
has zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid
layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c

181. Select the correct statement

(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea
level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always
below standard atmospheric pressure

1
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween
local and standard atmospheric pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric
pressure plus instrument reading.
Ans: b

184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if

should be installed in
(a) vertical line    
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow
(e) in any direction and in any location.
Ans: e

 185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate

immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e)  16000 kg.
Ans: a
186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.
Ans: d

187. Rotameter is a device used to measure

(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation

1
(e) velocity of air.
Ans: c

18 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in

diameter can be measured by
(a) orifice plate    
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle
Ans: d

189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the
veiocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid
par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the
velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel
planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change
from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: a

190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy

(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli’s theorem.
Ans: d

191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid,

the acceleration of any fluid particle is
(a) constant

1
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.
Ans: c

193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the
velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid
particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the
velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or
parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change
from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: e

194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe

line, the flow is
(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Ans: b

195. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a
particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniformly
along length

1
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Ans: c

196. Gradually varied flow is

(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.
Ans: d

197. Steady flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the
velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid
particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the
velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or
parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change
from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: b
198. The flow which neglects changes in a
transverse direction is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: a

199. The flow in which each liquid particle

has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other is called
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow

1
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: e

200. The flow in which conditions do not

change with time at any point, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: c

201. The flow in which the velocity vector is

identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for any given instant, is
known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: b
202. The flow in which the particles of a
fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in magnitude and
direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: d

210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a

valve is being opened is
(a) steady

1
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.
Ans: b

211. General energy equation holds for

(a) steady flow    
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow  
(d) non-uniform flow
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

212. A streamline is defined as the line

(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.
Ans: c
213. Two dimensional flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the
velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid
particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the
velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or
parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change
from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: d

1
215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats
in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under
mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg

floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The specific gravity
of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

218. The velocity of jet of water travelling

out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Ans: c

219. In a free vortex motion, the radial

component of velocity everywhere is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.

1
Ans: c

220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow

everywhere within the fluid is
(a) maximum      
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

221. The region between the separation

streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.
Ans: a

222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is

(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.
Ans: d

223. The upper surface of a weir over which

water flows is known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.
Ans: c

1
224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the
depth of flow corresponding to
(a) steady flow    
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow  
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.
Ans: d

226. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the
velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid
paiticles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the
velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or
parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each pleasure
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change
from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: c
227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

22 Hydrometer is used to determine

(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity

1
(e) density.
Ans: a

229. The total energy of each particle at

various places in the case of perfect incompres sible fluid flowing in
continuous sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

230. According to Bernoulli’s equation for

steady ideal fluid flow
(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely
proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a
stream-line but may vary across streamlines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
231. The  equation of continuity holds
good when the flow
(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross
sections
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

232. Mach number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet
propulsion

1
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed
flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids
where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and wave making
effects, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of fhe above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

233. Froude number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet
propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed
flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids
where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making
effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s

equation have dimension of
(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.
Ans: d

235. Reynolds number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet
propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed
flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids

1
where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making
effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

236.  The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

237. A large Roynold number is indication of

(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Ans: e
239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when
Roynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

240. In order that flow takes place between

two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between these points must
be more than
(a) frictional force

1
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

241. At the center line of a pipe flowing

under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.
Ans: e

 242. The pressure in Pascals at a depth

of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 91 Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.
Ans: d
244. Two pipe systems can be said to be
equivalent, when the following quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.
Ans: a

245. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when

Reynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000

1
(c). more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

246. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of

conservation of
(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Ans: c

247. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm

diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The
force required on plunger is equal to
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Ans: a
248. Cavitation is caused by
(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Ans: d

249. Cavitation will begin when

(a) the pressure at any location reaches an
absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical
pressure

1
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

250. Principle of similitude forms the basisof

(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result canbe converted to prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design andactual equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.
Ans: b

251. For similarity, in addition to modelsbeing geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both
cases should
also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to
viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to
gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to
surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to
force due to viscosity, gravitation, sur-face tension, and elasticity
Ans: d

Theory of Machines

1. Which of the following

disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect
of the mass and the motion of the parts
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics

1
(e) kinematics.
Ans: d2. Which of the following disciplines
provides study of relative motion between the parts of a machine
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: e

3. Which of the following disciplines

provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a machine and the
forces acting on the parts
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: a

4. The type of pair formed by two elements

which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed
axis of another element is known as
(a) turning pair
(b) rolling pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) spherical pair
(e) lower pair,
Ans: a

5. Which of the following is a lower pair

(a) ball and socket i
(b) piston and cylinder
(c) cam and follower
(d) (a) and (b) above

1
(e) belt drive.
Ans: d

6. If two moving elements have surface

contact in motion, such pair is known as
(a) sliding pair
(b) rolling pair
(c) surface pair
(d) lower pair
(e) higher pair.
Ans: e

7. The example of lower pair is

(a) shaft revolving in a bearing
(b) straight line motion mechanisms
(c) automobile steering gear
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as

(a) cylindrical pair
(b) turning pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) surface pair.
Ans: c

9. The example of rolling pair is

(a) bolt and nut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

10. Any point on a link connecting double slider

1
crank chain will trace a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) ellipse
(d) parabola
(e) hyperbola.
Ans: c

11. The purpose of a link is to

(a) transmit motion
(b) guide other links
(c) act as a support
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

12. A universal joint is an example of

(a) higher pair
(b) lower pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) turning pair.
Ans: b

13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted

into rotary by
(a) cross head
(b) slider crank
(c) connecting rod
(d) gudgeon pin
(e) four bar chain mechanism.
Ans: b

14. Pitch point on a cam is

(a) any point on pitch curve

1
(b) the point on cam pitch curve having the
maximum pressure angle
(c) any point on pitch circle
(d) the point on cam pitch curve having the
minimum pressure angle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

15. The values of velocity and acceleration

of piston at near dead center for a slider-crank mechanism will be
(a) 0, and more than co2r
(b) 0, and less than coV
(c) 0, 0
(d) cor, 0
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

16. The example of spherical pair is

(a) bolt and nut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

17. Cross head and guides form a

(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rolling pair
(e) sliding pair.
Ans: e

19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is

an example of
(a) incompletely constrained motion

1
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above
Ans: a

20. If some links are connected such that

motion between them can take place in more than one direction, it is called
(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

21. If there are L number of links in a

mechanism then number of possible inversions is equal to
(a)  L + 1
(b)  L – 1
(c)  L
(d)  L + 2
(e)  L – 2.
Ans: c

22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two

elements that
(a) have line contact
(b) have surface contact
(c) permit relative motion
(d) are held together
(e) have dynamic forces.
Ans: c

24. The lower pair is a

(a) open pair

1
(b) closed pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) point contact pair
(e)  does not exist.
Ans: b

25. Automobile steering gear is an example of

(a) higher pair
(b) sliding pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rotary pair
(e) lower pair.
Ans: e

26. In higher pair, the relative motion is

(a) purely turning
(b) purely sliding
(c) purely rotary
(d) purely surface contact
(e) combination of sliding and turning.
Ans: e
27. Which of the following has sliding motion
(a) crank
(b) connecting rod
(c) crank pin
(d) cross-head
(e) cross head guide.
Ans: d

28. The example of higher pair is

(a) belt, rope and chain drives
(b) gears, cams
(c) ball and roller bearings
(d) all of the above

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

29.  Which of the following mechanism is obtained from lower pair

(a) gyroscope
(b) pantograph
(c) valve and valve gears
(d) generated straight line motions
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

30. Which of the following would constitute a

link
(a) piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin
(b) piston, and piston rod
(c) piston rod and cross head
(d) piston, crank pin and crank shaft
(e) piston, piston-rod and cross head.
Ans: e

31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of

(a) sliding and turning pairs
(b) sliding and rotary pairs
(c) turning and rotary pairs
(d) sliding pairs only
(e) turning pairs only.
Ans: a

32. Davis steering gear consists of

(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) higher pairs
(e) lower pairs.
Ans: a

33. Ackermann steering gear consists of

1
(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c)  rolling pairs
(d)  higher pairs
(e)  lower pairs.
Ans: b

34. A completely constrained motion can be

transmitted with .
(a) 1 link with pin joints
(b) 2 links with pin joints
(c) 3 links with pin joints
(d) 4 links with pin joints
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

36. Oldham’s coupling is the

(a) second inversion of double slider crank
chain
(b) third inversion of double slider crank
chain
(c) second inversion of single slider crank
chain
(d) third inversion of slider crank chain
(e) fourth inversion of double slider crank
chain.
Ans: b

37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a

link
(a) is same as that of velocity
(b) is opposite to that of velocity
(c) could be either same or opposite to
velocity
(d) is perpendicular to that of velocity

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

38. A mechanism is an assemblage of

(a) two links
(b) three links
(c) four links or more than four links
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal to

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6.
Ans: c

40. Elements of pairs held together

mechanically is known as
(a) closed pair
(b) open pair
(c) mechanical pair
(d) rolling pair
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the

following type of pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) spherical pair,
(d) cylindrical pair
(e) bearing pair.
Ans: a

1
42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is
the following type of pair
(a) completely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) incompletely constrained motion
(d) freely constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a

vertical turbine form examples of
(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

44. A slider crank chain consists of

following numbers of turning and sliding pairs
(a) I, 3
(b) 2, 2
(c) 3, 1
(d) 4, 0
(e) 0, 4.
Ans: c

46. Relationship between the number of links

(L) and number of pairs (P) is
(a) P = 2L-4
(b) P = 2L + 4
(c) P = 2L+2
(d) P = 2L-2
(e) P = L-4.
Ans: c

1
2.49. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained when
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. <  R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking
above requirement
(e)  none of the above.
Ans: c

50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained

when
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking
above requirement
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

51. The tendency of a body to resist change

from rest or motion is known as
(a) mass
(b) friction
(c) inertia
(d) resisting force
(e) resisting torque.
Ans: c

53. The type of coupling used to join two

shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect
is
(a) flexible coupling
(b) universal coupling
(c) chain coupling
(d) Oldham’s coupling

1
(e) American coupling.
Ans: b

54. The advantage of the piston valve over

D-slide valve is that in the former case
(a) wear is less
(b) power absorbed is less
(c) both wear and power absorbed are low
(d) the   pressure   developed
being   high provides tight sealing
(e) there is overall economy of initial cost,
maintenance and operation.
Ans: c

55. Flexible coupling is used because

(a) it is easy to disassemble
(b) it is easy to engage and disengage
(c) it transmits shocks gradually
(d) it prevents shock transmission and
eliminates stress reversals
(e) it increases shaft life.
Ans: d
56. With single Hooke’s joint it is possible
to connect two shafts, the axes of which have an angular misalignment up to
(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 40°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d

57. The Hooke’s joint consists of :

(a) two forks
(b) one fork
(c) three forks

1
(d) four forks
(e) five forks.
Ans: a

58. The Klein’s method of construction for

reciprocating engine mechanism
(a) is based on acceleration diagram
(b) is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
(c) utilises a quadrilateral similar to the
diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
(d) enables determination of Corioli’s
component
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

59. It is required to connect two parallel

shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and variable. The shafts are
coupled by
(a) universal joint
(b) knuckle joint
(c) Oldham’s coupling
(d) flexible coupling
(e) electromagnetic coupling.
Ans: c

60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would

experience
(a) no acceleration
(b) linear acceleration
(c) angular acceleration
(d) both angular and linear accelerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

61. In elliptical trammels

(a) all four pairs are turning

1
(b) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
(c) two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
(d) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
(e) all four pairs sliding.
Ans: c

62. In automobiles the power is transmitted

from gear box to differential through
(a) bevel gear
(b) universal joint
(c) Hooke’s joint
(d) Knuckle joint
(e) Oldham’s coupling.
Ans: c

63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is

known as
(a)  Thompson indicator
(b) Richard indicator
(c) Simplex indicator
(d) Thomson indicator
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis type in

automobiles because
(a) the former is mathematically accurate
(b) the former is having turning pair
(c) the former is most economical
(d) the former is most rigid
(e) none of thfr above.
Ans: b

12-65. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile
is by means of

1
(a) compound gears
(b) worm and wheel method
(c) Hooke’s joint
(d) crown gear
(e)  bevel gears.
Ans: c

66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of

the effect is more dangerous
(a) steering
(b) pitching
(c) rolling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

67. In an ideal machine, the output as

compared to input is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) may be less or more depending on
efficiency
(e) always less.
Ans: c

68. Governor is used in automobile to

(a) decrease the variation of speed
(b) to control
(c) to control SN
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable, the following type
of governor is commonly employed

1
(a) Hartung governor
(b) Wilson Hartnell governor
(c) Pickering governor
(d) Inertia governor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is

(a) ball bearing
(b) roller bearing
(c) needle roller bearing
(d) thrust bearing
(e) sleeve bearing.
Ans: c

71. Crowning on pulleys helps

(a) in increasing velocity ratio
(b) in decreasing the slip of the belt
(c) for automatic adjustment of belt
posi-tion so that belt runs centrally
(d) increase belt and pulley life
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

72. Idler pulley is used

(a) for changing the direction of motion of
the belt
(b) for applying tension
(c) for increasing -velocity ratio
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of

the belt is broken, we have to change the

1
(a) broken belt
(b) broken belt and its adjacent belts
(c) all the belts
(d) there is no need of changing any one as
remaining belts can take care of transmission of load
(e) all the weak belts.
Ans: c

74. The moment on the pulley which produces

rotation is called
(a) inertia
(b) momentum
(c) moment of momentum
(d) work
(e) torque.
Ans: e

75. Creep in belt drive is due to

(a) material of the pulley
(b) material of the belt
(c) larger size of the driver pulley
(d) uneven extensions and contractions due to
varying tension
(e) expansion of belt.
Ans: d

76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is

dependent upon
(a) tension on tight side of belt
(b) tension on slack side of belt
(c) radius of pulley
(d) speed of pulley
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound

1
from a cylinder will be
(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) involute
(d) cycloidal
(e) helix.
Ans: c

78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft

to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use
(a) spur gear
(b) spiral gear
(c) bevel gear
(d) worm gear
(e) crown gear.
Ans: d

79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the stroke
and aimidstroke respectively, is
(a) maximum and zero
(b) zero and maximum
(c) minimum and maximum
(d) zero and minimum
(e) maximum and minimum.
Ans: a

80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of

the follower from
(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle
(c) root circle
(d) prime circle
(e) inner circle.
Ans: a

81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear

1
drive is used
(a) double helical gears having opposite
teeth
(b) double helical gears having identical
teeth
(c) single helical gear in which one of the
teeth of helix angle a is more
(d) mutter gears
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

82. Which of the following is false statement

in respect of differences between machine and structure
(a) Machines transmit mechanical work,
whereas structures transmit forces
(b) In machines, relative motion exists
be-tween its members, whereas same does hot exist in case of structures
(c) Machines modify movement and work,
whereas structures modify forces
(d) Efficiency of machines as well as
structures is below 100%
(e) Machines are run by electric motors, but
structures are not.
Ans: d

83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver

and driven pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to
(a) D1/D2
(b) D2/D1
(C) D1-D2.
(d) D1
(e) D1+D2.
Ans: d

84. Typewriter constitutes

(a) machine

1
(b) structure
(c) mechanism
(d) inversion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

85. Lower pairs are those which have

(a) point or line contact between the two
elements when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two elements
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not -held together
mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

86. A point on a link connecting double

slider crank chain traces a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola
(e) ellipse.
Ans: e

87. A pantograph is a mechanism with

(a) lower pairs
(b) higher pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) turning pairs
(e) spherical pairs.
Ans: a

88. Kinematic pairs are those which have

(a) point or line contact between the two

1
elements when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together
mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative mo-tion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

89. If the opposite links of a four bar

linkage are equal, the links will always form a
(a) triangle
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) pentagon
(e) trapezoid.
Ans: c

90. Higher pairs are those which have

(a) point or line contact between the two
elements when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together
mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion

(a) rotating
(b) oscillating
(c) reciprocating
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: d

92. A cam with a roller follower would con

stitute following type of pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) open pair
(d) close pair
(e) cam pair.
Ans: b

93. The approximate straight line mechanism

is a
(a) four bar linkage
(b) 6 bar linkage
(c) 8 bar linkage
(d) 3 bar linkage
(e) 5 bar linkage.
Ans: a

94. “Open pairs are those which have

(a) point or line contact between the two
elements when in motion
(b) surface contact between the two ele-ments
when in motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together
mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

95. Peaucellier mechanism has

(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
(d) twelve links

1
(e) five links.
Ans: a

96. Hart mechanism has

(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
(d) twelve links
(e) five links.
Ans: b

97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5

joints. Is it kinematic chain ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) it is a marginal case
(d) data are insufficient to determine it
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair

is that it is
(a) bulky
(b) wears rapidly
(c) difficult to manufacture
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: d

100. For a kinematic chain to be considered

as mechanism
(a) two links should be fixed
(b) one link should be fixed
(c) none of the links should be fixed
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: b

101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point

rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is pivoted and
other end is connected to it. This mechanism has
(a) 2 links
(b) 3 links
(c) 4 links
(d) 5 links
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is

obtained by inversion of
(a) slider crank mechanism
(b) kinematic chain
(c) five link mechanism
(d) roller cam mechanism
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism

consists of following number of links
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) none.
Ans: c

104. Which of the following mechanisms

produces mathematically an exact straight line motion
(a) Grasshopper mechanism
(b) Watt mechanism
(c) Peaucellier’s mechanism
(d) Tchabichiff mechanism

1
(e) Ackermann mechanism.
Ans: c

105. In a mechanism, usually one link is

fixed.
If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of
other links
(a) will remain same
(b) will change
(c) could change  or remain
unaltered depending oh which link is fixed
(d) will not occur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

106. A kinematic chain requires at least

(a) 2 links and 3 turning pairs
(b) 3 links and 4 turning pairs
(c) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
(d) 5 links and 4 turning pairs
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
107. In a darg link quick return mechanism,
the shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest link is
(a) equal to sum of other two
(b) greater than sum of other two
(c) less than sum of other two
(d) there is no such relationship
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

108. The following is the inversion of slider

crank chain mechanism
(a) Whitworth quick return mechanism
(b) hand pump

1
(c) oscillating cylinder engine
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

109. Kinematic pairs are those which have

(a) two elements held together mechani-cally
(b) two elements having relative motion
(c) two elements having Coroili’s com-ponent
(d) minimum of two instantaneous centres
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of

binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is
(a) kinematically sound
(b) not sound
(c) soundness would depend upon which link is
kept fixed
(d) data is not sufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
111. In a four-bar chain it is required to
give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous rotation of the
crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine
theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of
crank and followers is
(a) 95 mm
(b) slightly less than 95 mm
(c) slightly more than 95 mm
(d) 45 mm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

112. In above example, the minimum length of

1
the coupler will be
(a) 45 mm
(b) slightly less than 45 mm
(c) slightly more than 45 mm
(d) 95 mm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional

to
(a) velocity
(b) displacement
(c) rate of change of velocity
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

114. For simple harmonic motion of the of

follower, a cosine curve represents
(a) displacement diagram
(b) velocity diagram
(c) acceleration diagram
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t.

displacement vector
(a) leads by 90°
(b) lags by 90°
(c) leads by 180°
(d) are in phase
(e) could be anywhere.
Ans: a

116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is

rotating at 210 RPM and r with another body at rest having I

1
40 kg m2. The resultant speed after ing will be
(a) 90 RPM
(b) 100 RPM
(c) 80 RPM
(d) data are insufficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

117. Inertia force acts

(a) perpendicular to the accel< force
(b) along the direction of accel* force
(c) opposite to the direction of ace ing
force
(d) in any direction w.r.t. accel* force
depending on the magnit two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

118. The frequency  of oscillation at

compared to earth will be
(a) 6 times more
(b) 6 times less
(c) 2.44 times more
(d) 2.44 times,less
(e) 36 times less.
Ans: d

119. Polar moment of inertia (IP) of ac disc

is to ht determined by suspen by a wire and noting the frequei
oscillations (/)
(a) Ipocf
(b) Ipocf
(C) Ip oc j
(d) Ipoc-
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: c

120. If the radius of gyration of a compound

pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then its frequency of oscillation
will be
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) data are insufficient to determine same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to

determine
(a) natural frequency of vibration
(b) position of balancing weights
(c) moment of inertia
(d) centripetal acceleration’
(e) angular acceleration of a body.
Ans: c

122. Which is the false statement about the

properties of instantaneous centre
(a) at the instantaneous center of rotation,
one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another for the
configuration of mechanism considered
(b) the two rigid links have no linear
velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
(c) the two rigid links which have no linear
velocity relative to each other at this center have the same linear velocity to
the third rigid link
(d) the double centre can be denoted either
by 02 or Ol2, but proper selection should be made
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

1
123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a
link in a four bar mechanism lies on
(a) right side pivot of this link
(b) lift side pivot of this link
(c) a point obtained by intersection on
extending adjoining links
(d) can’t occur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

124. The number of links and instantaneous

centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
(a) 4, 4
(b) 4, 5
(c) 5, 4
(d) 6, 4
(e) 4, 6.
Ans: e

125. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three

bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
(a) a triangle
(b) a point
(c) two lines
(d) a straight line
(e) a curve.
Ans: d

126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t.

will be
(a) parallel to OA
(b) perpendicular to OA
(c) at 45° to OA
(d) along AO
(e) along OA.
Ans: b

1
127. Two systems shall be dynamically
equivalent when
(a) the mass of two are same
(b) e.g. of two coincides
(c) M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is
equal
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

128. The velocity of any point in mechanism

relative to any other point on the mechanism on velocity polygon is represented
by the line
(a) joining the corresponding points
(b) perpendicular to line as per (a)
(c) not possible to determine with these data
(d) at 45° to line as per (a)
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

129. The absolute acceleration of any point P

in a link about center of rotation 0 is
(a) along PO
(b) perpendicular to PO
(c) at 45° to PO
(d) along OP
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

130. Angular acceleration of a link can be

determined by dividing the
(a) centripetal component of acceleration
with length of link
(b) tangential component of acceleration with
length of link

1
(c) resultant acceleration with length of
link
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

131. Corioli’s component of acceleration

exists whenever a point moves along a path that has
(a) linear displacement
(b) rotational motion
(c) tangential acceleration
(d) centripetal acceleration
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

132. The direction of Corioli’s component of

acceleration is the direction
(a) of relative velocity vector for the two
coincident points rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular velocity of
the rotation of the link
(b) along the centripetal acceleration
(c) along tangential acceleration
(d) along perpendicular to angular velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

133. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli’s

component of acceleration will
(a) not exist
(b) exist
(c) depend on position of crank
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration

is equal to

1
(a) velocity2 x crank radius
(b) velocityvcrankradius
(c) (velocity/crankradius)
(d) velocity x crank radius2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

135. Tangential acceleration direction is

(a) along the angular velocity
(b) opposite to angular velocity
(c) may be any one of these
(d) perpendicular to angular velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

136. Corioli’s component is encountered in

(a) quick return mechanism of shaper
(b) four bar chain mechanism
(c) slider crank mechanism
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
137. Klein’s construction gives a graphica
construction for
(a) slider-crank mechanism
(b) velocity polygon
(c) acceleration polygon
(d) four bar chain mechanism
(e) angular acceleration.
Ans: c

138. Klein’s construction can be used to

determine acceleration of various parts when the crank is at
(a) inner dead centre
(b) outer dead centre

1
(c) right angles to the link of the stroke
(d) at 45° to the line of the stroke
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

139. The number of  centers in a crank

driven slider crank mechanism are
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) may be any number depending upon position of mechanism.
Ans: b

140. Corioli’s component acts

(a) perpendicular to sliding surfaces
(b) along sliding surfaces
(c) somewhere in between above two
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
141. The sense of Corioli’s component is such
that it
(a) leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(b) lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(c) is along the sliding velocity vector
(d) leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

142. Klein’s construction can be used when

(a) crank has a uniform angular velocity
(b) crank has non-uniform velocity
(c) crank has uniform angular acceleration

1
(d) crank has uniform angular velocity and
angular acceleration
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

143. Klein’s construction is useful to

determine
(a) velocity of various parts
(b) acceleration of various parts
(c) displacement of various parts
(d) angular acceleration of various parts
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

144. A circle passing through the pitch point

with its center at the center of cam axis is known as
(a) pitch circle
(b) base circle
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
(e) cam circle.
Ans: a
145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon
(a) offset between centre lines of cam and
follower
(b) lift of follower
(c) angle of ascent
(d) sum of radii of base circle and roller
follower
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

146. Cam size depends upon

(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle

1
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as

(a) circular
(b) tangent
(c) reciprocating
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

148. The maximum value of the pressure angle

in case of cam is kept as
(a) 10°
(b) 14°
(c) 20°
(d) 30°
(e) 25°.
Ans: d
149. For the same lift and same angle of
ascent, a smaller base circle will give
(a) a small value of pressure angle
(b) a large value of pressure angle
(c) there is no such relation with pressure
angle
(d) something else
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: b

150. Cam angle is defined as the angle

(a) during which the follower returns to its
initial position

1
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite
displacement of the follower
(c) through which, the cam rotates during the
period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the
follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the can from beginning of i
ascent to the termination of descent.
Ans: b

151. Angle of descent of cam is defined as

the angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its
initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite
displacement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the
period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the
follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent
to the termination of descent.
Ans: a

152. Angle of action of cam is defined as the

angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its
initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite
displacement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the
period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the
follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position

1
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent
to the termination of descent.
Ans: e

153. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the

angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its
initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for definite
dis¬placement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the
period in which the follower remains in the highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the
follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from a beginning of
ascent to the termination of descent.
Ans: c

154. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the

angle
(a) during which the follower returns to its
initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definitedisplacement of the follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the
period in which the follower remains in highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant thefollower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning oi ascentto the termination of descent.
Ans: d

Machine Design

1. The ultimate strength of

steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of
(a) 1 : l
(b) 2:1

1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 2
Ans: c
2. The permissible stress for carbon steel
under static loading is generally taken as
(a) 2000-3000 kg/pm2
(b) 3000-4000 kg/cm2
(c) 4000-4500 kg/cm2
(d) 7500-10,000 kg/cm2
(e) 10,000-15,000 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

3. The property of a material which enables

it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
(c) strength
(d) toughness
(e) resilience.
Ans: d

4. A hot short metal is

(a) brittle when cold
(b) brittle when hot
(c) brittle under all conditions
(d) ductile at high temperature
(e) hard when hot.
Ans: b

5. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable

1
for following type of materials
(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: b

6. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable

for following type of materials
(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: a

7. If an unsupported uniform cross sectional

elastic bar is subjected to a longitudinal impact from a rigid bob moving with
velocity v, then a compressive wave of intensity sc is propagated through the
bar as follows
(a) vpE
(b) vVvF
(c) WpE/2
(d) IvHpE
(e) none of the above, where E = modulus of elasticity and p = mass density.
Ans: a

8. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen

can be roughly predicted from following hardness test
(a) Brinell
(b) Rockwell
(c) Vicker
(d) Shore’s sceleroscope

1
(e) none of the above.
 Ans: a

9. Resilience of a material is important,

when it is subjected to
(a) combined loading
(b) fatigue
(c) thermal stresses
(d) wear and tear
(e) shock loading.
Ans: e

10. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at

upper end and loaded by a falling weight at lower end, the shock load produced
can be decreased by
(a) decreasing  the cross-section area
of’ bar
(b) increasing the cross-section area of bar
(c) remain unaffected with cross-section area
(d) would depend upon other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
11. .Other method of reducing shock load in
the above case can be
(a) to decrease length
(b) to increase length
(c) unaffected by length
(d) other factors would decide same
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

12. If a load W is applied instantaneously on

a bar; then the stress induced in bar will
(a) be independent of ratio of mass of load W
to mass of bar (y)

1
(b) increase with increase in y
(c) decrease with decrease in y
(d) depend on other considerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

13. Brittle coating technique is used for

(a) determining brittleness
(b) protecting metal against corrosion
(c) protecting metal against wear and tear
(d) experimental stress analysis
(e) non-destructive testing of metals.
Ans: d

14. Stress concentration is caused due to

(a) variation in properties of material from point to point in a
member
(b) pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are
applied
(c) abrupt change of section
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
15. The endurance limit of a material with
finished surface in comparison to rough surface is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on quantum of load
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

16. Plastic flow in ductile materials

(a) increases the seriousness of static
load-ing stress concentration
(b) lessens the seriousness of static

1
load¬ing stress concentration
(c) has no effect on it
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

17. The maximum stress due to stress

concentration in a bar having circular transverse hole, as compared to its
static
stress without hole will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) 2 times more
(c) 3 times more
(d) 4 times more
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

18. The fatigue life of a part can be improved

by
(a) electroplating
(b) polishing
(c) coating
(d) shot peening
(e) heat treating.
Ans: d

19. Stress concentration in static loading is

more serious in
(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

20. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is

more serious in

1
(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

21. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the

maximum stress that a member can withstand for an infinite number of load
applications without failure when subjected to
(a) dynamic loading
(b) static loading
(c) combined static and dynamic loading
(d) completely reversed loading
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

22. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength

can be increased by
(a) cold working
(b) shot peeing
(c) grinding and lapping surface
(d) hot working
(e) using gradual changes of section.
Ans: d

23. Which of the following is not correct

procedure to increase the fatigue limit
(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) surface decarburisation
(d) under-stressing
(e)  all of the above.
Ans: c

24. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

1
(a) metal strength by cycling
(b) metal hardness by surface treatment
(c) metal resistance to corrosion by coating
(d) fatigue limit by overstressing the metal
by successively increasing loadings
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

25. Which is correct statement ?

Stress concentration in static loading is
(a) very serious in brittle materials and
less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and
less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of
materials
(d) seriousness  would depend on other
factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
26. The notch angle of the Izod impact test
specimen is
(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d

27. In Vicker’s hardness testing, the pyramid

indentor apex is
(a) 40°
(b) 122°

1
(c) 136°
(d) 152°
(e) 161°.
Ans: c

28. Which is correct statement ?

Stress concentration in cyclic loading is
(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile
materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and
less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally   serious   in  
both   types   of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

29. In testing a material for endurance

strength, it is subjected to
(a) static load
(b) dynamic load
(c) impact load
(d) static as well as dynamic load
(e) completely reversed load.
Ans: e

30. If a material fails below its yield

point, failure would be due to
(a) straining
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) sudden loading
(e) impact loading.
Ans: b

31. The fatigue limit of a material

(a) is greatly decreased by poor surface

1
conditions
(b) remains same irrespective of surface
conditions
(c) depends mainly on core composition
(d) is dependent upon yield strength of
material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

32. Cold working

(a) increases the fatigue strength
(b) decreases the fatigue strength
(c) has no influence on fatigue strength
(d) alone has  no  influence
 on  fatigue strength
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

33. Yield point in fatigue loading as

compared to static loading is
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) depends on other factors
(e)  none of the above.
Ans: c

34. Residual stress in materials

(a) acts when external load is applied
(b) becomes zero when external load is
removed
(c) is independent of external loads
(d) is always harmful
(e) is always beneficial.
 Ans: c

1
35. The building up of worn and uridersized
parts, subjected to repeated loads by electroplating is
(a) best method
(b) extremely hazardous
(c) has no effect as regards fatigue strength
(d) cheapest method
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

36. In nitrated parts, the origins of the

fatigue cracks will occur at
(a) surface
(b) just below the surface
(c) within the core
(d) could occur anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

37. Which process will increase the fatigue

duration of parts ?
(a) finishing and polishing
(b) shot-peening
(c) decarburisation
(d) electroplating
(e) all of the above”.
Ans: b

38. Which is correct statement ?

(a) a member made of steel will generally be
more rigid than a member of equal load-carrying ability made of cast iron
(b) a member made of cast iron will generally
be. more rigid than a member of equal load carrying ability made of steel
(c) both will be equally rigid
(d) which one is rigid will depend on several
other factors

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

39. Resistance to fatigue of a material is

measured by
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) coefficient of elasticity
(c) elastic limit
(d) ultimate tensile strength
(e)     endurance limit.
Ans: e

40. In most machine members, the damping capacity

of the material should be
(a) low
(b) zero
(c) high
(d) could be anything
(e) none of the above.
 Ans: c

41. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to

the endurance limit in flexure is
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.55
(e) 0.6
Ans: d

42. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear

as compared to ultimate strength in tension is
(a) same
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/4

1
(e) 2/3
Ans: e

43. The endurance limit in shear of carbon

steel can be obtained by multiplying the endurance limit in flexure by a factor
of
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.45
(r) 0.55
(d) 0.65
(e)0.75.
Ans: e

44. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the

notched-bar impact value of steel
(a) increases markedly
(b) decreases markedly
(c) remains same
(d) depends on heat treatment carried out
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
45. A bolt
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in
the other part to be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) is provided with pointed threads
(e) requires no nut.
Ans: a

46. The crest diameter of a screw thread is

same as
(a) major diameter
(b) minor diameter

1
(c) pitch diameter
(d) core diameter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

47. If d is the diameter of bolt hole then

for a flanged pipe joint to be leak proof, the circumferential pitch of the
bolts should be
(a) lOVZ
(b) 10VZtol5Vd
(c) 15Vdto20VZ
(d) 20Vdto30Vd
(e) 30V5″to40Vd.
Ans: d

48. Maximum principal stress theory is

applicable for
(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
49. The following type of nut is used with
alien bolt
(a) alien nut
(b) hexagonal nut
(c) slotted nut
(d) castle nut
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e

50. A stud
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to
the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits

1
into a tapped hole in the other part to be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking nuts.
Ans: c

51. Shear stress theory is applicable for

(a) ductile fnaterials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

52. A tap bolt

(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to
the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits
into a tapped hole in the other part o be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking devices.
Ans: b
53. For applications involving high stresses
in one direction only the following type of thread would be best suited
(a) ISO metric thread
(b) acme thread
(c) square thread
(d) buttress thread
(e) British Association thread.
Ans: d

54. The included angle in unified of American

National threads is
(a) 60°
(b) 55°

1
(c) 47°
(d) 29°
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

55. The function of a washer is to

(a) provide cushioning effect
(b) provide bearing area
(c) absorb shocks and vibrations
(d) provide smooth surface in place of rough
surface
(e) act as a locking device.
Ans: b

56. Cap screws are

(a) similar to’small size tap bolts except
that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally
used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween
parts
(d) provided with detachable caps
(e) similar to stud.
Ans: a

57. An alien bolt is

(a) self locking bolt
(b) same as stud
(c) provided with hexagonal depression in
head
(d) used in high speed components
(e) provided with countersunk head.
Ans: c

58. The deflection of a cantilever beam under

load W is 8. If its width is halved, then the deflection under load W will be

1
(a) 28
(b) 8/2
(c) 48
(d) 8/4
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

59. Ball bearing type screws are found in

following application
(a) screw jack    
(b) aeroplane engines
(c) crane
(d) steering mechanism
(e) bench vice.
Ans: d

60. Set screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except
that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally
used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween
parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

61. A self locking screw has

(a) fine threads
(b) coarse threads
(c) coefficient of friction > tangent of
load angle
(d) hole for inserting split pin
(e) two nuts for locking.
Ans: c

1
62. The designation M 33 x 2 of a bolt means
(a) metric threads of 33 nos in 2 cm.
(b) metric threads with cross-section of 33
mm
(c) metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter
and 2 mm pitch
(d) bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter having 2
threads per cm
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

63. Machine screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except
that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally
used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween
two parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
64. Rivets are generally specified by
(a) thickness of plates to be riveted
(b) length of rivet
(c) diameter of head
(d) nominal diameter
(e) all of the above.
 Ans: d

65. The edges of a boiler plate are bevelled

to an angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°

1
(d) 80°
(e) 85°.
Ans: d

66. Which of the following is a permanent

fastening ?
(a) bolts
(b) keys
(c) cotters
(d) rivets
(e) screws.
Ans: d

67. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the
center line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia.
of rivet d should be equal to
(a) d
(b) 1.25 d
(c) 1.5 d
(d) 1.75 d
(e) 2 d.
Ans: c
68. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted
joint is 75%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to the pitch is equal to
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.6
(e) 0.75.
Ans: b

69. Transverse fillet welded joints are

designed for
(a) tensile strength
(b) compressive strength

1
(c) shear strength
(d) bending strength
(e) torsional strength.
Ans: a

70. Jam nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main
nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction
jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and
then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed
in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a
tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a
cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter spitted
and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

71. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in

comparison to pitch of nut is
(a) same
(b) coarser
(c) finer
(d) very coarse
(e) very fine.
Ans: a

72.Buttress threads are usually found on

(a) screw cutting lathes
(b) feed mechanisms
(c) spindles of bench vices
(d) screw jack
(e) railway carriage couplings.
Ans: e

1
73. In order to obtain bolt of uniform
strength
(a) increase shank diameter
(b) increase its length
(c) drill an axial hole through head up to
threaded portion so that shank area is equal to root area of thread
(d) tighten die bolt properly
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

74. A key capable of tilting in a recess

milled out in a shaft is known as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.
Ans: a

75. A key made from a cylindrical disc having

segmental cross-section, is known as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.
Ans: a

76. A tapered key which fits in a keyway in

the hub and is flat on the shaft, is known as
(a)     wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.

1
Ans: c

77. Fibrous fracture occurs in

(a) ductile material
(b) brittle material
(c) elastic material
(d) hard material
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

78.Turn buckle has

(a) right hand threads on bout ends
(b) left hand threads on both ends
(c) left hand threads on one end and right
hand threads on other end
(d) no threads
(e) threads in middle portion.
Ans: c

79. Eye bolts are used for

(a) foundation purposes
(b) locking devices *
(c) absorbing shock and vibrations
(d) transmission of power
(e) lifting and transportation of machines
and cubicles.
Ans: e

80. Elastic nut is a locking device in which

(a) one small nut is tightened over main nut
and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction
jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and
then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in
the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is stewed on the bolt causing a tight

1
grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a
cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above,
Ans: c

81. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in

mm, then the initial tension in kg in a bolt used for making a fluid tight
joint as for steam engine cover joint is calculated by the relation
(a) 102 d
(b) 124 d
(c) 138 d
(d) 151 d
(e) 168 d.
Ans: e

82. If threads on a bolt are left hand,

threads on nut will be
(a) right hand with same pitch
(b) left hand with same pitch
(c) could be left or right hand
(d) right hand with fine pitch
(e) left hand with fine pitch.
Ans: b

83. Taper usually provided on cotter is

(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 24
(d) 1 in 40
(e) 1 in 50.
Ans: c

84. Applications in which stresses are

encountered in one direction only uses following type of threads
(a) metric

1
(b) buttress
(c) acme
(d) square
(e) BSW.
Ans: b

85. The draw of cotter need not exceed

(a) 3 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 25 mm.
Ans: a

86. A bench vice has following type of

threads
(a) metric
(b) square
(c) buttress
(d) acme
(e) BSW.
Ans: d
87. The valve rod in a steam engine is
connected to an eccentric rod by
(a) cotter joint
(b) bolted joint
(c) kunckle joint
(d) universal coupling
(e) gib and cotter joint.
Ans: c

88. Split nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main
nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction
jamming

1
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and
then slot reduced by tightening screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed
in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a
tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a
cotter-pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction at the other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

89. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided

(a) on both the sides
(b) on one side only
(c) on none of the sides
(d) may be provided anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

90. The function of cutting oil when

threading a pipe is to
(a) provide cooling action
(b) lubricate the dies
(c) help remove chips
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

91. Silver-based solder is used for

(a) flaring
(b) brazing
(c) soft soldering
(d) fusion welding
(e) none of the above.’
Ans: b

92. For tight leakage joints, following type

1
of thread is best suited
(a) metric
(b) buttress
(c) square
(d) acme
(e) NPT (national pipe threads).
Ans: e

93. In order to permit the thermal

expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be
(a) crimped
(b) honed
(c) flared
(d) bent
(e) none of the above.
 Ans: d

94. A tube has the following advantage over

pipe
(a) lighter and easier to handle
(b) greater shock absorption
(c) smoother inside walls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

95. The strap end of a connecting rod of

steam engine is joined by
(a) gib of cotter joint
(b) sleeve and cotter joint
(c) spigot socket cotter joint
(d) knuckle joint
(e) universal coupling.
Ans: a

96. A backing ring is used inside the pipe

1
joint when making a
(a) butt weld      
(b) fillet weld
(c) sleeve weld  
(d) socket weld
(e) tube weld.
Ans: a

97. The shear plane in case of bolts should

(a) be across threaded portion of shank
(b) be parallel to axis of bolt
(c) be normal to threaded portion of shank
(d) never be across the threaded portion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

97. Castle nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main
nut and main nut tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction
jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly is middle of nut and
then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed
in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a
tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a
cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin
spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

98. When a nut is tightened by plaping a

washer below it, the bolt will be subjected to following type of loads
(a) compression
(b) tension

1
(c) shear      
(d) combined loads
(e) all of the above.
 Ans: b

99. Gear box is used

(a) to produce torque
(b) for speed reduction
(c) to obtain variable speeds
(d) to increase efficiency of system
(e) to damp out vibrations.
Ans: c

100. The edges of the plates for cylindrical

vessels are usually bevelled to an angle of 80° for
(a) reducing stress concentration
(b) ease of manufacture
(c) safety
(d) fullering and caulking
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d
101. The piston rod of a steam engine is
usually connected to the crosshead by means of
(a) bolted joint  
(b) kunckle joint
(c) cotter joint  
(d) universal joint
(e) universal coupling.
Ans: c

102. Which of the following pipe joints would

be suitable for pipes carrying steam
(a) flanged
(b) threaded

1
(c) bell and spigot
(d) expansion
(e) compression.
Ans: d

103. Spring index is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) indication of quality of spring
(e) nothing.
Ans: a

104. The shearing stresses in the inner face

as compared to outer face of the wire in a heavy close coiled spring is
(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) larger/smaller depending on diameter of
spring coil
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
105. Form coefficient of spring is
(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) concerned With strength of wire of spring
(e)  nothing
Ans: c

106. Spring stiffness is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) its ability to absorb shocks

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

107. When two springs are in series (having

stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will be
(a) K
(b) K/2
(c) 2K
(d) KIA
(e) UK.
Ans: b

108. When a close coiled helical spring is

compressed, its wire is subjected to
(a) tension
(b) shear
(c) compression
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

109. If a spring is cut down into two

springs, the stiffness of cut springs will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

110. Belt slip may occur due to

(a) heavy load
(b) loose belt
(c) driving pulley too small
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: d

111.Aircraft body is usually fabricated by

(a) welding
(b) precasting
(c) rivetting
(d) casting
(e) unconventional methods.
Ans: c

112. If two springs are in parallel then

their overall stiffness will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

113. In hydrodynamic bearings

(a) the oil film pressure is generated only
by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying
oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of
lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

114. Antifriction bearings are

(a) sleeve bearings
(b) hydrodynamic bearings
(c) thin lubricated bearings
(d) ball and roller bearings
(e) none of the above.

1
Ans: e

115. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing

area, z = absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the
bearing characteristic number is given by
(a) ZN/p
(b) p/ZN
(c) Z/pN
(d) N/Zp
(e) Zp/N.
Ans: a

116. The usual clearance provided in

hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter of shaft is
(a) 0.01 micron  
(b) 0.1 micron
(c) 1 micron
(d) 10 microns
(e) 25 microns.
Ans: c

117. In hydrostatic bearings

(a) the Oil film pressure is generated only
by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying
oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of
lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

118. Oil in journal bearing should be applied

at the point where load is
(a) nil or lightest
(b) maximum

1
(c) average
(d) any one of the above
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

119. The rated life of a bearing varies

(a) directly as load
(b) inversely as square of load
(c) inversely as cube of load
(d) inversely as fourth power of load
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

120. In oilness bearings

(a)     the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of
the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying
oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of
lubricant
(d) grease required to be applied after some
intervals
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

121. In V-belt drive, belt touches

(a) at bottom      
(b) at sides only
(c) both at bottom and sides
(d) could touch anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

122. Three different weights fall from a

certain height under vacuum. They will take
(a) same time to reach earth

1
(b) times proportional to weight to reach
earth
(c) times inversely proportional to weight to
reach earth
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

123. In cross or regular lay ropes

(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is
opposite to the direction of twist of strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands
are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted
in opposite direction
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

124. In standard taper roller bearings, the

angle of taper of outer raceway is
(a) 5°
(b) 8°
(c) 15°
(d) 25°
(e) 40°.
Ans: d

125. In composite or reverse laid ropes

(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is
opposite to the direction of twist of strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands
are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted
in opposite direction

1
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

126. Whether any core is required in wire

ropes
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) sometimes    
(d) rarely
(e) very often.
Ans: a

127. If shearing stress in nut is half the

tensile stress in a bolt, then nut length should be equal to
(a) diameter of bolt
(b) 0.75 x diameter of bolt
(c) 1.25 x diameter of bolt
(d) 1.5 x diameter of bolt
(e) 0.5 x diameter of bolt.
Ans: a
128. Basic shaft is one
(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations
are zero  
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

129. Basic hole is one

(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations

1
are zero
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

130. I.S. specifies following total number of

grades of tolerances
(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 22
(e) 14.
Ans: a

131. For standard coarse threads of nut, the

threads will be as strong in failure by shear as the bolt in tension, if the
height of nut (h) is approximately
(a) 0.4 times
(b) 0.6 times
(c) 0.7 times
(d) 0.8 times
(e) 0.9 times the normal diameter of bolt.
Ans: a
132. Allen bolts are
(a) self locking bolts
(b) designed for shock load
(c) used in aircraft application
(d) provided with hexagonal depression in
head
(e) uniform strength bolts.
Ans: d

133. The resultant axial load on a bolt

depends on
(a) initial tension
(b) external load applied

1
(c) relative elastic yielding (springness) of
the bolt and the connected member
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a), (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e

134. The connecting rod bolts are tightened

up so that tightening stress
(a) is just sufficient to hold parts together
(b) approaches yield point
(c) is 50% of yield point
(d) is about yield point divided by safety
factor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

135. The connecting rod bolts are tightened

up with initial tension greater than the external load so that
(a) joint may not open up
(b) bolts are weakest elements
(c) the resultant load on the bolt would not
be affected by the external cyclic load
(d) bolts will not loosen during service
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

136. If an application calls for stresses on

screw threads in one direction only, then the following type of thread would be
best suited
(a) square
(b) acme
(c) buttress
(d) BSW
(e) metric.
Ans: c

137. When a bolt is subjected to shock

1
loading, the resilience of the bolt should be considered in order to prevent
breakage at
(a) shank
(b) head
(c) in the middle
(d) at the thread
(e) anywhere in the bolt.
Ans: d

138. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt

can be increased by
(a) tightening it properly
(b) increasing shank diameter
(c) grinding the shank
(d) using washer
(e) making shank diameter equal to core
diameter of thread.
Ans: e
I.C. Engines
1. The working cycle in case of four
stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 8.
Ans: c

2. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

1
(a) spark
(b) injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that
is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.
Ans: c

3. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under
pres-sure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of
combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of
engine’s cylinder during the exhaust period
(e) air fuel mixture.
Ans: d

4. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supplying the intake of an engine with
air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more
load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove
combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.
Ans: a

5. Does the supply of scavenging air at a

density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is supercharged ?
(a)     yes
(b)     no
(c) to some extent

1
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.
Ans: b

6. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency

to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called
(a) net efficiency
(b) efficiency ratio
(c) relative efficiency
(d) overall efficiency
(e) cycle efficiency.
Ans: c

7. Compression ratio of LC. engines is

(a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder
before compression stroke and after compression stroke
(b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and
clearance volume in cylinder
(c) ratio of pressure after compression and
before compression
(d) swept volume/cylinder volume
(e) cylinder volume/swept volume.
Ans: a
8. The air standard efficiency of an Otto
cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(c) more
(d) more or less depending on power rating
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

9. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is

expressed in terms of
(a) kcal
(b) kcal/kg

1
(c) kcal/m2
(d) kcal/n?
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

11. If the intake air temperature of I.C.

engine increases, its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same  
(d) unpredictable
(e) depend on other factors.
Ans: b

12. All heat engines utilize

(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net claorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
13. An engine indicator is used to determine
the following
(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
(e) BHP.
Ans: d

14. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C.

engine are usually based on
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil

1
(c) net calorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

17. If the compression ratio of an engine

working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the %age increase in efficiency
will be
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) 27%.
Ans: d

18. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel

consumption guarantees are based on
(a) high heat value
(b) low heat value
(c) net calorific value
(d) middle heat value
(e) calorific value.
Ans: b
19. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle
diesel engine the inlet valve
(a) opens at 20° before top dead center and
closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
(b) opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(c) opens at 10° after top dead center and
closes 20° before the bottom dead center
(d) may open or close anywhere
(e) remains open for 200°.
Ans: a

20. The pressure and temperature at the end

of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the order of

1
(a) 4 – 6 kg/cm2 and 200 – 250°C
(b) 6 – 12 kg/cm2 and 250 – 350°C
(c) 12 – 20 kg/cm2 and 350 – 450°C
(d) 20 – 30 kg/cm2 and 450 – 500°C
(e) 30 – 40 kg/cm2 and 500 – 700°C.
Ans: b

21. The pressure at the end of compression in

the case of diesel engine is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm
(b) 12kg/cmz
(c) 20 kg/cmz      
(d) 27.5 kg/cmz
(e) 35 kg/cm
Ans: e

22. The maximum temperature in the I.C.

engine cylinder is of the order of
(a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C
Ans: d

23. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio,
with increase in cut-off ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) be independent
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

24. Pick up the wrong statement

1
(a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is
obtained in 4-strokes
(c) thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is
more due to positive scavenging
(d) petrol engines work on otto cycle
(e) petrol engines occupy more space than
diesel engines for same power output.
Ans: e

25. Combustion in compression ignition

engines is
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) laminar
(e) turbulent.
Ans: b

26. The fuel in diesel engine is normally

injected at pressure of
(a) 5-10 kg/cm2  
(b) 20-25 kg/cm2
(c) 60-80 kg/cm2
(d) 90-130 kg/cm2
(e) 150-250 kg/cm2
Ans: d

27. The specific fuel consumption per BHP

hour for diesel engine is approximately
(a) 0.15 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3 kg
(e) 0.35 kg.

1
Ans: b

28. The temperature of interior surface of

cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to exceed
(a) 80°C
(b) 120°C
(c) 180°C
(d) 240°C
(e) 320°C.
Ans: c

30. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines

usuall occurs as
(a) first a mild explosion followed by a bi
explosion
(b) first a big explosion followed by a mil
explosion
(c) both mild and big explosions occi
simultaneously
(d) never occurs
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
31. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs
duto
(a) leaking piston rings
(b) use of thick head gasket
(c) clogged air-inlet slots
(d) increase in clearance volume caused b
bearing-bushing wear
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

32. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour

for a petrol engine is approximately
(a) 0.15 kg

1
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3kg
(e) 0.35 kg.
Ans: c

33. The air requirement of a petrol engine

during starting compared to theoretical airequired for complete combustion is
(a) more
(b) loss
(c) same
(d) may be more or less depending on engine capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

34. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle

I.C engine remains open for nearly
(a) 180°
(b) 125°
(c) 235°
(d) 200°
(e) 275°.
Ans: c
35. Which of the following is not an interns
combustion engine
(a) 2-stroke petrol engine
(b) 4-stroke petrol engine
(c) diesel engine
(d) gas turbine
(e) steam turbine.
Ans: e

36. Pick up the false statement

(a) Thermal efficiency of diesel engine i
about 34%
(b) Theoretically correct mixture of air am

1
petrol is approximately 15 : 1
(c) High speed compression engines operate on
dual combustion cycle
(d) Diesel engines are compression ignition
engines
(e) S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.
Ans: e

37. If one cylinder of a diesel engine

receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the
(a) exhaust will be smoky
(b) piston rings would stick into piston
grooves
(c) exhaust temperature will be high
(d) engine starts overheating
(e) scavenging occurs.
Ans: e

38. The output of a diesel engine can be

increased without increasing the engine revolution or size in following way
(a) feeding more fuel
(b) increasing flywheel size
(c) heating incoming air
(d) scavenging
(e) supercharging.
Ans: e

39. It the temperature of intake air in IC

engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase upto certain limit and then
decrease
(e) decrease upto certain limit and then
in-crease.

1
Ans: a

40. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) compression starts at 35° after bottom
dead center and ends at top dead center
(b) compression starts at bottom dead center
and ends at top dead center
(c) compression starts at 10° before bottom
dead center and, ends just before top dead center
(d) may start and end anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

41. For the same compression ratio

(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than the
Diesel
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient’than Otto
(c) both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally
efficient
(d) compression ratio has nothing to do with
efficiency
(e) which is more efficient would depend on
engine capacity.
Ans: a

42.  The precess of breaking up or a lipuid into fine droplets by spraying

is called
(a) vaporisation    
(b) carburetion
(c) ionisation
(d) injection
(e) atomisation.
Ans: e

43. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains

very high value

1
(a) peak pressure
(b) rate of rise of pressure
(c) rate of rise of temperature    

(d) peak temperature

(e) rate of rise of horse-power.
Ans: b

44. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
(b) All the reversible engines have same efficiency
(c) Both Rankine and Caront cycles have same
efficiency between same temperature limits
(d) All reversible engines working between
same temperature limits have same-efficiency
(e) Between same temperature limits, both
petrol and diesel engines have same efficiency.
Ans: d

45. Most high speed compression engines operate on

(a) Diesel cycle  
(b) Otto cycle
(c) Dual combustion cycle
(d) Special type of air cycle
(e) Carnot cycle.
Ans: c

48. The accunmulation of carbon in a cylinder

results in increase of
(a) clearance volume
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) ignition time
(d) effective compression ratio
(e) valve travel time.
Ans: d

1
49. Which of the following medium is
compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder
(a) air aione
(b) air and fuel
(c) air and lub oil
(d) fuel alone
(e) air, fuel and lub oil.
Ans: a

54. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine

is controlled by
(a) fuel pump      
(b) governor
(c) injector
(d) carburettor
(e) scavenging.
Ans: d

55. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) fuelinjection starts at 10° before to
dead center and ends at 20° after tor dead center
(b) fuel injection starts at top dead center
and ends at 20° after top dead center
(c) fuel injection starts at just before top
dead center and ends just after top deac center
(d) may start and end anywhere
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

56. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

(a) less difficult to ignite
(b) just about the same difficult to ignite
(c) more difficult to ignite
(d) highly ignitable

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

57. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected

into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of
(a) 250°C
(b) 500°C
(c) 1000°C
(d) 150CPC
(e) 2000°C.
Ans: c

58. When crude oil is heated, then which of the

following hydrocarbon is given off first.
(a) kerosene
(b) gasoline
(c) paraffin
(d) diesel
(e) natural gas.
Ans: e

59. The rating of a diesel engine, with

increase in airintlet temperature, will
(a) increase linearly
(b) decrease linearly
(c) increase parabolically
(d) decrease parabolically
(e) first decrease linearly and then increase
parabolically.
Ans: b

60. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as

75 cc
(a) fuel tank capacity
(b) lub oil capacity
(c) swept volume

1
(d) cylinder volume
(e) clearance volume.
Ans: c

61. A heat engine utilises the

(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

62. Gaseous-fuel guarantees are based on

(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of oil
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

63. Fuel consumption of diesef engines is not

guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads
(a) the friction is high
(b) the friction is unpredictable
(c) the small difference in cooling water
temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect
(d) the engine is rarely operated
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

64. Polymerisation  is  a

 chemical process  in which molecules of a compound become
(a) larger
(b) slowed down
(c) smaller
(d) liquid

1
(e) gaseous.
Ans: a

65. The term scavenging is generally

associated with
(a) 2-stroke cycle engines
(b) 4-stroke cycle engines
(c) aeroplane engines
(d) diesel engines
(e) high efficiency engines.
Ans: e

66. In diesel engine, the compression ratio

in comparison to expansion ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(G) more
(d) variable
(e) more/less depending on engine capacity.
Ans: c

67. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C.

engine running at 1500 rmp will run at
(a) 1500 rpm
(b) 750 rpm
(c) 3000 rpm
(d) any value independent of engine speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

68. Engine pistons ‘are usually made of

aluminium alloy because it
(a) is lighter
(b) wears less
(c) absorbs shocks
(d) is stronger

1
(e) does not react with fuel and lub oil.
Ans: a

69. Most high speed compression engines

operate on
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Dual cycle
(d) Carnot cycle
(e) Two stroke cycle.
Ans: c

70. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol

engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less or more depending on operating
conditions
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
71. A diesel engine as compared to petrol
engine (both running ar rated load) is
(a) more efficient
(b) less efficient
(c) equally efficient
(d) unperdictable
(e) other factors will decide it.
Ans: a

72.  The size of inlet valve of.an engine in comparison to exhaust valve
is
(a) more
(b) less

1
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on capacity of engine
(e) varies from design to design.
Ans: b

74. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for

(a) 1 sec
(b) 0.1 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.001 sec
(e) 0.0001 sec.
Ans: d

75. Which of the following is false statement

:
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may
cause the following
(a) piston ring and cylinder wear
(b) formation of hard coating on piston
skirts
(c) oil sludge in the engine crank case
(d) detonation
(e) forms corrosive acids.
Ans: d

76. Which of the following is false

statement. Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows
(a) using additives in the fuel
(b) engine derating i.e. reducing the
maxi-mum flow of fuel
(c) increasing the compression ratio
(d) adherence to proper fuel specification
(e) avoidance of overloading.
Ans: c

77. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine

1
fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to
clean filter will be
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) remain unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

78. Pick up the wrong statement about

supercharging
(a)     supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
(b)     there can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because
of detonation
(c) supercharging at high altitudes is
essential
(d) supercharging results in fuel economy
(e) supercharging is essential in aircraft
engines.
Ans: d
79. The actual volume of fresh charge
admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
(a) equal to stroke volume
(b) equal to stroke volume and clearance
volume
(c) less than stroke volume
(d) more than stroke volume
(e) more than cylinder volume.
Ans: c

80. The magneto in an automobile is basically

(c) transformer    
(b) d.c. generator

1
(c) capacitor
(d) magnetic circuit
(e) a.c. generator.
Ans: b

81. The reason for supercharging in any

engine is to
(a) increase efficiency
(b) increase power
(c) reduce weight and bulk for a given
out-put
(d) effect fuel economy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

82. The operation of forcing additional air

under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
(a) scavenging    
(b) turbulence
(c) supercharging
(d) pre-ignition
(e) dissociation and carburretion of fuel.
Ans: c
83. Supercharging is essential in
(a) diesel engines
(b) gas turbines
(c) petrol engines
(d) aircraft engines
(e) marine engines.
Ans: d

84. The minimum cranking speed in case of

petrol engine is about
(a) half the operating speed
(b) one-fourth of operating speed
(c) 250-300 rpm  

1
(d) 60-80 rpm    
(e) 10-20 rpm
Ans: d

85. In a typical medium speed 4 stroke cycle

diesel engine
(a) exhaust valve opens at 35° before bot-tom
dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center
(b) exhaust valve opens at bottom ‘dead
center and closes at top dead center
(c) exhaust valve opens just after bottom
dead center and closes just before top dead center
(d) may open and close anywhere
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

86. Flash point of fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which1 oil is heated in order to give
off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when
brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or
congeals
(c) temperature at which it catches fire
without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation
temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

87. The mean effective pressure obtained from

engine indicator indicates the
(a) maximum pressure developed
(b) minimum pressure
(c) instantaneous pressure at any instant
(d) exhaust pressure
(e) average pressure.

1
Ans: e

88. For the same power developed in I.C.

engines, the cheaper system is
(a) naturally aspirated
(b) supercharged
(c) centrifugal pump
(d) turbo charger
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

89. Installation of supercharger on a

four-cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in
power
(a) upto 25%
(b) upto 35%
(c) upto 50%
(d) upto 75%
(e) upto 100%.
Ans: e

90. Scavenging is usually done to increase

(a) thermal efficiency
(b) speed
(c) power output
(d) fuel consumption
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

91. Which of the following is the lightest

and most volatile liquid fuel
(a) diesel
(b) kerosene
(c) fuel oil
(d) gasoline
(e) lub oil.

1
Ans: d

92. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio

for petrol engine is of the order of
(a) 6 : 1
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 12 : 1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.
Ans: d

93. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a

petrol engine is approximately
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 10:1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.
Ans: c

94. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine

can not work is
(a) 8 : 1
(b) 10 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 20 : 1 and less
(e) will work at all ratios.
Ans: d

95. For maximum power generation, the air

fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order of
(a) 9 : 1
(b) 12 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 18 : 1
(e) 20: 1.

1
Ans: b

96. The following volume of air is required

for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine
(a) 1 m3
(b) 5 m3
(c) 5-6 m3
(d) 9-10 m3
(e) 15-18 m3.
Ans: d

97. Pour point of fuel oil is the

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is
heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or
congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.
Ans: b
98. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would
consume diesel of the order of
(a) 0.3 kg/hr
(b) 1 kg/hr
(c) 3 kg/hr
(d) 5 kg/hr
(e) 10 kg/hr.
Ans: b

99. Diesel engine can work on very lean air

fuel ratio of the order of 30 : 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean
ratio provided
(a) it is properly designed

1
(b) best quality fuel is used
(c) can not work as it is impossible
(d) flywheel size is proper
(e) engine cooling is stopped.
Ans: c

100. A diesel engine has

(a) 1 valve
(b) 2 valves
(b) 3 valves
(d) 4 valves
(e) no valve.
Ans: c

101. A hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel

engine when air fuel ratio is
(a) uniform throughout the mixture
(b) chemically correct mixture
(c) about 3-5% rich mixture
(d) about 10% rich mixture
(e) about 10% lean mixture.
Ans: d
102. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
(a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the
first part of the charge
(b) instantaneous atuo iginition of last part
of charge
(c) delayed burning of the first part of the
charge
(d) reduction of delay period
(e) all ot the above.
Ans: a

103. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines-is

controlled by

1
(a) controlling valve opening/closing
(b) governing
(c) injection
(d) carburettion
(e) scavenging and supercharging.
Ans: d

104. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is
heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or
congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation
temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.
Ans: d

105. Which is more viscous lub oil

(a) SEA 30
(b) SAE 4£
(c) SAE 50
(d) SAE 70
(e) SAE 80.
Ans: e

106. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the

combustion chamber is located
(a) above the piston & below the piston
(c) between the pistons
(d) any where
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: c

107. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

(a) chemically correct mixture

1
(b) lean mixture
(c) rich mixture for idling
(d) rich mixture for over loads
(e) the ratio used at full rated parameters.
Ans: a

108. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine,

the air is supplied by
(a) a supercharger
(b) a centrifugal blower
(c) a vacuum chamber
(d) an injection tube
(e) forced chamber
Ans: c

109. In loop scavenging, the top of the

piston is
(a) flat
(b) contoured
(c) slanted
(d) depressed
(e) convex shaped.
Ans: b

110. In the crankcase method of scavenging,

the air pressure is produced by
(a) supercharger
(b) centrifugal pump
(c) natural aspirator
(d) movement of engine piston
(e) reciprocating pump.
Ans: d

1
Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines

1. Free air is the air at

(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific
location
(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity
of 36%
(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
Ans: a2. Standard air is the air at

1
(a) atmospheric conditions at any specific
location
(b) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity
36%
(c) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d) 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
Ans: b
3. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs
approximately
(a) 0.5 kg
(b) 1.0 kg
(c) 1.3 kg
(d) 2.2 kg
(e) 3.2 kg.
Ans: c

4. Adiabatic compression is one in which

(a) temperature during compression remains
constant
(b) no heat leaves or enters the compressor
cylinder during cornpression
(c) temperature rise follows a linear
relationship
(d) work done is maximum
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: b

5. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih.

5 m /min refers to
(a) standard air

1
(b) free air
(c) compressed air
(d) compressed air at delivery pressure
(e) air sucked.
Ans: b

6. The overall isothermal eiffciency of

compressor is defined as the ratio of
(a) isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
(b) isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
(c) power to drive compressor to isothermal
h.p.
(d) work to compress air isothermally to work
for actual compression
(e) isothermal work to ideal work.
Ans: a

7. The- most efficient method of compressing

air is to compress it
(a) isothermally
(b) adiabatically
(c) isentropically
(d) isochronically
(e) as per law pV
Ans: a

8. Maximum work is done in compressing air

when the compression is
(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) polytropic
(d) any one of the above

1
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

9. The pressure and temperature conditions of

air at the suction of compressor are
(a) atmospheric
(b) slightly more than atmospheric
(c) slightly less than atmospheric
(d) pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly less than
atmospheric
(e) pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than
atmospheric.
Ans: e

10. Isothermal compression effeicency can be

attained by running the compressor
(a) at very high speed
(b) at very slow speed
(c) at average speed
(d) at zero speed
(e) isothermally.
Ans: b

11. The compressor capacity with decrease in

suction temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on
compressor capacity
(e) increases upto certain limit and then
decreases.

1
Ans: a

12. Isothermal compression efficiency, even

when running at high speed, can be approached by using
(a) multi-stage compression
(b) cold water spray
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) fully insulating the cylinder
(e) high stroke.
Ans: c

13. Compression efficiency is compared

against
(a) ideal compression
(b) adiabatic compression
(c) botii isothermal and adiabatic
compression
(d) isentropic compression
(e) isothermal compression.
Ans: e
14. Aeroplanes employ following type of
compressor
(a) radial flow
(b) axial flow
(c) centrifugal
(d) combination of above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

15. Inter cooling in compressors

(a) cools the delivered air
(b) results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure

1
(c) is the standard practice for big
compressors
(d) enables compression in two stages
(e) prevents   compressor  jacket
running very hot.
Ans: b

16. An ideal air compressor cycle without

clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
(a) one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
(b) two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c) two adiabatic, one isobaric and one
constant volume
(d) one adiabatic,  one  isobaric
and two constant volume
(e) two isobaric,  two adiabatic and one
constant volume.
Ans: a
17. An ideal air compressor cycle with
clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
(a) one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one
constant volume
(b) two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c) two adiabatic,  one  isobaric
and  one constant volume,
(d) one adiabatic, one isobaric and two
constant volume
(e) two  isobaric,  two adiabatic
and one constant volume.
Ans: b

1
18. What will be the volume of air at 327°C
if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
(a)  3 m3/mt .
(b)  1.5 m3/mt
(c) 18 m3/mt’
(d)  6 m3/mt
(e)  0.75 m3/mt.
Ans: a

19. The work done per unit mass of air in

compression will’be least when n is equal to
(a) 1
(b) 1.2     ,
(c) 1.3
(d) 1.4
(e) 1.5
Ans: a

20. Isothermal compression though most

efficient, but is not -practicable because
(a) ityrequires very big cylinder
(b) it does not increase pressure much
(c) it is impossible in practice
(d) compressor has to  run  at
very  slow speed to achieve it
(e) it requires cylinder to be placed in
water.
Ans: d

21. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is

known as
(a) mechanical efficiency
(b) volumetric efficiency

1
(c) isothermal efficiency
(d) adiabatic efficiency
(e) relative efficiency.
Ans: a

22. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the

swept volume in case of compressor is called
(a) compression index
(b) compression ratio
(c) compressor efficiency
(d) mean effective pressure
(e) compressor effectiveness.
Ans: d

23. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should

be
(a) as large as possible
(b) as small as possible
(c) about 50% of swept volume
(d) about 100% of swept volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
24. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
(a) gauge discharge pressure to the gauge
intake pressure
(b) absolute discharge pressure to the
ab-solute intake pressure
(c) pressures at discharge and suction
cor-responding to same temperature
(d) stroke volume and clearance volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

25. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating

compressors is essential

1
(a) to accommedate Valves in the cylinder
head
(b) to provide cushioning effect
(c) to attain high volumetric efficiency
(d) to avoid mechanical bang of piston with
cylinder head
(e) to provide cushioning effect and also to
avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head.
Ans: e

26. The net work input required for

compressor with increase in clearance volume
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) increases/decreases depending on
com-pressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

27. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in

known as
(a) compressor efficiency
(b) isothermal efficiency
(c) volumetric efficiency
(d) mechanical efficiency
(e) adiabatic efficiency.
Ans: d

28. Volumetric efficiency is

(a) the ratio of stroke volume to clearance
volume
(b) the ratio of the air actually delivered
to the amount of piston displacement
(c) reciprocal of compression ratio
(d) index of compressor performance

1
(e) proportional to compression ratio.
Ans: b

29. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors

is of the order of
(a) 20-30%
(b) 40-50%
(c) 60-70%
(d) 70-90%
(e) 90-100%.
Ans: d

30. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor

with clearance volume
(a) increases with increase in compression
ratio
(b) decreases with increase in compression
ratio
(c) in  not  dependent  upon
compression ratio
(d) may  increase/decrease depending
on compressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

31. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor

without clearance volume
(a) increases with increase in compression
ratio
(b) decreases with increase in compression
ratio
(c) is not dependent upon compressin ratio
(d) may  increase/decrease
depending  on compressor capacity
(e) unpredictable.

1
Ans: c

32. The clearance volume of the air

compressor is kept minimum because
(a) it allows maximum compression to be
achieved
(b) it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
(c) it results in minimum work
(d) it permits isothermal compression
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

33. Euler’s equation is applicable for

(a) centrifugal compressor
(b) axial compressor
(c) pumps
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

40. Out of the following, from where you will

prefer to take intake for air compressor
(a) from an air conditioned room maintained
at 20°C
(b) from outside atmosphere at 1°C
(c) from coal yard side
(d) from a side where cooling tower is
located nearby
(e) from any one of the above locations.
Ans: d

41. Mining industry usually employs following

motive power
(a) A.C. electric motor
(b) compressed air
(c) petrol engine

1
(d) diesel engine
(e) D.C. electric motor.
Ans: b

42. Which is false statement about air

receivers
(a) These are used to dampen pulsations ,
(b) These act as reservoir to- take care of
sudden demands
(c) These increase compressor efficiency
(d) These knock out some oil and moisture
(e) These reduce frequent on/off operation of
compressors.
Ans: c

44. An air receiver is to be placed outside.

Should it be placed in
(a) sun
(b) shade
(c) rain
(d) enclosed room
(e) anywhere.
Ans:b
45. Which is false statement about multistage
compression .
(a) Power consumption per unit of air
delivered is low
(b) Volumetric efficiency is high
(c) It is best suited for compression ratios
around 7:1
(d) The moisture in air is condensed in the
intercooler
(e) Outlet temperature is reduced.
Ans: b

46. In multistage compressor, the isothermal

1
compression is achieved by
(a) employing intercooler
(b) by constantly cooling the cylinder
(c) by running compressor at very slow speed
(d) by insulating the cylinder
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

47. Reciprocating air compressor is best

suited for
(a) large quantity of air at high pressure
(b) small quantity of air at high pressure
(c) small quantity of air at low pressure
(d) large quantity of air at low pressure
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: a

48. Rotary compressor is best suited for

(a) large quantity of air at high pressure
(b) small quantity of air at high pressure
(c) small quantity of air at low pressure
(d) large quantity of air at low pressure
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: d

49. The capacity of compressor will be

highest when its intake temperature is
(a) lowest
(b) highest
(c) anything.
(d) atmospheric
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

50. After-cooler is used to

(a) cool the air

1
(b) decrease the delivery temperature for
ease in handling
(c) cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
(d) reduce volume
(e) increase pressure.
Ans: c

51. To aviod moisture troubles, the

compressed air main line should
(a) rise gradually towards the point of use
(b) drop gradually towards the point of use
(c) be laid vertically
(d) be laid exactly horizontally
(e) none of the above
Ans: b

52. Separators in compressor installations

are located
(a) before intercooler
(b) after intercooler
(c) after receiver
(d) between after-cooler and air receiver
(e) before suction.
Ans: d

53. The area of actual indicator diagram on

an air compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator diagram is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on compressor
capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

54. An air compressor may be controlled by

1
(a) throttle control (b) clearance control
(c) blow-off control
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

55. The compressor efficiecny is the

(a) isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
(b) isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
(c) total output/air input
(d) compression work/motor input
(e) none Of the above.
Ans: a

56. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch

connections from compressed air lines should be taken from
(a) top side of main
(b) bottom side of main
(c) left side of main
(d) right side of main
(e) any location.
Ans: a
57. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal
compressor is produced by
(a) radial component
(b) axial component
(c) tangential component
(d) resultant component
Ans: b

58. The compressor performance at higher

altitude compared to sea level will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower

1
(d) dependent on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

59. A compressor at high altitude will draw

(a) more power
(b) less power
(c) same power
(d) more/less power depending on other
factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

60. During peak load periods, the best method

of controlling compressors is
(a) start-stop motor
(b) constant speed unloader
(c) relief valve
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
61. A centrifugal compressor works on the
principle of
(a) conversion   of  pressure
energy   into kinetic energy
(b) conversion of kinetic energy into
pres¬sure energy
(c) centripetal action
(d) generating pressure directly
(e) combination of (a) and (d).
Ans: b

62. For a compressor, least work will be done

if the compression is

1
(a) isentropic
(b) isothermal
(c) polytropic
(d) somewhere in between isentropic and
isothermal
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

67. In a compressor, free air delivered is

the actual volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to
(d) N.T.P. conditions
(b) intake temperature and pressure
conditions
(c) 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d) 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

68. The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor

is calculated on the basis of
(a) volume of air inhaled at working
conditions
(b) volume of air inhaled at N.T.P.
conditions
(c) volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d) volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

69. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor

falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in elevation
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1.0%
(d) 5%
(e) 10%.

1
Ans: c

70. For slow-speed large capacity compressor,

following type of valve will be best suited
(a) poppet valve
(b) mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve,
rotary or semirotary type
(c) disc or feather type
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

71. During base load operation, the best

method of controlling compressor is
(a) start-stop motor
(b) constant speed unloader
(c) relief valve
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72. More than one stage will be preferred for

reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is more than
(a) 2 kg/cm2
(b) 6 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 14.7 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

73. The advantage of multistage compression

over single stage compression is
(a) lower power consumption per unit of air
delivered
(b) higher volumetric efficiency
(c) decreased discharge temperature

1
(d) moisture free air
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

74. Pick up the wrong statement about

advantages of multistage compression
(a) better lubrication is possible advantages
of multistage
(b) more loss of air due to leakage past the
cylinder
(c) mechanical balance is better
(d) air can be cooled perfectly in between
(e) more uniform torque, light cylinder and
saving in work.
Ans: b

75. As the value of index ‘«’ is decreased,

the volumetric efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may  increase/decrease
depending  on compressor clearance
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

76. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to

blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called
(a) slip factor
(b) velocity factor
(c) velocity coefficient
(d) blade effectiveness
Ans: a

79. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are

due to
(a) inlet losses

1
(b) impeller channel losses
(c) diffuser losses
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d

80. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor

falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in atmospheric temperature
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d) 5%
(e ) 10%.
Ans: c

81. The indicated work per unit mass of air

delivered is
(a) directly proportional to clearance volume
(b) greatly affected by clearance volume
(c) not affected by clearance volume
(d) inversely proportional to clearance
volume
Ans: c

89. For actual single stage centrifugal

compressor, the maximum pressure ratio is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans:

90. Which is false statement about advantages

of multistage compressor in comparison to single stage compressor

1
(a) less power requirement
(b) better mechanical balance
(c) less loss of air due to leakage past the
cylinder
(d) more effective lubrication
(e) lower volumetric efficiency.
Ans: e

91. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler

work is known as
(a) pressure coefficient
(b) work coefficient
(c) polytropic reaction
(d) slip factor
(e) compressor efficiency.
Ans: a

92. The criterion of the thermodynamic

efficiency for rotary compressor is
(a) isentropic compression
(b) isothermal compression
(c) polytropic compression
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

93. For supplying intermittent small quantity

of air at high pressure, following compressor is best suited
(a) centrifugal
(b) reciprocating
(c) axial
(d) screw
(e) turbo jet.
Ans: b

94. For minimum work in multistage

1
compression, assuming same index of compression in all stages
(a) work done in first stage should be more
(b) work done in subsequent stages should
increase
(c) work done in subsequent stages should
decrease
(d) work done in all stages should be equal
(e) work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends on
other factors.
Ans: d

95. For a two stage compressor* if index of

compression for higher stage is greater than index of compression for lower
stage, then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) other factors control it
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
96. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
(a) increase velocity
(b) make the flow stream-line
(c) convert pressure energy into kinetic
energy
(d) convert kinetic energy into pressure
energy
(e) increase degree of reaction.
Ans: d

98. The ratio of isentropic work to euler’s

work is known as
(a) compressor efficiency

1
(b) isentropic efficiency
(c) Euler’s efficiency
(d) pressure coefficient
(e) pressure ratio.
Ans: d

99. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary

compressor is based on
(a) isothermal compression
(b) adiabatic compression
(c) isentropic compression
(d) polytropic compression
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

100. Phenomenon of choking in compressor

means
(a) no flow of air
(b) fixed mass flow rate regardless of
pressure ratio
(c) reducing mass flow rate with increase in
pressure ratio
(d) increased inclination of chord with air
steam
(e) does not occur.
Ans: b

101. The maximum compression ratio in an

actual single stage axial flow comperssor is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 5
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans: a

102. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary

1
air compressor is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm2
(b) 10 kg/cm2
(c) 16 kg/cm2
(d) 25 kg/cm2
(e) 40 kg/cm2.
Ans: b

103. Surging is the phenomenon of

(a) air stream blocking the passage
(b) motion of air at sonic velocity
(c) unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
(d) air stream not able to follow the blade
contour
(e) production of no air pressure.
Ans: c

104. Pick up wrong statement.

Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor depends on
(a) mass flow rate
(b) pressure ratio
(c) change in load
(d) stagnation pressure at the outlet
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

105. The ratio of the increase in pressure in

rotor blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is called
(a) pressure ratio
(b) pressure coefficient
(c) degree of reaction
(d) slip factor
(e) stage factor.
Ans: c

106. Axial flow compressor resembles

1
(a) centrifugal pump
(b) reciprocating pump
(c) turbine
(d) sliding vane compressor
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

107. Axial flow compressor has the following

advantage over centrifugal compressor
(a) larger air handling  ability  per  unit
frontal area
(b) higher pressure ratio per stage
(c) aerofoil blades are used
(d) higher average velocities
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

108. Actual compression curve is

(a) same as isothermal
(b) same as adiabatic
(c) better than isothermal and adiabatic
(d) in between isothermal and adiabatic
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

109. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and

vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure will be
(a) 1.03 kg/cm2
(b) 1.06 kg/cm2
(c) 1.00 kg/cm2
(d) 0.53 kg/cm2
(e) 0.5 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

110. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned

compressor with increase in mass flow rate

1
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first decreases and then increases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

111. Rotary compressors are suitable for

(a) large discharge at high pressure
(b) low discharge at high pressure
(c) large discharge at low pressure
(d) low discharge at low pressure
(e) there is no such limitation.
Ans: c

112. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor

with increase in compression ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) may increase/decrease depending on
clearance volume
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

113. Stalling of blades in axial flow

compressor is the phenomenon of
(a) air stream blocking the passage
(b) motion of air at sonic velocity
(c) unsteady periodic and reversed flow
(d) air stream not able to follow the blade
contour
(e) production of no air pressure.
Ans: d

114. Pick up the wrong statement

1
(a) centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure
over a considerable range of capacities
(b) Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant
delivery at variable pressures
(c) centrifugal compressors have a wider
stable operating range than axial flow compressors
(d) axial flow compressors are bigger in
diameter compared to centrifugal type
(e) axial flow compressors apt to be longer
as compared to centrifugal type.
Ans: d

115. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is

defined as the ratio of
(a) net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work done by
tur¬bine
(c) actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
(d) net work output and isentropic heat drop
(e) isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture
and actual increase/ drop in temperature.
Ans: b
116. Gas turbine works on
(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(b) Carnot cycle
(c)     Rankine cycle
(d) Erricsson cycle
(e) Joule cycle.
Ans: a

117. The work ratio of simple gas turbine

cycle depends on
(a) pressure ratio
(b) maximum cycle temperature
(c) minimum cycle temperature

1
(d) all of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: d

118. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas

turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is
(a) low
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low/high depending on make and type
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

119. Open cycle gas turbine works on

(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(6) Rankine cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Erricsson cycle
(e) Joule cycle.
Ans: a

120.  The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by

(a) low.er heating value
(b) higher heating value
(c) heating value
(d) higher calorific value
(e) highest calorific value.
Ans: a

121. Gas turbines for power generaion are

normally used
(a) to supply base load requirements
(b) to supply peak load requirements
(c) to enable start thermal power plant
(d) in emergency
(e) when other sources of power fail.

1
Ans: b

122. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as

compared to I.C engines is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on on odier considerations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

123. The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas

turbin and I.C engines may be typically of the order of
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1:2
(e) 1 : 6.
Ans: e

124. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine

as compared to a diesel plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictably.
Ans: c

125. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of

the order of
(a) 7 : 1
(b) 15 : 1
(c) 30 : 1
(d) 40 : 1
(e) 50: 1.

1
Ans: e

126. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of

the order of
(a),2:l
(b)4:1
(c) 61: 1
(d) 9 : 1
(e) 12:1.
Ans: c

128. The hottest point in a gas turbine is

(a) at the base
(b) at the tip
(c) in the center
(d) between ~ to i of the blade height
(e) uniformly heated.
Ans: d

129. The following is true for an open cycle

gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the
compressor is
(a) heated
(b) compressed air before entering the
combustion chamber is heated
(c) bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted
for complete expansion
(d) exhaust gases drive the compressor
(e) part of exhaust gases are heated and
mixed up with atmospheric air to utilise exhaust heat.
Ans: b

130. Gas turbine blades are given a rake

(a) equal to zero
(b) in the direction of motion of blades
(c) opposite to the direction of motion of

1
blades
(d) depending on the velocity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

131. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased

by
(a) reheating
(b) inter cooling
(c) adding a regenerator
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

132. Temperature of gases at end of

compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) can’t be compared
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
133. The ideal efficiency of simple gas
turbine cycle depends on
(a) pressure ratio
(b) maximum cycle temperature
(c) minimum cycle temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

134. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas

turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio
(a) increases
(b) decreases

1
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) first decreases and then increases
(e) remains same.
Ans: a

135. Gas turbines use following type of air

compressor
(a) centrifugal type
(b) reciprocating type
(c) lobe type
(d) axial flow type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

136. As the turbine inlet temperature

increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a
137. There is a certain pressure ratio
(optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With
increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak
efficiency would
(a) remain same
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

138. The material commonly used for air craft

gas turbine is

1
(a) stainless steel
(b) high alloy’ steel
(c) duralumin
(d) Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
(e) titanium.
Ans: d

139. It is not possible to use closed gas

turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because
(a) it is inefficient
(b) it is bulky
(c) it requires cooling water for its operation
Ans: c

140. The combustion efficiency of a gas

turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%
(e ) 99%.
Ans: e
141. The jnaximum combustion pressure in gas
turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

142. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle,

the efficiency and work ratio both depend on
(a) pressure ratio alone
(b) maximum cycle temperature alone

1
(c) minimum cycle temperature alone
(d) both pressure ratio and maximum cycle
temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

143. Producer gas is produced by

(a) carbonisation of coal
(b) passing steam over incandescent coke
(c) passing air and a large amount of steam
over waste coal at about 65°C
(d) partial combustion of coal, coke,
anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e) same way as the natural gas.
Ans: d

144. Water gas is produced by

(a) carbonisation of coal
(b) passing steam over incandescent coke
(c) passing air and a large amount of steam
over waste coal at about 65°C
(d) partial combustion of caol, eke,
anthractie coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e) same way as the natural gas.
Ans: b

14 Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to

(a) control temperature
(b) control output of turbine
(c) control fire hazards
(d) increase efficiency
(e) it is never done.
Ans: b

146. A gas turbine used in air craft should

have
(a) high h.p. and low weight

1
(b) low weight and small frontal area
(c) small frontal area and high h.p.
(d) high speed and high h.p.
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

148. The closed cycle in gas turbines

(a) provides greater flexibility
(b) provides lesser flexibility
(c) in never used
(d) is used when gas is to be burnt
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

149. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work

ratio is the ratio of
(a) compressor work and turbine work
(b) output and input
(c) actual total head tempeature drop to the
isentrpic total head drop from total head inlet to static head outlet
(d) actual compressor work and theoretical
comprssor work
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

150. The degree of reaction of an axial flow

turbine is the ratio of isentropic temperature drop in a blade row to the
(a) adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
(b) total temperature drop
(c) total temperature drop in the stage
(d) total adiabaitc temperature drop
(e) difference of maximum and minimum
temperature in the cycle.
Ans: c

153. If infinite number of heaters be used in

1
a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches
(a) isothermal
(b) isentropic
(c) adiabatic
(d) isochoric
(e) isobaric.
Ans: a

154. Pick up the correct statement

(a) gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to
economise on fuel
(b) gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to
reduce outgoing temperature
(c) gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to
develop the high thrust required
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

15 Intercooling in gas turbine results in

(a) increase in net output but decrease in
thermal efficiency
(b) increase   in   thermal
efficiency  but decrease in net output
(c) increase in both thermal efficiency and
net output
(d) decrease in both thermal efficiency and
net output
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

156. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute

velocity of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of fluid, and
suffix i and o stand for entry and exit conditions, then in a rotary machine
whose degree of reaction is unity

1
(a)Vi=V0
(b)Vt>V0
(c) U,<V0
(d)V,= U0
(e) Vri=Vm.
Ans: a

157. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
(b) axial flow compressors are more stable
than centrifugal type compressors but not as efficient
(c) axial flow compressors have high capacity
and efficiency
(d) axial   flow   compressors
have   instability region of operation
(e) centrifugal compressors are used mainly
on low flow pressure ratio gas turbines.
Ans: b

158. The power available for take off and

climb in case of turbojet engine as compared to reciprocating engine is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be less or more depending on ambient
conditons
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

159. Pick up the correct statement

(a) large gas turbines use radial inflow
turbines
(b) gas turbines have their blades similar to
steam turbine
(c) gas .turbine’s blade will appear as
impulse section at the hub and as a reaction section at tip

1
(d) gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
(e) all of the above are correct.
Ans: c

160. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is

burnt directly in the air is not possible because of
(a) high pressure ratio
(b) increasing gas temperature
(c) high specific volume
(d) high friction losses
(e) paucity of 02.
Ans: e

161. Choose the correct statement

(a) gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
(b) gas turbine is capable of rapid start up
and loading
(c) gas turbines have flat efficiency at part
loads
(d) gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of maintenance
(e) gas turbines can be used to generate power only.
Ans: b
162. Ram compression in turbojet involves
(a) reduction of speed of incoming air and
conversion of part of it into pressure energy
(b) compression of inlet air
(c) increasing speed of incoming air
(d) lost work
(e) leakage losses.
Ans: a

163. In gas turbines^ high thermal efficiency

is obtained in
(a) closed cycle
(b) open cycle

1
(c) both of the above
(d) closed/open depending on other
con-siderations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

164. In the cross compounding of the gas turbine

plant
(a) h.p. compressor L connected to h.p.
turbine and l.p. compressor ot l.p. tur-bine
(b) h.p. compressor is connected to l.p.
turbine and l.p. compressor is con-nected to h.p. turbine
(c) both the arrangements can be employed
(d)  all are connected in series
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

16 A jet engine works on the principle of

conservation of
(a) mass
(b) energy
(c) flow
(d) linear momentum
(e) angular momentum.
Ans: d

166. In jet engines, for the efficient

production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of
(a) vacuum
(b) atmospheric air
(c) compressed air

(d) oxygen alone

(e) liquid hydrogen.
Ans: c

167. Which of the following fuels can be used

1
in turbojet engines
(a) liquid hydrogne
(b) high speed diesel oil
(c) kerosene
(d) demethylated spirit
(e) methyl alcohol
Ans: c

168. Turbo propeller has the^following

additional feature over the turbojet
(a) peopeller
(b) diffuser
(c) intercooler
(d) turbine and combustion chamber
(e) starting engine.
Ans: a

169. Propulsive efficiency is defined as

ratio of
(a) thrust power and fuel energy
(b) engine output and propulsive power
(c) propulsive power and fuel input
(d) thrust power and propulsive power
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

170. In jet engines, paraffin is usually used

as the fuel because of its
(a) high calorific value
(b) ease of atomisation
(c) low freezing point
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

171. A rocket engine for the combustion of

its fuel

1
(a) carries its own oxygen
(b) uses surrounding air
(c) uses compressed atmospheric air
(d) does not require oxygen
(e) depends on electrical energy supplied by
solar cells.
Ans: a

172. A rocket works with maximum overall

efficiency when air craft velocity is equal to the
(a) jet velocity
(b) twice the jet velocity
(c) half the jet velocity
(d) average of the jet velocity
(e) no such co-relationship with jet velocity
exists.
Ans: c

173. Propulsion efficiency of the following

order-is obtained in practice
(ti) 34%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 72%
(e) 85%.
Ans: c

174. The maximum propulsion efficiency of a

turbojet is attained at around following speed –
(a) 550 km/hr
(b) 1050km/hr
(c) 1700 km/hr
(d) 2400km /hr
(e) 4000 km/hr.
Ans: d

1
17 In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet
duct of diverging shape is used in order to
(a) collect more air
(b) convert kinetic energy of air into
pres-sure energy
(c) provide robust structure
(d) beautify the shape
(e) none of the above
Ans: b

176. In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through the gas lurbine
are discharged into
(a) atmosphere
(b) back to the compressor
(c) discharge nozzle
(d) vacuum
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

177. The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is

(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) zero
(e) dependent on power and speed.
Ans: d

183. The weight per horse power ratio for

gas. turbine as compared to I.C. engine and steam turbine is
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) uncomparable
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

1
184. Fighter bombers use following type of
engine
(a) turbo-jet
(b) turbo-propeller
(c) rocket
(d) ram-jet ,
(e) pulsojet.
Ans: a

18 Pick up the wrong statement

(a) pulsojet requires no ambient air for
propulsion
(b) ramjet-engine has no turbine
(c) turbine drives compressor in a burbojet
(d) bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely affecting,
the propulsive efficiency and fuel economy
(e) propeller is an indirect reaction device.
Ans: a

186. Thrust of a jet propulsion power unit

can be increased by
(a) burning fuel after gas turbine
(b) injecting water in the compressor
(c) injecting ammonia into the combustion
chamber
(d) all of the three above
(e) none of the above.
Ans:

187. The blades of gas turbine are made of

(a) mild steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) carbon steel
(d) high alloy seel
(e) high nicket alloy (neimonic).

1
Ans: e

188.The following property is most important for material used for gas
turbine blade
(a) toughness
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) corrosion resistance
(e) bulk modulus.
Ans: c

189. The effective power of gas turbines is

increased by adding the following in compressor
(a) ammonia and water vapour
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

190. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas

turbines
(a) to increase the output
(b) to increase the efficiency
(c) to save fuel
(d) to reduce the exit temperature
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

191. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be

of the order of
(a) 10: 1
(b) 15: 1
(c) 20 : 1
(d) 60 : 1
(e) 100 : 1.

1
Ans: d

192. In which case the air-fuel ratio is

likely to be maximum
(a) 2-stroke engine
(b) 4-stroke petrol engine
(c) 4-stroke diesef engine
(d) multi-cylinder engine
(e) gas turbine.
Ans: e

193. In jet engines the compression ratio

(a) varies as square root of the speed
(b) Varies linearly to the speed
(c) varies as square of the speed
(d) varies as cube of the speed
(e) is constant irrespective of variation in
speed.
Ans: c

194. The specific output per kg mass flow

rate of a gas turbine (having fixed efficiencies of compressor and turine and
fixed higher and lower temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase first at fast rate and then slow
(b) increase first at slow rate and then fast
(c) decrease continuously
(d) first increase,  reach maximum and
then decrease
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

19 The working fluid in ai turbine is

(a) in two phases
(b) in three phases
(c) in a single phase
(d) in the form of air and water mixture

1
(e) gas and no air.
Ans: c

196. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator

(a) increases thermal efficiency

(b) allows high compression ratio
(c) decreases heat loss is exhaust
(d) allows operation at very high altitudes
(e) permits high moisture content fuel to be
used.
Ans: a

197. The compression ratio in a gas turbine

is of the roder of
(a) 3.5 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 8 : 1
(d) 12 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.
Ans: c

198. Reheating in multistage expansion gas

turbine results in
(a) high thermal efficiency
(b) reduction in compressor work
(c) decrease of heat loss in exhaust
(d) maximum work output
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

199. The main purpose of reheating in gas

turbine is to
(a) increase temperature
(b) reduce turbine size
(c) increase power output
(d) increase speed

1
(e) increase pressure ratio.
Ans: c

200. Reheating in gas turbine results in

(a) increase of work ratio
(b) decrease of thermal efficiency
(c) decrease of work ratio
(d) both (a) and (b) above
(e) both (b) and (c) above.
Ans: d

201. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is

ratio of
(a) net work output and work done by turbine
(b) net work output and heat supplied
(c) work done by turbine and heat supplied
(d) work done by turbine and net work output
(e) actual/heat drop and isentropic heat
drop.
Ans: a

202. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be

improved by f
(a) decreasing the compression work
(b) increasing the compression work
(c) increasing the turbine work
(d) decreasing the turbine work
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: e

203. Maximum temprature in a gas turbine is

of the order of COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES AND JET ENGINES
(a) 2500°C
(b) 2000°C
(c) 1500°C
(d) 1000°C

1
(e) 700°C.
Ans: e

21 In the aircraft propellers

(a) the propulsive matter is caused to flow around
the propelled body
(b) propulsive matter is ejected from within
the propelled body
(c) its functioning does not depend on
presence of air
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

216. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is

formed by expading
(a) gases
(b) solids
(c) liquid
(d) plasma
(e) highly heated atmospheric air.
Ans: e
217. Ram-jet engine
(a) is self-operating at zero flight speed
(b) is not self-operating at zero^flight
speed
(c) requires no air for its operation
(d) produces a jet consisting of plasma
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

218. For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more

advantageous to use
(a) turbo-jet engine
(b) ram-jet engine

1
(c) propellers
(d) rockets
(e) hydraulic jet propulsion.
Ans: b

219. A simple turbo-jet engine is basically

(a) a propeller system
(b) gas-turbine engine equipped with a
propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
(c) chemical rocket regine
(d) ram-jet enigne
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

220. Which of the following plants is

smallest and lightest for genrating a given amount of power
(a) steam power plant
(b) petrol engine
(c) diesel engine’
(d) solar plant
(e) gas turbine plant.
Ans: e
221. In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as
compared to turbo-jet engine is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be less or more depening upon speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

222. Turbofan engine employs

(a) one air stream
(b) two or more air streams
(c) no air stream

1
(d) solid fuel firing
(e) rocket principle for its operation.
Ans: b

223. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the

ratio of
(a) compressor pressure ratio
(b) highest pressure to exhaust pressure
(c) inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
(d) pressures across the turbine
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

224. Pick up the false statement

(a) gas turbine is a self-starting unit
(b) gas turbine does not require hugequantity of water like steam plant
(c) exhaust losses in gas turbine are high
due to large mass flow rate
(d) overall efficiency of gas turbine plantis lower than that of a reciprocating engine
(e) gas turbine can be easily started and
stopped and thus is best suited for peaking demands.
Ans: a
22 The efficiency and work ratio of a gasturbine plant can be increased by
(a) using mulit-stage compressor withmfercooler
(b) adding heat exchanger
(c) injecting water in/around combustion
chamber
(d) reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

226. Pick up the correct statement

(a) closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
(b) gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
(c) air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine is 100 :1

1
(d) ideal efficiency of closed cycle gasturbine plant is more than carnot cycle efficiency
(e) thrust in turbo-jet is produced by nozzleexit gases.
Ans: e

227. The  compression  ratioin  a jet engine varies proportional to

(a) speed
(b) speed
(c) altitude
(d) Vspeed
(e) does not Vary.
Ans: b

228. The efficiency of jet engine is

(a) higher at ground
(b) higher at high altitudes
(c) same at all altitudes
(d) higher at high speed
(e) lower at low speed.
Ans: b
Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines

1.       For water, at pressures below atmospheric,

(a)      melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(b)      melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
(c)      melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(d)      melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

2. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This

1
temperature is
(a)    373°K
(b)    273.16°K
(c)    303°K
(d)    0°K.
(e)   300°K.
Ans: b

3.       The
critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
(a)      225.65
kgf/cm2
(b)      273
kgf/cm2
(c)     100 kgf/cm2
(d)     1
kgf/cm2
(e)   – 1 kgf/cm2.
Ans: a

4.       The
latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to
latent heat at atmospheric pressure is
(a)     less
(b)     more
(c)     equal
(d)     may
be less or more depending on temperature
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: a

5.       The
saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases
(a)      linearly
(b)      rapidly

1
first and then slowly
(c)      slowly
first and then rapidly
(d)      inversely
(e)      none of the above.
Ans: b

6.       Carbonisation
of coal is the process of
(a)      pulverising
coal in inert atmosphere
(b)      heating
wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
(c)      strongly
heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel
(d)      binding
the pulverised coal into brick-ettes
(e)      enriching
carbon in the coal.
Ans: c
7.       Coke
is produced by
(a)      pulverising
coal in inert atmosphere
(b)      heating
wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300GC
(c)      strongly
heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel
(d)      binding
the pulverised coal into brick-etts
(e)      enriching
carbon in the coal.

1
Ans: c

8.    Heating
of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
(a)   enthalpy
(b)   superheating
(c)   supersaturation
(d)   latent heat
(e)  super tempering.
Ans: b

9.       Superheating
of steam is done at
(a)      constant
volume
(b)      constant
temperature
(c)      constant
pressure
(d)      constant
entropy
(e)      constant
enthaply.
Ans: c

10.     1
kg.m is equal to
(a)    9.81 Joules
(b)    All Joules
(c)    427 Joules
(d)    102 Joules
(e)    539 Joules.
Ans: a

11.     If
partial pressure of air and steam be pa andps respectively in a condenser, then

1
according to Dalton’s law, the pressure in condenser is equal to
(a)   Ps-Pa
(b)   pa-ps
(C)   Pa+P,
Ans: c

12.     Equivalent
evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
(a)     0°C
(b)     100°C
(c)      saturation
temperature at given pressure
(d)      room
temperature
(e)      20°C.
Ans: b

13.     The
specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
(a)      linearly
(b)      slowly
first and then rapidly
(c)      rapidly
first and then slowly
(d)      inversely
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

14.     The
equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare
(a)      the
given boiler with the model
(b)      the
two different boilers of the same make

1
(c)      two
different makes of boilers operat¬ing under the same operating conditions
(d)      two
boilers of same make but operaing under different conditions
(e)      any
type of boilers operating under any conditions.
Ans: e

15.     The
coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the
order of
(a)    0.1 to 0.2 kg
(b)    0.2 to 0.4 kg
(c)    0.6 to 0.8 kg
(d)    1.0 to 1.5 kg
(e)    1.5 to 2 kg.
Ans: c

16.     Sublimation
region is the region where
(a)      solid
and vapour phases are in equi-librium
(b)      solid
and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(c)      liquid
and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(d)      solid,
liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

17.     Stoichiometric
quantity of air is the
(a)      air
present in atmosphere at NTP conditions

1
(b)      air
required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
(c)      air
required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air
(d)      air
required to convert CO into C02
(e)      air
required to form an explosive mixture.
Ans: b

18.     One
kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it’s dryness fraction is
(a)    0.2
(b)    0.8
(c)   1.0
(d)   0.6
(e)   0.5.
Ans: b

19.     If
a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be
most accurately determined by
(a)      throttling
calorimeter
(b)      separating
calorimeter
(c)      combined
separating and throttling calorimeter
(d)      bucket
calorimeter
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

20.     If
xx and x2 be the dryess fractions obtained in separating calorimeter and throttling

1
calorimeter respectively, then the actual dryness fraction of steam will be
(a)   xxx2
(b)   x, + x2
Ans: a

21.     The
specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a)    0.1
(b)    0.3
(c)    0.5
(d)   0.8
(e)   1.0.
Ans: c

22.     On
Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by   ‘
(a)      horizontal
straight line
(b)      vertical
straight line
(c)      straight
inclined line
(d)      curved line
(e)      none of the above.
Ans: b

23.     A
wet vapour can be completely specified by
(a)      pressure
only
(b)      temperature
only
(c)      dryness
fraction only
(d)      specific
volume only

1
(e)      pressure
and dryness fraction.
Ans: e

24.     On
Millier chart, the constant pressure lines
(a)      diverge
from left to right
(b)      diverge
from right to left
(c)      are
equally spaced throughout
(d)      first
rise up and then fall
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

25.     On
Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high pressure to
atmosphere is represented by
(a)      horizontal
straight line
(b)      vertical
straight line
(c)      straight
inclined line
(d)      curved
line
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

26.     The
bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is
(a)    78-81%

1
(b)    81-85%
(c)    85-90%
(d)    90-95%
(e)    95-100%.
Ans: a

27.     The
dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm2) when throttled to
atmosphere will become
(a)     wet
(b)     superheated
(c)      remain
dry satruated
(d)     dry
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: b

28. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160°C temperature when exposed to

atmosphere will
(a)      boil
(b)      flash
i.e. get converted into steam
(c)      remain
as it was
(d)      cool
down
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

29.     The
dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150-200 kg/cm2) when throttled to
atmosphere will become
(a)     wet
(b)     superheated
(c)      remain

1
dry saturated
(d)      dry
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

30.     In
a throttling process
(a)     steam temperature remaisn constant
(b)     steam pressure remains constant
(c)     steam
enthalpy remains constant
(d)     steam
entropy remains constant
(e)     steam
volume remains constant.
Ans: c

31.     In
a throttling process
(a)      heat
transfer takes place
(b)      work
is done by the expanding steam
(c)      internal
energy of steam changes
(d)      all
of the above
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: e

32.     The
pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is
(a)      below
atmospheric pressure
(b)      1

1
kg/cm2
(c)     100 kg/cm2
(d)      170
kg/cm2
(e)     225.6 kg/cm2.
Ans: e

33.     Latent
heat of dry steam at atmospneric pressure is equal to
(a)     539 kcal/kg
(b)     539 BTU/lb
(c)     427
kcal/kg
(d)     100 kcal/kg
(e)     471
kcal/kg.
Ans: a

34.     The
latent heat of steam with increase of pressure
(a)       remains same
(b)       increases
(c)      decreases
(d)      behaves
unpredictably
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

35.     At
critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm2, the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
(a)     maximum
(b)     minimum
(c)     zero
(d)     depends
on temperature also

1
(e)     none
of the above.
Ans: c

36.  At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
(a)   0.1 kg/cm2
(b)   1 kg/cm2
(c)   100 kg/cm2
(d)   225.6 kg/cm2
(e)   it is never possible.
Ans: d

37.     In
an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water
separated was 1.2 kg in 15 mts and the mass of steam passed out in same time
was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
(a)   40%
(b)   25%
(c)   50%
(d)   80%
(e)   90%.
Ans: d
38.     While
steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy
(a)      remains
constant
(b)      increases
(c)      decreases
(d)      behaves
unpredictably
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

39.     Heating

1
wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant
(a)    volume
(b)    pressure
(c)    entropy
(d)    enthalpy
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

40.     Adiabatic
process is
(a)      essentially
an isentropic process
(b)      non-heat
transfer process
(c)      reversible
process
(d)      constant
temperature process
(e)      constant
enthalpy process.
Ans: b
41.     The
state of vapour under saturation condition is described by
(a)      pressure
alone
(b)      temperature
alone
(c)      pressure
and temperature
(d)     pressure and dryness fraction
(e)     dryness fraction alone.
Ans: d

42.     Pick

1
up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
(a)      latent
heat is zero
(b)      liquid
directly becomes steam
(c)      specific
volume of steam and liquid is same
(d)      this
is the maximum pressure limit
(e)      all
properties of liquid and steam are same.
Ans: d

43.     Water
boils when its vapour pressure
(a)      equals
that of the surroundings
(b)      equals
760 mm of mercury
(c)      equals
to atmospheric pressure
(d)      equals
the pressure of water in the container
(e)      boiling
has ^nothing to do with vapour pressure.
Ans: a

45.  Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule’s equivalent is

equal to
(a)   421 kgm
(b)   421 kgm
(c)   539 kgm
(d)   102 kgm
(e)   75 kgm.
Ans: a

1
46.     Equivalent
evaporation of water is the evaporation “for a feed water supply at 100°C
(a)      and
its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm2
(b)      and
its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
(c)      conversion
into steam at atmospheric condition
(d)      conversion
into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

47.     The
evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
(a)      evaporative
capacity
(b)      factor
of evaporation
(c)      equivalent
evaporation
(d)      one
boiler h.p.
(e)      boiler
efficiency.
Ans: d

48.     The
increase in pressure
(a)      lowers
the boiling point of a liquid
(b)      raises
the boiling point of a liquid
(c)      .does

1
not affect the boiling point of a liquid
(d)      reduces
its volume
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

49.     During
polytropic process
(a)     heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
(b)     work is done
(c)      steam
may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion
(d)      all
of the above
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

50.     Hygrometery
deals with the
(a)      Hygroscopic
substances
(b)      water
vapour in air
(c)      temperature
of air
(d)      pressure
of air
(e)      density
measurement.
Ans: b

51.     Orsat
meter is used for
(a)      gravimetric

1
analysis of the flue gases
(b)      volumetric
analysis of the flue gases
(c)      mass
flow of the flue gases
(d)      measuring
smoke density of flue gases
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

52.     Alkaline
pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of
(a)    C02
(b)    CO
(c)    02
(d)    N2
(e)   none of the above.
Ans: c

53.     An
ideal regenerative cycle is
(a)      equal
to carnot cycle
(b)      less
than carnot cycle
(c)      more
than carnot cycle
(d)      could
be anything
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

54.     Efficiency
of rankine cycle can be increased by

1
(a)      decreasing
initial steam pressure and temperature
(b)      increasing
exhaust pressure
(c)      decreasing
exhaust pressure
(d)      increasing
the expansion ratio
(e)      increasing
number of regenerative heaters.
Ans: a

55.     Cochran
boiler is a
(a)      horizontal
fire-tube boiler
(b)      horizontal
water-tube boiler
(c)      veritcal
water-tube boiler
(d)      vertical
fire tube boiler
(e)      forced
circulating boiler.
Ans: d

56.     Lancashire
‘boiler is a
(a)      stationary
fire tube boiler
(b)      stationary
water tube boiler
(c)      water
tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
(d)      mobile

1
fire tube boiler
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

57.     Efficiency
of a thermal cycle increases by
(a)      regeneration
(b)      reheating
of steam
(c)      both
(a) and (b)
(d)      cooling
of steam
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

58.     One
kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
(a)   1000 J
(b)   360 kJ
(c)   3600 kJ
(d)   3600 kW/sec
(e)   1000 kJ.
Ans: c

59.     Which
of the following gases has the highest calorific value
(a)    producer gas
(b)    coal gas.
(c)    water gas
(d)    blast furnace gas
(e)    coke oven gas.
Ans: b

60. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of

1
(a)      frictional
losses
(b)      it
is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
(c)      leakage
(d)      non-availability
of ideal substance
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

61.     For
burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combusiton, amount of
air required is
(a)    1 kg
(b)    4/3kg
(c)   8/3kg
(d)   2 kg
(e)   16/3 kg.
Ans: b
62.   The
diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a)   1-2 m
(b)   1.5-2.5 m
(c)   2-3 m
(d)   2.5-3.5 m
(e)   0.5 to 1 m.
Ans: a

63. The
lenght of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 2-4 m
(b) 3-5 m

1
(c) 5-7.5 m
(d) 7-9 m
(e) 9-11 m.
Ans: c

64. The
diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one half
(b) one third
(c) one-fifth
(d) two-fifth
(e) three-fifth.
Ans: a

65. Steam
engine operates on
(a) carnot cycle
(b) joule cycle
(c) Stirling cycle
(d) brayton cycle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
66.     The
change in internal energy in steam engines equals to
(a)      work
done during the rankine cycle    ;
(b)      work
done during compression.
(c)      work
done during adiabatic expansion
(d)      change
in enthalpy
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

1
67.     Water
tube boilers are those in which
(a)      flue
gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b)      water
passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c)      work
is done during adiabatic expansion
(d)      change
in enthalpy
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

68.     Locomotive
type’ boiler is
(a)      horizontal
multitubular water tube boiler
(b)      water
wall enclosed furnace type
(c)      vertical
tubular fire tube type
(d)      horizontal
multi-tubular fire tube type
(e)      none
of the above types.
Ans: d

69.     Lancashire
boiler is of
(a)      stationary<fire
tube-type
(b)      horizontal
type

1
(c)      natural
cirulation type
(d)      internally
fired type
(e)      all
of the above.
Ans: e

70.     Fire
tube boilers are those in which
(a)     flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b)     water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c)      forced
circulation takes place
(d)      tubes
are laid vertically
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

71. Which
of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and
ultimate analysis
(a) ash
(b) volatile matter
(c) moisture
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72. The
number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) four

1
(e) many.
Ans: c

73.     Which
of the following is a fire tube boiler
(a)     locomotive boiler
(b)     Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c)     Stirling
boiler.
(d)     all
of the above
(e)     none
of the above.
Ans: a

74.     Which
of the following is a water tube boiler
(a)      locomotive
boiler
(b)      Cochran
boiler
(c)      Cornish
boiler
(d)      Babcock
and Wilcox boiler
(e)      Lancashire
boiler.
Ans: d

75. The
diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
(a) 1 tp 1.25m
(b) 1 to 1.75 m
(c) 2 to 4 m
(d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
(e) 2.25 to 4.5 m.

1
Ans: d

76.A
packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed
pumps and automatic controls are
(a)      supplied
by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(b)      supplied
mounted on a single base
(c)      purchased
from  several   parties   and packed together at site
(d)      packaged
boiler does not exist
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

77. The
biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
(a) 30 MW
(b) 60 MW
(c) 100 MW
(d) 210 MW
(e) 500 MW.
Ans: e

78. Which
of the following coals has the highest calorific value
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) peat
(e) wood.
Ans: a

79.     The
high pressure boiler is oiie producing steam at a pressure more than

1
(a)      atmospheric
pressure
(b)     5
kg/cm2
(c)     10 kg/cm2
(d)     40
kg/cm2
(e)     75-80 kg/cm2.
Ans: e

80.     The
crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to
(a)      give
maximum space
(b)      give
maximum strength
(c)      withstand
pressure inside boiler ,
(d)      resist
intense heat in fire box
(e)      enable
easy,manufacture.
Ans: d

81.     Which
of the following is steam dbal
(a)      non-coking
bituminous coal
(b)      brown
coal
(c)      pulverised coal
(d)      coking
bituminous coal
(e)      none

1
of the above.
Ans: a

82.     The
fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scotish marine boiler are
(a)     horizontal
(b)     vertical
(c)     inclined
(d)     both
horizontal and vertical
(e)     horizontal
and inclined.
Ans: a

83. The
diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one-half
(b) one-third
(c) one-fourth
(d) one-fifth
(e) two-fifth.
Ans: e
84.     The
basic purpose of drum in boiler is to
(a)      serve
as storage of steam
(b)      serve
as storage of feed water for water wall
(c)      remove
salts from water
(d)      separate
steam from water
(e)      control
level.
Ans: d

1
85.     Duplex
feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
(a)      centrifugal
pump
(b)      axial
flow pump
(c)      gear
pump
(d)      ejector
pump
(e)      reciprocating
pump.
Ans: e

86.     The
best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(a)      coking
coal
(b)      non
coking or free burning coal
(c)      pulverised
coal
(d)      high
sulphur coal
(e)      least
ash content coal.
Ans: b

87.     In
natural circulation type boiler,
(a)      heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)      water

1
is supplied in durm and through down-comers located in atmospheric conditon it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c)      feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)      water
is converted into steam in one . pass without any recirculation
(e)      water
is fed at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: a

88. Hard
coke is produced by carborisation of coal at
(a) atmospheric temperature
(b) 500-600°C
(c) 70O-850°C
(d) 95O-1100°C
(e) 120O-1500°C.
Ans: d

89..     Hard coke is used in

(a)      cement
industry
(b)      thermal
power plant
(c)      blast
furnace
(d)      domestic
use
(e)      locomotives
Ans: c

90.     Pick
up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler
(a)      cornish
is fire tube and lancashire is water tube

1
(b)      cornish
is water tube and lancashire is fire tube
(c)      cornish
has two fire tubes and lancashire has one
(d)      lancashire
has two fire tubes and cornish has one
(e)      both
have two fire tubes.
Ans: d

91.  In
locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to
(a) 1 kg/cm2
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 18 kg/cm2
(e) 31 kg/cm2.
Ans: d

92. Locomotive
boiler is of the following type
(a) multitubular
(b) horizontal
(c) internally fired
(d) mobile
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

93. The
shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are
(a) 1.5 m, 4 m
(b) 1.5 m, 6 m
(c) 1 m, 4 m
(d) 2 m, 4 m
(e) 1.5 m, 8 m.
Ans: a

1
94.     The
diameters of fire tubes and superheaer tubes in locomotive boiler are
(a)      47.5
mm, 130 mm
(b)      32.5
mm, 180 mm
(c)      65.5
mm, 210 mm
(d)      24.5
mm, 65 mm
Ans: a

95.     The
water tubes in a babcock and wilcox boiler are
(a)     horizontal
(b)     vertical
(c)     inclined
(d)     horizontal
and inclined
(e)     vertical
and inclined.
Ans: c
96.     Which
of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers
(a)      non-coking
bituminous coal
(b)      brown
coal
(c)      peat
(d)      coking
bituminous coal
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: e

1
97.The
diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled
circulation boilers is
(a)     more
(b)     less
(c)      same
(d)      could
be more or less depending on other factors
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

98.A
boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(a) DIN
(b) BS
(c) ASTM
(d) IBR
(e) GOST.
Ans: d

99.     The
function  of injector used  in  small steam plants is to
(a)      create
vacuum in furnace
(b)      create
vacuum at turbine exhaust
(c)      pump
feed water
(d)      dose
chemicals in feed water
(e)      control
steam temperature by injecting water.
Ans: c

100.    Which

1
of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands
(a)      babcock
and wilcox
(b)      locomotive

(c)      lancashire
(d)      cochran
(e)      comish.
Ans: b

101.    The
difference between cornish boiler and lancashire boiler is that
(a)      former
is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(b)      former
is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(c)      former
contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(e)      none/of
the above.
Ans: c
102.    In
accelerated circulation type boiler
(a)      heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of stdam bubbles and hot water which rise to durm
(b)      water
is supplied in drum and through downcomers” located in atmospheric
conditon it passes to the water wall and rises to durm in the from of mixture
of water and steam
(c)      feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(e)     water is converted into steam in one pass without any
recirculation

1
(e)     water is fed under high pressure and high velocity.
Ans: b

103.    Pick
up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube
boilers
(a)      former
generates steam at high pressure
(b)      former
occupies less space for same power
(c)      rate
of steam flow is more in former case
(d)      former
is used for high installed capacity
(e)      chances
of explosion are less in former case.
Ans: e

104.    The
number of drums in Benson steam generator is
(a)      one
(b)      two
(c)      one
steam drum and one water drum
(d)      no
drum
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

105.    A
fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to
(a)      avoid
excessive build up of pressure
(b)      avoid

1
explosion
(c)      extinguish
fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
(d)      control
steam dome
(e)      remove
molten aslj.
Ans: c

106.    The
fusible plug in small boilers is located
(a)      in
the drum
(b)      in
the fire tubes
(c)      above
steam dome
(d)      over
the combustion chamber
(e)      at
the inlet of chimney.
Ans: d
107.  Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin,
lead, and
(a) bismuth
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) nickel
(e) iron.
Ans: a

108. Boiler H.P. is defined as the

(a)      steam
evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
(b)      work

1
done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated
steam
(c)      the
evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated
steam
(d)      work
done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
(e)     heat consumed in evaporating 1 kg water at 0°C to steam at
100°C and 1.033 kg/cm  pressure.
Ans: c

109.    In
forced recirculation type boiler,
(a)      heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)      water
is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c)      feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)      water
is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e)      heating
of water takes place in stages.
Ans: c

110.    The
ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is
known as
(a)      boiler
effectiveness
(b)      boiler
evaporative capacity

1
(c)      factor
of evaporation
(d)      equivalent
evaporation
(e)      boiler
efficiency.
Ans: e

111.    Steam
in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler
(a)      can
be raised rapidly
(b)      is
raisd at slower rate
(c)      is
raised at same rate
(d)      could
be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
(e)     none of the above is true.
Ans: a

112. Thermal
efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
(e) 90%.
Ans: e

113.Thermal
efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 45%

1
(e ) 60%.
Ans: c

114. It
is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler
should be used ?
(a)      pulverised
fuel fired boiler
(b)      cochran
boiler
(c)      lancashire
boiler
(d)      babcock
and wilcox boiler
(e)      stoker
fired boiler.
Ans: c

115.    The
overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
(a)      boiler
efficiency, turhine efficiecny, generator efficiency
(b)      all
the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
(c)      carnot
cycle efficiency
(d)      regenerative
cycle efficiency
(e)      rankine
cycle efficiency.
Ans: a

116.    Which
type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load
(a)      vertical
fire tube type

1
(b)      horizontal
fire tube type
(c)      horizontal
water tube type
(d)      vertical
water tube type
(e)      forced
circulation type.
Ans: e

117.    In
forced circulation type boiler
(a)      heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b)      water
is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c)      feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d)      water
is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e)      water
is heated in a large number of tubes.
Ans: d

118.    Boiler
stays are used to
(a)      prevent
flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
(b)      take
care of failure in shear
(c)      take
care of failure in compression

1
(d)      provide
support for boiler
(e)      provide
foundation of boiler.
Ans: a

119. The
radius of a dished head is taken approximately as
(a) one-fourth
(b) half
(c) one
(d) two
(e) three.
Ans: c

120.    Size
of boiler tubes is specified by
(a)      mean
diameter and thickness
(b)      inside
diameter and thickness
(c)      outside
diameter and thickness
(d)      outside
diameter and inside diameter
(e)      outside
diameter alone.
Ans: c

121.    The
heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of
(a)      heat
carried away by flue gases
(b)      heat
carried away by ash
(c)      moisture

1
present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
(d)      radiation
(e)      all
of the above.
Ans: e

122.The
major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided
(a) longitudinally
(b) circumferentially
(c) on dished end
(d) anywhere
(e) vertically.
Ans: b

123.In
which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by
utilising exhaust steam from engine
(a)      lancashire
boiler
(b)      locomotive
boiler
(c)      babcock
and wilcox boiler
(d)      cochran
boiler
(e)      benson
boiler.
Ans: b

124.    With
increase in load, radiant superheater has
(a)      drooping
characteristic
(b)      lihear
characterisstic

1
(c)      rising
characteristic
(d)      flat characteristic
(e)      none of the above.
Ans: a

125.    With
increase in load, convection superheater has
(a)      drooping
characteristic
(b)      linear
characterisstic
(c)      rising
characteristic
(d)      flat
characteristic
(c)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

126. The
diameter of fire  tubes  in Cochran boiler is of the order of
(a) 2 cm
(b) 6 Cm ,
(C) 8 cm
(d) 12 cm
(e) 15
cm.
Ans: b

127.    In
a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a)      from
a metal wall from one medium to another
(b)      from
heating an itermediate material and then heating the air from this material

1
(c)      by
direct mixing      ,
(d)      heat
is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

128. A
safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
(a) water
(b) dry steam
(c) wet steam
(d) super heated steam
(e) supersaturated steam.
Ans: d

129.    The
temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be
(a)      100°C
(b)      above
dew-point temperature of flue gases
(c)      below
dew-point temperature of flue gases
(d)      less
than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
(e)      above
wet bulb temperature of flue gases.
Ans: b

130.    In
regenerative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a)      from
a metal wall from one medium to another
(b)      from
heating an intermediateanaterial and then heating the air from this material

1
(c)      by
direct mixing
(d)      heat
is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

131.    In
designing air preheater, the important design consideration is that
(a)      approach
temperature  should be as low as possible
(b)      handling
and maintenance should be easier
(c)      heat
transfer area should be optimum
(d)      stack
gases should not be cooled to the dew point
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d
132.    The
pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet
condition is
(a)     more
(b)     less
(c)     equal
(d)     may
be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
(e)     none
of the above.
Ans: b

133.    The

1
function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to
(a)      create
vacuum
(b)      inject
chemical solution in feed pump
(c)      pump
water,  similar to boiler feed pump
(d)      add
make up water in the system
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

134.The
safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
(a) higher value
(b) lower value
(c) same value
(d) any value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
135.    The
height of chimney in a power plant is governed by
(a)      the
draft to be created
(b)      limitation
of construction facilities
(c)      control
of pollution
(d)      quantity
of flue gases to be handled
(e)      all
of the above.
Ans: c

1
136. Steam
exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in
(a) boiler drum
(b) superheater tubes
(c) economiser
(d) a separate coil
(e) a separate coil located in convection path.
Ans: e

137.    Vacuum
for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is
(a)     more
(b)     equal
(c)     less
(d)     could
be more or less depending on the size of plant
(e)     none
of the above.
Ans: c

138.Expanding
steam to a very low prseeure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
(a) desirable
(b) economical
(c) essential
(d) optional
(e) uneconomical.
Ans: e

139.    In
locomotives, the draught is produced by
(a)      chimney
(b)      induced
draft fan
(c)      both

1
combined (a) and (b)
(d)      steam
jet draught
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

140.Reheating
of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant
(a) entropy
(b) enthaply
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

141.    The
maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is
(a)     infinitely long
(b)     around 200 meters
(c)     equal
to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
(d)     outside
temperature is very low
(e)     more
than the tallest building nearby.
Ans: c

142.    Proximate
analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(a)      carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b)      fixed
carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c)      higher
calorific value

1
(d)      lower
calorific value
(e)      rough
analysis.
Ans: b

143.    Which
device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution
(a)      induced
draft fan
(b)      smoke
meter
(c)      chimney
(d)      precipitator
(e)      pulveriser.
Ans: d

144.    Bomb
calorimeter is used to determine
(a)      Higher
calorific value at constant volume
(b)      Lower
calorific value at constant volume ,
(c)      Higher
calorific value at constant pressure
(d)      Lower
calorific value at constant pressure
(e)      None
of the above.
Ans: a

145.   Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of

(a)      carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b)      fixed
carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture

1
(c)      higher
calorific value
(b)      lower calorific value
(e)      best analysis.
Ans: a

146.    For
combutsion of a fuel, following is essential
(a)      correct
fuel air ratio
(b)      proper
ignition temperature
(c)      02
to support combustion
(d)      all
the three above
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

147.    Spontaneous
combustion is a phenomenon in which
(a)      all
the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
(b)      fuel
burns with less air
(c)      coal
bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to
gradual increase in temperature as a result of heat released by combination of
oxygen with coal
(d)      explosion
in furnace
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

1
148.    The
economiser is used in boilers to
(a)      increase
thermal efficiency of boiler
(b)      economise
on fuel
(c)      extract
heat from the exhaust flue gases
(d)      increase
flue gas temperature
(e)      to
heat feed water by bled steam.
Ans: a

149.    An
economiser in a boiler
(a)      increases
steam pressure
(b)      increases
steam flow
(c)      decreases
fuel consumption
(d)      decreases
steam pressure
(e)      increases
life of boiler.
Ans: c

150.02
content in atmospheric air on volume basis is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(d) 30%
(d) 40%
(e) 70%.

1
Ans: a

151.02
content in atmospheric air on weight basis is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(e ) 70%.
Ans: b

152.    Primary
air is the air used to
(a)      provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)      transport
and dry the coal
(c)      convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d)      air-delivered
by forced draft fan
(e)      none
ot the above.
Ans: b

153.    Sulphur
content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
(a)      has
high heating value
(b)      retards
electric precipitation
(c)      promotes
complete combustion
(d)      has
highly corrosive effect

1
(e)      facilitates
ash removal.
Ans: d

154.    Presence
of moisture in fuel oil would
(a)      keep
the burner tips cool
(b)      aid
in proper combustion
(c)      cause
sputtering, possibly extinguish¬ing flame
(d)      clean
the nozzles
(e)      reduce
flame length.
Ans: c

155.    Gusset
stays in a boiler are provided to
(a)      prevent
the bulging of flat surfaces
(b)      avoid
explosion in furnace
(c)      prevent
leakage of hot flue gases
(d)      support
furnace freely from top
(e)      prevent
atmospheric air leaking into furnace.
Ans: a

156.    Water
and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
(a)      heating
the oil in the settling tanks

1
(b)      cooling
the oil in the settling tanks
(c)      burning
the oil
(d)      suspension
(e)      filtering.
Ans: a

157.    Pour
point of fuel oil is the
(a)      lowest
temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
(b)      storage
temperature
(c)      temperature
at which fuel is pumped through burners
(d)      temperature
at which oil is transported
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a
158.    Secondary
air is the used to
(a)      provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)      transport
and dry the coal
(c)      convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d)      air
delivered by induced draft fan
(e)      air
fed to pulverisers.
Ans: a

1
159.    The
behaviour of coal in a furnace is determained by
(a)      the
content of sulphur
(b)      the
content of ash and heating value
(c)      the
proximate analysis
(d)      the
exact analysis
(e)      its
type.
Ans: c

160. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel

(a)      high
calorific value
(b)      produce
minimum smoke and gases
(c)      ease
in storing
(d)      high
ignition point
(e)     ecomomical
Ans: d

161.    Sulphur
in coal results in
(a)      causing
clinkering and slagging
(b)      corroding
air heaters
(c)      spontaneous
combustion during coal storage

1
(d)      facilitating
ash precipitation
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

162.    Caking
coals are those which
(a)      form
lumps or masses of coke
(b)      burn
freely
(c)      show
little or no fusing action
(d)      burn
completely
(e)      do
not form ash.
Ans: a

163.    Green
coal, in order to be burnt, must be
(a)      heated
sufficiently
(b)      burnt
in excess air
(c)      heated
to its ignition point
(d)      burnt
as powder
(e)      burnt
as lumps.
Ans: c

164.    The
ultimate analysis of fuel lists
(a)      various

1
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by
volume
(b)      various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by
weight
(c)      fuel
constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d)      fuel
constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e)      moisture
and ash free heating value.
Ans: b

165.    The
proximate analysis of fuel lists
(a)      various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by
volume
(b)      various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by
weight
(c)      fuel
constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d)      fuel
constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e)      moisture
and ash free heating value.
Ans: d

166.    Tertiary
air is the air used to
(a)      provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b)      transport
and dry the coal

1
(c)      cool
the scanners
(d)      supply
air for ignitors
(e)      convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone.
Ans: e

167.The
safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at
(a) same value
(b) higher value
(c) lower
value
(d) lower/higher
depending on steam flow
(e) unpredicatble.
Ans: b

168.    Which
is not correct statement about pulverised fuel firing
(a)      high
burning rate is possible
(b)      heat
release can be easily controlled
(c)      fuel
burns economically
(d)      it
is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash
(e)      separate
mills are required to powder the coal.
Ans: d

169.    The
three “Ts” for good combustion are
(a)      temperature,

1
time, and turbulance
(b)      total
air, true fuel, and turbulance
(c)      thorough
mixing, total air, and temperature
(d)      total
air, time, and temperature
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

170.  Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace

(a)      to
provide proper conditions for con-tinuous complete combustion
(b)      mix
fuel with air and ignite
(c)      separate
ash from coal
(d)      maintain
heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
(e)      to
minimise radiation losses.
Ans: c

171.   Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel

(a)      it
has heating value
(b)      it
helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue-gases
(c)      it
leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature
is low
(d)      it
erodes furnace walls

1
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

172. Heating value of fuel used is as on fired basis. If it is reported for dry
or moisture free fuel, then latter should be multiplied by the following factor
to correct for as fired value
(a)      (1-
moisture content)
(b)      (1
+ moisture content)
(c)      1 + moisture content
(d)      1 – moisture content
Ans: a

173. Gardually
increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam
outputs is an indication of
(a)      higher
effectiveness of boiler
(b)      high
calorific value coal being burnt
(c)      fouling
of heat transfer surfaces
(d)      raising of steam temperature
(e)      leakage of air.
Ans: c

174.    Incomplete
combustion can be best judged by
(a)      smoky
chimney exit
(b)      excess
air in flue gases
(c)      measuring
carbon mono-oxide in flue gases

1
(d)      measuring
temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
(e)      measuring
oxygen in flue gases.
Ans: c

175.    The
capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
(a)      same
(b)      more
(c)      less
(d)      less
or more depending on size of boiler
(e)      unpredictable.
Ans: b

176.    Pulverised
fuel is used for
(a)      better
burning
(b)      more
calorific value
(c)      less
radiation loss
(d)      medium
sized units
(e)      stoker
fired boilers.
Ans: a

177.    Calorific
value of coal is of the order of
(a)      200-400
kcal/kg
(b)      800-1200
kcal/kg

1
(c)      2000-4000
kcal/kg
(d)      5000-8000
kcal/kg
(e)      8000-10,000
kcal/kg.
Ans: c

178.    Evaporative
capacity of boiler is expressed as
(a)      kg
of steam produced
(b)      steam
pressure produced
(c)      kg
of fuel fired
(d)      kg
of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
(e)      kg
of water evaporated.
Ans: d
179.    Boiler
parameters are expressed by
(a)      tonnes/hr.
of steam
(b)      pressure
of steam in kg/cm2
(c)      temperature
of steam in °C
(d)      all
of the above
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

1
180. The
condition of steam in boiler drum is always
(a) dry
(b) wet
(c) saturated
(d) supersaturated
(e) superheated.
Ans: b

181.    The
balanced draft furnace is one using
(a)      induced
draft fan and chimney
(b)      induced
draft fan and forced draft fan
(c)      forced
draft fan and chimney
(d)      any
one of the above
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: b

182.    In
ordetjo obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler.
As as result, furnace vacuum will
(a)      remain
unaffected
(b)      improve
(c)
worsen
(d)      may
improve/worsen depending on size

1
(e)      unpredictable.
Ans: c

183.    Maximum
energy loss in a boiler occurs due to
(a)      unburnt
carbon in ash
(b)      incomplete
combustion
(c)      ash
content
(d)     flue gases
(e)     radiation losses.
Ans: d

184.    Overfire
burning is the phenomenon of
(a)      supply
of excess, air
(b)      supply
of excess coal
(c)      burning
CO and unburnts in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air
(d)      fuel
bed firing
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: c

185.    Which
is not the correct statement about moisture in coal
(a)      inherent
moisture and surface mois¬ture are different things
(b)      in
some coals moisture may be present upto 40%
(c)      some

1
moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible with completely
dry coal
(d)      it
increases thermal efficiency
(e)      moisture
in coal is removed before firing by heating it with hot air.
Ans: d

186.    Deaeration
of feed water is carried out because it reduces
(a)      cavitation
of .boiler feed pumps
(b)      corrosion
caused by oxygen
(c)      heat
transfer coefficient
(d)      pH
value of water
(e)      weight
of water to be handled.
Ans: b
187.    A
supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of
following values
(a)      100
kg/cm2 and 540°C
(b)      1
kg/cm2 and 100°C
(c)      218
kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
(d)      218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
(e)      100 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
Ans: c

1
188.    Natural
water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in
pressure of boiler
(a)     increases
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains
unaffected
(d)     first
increases and then decreases
(e)     first
decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

189.    The
steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with
radiation superheater
(a)     increases
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains
unaffected
(d)     first
increases and then decreases
(e)     unpredictable.
Ans: b

190.   During
storage, the heating value of coal
(a)     increases
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains
constant
(d)     may
increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
(e)     none
of the above.

1
Ans: b

191.    The
relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler
convection heating surfaces
(a)     increases
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains
unaffected
(d)     first
increases and then decreases
(e)     first
decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

192.    Film
boling occurs at
(a)      very
low pressure
(b)      atmospheric
pressures
(c)      medium
pressures
(d)      very
high pressures
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

193.Fire
tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
(a) 1 kg/cm
(b) 6 kg/cm
(c) 17 kg/cm2
(d) 100 kg/cm2
(e) 250 kg/cm2.

1
Ans: c

194.For
the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire
tube boiler has
(a)      more
heating surface
(b)      less
heating surface
(c)      equal
heating surface
(d)      heating
surface depends on other parameters
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: a

195.In
water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water-walls by
(a)      convection
(b)      radiation
(c)      conduction
(d)      radiation
and conducton
(e)      radiation
and convection.
Ans: b

196.   Relative
percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i)     furnace water wall,
(ii)     boiler bank,
(Hi)   superheater,
(iv)   economiser,
(v)    airheater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of
(a)    48:20:15:7:10

1
(b)   10:7:15:20:48
(c)   20:48:7:15:10
(d)   7:15:20:10:48
(e)   48:15:10:7:20.
Ans: a

197.    The
feed check valve is used in order to
(a)      regulate
flow of boiler water
(b)      check
level of water in boiler drum
(c)      recirculate
unwanted feed water
(d)      allow
high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow reverse flow to take
place
(e)      none
of the above.
Ans: d

198.The
size of a boiler drum in pulverised fuel fired boiler,as its size and capacity,
(steam pressure and flow ratings) increase
(a)      increases
(b)      decreases
(c)      remains
unchanged
(d)      increases/decreases
depending on steam temperature requirements
(e)      unpredictable.
Ans: b

199.    Feed
water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
(a)      reduce

1
hardness and for removal of solids
(b)      increase
efficiency-of thermal power plant
(c)      increase
*heat transfer rate
(d)      increase
steam parameters
(e)      all
of the above.
Ans: a

200. The
basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a)    corrosion
(b)    scale
(c)    carryover
(d)    embitterment
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e
EMM

1. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials?

 A. Atoms
 B. Elements

 C. Matters

 D. Compounds

2. What are the major classes of engineering materials?

1
 A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors
 B. Polymers, metals and composites

 C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors

 D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?

 A. Crystals
 B. Amorphous materials

 C. Ferromagnetic materials

 D. Metalloids

4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form?

 A. Metalloids
 B. Matrix alloys

 C. Metal lattices
  D. Metal Matrix composites

5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?

 A. Metalloids
 B. Matrix Composite

 C. Inert

 D. Ceramic

6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means
__________.

1
 A. metal
 B. material

 C. part

 D. plastic

7. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called ____________.

 A. Polyvinyl chloride
 B. Polymers

 C. Polyethylene

 D. Mers

8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
materials do not have by themselves?

 A. Compound
 B. Composite

 C. Mixture
  D. Matrix

9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials?

 A. Periodic Table
 B. Truth Table

 C. Building blocks of Materials

 D. Structure of Materials

10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

1
 A. Melting point
 B. Curie point

 C. Refractive index

 D. Specific heat

11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

 A. Melting point
 B. Thermal conductivity

 C. Thermal expansion

 D. Curie point

12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

 A. Dielectric strength
 B. Electric resistivity
  C. Water absorption

 D. Thermal conductivity

13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in
a direction perpendicular to area?

 A. Thermal expansion
 B. Thermal conductivity

 C. Heat distortion temperature

 D. Water absorption

1
14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that
an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

 A. Thermal expansion
 B. Conductivity

 C. Dielectric strength

 D. Electrical resistivity

15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise
the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass
of water to 1 degree.

 A. Specific heat
 B. Latent heat

 C. Heat of fusion

 D. Heat of fission
16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

 A. Curie temperature
 B. Specific heat

 C. Heat distortion temperature

 D. Thermal conductivity

17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

 A. Creep strength

1
 B. Stress rapture strength

 C. Compressive yield strength

 D. Hardness

18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

 A. Rigidity
 B. Plasticity

 C. Ductility

 D. Hardness

19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops
below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb?

 A. Nil ductility temperature

 B. Curie temperature

 C. Thermal conductivity

 D. Heat distortion temperature

20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

 A. Elastic limit
 B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

 C. Creep

 D. All of the choices

21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

 A. Lay
 B. Out of flat

1
 C. Camber

 D. Waviness

22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface,
generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

 A. Lay
 B. Waviness

 C. surface finish

 D. Out of flat

23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called ________.

 A. plastic
 B. lignin

 C. mer

 D. additive
24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monuments?

 A. Copolymerization
 B. Blending

 C. Alloying

 D. Cross-linking

25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”?

 A. Polyacetals
 B. Polyamide

1
 C. Cellulose

 D. Polyester

26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is
capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed.

 A. 100 %
 B. 150 %

 C. 200 %

 D. 250 %

27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which
the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold
by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

 A. Calendaring
 B. Blow molding

 C. Thermoforming
  D. Solid phase forming

28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal
die?

 A. Calendaring
 B. Thermoforming

 C. Lithugraphy

 D. Extrusion

29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

1
 A. Stereo specificity
 B. Corrosion resistance

 C. Conductivity

 D. Electrical resistance

30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered,
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

 A. Stereo specificity
 B. Conductivity

 C. Retentivity

 D. Spatial configuration

31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

 A. Impact strength
 B. Endurance limit

 C. Creep strength
  D. Stress rupture strength

32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under
stress?

 A. Elongation
 B. Elasticity

 C. Creep

 D. Rupture

33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

1
 A. Tensile strength
 B. shear strength

 C. Yield strength

 D. Flexural strength

34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from
acceptable of stress to strain is called _______.

 A. Elongation
 B. proportional limit

 C. yield point

 D. elastic limit

35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

 A. Endurance state
 B. Endurance test
  C. Endurance limit

 D. endurance strength

36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

 A. Conductor
 B. Semiconductor

 C. Magnet

 D. Semimetal

37. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

1
 A. Steel
 B. Magnesia

 C. Lodestone

 D. Soft iron

38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

 A. Hardness
 B. Stiffness

 C. Creepage

 D. Rigidity

39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space?

 A. Paramagnetic materials
 B. Non-magnetic materials

 C. Ferromagnetic materials

 D. Diamagnetic materials
40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space?

 A. Paramagnetic materials
 B. Non-magnetic materials

 C. Ferromagnetic materials

 D. Diamagnetic materials

41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities?

 A. Paramagnetic materials
 B. Non-magnetic materials

1
 C. Ferromagnetic materials

 D. Diamagnetic materials

42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic
substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its
manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow?

 A. Metal
 B. Metalloid

 C. Plastic

 D. Ceramic

43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds
called ________.

 A. Metallic bond
 B. Van der Waals bond

 C. Cross linking

 D. Covalent bond
44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer?

 A. Homo polymer
 B. Ethenic polymer

 C. Polyethylene

 D. Copolymer

45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______.

 A. monomer
 B. elastomer

1
 C. mers

 D. copolymer or interpolymer

46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

 A. Vulcanizer
 B. Elasticmer

 C. Polychloroprene

 D. Elastomer

47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain
concentration limits?

 A. Steel
 B. Wrought Iron

 C. Cast Iron

 D. Tendons
48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel
from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots?

 A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

 B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM)

 C. Electron beam refining

 D. Electroslag refining

49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute)
into an ingot mold?

 A. Electroslag refining

1
 B. Vacuum are remelting

 C. Vacuum induction melting

 D. Electron beam refining

50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

 A. Alloy steel
 B. Stainless steel

 C. Galvanized steel

 D. Carbon steeL

51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite?

 A. Austenite
 B. Eutectoid

 C. Hyper-eutectoid

 D. Stainless steel
52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels?

 A. Group S
 B. Group W

 C. Group O

 D. Group T

53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

 A. Group A
 B. Group D

1
 C. Group M

 D. Group H

54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength
are known as?

 A. Medium-carbon steel
 B. Low-carbon steel

 C. Very high-carbon

 D. High-carbon steel

55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________.

 A. Carbon
 B. Sulfur

 C. Zinc

 D. Nickel

56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

  A. A370
 B. D638

 C. E292

 D. C674

57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic?

 A. D638
 B. D695

 C. D790

 D. D732

1
58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?

 A. D732
 B. D790

 C. D695

 D. D638

59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products?

 A. A370
 B. E345

 C. E8

 D. C674

60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non-structural
application is classified as ____________.

 A. Merchant quality
  B. Commercial quality

 C. Drawing quality

 D. Special quality

61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______.

 A. Tempering
 B. Pickling

 C. Machining

 D. Galvanizing

1
62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying?

 A. To increase brittleness
 B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.

 C. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur

 D. To increase corrosion and resistance

63. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

 A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.

 B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft.

 C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%)

 D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast

furnace or direct reductions vessel.

64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits?

 A. E
 B. H
  C. X

 D. B

65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace?

 A. E
 B. H

 C. X

 D. B

66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element?

1
 A. xxLxx
 B. xxBxx

 C. xxHxx

 D. xxKxx

67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating?

 A. White plate
 B. Tin Steel free

 C. Black plate

 D. Dechromate tin

68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and
high strength at red hear temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating?

 A. Aluminum bronze
 B. Nichrome

 C. Hastelloy
  D. Alnico

69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
chromium?

 A. 10 %
 B. 20 %

 C. 25 %

 D. 5 %

70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

1
 A. Deorizers
 B. Deoxidizers

 C. Deterrent

 D. Deoxifiers

71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy?

 A. Gray iron
 B. Malleable iron

 C. White iron

 D. Alloy iron

72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?

 A. Gray iron
 B. Malleable iron

 C. White iron

 D. Ductile iron
73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

 A. Gray iron
 B. Ductile iron

 C. White iron

 D. Malleable iron

74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron?

 A. Gray iron
 B. Ductile iron

1
 C. Alloy iron

 D. Malleable iron

75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron?

 A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form

 B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above
0.5%

 C. To dioxide molten cast iron

 D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature

76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron?

 A. To increase hardness above 0.5%

 B. To deoxidize molten cast iron

 C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form

 D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%

77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron?

  A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness
above 0.5%
 B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature.

 C. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and
increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13%

 D. deoxidizes molten cast iron

78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth’s crust is iron?

 A. 10 %
 B. 5 %

1
 C. 20 %

 D. 8 %

79. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

 A. Improved strength
 B. Hardness

 C. Wear characteristics

 D. All of the choices

80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?

 A. Carburizing
 B. Tempering

 C. Nitriding

 D. Heat-treating

81. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
  A. Carburizing does not harden a steel.
 B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.

 C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.

 D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.

82. Which of he following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

 A. Heating to the proper temperature

 B. Sufficient carbon content

 C. Adequate quench

 D. All of the choices

1
83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

 A. Metallurgy
 B. Geology

 C. Material Science

 D. Metalgraphy

84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?

 A. Hematite
 B. Magnetite

 C. Gangue

 D. Ore

85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?

 A. Tuyere
 B. Coke
  C. Diamond

 D. Hematite

86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

 A. Brass
 B. Zinc

 C. Nickle

 D. Aluminum

87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the

1
surface of a part is increased?

 A. Carburizing
 B. Annealing

 C. Normalizing

 D. Martempering

88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical
temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling?

 A. Normalizing
 B. Spheroidizing

 C. Carburizing

 D. Tempering

89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite
composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?

 A. Pearlite
 B. Eutectoid
  C. Austernite

 D. Delta solid solution

90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

 A. Sulfur
 B. Phosphorus

 C. Silicon

 D. Manganese

91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened

1
is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF?

 A. Annealing
 B. Normalizing

 C. Carburizing

 D. Nitriding

92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test?

 A. 10 mm ball
 B. 120° diamond (brale)

 C. 1.6 mm diameter ball

 D. 20°needle

93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of
the test bar?

 A. Tensile strength
 B. Yield strength
  C. Shear strength

 D. Flexural Strength

94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger?

 A. Poisson’s ratio
 B. Refractive index

 C. Modulus of elasticity

 D. Percent elongation

95. What is a measure of rigidity?

1
 A. Stiffness
 B. Hardness

 C. Strength

 D. Modulus of elasticity

96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures,
within the gage length is called _______.

 A. percent elongation
 B. creep

 C. elasticity

 D. elongation

97. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable
at high temperature?

 A. Sulfur
 B. Silicon
  C. Manganese

 D. Phosphorus

98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?

 A. Cyaniding
 B. Nitriding

 C. Flame hardening

 D. Induction hardening

1
99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites?

 A. Boron
 B. Ceramic

 C. Graphite

 D. Glass fiber

100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity?

 A. Electrolyte
 B. Water

 C. Solution

 D. Acid

101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

 A. Cracking
 B. Pitting

 C. Cavitation
  D. Erosion

102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses?

 A. Dezincification
 B. Graphitization

 C. Stabilization

 D. Dealloying

103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

 A. Expoliation

1
 B. Corrosion fatigue

 C. Scaping

 D. Fretting

104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?

 A. Stray current corrosion

 B. Microbiological corrosion

 C. Filiform corrosion

 D. Fretting corrosion

105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude
(20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?

 A. Stray current corrosion

 B. Microbiological corrosion

 C. Filiform corrosion

 D. Fretting corrosion
106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.

 A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not
good conduction of electricity.
 B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.

 C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals.

 D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.

107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______
percent.

 A. 2

1
 B. 3

 C. 4

 D. 1

108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?

 A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
 B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.

 C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.

 D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?

 A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

 B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel

 C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc

 D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper

110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon
steel.

 A. 5
 B. 6

 C. 10

 D. 15

111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

 A. Casting
 B. Molding

1
 C. Forming

 D. All of the choices

112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?

 A. Water-cooled metal cavities

 B. machined metal holding blocks

 C. Ejection mechanism

 D. Metal mold (matching halves)

113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite?

 A. Ductile iron
 B. Wrought iron

 C. Gray iron

 D. White iron
114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-
impregnated glass stands through a die?

 A. Continuous pultrusion
 B. Bulk molding

 C. Vacuum bag forming

 D. Resin transfer moulding

115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

 A. Alkaline

1
 B. Alkydes

 C. Alcocids

 D. Aldehyde

116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?

 A. 13XX
 B. 23XX

 C. 25XX

 D. 31XX

117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?

 A. 13XX
 B. 31XX

 C. 23XX

 D. 12XX
118. What does AISI stands for?

 A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries

 B. American Institute of Steel Industries

 C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries

 D. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. What does SAE stands for?

 A. Society of Automotive Engineers

 B. Society of American Engineers

1
 C. Society of Architects and Engineers

 D. Society of Alloy Engineers

120. What does ASTM stands for?

 A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials

 B. American Society for Testing and Materials

 C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials

 D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials

121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel?

 A. 12 % to 18 %
 B. 10 % to 12 %

 C. 16 % to 20 %

 D. 20 % to 24 %

122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?

 A. 600oC to 1100oC
  B. 1000oC to 1500oC

 C. 1100oC to 2000oC

 D. 200oC to 800oC

123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except:

 A. Molybdenum
 B. Tungsten

 C. Cobalt

 D. Chromium

1
124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?

 A. 0.10
 B. 0.20

 C. 0.30

 D. 0.40

125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?

 A. 0.15 to 0.30
 B. 0.05 to 0.15

 C. 0.30 to 0.45

 D. 0.45 to 0.60

126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?

 A. 1 to 5
 B. 5 to 10

 C. 11 to 14
  D. 14 to 18

127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the
hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked.

 A. cold harden
 B. stress harden

 C. cool-temperature

 D. strain harden

128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?

1
 A. 4 to 8
 B. 9 to 10

 C. 11 to 17

 D. 17 to 21

129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

 A. Caburizing
 B. Casehardening

 C. Annealing

 D. Surfacehardening

130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?

 A. Malleability
 B. Hardenability

 C. Spheroidability
  D. Rigidity

131. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?

 A. 1000o F
 B. 1333o F

 C. 1666o F

 D. 1222o F

132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________.

 A. 770o C

1
 B. 550o C

 C. 660o C

 D. 440o C

133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of
the curve?

 A. Pearlite
 B. Bainite

 C. Austenite

 D. Martensite

134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature
to 1670o F?

 A. Beta iron
 B. Gamma iron

 C. Delta iron
  D. Alpha iron

135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an
ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?

 A. Nitriding
 B. Flame hardening

 C. Precipitaion hardening

 D. Carburizing

136. What is the chief ore of tin?

1
 A. Cassiterite
 B. Bauxite

 C. Ilmanite

 D. Galena

137. What is the chief ore of zinc?

 A. Cassiterite
 B. Bauxite

 C. Sphalerite

 D. Ilmanite

138. What is the chief ore of titanium?

 A. Sphalerite
 B. Ilmanite

 C. Bauxite

 D. Cassiterite
139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?

 A. Bauxite
 B. Rutile

 C. Galera

 D. Sphalerite

140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of:

 A. copper and zinc

 B. aluminum and iron

1
 C. copper and aluminum

 D. zinc and nickel

141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing:

 A. copper and zinc

 B. copper and aluminum

 C. copper and nickel

 D. copper and tin

142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What
does the first digit indicates?

 A. The purity of aluminum

 B. The identity of the alloy

 C. The alloy group

 D. The strength of the alloy

143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents?
  A. The purity of aluminum
 B. The identity of the alloy

 C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits

 D. The alloy group

144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number
indicates what condition of the alloy?

 A. As fabricated
 B. Strain hardened

 C. Annealed

1
 D. Artificially aged

145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:

 A. Zinc alloys
 B. Magnesium alloys

 C. Manganese alloys

 D. Aluminum alloys

146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?

 A. 25000 lbf/in2
 B. 35000 lbf/in2

 C. 50000 lbf/in2

 D. 100000 lbf/in2

147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?

 A. less than 0.1 percent

  B. exactly 0.1 percent

 C. more than 0.1 percent

 D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent

148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?

 A. 10 %
 B. 14 %

 C. 18 %

 D. 22 %

1
149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is called
______.

 A. yellow brass
 B. red brass

 C. Muntz metal

 D. white brass

150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?

 A. 20 %
 B. 15 %

 C. 20 %

 D. 25 %

151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?

 A. 20 %
 B. 50 %
  C. 30 %

 D. 40 %

152. Indicate the false statement.

 A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.

 B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.

 C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.

 D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

1
 A. Aluminum
 B. Steel

 C. Iron

 D. Copper

154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum.

 A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel.

 B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel.

 C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio.

 D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?

 A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

 B. Improve conductivity

 C. Lowers castability

 D. Improves machinability
156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?

 A. Increase strength up to about 12%

 B. Reduces shrinkage

 C. Improves machinability

 D. Increases fluidity in casting

157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for
permanent magnets?

 A. Invar and Nilvar

 B. Nichrome and Constantan

1
 C. Elinvar and Invar

 D. Alnico and Conife

158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except:

 A. lime
 B. silica

 C. alumina

 D. asphalt

159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear
region in the stress-strain diagram?

 A. Modulus of elasticity
 B. Proportionality limit

 C. Secant modulus

 D. Tangent modulus
160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?

 A. Jominy end-quench test

 B. The lever rule

 C. Gibb’s phase test

 D. Stress relief test

161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

 A. Tempering
 B. Normalizing

1
 C. Annealing

 D. Spheroidizing

162. What is another term for tempering?

 A. Recrystalization
 B. Annealing

 C. Spheroidizing

 D. Drawing or toughening

163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?

 A. Carburizing
 B. Flame hardening

 C. Nitriding

 D. Annealing

164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is ________ in diameter.

 A. 0.1 mm
  B. 0.2 mm

 C. 0.3 mm

 D. 0.4 mm

165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________.

 A. high electric current

 B. low electric current

 C. high voltage

 D. low voltage

1
166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards?

 A. Unlaminated flat conductors

 B. Insulated conductors

 C. Rounded flexible conductors

 D. Flat flexible conductors

167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion
resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper?

 A. 65 %
 B. 35 %

 C. 55 %

 D. 45 %

168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator?

 A. yellow brass
 B. Beryllium copper
  C. Tin Bronze

 D. Phosphor bronze

169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in μΩ-cm?

 A. 1.76
 B. 1.71

 C. 1.67

 D. 3.10

170. What should be the resistivity in μΩ-cm of a resistor material?

1
 A. 200 – 300
 B. 100 – 200

 C. 50 – 150

 D. 10 – 50

171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry?

 A. Polymer
 B. Plastic

 C. Rubber

 D. All of the above

172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic
characteristics?

 A. Thermosetting plastics
 B. Polymers

 C. Elastomers
  D. Thermoplastic plastics

173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes,
phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics?

 A. Thermoplastic plastics
 B. Plastic foams

 C. Polymers

 D. Thermosetting plastics

174. What is the widely used electrical insulator?

1
 A. Plastic
 B. Polymer

 C. Epoxy

 D. Paper

175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper?

 A. 6 to 12 MV/m
 B. 8 to 14 MV/m

 C. 10 to 16 MV/m

 D. 12 to 18 MV/m

176. What is the most widely known carbide?

 A. Carbon carbide
 B. Lead carbide

 C. Germanium carbide

 D. silicon carbide
177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____.

 A. 100
 B. 200

 C. 300

 D. 500

178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors?

 A. 500 to 10,000
 B. 1,000 to 10,000

1
 C. 500 to 5,000

 D. 100 to 1,000

179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings?

 A. Alkyds
 B. Acrylics

 C. Epoxies

 D. Vinyls

180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube
envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated
circuits, etc.?

 A. Glass
 B. Plastic

 C. Silica

 D. Film
181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100oC below their softening point to
form a very fine network of crystalline phase?

 A. Fused silica
 B. Glass ceramics

 C. Fused quartz

 D. Fiber glass

182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging
called the ____________.

 A. aging index

1
 B. aging factor

 C. aging coefficient

 D. aging point

183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called
____________.

 A. magnetic anisotropy
 B. magnetoresistance

 C. magnetostriction

 D. magnetizing factor

184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays?

 A. Iron
 B. Copper

 C. Steel

 D. Aluminum
185. Which of the following is known as “electrical steel”?

 A. Silicon steel
 B. Stainless steel

 C. Carbon steel

 D. Cast Steel

186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite?

 A. Garnet
 B. Spinel

1
 C. Mumetal

 D. Superinvar

187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and
injection lasers?

 A. Gallium Arsenide
 B. Silicon Carbide

 C. Selenium

 D. Gallian Phosphide

188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red
light?

 A. Gallium Arsenide
 B. Silicon Carbide

 C. Selenium

 D. Gallium Phosphide
189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which
application?

 A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature

 B. Infrared detectors

 C. Thermoelectric applications

 D. All of the above

190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator?

 A. Sphere
 B. Square pyramid

1
 C. Asymmetrical pyramid

 D. Cube

191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material?

 A. Knoop test
 B. Vickers test

 C. File hardness test

 D. Toughness test

192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point?

 A. Elastic toughness
 B. Fatigue

 C. Hardness

 D. Creep strain

193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one?
  A. High melting point
 B. High compressive strength

 C. High corrosion resistance

 D. High thermal conductivity

194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to
several thousand?

 A. Polymerization constant
 B. Polymerization factor

 C. Degree of polymerization

1
 D. Polemerization index

195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat
temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium?

 A. Alnico
 B. Nichrome

 C. Invar

 D. Nilvar

196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon?

 A. 96 %
 B. 3 %

 C. 1 %

 D. 69 %

197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties?
  A. Silicon
 B. Aluminum

 C. Beryllium

 D. Zinc

198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard?

 A. Aluminum
 B. Zinc

 C. Lead

 D. Silicon

1
199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes?

 A. Zinc
 B. Tin

 C. Lead

 D. Aluminum

200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

 A. Tin
 B. Lead

 C. Zinc

 D. Aluminum

201. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic
limit without being ruptured is called

 A. ductility
  B. malleability
 C. elasticity
 D. hardness
202. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling
together is known as

 A. Friction
 B. Cohesion
 C. Adhesion
 D. Viscosity
203. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called

1
 A. Brittle
 B. Ductile
 C. Plastic
 D. Malleable
204. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I
known as

 A. Potential difference
 B. Charge
 C. Specific change
 D. Nucleon interaction
205. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is
called

 A. Resistance
 B. Permeance
 C. Impedence
 D. Conductance
206. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called

 A. Thermoscopic
  B. Thermotropic
 C. Thermoduric
 D. Thermoplastic
207. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as

 A. Gummosity
 B. Glutinosity
 C. Viscidity
 D. Viscosity
208. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is
called

1
 A. Elastance
 B. Elasticity
 C. Elastivity
 D. Anelastivity
209. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

 A. Incandescence
 B. Luminescence
 C. Scintillation
 D. Phosphorescence
210. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a
glass prism?

 A. The violet color travels faster than the red color

 B. The violet color travels slower than the red color
 C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed
 D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color
211. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or
motion is called

 A. Torpidity
  B. Passivity
 C. Inactivity
 D. Inertia
212. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is

 A. Capacitance
 B. Conductance
 C. Permeability
 D. Accumulation
213. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called

 A. Isodynamic

1
 B. Isotropic
 C. Isogonic
 D. Isotopic
214. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with
another object is called

 A. Calidity
 B. Pyxeria
 C. Caloric
 D. Temperature
215. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature
gradient is called

 A. Thermal capacity
 B. Thermal conductivity
 C. Thermal radiation
 D. Thermal convection
216. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the
crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as

 A. dichroism
  B. dichromatism
 C. diastrophism
 D. chromaticity
217. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher
frequency is called

 A. illuminance
 B. fluorescence
 C. radioluminescence
 D. incandescence
218. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is

1
 A. diamagnetic
 B. paramagnetic
 C. ferromagnetic
 D. ferromagnetic
219. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called

 A. debility
 B. rigidity
 C. elastic deformation
 D. fatigue
220. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having
negligible to the flow of an electric current is called

 A. supercharging
 B. supercooling
 C. superfluidity
 D. superconductivity

251. What property of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus?

 a. Atomic weight
  b. Atomic number

 c. Isotopes

 d. Atomic Mass unit

252. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials?

 a. Atoms
 b. Elements

 c. Compounds

 d. Matter

1
253. What refers to a metal combined with one or more other elements?

 a. Mixture
 b. Compound

 c. Alloy

 d. Molecule

254. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramic or other materials usually in fiber form?

 a. Metalloids
 b. Matrix Alloys

 c. Metal Lattices

 d. Metal Matrix Composites

255. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called

 a. Polyvinyl Chloride
 b. Polymers

 c. Polyethylene
  d. Mers

256. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components
material do not have by themselves?

 a. Compound
 b. Composite

 c. Mixture

 d. Matrix

257. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on
heating or solidifies on cooling?

1
 a. Melting point
 b. Curie Point

 c. Refractive index

 d. Specific heat

258. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic
materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?

 a. Melting point
 b. Curie Point

 c. Refractive index

 d. Specific heat

259. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in
a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled
environment?

 a. Dielectric strength
  b. Electric Resistivity

 c. Water Absorption

 d. Thermal conductivity

260. What physical property of material refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a
homogeneous material under steady state conditions per unit area, unit temperature gradient in a
direction perpendicular to the area?

 a. Thermal expansion
 b. Thermal conductivity

 c. Heat distortion temperature

1
 d. Water absorption

261. What is the absolute value of the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial
strain in a body subjected to uniaxial stress?

 a. Poisson’s Ratio
 b. Euler’s Ratio

 c. Refractive index

 d. Dielectric index

262. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference that an
insulating material of a given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of
electrical breakdown through its bulk?

 a. Thermal expansion
 b. Conductivity

 c. Dielectric Strength

 d. Electric Resistivity
263. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to
raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same
mass of water to 1 degree?

 a. Specific Heat
 b. Latent Heat

 c. Heat of Fusion

 d. Heat of Fission

264. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substances without
changing its phases?

1
 a. Latent heat
 b. Sensible heat

 c. Specific heat

 d. entropy

265. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a
specified load shows a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?

 a. Curie temperature
 b. Specific Heat

 c. Heat Distortion Temperature

 d. Thermal Conductivity

266. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension
test at constant load and constant temperature?

 a. Creep strength
 b. Stress rapture strength

 c. Compressive yield strength

  d. Hardness

267. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation?

 a. Rigidity
 b. Plasticity

 c. Ductility

 d. Hardness

268. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails?

 a. Elastic Limit

1
 b. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

 c. Creep

 d. All of these

269. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness?

 a. Lay
 b. Out of Flat

 c. Camber

 d. Waviness

270. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wave like variation from a perfect
surface, generally much wider in spacing and in higher in amplitude than surface roughness?

 a. Lay
 b. Waviness

 c. Surface finish

 d. Out of flat
271. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural
polymer called

 a. Plastic
 b. Lignin

 c. mer

 d. additive

272. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two
different monomers?

 a. Copolymerization

1
 b. Blending

 c. Alloying

 d. Cross-linking

273. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercial known as nylon?

 a. Polyacetals
 b. Polyamide

 c. Cellulose

 d. Polyester

274. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes, in
which the sheets is clamped on the edge, heated until it soften and sags, drawn in contact with
the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?

 a. Calendering
 b. Blow molding

 c. Thermoforming
  d. Solid phase forming

275. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a
metal die?

 a. Calendering
 b. Thermoforming

 c. Lithugraphy

 d. Extrusion

276. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by
chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?

1
 a. Stereospecificity
 b. Corrosion resistance

 c. Conductivity

 d. Electrical Resistance

277. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular material to form with an ordered
spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?

 a. Stereospecificity
 b. Corrosion resistance

 c. Retentivity

 d. Spatial Configuration

278. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area
of the test bar?

 a. Tensile strength
 b. Yield strength
  c. Shear strength

 d. Flexual strength

279. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range?

 a. Poisson’s ratio
 b. Refractive index

 c. Modulus of elasticity

 d. Percent elongation

280. What is measure of rigidity?

1
 a. Stiffness
 b. Hardness

 c. Strength

 d. Modulus of elasticity

281. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without deviation from
acceptable stress to strain is called

 a. elongation
 b. proportional limit

 c. yield point

 d. elastic limit

282. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from
proportionality of stress and strain?

 a. Tensile strength
 b. Shear strength
  c. Yield strength

 d. Flexural strength

283. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?

 a. Impact strength
 b. Endurance limit

 c. Creep strength

 d. Stress rupture strength

284. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under

1
stress?

 a. elongation
 b. elasticity

 c. creep

 d. rupture

285. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures
within the gage length is called

 a. Percent elongation
 b. Creep

 c. Elasticity

 d. Rupture

286. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation?

 a. Hardness
 b. Creepage
  c. Stiffness

 d. Rigidity

287. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite
number of stress cycles?

 a. Endurance state
 b. Endurance test

 c. Endurance limit

 d. Endurance strength

1
288. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron?

 a. Conductor
 b. Semiconductor

 c. Magnet

 d. All of the choices

289. Which of the following is a natural magnet?

 a. Steel
 b. Magnesia

 c. Lodestone

 d. Soft iron

290. Which of the following material has permeability, slightly less than that of free space?

 a. Paramagnetic materials
 b. Non-magnetic materials

 c. Ferromagnetic materials
  d. Diamagnetic materials

291. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space?

 a. Paramagnetic materials
 b. Non-magnetic materials

 c. Ferromagnetic materials

 d. Diamagnetic materials

292. Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities?

 a. Paramagnetic materials

1
 b. Non-magnetic materials

 c. Ferromagnetic materials

 d. Diamagnetic materials

293. What is ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics?

 a. A370
 b. D638

 c. E292

 d. C674

294. What is ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics?

 a. D638
 b. D695

 c. D790

 d. D732

295. What is ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics?
  a. D732
 b. D790

 c. D695

 d. D638

296. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods of steel products?

 a. A370
 b. E345

 c. E8

 d. C674

1
297. What do you call a polymer without additive and without blending with another polymer?

 a. Homopolymer
 b. Ethenic polymer

 c. Polyethylene

 d. Copolymer

298. A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as

 a. monomer
 b. elastomer

 c. mers

 d. copolymer or interpolymer

299. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?

 a. Vulcanizer
 b. Elasticmer
  c. Polychloroprene

 d. Elastomer

300. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within
certain concentration limits?

 a. Steel
 b. Wrought iron

 c. Cast Iron

 d. Tendons

1
301. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent?

 a. Alloy steel
 b. Stainless steel

 c. Galvanized steel

 d. Carbon steel

302. What type of steel has 0.8% of carbon and 100% pearlite?

 a. Austenite
 b. Eutectoid

 c. Hyper-eutectoid

 d. Stainless steel

303. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with

 a. Carbon
 b. Sulfur

 c. Zinc
  d. Nickel

304. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as

 a. Tempering
 b. Picking

 c. Machining

 d. Galvanizing

305. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating?

 a. White plate

1
 b. Tin steel free

 c. Black plate

 d. Dechromate tin

306. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance high corrosion resistance and
high strength at red heat temperature making it useful in resistance heating?

 a. Aluminum bronze
 b. Nichrome

 c. Hastelloy

 d. Alnico

307. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of
Chromium?

 a. 10%
 b. 20%

 c. 25%
  d. 5%

308. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron-oxide content of the steel?

 a. Deorizers
 b. Deoxidizers

 c. Deterrent

 d. Detoxifiers

309. Which of the following cast irons is high carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?

 a. Gray iron

1
 b. Malleable iron

 c. White iron

 d. Ductile iron

310. Which of the following cast irons is a heat-treated for ductility?

 a. Gray iron
 b. Malleable iron

 c. White iron

 d. Ductile iron

311. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?

 a. Gray iron
 b. Malleable iron

 c. White iron

 d. Ductile iron

312. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
  a. Gray iron
 b. Malleable iron

 c. White iron

 d. Ductile iron

313. What is the advantage of quench hardening?

 a. Improved strength
 b. Hardness

 c. Wear characteristics

 d. All of the choices

1
314. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion hardening process and does not require a quench?

 a. Carburizing
 b. Tempering

 c. Nitriding

 d. Heat-treating

315. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?

 a. Heating at proper temperature

 b. Sufficient carbon content

 c. Adequate Quench

 d. All of the choices

316. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals?

 a. Metallurgy
 b. Geology
  c. Material Science

 d. Metalgraphy

317. What do you call earth and stone mixed with the iron oxides?

 a. Hematite
 b. Magnetite

 c. Gangue

 d. Ore

318. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen poor environment.

1
 a. Tuyene
 b. Coke

 c. Diamond

 d. Hematite

319. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?

 a. Brass
 b. Nickel

 c. Zinc

 d. Aluminum

320. What refers to the case hardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the
surface of a part is increased?

 a. Carburidizing
 b. Annealing

 c. Normalizing
  d. Martempering

321. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels?

 a. Sulfur
 b. Phosphorus

 c. Silicon

 d. Manganese

322. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes
unworkable in high temperature?

1
 a. Sulfur
 b. Silicon

 c. Manganese

 d. Phosphorus

323. What is the process of producing a hard surface in a steel having sufficiently high carbon
content to respond to hardening by rapid cooling of the surface?

 a. Cyaniding
 b. Nitriding

 c. Flame hardening

 d. Induction hardening

324. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?

 a. Boron
 b. Ceramic

 c. Graphite
  d. Glass Fiber

325. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a lost of

 a. Ion
 b. Electron

 c. Proton

 d. Anode

326. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to metal?

 a. Oxidation

1
 b. Corrosion

 c. Reduction

 d. Ionization

327. What do call a fluid that conducts electricity?

 a. Electrolyte
 b. Water

 c. Solution

 d. Acid

328. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities?

 a. Cracking
 b. Pitting

 c. Cavitation

 d. Erosion

329. What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?

  a. Dezincification
 b. Graphitization

 c. Stabilization

 d. Dealloying

330. What is the scaling off a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?

 a. Expoliation
 b. Corrosion Fatigue

 c. Scaping

 d. Fretting

1
331. What refers to a shape achieved by a allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?

 a. Casting
 b. Molding

 c. Forming

 d. All of the choices

332. What Cast Iron has nodular of spheroidal graphite?

 a. Ductile iron
 b. Wrought Iron

 c. Gray Iron

 d. White Iron

333. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-
impregnated glass strands through a die?

 a. Continuous pultrusion
  b. Bulk molding

 c. Vacuum bag forming

 d. Resin transfer molding

334. What is a natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?

 a. Cellulose
 b. Polyacetal

 c. Polycarbonates

 d. Polyimides

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335. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products
of alcohols and acids?

 a. Alkaline
 b. Alkydes

 c. Alcocids

 d. Aldehyde

336. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it
will become hard?

 a. Carburizing
 b. Casehardening

 c. Annealing

 d. Surface hardening

337. What is the chief ore of tin?

 a. Cassiterite
  b. Bauxite

 c. llmanite

 d. Galena

338. What is the chief ore of zinc

 a. Cassiterite
 b. Bauxite

 c. Sphalerite

 d. Galena

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339. What is the chief ore of titanium?

 a. Cassiterite
 b. Bauxite

 c. llmanite

 d. Galena

340. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspore of which aluminum is derived?

 a. Bauxite
 b. Rutile

 c. Galena

 d. Sphalerite

341. The term bronze is used to designate any alloy containing

 a. Copper and zinc

 b. Aluminum and iron

 c. Copper and aluminum

  d. Copper and tin

342. The term brass is used to designate an alloy containing

 a. Copper and zinc

 b. Aluminum and iron

 c. Copper and aluminum

 d. Copper and tin

343. What is the most abundant metal in nature?

 a. Aluminum

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 b. Steel

 c. Iron

 d. Copper

344. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?

 a. Tempering
 b. Normalizing

 c. Annealing

 d. Spheroidizing

345. The Portland cement is manufactured from the following elements except

 a. lime
 b. silica

 c. alumina

 d. asphalt

346. What is another term for Tempering?

  a. Recrystallization
 b. Annealing

 c. Spheroidizing

 d. Drawing or toughening

347. All are steel surface hardening processes except

 a. Carburizing
 b. Flame Hardening

 c. Nitriding

 d. Annealing

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348. The pressure which a substances is capable of supporting without fracturing

 a. Shear Stress
 b. Yield Strength

 c. Yield Stress

 d. Shear Modulus

349. The dimensionless parameter describing deformation

 a. Energy
 b. Work

 c. Strain

 d. Stress

350. The general law of mechanics that stress is directly proportional to strain

 a. Mean Speed Theorem

 b. Poisson Ratio
  c. Charles’ Theorem

 d. Hooke’s Law

KEY

1. Atoms

2. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites

3. Ferromagnetic materials

1
4. Metal Matrix composites

5. Ceramic

6. part

7. Polymers

8. Composite

9. Periodic Table

10. Melting point

11. Curie point

12. Water absorption

13. Thermal conductivity

14. Dielectric strength

15. Specific heata

16. Heat distortion temperature

17. Stress rapture strength

18. Hardness

19. Nil ductility temperature

20. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

21. Camber

22. Waviness

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23. lignin

24. Copolymerization

25. Polyamide

26. 200 %

27. Thermoforming

28. Extrusion

29. Corrosion resistance

30. Stereo specificity

31. Impact strength

32. Creep

33. Yield strength

34. proportional limit

35. Endurance limit

36. Magnet

37. Lodestone

38. Hardness

39. Diamagnetic materials

40. Paramagnetic materials

1
41. Ferromagnetic materials

42. Plastic

43. Cross linking

44. Homopolymer

45. copolymer or interpolymer

46. Elastomer

47. Steel

48. Vacuum are remelting (VAR)

49. Electron beam refining

50. Carbon steel

51. Eutectoid
52. Group W

53. Group M

54. Medium-carbon steel

55. Zinc

56. D638

57. D695

58. D732

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59. A370

60. Merchant quality

61. Pickling

62. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness.

63. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron.

64. X

65. E

66. xxBxx

67. Black plate

68. Nichrome

69. 10 %
70. Deoxidizers

71. Gray iron

72. Malleable iron

73. White iron

74. Gray iron

75. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%

76. To deoxidize molten cast iron

1
77. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid
and corrosion resistance above 13%

78. 5 %

79. All of the choices

80. Nitriding

81. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.

82. All of the choices

83. Metallurgy

84. Gangue

85. Coke

86. Zinc

87. Carburizing
88. Tempering

89. Eutectoid

90. Phosphorus

91. Nitriding

92. 10 mm ball

93. Tensile strength

94. Modulus of elasticity

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95. Modulus of elasticity

96. percent elongation

97. Sulfur

98. Flame hardening

99. Glass fiber

100. Electrolyte

101. Pitting

102. Dezincification

103. Expoliation

104. Filiform corrosion

105. Fretting corrosion

106. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.

107. 2

108. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.

109. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel

110. 6

111. Casting

112. Metal mold (matching halves)

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113. Ductile iron

114.Continuous pultrusion

115. Alkydes

116. 23XX

117. 12XX

118. American Iron and Steel Institute

119. Society of Automotive Engineers

120. American Society for Testing and Materials

121. 16 % to 20 %

122. 600oC to 1100oC

123. Cobalt
124. 0.20

125. 0.15 to 0.30

126. 11 to 14

127. strain harden

128. 11 to 17

129. Casehardening

130. Hardenability

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131. 1333o F

132. 770o C

133. Pearlite

134. Alpha iron

135. Nitriding

136. Cassiterite

137. Sphalerite

138. Ilmanite

139. Bauxite

140. copper and zinc

141. copper and tin

142. The alloy group

143. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits

144. As fabricated

145. Manganese alloys

146. 50000 lbf/in2

147. less than 0.1 percent

148. 14 %

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149. Muntz metal

150. 15 %

151. 30 %

152. Tin is relatively soluble in copper.

153. Aluminum

154. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.

155. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting.

156. Increase strength up to about 12%

157. Alnico and Conife

158. asphalt

159. Secant modulus

160. Jominy end-quench test

161. Tempering

162. Drawing or toughening

163. Annealing

164. 0.2 mm

165. high electric current

166. Flat flexible conductors

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167. 65 %

168. Tin Bronze

169. 1.67

170. 50 – 150

171. Plastic

172. Elastomers

173. Plastic foams

174. Paper

175. 6 to 12 MV/m

176. silicon carbide

177. 500
178. 500 to 10,000

179. Alkyds

180. Glass

181. Glass ceramics

182. aging coefficient

183. magnetoresistance

184. Iron

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185. Silicon steel

186. Garnet

187. Gallium Arsenide

188. Gallium Phosphide

189. All of the above

190. Sphere

191. File hardness test

192. Elastic toughness

193. High thermal conductivity

194. Degree of polymerization

195. Nichrome
196. 3 %

197. Beryllium

198. Aluminum

199. Tin

200. Zinc

201. malleability

202. Adhesion

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203. Brittle

204. Charge

205. Conductance

206. Thermoduric

207. Viscosity

208. Elasticity

209. Incandescence

210. The violet color travels slower than the red color

211. Inertia

212. Capacitance

213. Isotropic
214. Temperature

215. Thermal conductivity

216. dichroism

217. fluorescence

218. diamagnetic

219. fatigue

220. superconductivity

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251. Atomic number

252. Atoms

253. Alloy

254. Metal Matrix Composites

255. Polymers

256. Composite

257. Melting point

258. Curie Point

259. Water Absorption

260. Thermal conductivity

261. Poisson’s Ratio

262. Dielectric Strength

263. Specific Heat

264. Sensible heat

265. Heat Distortion Temperature

266. Stress rapture strength

267. Hardness

268. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material

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269. Camber

270. Waviness

271. Lignin

272. Copolymerization

273. Polyamide

274. Thermoforming

275. Extrusion

276. Corrosion resistance

277. Stereospecificity

278. Tensile strength

279. Modulus of elasticity

280. Modulus of elasticity

281. proportional limit

282. Yield strength

283. Impact strength

284. creep

285. Percent elongation

286. Hardness

1
287. Endurance limit

288. Magnet

289. Lodestone

290. Diamagnetic materials

291. Paramagnetic materials

292. Ferromagnetic materials

293. D638

294. D695

295. D732

296. A370

297. Homopolymer
298. copolymer or interpolymer

299. Elastomer

300. SteeL

301. Carbon steel

302. Eutectoid

303. Zinc

304. Picking

1
305. Black plate

306. Nichrome

307. 10%

308. Deoxidizers

309. Gray iron

310. Malleable iron

311. White iron

312. Gray iron

313. All of the choices

314. Nitriding

315. All of the choices

316. Metallurgy

317. Gangue

318. Coke

319. Zinc

320. Carburidizing

321. Phosphorus

322. Sulfur

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323. Flame hardening

324. Glass Fiber

325. Electron

326. Reduction

327. Electrolyte

328. Pitting

329. Dezincification

330. Expoliation

331. Casting

332. Ductile iron

333. Continuous pultrusion

334. Cellulose

335. Alkydes

336. Casehardening

337. Cassiterite

338. Sphalerite

339. llmanite

340. Bauxite

1
341. Copper and tin

342. Copper and zinc

343. Aluminum

344. Tempering

345. asphalt

346. Drawing or toughening

347. Annealing

348. Yield Stress

349. Strain

350. Hooke’s Law