RC Practice Exercise

(700-800 Level)

1
 Passage 1
2. The passage implies that the combat depicted in All
Film scholars agree that Hollywood portrayals of America Quiet on the Western Front least resembles the
at war follow a cyclical pattern. During and immediately depiction of combat in which of the following?
after a conflict, important films trumpet glory and sacrifice. · Jarhead
Ten to fifteen years later, questioning and sometimes · Apocalypse Now
pacifistic movies about the conflict dominate. In the late · The Bridge on the River Kwai
1960’s, “the raging bulls” of Hollywood—the young · Platoon
trendsetters rising to prominence—proclaimed this pattern · Guadalcanal Diary
obsolete. However, the passage of time has demonstrated
this cultural pattern to be more resilient than it seemed in 3. In the second paragraph, the author implies that “the
those days of social change. Hun” refers to which of the following?
· The Huns
Throughout the majority of the last century, evidence of
· The Hungarians
the cyclical portrayal of war in film abounds. After America
· The Austro-Hungarians
declared war against Germany during World War I, the
· The Germans
still infant film industry glorified the fight against “the Hun.”
· The Russians
By the early 1930’s, major releases had changed their
tone; for example, All Quiet on the Western Front put
forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of
4. What is the main point made by the author?
combat. After World War II began, the industry shifted
· Hollywood has never fully supported America’s armed
gears. Suddenly, important pictures again portrayed
conflicts.
glories and courage without the questioning or despair.
· In the last century, the film industry has become more
For example, Guadalcanal Diary, produced during the war,
culturally diverse.
showed “the ultimate sacrifice” as a noble and undoubted
· An established cultural pattern is more durable than
good. Once again, though, by 1957, films such as The
was thought during a time of social upheaval.
Bridge on the River Kwai won awards for depicting the
· The film industry has only supported American military
moral confusion of war.
efforts during the actual conflict.
Those who later declared this pattern dead based their · Cyclical patterns determine the type of big budget
conviction on their hearts rather than their minds. During films produced by Hollywood more than individuals
the Vietnam War, the only major film about that conflict do.
was The Green Berets, starring John Wayne and far closer
in tone to Guadalcanal Diary than to The Bridge on the 5. What is the function of the last paragraph of the
River Kwai. Similarly, years went by before more complex passage?
visions of war, such as Apocalypse Now, and then Platoon, · It shows that, despite changes in the industry and
emerged. audience, the pattern discussed still exists.
While today’s film industry is more diverse and its audience · It points out that the film industry never changes.
more culturally fragmented, this cycle largely continues. · It shows that changes in the film industry and its
Jarhead, a layered depiction of the first gulf war, premiered audience have made the pattern previously discussed
more than ten years after that conflict. Further evidence obsolete.
of this pattern can be seen in the release of Apocalypse · It discusses how Jarhead and Apocalypse Now Redux
Now Redux, which contained additional footage that the are fundamentally different from all the war movies
producers originally thought would repel audiences. Thus, that preceded them.
the famous aphorism “The more things change, the more · It demonstrates that war movies have changed to
they stay the same” certainly applies to this aspect of the reflect the more culturally diverse audience.
film industry.
6. Which one of the following does the author believe is
true about The Bridge on the River Kwai?
1. According to the passage, Apocalypse Now Redux · It deserved the awards that it won.
differed from Apocalypse Now in which of the following · It is a more intelligent and well-crafted movie than
ways? The Green Berets.
· The added footage made it less appealing to a more · It was the first movie to portray the moral confusion
culturally diverse audience. of war.
· The added footage made its portrayal of war less · Its portrayal of war is more ambivalent than that in
glorified and more ambiguous. Guadalcanal Diary.
· The added footage made its portrayal of war less · It was more financially successful than any war movie
harsh and more glorified. that came before it.
· The added footage made it more similar in tone to
other war movies.
· The removed footage made its portrayal of war less
glorified and less appealing.

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 Passage 2 2. The author’s attitude toward current human efforts
to save the Javan rhino can best be described as
Measuring more than five feet tall and ten feet long, the · optimistic and worthwhile
Javan rhinoceros is often called the rarest large mammal · pointless and doomed
on earth. None exist in zoos. Like the Indian rhino, the · idealistic but profitable
Javan has only one horn; African and Sumatran rhinos · problematic and ironic
have two. While the Javan rhino habitat once extended · confused but heroic
across southern Asia, now there are fewer than one
hundred of the animals in Indonesia and under a dozen in 3. The author mentions that the Javan rhino has only
Vietnam. Very little is known about Javan rhinos because one horn in order to do which of the following?
they lead secretive and solitary lives in remote jungles. · explain why it is closer to extinction than the African
Until recently, scientists debated whether females even rhino
have horns, and most scientific work has had to rely on · contrast it to the number of horns that the Indian
DNA garnered from dung. rhino has
· demonstrate its evolution into a separate sub-species
The near extinction of the Javan rhino is the direct result · describe the features of the animal
of human actions. For centuries, farmers, who favored · contrast it to the number of horns that females have
the same habitat, viewed them as crop eating pests and
shot them on sight. During the colonial period, hunters 4. The purpose of the first paragraph is to
slaughtered thousands. Now, human efforts to save them · discuss the different types of rhinoceroses that
may well prove futile. The Vietnamese herd is probably populate the world
doomed, as too few remain to maintain the necessary · describe the ways in which human actions have
genetic variation. Rhinos from Java cannot supplement brought the Javan rhino close to extinction
the Vietnamese numbers because in the millions of years · outline the few known facts about the Javan rhino
since Indonesia separated from the mainland, the two · discuss the steps taken to save the Javan rhino
groups have evolved into separate sub-species. In · highlight the differences between the sub-species of
Indonesia, the rhinos are protected on the Ujung Kulon Javan rhinos in Vietnam and Indonesia
peninsula, which is unsettled by humans, and still have
sufficient genetic diversity to have a chance at survival. 5. According to the passage, which of the following best
Ironically, however, the lack of human disturbance allows explains why the number of Javan rhinos in Vietnam
mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the cannot be increased by additions from those in the
animals prefer. Thus, human benevolence may prove little Ujung Kulon peninsula?
better for these rhinos than past human maltreatment. · The Indonesian Javan rhinos constitute a separate
sub-species.
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the · The Javan rhinos cannot swim to Vietnam and have
passage? no land route available.
· Javan rhinos are one of the most endangered animals · Neither Vietnam nor Indonesia has the funds for such
on the planet. a project.
· More is known about the genetics of the Javan rhino · Javan rhinos in the Ujung Kulon peninsula are almost
than is known about its mating patterns. impossible to capture.
· Hunters killed more Javan rhinos in Vietnam than in · Terrorist activity in Indonesia has made such a project
Indonesia. too dangerous to attempt.
· Most animal extinctions are the result of human
actions. 6. The author states that which of the following was
· Genetic diversity is the most important factor for the most responsible for the near extinction of the Javan
survival of a species. rhino?
· farmers shooting them on sight
· the separation of Indonesia from the mainland
· hunters slaughtering thousands
· current human efforts to save them
· the cumulative effect of many past human activities

3
 Passage 3 1. The passage does NOT indicate which of the following
concerning Mexico’s current demographics?
For years, U.S. employers have counted on a steady flow · Due to the government’s family planning campaign,
of labor from Mexico willing to accept low-skilled, low Mexico’s population is currently diminishing.
paying jobs. These workers, many of whom leave · On average, Mex ican women are havi ng
economically depressed villages in the Mexican interior, approximately one-third the number of children that
are often more than willing to work for wages well below they had in 1968.
both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line. · Many Mexicans still migrate to the United States in
However, thanks to a dramatic demographic shift currently search of work.
taking place in Mexico, the seemingly inexhaustible supply · As a result of declining birth rates, Mexico’s
of workers migrating from Mexico to the United States population is aging.
might one day greatly diminish if not cease. · A healthy middle class in Mexico has not yet fully
developed.
Predictions of such a drastic decrease in the number of
Mexican immigrants, both legal and illegal, are driven by 2. Which of the following can be inferred about U.S.
Mexico’s rapidly diminishing population growth. As a result employers of Mexican immigrants?
of a decades-long family planning campaign, most · Most of these employers pay Mexican immigrants less
Mexicans are having far fewer children than was the norm money than they pay American citizens.
a generation ago. The campaign, organized around the · Some of these employers violate wage laws.
slogan that “the small family lives better,” saw the Mexican · Many of these employers work in the agricultural
government establish family-planning clinics and offer free industry.
contraception. For nearly three decades, the government’s · Without Mexican immigrants, some of these
message concerning population hasn’t wavered. In fact, employers would be forced to close their businesses.
the Mexican Senate recently voted to extend public school · The majority of these employers show no concern
sex education programs to kindergarten. for the welfare of their workers.

The result of Mexico’s efforts to stem population growth 3. With which of the following statements would the
is nothing short of stunning. In 1968, the average Mexican author of the passage MOST likely agree?
woman had just fewer than seven children; today, the · The United States will soon have to replace lost
figure is slightly more than two. For two primary reasons, Mexican labor with labor provided by other immigrant
Mexico’s new demographics could greatly impact the groups.
number of Mexicans seeking work in the U.S. First, smaller · It is difficult for a country with a large population to
families by their nature limit the pool of potential migrants. develop a healthy middle class.
Second, the slowing of Mexico’s population growth has · Many Mexican immigrants who work in the United
fostered hope that Mexico will develop a healthy middle States believe that they are taken advantage of by
class of people content to make their livelihoods in their American employers.
home country. · Most rapidly growing countries should institute a
family planning campaign to limit population growth.
Though the former of these factors is all but assured, the · Mexico does not currently have the infrastructure to
growth of a healthy middle class is far from a foregone develop a healthy middle class.
conclusion. The critical challenge for Mexico is what it
does with the next 20 years. Mexico must invest in 4. One function of the final paragraph of the passage is
education, job training, and infrastructure, as well as a to
social-security system to protect its aging population. If · relate why the number of Mexican immigrants seeking
Mexico is willing to step forward and meet this challenge, work in the United States is certain to decline.
America may one day wake up to find that, like cheap · detail the successes of Mexico’s family planning
gasoline, cheap Mexican labor has become a thing of the campaign.
past. · explain why the number of Mexican immigrants
seeking work in the United States may not
dramatically decrease.
· specify the types of infrastructure in which Mexico
must invest.
· notify American employers that they will soon need
to find alternative sources of labor.

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 Passage 4 1. According to the passage, all of the following are
true EXCEPT:
The golden toad of Costa Rica, whose beauty and rarity · Humans are at least partially responsible for changing
inspired an unusual degree of human interest from a public weather patterns.
generally unconcerned about amphibians, may have been · Toads, like frogs, have permeable skin.
driven to extinction by human activity nevertheless. In the · Human activity is not necessarily responsible for the
United States, a public relations campaign featuring the global decline of amphibious populations.
toad raised money to purchase and protect the toad’s · Costa Rica’s Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve was
habitat in Costa Rica, establishing the Monteverde Cloud not paid for solely by the Costa Rican government.
Forest Preserve in 1972. Although this action seemed to · More frog and toad species than salamander species
secure the toad’s future, it is now apparent that setting have disappeared in Costa Rica since the late 1980s.
aside habitat was not enough to save this beautiful
creature. The toad’s demise in the late 1980s was a 2. It can be inferred from the passage that
harbinger of further species extinction in Costa Rica. Since · only thirty species of frogs and toads remain in Costa
that time, another twenty of the fifty species of frogs and Rica
toads known to once inhabit a 30 square kilometer area · humans do not have permeable skin
near Monteverde have disappeared. · the build-up of pollutants in the atmosphere causes
a decrease in atmospheric ozone
The unexplained, relatively sudden disappearance of · humans do not usually take signals of environmental
amphibians in Costa Rica is not a unique story. Populations deterioration seriously
of frogs, toads, and salamanders have declined or · Costa Rica suffers from more serious environmental
disappeared the world over. Scientists hypothesize that problems than many other countries
the more subtle effects of human activities on the world’s
ecosystems, such as the build-up of pollutants, the 3. The author uses the adjective “subtle” in the second
decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather paragraph most probably to emphasize that
patterns due to global warming, are beginning to take · these effects are not easily recogniz ed by
their toll. Perhaps amphibians - whose permeable skin sophisticated testing equipment
makes them sensitive to environmental changes - are the · these effects are difficult to notice because they take
“canary in the coal mine,” giving us early notification of place over time on a global scale
the deterioration of our environment. If amphibians are · these effects are so minimal that they affect only small
the biological harbingers of environmental problems, animal species such as amphibians
humans would be wise to heed their warning. · these slight effects of human activity are rarely
discussed by scientists
· these effects are infrequently observed because they
affect only specific world regions

4. The passage implies that

· many amphibians are not considered beautiful.
· the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve was not large
enough to protect the golden toad.
· only Costa Rican amphibians living near Monteverde
have disappeared since the 1980s.
· amphibians sometimes live in coal mines.
· no humans yet consider the decline of amphibious
populations an indication of a threat to human
populations.

5. The primary purpose of the passage is to

· discuss the mysterious disappearance of Costa Rica’s
golden toad.
· explain why human activity is undoubtedly to blame
for the global decline of amphibious populations.
· convince humans that they must minimize the global
output of pollutants.
· describe the recent global decline of amphibious
populations and hypothesize about its causes.
· urge humans to pay careful attention to important
environmental changes.

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 Passage 5 2. The author’s attitude toward the Aswan Dam Project
is best reflected by which of the following phrases?
For millennia, the Nile River flooded nearly every year as · inconsistent support
a natural consequence of heavy summer rains on the · strict neutrality
Ethiopian Plateau; in the last century, as the population in · keen enthusiasm
the region exploded, the cycle of flooding interspersed · mild endorsement
with periodic drought caused widespread suffering for the · cautious opposition
local population. In the mid-1950s, the Egyptian
government concluded that a significant dam was 3. The passage implies which of the following about
necessary to enable the country’s economic development the effects of the Aswan Dam?
to be on a par with that of Western nations. The Aswan · Crops cannot grow without silt.
Dam would prevent the annual flooding, generate · Although farmers are pleased with the absence of
hydroelectric power and supply a steady source of water seasonal flooding, they would prefer that the dam
for residents and agricultural activities, though it would not have been built because of the problems it has
also have other, less positive effects. caused.
· The land around the river is not as fertile as it was
By the 1970s, most Egyptian villages had electric power, before the dam was built.
and the dam provided approximately half of Egypt’s entire · Egypt now competes successfully on an economic
output of electricity. The benefits were counteracted, level with Western nations.
however, by consequences which were sometimes slow · The country would have been better off if the dam
to appear but ruinous in their long-term effects. Dams had not been built.
prevent silt from flowing through to downstream lands.
The silt is essential for renewing the minerals and nutrients 4. What is the significance of the author’s statement
that make the land fertile; before the dam, the Nile that the dam generated half of Egypt’s output of
floodplain was famously productive. Farmers have had electricity by the 1970s?
to substitute artificial fertilizers, reducing profits and · It proves that Egypt no longer needed to rely on other
causing pervasive chemical pollution with deleterious sources of electricity.
effects for the human, animal and plant populations living · It demonstrates the magnitude of the positive effects
near or in the river. It is difficult to draw definite created by the dam.
conclusions about a project with such substantial and · It argues that the positive energy output is more
varied results, but it would be untenable to assert that important than any negative effects.
the Egyptian government should never have built the · It shows that the dam fell short of initial expectations.
Aswan Dam. · It contrasts the positive and negative effects of the
dam.
1. Based upon the content of the passage, the author
would most likely agree with which of the following 5. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
propositions? · to explain that varied effects can result even from
· If a plan achieves its stated goals, it should still be sound business plans that accomplish their goals
carried out, even in the face of unintended negative · to demonstrate that advantages are usually
results. outweighed by unforeseen disadvantages
· Planners of highly complex projects should expect · to assert that the Egyptian government should not
some unintended negative consequences, even if they have undertaken these plans for economic
cannot foresee what those consequences will be. development
· Although a major undertaking may have unpredictable · to describe the implementation of a project with
results, those results are not necessarily grounds for significant environmental effects
condemning the entire endeavor. · to detail the negative effects suffered because of poor
· Any potential positive and negative effects should be planning
weighed before starting a project of considerable
magnitude or complexity. 6. All of the following are mentioned as benefits of the
· It is necessary to determine the net impact of all Aswan Dam EXCEPT
outcomes, good and bad, before deciding whether · a constant source of fresh water for consumers and
to denounce the overall project. industry
· electrical power for a sizable portion of the population
· the facilitation of economic development possibilities
similar to those in Western nations
· the elimination of annual flood cycles in the region
· the protection of animal and plant life in and near
the river

6
 Passage 6 regions of the gene coding for areas of the enzyme known
to be critical for its catalytic activity. Such mutations would
Lysosomal storage diseases form a category of genetic allow for only extremely crippled hexosaminidase activity.
disorders resulting from defective enzymes that normally Most of the patients with these mutations clustered in the
function to degrade unneeded molecules in cells. These juvenile category. Adult Tay-Sachs patients presented
enzymes do their work in the lysosome, a small mutations in the regions of the hexosaminidase gene that
compartment in a cell analogous to a garbage disposal. were less important for the enzyme’s activity than were
The lysosome contains between thirty and forty different those affected in juvenile patients. Scientists quickly
degradative enzymes. When any one of the lysosomal hypothesized that the variation in age of onset and severity
enzymes is defective, the molecules requiring that specific of Tay-Sachs disease correlated with the amount of
enzyme for their degradation will accumulate and cause residual enzymatic activity allowed by the genetic mutation.
that individual’s lysosomes to swell enormously. The Though more research is needed to demonstrate similarity
physiological effects of such swelling on the individual with other lysosomal storage diseases, the work done on
include motor and mental deterioration, often to the point Tay-Sachs disease has already offered a promising
of premature death. But each disease resulting from one glimpse into the underlying mechanisms of these
specific defective lysosomal enzyme has its own disorders.
characteristic pathology. The age of onset, rate of
progression, and severity of the clinical symptoms 1. The passage suggests that which of the following
observed in patients with the same defective lysosomal lines of inquiry would be most useful in determining
enzyme are highly variable. For many years, this variability the relevance of the research done on Tay-Sachs
in patients with the same defective enzyme puzzled disease to lysosomal storage diseases generally?
scientists. Only recently have researchers begun to answer · Do patients suffering from other lysosomal storage
the riddle, thanks to a genetic analysis of a lysosomal diseases have the same mortality rate as those
storage disorder known as Tay-Sachs disease. suffering from Tay-Sachs?
As in most lysosomal storage diseases, patients suffering · Do other lysosomal storage diseases affect the
from Tay-Sachs disease show both mental and motor hexosaminidase gene?
deterioration and variability in age of onset, progression, · How many different mutations are present in the
and severity. Physicians have categorized the patients into defective genes responsible for other lysosomal
three groups: infantile, juvenile, and adult, based on onset storage diseases?
of the disease. The infantile group begins to show · Does the onset of other lysosomal storage diseases
neurodegeneration as early as six months of age. The vary with the location of mutations in DNA sequences?
disease advances rapidly and children rarely live beyond · What purpose does GM2 ganglioside serve in the
3 years old. The first symptoms of the disease appear in human body?
juvenile cases between 2 and 5 years of age, with death
usually occurring around age 15. Those with the adult 2. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
form generally live out a normal lifespan, suffering from following statements is true of lysosomal storage
milder symptoms than do those with the infantile and diseases?
juvenile forms. Researchers hoped that the categorization · They are generally caused by mutations to the
would yield insight into the cause of the variability of hexosaminidase gene.
symptoms among Tay-Sachs patients, but this turned out · They are undetectable until physical symptoms are
not to be the case. present.
· They can be fatal even when allowing some
In Tay-Sachs disease, undegraded materials accumulate
enzymatic activity.
mainly in the lysosomes in the brains of patients, but the
· They are most lethal when onset is in a patient’s
kinds of molecules left undegraded and the specific identity
infancy.
of the defective lysosomal enzyme responsible for the
· Their causes were unknown before the 1950s.
malfunction were not discovered until the 1950s and 60s,
respectively. The main storage molecule was found to be
3. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
a lipid-like material known as GM2 ganglioside. The
· illuminating the physiological consequences of Tay-
defective enzyme was later identified as hexosaminidase.
Sachs disease
In 1985, the gene coding for the normal hexosaminidase
· explaining the importance of research on a specific
enzyme was cloned and its DNA sequence determined.
disease to other diseases of that type
Shortly thereafter, the DNA sequences of genes encoding
· arguing for a more detailed examination of lysosomal
hexosaminidase from many Tay-Sachs patients were
storage diseases
studied. It soon became apparent that not one or two but
· challenging a traditional view of a class of diseases
many different types of mutations in the hexosaminidase
as incomplete
gene could result in Tay-Sachs disease. Some of the
· describing the implications of genetic mutations for
mutations prevented the synthesis of any hexosaminidase,
mortality rates
preventing all such enzyme activity in the cell. Patients
with this type of mutation all had the infantile form of
Tay-Sachs disease. Other mutations were found in certain

7
 Passage 7 1. The process through which an LCD monitor displays
different colors is most closely analogous to
In the past decade, rapid technological progress and a · An hourglass partially blocked such that a limited
greater demand for high-quality digital imaging have led stream of grains of sand fall into the lower portion
to dramatic advances in video display technology. The · A series of filters that separate all of the components
dominant technology currently used in most consumer of a mixture according to size
product displays is the active matrix liquid crystal diode · A recording studio soundproofed so that any
display (LCD). performances within are muted to those outside
· A piece of construction paper with outlines of
LCDs apply thin-film transistors (TFTs) of amorphous or characters cut out such that a lamp in front of the
polycrystalline silicon sandwiched between two glass paper casts shadows in the shapes of the characters
plates. The TFTs supply voltage to liquid-crystal-filled cells, · An air vent that emits warmer air outside of a building
or pixels, between the sheets of glass. When hit with an while an air conditioning system cools the interior of
electric charge, the liquid crystals untwist to an exact the building
degree to filter white light generated by a lamp. This
filtered light shines directly on the viewing screen or, in 2. It can be inferred from the passage that an LCD
the case of projection televisions, is projected through a monitor would utilize the most electrical power when
small chip that acts as a lens. LCDs that are capable of displaying
producing color images, such as in televisions and · a movie scene of a NASCAR race with many computer-
computers, reproduce colors through a process of generated special effects
subtraction, blocking out particular color wavelengths from · the introduction sequence for a World War II video
the spectrum of white light until only the desired color game
remains. It is the variation of the intensity of light permitted · a bright daytime television broadcast of a parade
to pass through the matrix of liquid crystals that enables · a photorealistic screen saver of a bouquet of flowers
LCD displays to present images full of gradations of · a filmed scene set inside a cave with minimal lighting
different colors.
3. The passage indicates that each of the following may
The nature and functioning of LCD displays present many be considered an advantage of LCD displays relative
advantages relative to other display technologies. The to other display technologies EXCEPT
amount of power required to untwist the crystals to display · they consume less power
images, even dark ones, is much lower than that required · they generally have more pixels per square inch of
for analogous processes using other technologies, such the display
as plasma. The dense array of crystals displays images · they are able to display continuous video graphics
from computer or other video graphics sources extremely images with no interruption
well, with full color detail, no flicker, and no screen burn- · they reflect a widely adopted standard
in. Moreover, the number of pixels per square inch on an · they represent the latest, most advanced technology
LCD display is typically higher than that for other display
technologies, so LCD monitors are particularly good at 4. The tone of the passage could best be described as
displaying large amounts of data with exceptional clarity · supportive advocacy
and precision. As a result, LCD TVs are considered the · historical discussion
best display platform for video games, high definition · objective explanation
television, movie special effects, and other graphics- · intellectual exploration
intensive uses. · qualified support

8
 Passage 8 2. Which of the following, if true, would support
McIntyre’s theory that the brain has built-in
A recent ball-catching experiment conducted in space by knowledge of gravity?
astronauts on board a space shuttle has led neuroscientists · An individual’s hand-eye coordination tends to
to conclude that the brain contains an internal model of diminish with age.
gravity that is both powerful and persistent. At the same · Infants become fearful when placed on a glass
time, the experiment provided evidence that the brain can tabletop where they can see the floor, even though
adapt to environments in which the force of downward they have never had the experience of falling.
acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth. · Astronauts initially feel disoriented during the first
several days after departing earth for space.
The experiment’s outcomes suggested that an individual’s · Most children can learn to catch a ball at a very young
understanding of motion is hard-wired from an earth- age.
centric perspective. In the experiment, the astronauts were · It is counter-intuitive to most individuals that if no air
asked to catch balls released from a spring-loaded cannon. resistance were present, a bowling ball and a feather
Analyzing data gathered from infrared tracking cameras dropped at the same time from the same height will
and electrodes placed on the astronauts’ arms, McIntyre, reach the ground at the same time.
the experiment’s principal designer, noticed that the
astronauts’ anticipation of the ball’s motion was slightly 3. The passage implies which of the following about
off. Though they were able to catch the ball, the astronauts gravity?
expected the ball to move faster than it did. He theorized · Gravity does not exist in space.
that this over-anticipation is due to the fact that the brain · Humans do not experience any gravity in space.
expects the force of the earth’s gravity to act on the ball. · Humans experience less downward acceleration in
space than they do on earth.
The experiment also demonstrates the brain’s ability to · The force of gravity is essentially the same on earth
adjust to conditions that run counter to its pre-set wiring. as it is in space.
While the astronauts did not adapt to the conditions in · Humans feel weightless in space due to the lack of
space for some time, by day 15 of the experiment, the gravity in space.
amplitude of the premature arm movements decreased
and a new well-timed arm movement immediately 4. The function of the final paragraph is to
preceded the catch. Upon returning to earth, the · provide an alternate point of view to contrast with
astronauts again mis-anticipated the ball’s motion, though the analysis earlier in the passage
this time the ball moved faster than anticipated. However, · summarize the main points of the previous paragraphs
the astronauts were able to adjust back to the earth’s · clarify an ambiguity raised in the second paragraph
gravitational effect on the balls much more quickly than · move beyond the detailed description of earlier
they had been able to adapt to the conditions in space. paragraphs to present broader implications
· pose an explicit challenge to specific researchers
Many scientists view the findings as a first step in research mentioned earlier in the passage
that could have serious practical benefits. The ability of
astronauts to safely explore space and investigate other 5. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
planets is dependent on understanding the differences · describe a recent space experiment and present its
between our physical reactions on earth and elsewhere. conclusions
On another level, understanding timing processes in the · detail the practical applications of recent research
body might lead to the development of treatments for findings
coordination problems experienced by individuals with · correct a misunderstanding about how the brain
certain types of brain damage. functions
· present a summary of how gravity works
1. It can be inferred from the passage that during the · outline the benefits of conducting experiments in
first two weeks of the experiment the astronauts, in space
attempting to catch the ball, tended to
· move their arms higher than necessary 6. According to the passage, research suggests that the
· adjust their arms at the last possible second brain’s built-in understanding of gravity is
· use fewer arm movements than they would have on · space-centric
earth · adaptable
· keep their arms stationary for the two seconds · fleeting
preceding the catch · weak
· adjust their arms sooner than necessary · evolving

9
 Passage 9 2. One function of the third paragraph of the passage is
to
Symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease, such as tremors, are · highlight the many similarities between yeast cells
thought to be caused by low dopamine levels in the brain. and mammalian nerve cells
Current treatments of Parkinson’s disease are primarily · explain in detail the methods used to conduct a
reactionary, aiming to replenish dopamine levels after genetic screen in yeast cells
dopamine-producing neurons in the brain have died. · further explain the roles of various cellular
Without a more detailed understanding of the behavior of components of yeast cells
dopamine-producing neurons, it has been impossible to · identify the genes in yeast cells and mammalian nerve
develop treatments that would prevent the destruction of cells that work to reverse the toxic levels of alpha-
these neurons in Parkinson’s patients. synuclein
· clarify the relevance of genetic testing in yeast cells
Recent research provides insight into the inner workings to the search for a new treatment for Parkinson’s
of dopamine-producing neurons, and may lead to a new disease
drug treatment that would proactively protect the neurons
from decay. By examining the alpha-synuclein protein in 3. It can be inferred from the passage that current
yeast cells, scientists have determined that toxic levels of treatments of Parkinson’s Disease
the protein have a detrimental effect on protein transfer · repair damaged cells by replenishing dopamine levels
within the cell. More specifically, high levels of alpha- in the brain
synuclein disrupt the flow of proteins from the endoplasmic · are ineffective in their treatment of Parkinson’s
reticulum, the site of protein production in the cell, to the symptoms, such as tremors
Golgi apparatus, the component of the cell that modifies · were developed without a complete understanding
and sorts the proteins before sending them to their final of dopamine-producing neurons
destinations within the cell. When the smooth transfer of · will inevitably be replaced by new drug therapy to
proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi suppress alpha-synuclein toxicity
apparatus is interrupted, the cell dies. · were not developed through research on yeast cells

With this in mind, researchers conducted a genetic screen 4. According to the passage, which of the following
in yeast cells in order to identify any gene that works to represents the chronology of a typical protein life in
reverse the toxic levels of alpha-synuclein in the cell. a healthy yeast cell?
Researchers discovered that such a gene does in fact · Protein is made in the endoplasmic reticulum, sent
exist, and have located the genetic counterpart in to the Golgi apparatus, processed and altered in the
mammalian nerve cells, or neurons. This discovery has Golgi apparatus, and then delivered to other parts of
led to new hopes that drug therapy could potentially the cell.
activate this gene, thereby suppressing the toxicity of · Protein is created in the Golgi apparatus, modified
alpha-synuclein in dopamine-producing neurons. and delivered to other parts of the cell, then
decomposed by alpha-synuclein.
While drug therapy to suppress alpha-synuclein has been · Protein is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum, sent
examined in yeast, fruitflies, roundworms, and cultures to the Golgi apparatus, and then decomposed by
of rat neurons, researchers are hesitant to conclude that alpha-synuclein.
such therapies will prove successful on human patients. · Protein is produced in the Golgi apparatus, modified
Alpha-synuclein toxicity seems to be one cause for the by the Golgi apparatus, distributed to the neuron, and
death of dopamine-producing neurons in Parkinson’s then sent to the endoplasmic reticulum.
patients, but other causes may exist. Most scientists · Protein is produced by alpha-synuclein, transferred
involved with Parkinson’s research do agree, however, to the endoplasmic reticulum, sent to the Golgi
that such promising early results provide a basis for further apparatus for modification, and then distributed to
testing. the rest of the cell.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that a yeast cell

with toxic levels of alpha-synuclein will die because
· low levels of dopamine will disrupt the flow of proteins
from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus
· the gene that suppresses alpha-synuclein is missing
or is not functioning properly in such yeast cells
· drug therapy has proven to be ineffective in yeast
cells
· the normal distribution of proteins to the different
cell components outside the Golgi apparatus will be
affected
· alpha-synuclein is by nature a toxic protein

10
 Passage 10 1. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the
following statements is true of dendritic cells in the
The single-celled parasite known as Toxoplasma gondii human body?
infects more than half of the world’s human population · They are produced by the lymphatic system.
without creating any noticeable symptoms. Once inside · They are more numerous in the digestive tract than
the human body, Toxoplasma rapidly spreads to the heart in any other part of the human body.
and other organs. It can even penetrate the tight barrier · Most dendritic cells of persons infected with
that normally protects the brain from most pathogens. Toxoplasma carry the parasite.
Yet, the blood of infected persons carries very few free- · They are the only cells capable of being infected by
floating Toxoplasma cells. Scientists have long been Toxoplasma.
puzzled by this ability of Toxoplasma to parasitize the · They are able to penetrate the membranes
human body without triggering an immune response and surrounding the brain.
without an appreciable presence in the bloodstream.
Recent research, however, has shed light on the ways in 2. According to the passage, all of the following are
which Toxoplasma achieves its remarkable infiltration of true of Toxoplasma gondii EXCEPT
the human body. · it can contaminate ground water
· it enters the human body through the food chain
Though there are few individual Toxoplasma cells coursing · it can alter the usual behavior of human cells
freely in the blood of an infected person, scientists have · the human body is incapable of detecting it
discovered that the parasite is quite common in certain · it must find a host cat in order to reproduce
cells, known as dendritic cells, involved in the human
immune system. Dendritic cells are found in the digestive 3. The second paragraph performs which of the
tract and frequently come into contact with the various following functions in the passage?
pathogens that enter the human body through food and · It summarizes the research that remains to be done
water. When the dendritic cells encounter pathogens, they regarding Toxoplasma.
travel to lymph nodes and relay this information to other · It presents a recommendation based on the new
immune cells that then take action against the reported understanding of Toxoplasma.
pathogen. Scientists have found, however, that · It describes the mechanism by which Toxoplasma is
Toxoplasma is capable of hijacking dendritic cells, forcing able to parasitize the human body.
them from their usual activity and using them as a form · It introduces information that is essential to
of transportation to infect the human body quickly. Without understanding the role of Toxoplasma in human
this transport mechanism, Toxoplasma could not reach development.
the better-protected areas of the body. · It discusses an outdated scientific model that has
been discredited and offers a new model in its place.
Toxoplasma invades the human body through consumption
of the undercooked meat of infected animals, primarily 4. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for
pigs and chickens. Other animals, such as cats, can become Toxoplasma cells that invade the human body?
infected as well. In fact, cats are a necessary component · They will be destroyed by the immune system.
in the reproductive cycle of Toxoplasma, since the animal’s · They will collect in the lymphatic system.
intestines are the parasite’s sole breeding ground. · They will not reproduce.
Toxoplasma creates egg-like cysts, known as oocysts, in · They will be detected after several weeks.
the cats’ intestines. These oocysts are shed in the cats’ · They will be destroyed by other pathogens in the
droppings and contaminate ground water and soil, bloodstream.
eventually finding their way into the food chain. Because
Toxoplasma must somehow find its way into a new host 5. The author mentions “pigs and chickens” in the final
cat in order to reproduce, it cannot kill its current host. paragraph in order to
Instead, it waits for the host, usually a small rodent, to be · provide specific examples of animals that can carry
eaten by a cat, thus providing Toxoplasma the opportunity Toxoplasma
to reproduce. · provide specific examples of animals that are often
eaten by cats
· provide specific examples of other animals whose
dendritic cells are exploited by Toxoplasma
· provide specific examples of animals in which
Toxoplasma can breed
· provide specific examples of animals that are immune
to Toxoplasma

11
 Passage 11 · Hospitals are enforcing more stringent “hand-hygiene”
standards in an effort to reduce infections.
Antibiotics are chemical substances that kill or inhibit the
growth of bacteria. The success of antibiotics against 2. Based on the information in the passage, which of
disease-causing bacteria is one of modern medicine’s the following statements can be inferred?
great achievements. However, many bacteria harmful to · Most industrial farms do not meet the standards for
humans have developed ways to circumvent the effects sanitation required by the United States government.
of antibiotics, and many infectious diseases are now much · If the non-therapeutic use of antibiotics were halted
more difficult to treat than they were just a few decades worldwide, there would be no new resistant strains
ago. Antibiotic resistance is an especially difficult problem of antibiotic resistant bacteria.
for hospitals with critically ill patients who are less able to · European livestock and poultry are raised in more
fight off infections without the help of antibiotics. sanitary conditions than are those in the United States.
Bacteria can develop antibiotic resistance because they · Hospitals are better learning to cope with the growing
have the ability to adapt quickly to new environmental spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria.
conditions. Most commonly, bacteria share with each other · It is possible for antibiotic-resistant bacteria in animals
genetic material called resistance plasmids; these shared to be passed on to humans.
plasmids, which contain the genetic code enabling
antibiotic resistance, can spread throughout a bacterial 3. Which of the following best describes what the phrase
population to create a strain of resistant bacteria. Less “prophylactic measure” in the third paragraph means?
commonly, a natural mutation that enables antibiotic · a measure to cure the animals of any existing
resistance takes place within the chromosome of the infectious diseases
bacteria, and the resulting strain of bacteria can reproduce · a contraceptive measure to prevent the animals from
and become dominant via natural selection. In the absence spreading genetic diseases
of human involvement, however, bacteria in the wild rarely · a pre-emptive measure to kill bacteria in the animals
develop resistance to antibiotics. before the animals become ill
In the United States, animals raised on industrial-scale · an antiseptic measure to kill surface bacteria in the
factory farms are routinely administered low levels of surrounding environment
antibiotics in their feed not as a cure for ongoing maladies, · a measure that creates a physical barrier that protects
but primarily as a growth-enhancing agent to produce the animals from the bacteria in the surrounding
more meat and also as a prophylactic measure to environment
compensate for overcrowded and unsanitary conditions.
Currently, several antibiotics that are used in human 4. The passage is primarily concerned with
medical treatment are administered non-therapeutically · advocating the banning of a practice
to healthy livestock and poultry. Examples include · explaining the mechanism of a process
tetracycline, penicillin and erythromycin. This long-term · explaining the practices of a particular industry
non-therapeutic feeding of antibiotics to animals creates · describing the history of a phenomenon
the ideal conditions for the development of antibiotic- · weighing the costs versus the benefits of a practice
resistant bacteria, as it kills the susceptible bacteria while
leaving the resistant strains to reproduce and flourish. 5. According to the passage, which of the following
Europe is far ahead of the United States in the responsible describes how bacteria can develop antibiotic
use of antibiotics: On January 1, 2006, the European Union resistance?
banned the feeding of all antibiotics to livestock for non- · Radiation from medical devices such as x-ray
therapeutic purposes. This sweeping policy follows a 1998 machines weaken the immune system in both humans
ban on the non-therapeutic use of four medically-important and animals.
antibiotics on animals. The time has come for the United · Resistant strains developed through genetic
States to follow Europe’s lead. engineering dominate a bacterial population through
natural selection.
1. Based on the information in the passage, to which of · Medical practitioners over-prescribe antibiotics in
the following practices would the author most likely hospitals which encourages bacteria to adapt and form
be opposed? resistant strains.
· Hospitals are hiring higher numbers of infectious · Genetic material containing the resistant trait is
disease specialists than ever before. shared among a bacterial population.
· Many health insurance policies do not or only partially · Many antibiotics lose potency and become ineffective
reimburse patients for prescriptions of the newest over time.
and most effective antibiotics.
· The industrial farm industry contributes more than $100
million to incumbent members of Congress each year.
· Physicians routinely prescribe antibiotics to patients
with viral diseases, even though antibiotics have no
effect on viruses.

12
 Passage 12 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
· criticize the motives of those who use risky financial
In the early to mid-1980s, a business practice known as a strategies
“leveraged buyout” became popular as a method for · challenge a common perception of financiers
companies to expand without having to spend any of their · describe the evolution and application of a certain
own assets. The leveraged buyout was not without its financial device
problems, however, and in time it came to represent in · explain the popularity of leveraged buyouts during a
the public imagination not only corporate ingenuity and certain period
success, but also excess and greed. Many of the main · argue that leveraged buyouts are detrimental to
corporate figures of the 1980s saw spectacular rises and, overall financial health
perhaps inevitably, spectacular falls as they abused the
leveraged buyout as a means to extraordinary financial 2. The passage provides support for which of the
gain. following statements?
· Leveraged buyouts are utilized primarily by small
A leveraged buyout entails one company purchasing companies.
another using the assets of the purchased company as · Some companies purchased through leveraged
the collateral to secure the funds needed to buy that buyouts fell short of their buyers’ expectations.
company. The leveraged buyout allows companies to take · Today, no banks or other lending institutions will
on debt that their own assets would have been insufficient finance leveraged buyouts.
to secure in order to finance expansion. The benefit of · Most leveraged buyouts bring significant financial
the leveraged buyout is obvious: companies with rewards to the buyers.
insufficient funds can still expand to compete with larger · Leveraged buyouts were responsible for much of the
competitors. The drawbacks, however, became apparent economic growth of the 1980s.
only after the fact: the purchased company must perform
extraordinarily well in order to generate the capital to 3. The author mentions the RJR Nabisco case most
pay off the loans that made the purchase possible in the probably in order to emphasize which of the following
first place. When the purchased company underperforms, points?
the buyer must somehow find the money to pay off the · Leveraged buyouts are employed only by high-profile
loans. If such funds are not obtained, the buyer may be financiers.
forced to sell off the company, or parts thereof, for less · Leveraged buyouts can be successfully utilized to
than the purchase price. In these cases, the buyer is still purchase large companies.
responsible for repaying the debt that is not covered by · RJR Nabisco could have resisted the hostile takeover.
the sale price. Many of these deals resulted in the · Leveraged buyouts carry major risks in addition to
evisceration of the purchased companies, as subparts their benefits.
were sold to pay down the loans and employees were · Kohlberg Kravis Roberts was a leader in the
laid off to reduce costs and increase profits. development of the leveraged buyout.

The most famous leveraged buyout is probably the 1988

purchase of RJR Nabisco by Kohlberg Kravis Roberts
(“KKR”). The purchase price for the corporate giant RJR
Nabisco was $25 billion, almost all of which was borrowed
money. The takeover was “hostile,” meaning that RJR
Nabisco resisted any overtures from potential buyers. KKR
ultimately succeeded by buying a controlling interest in
RJR Nabisco, thereby obtaining voting control over the
company. By the mid-1990s, though, KKR had seen a
reversal of fortune and was forced to sell off RJR Nabisco
in order to relieve itself of the crushing debt load.

The 1980s were the heyday of the leveraged buyout, as

lending institutions were willing to loan money for these
ventures. When the deals turned out to be much riskier in
life than on paper, the lenders turned away from the
buyouts and returned to the notion that borrowers must
possess adequate collateral of their own.

13
 Passage 13 3. The primary purpose of the passage is to
· advocate for change on behalf of consumers
To remain financially sound, health insurance companies · explain why a market failure occurs
must charge higher rates to insure people considered a · introduce recently discovered information
higher risk. Lacking complete information about · challenge a widely accepted explanation
individuals, insurers are forced to set a standard rate, · argue that a situation is morally wrong
based on the average risk of the group, for a particular
segment of the population. Consumers in poor health are 4. Which of the following best describes the function of
willing to pay for the insurance, knowing that it will cover the first paragraph within the passage as a whole?
their higher-than-average health-care costs. In contrast, · It states an opinion that is supported elsewhere in
healthy consumers often decide to forgo the insurance, the passage.
reasoning that it is less expensive to pay out-of-pocket · It outlines a process that is critiqued elsewhere in
for their lower-than-average health-care costs. The result, the passage.
called “adverse selection,” is that the riskier members of · It advances an argument that is disputed elsewhere
a group will comprise the group of insurance applicants, in the passage.
potentially leading to a market failure in which insurance · It introduces conflicting arguments that are reconciled
companies cannot afford to offer insurance at any price. elsewhere in the passage.
· It defines a problem that is cited elsewhere in the
Among people over age sixty-five, even the wealthy can passage.
have difficulty obtaining fairly priced medical insurance,
simply because of their age. However, those who blame 5. The passage states which of the following about the
so-called insurance company greed and discrimination cost of health-care?
against the elderly are ignoring the reality of adverse · It is generally higher for people with poor health.
selection. Younger people generally obtain health · It is generally higher for full-time workers.
insurance through their employers’ group insurance plan. · It is not fairly priced in the current market.
Employer’s plans obligate all employees to enroll in the · It has been rising in recent years.
plan and effectively pre-screen for general health, as a · It will soon be too high for younger workers to afford.
minimum health level is required to hold a job. Insurance
companies can therefore charge a lower premium, based
on the lower average risk of the employee pool, without
worrying that healthy employees will opt out of the plan.
Consumers over sixty-five, typically not employed and thus
seeking insurance individually, are necessarily more
vulnerable to market failure stemming from adverse
selection.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that unemployed

people
· always pay higher health insurance premiums than
employed people
· cannot purchase health insurance
· are not as healthy, on average, as employed people
· opt out of the workforce for health reasons
· must work in order to acquire health insurance

2. The author refers to “greed and discrimination” in

the second paragraph of the passage in order to
· provide an example of the way some consumers are
treated unfairly
· explain how medical insurance pricing decisions are
justified
· accuse employers of failing to solve the problem of
adverse selection
· identify causes of adverse selection
· identify an alternate explanation that the author
disputes

14
 Passage 14 2. The author of the passage would most likely agree
with which of the following statements?
Many musicologists consider jazz the only purely American · Although American football was derived from the
form of music. Others, however, argue that jazz is rooted English sports of soccer and rugby, it should be called
in a history similar to that of America itself, a history of a purely American sport because it was first played
confluence. in America.
· Because American football was derived from the
The immigration of Europeans and the slave trade of West English sports of soccer and rugby, it should not be
Africans to America resulted in a convergence of cultures, called an American sport.
traditions, and art forms, including music. Jazz, first played · Most sports scholars deny the English origins of
in New Orleans in the early 1900s, borrowed heavily from American football.
the European musical scale and harmonic system. Jazz · What makes American football essentially American
ensembles were built predominantly on European is that it was derived from the convergence of English
instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, soccer and rugby.
and piano. The West African influence on jazz was · Because the essence of America lies in the plurality
manifested primarily in its performance. Scatting, a of its roots, American football should not be called
technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds of an American sport.
instruments, had its origin in West African vocal traditions.
The emphasis on improvisation in jazz music, in addition 3. Which of the following best outlines the general
to group participation, also came from West African music. structure of the passage?
· The first paragraph presents two sides of an issue;
Proponents of the argument that jazz is purely American the second paragraph subjectively presents
often point to its genesis in New Orleans as evidence for background information relevant to the issue; the third
this perspective. The irony, however, is that the essence paragraph summarizes the points made earlier in the
of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the passage.
rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of · The first paragraph introduces two differing
the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the viewpoints on an issue; the second paragraph
art form that make it undeniably American. objectively presents relevant information; the third
paragraph describes the author’s opinion on the issue.
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the author · The first paragraph introduces two differing
would be less inclined to label jazz an American art viewpoints on an issue; the second paragraph gives
form if which of the following were true? a comprehensive history of the debate; the third
· New Orleans was not the place where jazz music paragraph describes one person’s perspective on the
was first played. debate.
· Jazz music was first created in New Orleans when · The first paragraph presents two sides of an issue;
four avant-garde musicians from different musical the second paragraph presents newly discovered
backgrounds came together to experiment with information relevant to the issue; the third paragraph
unprecedented musical concepts. summarizes the main points presented earlier in the
· With the influx of West Africans to the Americas came passage.
a very specific West African musical style that was · The first paragraph introduces a controversy; the
later renamed “jazz” by Americans who heard this second paragraph presents background information
style of music being played in New Orleans. relevant to the controversy; the third paragraph settles
· Jazz music actually draws more of its character from the controversy.
South American and Native American traditions than
from those of Europe or West Africa. 4. The author of the passage would most likely agree
· West African musical styles are heavily influenced by with which of the following statements?
the musical traditions of a variety of Middle Eastern · Although American football was derived from the
cultures. English sports of soccer and rugby, it should be called
a purely American sport because it was first played
in America.
· Because American football was derived from the
English sports of soccer and rugby, it should not be
called an American sport.
· Most sports scholars deny the English origins of
American football.
· What makes American football essentially American
is that it was derived from the convergence of English
soccer and rugby.
· Because the essence of America lies in the plurality
of its roots, American football should not be called
an American sport.
15
5. According to the passage, all of the following
statements about jazz music are true EXCEPT:
· Jazz music was first played in the twentieth century.
· Jazz music was first played in New Orleans.
· The instrumentation used in jazz music includes horns
as well as stringed instruments.
· Impromptu elements are a common characteristic of
jazz performance.
· There is disagreement among musicologists as to
whether jazz music should be called an American art
form.

6. Which of the following provides the best example of

the scatting technique used in jazz performance?
· A female vocalist attempting to vocalize the tone and
melodic line just played by a trumpet
· A male vocalist using the European harmonic system
to derive a melodic line
· A trombone player attempting to imitate the sound
of a male vocalist
· A vocalist improvising a melodic line
· A call and response between two or more instruments
in the ensemble

7. Which of the following elements of jazz most likely

has its origin in West African musical traditions?
· the emphasis on a tonal harmonic structure
· the use of the guitar as one of the primary rhythm
instruments
· melodic lines rooted in the dorian scale
· the use of many instruments in a jazz ensemble
· an impromptu call-and-response between two
instruments in the ensemble

16
 Passage 15 2. The passage implies that an organization with a Chief
Talent Officer:
The recruitment and development of talent is a growing · employs a woman in the position
priority for many organizations, and is increasingly · regards Human Resources as more important than
regarded as an important competitive advantage. One other departments
example of this emphasis on talent development is the · emphasizes the importance of Human Resources to
creation of so-called ‘C’ level executive roles—Chief Talent a greater degree than organizations without such a
or Personnel Officer—that represent the interests of the position
Human Resources department. This is a significant change · enjoys a competitive advantage relative to other
from past years, during which Human Resources was organizations
generally considered a lower priority, even a necessary · is attractive to prospective female employees
evil, and a destination for executives that did not thrive in
other departments. 3. The passage suggests which of the following about
the “additional responsibilities” cited in the second
This change has had an important beneficiary—women. sentence of the third paragraph?
An extraordinarily high proportion of Human Resources · They are probably in areas not as traditionally
departments are run by women, reflecting the composition associated with female leadership.
of the departments themselves. For better or worse, · They are in departments that used to be run by a
Human Resources positions have long been perceived as man.
natural roles for women, as women are generally · They are similar to responsibilities that these women
regarded as more nurturing and service-oriented than have already successfully undertaken.
their male counterparts. As these traits are considered · They include speaking at industry conferences on
core to the functioning of effective Human Resources behalf of these women’s organizations.
personnel, the advancement of women within HR · They are more important than these women’s prior
departments has been routine and that, in turn, has responsibilities in the Human Resources area.
attracted more women. Additionally, the lifestyle of
workers in the Human Resources department is often not 4. The tone of the passage suggests that the author
as demanding in terms of hours and weekends worked regards the changes described in the passage as:
as it is for workers in other departments; many women · overdue redress for issues historically faced by
with children find this appealing. women
· a natural result of business and personnel trends
The preponderance of female heads of Human Resources · an unfortunate co ntinuati on of pervasi ve
departments and the higher prioritization of talent misconceptions
development have combined to give many female · a necessary step in the realignment of management
executives increased authority and influence. Many · a formidable new impediment to social changes
women, after performing well in a Human Resources
capacity, have been given additional responsibilities in 5. Which of the following best describes the main idea
other departments. Also, more female executives have of the passage?
been asked to represent their organizations at industry · Human Resources departments are attractive to
conferences, further increasing their visibility. women for a number of reasons.
· Women are more effective at developing and
1. Which of the following best describes the structure retaining talent than their male counterparts.
of the passage? · The increasing emphasis on the recruitment and
· An innovative idea is explained, and the unexpected treatment of talent has benefited many female
results of the idea’s adoption are listed. executives.
· A new theory is described, and evidence is provided · Women are being promoted to lead Human Resources
to support this hypothesis. departments more and more frequently.
· An established practice is challenged, and the results · The recruitment and development of talent is receiving
of this challenge are documented. greater attention and emphasis in many organizations.
· A recent trend is introduced, and an impact of this
trend is then explained and examined.
· A change in emphasis is detailed, and advocates of
this change are described.

17
 Passage 16 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
· compare the utility of various economic indicators
American economists continually attempt to gauge the · explain the process by which economists draw
health of the economy, both for the gain of the private conclusions about key factors of economic change
sector as well as for the global standing of the United · present a conceptual framework used by economists
States. Different elements of the economy react differently to prescribe economic goals
to changes in prosperity. Some elements rise and fall as · trace the development of a set of economic devices
the economy waxes and wanes. These are known as · argue for the continued evaluation of economic factors
coincident indicators. Other elements are known as affecting the business cycle
leading indicators and usually show a downturn before
the economy does. A third group of elements are known 2. The information in the passage suggests that which
as lagging indicators and lose vigor only after the economy of the following would most strongly indicate an
has already begun to slow. Economists can predict the imminent change in the business cycle?
direction of the economy by monitoring these indicators. · a decrease in the employment rate
· a decrease in the number of new homes built per
Coincident indicators, such as manufacturing and month
employment rates, are the best gauge of the current state · an increase in the number of new automobiles
of the economy. A continued shift in these indicators allows produced each month
economists to determine whether the economy itself is in · an increase in the difference between manufacturing
the process of an upturn or a downturn. These indicators costs and retail revenues for large home appliances
coincide with shifts in the economy because they are · a decrease in the number of corporate bankruptcies
dependent on sustained prosperity. But since coincident per month
indicators reflect only the current state of the economy,
they are not especially useful in predicting how the 3. According to the passage, the main purpose of
economy will perform in the near future. Economists must economic indicators is which of the following?
look to other indicators for that. · to facilitate the analysis necessary to maintain forward
economic momentum
The indicators with the greatest predictive power are · to allow investors to time their investments in sync
leading indicators, such as mortgage applications and with economic cycles
profit margins. When these indicators rise or fall, · to foster healthy economic competition among various
economists can often foretell similar changes in the commercial sectors
country’s economic health. These indicators do not cause · to bring to light several key factors in economic
changes in the economy. Rather, they often signal changes downturns
in economic behavior that lead to shifts in the economic · to promote widespread understanding of economic
cycle. By contrast, the third type of indicator – lagging principles
indicators – is useless as a harbinger of change. But these
indicators can be helpful in confirming the assessments 4. The passage suggests that lagging indicators would
of economists. be least helpful in determining which of the following?
· whether predictions based on the behavior of the
Determining which elements of the economy fall into which mortgage market were accurate
category of indicator requires analysis of copious data · whether companies ought to cut costs in order to
and an understanding of the factors that propel the avoid short-term losses
economy. One must determine which events surrounding · whether recent trends in the employment rate were
a turn in the business cycle actually contributed to the consistent with the overall economic picture
change. Establishing a solid framework for understanding · whether financial analysts are correct in their
the behavior of these indicators helps economists to avoid assessment of recent economic developments
miscalculations and to guide the country through periods · whether the government was justified in taking action
of slow or negative economic growth. to boost the economy

18
 Passage 17 1. It can be inferred from the passage that the desert
tortoise mortality rate would be most likely to
Despite its 1989 designation as a threatened species under decrease if which of the following were true?
the federal Endangered Species Act, the desert tortoise, · Desert tortoise burrows were cooler.
Gopherus agassizii, has declined in numbers by ninety · Male and female tortoises mated more frequently.
percent since the 1980s. Although federal protection made · Adult tortoises provided better care for their young.
it illegal to harm desert tortoises or remove them from · Forage plants were abundant in the habitat of the
the wild of the southwestern North American deserts, this desert tortoise.
measure has been insufficient to reverse the species’ · Rabbits were abundant in the habitat of the desert
decline, and further intervention is required. tortoise.

Recovery has been slow, partly due to the desert tortoise’s 2. The passage mentions each of the following as
low reproductive potential. Females breed only after reasons that the desert tortoise is a threatened
reaching full size at fifteen to twenty years of age, and species EXCEPT
even then may only lay eggs when adequate forage is · expansion of urban areas near the desert tortoise
available. Although the number of eggs in each clutch habitat
varies, and each female might lay a few clutches in one · the low reproductive rate of desert tortoises
season, the average mature female produces only a few · desert temperature extremes
eggs annually. From these precious eggs, hatchlings · predation by ravens
emerge wearing soft shells that will harden slowly into · the release of captive tortoises by pet owners
protective armor over the next five years. The vulnerable
young are entirely neglected by adult tortoises, and only 3. The primary intent of the passage is to do which of
five percent ultimately reach adulthood. the following?
· Describe the lifecycle of a species
Predators are blamed for most tortoise deaths; ravens, · Advocate future actions
specifically, are estimated to cause more than half of the · Discuss a problem
juvenile tortoise deaths in the Mojave Desert. Tortoise · Evaluate past actions
eggs and juveniles, with their delicate shells, can fall prey · Criticize the government
to many birds, mammals, and other reptiles. For protection
from predators, as well as from desert temperature 4. Previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise are
extremes, tortoises of all ages burrow into the earth. regarded by the author with
However, if rabbits and rodents are scarce, larger · weary skepticism
mammalian predators may dig tortoises out of their · complete satisfaction
burrows, devouring even mature tortoises despite their · implied opposition
hardened shells. · qualified approval
· overt disdain
Even with current protections from human interference,
the desert tortoise faces a tough recovery, so additional
measures must be taken. First, the limited habitat of desert
tortoises, with soil suitable for their burrows, must be
protected from development. Next, urban expansion often
has the unintended effect of increasing raven populations,
so aggressive measures to control the birds are necessary
to increase desert tortoise hatchling survival rates. Finally,
released captive tortoises typically perish, and can pass
upper respiratory tract disease into the wild population
with devastating consequences, so continuing education
of pet tortoise owners is essential.

19
 Passage 18 1. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine
the central premise of the Jacobs hypothesis?
Scientific advances in the latter half of the twentieth century · LSD does not completely inhibit normal transmission
have allowed researchers to study the chemical activities of serotonin.
taking place in the human brain during the sleep cycle in · Serotonin is only one of many chemicals that play a
more detail. In the 1970s, Jacobs employed these role in regulating sleep.
advances to postulate that dreams and hallucinations share · Researchers prove conclusively that the level of
a common neurochemical mechanism with respect to the norepinephrine in the brain is a significant factor in
neurotransmitters serotonin and norepinephrine that enabling the brain to sleep.
accounts for the observable similarities between the two · Some semi-synthetic hallucinogenic drugs other than
states of mind. To test the theory, researchers attempted LSD do not inhibit serotonin.
to elucidate the role of these transmitters in the normal · The first four stages of sleep are as crucial to the
sleep cycle and the effect of hallucinogenic drugs on them. process of dreaming as the fifth stage.

Although scientists still have much to discover about the 2. Which of the following best represents the author’s
chemical complexities of the brain, serotonin appears primary goal in writing the passage?
important for managing sleep, mood, and appetite, among · to outline a theory and suggest options for further
other important functions, while neurons release research
norepinephrine to facilitate alertness and mental focus. · to act as an advocate for additional research to help
Both are discharged in high quantities only during waking elucidate a particular theory’s validity
states. At the onset of sleep, the activity levels of neurons · to introduce a theoretical construct that has not yet
that release both the neurotransmitters drop, allowing been sufficiently proven
the brain first to enter the four non-rapid eye movement · to demonstrate the complexities involved in conducting
(Non-REM) stages of sleep. When the brain is ready to a certain type of scientific research
enter the fifth stage, REM, which is associated with · to articulate a hypothesis and lay out the case for
dreaming, the levels of these two chemicals drop virtually proving it
to zero. The Jacobs hypothesis held that the absence of
norepinephrine was required to enable the brain to remain 3. According to the passage, all of the following are
asleep, while the absence of serotonin was necessary to true EXCEPT
allow dreaming to occur. · Norepinephrine and serotonin are discharged only
during waking states.
Lysergic acid diethylamide, or LSD, is a semi-synthetic · Ingesting more than 20 micrograms of LSD will cause
psychedelic drug which causes significant alteration of some people to hallucinate.
the senses, memories and awareness; at doses higher · Rapid eye movement is the stage of sleep during
than 20 micrograms, it can have a hallucinogenic effect. which people dream.
LSD mimics serotonin well enough to be able to bind at · LSD causes neurons to increase the rate at which
most of the neurotransmitter’s receptor sites, largely they discharge norepinephrine.
inhibiting normal transmission. In addition, the drug causes · The absence of serotonin seems to be necessary in
the locus ceruleus, a cluster of neurons containing order to enable the brain to dream.
norepinephrine, to greatly accelerate activity. If the drug
stimulates norepinephrine, thereby precluding sleep, and 4. According to the passage, which of the following is
inhibits serotonin, which Jacobs had postulated was a true of the drug lysergic acid diethlyamide?
necessary condition for dreaming, then the resulting · Research into the drug is promising but inconclusive.
hallucinations could merely be “dreaming while awake.” · The neuron receptor sites that normally bind serotonin
The research thus far is promising but inconclusive; future will also bind the drug.
scientific advances should allow this theory to be tested · The locus ceruleus causes the drug to affect bodily
more rigorously. systems more rapidly than normal.
· The drug stimulates norepinephrine and serotonin.
· A person who ingests more than 20 micrograms of
the drug will have hallucinations.

20
 Passage 19 2. Which of the following most accurately describes the
primary purpose of the passage?
Dogs are widely employed by the police as biological · To advocate a wider use for the biological detection
detection systems to detect the smuggling and storage of mechanisms of dogs and other mammals.
drugs. Yet, recent evidence suggests that insects, rather · To describe possible disadvantages involved in the
than mammals, may be used more effectively in this use of dogs’ biological detection mechanisms.
capacity. One of the disadvantages of dogs lies in the fact · To describe biological detection mechanisms of
that these animals, like humans, may get bored and lose insects and suggest that they may provide a viable
interest. Other problems may also result from the alternative to those of mammals.
emotional relationship between a dog and its owner. · To discuss the process used by insects to detect
Insects, on the other hand, remain relatively free of these odors.
emotional attachments and, at the same time, possess · To discuss the methods used by biologists to explore
biological detection mechanisms that are at least as insects’ olfactory organs.
effective as those of mammals.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that dogs could
Insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to be used more effectively in detecting drugs if which
those of vertebrates, detecting odors via finger-like of the following were true?
protuberances on the antenna, called olfactory sensilla. · They could last without food for longer periods of
The odorant molecule passes through pores in the outer time.
cuticle of the sensillum and becomes attached to an · They could visually recognize the drugs they are
odorant binding protein. This protein carries the supposed to detect.
hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside · They could not only smell but also taste the drugs
the cell and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic they are asked to detect.
projections of a sensory nerve cell. Finally, this receptor · They could use finger-like protuberances for detecting
sends a signal to the central nervous system, allowing for odors.
easy detection by researchers. · They could not develop emotional relationships with
people.
The position of the insect olfactory organs on the surface
of its body allows for direct investigation of the system’s 4. Which of the following best describes the author’s
response. A technique developed by German biologist attitude towards the prospects of using insects’
Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s became the first method biological detection systems in practice?
that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect · Moderately optimistic
olfactory nerves and identify the compounds that trigger · Completely neutral
a behavioral response. The recent developments in this · Highly doubtful
direction suggest that the detection mechanisms of insects · Largely uninterested
are likely to be applied in practice in the near future. · Mildly pessimistic

1. Which of the following statements can be most 5. According to the passage, which of the following roles
reasonably inferred from the passage above? is played by an odorant binding protein?
· Some police departments have already tested using · It sends a signal to the central nervous system.
insects to detect smuggling. · It carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph
· The use of dogs to detect smuggling dates back to fluid and attaches it to a receptor.
the nineteenth century. · It passes through pores in the outer cuticle of the
· Detection of signals sent by the receptors to the sensillum.
central nervous system is easier in insects than in · It picks up the signal from the olfactory sensilla.
mammals. · It transmits odors via finger-like protuberances on
· In the first half of the twentieth century, there was the antenna.
no reliable method for recording the activity in insect
olfactory nerves and identifying the compounds that
trigger a behavioral response.
· The position of the insect olfactory organs on its body
varies between flying insects and crawling insects.

21
 Passage 20 The main function of the first paragraph is
· to introduce Fletch’s approach to writing children’s
In the 1950s, reading was taught to young children books
primarily through the use of simple primers depicting the · to describe the “Dick and Jane” primers used in most
middle-class non-adventures of “Dick and Jane.” Rudolph school
Fletch’s bestselling 1955 book Why Johnny Can’t Read · to advocate the increase of children’s books in
attacked these primers, calling them “horrible, stupid, bookstores
insipid, … tasteless little readers” and asserting that such · to establish the premise that the status quo in the
boring stories gave no incentive for children to read on early 1950s was not satisfactory for teaching children
their own and learn to “sound out” each word phonetically. how to read
Fletch also bemoaned the fact that there was not a single · to praise Fletch’s 1955 book Why Johnny Can’t Read
book in bookstores that first and second graders could
read by themselves. The author provides a brief synopsis of the plot of The
Cat in the Hat primarily in order to
In response, a publisher commissioned Theodore Geisel, · introduce the reader to the various characters in the
who wrote children’s books under the pen name “Dr. book
Seuss,” to write a book that “a first grader can’t put down.” · contrast the story of The Cat in the Hat with those of
Geisel was given a list of a few hundred words considered the “boring” primers of the era
important and asked to make a book out of them. Nine · demonstrate how bizarre the plot of the book is
months later, Geisel, using only 220 different words, · assert that talking cats and fish exist
delivered The Cat in the Hat, a whimsical story about two · warn parents that leaving children home alone can
bored children left at home with their talking fish who are be dangerous
suddenly visited by a havoc-creating six-foot-tall talking
cat. In addition, Geisel wrote the entire book in a rhyming The primary purpose of this passage is to
verse, making it fun to read aloud. The Cat in the Hat was · describe how Geisel changed the children’s book
a tremendous success and vaulted Geisel into instant industry
celebrity. Another publisher bet Geisel that he could not · support the conclusions of Fletch
write an entire book using only 50 different words. Geisel · compare and contrast the philosophies of Fletch and
won the bet by publishing the classic Green Eggs and Ham. Geisel
· demonstrate the popularity of Geisel’s books
The Dr. Seuss books revolutionized the children’s book · summarize the state of the children’s book industry
industry by proving that it was possible to create engaging
books with a limited vocabulary. Geisel has been credited
with killing off “Dick and Jane,” replacing them with clever
rhymes, plot twists and rebellious heroes who do the
unexpected. Now one in four American children receives
a Dr. Seuss title as his or her first book.

22
 Passage 21 3. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage
as a reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands
Commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in in the Banda Islands?
world development. For example, though most people · Increased economic competition with Britain
today associate nutmeg with simple baked goods, this · Disappointment with the economic development of
common spice once altered the course of political history. New Amsterdam
For centuries, the nutmeg tree grew only in the Banda · Frustration with the practices of Venetian spice
Islands, a small chain in the southwest Pacific. Locals merchants
harvested the aromatic nuts of the tree and sold them to · Failure to cultivate nutmeg in other locations
traders. Eventually these nuts, from which the spice is · Desire to restrict access to a commodity
made, ended up as a luxury item in the European market,
via Venetian spice merchants. Eager to establish a 4. The passage suggests which of the following about
monopoly over this valuable spice, the Dutch attacked the the Banda Islands?
Bandas, subjugating the native people in a mostly · The British arrived in the islands before the Dutch.
successful attempt to control the nutmeg trade. · Nutmeg was the only spice that grew on the islands.
· Natives of the islands produced nutmeg from the nuts
However, one island in the Banda chain remained in the of the nutmeg tree.
hands of the British and was the object of much conflict · The Banda Islands are still in the possession of the
between the Netherlands and England. After many battles, Dutch.
the British offered to cede control of the island in exchange · The local economy of the islands depended
for New Amsterdam, a Dutch outpost on the east coast of completely on nutmeg.
North America. At the time, the Dutch, inveterate traders,
were more interested in the spice trade than in the 5. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in
mercantile value of New Amsterdam and so accepted the · tracing the history of a major city
offer. In 1667, the Treaty of Breda gave the Dutch complete · discussing the role of spices in world development
control of the Banda Islands, and thus of the nutmeg trade, · offering a specific example to support a general claim
and gave the British New Amsterdam, which they promptly · arguing for continued research into political history
renamed New York. · presenting an innovative view of a commonplace item

1. The second paragraph performs which of the

following functions in the passage?
· It offers specific information to complete the logic of
the author’s claims.
· It summarizes and evaluates the evidence given thus
far.
· It presents the author’s main point to explain a unique
situation.
· It cites a particular case to demonstrate the
importance of historical change.
· It discusses the necessary outcome of the author’s
assertions.

2. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the

claim that New Amsterdam would have remained a
Dutch possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg?
· Attempts to cultivate nutmeg trees outside of the
Banda Islands had failed.
· Few people lived in New Amsterdam before it was
ceded to the British.
· The British controlled trade in other valuable spices,
such as cloves.
· New Amsterdam served as a trading center for furs
exported to Europe.
· The Netherlands controlled no North American
territories other than New Amsterdam.

23
 Passage 22 1. Which of the following best describes the main
purpose of the passage above?
The movement for women’s rights traces its origin to the · To compare the origin of the women’s rights
first half of the nineteenth century. The Seneca Falls movement with the current-day situation.
Convention, held in Seneca Falls, New York in July of 1848, · To support further expansion of women’s rights in
is commonly regarded as the beginning of the women’s the United States.
rights movement in the United States. This conference · To criticize the nineteenth-century restrictions on
was preceded by a series of ground-breaking events that women’s rights.
made possible this seminal milestone in the history of · To explain the reasons for the opposition to the
American women. Seneca Falls Convention.
· To discuss the origin of the women’s rights movement.
The idea for the convention emerged during the 1840
World Anti-Slavery Convention in London, a conference 2. The passage provides information about each of the
that precluded its female delegates from participation in following, EXCEPT
discussions. Lucretia Mott, a famous women’s rights · the days on which the Seneca Falls Convention was
activist, wrote in her diary that calling the 1840 convention held
a “world” convention “was a mere poetical license.” She · the month in which the convention in Rochester was
had accompanied her husband to London but had to sit held
behind a partition with other women activists, including · the year in which the World Anti-Slavery Convention
Elizabeth Cady Stanton, who later became one of the main was held
forces behind the Seneca Falls Convention. · the number of candidates participating in the Seneca
Falls Convention
During the early 1840s, Elizabeth Cady Stanton composed · the location of the World Anti-Slavery Convention
the Declaration of Sentiments, a document modeled after
the Declaration of Independence, declaring the rights of 3. The second paragraph of the passage plays which of
women. At the time of its composition, the Declaration of the following roles?
Sentiments was so bold that when Elizabeth Stanton · Provides details about the Declaration of Sentiments.
showed the draft to her husband, he stated that if she · Discusses the events leading to the World Anti-Slavery
read it at the Seneca Falls Convention, he would have to Convention.
leave town. The Declaration contained several new · Describes the position of Lucretia Mott’s husband
resolutions. It proclaimed that all men and women are towards her attendance of the World Anti-Slavery
born equal and stated that no man could withhold a Convention.
woman’s rights, take her property, or preclude her from · Demonstrates how the World Anti-Slavery Convention
the right to vote. This Declaration also became the may have contributed to the momentum behind the
foundation for the Seneca Falls Convention. movement for women’s rights.
· Explains the reasons for the limited participation of
On July 19-20, 1848, the Seneca Falls Convention brought women in the World Anti-Slavery Convention.
together 240 delegates between ages 22 and 60, including
forty men, who spent the two days at the conference 4. Which of the following can be most reasonably
debating, refining and voting on the Declaration of inferred from the passage?
Sentiments. Most of the declaration’s resolutions received · Most of the delegates of the Seneca Falls Convention
unanimous support and were officially endorsed. Later in subsequently attended the 1848 convention in
1848, the Seneca Falls convention was followed by an Rochester, New York.
even larger meeting in Rochester, New York. Thereafter, · The Declaration of Sentiments stated that women
national women’s conventions were held annually, must not be confined to housekeeping occupations.
contributing to the growing momentum in the movement · The Seneca Falls Convention gathered more than 190
for women’s rights. women, none of whom were younger than 20 years
old.
· The husband of Elizabeth Cady Stanton left town after
she read the Declaration of Sentiments at the Seneca
Falls Convention.
· Most delegates at the 1840 World Anti-Slavery
Convention were men.

24
 Passage 23 1. It can be inferred that the author makes which of the
following assumptions about biographies?
One often hears that biographies are autobiographies, · Their main purpose is to inform readers about key
that the biographer is always writing about himself. On aspects of the subjects’ personalities.
the contrary, serious biographers seek and welcome the · Only subjects who share traits with biographers make
unfamiliar, however troublesome to account for. Ron good subjects for biographies.
Chernow, the author of rich biographies of the American · Compelling biographies cannot be written about
businessmen J.P. Morgan and John D. Rockefeller, remarks ordinary citizens.
that biographers “like to stub their toes on hard, · The biographer’s credibility with readers is a factor
uncomfortable facts strewn in their paths.” Such encounters in the critical success of a biography.
with the unaccountable are opportunities for breaking out · Practical considerations are most important in the
and breaking through, in new directions, to fresh selection of a subject for a biography.
understanding.
2. The author is primarily concerned with
One also often hears that biographers must like their · persuading biographers to change their methods
subjects. That would of course rule out such vastly · refuting some common beliefs about a particular
important subjects as Hitler or Stalin. In practice, the literary genre
biographer must like the subject not as a person but as a · arguing against continued reform of a historical
subject. Some are good subjects for the author, some endeavor
bad. And what makes one subject better than another for · refuting an outdated theory of a particular literary
any particular biographer varies dramatically. Some of genre
the reasons are purely practical. Does the subject need a · describing the working methods of certain authors
biography? Are the materials available? How much time
is needed? A biographer’s knowledge and ability also 3. The author mentions Ron Chernow most probably in
determine the choice. Great scientists are great subjects, order to
but can one write about their achievements with insight · provide a counterexample to a general claim about
and authority? Personal idiosyncrasies matter, too. biography
Biographers tend to be attracted to subjects who display · illustrate a questionable assertion regarding
particular personality traits, whether they be ambition, biography
cruelty, ingenuity, or any other characteristic that · establish a favorable comparison with an established
separates a potential subject from the multitudes. biographer
· underscore the importance of research in biography
In choosing a subject, the biographer’s main question · challenge a new approach to biography
should be, “Can an effective book be made out of this
person’s life?” Day after day for years, the biographer
will try to untangle chronology, compress relationships
without distorting them, and keep the main narrative clear
while carrying forward several intricate strands of the
subject’s life. What pushes most biographers on in this
endeavor is not necessarily affection for the subject but
the feeling that they are writing a good book.

25
 Passage 24 1. Each of the following can be inferred from the
passage as a possible consequence of the rise of
As Internet marketing has matured, it has driven two Internet marketing EXCEPT
trends: a narrower focus on pitching specific consumer · a decrease in the percentage of marketing dollars
groups and a more robust effort to measure the outcomes spent on television advertising
of marketing campaigns. In the pre-Internet world, · an increased emphasis on measuring the specific
advertisers were content to pay for television commercials outcomes of ad campaigns
whose audience was relatively broad and whose effect · the appearance of new marketing-related service
was not easily quantifiable. While a company might use firms
viewership ratings to get general data about the size and · a decreased emphasis on “brand awareness” as a
demographics of the audience for its commercials, there major marketing goal
was no way to measure the extent to which these · the emergence of “pay-per-click” search engines
commercials translated into actual sales.
2. The author of the passage would be most likely to
In contrast, many companies are now moving their agree with which of the following statements?
marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets · Companies should invest their marketing dollars only
towards Internet-based campaigns that can target specific in campaigns that can target very specific consumer
consumer groups and quantify the return on marketing groups.
investments. For example, pay-per-click search engines · Traditional advertising outlets are usually not worth
allow companies to pay for small text advertisements that the cost for large companies.
are displayed only when users search for specific words · Companies can significantly decrease their overall
relevant to the products and services sold by that company. marketing expenditures by shifting to the use of pay-
A company is charged only when a consumer clicks on per-click search engines.
the ad and is directed to the company’s website, thereby · For companies that place a premium on precisely
ensuring that the company’s advertising dollars are spent measuring the return on their advertising investment,
capturing consumers that demonstrate some interest in Internet ads will likely be more effective than
its offerings. Further, using sophisticated web-analytic traditional outlets.
technology, companies can track a consumer’s online · Contrary to popular belief, advertising in traditional
behavior and determine the exact amount of any online outlets is actually less expensive than advertising on
purchases made. the Internet.

Though hailed as more cost-effective, Internet advertising 3. Which of the following can be inferred from the
has its limits. Proponents of print media argue that passage about the use of pay-per-click search engines
newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness ads?
and thereby provide better value. Further, fraud, intense · Most consumers that respond to these ads translate
competition, and the rise of ancillary services—such as directly into paying customers.
firms that companies must hire to navigate complex web- · Companies will incur relatively little cost for ads that
tracking tools—render Internet marketing more costly than attract minimal interest from consumers.
some companies realize. · Companies with the most impressive websites will
draw the most attention to their ads.
· Companies with the best brands benefit the most from
the ads.
· Companies that use these ads always have web-
analytic technology on their websites.

4. The third paragraph of the passage serves to

· point out possible disadvantages of Internet
advertising
· demonstrate the cost-effectiveness of Internet
advertising
· argue against proponents of print media
· provide further detail on the specific example
mentioned in the second paragraph
· contrast newspaper ads with television commercials

26
 Passage 25 1. The primary purpose of the passage is best expressed
as
Before the age of space exploration, the size and · The author discusses the method of data utilization
composition of the moon’s core were astronomical that proved that the moon was once part of the earth.
mysteries. Astronomers assumed that the moon’s core · The author discusses the methods of data utilization
was smaller than that of the Earth, in both relative and that changed scientists’ opinions about the relative
absolute terms — the radius of the Earth’s core is 55 sizes of the earth’s and moon’s cores.
percent of the overall radius of the Earth and the core’s · The passage studies the method that, using data
mass is 32 percent of the Earth’s overall mass — but they about radii and core mass, led to important
had no way to verify their assumption. However, data implications about the origin of the planets.
gathered by Lunar Prospector have now given astronomers · The passage studies the use of scientific methods to
the ability to determine that the moon’s core accounts for analyze data and confirm a hypothesis and references
20 percent of the moon’s radius and for a mere 2 percent possible deductions.
of its overall mass. · The passage discusses the implications following from
the size of the Earth’s core.
The data have been used in two ways. In the first method,
scientists measured minute variations in radio signals from 2. According to the passage, scientists employed one
Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away research method that measured
from the Earth. These variations allowed scientists to · changes in a spacecraft’s velocity as it returned to
detect even the slightest changes in the craft’s velocity Earth
while the craft orbited the moon. These changes resulted · changes in the gravitational pull on the Lunar
from inconsistency in the gravitational pull of the moon Prospector as it orbited the moon
on the craft, and permitted scientists to create a “gravity · changes in the moon’s gravity as it orbited the earth
map” of both near and far sides of the moon. This map, · changes in a spacecraft’s radio signals as it changed
in turn, revealed to scientists the distribution of the moon’s position relative to the earth
internal mass. Scientists were then able to determine that · changes in the moon’s gravitational pull over time
the moon has a small, metallic core, which, if composed
mostly of iron, has a radius of approximately 350 3. The author mentioned “gravity map” in the second
kilometers. The second method involved examining the paragraph in order to
faint magnetic field generated within the moon itself by · illustrate the method used to correct the Lunar
the moon’s monthly passage through the tail of the Earth’s Prospector’s velocity
magnetosphere. This approach confirmed the results · confirm the results obtained by examining the moon’s
obtained through examination of the gravity map. magnetic field
· detail a step in the investigation of the composition
The size and composition of the moon’s core are not of a specific orbiting body
academic concerns; they have serious implications for our · detail a step in the investigation of the effects of
understanding of the moon’s origins. For example, if the gravity on the moon and earth
moon and Earth developed as distinct entities, the sizes · explain a step in the process of confirming a new
of their cores should be more comparable. In actuality, it hypothesis and discarding an older theory
seems that the moon was once part of the Earth and
broke away at an early stage in the Earth’s evolution, 4. It can be inferred from the passage that
perhaps as the result of a major asteroid impact. The · the earth’s core contributes a higher proportion of
impact could have loosened iron that had not already sunk both the earth’s total radius and its total mass than
to the core of the Earth, allowing it to form the core around the core of the moon contributes to its own total radius
which the moon eventually coalesced. and mass
· a comparison of the earth’s and moon’s cores
suggests that the earth did break away from the moon
· scientists will eventually be able to use the gravity
map to further the proof that a major asteroid impact
caused the earth and moon to separate
· because the earth and moon were once joined, it is
probable that scientists will eventually discover fossils
and other evidence on the moon that indicates that a
major asteroid impact caused the extinction of the
dinosaurs
· the moon’s core has a higher ratio of iron in its
composition than does the earth’s

27
 Passage 26 1. According to the passage, Fildes and Whitaker
conducted the experiment with liquid culture because
New research by Paul Fildes and K. Whitaker challenges · agar culture contained tryptophan
the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to · liquid culture allowed for easier plating
mutate by withholding a metabolite necessary for their · agar culture could not support a sufficiently large
regular function. In particular, they consider the case of number of bacteria
bacteria typhosum, which needs tryptophan in order to · liquid culture offered a more consistent medium
reproduce. Earlier researchers had grown the bacteria in · agar culture did not adhere well to pile fabric
a medium somewhat deficient in tryptophan and observed
the growth of mutant strains of the bacteria which did not 2. It can be inferred from the passage that the replica
need tryptophan in order to reproduce. plating method is effective for which of the following
reasons?
Fildes and Whitaker argue that the withholding of · It allows researchers to determine the relative sizes
tryptophan did not induce these mutant strains of bacteria. of different populations of bacteria.
Rather, these mutants were already present in the original · It shows that no new mutant strains developed after
sample of bacteria typhosum, albeit in a concentration transfer from the original agar plate.
too small to detect. In experimenting with the bacteria · It eliminates the possibility that the agar culture was
grown in agar cultures, they found that by plating out contaminated by a different type of bacteria.
huge quantities of the bacteria, one could locate mutant · It demonstrates that no tryptophan was present in
strains. Because of the possibility that the lack of uniformity the original agar culture.
of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant strains, · It establishes that the original agar culture contained
they conducted similar experiments with liquid cultures the necessary metabolites for bacterial reproduction.
and again found that mutant strains of the bacteria were
present in the original sampling. From these experiments, 3. Which of the following most accurately states the
Fildes and Whitaker conclude that the mutants are of purpose of the passage?
genetic origin and are not induced by environmental · To defend a scientific hypothesis from attack by an
training. They asserted that the concentration of innovative technique
tryptophan is unrelated to the appearance of these mutants · To describe a process by which bacteria can be trained
in the bacteria. to mutate
· To present the results of an experiment designed to
To confirm these results, Fildes and Whitaker used an test an established theory
innovative plating technique using pile fabrics, such as · To argue against an established protocol on the
velvet or velveteen, to accurately imprint the growth found grounds that it is outdated
on an original agar plate to a series of replica agar plates. · To challenge a scientific technique used to prove a
The process entails taking the original agar plate, inverting questionable theory
it onto the velvet while using light finger pressure to
transfer growth, and then imprinting the fabric, with its
pattern of growth, on the new agar plates. By using this
replica plating method, Fildes and Whitaker demonstrated
that the mutants were in fact genetically present or
preadapted, as the locations of the mutant strains of
bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations
of the mutant strains on the original agar plate.

28
 Passage 27 2. The passage suggests which of the following about
African American slaves in the late 1700s?
When they first arrived in America as slaves in the 1600s, · They could not own land without consent of local white
Africans joined a society that was divided between master landowners.
and white servants brought from Europe. In most parts · They were barred from practicing certain trades.
of the South, some of these first African slaves became · They could buy their freedom from their owners.
free either through escape or through emancipation by · They sometimes had children with white women even
their owners. It is therefore a misconception that all African while enslaved.
Americans in the pre-Civil War South were slaves. Many · There were none in colonial New York or New Jersey.
researchers have also assumed that these free African
Americans were the offspring of white slave owners who 3. The passage suggests which of the following about
took advantage of their female slaves. However, these African American families in colonial New York and
cases represent only a small minority of free African New Jersey?
Americans in the South. Most free African Americans were · They were not descended from white servant women
actually the descendants of African American men and and African American men.
white servant women. · They were less numerous than African American
families in the colonial South.
In fact, despite the efforts of the various colonial · Most of them were started between 1644 and 1664.
legislatures, white servant women continued to bear · They began with an initial group of fourteen families.
children by African American fathers through the late · Some of them may have descended from white
seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century. servant women.
It appears that such births were the primary source of
the increase in the free African American population for 4. The author of the passage is primarily interested in
this period. Over two hundred African American families · defending an accepted position on colonial history
in Virginia descended from white women. Forty-six · analyzing an unproven hypothesis regarding slavery
families descended from freed slaves, twenty-nine from · presenting an alternate view of a historical period
Indians, and sixteen from white men who married or had · critiquing an outdated theory of colonial development
children by free African American women. It is likely that · describing the culmination of a historical trend.
the majority of the remaining families descended from
white women since they first appear in court records in 5. According to the passage, which of the following is a
the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be freed difference between free African Americans in colonial
without legislative approval, and there is no record of New York and New Jersey and free African Americans
legislative approval for their emancipations. in the colonial South?
· Those in New York and New Jersey were primarily
The history of free African Americans families in colonial descended from freed slaves while those in the South
New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite different were primarily descended from white women.
from that of free African Americans in the South. Most · Those in New York and New Jersey were primarily
were descended from slaves freed by the Dutch West descended from white women while those in the
India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by individual South were primarily descended from freed slaves
owners. Researchers have studied these families, · Both groups of African Americans were primarily
especially a group of fourteen families that scholars have descended from freed slaves, but those in the North
traced through at least three generations. None of the had been freed earlier.
fourteen families appears to be descended from a white · Both groups of African Americans were primarily
servant woman and an African American man. However, descended from freed slaves, but those in the South
Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show had been freed earlier.
that a few such couples had children baptized. · Those in the South could be freed only with legislative
permission.
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage?
· No free African Americans in the American colonies
were the offspring of white slave owners.
· Some colonial legislatures passed laws to prevent
interbreeding between white colonists and African
Americans.
· White servants were not as numerous as African
American slaves in early America.
· Most African Americans in the South were born into
slavery.
· Records exist to document all births of free African
Americans in colonial America.

29
 Passage 28 1. According to the author, which of the following is the
principal reason that German reunification could
The fall of the Berlin Wall represented a political victory succeed?
of the free market against a centrally planned economy. · The additional population from East Germany gave
Though highly interventionist and dependent on the reunified Germany an economic advantage over
international defense and industrial subsidy, West Germany other European nations.
was a model of economic expansion in the post-war era. · East Germany had not been as impoverished as other
East Germany, while relatively successful in comparison Eastern Bloc countries.
with other Eastern Bloc nations, was far behind West · West Germany did not plan to control internal
Germany with regard to the buying power of its people. It migration from East Germany.
was hard to avoid obvious comparisons such as the fact · West Germany patterned its economic plan after a
that 1 in 4 East Germans did not even have an indoor successful Italian model.
toilet. Western German authorities were therefore · West Germany was a materially stable country.
committed to rapid integration of the two Germanys
without resorting to massive controls on internal 2. The author mentions the United States most probably
migration, external capital controls, or continuation of a in order to
large state-owned industrial sector. · argue against a commonly held belief about market
economies
Other nations were already wary of a united Germany. · provide an example of a situation seen as undesirable
France, a perpetual competitor, saw Germany’s size · suggest an advantageous solution to an economic
advantage increase overnight. In Gross Domestic Product problem
(“GDP”) alone, an historical size advantage of 23% jumped · illustrate an economic principle called into question
to nearly 30%, with stronger growth promised when East · demonstrate the positive consequences of economic
Germany was fully integrated. freedom

Within Germany, there should have been no doubt that 3. Which of the following best describes the way the
integration would be costly. The question was whether first paragraph functions in the context of the
the government was up to the task. In Italy, for example, passage?
the central government has invested tremendous · A specific example is presented to illustrate the main
resources in promoting the economy of its under- elements of a general economic theory.
performing Southern region. In contrast, in the United · Evidence is presented in support of a revision of a
States, the local population bears the burden of varying commonly held view.
economic performance. For example, the American South · Information that is necessary for understanding the
is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and main argument of the passage is presented.
lower education than the rest of the nation. · Questions are raised which are answered in
subsequent paragraphs.
Rather than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair, · A qualified view of the author’s main point is
with millions fleeing to the West and a long-term negative contrasted with a less specific view.
impact on national GDP growth, West German authorities
decided to try to spend their way out of the crisis, creating 4. The passage suggests which of the following about
almost overnight an infrastructure in East Germany to the relationship between West Germany and France?
provide a standard of living comparable to that in West · Historically, the economy of West Germany had been
Germany. The goal was to take an under-performing more stable than that of France.
country and raise it to “first world” standards in only a · The Gross Domestic Product of West Germany had
few years. This goal would have been preposterous had always been greater than that of France.
not West Germany possessed the resources to accomplish · The size of West Germany’s population gave it an
the task. advantage over France in international trade.
· France did not view its economic position relative to
West Germany as immutable.
· West Germany planned to use reunification to bolster
its economic advantage over France.

30
 Passage 29 1. The author mentions Hua T’o in the third paragraph
most probably in order to
In April 1841, medical missionary Reverend Peter Parker, · underscore the need for modernization of nineteenth
M.D., addressed an enthusiastic audience gathered at a century Chinese medicine
special meeting of the Boston Medical Association. His · trace the history of important figures in Chinese
subject was “the condition and prospects of the hospitals medicine
of China.” He described his own work at the hospital he · call attention to the lack of leading physicians in
had established in the foreign factory district outside the nineteenth century China
city walls of Canton where he offered free treatment for · celebrate the historical achievements of Chinese
both rich and poor. At P’u Ai I Yuan (Hospital of Universal physicians
Love, as it was known in Chinese) Parker and his colleagues · defend Chinese medicine against unfair criticism
used western surgical techniques as a means to facilitate
religious conversion. Medicine, Parker believed, could be 2. According to the passage, all of the following are
the “handmaid of religious truth,” and he held regular true of Peter Parker EXCEPT
religious services for his patients. · He was skilled as a surgeon.
While he had, at best, modest success attracting converts · He believed that the poor deserved quality medical
to Christianity, the hospital had fostered tremendous treatment.
goodwill among the Chinese. It was a bright spot amid · He felt disdain for the medical practices of nineteenth
the gloomy period of Western-Chinese tension that led to century China.
the outbreak of the Opium Wars between Great Britain · He lobbied intensely to bring Western medical
and China. Forced to flee Canton because of these rising knowledge to China.
hostilities, Parker returned to the United States to raise · He did not achieve his missionary goals in China.
money and interest in his operations. In the spring of 1841,
he spoke to many religious societies, a few medical bodies, 3. The primary purpose of the passage is to
and even the United States Congress, where he preached · discuss the status of the medical profession in China
to members of the House and Senate and lobbied before the arrival of Peter Parker
legislators on the need for diplomatic relations with China. · argue that China could not have gained modern
In his talks, Parker described the state of medical and medical knowledge without the influence of Peter
surgical knowledge—or, rather, scientific ignorance—in Parker
China. Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient · demonstrate the need in China before the nineteenth
doctors such as Hua T’o of the third century A.D., surgery century for outside medical knowledge
did not develop to any great extent in China. Some accounts · challenge the predominant view of nineteenth century
attribute this to Confucian precepts about the integrity of Chinese medicine
the body and proscriptions against any form of mutilation · examine the circumstances of the introduction of
or dis memberment; o thers emphasi ze the Western medicine to nineteenth century China
pharmacological tendencies within traditional Chinese
medicine and a preference for moxas and other caustic
plasters.
Whatever the cause, it was undoubtedly the case that
Parker’s surgical practice tapped into a huge unmet need.
Almost as soon as he opened his Ophthalmic Hospital in
Canton, as it was known in English, he acquired a
reputation as a surgeon of such skill that the hospital
quickly became a general hospital. Parker and his small
staff handled thousands of cases each year, treating more
than fifty thousand cases by the 1850s. His hospital became
the model for other medical missions, and Parker and his
British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society
of China to coordinate the efforts of all the western
hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia. Parker
earned his reputation performing operations to remove
tumors and cataracts—forms of surgery with relatively
good odds of success and ones that could be accomplished
quickly, important in an era without anesthetics. Because
of the absence of surgery in China, a large number of
patients were afflicted with mature tumors (typically five
to thirty-five years old) of a size seldom seen in Europe
or the United States. Parker was able to help these patients
in ways previously thought impossible in China. He has
thus been credited with bringing Western medicine to the
most populous country on Earth.
31
 Passage 30 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
· dismiss a new scientific method as unethical
A clone is a genetically identical copy of a living organism. · defend a medical procedure against unwarranted
Human clones are nothing new; they occur naturally in attack
the recognizable form of identical twins. Not until the · explain a process and its ramifications
successful cloning of a sheep called Dolly, however, has · describe a hypothesis and its negative consequences
the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy · analyze the possible outcomes of a new medical
of a human been considered seriously. approach

Production of a human clone would most likely utilize the 2. The author of the passage mentions Dolly most
same basic methodology that resulted in Dolly. A human probably in order to
egg would be retrieved from an individual, and its genetic · suggest that human cloning is feasible
material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA · show that the ethical concerns against cloning are
derived from any adult human cell type. This would bypass misguided
the need for fertilization of the egg by the sperm in order · argue that nonhuman cloning is less efficient than
to obtain a full complement of DNA. In a laboratory dish, human cloning
the egg would then undergo several cell divisions. Placed · establish a basis for an argument against human
into a uterus, the resulting embryo would grow and, with cloning
luck, develop until birth. · refute a counterargument in favor of human cloning.

Although this cloning technique is conceptually and 3. According to the passage, which of the following is a
procedurally simple, its success rate has been extremely potential obstacle to human cloning?
low. The birth of one Dolly, for instance, required the · Lack of adequately prepared human eggs
preparation of 277 re-nucleated eggs, followed by the · Predetermination of DNA function within the adult body
implantation of 29 resulting best embryos. The low success · Shortage of funding for additional research
rate can be attributed to the difference between the young · Inability to pinpoint specific biological relationships
DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material within an egg
of the re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined · Unpredictability of chemical reactions within the uterus
destiny – it has already committed itself to a particular
physiological role. In order for proper fetal development 4. The passage suggests which of the following?
to occur, mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to its · Human cloning is reachable within ten years.
youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to · The cloning of nonhuman animals has always been
achieve for the human species. successful.
· The eggs of nonhuman animals are easier to obtain
Beyond the practical difficulties of intentional human than human eggs.
cloning, scientists, politicians, and others have raised · DNA taken from an adult human cell contains DNA
serious ethical concerns about this practice. For example, from both parents.
there is a chance that the cloning procedure would · Human DNA is less predictable than nonhuman DNA.
adversely affect the developing embryo. There also might
be deleterious effects on the long-term health of the clone. 5. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage
Proponents of human cloning counter that human sexual as a reason not to pursue human cloning?
reproduction is not a risk-free affair either. Even if human · The unknown effects of cloning on adult human clones.
cloning could be made safe, the motivations behind · The potential harm to cloned embryos.
producing human clones do not fall clearly on one side of · The chance that cloning will be used to select for
the ethical divide. While proponents stress potentially only certain socially advantageous characteristics.
appealing motivations – a man and a woman who are · The technical difficulty of obtaining suitable DNA.
both carriers of a genetic disease can use cloning to assure · The exorbitant costs associated with the medical
that their child will not be afflicted with the disorder – procedures used in cloning.
critics argue that the practice could and likely would be
used for unethical ends, such as to select for certain traits,
such as hair/eye color or sexual orientation, for example.

32
 Passage 31 1. The passage suggest which the following about COX-
2 inhibitors?
In recent years, a class of drugs known as COX-2 inhibitors · They fail to protect the stomach from gastric acids
has gotten much publicity for the drugs’ power to relieve that can cause irritation, but protect the body from
inflammation and pain. These drugs are relatively new to tissue inflammation.
the pharmaceutical industry, their mechanisms of action · They produce similar side effects as those caused by
having been discovered only in 1971. That year, John Vane Naproxen.
discovered the relationship between nonsteroidal anti- · They were introduced approximately 20 years after
inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, and a group of the relationship between aspirin and prostaglandins
molecules, called prostaglandins, responsible for was discovered.
producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among · They stimulate production of prostaglandins that cause
other functions. tissue inflammation.
· They are generated by external stimuli and act on
Prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s and are the cells that produce them.
now known to be generated by most mammalian tissues
in response to external stimuli. Unlike classical hormones 2. According to the passage, all of the following are
that are synthesized in one tissue but act on a distant true of prostaglandins EXCEPT:
one, prostaglandins act on the cells that produce them or · They were discovered in the 1930s.
on cells located close to the prostaglandins’ cells of origin. · They are generated by most mammalian tissues.
Aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting the function of an · They produce the sensation of pain in the body, but
enzyme called cyclooxygenase or COX; this inhibition are also responsible for other bodily functions.
prevents the production of prostaglandins. The three forms · They cause side effects that clinical trials failed to
of this enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3, all stimulate detect.
the production of prostaglandins, but each serves a · Their production is affected by enzymes COX-1, COX-
different purpose. COX-1 functions to protect the stomach 2, and COX-3.
from irritating gastric acids. COX-2 functions to induce
inflammation in injured tissue and COX-3 functions to 3. The author mentions that prostaglandins are
control the sensation of pain. Aspirin and other similar generated in response to external stimuli primarily in
drugs, such as naproxen, inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2, order to support the contention that
sometimes producing or aggravating stomach ulcers in · Prostaglandins can produce or aggravate stomach
patients who take them. ulcers.
· Prostaglandins act in the same tissue that produces
In order to eliminate the side effects of aspirin and related them.
drugs, several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s · Prostaglandins prevent the enzyme cyclooxygenase
developed drugs that inhibited only COX-2. However, side from functioning.
effects almost always cropped up, even after clinical trials · Prostaglandins are significantly different from most
that seemed to indicate none. This often occurs because mammalian hormones.
trials are conducted within very limited parameters; once · Prostaglandins are responsible for the human
the drug has been approved for mass distribution, sensation of pain.
however, the number of people taking it and the length of
time that it is taken increase dramatically. Several COX-2 4. The primary purpose of this passage is to
drugs that have been popular in recent years fit this pattern: · explain the therapeutic benefits of a new type of pain
initially successful in clinical trials, subsequent studies reliever
showed them to have serious, potentially lethal side · initiate a debate concerning the benefits of COX-2
effects. inhibitors
· warn the public that clinical trials cannot ensure drug
Though prostaglandin chemistry and enzymology have safety
been studied for half a century, pinpointing the exact role · describe the impetus for and result of COX-2 inhibitors’
of the molecules in physiological processes still remains introduction
a challenge for researchers. Hence it is not surprising · introduce research findings to support COX-2
that recent therapeutic attempts to interfere with the inhibitors over COX-1 inhibitors
formation of certain prostaglandins have produced
unexpected side effects. It now seems that the hype
surrounding COX-2 drugs may have been premature.

33
 Passage 32 1. Which of the following most accurately states the main
idea of the passage?
The bond between the domestic dog and humans is such · Humans value dogs more than they value any other
that the dog exists in every part of the world inhabited by domestic animal.
people. The relationship between the two species · The domestication of the wolf has no parallel in any
stretches back tens of thousands of years, to the first other animal.
domestication of the wolf. Every modern breed of domestic · Certain desirable traits not present in other animals
dog, of which there are more than 400 today, is descended allowed the wolf to become the modern dog.
from this wild ancestor. Prehistoric humans had contact · Domestication of the wolf has been unquestionably
with other wild canids, such as jackals, foxes, dholes, successful.
and African hunting dogs, but only the wolf possessed · Wolves are similar to humans in several important
the characteristics that allowed for integration into human aspects.
life, which implies social assimilation, as opposed to mere
domestication, which requires only a taming of wild 2. The passage suggests which of the following about
instincts in the animal. So while dogs have been integrated, the modern dog?
animals such as cows, sheep, and goats have not. · It is the best social companion of all domesticated
animals.
The traits in the wolf that allowed for integration are · Its intelligence is unsurpassed among household
threefold. First, the wolf is a highly social animal, living in animals.
packs, akin to the social networks of humans. In the · It cannot survive outside of a social environment.
absence of this behavior, it would have been difficult for · Its body type always reflects the purpose for which it
the first captive wolf pups to remain in a human was bred.
settlement, constantly surrounded by other creatures. Wild · It perceives humans as superior to itself.
canids such as the jackal and fox are solitary animals and
would not have adapted easily, if at all, to social living. 3. All of the following statements are supported by the
Second, wolves possess a system of social stratification passage EXCEPT:
remarkably similar to that of humans: each member of · Sheep are not part of the social fabric of human life.
the group is aware of its rank in the chain of dominance · It is not possible to domesticate jackals or foxes.
and is loyal to higher-ranking members. Humans exploited · Submissiveness is a desirable trait in domesticated
this innate sensitivity to hierarchy by raising wolf cubs to animals.
be submissive. Third, wolves are highly intelligent · Humans tended to domesticate those animals that
creatures, able to learn tasks quickly. Without this attribute, provided some benefit to them.
the wolf would have been of little use to early man, since · The purpose of early breeds of dog is not known.
it does not provide meat, milk, or wool. The more
intelligent the captive wolf, the more likely humans would
have sought to breed it, resulting in perpetuation of this
inborn intelligence and culminating in the remarkable
cognitive abilities of modern dogs.

The development of different breeds from the wolf appears

to have begun as early as 2000 B.C. in ancient Egypt and
parts of western Asia. The first recorded instances of
physically distinct breeds come from these areas. In Egypt,
dogs resembling modern greyhounds were prevalent,
while in western Asia dogs resembling modern mastiffs
were common. The distinct body types of these breeds
perhaps reflect the different purposes for which they were
bred: greyhounds for chasing swift prey, such as hares,
and mastiffs for grappling with larger prey, such as boars
or antelope. But this is only speculation; the historical
record from this period is too sparse to allow certainty on
the matter.

34
 Passage 33 missionary groups, Masonic lodges, antislavery and
temperance societies, among others — to promote diverse
Concord staked its claim to be the birthplace of projects for the common good. The privileged classes,
Independence during the celebration of “America’s jubilee” particularly the village elite, were remarkably active in
on April 19, 1825, the fiftieth anniversary of Concord Fight. these campaigns. But even as they pulled back from
Concord in 1825 was an expansive town of nineteen customary roles and withdrew into private associations,
hundred inhabitants, thriving with crafts and trade in the they continued to exercise public power.
village and surrounded by farms prospering on demand
from rising urban centers in the long boom that 1. The passage suggests which of the following about
accompanied the opening phase of the Industrial members of the village elite in post-1834 Concord?
Revolution in the Northeast. It also occupied a prominent · Private associations had forced them to relinquish
place on the political landscape; as a shire town, where political power.
the county courts convened, it had risen into a leading · Politically, they were more in favor of religious
center of Middlesex County, and its politicians were major pluralism than were non-elite citizens.
players on that stage. Economic and political ambitions, · They ceased all Sabbath worship once religious
as well as pride in the past, drove the insistence that pluralism became law in Massachusetts.
Concord was the “first site of forcible resistance to British · Many had abandoned the Unitarian and Calvinist
aggression.” churches in favor of non-church activities.
· They utilized their wealth to found a growing number
A decade later, by the mid-1830s, with over two thousand of diverse projects for the common good.
inhabitants, Concord was probably at its political and
economic pinnacle. The central village hosted some nine 2. The primary purpose of this passage is to
stores, forty shops, four hotels and taverns, four doctors · argue that religious and political freedom in Concord
and four lawyers, a variety of county associations, a was beneficial to the city’s economic development
printing office and a post office. Manufacturing was · depict the lifestyle of Concord’s elite citizens during
humming, too, with a growing mill village in the west part the 19th century
of town, along the quick-running Assabet River, and rising · argue that social alienation was necessary for
production of carriages and chaises, boots and shoes, Concord’s economic and political development in the
bricks, guns, bellows, and pencils. 19th century
· define Concord’s place in American history post-
But a good many people were left out of the prosperity. In Independence
what was still a farming town, 64 percent of adult males · describe 19th century Concord’s key economic and
were landless, while the top tenth of taxpayers, some political changes, along with their impact on societal
fifty men, controlled nearly half the wealth. Those who norms
failed to obtain a stake in society, native and newcomer
alike, quickly moved on. The ties that once joined neighbors 3. According to the passage, which of the following is
together were fraying. On the farms, the old work customs true of 18th-century Massachusetts residents?
— the huskings, roof-raisings, and apple bees — by which · Most were landless and ultimately forced to move
people cooperated to complete essential chores gave way on.
to modern capitalist arrangements. When men needed · They numbered over two thousand.
help, they hired it, and paid the going rate, which no longer · They were forced to support local churches.
included the traditional ration of grog. With a new zeal · Some celebrated “America’s Jubilee”.
for temperance, employers abandoned the custom of · They occupied prominent positions in Middlesex County
drinking with workers in what had been a ritual display of courts.
camaraderie. There was no point in pretending to common
bonds.

With the loosening of familiar obligations came

unprecedented opportunities for personal autonomy and
voluntary choice. Massachusetts inaugurated a new era
of religious pluralism in 1834, ending two centuries of
mandatory support for local churches. Even in Concord, a
slim majority approved the change, and as soon as it
became law, townspeople deserted the two existing
churches — the Unitarian flock of the Reverend Ripley
and an orthodox Calvinist congregation started in 1826 —
in droves. The Sabbath no longer brought all ranks and
orders together in obligatory devotion to the Word of God.
Instead, townspeople gathered in an expanding array of
voluntary associations — libraries, lyceums, charitable and

35
 Passage 34 1. The passage suggests that McGinty would be most
likely to agree with which of the following?
Sarah Meyers McGinty, in her useful new book Power Talk: · Language from the center is more effective than
Using Language to Build Authority and Influence, argues language from the edge.
that while the simple lingual act of declaring power does · Managers who use language from the edge are not
not help a powerless person gain influence, well- authoritative.
considered linguistic techniques and maneuvers do. · Powerful people are both authoritative and inclusive.
McGinty does not dispute the importance of factors such · The only way to become powerful is to learn to use
as expertise and ability in determining stature, but argues language from the center.
persuasively that these power determinants amount to · Language from the edge is used primarily by low-
little in a person unable to communicate effectively. level employees.
Management theorists share McGinty’s view that
communication is essential for success and many surveys 2. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the
have shown that the ability to communicate effectively is following?
the characteristic judged by managers to be most critical · Demonstrating the effectiveness of a certain
in determining promotability. framework in the business world
· Explaining the advantages and disadvantages of a
McGinty divides speech into two categories: “language proposed approach to business communication
from the center” and “language from the edge”. In · Analyzing the details of a controversial theory of
McGinty’s words, “Language from the center makes a business
speaker sound like a leader.” McGinty suggests that not · Presenting a new model of business communication
only is language from the center for those in high positions · Defending an outdated method of personnel
of power, but it is also for those of lower ranks who wish management
to gain more power and credibility. A speaker using
language from the center exhibits the following: he directs 3. The passage suggests that which of the following
rather than responds; he makes statements rather than would be an example of someone using language
asks questions; he contradicts, argues, and disagrees; from the center?
he uses his experience persuasively; and he maintains · A low-level employee requesting help on a project
an air of impersonality in the workplace. McGinty suggests beyond his capabilities
that the use of language from the center can alter or · A manager explaining the benefits of a new procedure
create a new balance of power. These assertions are by drawing on the procedure’s success in another
supported by studies that show that people accept setting
leadership from those they perceive to be experts. · A low-level employee believing that he has been
wrongly criticized by his supervisors
Language from the edge stands in stark contrast to · A manager soliciting opinions from his workforce
language from the center. Language from the edge is regarding a proposed change
careful, exploratory, and inquiring. It is inclusive, · A low-level employee refusing to alter his behavior
deferential, and collaborative. A speaker using language despite repeated warnings
from the edge responds rather than directs; asks
questions; strives to make others feel heard and protected; 4. Which of the following best describes the relation of
and avoids argument. The main purpose of language from the fourth paragraph to the passage a whole?
the center is to claim authority for a speaker, while · It summarizes and contextualizes McGinty’s
language from the edge strives to build consensus and argument.
trust. McGinty argues that true power comes from a deep · It questions the usefulness of McGinty’s thesis.
understanding of when to use which style and the ability · It casts doubt on the universality of management
to use both as necessary. theory.
· It supports an alternative view of McGinty’s proposal.
What distinguishes McGinty’s discussion of effective · It offers additional support for McGinty’s conclusions.
communication is her focus on communication skills as a
way of gaining power; this contrasts with most general
management theory, which focuses on communication
skills as a way of preventing misunderstandings, avoiding
conflict, and fostering interpersonal relationships. McGinty,
however, holds that language not only helps maintain
relationships but also lends authority. According to Power
Talk, effective communication skill “is an understanding
of how situation shapes speech and how speech shapes
situation” and “an understanding of how speech styles
and the forces that affect those styles . . . can build your
authority, and enhance your credibility and impact.”

36
 Passage 35 1. According to the passage, which of the following was
a motivation in the creation of the system of value
In recent years much attention has been paid to distilling congruence?
those factors that create a positive work environment for · a desire to minimize the liability of upper management
corporate employees. The goal ultimately is to discover for employee dissatisfaction
what allows some companies to foster high employee · a desire to help companies to improve their internal
morale while other companies struggle with poor harmony
productivity and high managerial turnover. Several · a desire to allow employees to increase their earning
theories have been posited, but none has drawn as much potential
interest from the corporate world, or has as much · a desire to foster awareness of factors influencing
promise, as value congruence, which measures the “fit” managerial success
between an employee’s values and those of co-workers · a desire to eliminate discrepancies between a
and the company itself. company’s goals and the values of its employees

Value congruence can be broken into three main 2. The passage suggests that perceptual fit congruence
subcategories: person-environment (“P-E”), person- would be most useful in determining which of the
person (“P-P”), and perceptual fit (“PF”). Person- following?
environment congruence refers to a harmony between · whether a company ought to make its policies and
the personal values of the employee and corporate culture goals more transparent
of the company in which he or she works. Someone with · whether a company ought to provide sensitivity
a high P-E congruence feels personally in tune with his training for its management
company’s stated policies and goals. Conversely, someone · whether a co mpany o ught to create mo re
with a low P-E congruence feels a sense of disharmony opportunities for interaction among workers
between his own values and the stated policies and goals · whether a company ought to address employee
of his company. A high P-P congruence indicates a sense grievances more directly
of solidarity with one’s co-workers in terms of shared · whether a company ought to implement a more
values and goals. A low P-P congruence indicates a sense elaborate orientation program for new employees
of isolation from co-workers brought about by an absence
of shared values. Finally, strong PF suggests a strong 3. The primary focus of the passage is on which of the
correspondence between the values that an employee following?
perceives his company to have (whether or not the · Comparing a new theory of corporate performance
company actually does) and the values that his co-workers to a discredited theory and predicting the usefulness
perceive the company to have (again, whether or not it of the new theory.
actually does). A weak PF implies that an employee’s · Illustrating a new approach to measuring employee
perception of his company’s values differs significantly satisfaction through a detailed analysis of a particular
from that of his co-workers. case.
· Challenging an old view of employee commitment
Research has shown that P-E and PF congruence are and suggesting that a new paradigm is necessary.
impo rtant meas ures of emplo yee s ati sfactio n, · Promoting a new method of measuring the likelihood
commitment, and likelihood of turnover, while P-P of corporate success by explaining its benefits.
congruence has little bearing on these parameters. · Defending a proposed system of corporate analysis
Moreover, PF is especially important in establishing through examples of its success.
harmonious relations between workers and managers.
These measures give corporations a robust paradigm for
long-term personnel planning and productivity potentials:
they allow companies to discover dysfunctional work
relationships and clarify misperceived company policies
and goals. With these tools in hand, companies can look
forward to increased employee satisfaction and,
ultimately, improved company performance.

37
RC Solutions

Passage 1

1. Apocalypse Now Redux and Apocalypse Now were discussed in the final two
paragraphs. In the third paragraph, Apocalypse Now is described as a film
that was released years after the conflict it portrayed and had a more complex
view of the war. In the last paragraph, Apocalypse Now Redux is presented
as further evidence that the pattern discussed in this passage continues. That
pattern is that war movies presented less glorified and more layered
portrayals when the conflict was further in the past. Thus, the correct answer
will note that its perspective was more complex and morally ambiguous.

(A) This choice distorts the meaning of the passage. While the last paragraph
notes that film audiences are more diverse, this is not connected to the
information provided about Apocalypse Now Redux.
(B) CORRECT. The last paragraph notes that the extra footage was not orginally
included because it might repel audiences. Thus, the updated film's portrayal of war
must be less appealing and more ambiguous than that of the original.
(C) This choice indicates a change in the opposite direction; the last paragraph
indicates that the additional footage made the film's perspective on war harsher as
opposed to more glorified.
(D) The passage indicates that not all war movies had the same tone, and the
answer choice does not specify which "other movies" are referred to; therefore, this
choice is incorrect.
(E) There is no mention of any removed footage in the passage. As it is not possible
to know if any footage was removed, this choice is incorrect.

2. The theme of the passage is that the glories of war were emphasized in films
made during the conflict but questioned in those made years afterward. In the
second paragraph, All Quiet on the Western Front is cited as an example from
the latter category. Therefore, its portrayal of combat would have the least in
common with a film made during a conflict.

(A) In the last paragraph, Jarhead is listed as a film that was made years after
the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can
be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front. Remember
that any information gleaned from seeing the film is outside knowledge. If this
information cannot be deduced from the passage, it cannot be used to answer
a question.
(B) In the third paragraph, Apocalypse Now is listed as a film that was made years
after the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can
be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front.
(C) In the second paragraph, The Bridge on the River Kwai is described as a film
that was made years after the conflict it portrayed and showed the moral confusion
of war. Thus, it can be inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front.
(D) In the third paragraph, Platoon is described as a film that was made years after
the conflict it portrayed and had an ambivalent attitude to its topic. Thus, it can be
inferred that it would resemble All Quiet on the Western Front.
(E) CORRECT. In both the second and third paragraphs, Guadalcanal Diary is
mentioned as a film made in wartime. In the second paragraph, it is listed as an
example of a film that portrayed the “’the ultimate sacrifice’ as a noble and
undoubted good.” In contrast, the first paragraph states that “All Quiet on the
Western Front put forth an anti-war message by displaying the horrors of combat.”
Thus, Guadalcanal Diary must be the portrayal of combat that least resembles that in
All Quiet on the Western Front.

3. The second sentence of the second paragraph reads “After America declared
war against Germany during World War I, the still infant film industry glorified
the fight against “the Hun.” Thus, it must follow that the Germans are referred
to by that name. GMAT inferences generally follow directly from the text of
the passage.

(A) There is no direct evidence in the passage that indicates this meaning for "the
Hun." Furthermore, the use of quotation marks indicates that the reference is not
literal.
(B) There is no direct evidence in the passage that indicates this meaning for "the
Hun."
(C) There is no direct evidence in the passage that indicates this meaning for "the
Hun." The fact that the Hungarians were then part of Austro-Hungary is outside
knowledge which cannot be deduced from the passage.
(D) CORRECT. Since the passage states that America declared war on Germany, it
must follow that the Germans were “the Hun” against whom America was fighting.
(E) There is no direct evidence in the passage that indicates this meaning for "the
Hun." GMAT inferences must follow from the text of the passage.

4. The passage clearly enunciates in the first paragraph that it plans to illustrate
the cyclical pattern of the tone of Hollywood war movies. The second and third
paragraphs trace the pattern's history through the last century, and then the
passage ends by returning to the resilience of that cycle. Thus, the main point
of the passage must reference establishing and describing the recurring
pattern over time.

(A) This choice does not address the cyclical pattern; instead, it suggests a point not
made in the passage.

(B) This is a minor detail mentioned in the last paragraph, not the main point.
Furthermore, this choice ignores the issue of a cyclical pattern.

(C) CORRECT. This choice reiterates the theme that a pattern is durable, despite
the doubts of some during "those days of social change" -- i.e., the late 1960's. This
choice exactly mirrors the structure of the passage, which makes this point, provides
historical evidence, and then reiterates that the pattern continues to endure.

(D) Besides its extreme quality, this choice is incorrect because it distorts the
meaning. The passage's assertion that a more nuanced view of America’s conflicts
emerges in movies made years later cannot automatically be equated with a lack of
support.
(E) This choice presents an irrelevant comparison. The passage is only concerned
with the existence of this pattern and does not address the relative influence of
various individuals.

5. The last paragraph begins by noting that the changes in the industry and
audience have not changed the pattern discussed. The paragraph ends by
stating that this aspect of the film industry, that is, the pattern discussed,
remains intact. The correct answer should reflect this point.

(A) CORRECT. This choice correctly summarizes the point made in the first and last
sentences of the last paragraph: that this pattern continues despite changes in the
industry and audience.

(B) This choice is too extreme. The passage merely says that one pattern of the film
industry has not changed. The last paragraph acknowledges that changes in the
industry have occurred.

(C) This choice is incorrect as the last paragraph explicitly states that the pattern
discussed largely continues.

(D) In the last paragraph, Jarhead and Apocalypse Now Redux are mentioned as
examples proving that the discussed pattern continues. Thus, they cannot be
fundamentally different from other war movies.

(E) The point of the last paragraph is that the pattern of the last century continues.
Thus, it cannot make the point that war movies have changed in response to
changes in the audience.

6. In the second paragraph, The Bridge on the River Kwai is mentioned as a

post-WWII example of the continuing pattern of war movies becoming more
ambivalent years after the conflict. The phrases “once again” and “for example”
highlight this. In the third paragraph, the movie is again mentioned as an example of
a more complex view of war. Thus, the correct answer must follow from these points.

(A) This is incorrect; the author does not discuss the quality of the movie or the merit
of any awards.

(B) The passage does not compare the intelligence or crafting of these, or any, films;
it merely discusses their tone and approach to the depiction of war. A movie could
present a glorified depiction of war and also be very intelligent and well-crafted.

(C) This is incorrect. The passage indicates that there were movies with ambivalent
perspectives produced after the first war, citing All Quiet on the Western Front as an
example. Furthermore, the phrase “once again” indicates that it was not the first to
have such a tone.

(D) CORRECT. The third paragraph states that Guadalcanal Diary was much closer
in tone to The Green Berets and contrasts those two to The Bridge on the River
Kwai. This contrast is in terms of the greater ambivalence and moral confusion
shown in The Bridge on the River Kwai.

(E) The passage does not mention the financial success, or lack thereof, of any of
the movies it discusses.

Passage 2

1.
The correct answer to this question will be a claim that must follow from text
contained in the passage. This question does not provide any clues as to where the
justifying text will be found.
(A) The first paragraph mentions that the the Javan rhino is the most endangered
species of large mammal. However, it does not have to be true that it is one of the
most endangered animals, a category that is far broader than mammals.

(B) CORRECT. The first paragraph states that very little is known about the life of
the Javan rhino. The passage does indicate, however, that scientists have been able
to extract information on the species’ DNA from gathered dung. The paragraph also
suggests that very little information about female Javan rhinos has been gained,
given that scientists only recently discovered whether or not females of the species
even have horns. Thus, one can infer that more is known about the genetics of the
Javan rhino than its mating patterns.
(C) The second paragraph indicates that hunters slaughtered many rhinos, but it
does not mention where. Furthermore, it does not have to be true that more rhinos
were killed in Vietnam simply because fewer rhinos remain there.
(D) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino; therefore, a generalization about
the extinction of "most animals" is not supported by the passage.
(E) The passage does not mention other survival factors for a species or rank them;
therefore, this inference is not supported by the passage.

2.
In the second paragraph, after citing human actions as the cause of the Javan
rhino’s plight, the author goes on to mention that the population in Vietnam is
probably not viable and that human efforts in Indonesia, such as the protection of the
rhino on the Ujung Kulun peninsula, have had mixed results. The passage ends with
the thought that human benevolence is not helping the rhinos much more than past
maltreatment. Thus, the correct answer will note the problems with current human
efforts.

(A) The author is certainly not optimistic, as the passage mentions that in Vietnam
the outlook is doubtful and in Indonesia, problems plague the effort. It is possible,
although not certain, that the author considers the effort worthwhile.
(B) The author gives no indication that he or she believes the effort is pointless.
Furthermore, especially in Indonesia, the passage does not indicate a certainty that it
will fail.
(C) The passage does not at all discuss the profitability of the effort. It is possible,
although not certain, that the author considers the effort idealistic.
(D) CORRECT. The discussion of the mixed results and poor prognosis for the
population in Vietnam justifies “problematic.” The last sentence of the passage,
observing that benevolence has proved little better than maltreatment justifies
“ironic.” Also, the author references the ironic quality of human protection of the
Javan rhino in the 8th sentence in the 2nd paragraph, “Ironically, however, the lack
of human disturbance allows mature forests to replace the shrubby vegetation the
animals prefer.”
(E) The passage indicates that the efforts have been much less than entirely
successful but does not indicate any confusion related to the current efforts. It is
possible for efforts to be less than fully successful without being confused.
Furthermore, it does not at all address the idea that any particular heroism is
involved.

3.
The author mentions the number of horns in the first paragraph in the course of
describing the Javan rhino. The correct answer must follow from this text.

(A) Although the Javan rhino is described as rare, the discussion of extinction is in
the second paragraph,. Furthermore, the vitality of the African rhino is not
mentioned.
(B) The passage contrasts the number of horns of the Javan rhino to that of the
African and Sumatran rhinos. However, the author makes a parallel comparison to
the Indian rhino because both species have one horn.
(C) The passage only discusses the Javan rhino’s evolution into a separate
subspecies in the second paragraph in a completely different context,; no direct link
is drawn between this evolution and the Javan rhino’s single horn.
(D) CORRECT. The author mentions the Javan rhino’s single horn in conjunction
with a general description of the Javan rhino. The passage then goes on to discuss
its habitat and the scientific knowledge to date. Thus, the author included this detail
to add depth to his or her description.
(E) The passage only states that until recently scientists were unsure if females had
horns, and no definitive answer is given. Furthermore, this point is mentioned in a
different context, after the passage has finished describing the Javan rhino.

4.
The first paragraph describes the Javan rhino and indicates how little is known about
it. This should be reflected in the answer. It is the second paragraph that relates the
effects of human activity on the rhinos and their chances for survival.

(A) This choice is too broad, as the paragraph focuses on the Javan rhino and only
mentions its differences from some other rhinos to distinguish the species from
others.

(B) This answer choice describes the topic of the second paragraph, not the first.

(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph provides the known facts about the Javan rhino
and indicates that much remains unknown.
(D) The steps taken to save the Javan rhino are only mentioned in the second
paragraph; they do not appear in the first paragraph.

(E) The first paragraph only indicates the respective number of rhinos in Indonesia
and Vietnam in passing, and does not mention the differences between the two
groups. The fact that the two have evolved into separate sub-species is mentioned
only in the second paragraph.

5.
The passage mentions the Ujung Kulon peninsula in the second paragraph.
Immediately before that, the passage states that Indonesian Javan rhinos cannot
supplement those in because they have evolved into separate sub-species. The
correct answer choice will rely upon this fact.

(A) CORRECT. This choice rephrases the information in the second paragraph
which states that the Indonesian Javan rhinos have evolved into a separate sub-
species.

(B) The passage does not mention the aquatic abilities of the Javan rhino nor can it
be assumed that they would have to get there without human assistance.

(C) The passage does not discuss the funds available in either country; therefore this
choice is incorrect.

(D) The passage does not mention the difficulty involved in capturing a rhino;
therefore this choice is incorrect.

(E) The passage does not mention terrorist activity at all; therefore, this choice is
incorrect.

6.
In the second paragraph, the passage states that the “near extinction of the Javan
rhino is the direct result of human actions.” The correct answer must be justified by
that statement.

(A) Rhino deaths at the hands of farmers are mentioned as a detail and as just one
of the human actions responsible. It does not single farmers out as the primary
cause of the Javan rhino’s near extinction.

(B) The passage mentions the separation of from the mainland to explain why the
Javan rhino population in Vietnam cannot be supplemented by rhinos from Ujung
Kulon. It is not discussed as a reason for the near extinction of the Javan rhino.

(C) Rhino deaths at the hands of hunters are mentioned as a detail and as just one
of the human actions responsible. It does not single hunters out as the primary
cause of the Javan rhino’s near extinction.
(D) The passage does not say that current human efforts are at all responsible for
the near extinction of the Javan rhino. Instead, it indicates that current benevolent
human efforts may not prove sufficient to save them.

(E) CORRECT. The beginning of the second paragraph clearly states that human
actions, taken as a whole, have directly caused the near extinction of the Javan
rhino.

Passage 3
1.
The best way to answer a question that asks for information NOT indicated in the
passage is to quickly skim through the passage and eliminate any answer choice
that IS indicated in the passage.

(A) CORRECT. The passage states several times that Mexico’s population growth is
diminishing due to the country’s declining birth rate. However, the passage never
suggests that Mexico’s population itself is diminishing.

(B) The third paragraph states that, on average, a Mexican woman had just fewer
than seven children in 1968. Today the average number of children born to a
Mexican woman is slightly more than two, or approximately one-third of the 1968
figure.

(C) The first paragraph states that U.S. employers are still counting on a steady flow
of labor from Mexico. To reinforce this contention, the final sentence of the first
paragraph says this flow might “one day” diminish, indicating that at present it is
continuing.

(D) The final paragraph states that Mexico’s population is aging. This aging of the
population naturally results from the declining number of babies born in Mexico. As
fewer babies are born, the average age of the population gradually increases.

(E) The third and final paragraphs indicate that a healthy middle class in Mexico is a
hope and a goal but that it is far from a foregone conclusion.

2.
The correct answer to an inference question must be directly supported by evidence
from the text. The passage states that U.S. employers of Mexican immigrants often
provide low-skilled, low-paying jobs to individuals who "are often more than willing to
work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line."

(A) No information is provided concerning the amount of money paid to American

citizens. It is possible that there are many Americans who also work for wages well
below both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line.
(B) CORRECT. If some of these immigrant workers are accepting wages “well below
the U.S. minimum wage,” their American employers must be violating wage laws (i.e.
paying wages below what the U.S. minimum wage requires).
(C) Nothing in the passage suggests the particular industry of these employers. This
answer is outside the scope of the argument, and assumes knowledge from sources
other than the passage.

(D) The passage does not suggest that, without labor from Mexico, these employers
will be forced to close. This answer is both too predictive and outside the scope of
the argument.

(E) The passage suggests nothing about how these employers either regard or treat
their workers. Moreover, indication that these employers show “no concern” is too
extreme to be inferred from the passage.

3.
A keen understanding of the main idea of the passage, in combination with a well
developed sketch of the passage to help you quickly access the pertinent
information, will help you to accurately eliminate incorrect answer choices.

(A) In both the first and fourth paragraphs the author indicates that the supply of
Mexican labor to the United States might diminish over time if certain conditions in
Mexico continue to change. The author does not believe this to be a foregone
conclusion. Moreover, the author never hints that this hypothetical labor vacuum will
have to be filled by other immigrant groups.

(B) The author speaks only of Mexico and its challenges. It is beyond the scope of
the passage to assume what the author might believe, in general, about countries
with large populations. Additionally, the passage never quantifies the definition of a
“large population.”

(C) In the first paragraph, the author says Mexican immigrants are “more than willing
to work for wages well below both the U.S. minimum wage and the poverty line.”
Thus, the workers themselves seem not to feel taken advantage of.

(D) Similar to answer choice B, this answer choice asks about the author’s attitude
toward countries other than Mexico. The passage, however, discusses only Mexico
and its policies and challenges.

(E) CORRECT. In the final paragraph, the author indicates that "the growth of a
healthy middle class is far from a foregone conclusion. The critical challenge for
Mexico is what it does with the next 20 years.” Then, the author indicates the steps
that Mexico must take. Thus, the author obviously believes that Mexico does not
currently have the infrastructure to develop a healthy middle class. The key, for the
author, is whether Mexico is willing and able to build this infrastructure.

4.
The final paragraph primarily explains why the development of a healthy middle
class, an important factor in limiting the desire of many Mexicans to migrate to the
United States, is not a foregone conclusion.

(A) The final paragraph actually explains why a dramatic reduction of Mexican
immigration to the United States is still an uncertainty.
(B) Mexico’s family planning campaign was not mentioned in the final paragraph.

(C) CORRECT. The final paragraph explains that Mexico must take specific actions
to foster the development of a healthy middle class. Without a healthy middle class,
the author believes that large numbers of Mexicans will continue to seek work in the
United States.

(D) Though the author does mention that Mexico must invest in infrastructure, no
mention is made of the types of infrastructure this investment should benefit.

(E) Though the final paragraph reinforces that Mexican immigration to the United
States and thus Mexican labor might one day dramatically decline, this answer
choice goes too far by stating that this "will" definitely happen. Further, is too great a
leap to assume that the purpose of the paragraph is to explicitly put American
employers on notice. Nothing in the paragraph, or the passage, suggests this
intention.

Passage 4

1.
"Except" questions require us to test the five answer choices to determine the "odd
one out." It is beneficial to use the True / False technique: label each answer choice
with a T or an F and look for the odd one out (which, in this case, we should expect
to be an F).

(A) True. The third sentence of the second paragraph characterizes changing
weather patterns due to global warming as a subtle effect of human activities.

(B) True. The first two sentences of the second paragraph classify both toads and
frogs as amphibians. Later in the second paragraph, the passage explains that
amphibians have permeable skin.

(C) True. The third sentence of the second paragraph states explicitly that scientists
“hypothesize” that human activity is responsible for the global decline of amphibious
populations. Since a hypothesis is an educated guess rather than a fact, it is true
that human activity may not be responsible for the decline.

(D) True. The second sentence of the first paragraph states that money was raised
in the United States to establish the Monteverde Cloud Forest Preserve.

(E) CORRECT. False. The passage offers no information about the number of
salamander species in Costa Rica that have disappeared since the late 1980s. We
cannot assume that this omission indicates a lesser number than either toad or frog
species.

2.
The correct answer to an inference question on the GMAT must be supported by
evidence from the text without need for external information.
(A) The passage states that twenty of the fifty species of frogs and toads known to
once inhabit a 30-square-kilometer area near Monteverde have disappeared.
Nothing is implied about the areas of Costa Rica farther from Monteverde.

(B) CORRECT. The passage suggests that amphibians are able to offer humans
early notification of the deterioration of the environment because of the amphibians’
permeable skin. Thus, permeable skin must be a characteristic that humans do not
possess.

(C) No causal relationship between the build-up of pollutants in the atmosphere and
a decrease in atmospheric ozone is suggested in the passage.

(D) The author states that humans would be wise to heed the warning offered by the
decline of amphibious populations, but nothing suggests that humans normally do
not take signals of environmental deterioration seriously.

(E) The passage does not compare Costa Rica’s environmental problems to those of
other countries.

3.
In the second paragraph, the author mentions “the more subtle effects of human
activity on the world's ecosystems,” and then lists three of these effects: the build-up
of pollutants, the decrease in atmospheric ozone, and changing weather patterns
due to global warming, all of which, scientists hypothesize, “are beginning to take
their toll.” The key to answering this question correctly is to recognize, in context,
what these effects have in common.

(A) Nowhere does the passage suggest or imply that these changes are not easily
recognized by sophisticated testing equipment.

(B) CORRECT. All of these effects happen on a global scale, so their immediate
consequences on specific ecosystems are difficult to recognize. Furthermore, the
passage states these effects are “beginning to take their toll,” indicating that the
effects happen over time.

(C) Scientists hypothesize that these effects do affect amphibians, but nothing in the
passage indicates that only small animal species such as amphibians are affected.
In fact, the final sentence of the passage indicates that humans too might be affected
by these environmental changes.

(D) The passage states that scientists hypothesize about the consequences of these
subtle effects; this indicates that scientists do in fact discuss these effects.

(E) The passage indicates that the consequences of these effects are global,
causing disruptions in amphibious populations “the world over.”

4.
This question is really just a disguised inference question. The correct answer to an
inference question must be directly supported by evidence from the text.
(A) CORRECT. The first sentence of the passage states that the beauty of Costa
Rica’s golden toad was one factor that generated interest from a public normally
unconcerned with amphibians. Thus, many amphibians must not be considered
beautiful.

(B) The passage indicates that habitat preservation in isolation - no matter the size of
the habitat - was not enough to save the golden toad. Instead, scientists theorize that
broader ecological issues are harming the world’s amphibious populations.

(C) The second paragraph tells us that amphibian populations have been declining
around the world.

(D) This is a misinterpretation of the analogy used in the second paragraph. The
author is implying that amphibians may provide humans an early warning for
detrimental changes to the environment, just as canaries provide humans an
indication of detrimental conditions in coal mines.

(E) The final sentence of the passage indicates that humans would be wise to
recognize the potential environmental deterioration signified by declining amphibious
population, but it is too extreme to infer that no humans consider this decline a threat
to humans. In fact, the author of the passage seems to consider it a threat!

5.
The first paragraph of the passage discusses a specific case in which a particular
amphibian mysteriously disappeared from its habitat and suggests that humans may
have been in some way responsible for its demise. The second paragraph explains
that declining amphibious populations are actually a global trend and hypothesizes
that a variety of human activities are harming these environmentally sensitive
animals.

(A) The example of the golden toad is too narrow and specific to be the primary
purpose of the passage. Instead, the golden toad is used as an example of a much
larger trend.

(B) Though this answer choice is on the right track, it is too extreme to say that
human activity is “undoubtedly” to blame for the global decline of amphibian
populations. Instead the passage indicates that scientists “hypothesize” that human
activity is responsible.

(C) An attempt to convince humans to minimize the output of pollutants is never

mentioned in the passage.

(D) CORRECT. The passage discusses the mysterious disappearance of

amphibious populations worldwide and hypothesizes that subtle effects on
ecosystems resulting from human activity may be responsible for these
disappearances.

(E) The final sentence of the passage does urge humans to pay attention to
declining amphibian populations, but this is not the primary purpose of the passage.
Moreover, the passage specifically discusses amphibians, while this answer choice
broadly mentions “important environmental changes” rather than focusing on
amphibians.

Passage 5

1.
The first paragraph of the passage introduces the reasons that the Egyptian
government undertook to build the Aswan Dam and also lists the main benefits of the
completed dam. The second paragraph begins with an example of a positive result,
but then offers a significant and unexpected negative consequence. It ends by
stating that "it is difficult to draw... conclusions" when there are strong positive and
negative effects, "but it would be untenable" to say that the dam shouldn't have been
built. The first half of this last sentence indicates the author's acknowledgment that
this is a complex topic without any one right opinion or answer. The second half,
though, states that the author disagrees with those who believe the dam should not
have been built.

(A) The answer is too extreme; the author discusses only one example in the
passage and does not make any sweeping conclusions. He does not imply that
anything that achieves its goals should be carried out.

(B) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of scope.
The author does not discuss what planners should or should not expect anywhere in
the passage.

(C) CORRECT. The passage essentially states that, despite mixed consequences,
we cannot defend the position that the dam should not have been built, as the last
sentence indicates that "it would be untenable to assert that the Egyptian
government should never have built the Aswan Dam." This mirrors the idea that
"unpredictable" or mixed results do not necessarily lead to "condemning the entire
endeavor."

(D) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of scope.
Nowhere in the passage does the author discuss what actions should be taken
before starting sizable projects.

(E) Although this may be a reasonable stance in the real world, it is out of scope.
The author does not discuss what criteria to use in order to decide whether to
denounce a project. In fact, the author states that it is "difficult to draw definite
conclusions" even though the positive and negative outcomes are known in this
circumstance.

2.
The passage is fairly balanced but turns positive at the end. The author first states
the intended positive consequences and acknowledges the unintended negative
effects of the dam before stating, in the last sentence, that the dam was ultimately
successful. The author concludes this last sentence by giving the opinion (very
mildly stated) that the dam should have been built.
(A) While the author does show mild support for the project, there is no sign of
inconsistency in the author's support. The author does not switch viewpoints
regarding the merits of the Aswan Dam, even while weighing the pros and cons.
(B) While most of the passage maintains a fairly neutral tone, the final sentence
states the author's opinion that the dam should have been built. This undermines a
position of "strict" neutrality.
(C) While the author does ultimately show support for the project, it is very mild.
"Keen enthusiasm" is much too optimistic a phrase to describe this passage.
(D) CORRECT. The author examines both sides of the issue before asserting that
the dam should have been built; this reflects a mild endorsement.
(E) Though the author mentions some negative effects of the dam, he ultimately
concludes it should have been built; this cannot be categorized as "opposition" to the
project.

3.
Inference questions require us to draw a conclusion based only upon the information
presented in the passage.

(A) The passage states that "before the dam” was built, blocking the flow of silt, “the
Nile floodplain was famously productive." However, this choice goes too far by
stating that crops “cannot” grow without silt. In fact, the passage indicates that
farmers still grow crops on the land, despite the lack of silt in the soil.

(B) While it is reasonable to suppose that some farmers feel this way, the passage
does not provide any information about the farmers' approval or disapproval of the
dam.

(C) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the passage states "before the dam, the
Nile floodplain was famously productive" and goes on to say that farmers now have
to use artificial fertilizers. This implies that the land is not as fertile as it was before
the dam was built.

(D) This idea was presented in paragraph one as a reason for the government to
build the dam, but the rest of the passage does not address whether the government
succeeded in this goal.

(E) This choice contradicts the last sentence of the passage, in which the author
disagrees with those who think the dam should not have been built.

4.
The question asks for the significance of the author’s statement about the quantity of
electricity produced by the dam, not just for the significance of the fact that the dam
generated electricity at all. The correct answer will have something to do with the
author's desire to highlight the magnitude of this particular benefit of the dam.

(A) The passage does not comment on Egypt's other electricity needs (and, in fact,
the passage tells us that the dam provided only half of the country's output, so Egypt
did have other sources of electricity).
(B) CORRECT. The author quantified the output in order to demonstrate the
magnitude of this particular benefit.

(C) Although the author concludes the passage by mildly indicating that the positive
effects outweighed the negative, the only positive effect he mentions there is the lack
of flooding. Moreover, he does not argue that any one effect of the dam is more
“important” than any other effect.

(D) The passage did not provide or imply any expectations for the magnitude of the
electricity output.

(E) The sentence in question does not mention anything about negative effects, nor
does it contrast the positive and negative effects. Although the second paragraph as
a whole might be considered a contrast of the positive and negative effects of the
dam, the author would not need to quantify the electricity output in order to make
such a contrast.

5.
In the first paragraph, the passage introduces a problem (flooding) and a solution
(the Aswan Dam). In the second, the passage notes that the dam had both the
intended positive effects and some unexpected negative consequences. The author
concludes by noting that, despite the negative effects, the dam did accomplish its
primary intended goal; the author also explicitly rejects the idea that the dam should
not have been built.

(A) CORRECT. The passage discusses the "varied effects" (positive and negative
consequences) that resulted from a plan that generally succeeded.

(B) The conclusion of the passage supports the idea that the author thinks the
advantages outweighed the disadvantages, not vice versa. In addition, the adverb
"usually" raises a red flag; the author presents only one example and makes no
attempt to draw a universal conclusion.

(C) This choice contradicts the last sentence of the passage ("it would be
untenable..."); the author does not agree with those who think the dam should not
have been built.

(D) The passage discussed a problem (flooding), a solution (the Aswan Dam), and
some positive and negative effects of the project. The passage did not focus on the
implementation of the project, i.e., the construction of the dam.

(E) The main idea encompasses both positive and negative effects, not just the
negative ones. In addition, the author makes no comment or claim about poor
planning.

6.
Specific detail EXCEPT questions require us to search the passage for four details
which are mentioned in the passage; the fifth is not mentioned and is, therefore, the
right answer. One helpful technique is to label each answer choice with a T (for
"true") if you find it in the passage and an F (for "false") if you cannot.

(A) True. The last sentence of the first paragraph says the dam will "supply a steady
source of water for residents and agricultural activities."

(B) True. The first sentence of the second paragraph says "the dam provided
approximately half of Egypt's entire electricity output."

(C) True. The second sentence of the first paragraph says that the dam would
"enable the country's economic development to be on a par with that of Western
nations," and it is clear from the passage that the actual completion of the dam
served to move Egypt toward this goal.

(D) True. The last sentence of the first paragraph says the dam "would prevent the
annual flooding" and the last sentence of the second paragraph confirms that the
dam succeeded in this goal.

(E) CORRECT. False. In fact, the opposite is true; the dam led farmers to use
fertilizers which caused pollution and harmed the animal and plant life in the area.

Passage 7

1.
This question asks which is most analogous to the process through which an LCD
display presents different colors. The fifth and sixth sentences of the second
paragraph read, “LCDs that are capable of producing color images, such as in
televisions and computers, reproduce colors through a process of subtraction,
blocking out particular color wavelengths from the spectrum of white light until only
the desired color remains. It is the variation of the intensity of light permitted to pass
through the matrix of liquid crystals that enables LCD displays to present images full
of gradations of different colors.”

This process of subtraction consists of taking a large number of elements, in this

case wavelengths of light, and carefully blocking out certain of them while allowing
only certain others to get through. We should look for an answer that mirrors this
precise process of subtraction.

(A) This answer choice describes a process that does not result in only certain
elements passing through. Each grain of sand is equally capable of falling through
the hourglass; in fact, all of it will eventually pass through, although it will happen at a
slower rate than it might because it the opening is partially blocked.

(B) A series of filters that separate out all of the elements of a mixture is not
analogous to filtering out only certain elements and letting others "pass through" to
together create the end result.

(C) A soundproofed recording studio blcoks all sound, not only certain elements of it.
Hence, this is very different from the process described regarding an LCD display.
(D) CORRECT. A piece of construction paper with outlines of characters cut out
would allow certain spaces of light to pass while blocking others, resulting in a
refined mixture that has a certain meaning (e.g. the word, “Apple”). This is closely
analogous to the process of subtraction through which LCD displays different colors.

(E) An air vent that expels warm air does not carefully select remaining elements,
and all of the elements that pass through are indistinguishable from each other.

2.
The third and fourth sentences of the second paragraph of the passage indicate that,
in LCD displays, electricity is used to untwist liquid crystals in order to filter white light
from a lamp. Also the second sentence of the third paragraph reads that “the amount
of power required to untwist the crystals to display images, even dark ones, is much
lower than that required for analogous processes . . . “ As a result, it can be inferred
that LCDs require more electricity to produce dark images as opposed to lighter
images. The correct answer choice will involve a set of images that have a high
degree of darkness, and thus a high level of electricity use.

(A) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to display
computer-generated special effects than any other images, or that these special
effects are dark images.

(B) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to display
video game graphics than any other images, or that these graphics are dark images.

(C) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to display
video game graphics than any other images; further, a "bright" image cannot also be
dark.

(D) There is no indication in the passage that LCDs require more electricity to display
photorealistic images than any other images, or that these images are dark images.

(E) CORRECT. A filmed scene set inside a cave with minimal lighting would certainly
be classified as a dark image, which we can infer will use more electricity than a
lighter image.

3.
This is a specific question that asks us which answer choice is not indicated in the
passage as an advantage of LCD displays relative to other display technologies. In
order to answer this question, one must examine each answer choice and determine
if it is mentioned in the passage.

(A) The second sentence of the third paragraph reads, “The amount of power
required to untwist the crystals to display images, even dark ones, is much lower
than that required for analogous processes using other technologies, such as
plasma.” The passage indicates that LCD displays consume less power than other
display technologies.
(B) The fourth sentence of the third paragraph reads, “Moreover, the number of
pixels per square inch on an LCD display is typically higher than that for other
display technologies, so LCD monitors are particularly good at displaying large
amounts of data with exceptional clarity and precision.” The passage indicates that
LCD displays generally have more pixels per square inch.

(C) The third sentence of the third paragraph reads, “The dense array of crystals
displays images from computer or other video graphics sources extremely well, with
full color detail, no flicker, and no screen burn-in.” The passage indicates that LCD
displays can present video graphics images with no flicker or interruption.

(D) The second sentence of the first paragraph reads, “The dominant technology
currently used in most consumer product displays is the active matrix liquid crystal
diode display (LCD).” The passage indicates that the technology is a widely adopted
standard, which would logically have certain advantages (e.g. the technology has
been widely tested and is known to work).

(E) CORRECT. While the passage indicates that LCDs are the result of rapid
technological progress in the past decade and the dominant technology currently
used, the passage does not indicate that LCDs are the most advanced technology.
There may be a more cutting edge technology (e.g. LEDs, or Light Emitting Diodes)
available for certain applications. Also, the passage does not cite any specific
functional advantage to being the latest and most advanced.

4.
This is a general question that asks about the tone of the passage. In order to
answer this question, it is useful to briefly examine and summarize the respective
paragraphs.

Paragraph 1: LCDs have become the dominant display technology in the past
decade.
Paragraph 2: LCDs function by channeling electricity to untwist crystals to block light
in order to form colors.
Paragraph 3: LCDs present advantages relative to other display technologies,
particularly for certain uses.

The correct answer will effectively identify the tone adopted in these paragraphs.

(A) It is too strong to categorize the author's tone as "advocacy," as the first two
paragraphs are purely explanatory. The third paragraph, though listing advantages of
LCD displays, does not advocate their use.

(B) Although the first paragraph does mention the time frame and context of the
development of LCD displays, neither the second nor third paragraph could be
classified as part of a historical discussion, and no contrast is drawn. Thus, it would
be inaccurate to characterize the tone of the passage as that of a historical
discussion.

(C) CORRECT. The passage objectively explains the background, functioning, and
advantages of LCD displays.
(D) The passage does not indicate any questioning, skepticism, or exploration in its
text, and is more technical than intellectual in tone.

(E) Although one could argue that the passage implicitly approves of the
development of this new technology, the passage does not advocate for a particular
point of view, and there is no evidence of any qualification in its explanation of the
functioning and advantages of LCD displays.

Passage 8

1.
The passage states the following about the astronauts' arm movements: "While the
astronauts did not adapt to the conditions in space for some time, by day 15 of the
experiment, the amplitude of the premature arm movements decreased and a new
well-timed arm movement immediately preceded the catch." The question asks for
an inference about what was occurring BEFORE day 15, during the period when the
astronauts were having trouble adjusting to the conditions in space. This inference
should be provable from the passage.

(A) The passage does not discuss the height of the astronauts arm movements.
While the passage mentions the amplitude, or abundance, of the premature arm
movements, it never mentions the altitude, or height, of those movements.

(B) The astronauts arm movements tended to be premature, or too early, during the
first two weeks of the experiment. This is the exact opposite of the inference in this
answer choice – that the astronauts adjusted their arms at the latest possible time.

(C) Little can be inferred about the relative number of arm movements made by the
astronauts in attempting to catch the ball. If anything, the fact that the astronauts
tended to move their arms prematurely might suggest that they made a greater
number of arm movements than they would have on earth.

(D) The passage mentions that by day 15 "a new well-timed arm movement
immediately preceded the catch." One might infer that this new arm movement was
absent during the previous two weeks. However, this does not mean that the
astronauts' arms were stationary for a full two seconds immediately preceding the
catch. No mention of specific time frames is ever made or hinted to in the passage.

(E) CORRECT. The astronauts moved their arms prematurely during the first two
weeks of the experiment. This means that they adjusted their arms sooner than was
necessary to catch the ball.

2.
The question asks for some information that would support the theory that the brain
has built-in knowledge of gravity. The correct answer choice must demonstrate that
gravity is not a principle that individuals learn about exclusively through observation
and experience, but instead that they are born with some instinctual understanding
of downward acceleration.
(A) An individual's hand-eye coordination generally requires some understanding of
gravity. For example, one's ability to see a thrown ball and then catch it is, at least in
some measure, dependent on the individual's understanding that gravity will be
pulling the ball downward. However, the fact that this coordination tends to diminish
as one gets older suggests nothing as to whether the brain has built-in knowledge of
gravity.

(B) CORRECT. The fact that infants placed above the ground fear falling without
ever having experienced it before strongly suggests that their brains are hard-wired
with some knowledge of gravity. If the infants did not understand the tendency of
objects, including themselves, to accelerate down toward the earth, they would have
no reason to become fearful when placed on a glass tabletop.

(C) The disorientation that astronauts experience after departing earth for space may
in some way be impacted by the difference between gravitational conditions on earth
and in space. However, this has no bearing on whether the brain has built-in
knowledge of gravity or not.

(D) The fact that most young children can learn to catch a ball suggests only that
they can learn to anticipate the effect of gravitational forces on a ball. It suggests
nothing about whether these children understand these forces a priori.

(E) The fact that this is counter-intuitive to most individuals, far from supporting the
notion that the brain has built-in knowledge of gravity, actually suggests that people
don't fully understand how gravity truly works.

3.
The first paragraph of the passage states that the ball-catching space experiment
suggests that “the brain can adapt to environments in which the force of downward
acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth.” Since the passage compares
conditions in space to conditions on earth, the “environment” referred to here must
be that in space. Thus, while gravity exists in space, it is less pronounced than on
earth.

(A) The passage implies that gravity is “less pronounced” in space, not that it does
not exist at all.

(B) According to the passage, the “astronauts’ anticipation of the ball’s motion was
slightly off.” The fact that the anticipation was “slightly” off, as opposed to completely
off, implies that, contrary to this answer choice, humans do experience some, albeit
less, gravity in space than they do on earth.

(C) CORRECT. The opening paragraph uses the phrase “less pronounced” to
describe the difference in gravitational conditions in space and on earth. Moreover,
the passage states that astronauts had “premature arm movements” when
attempting to catch balls in space, implying to researchers that the astronauts were
faced with a weaker downward acceleration in space than they had anticipated
based on their brains' earth-centric wiring.
(D) No text in the passage implies that the force of gravity is the same on earth as in
space. On the contrary, the entire experiment provides evidence that contradicts this
assertion.

(E) The passage does not mention any weightless sensation experienced by
humans in space.

4.
The last paragraph comments on the potential “practical benefits” of the research
experiment described earlier in the passage. In so doing, it presents the broad
implications of the ball-catching space experiment which is explained with careful
detail in earlier paragraphs.

(A) The last paragraph does not provide any alternate point of view to McIntyre’s
analysis of the ball-catching experiment.

(B) Although the final paragraph builds on the main points of the previous
paragraphs, it does not summarize them in any way. The earlier paragraphs provide
a description and analysis of the ball-catching experiment. In contrast, the final
paragraph comments on the practical implications of the experiment.

(C) There is no ambiguous issue raised in the second paragraph.

(D) CORRECT. The earlier paragraphs of the passage have a narrow focus in that
they are chiefly concerned with a specific description and interpretation of the ball-
catching experiment. The final paragraph opens up this focus by commenting on the
broader implications of the experiment, such as the practical benefits this new
understanding might have on safe space travel and on potential treatment for certain
coordination problems.

(E) No specific researchers are mentioned in the final paragraph. Moreover, although
the final paragraph comments on potential areas for further research, no challenge is
explicitly presented to scientists.

5.
The first paragraph of the passage presents two conclusions drawn from the ball-
catching experiment: (1) "the brain contains an internal model of gravity that is both
powerful and persistent and (2) "the brain can adapt" to environments where gravity
is less pronounced than it is on earth. The second paragraph describes the
experiment in-depth and demonstrates how scientists arrived at the first conclusion.
The third paragraph demonstrates how scientists came to the second conclusion.
The fourth and final paragraph identifies some practical benefits that the experiment
might have. The correct answer choice must relate to most of the four paragraphs
and, since this is a long passage, it must be closely tied to the all-important first
paragraph.
(A) CORRECT. This choice directly relates to the first paragraph, which presents the
experiment's conclusions, and to the second and third paragraphs, which describe
the experiment in-depth.

(B) The practical applications of the experiment are described only in the fourth
paragraph of the passage. This does not represent the primary purpose of the
passage.

(C) The passage does not mention any misunderstanding about how the brain
functions. Instead, it presents new insight about the brain's internal workings.

(D) While gravity is mentioned in the passage, there is no description of how gravity
works. Moreover, the passage is focused on responses to different gravitational
forces, not on gravity itself.

(E) The passage describes only one experiment in space; as such, it never alludes
to space experiments in general. Additionally, while the passage implies that the ball-
catching experiment was beneficial, it never explicitly outlines the benefits of
conducting experiments in space.

6.
The passage describes certain explicit features of the brain's built-in understanding
of gravity. The correct answer choice must be directly provable using the specific
language contained in the passage.

(A) The brain's built in-understanding of gravity is, according to the passage, "hard-
wired from an earth-centric perspective," not a space-centric one.

(B) CORRECT. One of the major outcomes of the experiment described in the
passage is that "the brain can adapt to environments in which the force of downward
acceleration is less pronounced than it is on earth."

(C) According to the passage, the neuroscientists concluded that "the brain contains
an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent." To describe the
brain's understanding of gravity as "fleeting" directly contradicts the word
"persistent."

(D) According to the passage, the neuroscientists concluded that "the brain contains
an internal model of gravity that is both powerful and persistent." To describe the
brain's understanding of gravity as "weak" directly contradicts the word "powerful."

(E) The passage never describes the brain's built-in understanding of gravity as
"evolving." While scientists' understanding of the brain's hard-wiring may evolve,
there is nothing in the passage that suggests that the hard-wiring itself is evolving.

Passage 9

1.
This is a specific question that can be answered by examining the information given
in the second paragraph.

(A) According the second paragraph, “high levels of alpha-synuclein disrupt the flow
of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum…to the Golgi apparatus,” not low levels
of dopamine.

(B) While a missing or malfunctioning gene may explain why levels of alpha-
synuclein have risen to toxic levels in the cell, it does not explain why these high
levels cause the cell to die.

(C) The effectiveness or ineffectiveness of drug therapy in yeast cells does not
explain why high levels of alpha-synuclein would kill the cell. Furthermore, the fourth
paragraph suggests that drug therapy actually has been effective in yeast cells, not
to mention in fruitflies, roundworms, and cultures of rat neurons.

(D) CORRECT. The second paragraph states that high levels of alpha-synuclein
“disrupt the flow of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum…to the Golgi
apparatus.” According to the passage, the Golgi apparatus is responsible for
distributing proteins within the cell. It also states that "when the smooth transfer of
proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus is interrupted, the
cell dies."

(E) The passage gives no indication that alpha-synuclein is “by nature” a toxic
substance. Rather, the passage states that high levels of alpha-synuclein are toxic to
the cell.

2.
This is a general question asking about the function of the third paragraph. To
answer this question, it is helpful to examine the general role that each paragraph in
the passage plays. The first paragraph introduces the problem: researchers have not
known enough about neurons to effectively treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s
Disease. The second paragraph introduces new research in yeast cells. The third
paragraph makes the connection between this research and neurons affected by
Parkinson’s disease. In other words, the third paragraph serves to transition from the
technical detail of the yeast cell research in paragraph two to the implications of this
research on Parkinson’s treatment.

(A) While the third paragraph mentions genetic counterparts in yeast cells and
mammalian nerve cells, its role is not to highlight similarities between the cells. In
fact, no additional similarities are mentioned.

(B) The third paragraph does not get into the details of genetic screening methods.

(C) The third paragraph does not explain the roles of various cellular components.
The second paragraph does discuss the roles of the endoplasmic reticulum and the
Golgi apparatus, but this discussion is not continued in the third paragraph.
(D) The third paragraph does not actually identify, or name, any genes. Rather, it
explains that researchers were able to identify a specific gene in yeast cells and its
counterpart in mammalian nerve cells.

(E) CORRECT. The third paragraph relates the genetic testing in yeast cells to the
broader issue of Parkinson’s treatment: “Researchers discovered that such a gene
does in fact exist [in yeast cells], and have located the genetic counterpart in
mammalian nerve cells, or neurons. This discovery has led to new hopes that drug
therapy could potentially activate this gene, thereby suppressing the toxicity of alpha-
synuclein in dopamine-producing neurons.”

3.
This is a specific question. We can use the key phrase “current treatments of
Parkinson’s Disease” from the question to help us locate the relevant portion of the
passage. The first paragraph discusses current treatments.

(A) Current treatments do not repair damaged cells. Rather, they “are primarily
reactionary, aiming to replenish dopamine levels after dopamine-producing neurons
in the brain have died.”

(B) The passage does not discuss the effectiveness of current treatments.

(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph states that current treatments “replenish
dopamine levels after dopamine-producing neurons in the brain have died.” It goes
on to say that “without a more detailed understanding of the behavior of dopamine-
producing neurons, it has been impossible to develop treatments that would prevent
the destruction of these neurons in Parkinson’s patients.” We can therefore conclude
that current treatments are based on an incomplete understanding of the dopamine-
producing neuron.

(D) While the passage gives hope that new drug therapy will be effective, the fourth
paragraph introduces the possibility that such treatments won’t be transferable to
humans: “researchers are hesitant to conclude that such therapies will prove
successful on human patients.” Thus, the claim that current treatments will inevitably
be replaced by new drug therapy is unsupported by the passage.

(E) There is no information in the passage on the methods used to develop current
treatments. It is very possible that yeast cells were used in researching current
treatments.

4.
The second paragraph states that “high levels of alpha-synuclein disrupt the flow of
proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, the site of protein production in the cell, to
the Golgi apparatus, the component of the cell that modifies and sorts the proteins
before sending them to their final destinations within the cell.” This implies that
proteins in healthy cells are produced in the endoplasmic reticulum, sent to the Golgi
apparatus where they are modified, and then shipped to the rest of the cell.

(A) CORRECT. This chronology is supported by the information given in the second
paragraph.
(B) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not the Golgi apparatus.
Further, there is no evidence to show that proteins in healthy cells are decomposed
by alpha-synuclein.

(C) There is no evidence to show that proteins in healthy cells are decomposed by
alpha-synuclein.

(D) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not the Golgi apparatus.

(E) Proteins are created in the endoplasmic reticulum, not by alpha-synuclein.

Passage 10

1.
The question asks us to infer something about dendritic cells from the information
contained in the passage. The correct answer must be based only on the information
contained in the passage. If any additional information is required to justify an
answer choice, that choice cannot be the correct answer.

(A) The passage states only that dendritic cells are involved with the lymphatic
system. No information is given as to the location of the cells' production.

(B) The passage states only that dendritic cells are common in the digestive tract. No
information is given as to where the cells are most numerous.

(C) The passage states only that Toxoplasma infects dendritic cells. No information
is given as to the proportion of the cells that are affected when a person is infected
with Toxoplasma.

(D) The passage states only that dendritic cells are capable of being infected with
Toxoplasma. No information is given regarding any other types of cell.

(E) CORRECT. The passage states that Toxoplasma is capable of penetrating the
barriers protecting the brain. The passage also states that Toxoplasma uses
dendritic cells as transport around the human body. Thus, we can infer that the
Toxoplasma uses the dendritic cells to penetrate the barriers around the brain.

2.
We are asked to determine which one of the five choices is NOT true of Toxoplasma,
according to the passage. In other words, four of the five choices are stated in the
passage and one choice is not. The choice that is not stated is the correct answer.

(A) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can contaminate soil and water.

(B) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma enters the human body through
contaminated food.

(C) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma alters the behavior of human
dendritic cells.
(D) CORRECT. The word "incapable" in this answer choice is too strong; the
passage does not state that the human body cannot detect Toxoplasma. Rather, it
merely indicates that Toxoplasma does not trigger the body's immune system in the
same way as other parasites. We have no information about the human body's ability
to detect free-floating Toxoplasma cells.

(E) The passage explicitly states that Toxoplasma can breed in a host cat only.

3.
The second paragraph contains information describing the mechanism by which
Toxoplasma is able to infiltrate the human body and remain undetected by the body's
immune system. We need to find an answer choice that reflects this.

(A) The paragraph does not summarize research that remains to be done. Instead, it
discusses what has already been discovered.

(B) The paragraph does not present any recommendations.

(C) CORRECT. This matches our description of the paragraph.

(D) The paragraph does not introduce information about the role of Toxoplasma in
human development. If anything, it introduces information about the role of humans
in the development of Toxoplasma.

(E) The paragraph does not mention any outdated scientific models.

4.
The question asks us to infer something about Toxoplasma from the information
given in the passage. When answering questions of this type, remember that GMAT
inferences are typically very close to the original text, although they never repeat
information verbatim. Make sure to select an answer that is not stated explicitly but
can be inferred without making any additional assumptions.

(A) The passage does not suggest that the immune system will destroy Toxoplasma
cells.

(B) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma collects in the lymphatic system.

(C) CORRECT. The passage states that Toxoplasma can reproduce only in a host
cat. Therefore, any Toxoplasma cells that remain in the human body are not likely to
reproduce.

(D) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma will be detected after several
weeks.

(E) The passage does not suggest that Toxoplasma will be destroyed by pathogens
in the bloodstream.

5.
The question asks us why the author mentions "pigs and chickens" in the final
paragraph of the passage. The author mentions these animals in the context of
explaining how Toxoplasma enters the human body. Specifically, Toxoplasma enters
the human body when humans ingest the meat of infected animals, "such as pigs
and chickens." So the author uses pigs and chickens as specific examples of
animals that can carry the parasite.

(A) CORRECT. This matches our assessment of the passage exactly.

(B) The author mentions only "small rodents" as examples of animals that are eaten
by cats.

(C) The author does not mention the dendritic cells of any animals other than
humans.

(D) The passage states that cats are Toxoplasma's "sole breeding ground." Thus,
the author could not mention the pigs and chickens as examples of animals in which
the parasite can breed.

(E) The author does not mention any animals at all that are immune to Toxoplasma.

Passage 11

1.
This question is an example of a GMAT “application” question. An application
question is a specialized case of an inference question that asks you to discern the
relationship between situations or ideas presented by the author and other situations
or ideas that are outside the scope of the passage; in this case, the question asks
you to recognize an idea that the author would be likely to agree or disagree with
based on the statements made in the passage. Unlike questions that test your ability
to grasp specific portions of the passage, an application question usually requires
you to grasp or infer the essential idea behind the author’s point of view, then apply
this idea to something outside the scope of the passage. (Note: Application
questions are usually among the more difficult GMAT reading comprehension
questions.). The key to answering this question is recognizing that the author
believes the “non-therapeutic” use of antibiotics is a major factor contributing to the
spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria, that he does not consider this to be a
responsible use of antibiotics, and that he takes a stand strongly opposing the
practice.

(A) The passage does not make any statements regarding the practice of hospitals
hiring infectious diseases specialists so this answer choice is not relevant to the
passage. If anything, since the author is concerned with the spread of anti-resistant
bacteria, he would probably support this practice more than oppose it.

(B) The degree of reimbursement for newer antibiotics does not address the topic of
the spread of antibiotic resistant bacteria and its causes. Hence, this answer is not
relevant.
(C) There is nothing in the passage that directly links the amount of contributions
made by the farming industry to Congress with anything that promotes the spread of
antibiotic-resistant bacteria. The argument that such contributions might be linked to
the level of government-imposed sanitary standards which might in turn be linked to
the level of “preventive” use of antibiotics requires too many assumptions to make
this the best answer.

(D) CORRECT. Since antibiotics have no medically curative effect on patients with
viral diseases, doctors prescribing such to a patient with a viral illness are
administering the drugs in a “non-therapeutic” manner. The author specifically points
out that the “non-therapeutic” or non-curative use of antibiotics creates conditions
favorable for antibiotic-resistant bacteria to develop and implies that such use is not
a "responsible" one. Therefore, this is a practice to which the author would very likely
be opposed. (Note: Many doctors prescribe antibiotics to patients with viral diseases
simply because they are asked to or expected to (do something) by the patient.)

(E) Since the author is generally concerned with bacterial infection and responsible
use of antibiotics, this is a practice with which he or she would probably agree.

2.
This is a GMAT inference question, which means that the correct answer is not
explicitly stated in the passage, but can be reasonably concluded or deduced based
on the given information. The correct choice is always a likely or probable
conclusion: if an answer choice requires you to assume too much or make a large
leap of faith, it is incorrect.

(A) We are not given any information as to the government’s standards regarding
sanitation. Although the passage states that antibiotics are used “to compensate for
overcrowded or unsanitary conditions,” the word “unsanitary” could refer to a wide
range of conditions considered unsanitary by the author and not necessarily those
that do not meet government standards. In addition, the fact that antibiotics are
“routinely” administered to compensate for such conditions could imply that such
conditions described as “unsanitary” by the author may be the norm and may
actually fall within government guidelines.

(B) The passage does not state that non-therapeutic use of antibiotics is the sole
cause of antibiotic resistance. Hence, it is not reasonable to conclude that halting
such use would prevent new types of resistant bacteria from developing.

(C) The passage says nothing to imply that conditions for European livestock and
poultry are generally better than those for their American counterparts.

(D) While this may be true in general, the passage does not state anything from
which such an inference can be made. It is not reasonable to conclude that hospitals
are better learning to cope with the problem simply because the problem is
becoming worse and they are forced to deal with it.

(E) CORRECT. In the first paragraph, the passage discusses how antibiotic resistant
bacteria are becoming a problem for the treatment of infectious diseases in humans.
The third paragraph, however, discusses a practice that promotes the spread of
antibiotic resistance in animals, and the conclusion of the passage calls for the ban
of this specific practice. In addition, in the third paragraph, the author makes a point
to specifically mention that some of those antibiotics are used to treat humans. If it
were not possible for the resistant bacteria in animals to infect humans, then there
would be no link between the animal bacteria and the author’s concern for human
health; the policy that is subsequently advocated would be moot. Hence, it is a
reasonable inference that antibiotic resistant bacteria in livestock and poultry can
indeed be spread to humans.

3.
While it is helpful to know that the dictionary definition of the adjective “prophylactic”
is “acting to defend against or prevent something, especially disease; protective,”
this knowledge is not necessary; the intended meaning of the phrase “prophylactic
measure” can be inferred from the context of the passage.

The beginning of the first sentence of the third paragraph specifically points out that
the antibiotics are used “not as a cure for ongoing maladies” and the last sentence of
the paragraph describes such use as “non-therapeutic.” In addition, the phrase “to
compensate for … unsanitary conditions” implies that the antibiotics were used to
counteract an environment replete with bacteria. Hence, it is reasonable to infer that
the antibiotics were applied as a preventive measure to protect the animals from
catching an infectious disease in such an environment.

(A) The passage specifically points out that the antibiotics are not used “as a cure for
ongoing maladies” and describes such use as “non-therapeutic.”

(B) The passage is not concerned with genetic diseases.

(C) CORRECT. Since the use of antibiotics in the farm industry is specifically
described to be “non-therapeutic,” it cannot be used as a curative measure and,
therefore, is most likely used as a pre-emptive measure in order to prevent or protect
the animals from developing infectious diseases.

(D) The passage states that the antibiotics are administered to the animals in their
feed. Hence, it is clearly not used as a surface disinfectant.

(E) The antibiotics are orally administered to the animals in their feed. There is
nothing in the passage to suggest that a “physical barrier” is involved in any way.

4.
The main point of the passage is that the non-therapeutic use of antibiotics on
livestock and poultry should be banned in the United States (as it is in Europe)
because the practice promotes the spread of antibiotic resistance.

(A) CORRECT. This choice reflects the main point, hence, the primary concern, of
the passage.

(B) While paragraph two briefly explains the mechanism behind how antibiotic
resistance is acquired, it does so in support of the main point and is not the main
point itself.
(C) While paragraph three briefly explains a practice of the industrial farming
industry, it does so in support of the main point and is not the main point itself.

(D) The passage does not concern itself with the history of antibiotic resistance other
than to state that it has become a problem.

(E) The passage does not weigh the costs versus benefits of any particular practice.

5.
The question asks for information specifically stated in the passage although in
slightly different language. Paragraph two describes two methods by which bacteria
can develop antibiotic resistance.

(A) The passage does not mention the effects of radiation on bacteria.

(B) The passage states that natural mutations can become dominant via natural
selection. However, genetic engineering is not a “natural” process by which mutation
occurs.

(C) While this may be true, the over-prescribing of antibiotics in hospitals is not a
practice mentioned in the passage. Remember: the correct answer must be based
“according to the passage….”

(D) CORRECT. In paragraph two, the passage specifically states that “bacteria
share with each other genetic material called resistance plasmids … [which] … can
reproduce and become dominant via natural selection.”

(E) The loss of potency and effectiveness of antibiotics over time is described as an
effect of antibiotic resistance, not a cause or a method by which it is developed.

Passage 12

1.
The answer to a question that asks about "primary purpose" must take the entirety of
the passage into account. Since the author never states an opinion about the subject
of the passage, the primary purpose of the passage cannot be characterized by any
verb that requires an opinion.

(A) This choice begins with "criticize", which requires an opinion.

(B)This choice begins with "challenge", which requires an opinion.

(C) CORRECT. The passage was concerned with describing how leveraged buyouts
are used and how their status changed over time. This is reflected in this choice.

(D) This choice begins with "explain", which is neutral. However, the passage as a
whole was not concerned with the "popularity of leveraged buyouts during a certain
period."
(E) This choice begins with "argue," which requires an opinion.

2.
The question itself is rather broad, so the best approach is to evaluate the choices
and compare each one to the passage.

(A) The passage does not imply this.

(B) CORRECT. The reference to the sale of RJR Nabisco provides support for this
choice. Presumably, Kohlberg Kravis Roberts did not purchase RJR Nabisco with
the intention of having to sell it to pay off the loans used to buy it.

(C) Though tempting, this choice is incorrect because we do not have any
information in the passage about the attitude of the banks towards leveraged
buyouts today, only about their attitude during and immediately after their period of
greatest popularity. Also, the language in this answer ("No banks . . .") is too extreme
to be correct.

(D) The passage does not imply this.

(E) The passage does not imply this.

3.
The author discusses the RJR Nabisco buyout in the context of its consequences:
the eventual sale of RJR Nabisco to pay off the debts used to buy the company in
the first place. We must find a choice that reflects this.

(A) This choice does not reflect the context of the reference.

(B) This choice does not reflect the context of the reference.

(C) This choice does not reflect the context of the reference.

(D) CORRECT. This choice does indeed reflect the context mentioned above.

(E) This choice does not reflect the context of the reference.

Passage 13

1.
The role of employer health insurance plans is discussed in the second paragraph.
The passage states that “employer’s plans obligate all employees to enroll in the
plan and effectively pre-screen for general health, as a minimum health level is
required to hold a job.” This implies that having a job is a sign of health, since people
in poor health would have trouble performing job duties.
(A) By using the word “always,” this statement goes too far. Although the second
paragraph explains why insurance companies are more likely to offer reasonably
priced health insurance to employees in a group health plan, the first paragraph
discusses the role of consumer choice: consumers can (and do) decide to forgo
insurance that they deem too expensive. Therefore, we cannot infer that unemployed
people always pay higher health insurance premiums than employed people.

(B) By using the word “cannot,” this statement goes too far. The passage states that
some unemployed consumers, such as those over sixty-five, “can have difficulty
obtaining fairly priced medical insurance,” but that does not means that they cannot
purchase health insurance at all.

(C) CORRECT. The passage implies that having a job is a sign of health, since
people in poor health would have trouble performing job duties. Therefore, since the
group of unemployed people includes those too sick to work, it is not as healthy, on
average, as the group of employed people.

(D) The passage does not discuss the reasons people participate or decline to
participate in the workforce. We cannot infer that the unemployed voluntarily opted
not to work for health reasons.

(E) By using the word “must,” this statement goes too far. The passage does not
discuss the many reasons people might work: to make money, to acquire health
insurance, to gain personal satisfaction, etc. Some workers might not really need or
want health insurance, and might work primarily for the paycheck. Additionally, we
cannot infer that health care must be acquired by holding a job. The second
paragraph mentions consumers over sixty-five, who are “typically not employed and
thus seeking insurance individually.” Clearly, individual insurance is an alternative to
employers' group insurance plans, even if it is more expensive.

2.
The passage states that “people over age sixty-five…can have difficulty obtaining
fairly price medical insurance.” The explanation that the author supports, known as
“adverse selection,” was detailed in the first paragraph. Further, the context of the
reference reveals the author’s intent: “However, those who blame so-called
insurance company greed and discrimination against the elderly are ignoring the
reality of adverse selection.”

(A) The author does not provide an example, but rather takes a dim view of the belief
that “greed and discrimination” are the root cause of the consumer problem
described.

(B) “Greed and discrimination” are not presented as justifications of medical

insurance pricing decisions.

(C) The author does not accuse employers; in fact, the author goes on to explain
how employer provided group insurance plans benefit some insurance consumers.
(D) The causes of adverse selection were explained in the first paragraph. The
author mentions “greed and discrimination” to point out an alternate explanation for
the same result.

(E) CORRECT. The author believes that “adverse selection” is the reason that the
elderly can have difficulty obtaining fairly priced insurance. Other people believe that
“greed and discrimination” are the reasons. The author disputes that explanation by
stating that such people are “ignoring the reality of adverse selection.”

3.
The first paragraph of the passage describes the behavior of both insurance
companies and consumers. The paragraph is summed up with the statement “the
result, called “adverse selection,” is that the riskier members of a group will comprise
the group of insurance applicants, potentially leading to a market failure.” The
second paragraph explains how adverse selection affects one segment of the
population (those over age 65).

(A) The author of the passage does not advocate on behalf of consumers, but rather
explains a situation faced by both consumers and insurance companies.

(B) CORRECT. The first paragraph defines adverse selection and explains that the
situation is considered a market failure. The second paragraph explains how
adverse selection affects one segment of the population.

(C) The information presented is not described as “recently discovered.”

(D) In the second paragraph, the author challenges those who “hysterically blame
so-called insurance company greed and discrimination against the elderly.”
However, the passage does not indicate that this explanation, placing blame on the
insurance companies, is "widely" accepted.

(E) The passage does not assert that the situation discussed is “morally wrong";
rather, it just explains why the situation occurs.

4.
To answer this question, look at the structure of the author’s argument. The first
paragraph describes the motives and behavior of consumers and insurance
companies, defining a problem called “adverse selection.” The second paragraph
discusses the effect of this situation on a specific group of people, those over age
sixty-five.

(A) The first paragraph does not state an opinion.

(B) The first paragraph outlines the decision making process of both consumers and
insurance companies, but that process is not critiqued elsewhere in the passage.

(C) The author does not advance an argument in the first paragraph, but rather
presents a scenario as factual.
(D) The author does not advance arguments in the first paragraph, but rather
presents a scenario as factual.

(E) CORRECT. The first paragraph describes a situation and defines it as “adverse
selection.” The remainder of the passage discusses the effect of the problem on a
certain group, ending with the statement that “consumers over sixty-five...are
necessarily more vulnerable to market failure stemming from adverse selection.”

5.
The majority of the passage concerns health insurance costs, which are distinct from
the costs of the underlying health-care itself. The author discusses the cost of health-
care only in the middle of the first paragraph, explaining that healthy consumers
incur lower-than-average health-care costs, while consumers in poor health incur
higher-than-average costs.

(A) CORRECT. The first paragraph of the passage states that “consumers in poor
health…[know] that [insurance] will cover their higher-than-average health-care
costs.”

(B) The passage does not compare the cost of health-care for full-time workers to
that for any other segment of the population.

(C) Although paragraph two mentions that some consumers have difficulty finding
fairly priced insurance, the passage does not assert that the cost of health-care itself
is unfair.

(D) The passage does not discuss any changes in health-care costs over time.

(E) The passage does not make any assertions about what might happen in the
future, and does not discuss younger workers in particular.

Passage 14

1.
To answer this question, we must determine why the author currently DOES believe
jazz is an American art form. We can find the criterion the author uses in the third
paragraph: “…the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots. To deny the
rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins of the art form, is in effect
denying the very aspects of the art form that make it undeniably American.” So, the
author believes the “plurality of roots” makes jazz undeniably American. The author
would probably be less inclined to label jazz an American art form if jazz did NOT
come from a diverse set of musical and cultural traditions.

(A) This does not speak to the roots of jazz music.

(B) This statement, if true, would indicate that jazz music was derived from the
confluence of four different musical styles, or a “plurality of roots.” Therefore, the
author would still be likely to label jazz an American art form.
(C) CORRECT. This statement would indicate that jazz in fact did not come from a
diverse set of musical traditions. The lack of “plurality” would most likely make the
author less inclined to label jazz an American art form.

(D) If this statement were true, jazz would still have been derived from a “plurality of
roots,” regardless of what these roots were.

(E) This statement would only further illustrate that jazz has a rich and complex
history, formed from the confluence of many different musical styles and traditions.

2.
This is a general question. In order to determine with which statement the author
would be most likely to agree, we must determine the author’s main point in writing
the passage. A breakdown of the purpose of each paragraph will help. The first
paragraph highlights two differing views concerning the roots of jazz music, the
second paragraph discusses the diverse origins of jazz, and the third paragraph
states the author’s view concerning the origins of jazz: namely, that jazz is truly
American because it is rooted in the confluence of West African and European
music. More generally, the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the
plurality of its roots,” or that to be American is to have a diverse background.

(A) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form, but not
because it was first played in America. Furthermore, the author believes that
because of its origins in Europe and West Africa, not despite these origins. The
author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.”
Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football,
that it is American because of its origins, not despite these origins.

(B) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form because of
its origins in Europe and West Africa. The author believes “that the essence of
America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would
believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins.
Thus, this choice is backward.

(C) We have no information about the beliefs of sports scholars.

(D) CORRECT. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality
of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe that the diverse
origins of American football make it essentially American.

(E) Because the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of
its roots,” and because American football has diverse origins, the author would be
likely to believe that American football should be called an American sport. Thus, this
choice is backward.

3.
The first paragraph introduces two sides of an issue, the second paragraph provides
information relevant to the issue, but in a completely objective (or unbiased) manner,
and the third paragraph concludes the passage by presenting the author’s take on
the issue.

(A) While the second paragraph presents background information relevant to the
issue, it does so in an objective (or unbiased) way, not subjectively. The third
paragraph does not “summarize points made earlier in the passage.”

(B) CORRECT. This answer choice correctly describes the structure of the passage.
The first paragraph introduces two differing viewpoints on an issue, the second
paragraph objectively presents relevant information, and the third paragraph
describes the author’s opinion on the issue.

(C) The second paragraph does not “give a comprehensive history of the debate.”
This paragraph gives a brief history of jazz music, but not a history of the debate
over the origins of jazz music. Also, “comprehensive” implies a complete and
thorough history, an inaccurate description given the brief nature of this passage.

(D) We do not know that the information presented in the second paragraph is
“newly discovered information.” Further, the third paragraph does not summarize
points made earlier in the passage.

(E) While the first paragraph does present differing viewpoints, it does not
necessarily introduce a “controversy.” “Controversy” implies a heated disagreement
over an issue; this is a bit too strong given the tone of the passage. Further, even if it
were a controversy, the last paragraph doesn’t “settle” anything; it merely gives the
author’s opinion on the issue.

4.
This is a general question. In order to determine with which statement the author
would be most likely to agree, we must determine the author’s main point in writing
the passage. A breakdown of the purpose of each paragraph will help. The first
paragraph highlights two differing views concerning the roots of jazz music, the
second paragraph discusses the diverse origins of jazz, and the third paragraph
states the author’s view concerning the origins of jazz: namely, that jazz is truly
American because it is rooted in the confluence of West African and European
music. More generally, the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the
plurality of its roots,” or that to be American is to have a diverse background.

(A) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form, but not
because it was first played in America. Furthermore, the author believes that
because of its origins in Europe and West Africa, not despite these origins. The
author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of its roots.”
Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe the same about American football,
that it is American because of its origins, not despite these origins.

(B) The author believes that jazz should be called an American art form because of
its origins in Europe and West Africa. The author believes “that the essence of
America lies in the plurality of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would
believe the same about American football, that it is American because of its origins.
Thus, this choice is backward.

(C) We have no information about the beliefs of sports scholars.

(D) CORRECT. The author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality
of its roots.” Therefore, it is likely that the author would believe that the diverse
origins of American football make it essentially American.

(E) Because the author believes “that the essence of America lies in the plurality of
its roots,” and because American football has diverse origins, the author would be
likely to believe that American football should be called an American sport. Thus, this
choice is backward.

5.
This is a specific question. We should be able to find evidence in the passage to
support the truth of four of the answer choices. The “odd man out” will be the correct
answer.

(A) The second paragraph states “the jazz first played in New Orleans in the early
1900s…”

(B) The third paragraph states “proponents of the argument that jazz is purely
American often point to its genesis in New Orleans …”

(C) The second paragraph states “jazz ensembles were built predominantly on
European instruments, such as the trumpet, trombone, saxophone, and piano.” The
trumpet, trombone, and saxophone are horns, and the piano is a stringed instrument.

(D) The second paragraph states that there is an “emphasis on improvisation in jazz
music.”

(E) CORRECT. The passage clearly indicates that some musicologists believe jazz
is “the only purely American form of music” while others “argue that jazz is rooted in
a history similar to that of America itself, a history of confluence.” The point of
disagreement is not whether jazz should be called American, but rather whether jazz
should be called “purely” American. The author’s viewpoint is a good example. The
author believes jazz comes from a complex convergence of traditions and cultures
(not “purely” American). However, the author still believes jazz should be called an
American art form: “to deny the rich and complex history of jazz, and the true origins
of the art form, is in effect denying the very aspects of the art form that make it
undeniably American.”

6.
In the second paragraph, “scatting” is described as “a technique used by jazz
vocalists to mimic the sounds of instruments.”
(A) CORRECT. A vocalist attempting to vocalize the tone and melodic line just
played by a trumpet is an example of a singer mimicking “the sounds of instruments.”

(B) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds
of instruments.”

(C) This is an example of an instrumentalist attempting to imitate the sounds of a

vocalist. Scatting is the exact opposite: a vocalist attempting to imitate the sounds of
an instrument.

(D) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds
of instruments.”

(E) This does not describe “a technique used by jazz vocalists to mimic the sounds
of instruments.”

7.
This is a specific question. The passage discusses the elements of jazz in the
second paragraph, so that is where the justifying text should be found. There, the
author states that jazz “borrowed heavily from the European musical scale and
harmonic system,” and that its “emphasis on improvisation…in addition to group
participation…came from West African music.”

(A) The passage indicates that jazz “borrowed heavily from the European…harmonic
system,” so an emphasis on a tonal harmonic structure was more likely a European
influence.

(B) The passage indicates that jazz “ensembles were built predominantly on
European instruments,” so the use of the guitar was more likely a European
influence.

(C) The passage indicates that jazz “borrowed heavily from the European musical
scale,” so the use of the dorian scale was more likely a European influence.

(D) The passage indicates that jazz “ensembles were built predominantly on
European instruments,” so the make-up of a jazz ensemble most likely was
influenced by European traditions.

(E) CORRECT. The passage indicates that the emphasis on “improvisation in jazz
music, in addition to group participation…came from West African music.” Thus, it is
likely that an impromptu call-and-response came from West African traditions.

Passage 15

1.
The question asks us to select the answer choice that best describes the structure of
the passage. In order to answer this question, it is useful to identify the topic
sentences and summarize each paragraph of the passage:
Paragraph 1: The recruitment and development of talent is a growing priority for
many organizations.
Paragraph 2: This change benefits women, as women run many Human Resources
departments.
Paragraph 3: Women have benefited from the emphasis on talent development in a
number of ways.

The correct answer choice will reflect this organization.

(A) One could reasonably describe the increased emphasis on talent development
and recruitment as “an innovative idea.” However, the first paragraph does not
“explain” this idea, as the idea is relatively self-explanatory; the first paragraph
instead introduces the change and provides background information. Also, the
remainder of the passage does not “list” results, and there is no indication that the
impacts resulting from the increased emphasis on talent development and
recruitment are “unexpected.”

(B) It might be possible to describe the increased emphasis on talent development

and recruitment within many organizations as “a new theory.” However, the
remainder of the passage does not present evidence to support this theory; rather,
the passage explains and explores the impacts of the increased emphasis on talent
development and recruitment.

(C) It is inaccurate to describe the increased emphasis on talent development and

recruitment as a “challenge” to “an established practice,” as one would have to frame
the previous lack of emphasis as “an established practice.” Also, the passage does
not simply document results; paragraph 2 in its entirety explains why the change is
having a particular impact.

(D) CORRECT. The first paragraph does introduce a “recent trend,” that
organizations are increasingly attentive to the development and recruitment of talent.
The second and third paragraphs explain and examine an impact of this trend, in this
case the positive effect on some women professionals.

(E) It is possible to describe the increased emphasis of various organizations on

talent development and recruitment as a “change of emphasis.” However, the bulk of
the passage discusses the impact on women professionals, who are never identified
as “advocates” of this change; rather, they are the beneficiaries of the change.

2.
The passage mentions the creation of C-level roles such as Chief Talent Officer as
an indication that certain organizations are placing a greater emphasis on the
recruitment and development of talent. The correct answer choice will reflect this
idea.

(A) Though the passage does indicate that a high proportion of HR departments are
led by women, it does not imply that any organization with a Chief Talent Officer
employs a woman in the position.
(B) The passage states only that HR was historically considered of lower importance
and the CTO position indicates that HR has increased in stature since that time. It
does not imply that HR is now considered more important that other departments;
the increase in stature could merely bring HR into line with other departments.

(C) CORRECT. The passage does imply that the creation of a role such as Chief
Talent Officer or Chief Personnel Officer indicates a greater emphasis on the
importance of Human Resources. Organizations that have not created analogous
positions implicitly have not matched this emphasis.

(D) Although the passage indicates that effective talent recruitment and development
are increasingly regarded as bestowing a competitive advantage, the passage does
not suggest that organizations with a Chief Talent Officer actually enjoy a
competitive advantage relative to other organizations.

(E) Although an organization with a Chief Talent Officer is presented as emphasizing

effective Human Resources, the organization may or may not be attractive to
prospective female employees overall. For example, the organization may have a
record of poor treatment of women, or it could be in an industry that is unattractive to
women for other reasons.

3.
This question asks us to infer something about the “additional responsibilities”
described in the third paragraph of the passage. The only information we are given
about these “additional responsibilities” is that they are awarded to women who have
performed well in a Human Resources capacity, and that they lie outside of the
Human Resources department itself. The correct answer choice will be closely tied
to one or both of these facts.

(A) CORRECT. The passage explains, in paragraph two, that women have been
strongly associated with the traits and characteristics valued in a Human Resources
capacity. If the "additional responsibilities" are in "other departments," then those
responsibilities are likely to be in areas that are less traditionally associated with
women than is HR.

(B) We know only that the departmental responsibilities are not in the Human
Resources area; we do not know that the women are taking over, or even merely
expanding their responsibilities into, departments that "used to" be run by a man.

(C) The passage indicates that the “additional responsibilities” are given as a reward
for strong performance; they may or may not be similar to those that these women
have already performed. Indeed, they could very well be new types of responsibilities
that are meant to stretch and challenge these executives.

(D) The activity of speaking at industry conferences is explicitly described later in the
paragraph as an additional way that women have gained authority and influence.
The wording ("Also...") indicates a new thought compared to the “additional
responsibilities” of the previous sentence, rather than an example of those
responsibilities.
(E) The passage describes the increasing emphasis on the importance of Human
Resources activities to many organizations. The new responsibilities in other
departments may or may not be more important, particularly as they are in addition
to these women’s prior responsibilities. For example, a successful Human
Resources executive could be given the additional responsibility of producing
marketing materials for the Company, which may or may not be more crucial to the
Company’s success than her earlier responsibilities.

4.
This question asks for the best description of the way in which the author regards the
changes described in the passage, namely, that talent recruitment and development
has been increasingly emphasized by many companies, and that many female
executives have benefited as a result. The tone of the passage does not seem to
indicate a very strong positive or negative outlook on these changes. Therefore, we
should look for an answer choice that adopts a balanced perspective.

(A) This answer choice is too extreme both in its description of the changes as
“overdue redress”, which suggests an extremely strong point of view, and its
reference to issues faced “historically” by women. The passage does not mention
nor does the tone indicate any issues faced historically by women.

(B) CORRECT. The passage objectively describes the increasing emphasis of talent
development and retention on the part of many companies, and the high proportion
of women who lead Human Resources departments. It then presents the increasing
authority and visibility of many female executives as a result of these trends. This
answer choice suggests a balanced approach, consistent with the tone of the
passage.

(C) There is no indication in the passage that the author regards the changes
described as “unfortunate.” The tone of the passage does not suggest a negative
view of the changes described. Also, the advancement of female executives is not
accurately described as a “continuation of pervasive misconceptions” by the tone or
the content of the passage.

(D) The passage does not indicate that the author views the changes as
“necessary,” the use of which would suggest that the changes are seen as vitally
important. The tone of the passage does not suggest an advocacy to this extent.
Also, neither the tone nor the content of the passage recommends the realignment of
management as a goal.

(E) As there is no suggestion of a negative perception of social changes, the tone

would need to be quite negative in order to regard the described changes as a
“formidable new impediment” to such changes. The tone of the passage does not
suggest a negative perception of the described changes.

5.
This question asks for the main idea of the passage. In order to answer this
question, it is useful to identify each topic sentence and then briefly summarize each
paragraph of the passage:
Paragraph 1: The recruitment and development of talent is a growing priority for
many organizations.
Paragraph 2: This change benefits women, as women run many Human Resources
departments, for a number of reasons.
Paragraph 3: Women have benefited from the emphasis on talent development in a
number of ways.

The correct answer choice will incorporate, or at least reference, these ideas.

(A) This answer choice correctly summarizes Paragraph 2 of the passage, but does
not reference the increasing importance of talent development or how it has
benefited women.

(B) The passage does not make any claims regarding the relative efficacy of women
to men in terms of developing and retaining talent.

(C) CORRECT. This answer choice accurately describes the main idea of the
passage -- that the increasing emphasis on talent development and recruitment
(Paragraph 1) benefits many female executives (Paragraphs 2 and 3).

(D) The passage does not indicate that the rate at which women are being promoted
to run Human Resources departments is increasing.

(E) This answer choice correctly summarizes Paragraph 1 of the passage, but fails
to mention either women or that women are benefiting from the change described in
Paragraph 1.

Passage 16

1.

Questions that ask about "primary purpose" must take into account the passage in
its entirety. Overall, this passage is about the differing predictive uses of the
various economic indicators.

(A) CORRECT. The passage does indeed focus on the utility of "various economic
indicators."

(B) This choice mistakenly focuses on a process that is not discussed in the
passage.

(C) This choice focuses only on a few sentences in the last paragraph of the
passage.

(D) This choice mischaracterizes the intent of the passage in using the verb "trace",
which implies a chronology.
(E) This choice is incorrect in describing the author's purpose with the verb "to
argue." The author does not present an argument in the passage, but rather an
objective comparison.

2.
The third paragraph states that mortgage applications and profit margins are
examples of leading indicators, which have the greatest predictive power.
Therefore, we need to find an answer choice that relates to either mortgage
applications or profit margins.

(A) This choice focuses on the employment rate, which is a coincident indicator
(paragraph 2).

(B) This choice focuses on the number of new homes being built, which is not
discussed in the passage. Do not assume that the number of new homes being built
can be correlated with mortgage applications, which are indeed a leading indicator
(paragraph 3).

(C) This choice focuses on manufacturing, which is a coincident indicator (paragraph

2).

(D) CORRECT. Imminent changes in the economic cycle are indicated by leading
indicators, of which profit margins are an example (paragraph 3). The increase
described in this choice is indeed a profit margin (revenue minus cost).

(E) This choice focuses on bankruptcies, which are not mentioned in the passage.

3.
In the last paragraph, the author writes: "Establishing a solid framework for
understanding the behavior of these indicators helps economists to avoid
miscalculations and to guide the country through periods of slow or negative
economic growth."

(A) CORRECT. This choice is consistent with the information contained in the last
paragraph.

(B) This choice focuses only on a subpart of this analysis: the role of the indicators
for the private investor.

(C) This choice is not reflected in the passage.

(D) This choice focuses only on downturns whereas the indicators are used for either
upward or downward economic change.

(E) This choice is not reflected in the passage.

4.
Lagging indicators have no predictive power. They serve simply as confirmation of
the recent state of the economy. Therefore, lagging indicators would not be helpful in
determining future courses of action.

(A) This does not require predictive power.

(B) CORRECT. This choice – cutting costs to avoid short-term losses – requires
predictive power. And so lagging indicators would not be helpful in determining
whether companies should follow this course of action.

(C) This does not require predictive power.

(D) This does not require predictive power.

(E) This does not require predictive power.

Passage 17

1. The passage cites several factors that negatively impact the desert tortoise
population, mainly the threat of predators. The mortality rate would be most
likely to decrease if one of those reasons were eliminated.

(A) The passage states that tortoises burrow into the ground for protection from
“desert temperature extremes.” The passage does not state that tortoises are only
vulnerable to heat. The “desert temperature extremes” may also refer to extreme
cold, in which case tortoises burrow to keep warm. Thus, cooler burrows might
actually be harmful to the tortoises.

(B) The passage does not mention the mating frequency of desert tortoises.
Furthermore, while we might be able to infer that more frequent mating might
increase the number of desert tortoise hatchlings, we cannot infer that more frequent
mating would reduce the mortality rate of those tortoises.

(C) The vulnerability of hatchling and juvenile tortoises is mentioned, along with the
fact that adult tortoises provide no care for their offspring. However, there is nothing
in the passage to indicate that adult tortoises could have any positive effect on the
survival rate of young tortoises by providing better care for them. It is entirely
possible that adult tortoises are simply not equipped to protect the young from
predators; feeding and caring for the hatchlings may have no effect on the juvenile
survival rate.

(D) The passage states that females “may only lay eggs when adequate forage is
available.” If adequate forage were available, then females will be more likely to lay
eggs than they would when forage is scarce. However, the passage does not
indicate that the availability of abundant forage plants will make the desert tortoises
any more likely to survive once hatched.

(E) CORRECT. The passage states that larger mammalian predators eat desert
tortoises when rabbits and rodents are scarce. If rabbits were abundant, such
predators would not seek out the desert tortoise, and the mortality rate would likely
decrease.

2. The passage discusses several reasons that the desert tortoise is a

threatened species. In the second paragraph, the tortoise’s reproductive cycle
is discussed, with an emphasis on its low reproductive rate. In the third
paragraph, predators such as ravens are discussed. In the final paragraph,
the author recommends additional measures to protect the desert tortoise
from harm caused by urban expansion and the release of captive tortoises.

(A) In the last paragraph, the author does mention that urban expansion has the
unintended effect of increasing the population of ravens, cited in the third paragraph
as the primary predator of juvenile tortoises.

(B) The second paragraph discusses the low reproductive rate of desert tortoises as
one reason for their population decline and slow recovery.

(C) CORRECT. Although desert temperature extremes are mentioned in the third
paragraph, they are cited as a reason that desert tortoises burrow into the earth, not
as a reason that the desert tortoise is a threatened species.

(D) The third paragraph discusses several predators of the desert tortoise,
specifically ravens.

(E) The release of captive tortoises by pet owners is mentioned in the last sentence
of the passage as a danger to the wild tortoise population.

3. To determine the author’s primary intent, we must look at the whole passage.
The first paragraph introduces a problem (the decline of the desert tortoise
species), and describes action taken by the government to address the
problem while also indicating the need for further steps. The second
paragraph explains why the species has been slow to recover. The third
paragraph discusses non-human threats to the desert tortoise. Finally, the last
paragraph advocates additional measures to protect the desert tortoise
species. The author is primarily interested in advocating future actions to
protect the desert tortoise (last paragraph), while the preceding paragraphs
serve as background information necessary to make this point.

(A) The lifecycle of the species is partially discussed in the second paragraph, but
this is not the primary intent of the entire passage.

(B) CORRECT. In the last paragraph, the author strongly states that “additional
measures must be taken,” then advocates several actions to be taken in the future.

(C) The passage does discuss a problem (the decline of the desert tortoise species),
but does not stop there. The author discusses a problem primarily to explain why
future actions are advocated.
(D) The designation of the desert tortoise as a threatened species is one past action
mentioned, but the passage does not evaluate it beyond saying that it is insufficient
to address the decline of the species.

(E) The government is mentioned briefly in the first paragraph, but the passage does
not criticize the government.

4.
The previous measure to protect the desert tortoise mentioned in the passage is the
designation of the species as threatened under the federal Endangered Species Act.
The author certainly agrees that the desert tortoise is a threatened species: the
second and third paragraphs discuss several problems faced by the species.
However, the author believes that the previous efforts have “been insufficient to
reverse the species’ decline” (last line of the first paragraph) and that “even with
current protections…the desert tortoise faces a tough recovery, so additional
measures must be taken” (first line of the last paragraph).

(A) The author is not skeptical of the previous efforts; rather the author agrees with
them but feels that they have not gone far enough.

(B) The author feels that the previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise have been
insufficient, so while the author may have regard for those efforts, “complete
satisfaction” is too strongly worded.

(C) The author does not imply opposition to the previous efforts to protect the desert
tortoise; the author agrees with those efforts, but feels that they have been
insufficient.

(D) CORRECT. The author does approve of the designation of the desert tortoise as
a threatened species, but qualifies that approval with the assertion that “additional
measures must be taken.”

(E) The author is not disdainful of the previous efforts to protect the desert tortoise;
the author supports those efforts, but feels that they have been insufficient.

Passage 18

1. We are asked to "undermine the central premise" of the presented

hypothesis, which is summarized in the second sentence of the first
paragraph. Jacobs proposed that dreams and hallucinations function via a
similar brain mechanism involving the levels of two chemicals, serotonin and
norepinephrine. Jacobs tried to prove this by demonstrating that the levels of
these two chemicals fluctuate in a similar fashion while both dreaming (natural
state) and hallucinating (via ingestion of a hallucinatory drug).

(A) In sentence 2, paragraph 3, we are told that LSD binds "at most of the
neurotransmitter's receptor sites" (italics added), indicating that we (and Jacobs)
already know that LSD does not completely inhibit serotonin transmission. This has
already been taken into account, therefore, and does not undermine Jacobs' theory.
(B) The theory in question does not require serotonin to be the only chemical, or one
of only a few chemicals, involved in regulating sleep. It merely proposes that two of
of the chemicals involved with sleep also function similarly when the brain is
hallucinating. This choice is out of scope.

(C) This could undermine Jacobs' theory under certain circumstances, but it could
also bolster the theory. Jacobs believed that the drop in norepinephrine levels
enabled the brain to sleep. This choice merely says the "levels" are significant; it
does not quantify these levels, so we do not know whether this choice supports or
contradicts Jacobs' hypothesis.

(D) CORRECT. If other hallucinogens (i.e., drugs that cause hallucinations) are able
to produce hallucinations without inhibiting serotonin, then the central premise of
Jacobs' hypothesis--that dreams and hallucinations function via a similar brain
mechanism involving the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine--would not hold.

(E) This choice says these stages are "crucial" to the overall process of dreaming
(which we can already infer from the passage - we have to fall asleep before we
dream), but it does not say anything else. Perhaps if we were told that dreaming
occurs during the first four stages, when levels of the two chemicals are higher, we
might conclude that this weakens the hypothesis; the information is too vague as
presented, however, to conclude anything.

2. We are asked to find the purpose of the passage. The first paragraph of the
passage introduces a theory that seeks to show a link between dreams and
hallucinations based upon two chemicals. The second paragraph elaborates
on the role of the two chemicals in dreams and the third paragraph does the
same for hallucinations. The third paragraph also concludes by noting that the
theory remains unproven and would benefit from further testing.

(A) While the passage does outline a theory it does not suggest options for further
research; it merely notes that further research would be beneficial.

(B) The author does not act as an advocate, or try to convince the audience of the
need for additional research; instead, the author merely notes that further research
would be beneficial.

(C) CORRECT. A "theoretical construct" is equivalent to a theory; the author does

introduce a theory that is "inconclusive," or not sufficiently proven.

(D) While the first sentence does imply that research associated with the brain is
complex, the rest of the passage does not focus on this topic or attempt to
demonstrate the specific complexities involved.

(E) While the passage does articulate a hypothesis, it only presents current
research; it does not "lay out the case for proving it." In fact, the last sentence says
the hypothesis is "inconclusive."
3. "Except" questions require us to test the five answer choices to determine the
"odd one out." It is beneficial to use the True / False technique: label each
answer choice with a T or an F and look for the odd one out (which, in this
case, we should expect to be an F).

(A) CORRECT. False. The second sentence of the second paragraph says of the
chemicals that "Both are discharged in high quantities only during waking states."
Later sentences tell us that the chemical levels drop during non-REM sleep, not that
they disappear completely.

(B) True. The first sentence of the third paragraph says that "at doses higher than 20
micrograms, [LSD] can have a hallucinogenic effect." This is equivalent to the
statement that the dosage will cause hallucinations in some people (otherwise, we
could not say that it "can have" a hallucinogenic effect).

(C) True. Sentence four in paragraph two tells us that REM (rapid eye movement
sleep) "is associated with dreaming."

(D) True. The third sentence of paragraph three says that the neurons containing
norepinephrine "greatly accelerate activity" when LSD is in someone's system.
Sentence one of paragraph two tells us that "neurons release norepinephrine" - so if
this neuronal activity is increased, then the rate at which norepinephrine is released
must also increase.

(E) True. The last sentence of the second paragraph says that Jacobs hypothesized
that "the absence of serotonin was necessary to allow dreaming to occur."

4.
Paragraph three is about the effects of and research results on lysergic acid
diethlyamide, or LSD.

(A) The passage describes research into Jacob's theory as "promising but
inconclusive," but does not make this statement about the drug LSD itself.

(B) CORRECT. The second sentence of the third paragraph says that "LSD mimics
serotonin well enough to... bind at most of [serotonin's] receptor sites."

(C) The passage says that the drug causes the locus ceruleus to accelerate activity,
the opposite of the causation suggested by this choice – that the locus ceruleus
affects the body’s response to the drug.

(D) The passage states that the drug stimulates norepinephrine but inhibits
serotonin.

(E) The passage says that "at doses higher than 20 micrograms, it can have a
hallucinogenic effect." This means that some people may have hallucinations, but it
does not mean that everyone will, as this answer choice suggests.

Passage 19
1. When answering inference questions, make sure to look for an answer that
can be inferred strictly based on the information given in the passage and
without making any additional assumptions. Typically, the correct answer will
be closely connected to the actual text and directly supported by one or two
sentences.

(A) This statement is directly contradicted by the text of the passage. In the
concluding paragraph, the author states that “the detection mechanisms of insects
are likely to be applied in practice in the near future,” thus suggesting that they have
not been applied in practice to date.

(B) The passage provides no information about the time when dogs were first used
in the detection of smuggling.

(C) While the last sentence of the second paragraph mentions that signals sent by
insects’ receptors allow for “easy detection by researchers,” the passage provides no
information about the ease or difficulty of such detection in mammals.

(D) CORRECT. The second sentence of the concluding paragraph states that the
technique developed by Dietrich Schneider in the 1950s “became the first method
that enabled researchers to record the activity in insect olfactory nerves and identify
the compounds that trigger a behavioral response.” Since this technique became the
first method, we can infer that no reliable methods had existed prior to the
development of this technique, i.e. in the first half of the twentieth century or earlier.

(E) The passage provides no information regarding the distinctions between flying
and crawling insects.

2. On questions asking about the main idea of the passage, be sure to refer to
the opening paragraph, which usually discusses the main theme of the
passage. Also, when selecting your answer, avoid extreme answer choices
that describe only a part of the passage or mention information that is beyond
the scope of the text.

(A) This answer choice is directly contradicted by the text. The passage provides an
argument for a wider use of the detection mechanisms of insects rather than dogs.

(B) While possible disadvantages involved in using detection mechanisms of dogs

are mentioned in the second paragraph, their discussion appears only in one
paragraph and thus does not reflect the main idea of the passage.

(C) CORRECT. This answer choice accurately describes the main idea of the
passage. Note that this idea permeates the entire passage and conveys the main
intention of the author. Also, note that this theme is mimicked in the opening
paragraph of the passage: “… recent evidence suggests that insects, rather than
mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity.”
(D) While the second paragraph of the passage is devoted to the discussion of the
biological process used by insects to detect odors, this theme is discussed only in
one paragraph and fails to reflect the content of the entire passage.

(E) First, the passage mentions only one method (rather than multiple methods): the
technique developed by Dietrich Schneider. Secondly, this method is mentioned only
in the concluding paragraph of the passage and does not reflect the main theme of
the entire text.

3. This question asks us to find a statement that, if true, would make dogs more
effective in detecting drugs. To answer this question, it is useful to identify the
issues that currently make them less effective. The first paragraph discusses
two main disadvantages of dogs: (1) their proneness to become bored or
distracted and (2) their emotional attachment to their owners. A statement that
would make dogs more effective is likely to address one of these two
disadvantages.

(A) The passage provides no information about the dogs’ ability to last without food
for prolonged periods of time. This answer choice is beyond the scope of the
passage.

(B) Nothing in the passage is mentioned about the dogs’ ability to recognize drugs
visually. For example, it is quite possible that dogs are currently able to do so.

(C) The passage provides no information about the dogs’ ability to not only smell but
also taste drugs. Therefore, it is unclear whether this ability would be helpful.

(D) Finger-like protuberances are mentioned in the opening sentence of the third
paragraph as part of an insect’s olfactory system. Since the sentence states that
“insects have olfactory systems that are very similar to those of vertebrates” it is
unclear whether dogs already possess such protuberances. Even if they do not
possess them, it would be difficult to speculate about the outcome of equipping dogs
with such systems.

(E) CORRECT. The first paragraph discusses the disadvantages of using dogs in
detecting drugs and states that “… problems may also result from the emotional
relationship between a dog and its owner.” Therefore, it can be inferred that if dogs
could not develop emotional relationships with humans, this problem would be
addressed, thus rendering their use more effective.

4.
When answering questions about the overall tone of the passage or attitude of the
author, make sure to avoid extreme answer choices. Also, pay close attention to the
qualifying words such as “moderately,” “mildly” or “slightly.” These words tone down
the following adjective, thus making it more likely to be the correct answer.

(A) CORRECT. The whole passage provides an argument for the increased use of
insects’ detection mechanisms. For example, in the second sentence of the first
paragraph, the author states that “… insects, rather than mammals, may be used
more effectively in this capacity.” Also, the author concludes the passage by saying
that “… the detection mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the
near future.” These statements and the overall tone of the passage suggest that the
author is generally optimistic about the use of the detection mechanisms of insects.

(B) Since the whole passage makes an argument for a wider use of the biological
detection systems of insects and discusses their advantages over mammals, the
attitude of the author towards them is positive rather than completely neutral.

(C) Throughout the entire passage, the author discusses the advantages of insects’
detection systems and expresses optimism about their potential use in practice. For
example, in the second sentence of the first paragraph, the author states that “…
insects, rather than mammals, may be used more effectively in this capacity.”
Therefore, the attitude of the author cannot be described as highly doubtful.

(D) This answer is likely to be incorrect for the vast majority of GMAT passages. By
definition, if the author writes a passage on a certain subject, she is unlikely to be
uninterested in the subject area.

(E) Throughout the entire passage, the author discusses the advantages of insects’
detection systems and expresses optimism about their potential use in practice. For
example, the author concludes the passage by saying that “… the detection
mechanisms of insects are likely to be applied in practice in the near future.”
Therefore, the attitude of the author cannot be described as mildly pessimistic.

5.
This is a detail question. On questions of this type, use detail words, such as “an
odorant binding protein” to locate the answer in the text. Those words are found in
the sentence in the second paragraph that describes the role of this protein: “This
protein carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell
and attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell.”

(A) This answer choice describes the role played by a receptor on the dendritic
projections of a sensory nerve cell rather than that played by the odorant binding
protein.

(B) CORRECT. The third sentence in the second paragraph states that “This protein
carries the hydrophobic ligand through the lymph fluid found inside the cell and
attaches it to a receptor on the dendritic projections of a sensory nerve cell.”

(C) This answer choice describes the role of played by the odorant molecule rather
than that played by the odorant binding protein.

(D) This answer choice provides information about the odorant binding protein that is
not mentioned in the passage.

(E) While the passage mentions finger-like protuberances in the third paragraph,
nothing in the text suggests that it is the odorant binding protein that transmits odors
via these protuberances.
Passage 20

1. In order to determine the main function of the first paragraph, it is helpful to

analyze how this paragraph contributes to the entire article. The conclusion
and main idea of the passage is that the Dr. Seuss books “revolutionized the
children’s book industry”; i.e., they were a significant force of change. The first
paragraph sets the stage for that conclusion by establishing the status quo of
the early 1950s prior to that change.

Be careful: an answer that is merely mentioned in the first paragraph, but does not
describe the overall purpose of the paragraph does not qualify as its “main” or
primary function.

(A) The paragraph only describes Fletch’s criticism of the reading primers. It does
not describe Fletch’s approach to writing children’s books.

(B) While the paragraph quotes Fletch’s strongly worded description of the “Dick and
Jane” primers, this description is not the main or primary function of the paragraph;
the description serves to support the more general criticism of the unsatisfactory
state of children’s reading education in the early 1950s.

(C) While Fletch’s displeasure with the availability of first- and second-grade level
books is mentioned, the paragraph does not directly advocate an increase in
children’s books in bookstores.

(D) CORRECT. The paragraph starts off by describing the preferred method of
teaching reading in the 1950s, and then continues with some strong criticism of this
method and the lack of available books in bookstores. By doing so, the author
implies that the status quo was not satisfactory and sets the stage for the
subsequent events which “revolutionized” the children's book industry.

(E) While most of the paragraph describes Fletch’s point of view regarding the
existing primers and lack of appropriate books in bookstores, the main purpose of
the paragraph is not to praise Fletch; his opinions are used to support the overall
premise that the status quo at the time was non-satisfactory.

2. This question asks for the motivation behind the author’s inclusion of the
synopsis of the story. In order to infer the author’s motivation, it is usually
helpful to analyze the statement in the context of the entire passage. The best
answer will provide a reasonable explanation behind the inclusion of the
synopsis consistent with the rest of the passage.

(A) While the characters in The Cat in the Hat are indeed introduced in the included
synopsis, this introduction by itself does nothing to contribute to the overall main idea
of the story; hence, it is not the primary motivation behind the synopsis’s inclusion.

(B) CORRECT. The passage starts by establishing the premise that the “Dick and
Jane” reading primers were boring “sterile … non-adventures,” continues by
discussing Geisel’s books, and then concludes by asserting that Geisel’s “engaging
books” revolutionized the industry. By describing The Cat in the Hat as "a whimsical
story about two children ... who are suddenly visitied by a havoc-creating six-foot-tall
talking cat," the author emphasizes how the story is clearly different than those of the
“Dick and Jane” primers.

(C) Since the author concludes that Geisel’s books have had a significant positive
influence on the children’s book industry, it is unlikely that he intends to characterize
the story of The Cat in the Hat as “bizarre,” a word meaning "extremely odd" or
"freakish" and carrying some negative connotations.

(D) The author alludes to a talking cat and fish in this particular story in order to
emphasize the fanciful nature of the story, not to assert that such beings exist.

(E) The main topic of the story is how Geisel’s books revolutionized the children’s
book industry. While the synopsis of The Cat in the Hat does describe a situation
where children left home alone encounter havoc, this description is meant to
emphasize the fanciful nature of the story, and not to serve as an implied parental
warning. The safety of children left at home is not a topic at issue in this passage;
therefore, an implied warning to parents is not a motivation of the author.

3. To answer this question, it is helpful to look at the entire passage. It begins by

describing a criticism of the primers used to teach reading to children, and
then it describes the publication of Geisel’s Cat in the Hat and Green Eggs
and Ham as responses to that criticism. The conclusion of the passage is that
Geisel’s Dr. Seuss books revolutionized the children’s book industry. The
correct answer will reflect the main idea of the entire passage and not just a
particular paragraph.

(A) CORRECT. The passage discusses a revolution or significant change in the

children’s book industry and describes Geisel’s role in it.

(B) Although the passage describes Fletch’s conclusions, it does not directly support
them. In addition, Fletch’s conclusions are presented in support of the overall
conclusion of the passage and, hence, the support of Fletch's conclusions is not the
primary purpose of the passage.

(C) The passage does not discuss the philosophies of either Fletch or Geisel. Hence,
no comparison or contrast is made.

(D) The popularity of Geisel’s book is mentioned in the last sentence of the passage
only to support the author’s conclusion that Geisel’s books revolutionized the
children’s book industry; it is not the main idea of the passage.

(E) While the state of the children’s book industry is mentioned in the first paragraph
of the passage, it is not the main idea of the passage.

Passage 21

1. We are asked to determine the role that the second paragraph plays in the
passage as a whole. In the first paragraph, the author introduces his main
 point -- that commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world
development -- and begins a discussion about nutmeg. However, this
discussion is incomplete at the end of the first paragraph. It is not until the
second paragraph that we learn how nutmeg affected world development.

(A) CORRECT. The second paragraph offers specific information -- namely, the role
that nutmeg played in the history of New York -- to support the claim that
commonplace items play surprising roles in world history.

(B) The second paragraph does not summarize the evidence.

(C) The second paragraph does not present the author's main point - that
commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development. Also, the
author's main point does not explain the importance of nutmeg as discussed in the
second paragraph; rather, the importance of nutmeg is used as an example to
illustrate the author's main point.

(D) The second paragraph demonstrates the relative importance of nutmeg in an

event of historical significance, but it does not demonstrate the importance of
historical change itself.

(E) The second paragraph does not discuss the outcomes, necessary or otherwise,
of the author's claims. Instead, it offers evidence to support those claims.

2. The question asks us to strengthen the claim that New Amsterdam would not
have become a British possession if not for the conflict over nutmeg. We do
not have to find an answer choice that proves that New Amsterdam would not
have become a British territory, simply one that shows that New Amsterdam
had attributes that the Dutch valued.

(A) This choice tells us that the nutmeg trade was limited to the Banda Islands, but it
does not give us any information concerning New Amsterdam.

(B) The fact that New Amsterdam had a small population is not suggestive of
anything relevant to the question.

(C) The fact that the British controlled trade in other spices does not give a reason to
believe that New Amsterdam would have remained a Dutch possession if not for the
conflict over nutmeg.

(D) CORRECT. The passage tells us that The Netherlands ceded New Amsterdam
in order to gain control of the valuable spice trade. This choice suggests that New
Amsterdam was already a source of wealth for The Netherlands. So perhaps The
Netherlands would have held on to New Amsterdam if they had not been offered
something they perceived to be even more valuable (e.g., nutmeg).

(E) The fact that The Netherlands controlled no other North American territories is
not relevant unless we have information suggesting that The Netherlands felt
compelled to maintain a presence in North America. Since we do not have any such
information, this choice is not relevant.
3. We are asked to find a stated reason for the initial interest of the Netherlands
in the Banda Islands. The correct answer will have been explicitly mentioned
in the passage, though perhaps in different words from those in the answer
choice.

(A) The passage does not mention increased competition with Britain as a reason for
the initial interest of the Netherlands in the Bandas.

(B) The passage does not state that the Dutch were disappointed with the economic
development of New Amsterdam. Instead, it simply states that the Netherlands was
more interested in the Bandas.

(C) The passage does not mention any frustration with Venetian spice merchants.

(D) The passage does not mention any attempts to cultivate nutmeg outside the
Banda Islands.

(E) CORRECT. The Netherlands attacked the Bandas in order to control trade in
nutmeg, a valuable commodity at that time. It hoped to establish a monopoly in the
spice, thus restricting access to it.

4.
We are asked to infer something about the Banda Islands from the information given
in the passage. The correct answer must be based only on information found in the
passage. Any choice that requires additional information or assumptions cannot be
correct.

(A) CORRECT. The passage states that after the Dutch attacked the Bandas, "one
island in the Banda chain, however, remained in the hands of the British." This
implies that the British already had a presence in the islands.

(B) The passage tells us only that nutmeg trees grew in the Bandas. It does not tell
us that no other spice was grown there.

(C) The passage states that nutmeg is made from the nuts of the nutmeg tree, but it
does not state who converted the nuts to spice. According to the passage, the
natives sold the nuts to traders, so it is unlikely that they were the ones to convert
the nuts to spice.

(D) There is no information in the passage about the current status of the Banda
Islands.

(E) The passage does not talk about the overall economy of the Banda Islands.

5.
We are asked for the purpose of the passage overall. Therefore, we must look for an
answer choice that accurately describes the passage in its entirety. If an answer
choice describes only part of the passage, it cannot be the correct answer.
At the beginning of the first paragraph, the author makes the claim that
"commonplace items sometimes play surprising roles in world development." In the
next sentence, the author offers nutmeg as an example. Though the rest of the
passage elaborates on this example, the purpose of the passage as a whole is to
support the claim that ordinary objects sometime cause extraordinary events.

(A) The passage is not primarily about the history of a major city, as it only mentions
New Amsterdam/New York in passing.

(B) The passage discusses nutmeg's role in world history, not that of spices more
generally. Also, the passage discusses nutmeg in service of the general claim that
common items sometimes cause extraordinary events.

(C) CORRECT. Nutmeg is used as a specific example of the author's general claim
that common items sometimes cause extraordinary events.

(D) The author does not argue for continued research into history, political or
otherwise.

(E) The author does present an historical background on a conflict involving nutmeg,
but this is not an "innovative view of a commonplace item"; rather, it is one example
of how a commonplace item can have an interesting and influential role in an
historical development. This answer choice addresses only the example of nutmeg,
not the general principle; it is, therefore, too specific to function as the overall
purpose of the passage.

Passage 22

1.
On questions asking about the main idea of the passage, it is useful to refer to the
opening paragraph, which usually provides a broad overview of the passage. Also,
be sure to avoid extreme answer choices and those answers that refer to a part of
the passage rather than the whole text.

(A) While the passage discusses the origin of the women’s rights movement, the text
does not attempt to compare it to the contemporary state of affairs. Nothing in the
passage is mentioned about the current-day situation.

(B) While the passage discusses the development of the women’s rights movement,
it does not suggest further expansion of women’s rights.

(C) The passage mentions only a few restrictions on women’s rights and does so in
a cursory way. Furthermore, the text merely describes rather than criticizes these
restrictions.

(D) The passage provides no information regarding the specific reasons for the
opposition to women’s rights movement.
(E) CORRECT. The entire passage is devoted to the discussion of the early days in
the women’s rights movement and the events leading up to the Seneca Falls
Convention, which, according to the passage, "is commonly regarded as the
beginning of the women's rights movement in the United States." Note that this idea
is mimicked in the first sentence of the opening paragraph: “The movement for
women’s rights traces its origin to the first half of the nineteenth century.”

2.
On detail questions, you can facilitate your decision process by looking for signal
words. Since this is an “except” question, we can answer it by trying to find the
statements that were mentioned in the choices and then eliminating those choices
that were mentioned. In this process, make sure to use proper nouns (such as
Rochester or the Seneca Falls Convention) and dates (such as 1848) as your
signals. Since dates and capitalized nouns stand out in the text, they can speed up
the process of verifying the answer choices.

(A) The first sentence of the concluding paragraph states that the Seneca Falls
Convention was held on July 19 - 20, 1848.

(B) CORRECT. While the passage states that the convention in Rochester was held
“later in 1848,” it does not mention the specific month of this event.

(C) The opening sentence of the second paragraph mentions that the World Anti-
Slavery convention was held in 1840.

(D) The opening sentence of the last paragraph states that “the Seneca Falls
Convention brought together 240 delegates.”

(E) The opening sentence of the second paragraph states that the World Anti-
Slavery Convention was held in London.

3.
This question asks us to summarize the role of the second paragraph. On this type
of question, it is helpful to re-read the topic sentence of the paragraph at issue. The
topic sentence is typically the first or second sentence of the paragraph.

(A) The Declaration of Sentiments is discussed in the third rather than the second
paragraph.

(B) While the second paragraph discusses the World Anti-Slavery Convention,
nothing is mentioned about the events leading up to this convention.

(C) While the second paragraph mentions that Lucretia Mott accompanied her
husband to the convention, it provides no information about his attitude towards her
attendance.

(D) CORRECT. The second paragraph discusses how the restrictions on women’s
participation in the World-Antislavery Convention escalated their growing discontent
with the limitations of women’s rights. Note that this idea is mimicked in the opening
sentence of the paragraph: “The idea for the convention emerged during the 1840
World Anti-Slavery Convention in London, a conference that precluded its female
delegates from participation in discussions.”

(E) While the passage states that women were precluded from active participation in
the discussions at the World Anti-Slavery Convention, the text provides no
information regarding the reasons for these restrictions.

4.
Since this is an inference question, we will be looking for an answer that can be
inferred strictly based on the information given in the passage and without making
any additional assumptions. Typically, the correct answer must be very closely
connected to the actual text of the passage and directly supported by one or two
sentences.

(A) The concluding paragraph of the passage states that “the Seneca Falls
Convention was followed by an even larger meeting in Rochester, New York,” but
mentions nothing about the breakdown of the delegates for that convention.

(B) The third paragraph describes the rights proclaimed by the Declaration of
Sentiments. While the declaration stated that “… all men and women are born equal
and that no man could withhold a woman's rights, take her property, or preclude her
from the right to vote,” it did not address occupational issues, according to the
passage.

(C) CORRECT. The opening sentence of the last paragraph states that “… the
Seneca Falls Convention brought together 240 delegates between ages 22 and 60,
including 40 men…” Since 40 of the 240 delegates were men, we can infer that the
remaining 200 delegates must have been women. Further, since all the delegates
were between ages 22 and 60, none of the delegates could have been younger than
22 years old. Therefore, we can infer that the convention gathered more than 190
women, none of whom were younger than 20.

(D) While the passage mentions that the husband of Elizabeth Cady Stanton stated
that he would leave town of she read the Declaration of Sentiments at the Seneca
Falls Convention, nothing in the passage implies that he actually did so.

(E) The opening sentence of the second paragraph states that “… the 1840 World
Anti-Slavery Convention in London … precluded its female delegates from
participation in discussions.” However, the passage provides no information
regarding the number of either male or female delegates at that conference.

Passage 23

1.
The question asks us to identify an assumption that the author makes about
biographies. The best approach to this question is simply to evaluate the choices
one-by-one. Since an assumption is an unstated piece of evidence that is necessary
to complete the logic of an argument, we are looking for an answer choice that
completes the logic of the passage.

(A) While the author mentions in the second paragraph that “biographers tend to be
attracted to subjects who display particular personality traits,” informing readers of
these traits is never implied to be the “main” purpose of biographies.

(B) In the first paragraph, the author writes that “serious biographers seek and
welcome the unfamiliar.” The author states in the second paragraph that “the
biographer must like the subject not as a person, but as a subject.” Thus, the author
probably disagrees with this answer choice.

(C) The author concludes in the third paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the
biographer’s main question should be, ‘Can an effective book be made out of this
person’s life?’” The author most likely believes the opposite of this answer choice:
that compelling biographies can be written about ordinary citizens.

(D) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the author discusses the elements of a
good biography, stating that “a biographer’s knowledge and ability also determine
the choice” of subject. If the author did not assume that the biographer's credibility
with readers is a factor in the critical success of a biography, then this part of the
second paragraph would be meaningless.

(E) In the second paragraph, the author discusses the practical considerations a
biographer faces when selecting a subject, though such considerations are never
presented as “most” important. In addition, the author goes on to add in the third
paragraph that when choosing a subject, “the biographer’s main question should be,
‘Can an effective book be made out of this person’s life?’” An adequate answer to
this suggested question goes beyond practical considerations.

2.
This question asks for the author’s primary concern. The correct answer must take
the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. Typically,
the opening paragraph and the topic sentences of each paragraph will reveal the
focus of the passage.

(A) The author does not attempt to persuade biographers to change their methods.
Rather, the author tries to dispel what he takes to be popular misconceptions about
the work of biographers.

(B) CORRECT. The first two paragraphs begin with statements such as “one often
hears that biographies are…”, and the author goes on to explain why these beliefs
are incorrect.

(C) No “reform” of any endeavor is mentioned in this passage. The author simply
argues against certain perceptions about biography writing.

(D) The claims that the author sets out to refute are simply assertions; they lack the
complexity or internal coherence of a theory. Moreover, there is no indication in this
passage that the claims in question are outdated. The author says the claims are
incorrect, but gives no indication that they were, at some earlier date, correct.

(E) The author discusses the concerns and motivations of biography authors in
general, and of Ron Chernow in particular, but does not describe the working
methods of any particular authors.

3.
This question concerns the context in which the author cites Ron Chernow in the first
paragraph. The paragraph begins with the claim that “biographies are
autobiographies.” However, that statement is followed by the phrase “on the
contrary,” signaling that the subsequent mention of Chernow is intended to provide a
counterexample to this claim.

(A) CORRECT. Chernow is cited as a counterexample to the general claim that

“biographies are autobiographies.”

(B) The questionable assertion in the first paragraph is that “biographies are
autobiographies.” However, the signal words “on the contrary” indicate that Chernow
is not intended as an illustration of this assertion, but rather a counterexample.

(C) Chernow is the only biographer named in the passage, so the author never
attempted to make a comparison between Chernow and any other established
biographer.

(D) The importance of research in biography is discussed in the second paragraph,

while Chernow is cited in the first paragraph. Thus, it is likely that Chernow is cited
for some other reason.

(E) The author is not challenging a new approach to biography; if anything, he is

arguing that certain attitudes about biography are inaccurate. Chernow is cited to
counter one such prevailing attitude.

Passage 24

1.
A GMAT inference is one that can be clearly gleaned from the actual text. Since this
questions asks for something that CANNOT be inferred from the passage, the
correct answer will most likely go well beyond the statements in the passage.

(A) The passage states that “many companies are now moving their marketing
dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based campaigns.”
Since the passage mentions “television advertising” as a traditional advertising
outlet, it can reasonably be inferred that the percentage of overall marketing dollars
spent on television advertising has decreased, while the percentage of dollars spent
on internet ads has increased.
(B) The passage directly states that the rise of Internet marketing has sparked a
“more robust effort to measure the outcomes of marketing campaigns.”

(C) In the final paragraph, the passage mentions “the rise of ancillary services—such
as firms that companies must hire to navigate complex web-tracking tools.” These
clearly qualify as new marketing-related service firms.

(D) CORRECT. According to the passage, “proponents of print media argue that
newspaper ads more effectively promote brand awareness and thereby provide
better value” than Internet ads. However, even if true, this does not mean that
companies have devalued “brand awareness” as a marketing goal. Just because,
according to some critics, companies might not be achieving that goal as effectively
as in the past, does not mean that companies do not think that the goal is still
important.

(E) Pay-per-click search engines are described as a newly popular type of Internet
marketing. Clearly, then, these search engines emerged as a direct consequence of
the rise of Internet marketing.

2.
The author of the passage presents the information in a fairly objective manner. In
the first paragraph, the author describes recent advertising trends. Then the author
uses the second paragraph to detail some benefits of these trends before using the
final paragraph to specify some disadvantages. Since the author’s tone in the
passage is descriptive rather than prescriptive (that is, the author never offers her
opinion about the trends), the correct answer should shy away from strong opinions.

(A) The word “only” renders this choice incorrect. The author, while clearly aware of
the benefits of advertising to targeted consumer groups, never states that companies
should invest “only” in this type of advertising. In fact, the author references “brand
awareness” as one of the potential benefits of less directly targeted advertising.

(B) The author never discusses whether traditional advertising outlets, in and of
themselves, are worth the cost for large companies. The passage focuses on
comparing traditional outlets to Internet advertising but it never stakes a claim about
the intrinsic cost-benefit of traditional advertising.

(C) The total actual marketing dollars spent by companies is not mentioned in the
passage. The author never discusses how pay-per-click advertising will effect a
companies total expenditures; instead, the author focuses on the benefits and
disadvantages of different types of advertising.

(D) CORRECT. The passage states that “many companies are now moving their
marketing dollars away from traditional advertising outlets towards Internet-based
campaigns that can target specific consumer groups and quantify the return on
marketing investments.” Thus, the author clearly views effective measurement as
one of the key advantages that Internet-based campaigns have over traditional
advertising outlets.
(E) The passage never compares the actual costs of Internet vs. traditional ads.
While the author discusses relative value and cost-effectiveness, a strict comparison
of actual cost is never made.

3.
The second paragraph of the passage describes pay-per-click search engines as an
example of the trend towards "campaigns that can target specific consumer groups
and quantify the return on marketing investments." The correct answer will stick very
closely to the text that describes pay-per-click search engines.
(A) The passage states that upon clicking an ad, a consumer “is directed to the
company’s website.” This does not mean, however, that the consumer will
necessarily purchase something on the company’s website. While some consumers
may translate into paying customers, nothing in the passage suggests that this is the
case for “most” consumers.

(B) CORRECT. Ads that attract minimal interest will lead to minimal consumer clicks.
Since “a company is charged only when a consumer clicks on the ad,” it follows that
this company will incur relatively little cost for these few clicks.

(C) Since consumers do not actually see the websites of companies until after they
have clicked on an ad, the relative merits of a company's website have no bearing on
an individual’s interest in a particular ad.

(D) The passage provides no information about how a company’s brand impacts the
benefit it receives from pay-per-click ads.

(E) While the passage states that companies “can track a consumer’s online
behavior” using web-analytic technology, this technology is not a prerequisite for
companies to advertise on pay-per-click search engines. The word “always” renders
this choice incorrect.

4.
The first paragraph speaks generally about two new trends in advertising. The
second paragraph illustrates these trends through a discussion of one specific type
of marketing – pay-per-click search engine advertising. The third and final paragraph
then points out the limitations of Internet advertising. The correct answer choice will
correctly state the general function of the third paragraph.

(A) CORRECT. The topic sentence of the third paragraph states that “Internet
advertising has its limits.” The paragraph then goes on to detail two of those potential
limits or disadvantages. The first is the fact that Internet ads may not do as good a
job as traditional advertising at promoting brand awareness. The second is that
various factors “render Internet marketing more costly than some companies
realize.”

(B) Although the third paragraph opens by mentioning that Internet advertising is
“hailed as cost-effective” the entire remainder of this paragraph undermines this
point. The paragraph mentions the possibility that print media provides “better value”
and that Internet marketing is “more costly than some companies realize.”
(C) Rather than arguing against proponents of print media, the third paragraph
mentions these individuals to develop the claim that “Internet advertising has its
limits.”

(D) The example mentioned in the second paragraph is that of pay-per-click search
engine advertising. Instead of further elaborating on this example, the third
paragraph takes a step back from the example and looks at the limitations of Internet
advertising.

(E) Though newspaper ads are mentioned in the third paragraph, they are
contrasted with Internet ads not with television commercials.

Passage 25

1.
The passage first talks about astronomers' assumptions regarding the earth's and
moon's radii and core mass. The next two paragraphs detail the two methods
astronomers employed to analyze their assumptions by using data collected by
Lunar Prospector. The last paragraph discusses the implications of this data.
(A) This choice founders over the use of the singular word "method" and the word
"proved." There were two methods, and "proved" is too extreme.
(B) This choice uses the word "changed," which is factually wrong because the
passage says that it confirmed an assumption.
(C) This choice fails because of the use of the singular "method," and because
"planets" is too general for a passage only concerning the Earth and its moon.
(D) CORRECT. It is acceptable to equate "implications" and "deductions," as well as
"hypothesis" and "assumption."
(E) This choice ignores the entire passage except for the last paragraph, and thus by
definition can not be the passage's sum.

2.
The information to answer this question must come from the second or third
paragraph. As it turns out, the choices all relate to the second one. The second
sentence of that paragraph reads "measured minute variations in radio signals from
Lunar Prospector as the craft moved towards or away from the Earth."

(A) Changes in the craft's velocity were measured while the craft orbited the moon,
not as A states as the craft "returned to Earth."

(B) Although measurements of the Lunar Prospector 's velocity allowed scientists to
create a "gravity map," the scientists did not measure directly the gravitational pull on
the craft.

(C) This choice is incorrect because the passage does not discuss changes in the
moon's gravity.

(D) CORRECT. The phrase "changed position relative to the earth" is a fair
equivalent of "moved towards or away from the Earth."
(E) This choice is incorrect because the passage does not discuss changes in the
moon's gravitational pull over time.

3.
This question asks why the author included this detail. The "gravity map" was a step
in the determination of the size of the moon's core. We must find a choice that
reflects this.
(A) This choice is a distortion—the method was not used in this way.
(B) This choice not only comes from the third paragraph but also reverses the
relationship--the magnetic field work confirmed the map.
(C) CORRECT. The author put in the detail to show a step in the investigation of the
core ("composition") of the moon ("orbiting body").
(D) This choice contains the false word "earth"; in fact, the "moon" is the sole focus
of the investigation of gravity's effects.
(E) This choice incorrectly states that an older theory was discarded; in fact the old
assumption was confirmed.

4.
Because the question is open-ended, the best approach is to evaluate the choices.

(A) CORRECT. The information contained in A can be proven from the information in
the passage. The ratios that it discusses can be found in the first paragraph: the
earth's core contributes 55% of the earth's radius and 32% of its mass, compared to
the moon's core contributing 20% of the moon's radius and 2% of its mass. Like
many correct answers to inferences, the inference is very small.

(B) This choice reverses the relationship suggested in the passage--that the moon
might have broken away from the earth.

(C) This choice does not have to be true both because said proof is not certain and
because it is even less clear that the gravity map could be used for that purpose.

(D) This choice is a typical GMAT flight of fancy that sometimes is given as a wrong
choice; as dinosaurs are not mentioned at all, this answer is impossible.

(E) This choice does not have to follow from the information provided. The passage
does not give any information about the percentage of iron in the earth's core nor
does it compare that aspect of the two cores.

Passage 26

1.
This is a specific detail question that asks what the passage states about the use of
liquid culture. The use of liquid culture is discussed in the second paragraph.

(A) Both agar culture and tryptophan are mentioned in the passage, but are
discussed separately: bacteria were grown in an agar culture, and certain bacteria
require tryptophan in order to reproduce. The passage does not state that the agar
culture contained tryptophan.
(B) Although plating is discussed in the second and third paragraphs, the difficulty of
plating was not mentioned.

(C) The passage did not mention the number of bacteria that could be supported by
the agar culture.

(D) CORRECT. According to the second paragraph of the passage, "because of the
possibility that the lack of uniformity of the agar cultures had in fact trained mutant
strains, they [Fildes and Whitaker] conducted similar experiments with liquid
cultures..." Thus, the liquid culture is a more consistent, or uniform, medium.

(E) In the third paragraph, it is stated that “Fildes and Whitaker used an innovative
plating technique using pile fabrics…” The plating process and the results
demonstrated by this method are subsequently explained. The liquid culture
experiments are discussed separately, in the second paragraph. The passage did
not state that the agar culture did not adhere well to pile fabric.

2.
The replica plating method is discussed in the third paragraph. The first two
sentences describe the process, while the third sentence explains what was learned
by using this method. The correct inference about the effectiveness of the replica
plating method will be a virtual rephrasing of the facts presented in the third
paragraph.

(A) We cannot infer that the replica plating method allows researchers to determine
the relative sizes of different populations of bacteria. The population sizes of various
bacteria populations were never discussed.

(B) CORRECT. The last sentence of the passage states that “the locations of the
mutant strains of bacteria on the replica plates were identical to the locations of the
mutant strains on the original agar plate,” citing this as proof that “the mutants were
in fact genetically present or preadapted.” In other words, the mutant strains did not
develop after transfer from the original agar plate.

(C) The only type of bacteria mentioned in the passage was bacteria typhosum, so
we cannot infer that the replica plating method eliminates the possibility that the agar
culture was contaminated by a different type of bacteria.

(D) The role of tryptophan is discussed in the first and second paragraphs. This
answer choice goes too far by asserting that “no tryptophan was present in the
original agar culture.” We do not have enough information to make that inference.

(E) According to the first paragraph, “the necessary metabolites for bacterial
reproduction” are defined as the substances “necessary for their (bacteria’s) regular
function.” In the case of bacteria typhosum, that substance is tryptophan. We do not
have enough information to infer that the replica plating method establishes that the
original agar culture contained tryptophan. If fact, the presence of mutant strains of
bacteria on the replica plates would contradict this statement rather than support it.
3.
The question asks for the purpose of the passage. The passage focuses on an
experiment designed to challenge an existing theory about bacteria. The correct
answer must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting
its focus.

(A) The “innovative technique” is the replica plating method discussed in the third
paragraph. This technique was used to support the scientific hypothesis of Fildes
and Whitaker. Thus, the passage did not need to “defend [Fildes and Whitaker’s]
scientific hypothesis from attack by [the] innovative technique.” In addition, the
passage did not even defend the theory that Fildes and Whitaker were challenging.

(B) The first sentence of the passage makes it clear that the focus will be to
“challenge the theory that strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate,” not to
describe a process by which such training was accomplished.

(C) CORRECT. The second and third paragraphs discuss the experiments
performed by Fildes and Whitaker that were designed to test the established theory,
mentioned in the first paragraph, that “strains of bacteria can be “trained” to mutate.”
This answer choice summarizes the entire passage.

(D) Fildes and Whitaker argue against a theory, not an established protocol. There is
no mention in the passage that a particular protocol is outdated.

(E) The passage does not state that either Fildes and Whitaker’s theory, or the
theory they were challenging was questionable. The passage describes, but does
not “challenge,” several scientific techniques.

Passage 27

1.
On the GMAT, a correct inference is not a guess about what might be true, but rather
a statement of what must be true based on the facts presented in the passage. Be
careful to justify your answer with proof from the passage.

(A) This statement is too extreme; we cannot infer that no free African Americans in
the American colonies were the offspring of white slave owners. In fact, the first
paragraph states that “these cases [offspring of white slave owners] represent only a
small minority of free African Americans in the South,” and a small minority is
certainly more than none.

(B) CORRECT. The second paragraph begins with "despite the efforts of the various
colonial legislatures, white servant women continued to bear children by African
American fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth
century." This implies that the legislatures took action to prevent these births.

(C) The first sentence of the passage states that “Africans joined a society that was
divided between master and white servants brought from Europe,” but the number of
people in each group was never discussed.
(D) The second paragraph focuses on the history of a number of free African
American families in the South. However, the passage did not provide any
information about the number of African American in the South who had been born
into slavery.

(E) This statement is too extreme; we cannot infer that all births of free African
Americans in colonial America were documented, or that all such records still exist.
The passage mentions some court records in the second paragraph, and some
Lutheran church records in the third paragraph, but these references do not provide
enough information to allow us to make this inference.

2.
The eighteenth century is mentioned in the second paragraph, primarily to discuss
the fact that “white servant women continued to bear children by African American
fathers through the late seventeenth century and well into the eighteenth century.”
What this paragraph suggests about African American slaves at that time will be the
correct answer.

(A) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans,
not whether they were permitted to own land.

(B) The passage discusses the births and family histories of free African Americans,
not what trades they were or were not allowed to practice.

(C) In the first paragraph, the passage states that in the 1600s, “some of these first
African slaves became free, either through escape or through emancipation.” The
passage did not discuss how slaves could become free in the late 1700s, or whether
they could buy their freedom from their owners. In fact, the last sentence in the
second paragraph states that “slaves could not be freed without legislative approval,”
so even if slaves could buy freedom, additional legislative approval would have been
required.

(D) CORRECT. The end of the second paragraph states that "it is likely that the
majority of the remaining families descended from white women since they first
appear in court records in the mid-eighteenth century, when slaves could not be
freed without legislative approval, and there is no record of legislative approval for
their emancipations." This implies that the African American men were not free when
they fathered children with these white women.

(E) The statement that there were no African American slaves in colonial New York
or New Jersey is too extreme; it cannot be supported by the passage. In the third
paragraph, the passage discusses free African Americans in New York and New
Jersey, but we cannot say with certainty that there were no enslaved African
Americans in these states in the late 1700s.

3.
African American families in colonial New York and New Jersey are discussed in the
last paragraph of the passage. The correct answer will be the one that can be
supported by the facts presented in that paragraph.
(A) This statement is contradicted by the last sentence of the passage: “However,
Lutheran church records from the eighteenth century show that a few such couples
[white servant women and African American men] had children baptized."

(B) The topic sentence of the third paragraph states that “the history of free African
American families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite
different from that of free African Americans in the South.” The focus is on the
different histories of the two groups, but there is no discussion of their relative
numbers.

(C) The dates 1644 and 1664 are mentioned in the paragraph as the years when the
Dutch West India Company freed slaves in the area. This does not suggest that the
families were started between 1644 and 1664.

(D) According to the last paragraph, researchers have studied fourteen families of
free African Americans in New York and New Jersey, but the passage does not
suggest that those fourteen families were the “initial group” from which the others
grew.

(E) CORRECT. The last two sentences of the passage read: "None of the fourteen
families appears to be descended from a white servant woman and an African
American man. However, Lutheran church records in the eighteenth century show
that a few such couples had children baptized." The last sentence especially
suggests that although none of the fourteen families studied by researchers
descended from white servant women, church records indicate that some such
families seem to have existed at that time.

4.
When answering any question about the author’s primary interest, purpose, or intent,
we must take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its
focus. Typically, the opening paragraph and the topic sentences of each paragraph
will reveal the focus of the passage. In the opening paragraph of this passage, the
author discusses some misconceptions and assumptions about African Americans in
the colonial and pre-Civil War periods, ending the paragraph with the statement that
“most free African Americans were actually the descendants of African American
men and white servant women.” The subsequent paragraphs are dedicated to
discussing these descendants.

(A) The author does not defend an accepted position, but instead provides evidence
that contradicts some misconceptions and assumptions about colonial history.

(B) The author presents historical facts about African Americans. The author does
not present or analyze an unproven hypothesis.

(C) CORRECT. The author presents facts, and the alternate view that can be drawn
from them, of a historical period.

(D) The author does not critique an outdated theory, but instead presents facts that
are contradictory to some stated misconceptions and assumptions. Also, the
passage does not focus on “colonial development,” but rather a certain segment of
the population in colonial times.

(E) The author does not discuss a “trend,” or describe its “culmination.”

5.
The correct answer is A. The last paragraph states: "The history of free African
Americans families in colonial New York and New Jersey, by contrast, is quite
different from that of free African Americans in the South. Most were descended from
slaves freed by the Dutch West India Company between 1644 and 1664 or by
individual owners." The first paragraph states: "However, these cases represent only
a small minority of free African Americans in the South. Most free African Americans
were actually the descendants of African American men and white servant women."
Taken together, these excepts support choice A.

Passage 28

1.
The question asks us to identify the author's reason for believing that German
reunification could succeed. According to the last sentence of the passage,
"[reunification] would have been preposterous had not West Germany possessed the
resources to accomplish the task." In other words, West Germany was prosperous
enough to afford this major undertaking.
(A) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East
Germany.
(B) The correct principal reason for success does not include attributes of East
Germany.
(C) Although this point is made in the passage, it is not the reason given for
reunification's success.
(D) This is not the reason given in the last sentence for reunification's success.
(E) CORRECT. This choice reflects the information we were looking for: the country
was "materially stable," or prosperous enough, to succeed.

2.
The question asks us to identify the reason that the author mentions the United
States in the passage. In the third paragraph, the author asks whether West
Germany was "up to the task" of re-unification. This is followed by the example of
Italy as a government that does spend the necessary resources to help its
underperforming regions. Then, the author mentions the United States as a
counterexample with negative overtones: "In contrast, in the United States, the local
population bears the burden of varying economic performance. For example, the
American South is allowed to exist with much higher rates of poverty and lower
education than the rest of the nation." [Emphasis added.]
The use of the word "allowed" suggests that the author does not approve of the
situation in the United States. Further, the very next paragraph begins . . ."Rather
than allow East Germany to fall into total disrepair . . . " as if to further contrast the
German government with that of the United States.
(A) The passage in general does not argue against any commonly held beliefs,
including the specific example about the United States.
(B) CORRECT. This choice echoes our above analysis: the author views the
situation cited as "undesirable."
(C) The author disapproves of the cited example, so he would not offer it as a
possible advantageous solution to Germany's reunification.
(D) The passage does not call the principle into question; rather, the author indicates
disapproval of this particular approach.
(E) The author disapproves of the cited example; he would not offer it as a positive
lesson.

3.
The question asks us to identify the purpose of the first paragraph: what role does it
play in the context of the passage as a whole? The first paragraph presents historical
information about the relationship between East and West Germany. This
information is given as background to the subsequent paragraphs. We need to find
an answer choice that is consistent with this analysis.
(A) The relationship between East and West Germany is not merely one example of
a much larger general theory; the passage is about this specific circumstance.
(B) The passage does not seek to alter or revise a commonly held view, either in the
first paragraph or elsewhere.
(C) CORRECT. The first paragraph presents the background information necessary
to understand the claims made in the rest of the passage.
(D) The first paragraph does not raise questions; it provides facts as to the
relationship between East and West Germany at a specific point in time.
(E) The first paragraph does not provide two opposing points of view.

4.
The question asks us to infer something from the passage regarding the relationship
between West Germany and France. The passage notes that countries were "wary
of a united Germany" and next mentions that France, "a perpetual competitor, saw
Germany’s size advantage increase overnight." We need to find an answer choice
that can be deduced from this information alone; we cannot conclude too much. If
France is wary of Germany's impending larger size, then France must also be
worried that it will be negatively impacted by the change.

(A) The above information tells us nothing about the relative stabilities of the two
economies.

(B) The above information does not tell us the entire history of the relative GDPs of
the two countries. "Always" is too extreme.

(C) The above information does not mention either population or international trade
with respect to the two countries' economies.

(D) CORRECT. If France does not view its relative economic position as immutable,
or unable to be changed, then it is sensible for the country to worry that it might be
negatively impacted by the changes in Germany.
(E) The passage does not state or imply that West Germany specifically planned to
bolster its position over that of France.

Passage 29

1.
Hua T'o is mentioned in the following context: "In his talks, Parker described the
state of medical and surgical knowledge--or, rather, scientific ignorance--in China.
Despite the surgical feats of legendary ancient doctors such as Hua T'o of the third
century A.D., surgery did not develop to any great extent in China."

(A) CORRECT. The fact that, by the nineteenth century, Chinese surgical knowledge
had not developed beyond that of an "ancient" doctor underscores the need to
modernize nineteenth century Chinese medicine.

(B) Hua T’o is the only Chinese medical figure mentioned in the passage, so the
author does not mention him to trace the history of such figures.

(C) The topic sentence of the second paragraph concerns the lack of medical and
surgical knowledge, not the lack of leading physicians in nineteenth century China.

(D) While the author recognizes Hua T’o’s achievements, citing “the surgical feats of
legendary ancient doctors,” the overall context reveals that the point was not to
celebrate such achievements, but to indicate how little had been achieved since.

(E) The author does not defend Chinese medicine against criticism; in fact, the
author uses the example of Hua T’o to support Parker’s opinion about the state of
scientific ignorance in China in the nineteenth century.

2.
This question asks which of the statements about Peter Parker is not true. Four of
the statement can be verified in the text, allowing us to select the correct answer by
process of elimination.

(A) In the last paragraph, the passage states that Parker "acquired a reputation as a
surgeon of such skill that the hospital quickly became a general hospital."

(B) In the first paragraph, the passage states that Parker "offered free treatment for
both rich and poor,” so he must have believe that all deserved quality medical
treatment.

(C) CORRECT. While Parker did not feel that that nineteenth century Chinese
medical practices were advanced, the passage never mentions an emotion similar to
"disdain" in describing Parker's feelings towards these practices.

(D) In the second paragraph, the passage states that Parker "returned to the United
States to raise money and interest in his operations." Additionally, Parker "and his
British colleagues formed the Medical Missionary Society of China to coordinate the
efforts of all the western hospitals springing up in the trading ports of Asia."
(E) The second paragraph opens with the statement that Parker “had, at best,
modest success attracting converts to Christianity," suggesting that he did not
completely achieve his missionary goals.

3.
The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. In other words, what was
the author's agenda in writing the passage? The correct answer must take the
entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting the author's intent.
Typically, the opening paragraph and the topic sentences of each paragraph will
reveal the focus of the passage.

(A) The passage focuses primarily on the medical activities of Peter Parker in China
and on behalf of China, not on the status of the medical profession in China before
his arrival in the country.

(B) The author summarizes the contributions of Peter Parker, ending the passage
with the statement that Parker “has thus been credited with bringing Western
medicine to” China, but does not argue that China could not have gained modern
medical knowledge without the influence of Peter Parker.

(C) The passage focuses on the introduction of Western medicine into China, not the
state of medicine in China before the nineteenth century.

(D) The only view of nineteenth century Chinese medicine presented in the passage
is that of Peter Parker, who spoke on the subject in his talks once back in the West.
The passage does not challenge Parker’s view.

(E) CORRECT. The passage as a whole concerns the activities of Peter Parker and
his influence in bringing Western medicine to China in the nineteenth century.

Passage 30

1.
The question asks for the primary purpose of the passage. The correct answer must
take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. The
passage focuses on the process by which cloning occurs and gives a brief
discussion of the debate surrounding the ethics of the practice; in this debate, the
author presents both sides from the points of view of others (critics and proponents).

(A) The passage does not dismiss cloning as entirely unethical, it merely raises the
issue of ethics.

(B) Cloning is not a medical procedure, and furthermore the passage does not
defend cloning. It gives a more neutral presentation of the topic.

(C) CORRECT. This passage explains cloning and discusses its ramifications.
(D) Cloning is not a hypothesis, as the passage states – it has been successfully
accomplished with sheep. Furthermore the passage does not focus only on the
negative consequences.

(E) Cloning is not a new medical approach. Also the passage doesn't analyze
possible outcomes, or results, of cloning; it discusses the positive and negative
ramifications of cloning.

2.
In the first paragraph, the author states "Not until the successful cloning of a sheep
called Dolly, however, has the possibility of intentionally producing an identical copy
of a human been considered seriously." This indicates that the author believes
Dolly's success has encouraged researchers to pursue human cloning.
(A) CORRECT. If researchers have been encouraged by Dolly's success to pursue
human cloning, it must be because they believe there is a chance of success.
(B) Dolly is mentioned in the first paragraph; the ethical concerns are discussed in
the fourth paragraph. In addition, the author does not show that ethical concerns are
misguided; he merely presents both sides of the argument.
(C) The author does not argue, or even discuss, anywhere in the passage the idea
that one type of cloning is less efficient than another type.
(D) The author does not argue for (or against) human cloning anywhere in the
passage.
(E) The author does not refute anything in the passage. In the fourth paragraph, the
author does present the viewpoints of proponents and critics, but the author does not
weigh in on the debate.

3.
The third paragraph states "The low success rate can be attributed to the difference
between the young DNA of a normally fertilized egg and the genetic material of the
re-nucleated egg, which is mature and of defined destiny – it has already committed
itself to a particular physiological role." This means that human cloning faces
difficulties in overcoming the fixed roles of mature DNA.
(A) The difficulty lies in overcoming the fixed roles of mature DNA; this choice does
not address the issue.
(B) CORRECT. "Predetermination" reflects the fixed rolls of DNA found with
"mature" or adult cells.
(C) The passage does not mention funding issues.
(D) The passage does not mention a need to determine "biological relationships
within an egg" or the equivalent. The issue revolves around the different between
young DNA and mature DNA.
(E) The passage does not mention any issues surrounding chemical reactions in the
uterus. The issue revolves around the different between young DNA and mature
DNA.

4.
The second paragraph states "A human egg would be retrieved from an individual,
and its genetic material (DNA) would be removed and replaced with DNA derived
from any adult human cell type. This would bypass the need for fertilization of the
egg by the sperm in order to obtain a full complement of DNA." This implies that the
DNA from the adult cell already contains DNA from the egg (mother) and the sperm
(father).
(A) The passage does not address anything about the time table for success with
human cloning.
(B) The passage directly contradicts this statement by noting, in paragraph three,
how difficult it was to clone Dolly. In addition, the word "always" is extreme.
(C) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between
the two types of egg is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may
translate into success with human cloning.
(D) CORRECT. As noted above, the passage implies that an adult cell contains
DNA from both parents.
(E) The passage does not imply this; if anything, it implies that the similarity between
the two types of DNA is part of the reason why the success of cloning Dolly may
translate into success with human cloning.

5.
In this "double-negative" question, we have to be very careful to make sure that we
don't get confused or turned around. The "true-false" technique will be useful here:
answer choices get a True if they are mentioned as a reason not to pursue human
cloning and a False if they are not mentioned for this reason. The correct answer
will be labeled False.
(A) True. Paragraph four states that there "might be deleterious effects on the long-
term health of the clone." This translates into unknown effects on adult human
clones.
(B) True. Paragraph four states "there is a chance that the cloning procedure would
adversely affect the developing embryo."
(C) True. Paragraph four states that cloning could be used to "select for certain
traits, such as hair/eye color..."
(D) True. Paragraph three states that "mature DNA must be coaxed into reverting to
its youthful state, a complex process that will be difficult to achieve for the human
species."
(E) CORRECT. False. While it may be true that cloning is exorbitantly expensive,
these costs are not mentioned anywhere in the passage.

Passage 31

1.
The word "suggests" in the question indicates that this is an inference question. The
correct answer, therefore, will not be directly stated in the passage, but it will be
based only on information found within the passage, with no outside speculation or
assumptions necessary.
(A) Paragraph 2 states that COX-1 enzymes stimulate production of prostaglandins
that "protect the stomach from irritating gastric acids.” As stated in paragraph 3,
however, COX-2 inhibitors were designed to affect only COX-2; the specific impetus
was not to interrupt the beneficial effects of COX-1.
(B) The author never describes the side effects caused by COX-2 and furthermore
he states in paragraph 3 that the COX-2 drugs were designed “in order to eliminate
the side effects of aspirin and related drugs.” Paragraph 2 states that Naproxen is
one of those related drug.
(C) CORRECT. Paragraph 3 states that the drug class known as COX-2 inhibitors
was introduced by “several pharmaceutical companies in the 1990s." Paragraph 1
states “their mechanisms of action having been discovered only in 1971." This
suggests that approximately 20 years passed between the initial discovery and the
introduction of COX-2 inhibitors.

(D) This choice is incorrect as it describes COX-2 enzymes, not COX-2 inhibitors; in
addition, the information is directly stated in the passage rather than suggested.
Paragraph 2 states that COX-2 appears to stimulate production of prostaglandins
that "induce inflammation in injured tissues.”

(E) This choice is incorrect as it describes prostaglandins, not the drug class COX-2
inhibitors. Paragraph 2 states that prostaglandins are "generated by most
mammalian tissues in response to external stimuli" and "prostaglandins act on the
cells that produce them."

2.
The "True/False" technique is useful for EXCEPT questions. Four of the answer
choices will contain information found in the passage; these will be labeled True.
One answer choice will contain information not found in the passage; it will be
labeled False.
(A) True. Paragraph 2 states “prostaglandins were first discovered in the 1930s."

(B) True. Paragraph 2 states prostaglandins are "generated by most mammalian

tissues.”

(C) True. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for producing the
sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.”

(D) CORRECT. False. The author never claims that prostaglandins cause side
effects. According to paragraph 4, the COX inhibitor drugs, not prostaglandins,
caused side effects that went undetected during clinical trials.

(E) True. Paragraph 2 states that “aspirin alleviates pain by inhibiting... COX; this
inhibition prevents the production of prostaglandins" and goes on to list the three
forms of the enzyme, COX-1, COX-2, and COX-3.

3.
If prostaglandins are a response to external stimuli, or stimuli outside of the body,
then that external stimuli must be closely linked to at least one of the major functions
of prostaglandin.
(A) Stomach ulcers are produced or aggravated by aspirin and similar drugs, not
prostaglandins (and, in fact, these drugs inhibit prostaglandins).

(B) It is mentioned in the passage that “prostaglandins act on the cells that produce
them,” but the author does not draw a connection between where prostaglandins act
and what (i.e. external stimuli) generates their production.
(C) Paragraph 2 states that aspirin, not prostaglandin, prevents cyclooxygenase from
functioning.

(D) Paragraph 2 states that most mammalian hormones "are synthesized in one
tissue but act on a distant one" and contrasts prostaglandins, which "act on the cells
that produce them" or on other nearby cells. This difference is based upon where
the hormones act, not on what the hormones are responding to (whether external
stimuli or something else).

(E) CORRECT. Paragraph 1 states that prostaglandins are "responsible for

producing the sensation of pain in the human body, among other functions.” In the
second paragraph the author mentions that aspirin alleviates pain by preventing the
production of prostaglandins. To bridge the two assertions, the author provides
evidence that prostaglandins are indeed responsible for the sensation of pain, an
external stimuli.

4.
The first paragraph introduces COX-2 inhibitors and talks briefly about a 1971
discovery linking aspirin to prostaglandins. Paragraph 2 elaborates on the
connections among aspirin, prostaglandins, and the three types of COX enzymes.
Paragraph 3 discusses COX-2 inhibitors specifically, both the impetus for creating
them and some negative effects. The final paragraph provides caution about the
promise of COX-2 inhibitors.
(A) The passage explains the intended benefits behind the development of COX-2
inhibitors, but this is much too narrow to be the main purpose of the passage,
particularly when a large part of the passage addresses the negative consequences.

(B) The author does not initiate a “debate.” For a debate, the author must introduce
two clear opposing sides. The COX-2 inhibitors were developed to replace the earlier
drugs that inhibited both COX-1 and COX-2, but then they were also found to have
side effects.

(C) While paragraph 4 states that “Side effects almost always cropped up, even after
clinical trials that seemed to indicate none," the author notes this only in the context
of explaining the result of COX-2 inhibitors. This is too narrow to be the main
purpose of the passage.

(D) CORRECT. This choice reflects the summary above: why COX-2 inhibitors were
developed and the result of the drugs' introduction into the marketplace.
(E) This is incorrect because the passage never mentions a drug class of “COX-1
inhibitors.” COX-1 is introduced as an enzyme; it is not a class of drug.

Passage 32

1.
The question asks for the main idea of the passage. The passage focuses on the
evolution of the dog from the wolf, with emphasis on the characteristics of the wolf
that allowed the transformation. The correct answer must take the entirety of the
passage into account without misrepresenting this focus.

(A) This choice does not address the evolution of the dog from the wolf.

(B) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. The passage is broader
than this choice would suggest. Moreover, the passage never stated or implied that
no other animal has had a similar path to domestication; this is an extreme claim.

(C) CORRECT. This choice takes the entirety of the passage into account without
misrepresenting its focus.

(D) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. While the author appears to
approve of this domestication, it is only one small part of the overall passage. In
addition, the word "unquestionably" is extreme.

(E) This choice misrepresents the focus of the passage. While similarities between
humans and wolves are mentioned in one paragraph, this is only a small piece of the
overall passage.

2.
The question asks us to infer something about the modern dog on the basis of the
information contained in the passage. This inference must be based only on the
information presented, without any additional assumptions or information necessary.

(A) The passage does not provide any information about the "best" social
companion. In addition "best" is an extreme word.

(B) The passage does not provide any information about which household animal is
most intelligent. In addition "unsurpassed" is an extreme word.

(C) The passage does not provide any information about the dog's ability to survive
outside a social environment. In addition "cannot survive" is extreme.

(D) The passage does not imply anything universal about the dog's body type and
breeding. In addition "always" is extreme.

(E) CORRECT. In the second paragraph, the author discusses the fact that
domesticated wolf cubs were raised to be submissive to humans. The modern dog, a
descendant of the domesticated wolf, would share this quality, and would perceive
humans as superior to itself.

3.
The question asks us which of the choices cannot be inferred from the passage. We
will go through the choices and eliminate any that can be inferred. The True / False
technique is useful for EXCEPT questions: those statements which can be supported
are labeled True and the one which cannot be supported is labeled False.
(A) True. In the first paragraph, sheep are given as an example of animals that have
not been integrated (i.e., accepted socially) into human life.

(B) CORRECT. False. The passage offers no information on whether it is possible to

domesticate the jackal or fox. Paragraph 1 states that among the jackals, foxes, et
al, only the wolf possessed the characteristics that allowed for the integration into
human life, however, the other animals might be able to be domesticated.

(C) True. In the second paragraph, the passage states that wolf cubs were raised to
be submissive.

(D) True. In the second paragraph, the passage states that the wolf was
domesticated for its intelligence and other animals for their milk, meat, or wool.

(E) True. This statement is implied by the last paragraph.

Passage 33

1.
The year 1834 is mentioned in the last paragraph, so the correct answer will
probably relate to information contained there.

(A) This choice directly contradicts the passage: “Even as they pulled back from
customary roles and withdrew into private associations, they continued to exercise
public power”.

(B) This choice is incorrect because the author does not mention which group in
particular was the stronger supporter of the religious pluralism; she only mentions
that “a slim majority approved the change.”

(C) This choice incorrectly asserts that Concord’s village elite ceased all Sabbath
worship. While they no longer worshiped at the same church on Sabbath, they did
not necessarily cease all Sabbath worship.

(D) CORRECT. The last paragraph states that after 1834, “[t]ownspeople deserted
the two existing churches–the Unitarian flock of the Reverend Ripley and an
orthodox Calvinist congregation started in 1826–in droves.” Instead, many became
active in “diverse projects for the common good.” In particular, "the village elite were
remarkably active in these campaigns.” The passage thus suggests that the village
elite abandoned the two existing churches in favor of non-church activities such as
those mentioned: “libraries, lyceums, charitable and missionary groups, Masonic
lodges, antislavery and temperance societies.”

(E) This choice claims that the elite used their wealth to found the diverse projects.
While the passage mentions that the village elite “were remarkably active in these
campaigns” there is no mention of whose private funds, if any, were used to found
them.

2.
The question asks for the purpose of the passage as a whole. Therefore, we must
find a choice that accurately describes the passage in its entirety and does not focus
on just one part of it.

(A) This choice incorrectly reverses the cause/effect relationship. The author claims
that economic development resulted in personal autonomy. This choice, however,
claims that religious and political freedom contributed to, or resulted in, economic
development.

(B) This choice highlights the lifestyles of Concord’s elite citizens. While the passage
mentions Concord’s upper class, in terms of their land ownerships and public power,
it never describes their lifestyle per se.

(C) This choice, like choice A, incorrectly reverses the cause/effect relationship,
claiming that social alienation was a requirement for economic and political
development. According to the passage, it was the development that impacted
societal norms, thereby causing a loosening of “common bonds”. Furthermore, the
author never claims that social alienation was necessary for development; perhaps
there was a better way.

(D) This choice incorrectly emphasizes Concord’s place in American history. The
author only goes as far as to mention Concord’s preeminence in the local “Middlesex
County”.

(E) CORRECT. The passage explains that “Concord was probably at its political and
economic pinnacle” and then goes on to describe the impact on societal norms: “old
work customs” and unified religious worship were replaced by a labor market and
“voluntary choice”.

3.
The question asks about the residents of 18th-century Massachusetts (1700s). Since
the question itself is broad, the best approach is to evaluate the answer choices.

(A) This choice is incorrect because it describes Concord’s residents only, and
during the 19th century (1800s).

(B) This choice is incorrect because it describes Concord’s residents only, and
during the 19th century (1800s).

(C) CORRECT. The author notes that “Massachusetts inaugurated a new era of
religious pluralism in 1834, ending two centuries of mandatory support for local
churches”. Therefore, throughout the two centuries prior to 1834, Massachusetts
residents were forced to support local churches.

(D) This choice is incorrect because “America’s Jubilee” was on “on April 19, 1825”,
and the question asks specifically about 18th century (1700s) residents.

(E) This choice is incorrect because it describes Concord’s residents only, and
during the 19th century (1800s).
Passage 34

1.
McGinty's overall message is that the powerful leaders need to be able to use both
types of language, "from the center" and "from the edge," as necessary.

(A) This choice contradicts the last sentence of the third paragraph: "McGinty argues
that true power comes from a deep understanding of when to use which style and
the ability to use both as necessary.

(B) This choice contradicts McGinty's claims that powerful leaders use language
from both the center and the edge, and that language from the center is used to
"claim authority." The most powerful managers, then, would gain authority via
language from the center while also using language from the edge when necessary.

(C) CORRECT. The passage states that language from the center "claim[s]
authority" for the speaker, while language from the edge is "inclusive." This choice
supports McGinty's claim that the powerful use both types of language (and,
therefore, gain the attributes associated with the two types).

(D) This contradicts McGinty's claim that powerful leaders need to use language
from both the center and the edge. In addition, the word "only" is too extreme.

(E) The only mention of "low-level employees" in the passage suggests that lower-
ranking employees use language from the center to gain power and credibility.

2.
The question asks for the primary focus of the passage. The answer to this must
take the entirety of the passage into account without misrepresenting its focus. The
passage centers on a presentation of McGinty's book, which proposes a new way to
understand communication in business settings.

(A) Although McGinty's communication model might be seen as a "certain

framework," the passage does not "demonstrate the effectiveness" of this model;
rather, the passage simply presents the model with only minimal commentary (such
as the word "useful" to describe McGinty's book).

(B) The passage describes McGinty's model of business communication, but does
little to explain its advantages or disadvantages. The passage does contrast
McGinty's model with those in standard management theory; however, the author of
the passage does not judge or evaluate these models relative to each other.

(C) No "theory of business" is put forth, nor is any controversy regarding such a
theory highlighted.

(D) CORRECT. The passage indeed presents the new model of business
communication outlined in McGinty's book.
(E) There is no outdated model of personnel management presented or for that
matter defended here.

3.
The passage gives the following as examples of "language from the center" (lines
33-39): "he directs rather than responds; he makes statements rather than asks
questions; he contradicts, argues, and disagrees; he uses his experience
persuasively; and he maintains an air of impersonality in the workplace."

(A) Requesting help does not fit into any of the above examples.

(B) CORRECT. Explaining the benefits of a new procedure by drawing on the

procedure's success in another setting is an example of "He uses his experience
persuasively.".

(C) Believing that one has been wrongly criticized does not fit the bill of contradicting,
arguing, or disagreeing.

(D) A manager soliciting opinions from his workforce does not fit into any of the
above examples.

(E) Refusing to alter one's behavior is not an example of contradicting, arguing, or

disagreeing.

4.
The fourth paragraph presents a final summary of McGinty's argument and places it
in the context of management theory generally by comparing it to current trends in
the field.
(A) CORRECT. This best reflects the function of the fourth paragraph.
(B) The usefulness of McGinty's thesis is not questioned in the fourth paragraph.
(C) While the focus of McGinty's theory of communication is contrasted that of
general management theory, the primary purpose of this last paragraph is not to
show the shortcomings of management theory. It is to summarize McGinty's theory
in the context of the rest of the field.
(D) No alternative view of McGinty's proposal is presented in the final paragraph.
(E) No additional support is offered for McGinty's theory in the final paragraph.
The correct answer is A.

Passage 35

1.
The correct answer is B. The question asks us to determine which of the choices
was a motivation in the creation of the system of value congruence. According to the
passage (lines 6-9), value congruence was one of the theories that was posited "to
discover what allows some companies to foster high employee morale while other
companies struggle with poor productivity and high managerial turnover."
(A) Poor productivity, high managerial turnover, and employee morale have little to
do with the liability of upper management for employee satisfaction.
(B) CORRECT. Poor productivity, high managerial turnover, and employee morale
are related to a company's internal harmony or lack thereof. The proof sentence
does not correlate directly to this answer choice, making this a fairly difficult
question.
(C) Poor productivity, high managerial turnover, and employee morale have little to
do with the earning potential of employees.
(D) Poor productivity, high managerial turnover, and employee morale have little to
do with the factors influencing managerial success.
(E) Poor productivity, high managerial turnover, and employee morale have little to
do with the discrepancies between a company's goals and the values of its
employees.
The correct answer is B

2.
The question asks us to determine which of the choices would be the best use for
perceptual fit ("PF"). The passage defines perceptual fit as the congruence between
a given employee's perception of his company's values and the perception of the
company's values held by other employees. Therefore, we need to determine which
answer choice could be determined using this measure.
(A) CORRECT. This choice suggests that PF could be used to determine whether a
company ought to make its policies and goals more transparent. PF will indicate to a
company whether its employees generally see the company's values the same way.
This would be useful in determining whether the company needed to do a better job
in making those values clear to its employees.
(B) This choice suggests that PF could be used to determine whether a company
ought to provide sensitivity training for its management. PF is not relevant to issues
of sensitivity training.
(C) This choice suggests that PF could be used to determine whether a company
ought to create more opportunities for interaction among workers. Since PF is used
to determine whether employees hold the same view of the company's values, this
choice may seem attractive. But it does not specifically relate to the notion of
company values, as choice A does.
(D) This choice suggests that PF could be used to determine whether a company
needed to address employee grievances more directly. PF is not related to the
concept of company values.
(E) This choice suggests that PF could be used to determine whether a company
ought to have a more elaborate orientation program for new employees. PF is not
related to the concept of company values as seen by employees.
The correct answer is A.

3.
This question asks us to find a choice that describes the primary focus of the
passage. The correct answer must cover the entirety of the passage without
misrepresenting it.
(A) This choice mentions a comparison between a new theory and a "discredited
theory". Since there is no discussion of a discredited theory in the passage, this
choice is incorrect.
(B) This choice mentions a "detailed analysis of a particular case". Since the
passage does not focus on a particular case, this choice is incorrect.
(C) This choice describes the passage as challenging an "old view of employee
commitment". Since the passage does not discuss old views of employee
commitment, this choice is incorrect.
(D) CORRECT. This choice describes the passage as "promoting a new method of
measuring the likelihood of corporate success" – so far, so good – and as
"explaining its benefits". This covers the entirety of the passage and describes its
purpose and function accurately.
(E) This choice states that the passage defends "a proposed system of corporate
analysis through examples of its success." Since the passage does not discuss
examples of success, this choice is incorrect.
The correct answer is D.