FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

PHASE – I
BATCH – ITY1921
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.

Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.5 for correct response of each
question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.
No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer
sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and
Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.

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BHIT1921 (XI) PH-1- A–LOT JEE MAIN−

Physics
PART – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

→ → →
1. Let A = A cosθ î + A sinθ ĵ be any vector. Another vector B which is normal to A is –
(A) B cos θ î + B sin θ ĵ (B) B sin θ î + B cos θ ĵ
(C) B sin θ î – B cos θ ĵ (D) A cos θ î – A sin θ ĵ

ab 2
2. An experiment measures quantities a, b, c and X is calculated from X = . If the
c3
percentage errors a, b c are ± 1 %, ± 3 % and ± 2 % respectively, the percentage error in
X can be
(A) ± 13 % (B) ± 7 %
(C) ± 4 % (D) ± 1 %

3. Which of the following is independent of choice of coordinate system -

(A) P + Q + R (B) (Px + Qx + Rx) î
(C) (Px î + Qy ĵ + Rz) (D) all of these

4. The vernier of a circular scale is divided in to 30 divisions, which coincides with 29 main
scale divisions. If each main scale division is (1/2)o, the least count by the instrument is
(a) 0.1′ (b) 1′ (c) 10′ (d) 30′

5. If A = î + ĵ and B = î – ĵ , then a vector C perpendicular to both A and B and having a

magnitude equal to 3 is -
(A) 3 k̂ (B) 3 ( î + ĵ ) (C) 3 ( î + 2 k̂ ) (D) 3 ( î + ĵ )

6. A particle moves on a circular track of radius

5m with a uniform speed 5 m/s. What is the
magnitude of average acceleration of the
particle over the time interval in which it
A
completes one revolution?
10 5 1
(A) m / s2 (B) m / s2 (C) m / s2 (D) zero
2π 2π 2m

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BHIT1921 (XI) PH-1- A–LOT JEE MAIN−

 2πct   2πx 
7. The equation of the stationary wave is y = 2A sin   cos   Which of the following
 λ   λ 
statements is wrong ?
(A) the unit of ct is same as that of λ
(B) the unit of x is same as that of λ
(C) the unit of 2π c/λ is same as that of 2πx/λt
(D) the unit of c/λ is same as that of x/λ

8. If a particle is in motion for some time, which of the following can be zero?
(A) displacement (B) distance covered
(C) speed (D) information not sufficient

2
9. The time dependence of a physical quantity P is found to be of the form P = P0 e −αt where t is
time and α is some constant. Then the constant α will -
(A) be dimensionless
(B) have dimensions of T–2
(C) have dimensions of P
(D) have dimensions of P multiplied by T–2

10. If the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (p) are taken as
fundamental units, the dimensions of gravitational constant (G) are -
(A) c0gp–3 (B) c2g3p–2 (C) c0g2p–1 (D) c2g2p–2

11. The water falls at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
at instant, the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop at
that instant ?
(A) 1.25 m (B) 2.50 m (C) 3.75 m (D) 4.00 m

12. A person standing near the edge of the top of a building throws two balls A and B. The ball A
is thrown vertically upwards and B is thrown vertically down with same speed. The ball A hits
the ground with speed vA and ball B hits the ground with speed vB, then –
(A) vA > vB (B) vA < vB
(C) vA = vB (D)Information incomplete

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13. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle with constant acceleration is shown in the
figure. The velocity-time graph is given by –
x (m)

t (s)
O 1 2
v (m/s) v (m/s)
10 10
t (s) t (s)
(A) 0 1 2 (B) 0
1 2

–10 –10
v (m/s) v (m/s)
10 10
t (s) t (s)
(C) 0 1 2 (D) 0 1 2

–10 –10

14. The acceleration versus time graph of a particle is as shown in figure. The respective v – t
graph of the particle is –
a

O t
v
v
(A) (B)
O t

O t
v v
(C) (D)

O t O t

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15. Three particles starts their motion from the origin at the same time, the first moves with a
velocity u1 along the x-axis, the second moves along the y-axis with a velocity u2 and the third
along the straight line y = x. Then, the velocity of the third particle so that all the three always
lie on the same line is -
u1 + u 2 u 1u 2 2 u 1u 2
(A) (B) u 1u 2 (C) (D)
2 u1 + u 2 u1 + u 2

16. Three projectile A, B and C are thrown from the same point in the same plane. Their
trajectories are shown in the figure. Then which of the following statement is true –

O A B C
(A) The time of flight is the same for all the three
(B) The launch speed is greatest for particle C
(C) The horizontal velocity component is greatest for particle C
(D) All of the above

17. A particle is projected from a point O with a velocity u in a direction making an angle α upward
with the horizontal. After some time at point P it is moving at right angle to its initial direction of
projection. The time of flight from O to P is-
u sin α u cos ecα u tan α u sec α
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g g g

18. If R is the range of a projectile on a horizontal plane and h its maximum height, then maximum
horizontal range with the same velocity of projection is-
R2 h2 R2
(A) 2h (B) (C) 2R + (D) 2h +
8h 8R 8h

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19. A particle is thrown over a triangle from one end of a horizontal base and grazing the vertex
falls on the other end of the base. If α and β be the base angles and θ the angle of projection
then correct relation between (θ), (α) and (β)is-
(A) tan α = tanθ + tanβ (B) tan θ = tanα + tan β
(C) tan θ = tanα – tan β (D) tan β = tanθ + tan α

20. A particle is released from a certain height H = 400 m. Due to the wind the particle gathers the
horizontal velocity vx = ay where a = √5 sec–1 and y is the vertical displacement of the particle
from point of release, then the horizontal drift (displacement) of the particle when it strikes the
ground is–
(A) 2.67 km (B) 8.67 m (C) 1.67 km (D) 5.1 km

21. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass m each have accelerations a1, a2 and a3
respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitude 2mg and mg respectively.

m m m
A B C
F1 = 2mg
2m F2 = mg
(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a3 > a2 (C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2, a2 = a3

22. In the shown system m1 > m2. Thread QR is holding the system. If this thread is cut, then just
after cutting.

m2
Q m1
R

(A) Acceleration of mass m1 is zero and that of m2 is directed upward

(B) Acceleration of mass m1 is zero and that of m2 is directed downward
(C) Acceleration of both the blocks will be same
 m − m2 
(D) Acceleration of system is given by  1  kg , where k is a spring factor
 m1 + m 2 

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23. In the arrangement shown in figure, pulleys A and B are massless and the thread is
inextensible. Mass of pulley C is equal to m. If friction in all the pulleys is negligible, then

C
(A) tension in thread is equal to 1/2 mg
(B) acceleration of pulley C is equal to g/2 (downward)
(C) acceleration of pulley A is equal to g (upward)
(D) acceleration of pulley A is equal to 2g (upward)

24. In the ideal case,

A P

B C
(A) magnitude of acceleration of A is sum of magnitude of acceleration of B and C
(B) magnitude of acceleration of A is arithmetic mean of magnitude of acceleration of B and C
(C) acceleration of pulley P is same as that of mass B
(D) if P is massless, net force on pulley is non-zero

25. In the arrangement shown in the figure, the ends P and Q of an unstretchable string move
downwards with uniform speed u, pulley A and B are fixed. Mass M move up with speed-
A B
θ θ

P Q

M
(A) 2u cos θ (B) u/cos θ (C) 2u/cos θ (D) u cos θ

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26. A flat car is given an acceleration a0 = 2m/s2 starting from rest. A cable is connected to a crate
A of weight 50kg as shown. Neglect friction between the floor and the car wheels and also the
mass of the pulley. Calculate corresponding tension in the cable if µ = 0.30 between the crate
and the floor of the car –

a0
50 kg

(A) 350 (B) 250 (C) 300 (D) 400

27. Two blocks connected by a massless string slide down an inclined plane having angle of
inclination 37º. The masses of the two blocks are M1 = 4kg and M2 = 2kg respectively and the
coefficients of friction 0.75 and 0.25 respectively –
(a) The common acceleration of the two masses is 1.3 ms–2
(b) The tension in the string is 14.7N
(c) The common acceleration of the two masses is 2.94 ms–2
(d) The tension in the string is 5.29N
M1 = 4kg

M2 = 2kg

37º
(A) a, d (B) c, d (C) b, d (D) b, c

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28. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0.363. What is the minimum
acceleration of block 1 so that block 2 does not fall –

1 2 a

(A) 6 ms–2 (B) 12 ms–2 (C) 18 ms–2 (D) 27 ms–2

29. A block rests on a rough plane whose inclination θ to the horizontal can be varied. Which of the
following graphs indicates how the frictional force F between the block and the plane varies as
θ is increases –

F F F F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O θ O θ O θ O θ
90º 90º 90º 90º

30. A plank 1 m long is fixed with one end , 28 cm above the level of the other end. The top half of
the plank is smooth and the bottom half is rough. When a small block of mass m is released at
the top, it just reaches the bottom –
(A) coefficient of friction between the block and the rough part of plank is 7/12
(B) the coefficient of friction between the block and the rough part of plank is 1/2
 24 
(C) on the rough part, the reaction on the block is   mg
 25 
(D) on the rough part, the reaction on the block is (28/100) mg

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 BHIT1921 (XI) PH-1- A–LOT JEE MAIN−10

Chemistry
SECTION – II
(One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

1. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid H 3 PO4 in the reaction (M. Wt. H3PO4 =98),
NaOH + H 3 PO4 → NaH 2 PO4 + H 2 O is
(A) 59 (B) 49 (C) 25 (D) 98

2. A 100 ml solution of 0.1N HCl was titrated with 0.2N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued
after adding 30 ml of NaOH solution. The titration was completed by adding 0.25N KOH solution.
The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is:
(A) 70 ml (B) 32 ml (C) 35 ml (D) 16 ml
1
3. 10 ml of H 2 O2 solution is reacted with 40ml of N KMnO4 in acidic medium then what is the
4
volume strength of H 2 O2 ?
(A) 2.8 (B) 5.6 (C) 11.2 (D) 8.4

4. A certain gas diffuses from two different vessels A and B. The vessel A has a circular orifice while
vessel B has square orifice of length equal to the radius of the orifice of vessel A. The ratio of the
rates of diffusion of the gas from vessel A to vessel B, assuming same temperature and pressure
is:
(A) π (B) 7 : 22 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1

5. The value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170
and 2.253 litre2atm mol-2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is:
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) NH3 (D) CH4

 a 
6. At low pressure, van der Waals’ equation is reduced to  P + V = RT . The compressibility
 V 2 
factor can be given as:
a RTV a RTV
(A) 1 − (B) 1 − (C) 1 + (D) 1 +
RTV a RTV a

7. It takes 2.56 × 10–3 equivalents of KOH to neutralize 0.1254 g H2XO4 completely. The no. of
neutrons in X is (If number of neutron and proton are equal in X)
(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 32

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8. What % of oxygen is present in the compound CaCO3.3Ca3(PO4)2 ?

(A) 23.3% (B) 45.36% (C) 41.94% (D) 17.08%

9. Manganese forms non-stoichiometric oxides having the general formula MnOx. The value of x for
the compound that analyzed 64% by mass Mn
(A) 1.16 (B) 1.83 (C) 2 (D) 1.93

10. When the frequency of light incident on a metallic plate is doubled, the kinetic energy of emitted
photoelectrons will be
(A) Doubled (B) halved (C) more than doubled (D) no change

11. Calculate the bond length of C-X, if C-C bond length is 1.54 Å. X – X bond length is 1Å and
electronegativity values of C and X are 2.0 and 3 respectively
(A) 1.18 Å (B) 1.27 Å (C) 2.54 Å (D) 2.45 Å

12. The Vander Wall’s radii of O, N, Cl, F and Ne increases in the order
(A) F, O, N, Ne, Cl (B) F, O, N, Cl, Ne (C) Ne, F, O, N, Cl (D) F, Cl, O, N, Ne

13. The incorrect statement in the following is

(A) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al
(B) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than first I.P. of Mg
(C) The first I.P. of Al is less than the first I.P. of Mg
(D) The second I.P. of Mg is greater than the second I.P. of Na.

14. Wave number of the limiting line for the Lyman series of He+ ion is
(A) 3R/4 (B) 4R (C) R/4 (D) R

15. Difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr’s radius of H atom is equal to its (n - 1)th Bohr’s radius.
The value of n is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3

16. Potential energy of Li2+ electron is

−3 e 2 3 e2 −2 e 2 − 2 e2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 π ε0 r 4 π ε0 r 2
4 π ε0 r 2
4 π ε0 r

17. From the ground state electronic configurations of the elements given below, pick up the one with
highest value of second ionization energies
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 (B) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(C) 1s , 2s , 2p
2 2 6 (D) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5

18. A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an element
would be associated with which of the following electronic configuration?
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1 (B) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
(C) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6 (D) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2

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19. Magnetic moment of V(Z = 23), Cr(Z = 24) and Mn (Z = 25) are x, y, z respectively hence
(A) x = y = z (B) x < y < z (C) x < z < y (D) z < y < x

20. Which transition metals +2 & +3 ions have five d electrons.

(A) Mn2+ & Fe3+ (B) Co3+ & Ni2+ (C) Co2+ & Fe3+ (D) Mn3+ & Fe2+

21. 0.1 mole H3POx is completely neutralised by 11.2 g KOH then the true statement is :
(A) x = 3 and given acid is dibasic (B) x = 4 and given acid has no p-H linkage
(C) x = 2 and given acid is dibasic (D) None of these

22. At -73°C and 400 atm pressure 2.8 Kg N2 gas is filled up in a cylinder of 100 L capacity then the
forces that will dominate among the N2 molecules is
(A) repulsive (B) attractive (C) both (D) none of these

23. Quantum No. l = 2 and m = 0 represent which orbital:

(A) dxy (B) dx2 - y2 (C) dz2 (D) dzx

24. Fe shows an oxidation state of +1 in

(A) Fe(CO)5 (B) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (D) FeCl4

25. An element has exceptional outer electronic configuration as 4d10 5s0 it belongs to
(A) 4th period, group 11 (B) 5th period, group 10
(C) 4th period, group 10 (D) 5th period, group 11

26. The smallest size cation and anion that can exist are
(A) H+ and H- (B) H+ and F- (C) Li+ and F- (D) Li+ and H-

27. At constant volume and temperature conditions, the rate of diffusion DA and DB of gases (A) and (B)
having densities ρA and ρB are related by
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
 ρ   ρ  ρ  ρ 
(A) DA =  DB A  (B) DA =  DB B  (C) DA = DB  A  (D) DA = DB  B 
 ρB   ρA   ρB   ρA 
28. A solution of NaOH is prepared by dissolving 4.0 g of NaOH in 1 L of water. Calculate the volume of
the HCl gas at STP that will neutralize 50 mL of this solution
(A) 224 mL (B) 56 mL (C) 112 mL (D) 448 mL

29. For a given mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 volume of a given HCl required is X ml with
phenolphthalein indicator and further Y ml required with methyl orange indicator. Hence volume of
HCl for complete reaction of NaHCO3 is originally present
(A) 2x (B) x/2 (C) y (D) (y – x)

30. The density of a mixture of O2 and N2 is 1.3 mg/L at NTP. Calculate the volume occupied by 2 mol
of He gas at 273 K, having pressure equal to double the partial pressure of the O2 gas in the 1st
mixture (approximately)
(A) 40 litre (B) 80 litre (C) 160 litre (D) 320 litre

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION – III
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.

| x |2 − | x | −2
1. > 0 holds if and only if
The inequality 2 | x | − | x |2 −2
2 2
(A) −1 < x < − or < x < 1 (B) -1< x < 1
3 3
2
(C) < x <1 (D) −2 < x < 2
3
2
2. Number of real solution(s) of the equation | x − 3 |3 x −10x + 3 = 1 is
(A) exactly four (B) exactly three (C) exactly two (D) exactly one

3. If 5x log2 3 + 3log2 x = 162 then logarithm of x to the base 4 has the value equal to
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) 3/2

4. If log10 2 = 0.3010, log10 3 = 0.4771 , then the number of integers in 5200 are
(A) 154 (B) 155 (C) 160 (D) None

5. Let α, β be the roots of the equation ax 2 + 2bx + c = 0 and γ , δ be the roots of the equation
px 2 + 2qx + r = 0 . If α, β, γ , δ are in G.P. then
(A) q2ac = b2pr (B) qac = bpr (C) c 2pq = r 2 ab (D) p2ab = a2 qr

6. If both the roots of the equations k(6x 2 + 3) + rx + 2x 2 − 1 = 0 and 6k(2x 2 + 1) + px + 4x 2 − 2 = 0 are

common, then 2r – p is equal to
(A) 1 (B) – 1 (C) 2 (D) 0

7. If the quadratic equation ax 2 + 2cx + b = 0 and ax 2 + 2bx + c = 0(b ≠ c) have a common, root, then
a + 4b + 4c is equal to
(A) -2 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 1

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8. If roots of the equation 3x 2 + 2(a2 + 1)x + (a2 − 3a + 2) = 0 are of opposite signs, then a lies in the
interval
(A) ( −∞,1) (B) ( −∞,0) (C) (1, 2) (D) (3/2, 2)
x 2 − 6x + 5
9. If x is real, then the least value the expression is
x 2 + 2x + 1
(A) -1 (B) -1/2 (C) -1/3 (D) none

10. If the equation sin4 x − (k + 2)sin2 x − (k + 3) = 0 has a solution then k must lie in the interval
(A) ( −4, −2) (B) [ −3,2) (C) ( −4, −3) (D) [ −3, −2]

11. If α and β are the roots of ax 2 + bx + c = 0 , then the equation ax 2 − bx(x − 1) + c(x − 1)2 = 0 has
roots
α β 1− α 1− β α β α +1 β +1
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
1− α 1− β α β 1+ α 1+ β α β

12. Graph of the function f(x) = Ax2 – BX + C, where

A = (sec θ – cos θ) (cosec θ – sin θ) (tan θ + cot θ),
B =(sin θ + cosec θ)2+ (cos θ + sec θ)2– (tan2 θ + cot2 θ) & C = 12, is represented by
y y

(A) (B)
x x

y y

(C) x
(D)
x

π 2π 3π 4π 5π 6π 7π
13. The value of cos + cos + cos + cos + cos + cos + cos is
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) none of these
2 2
14. The roots of the equation (a + b)x −15
+ (a − b )x −15
= 2a where a2 − b = 1 are
(A) ±2 (B) ±4 (C) ± 4 (D) ± 3

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15. If sec α and cosec α are the roots of x 2 − px + q = 0 , then

(A) p2 = q(q − 2) (B) p2 = q(q + 2) (C) p2 + q2 = 2q (D) none of these

x1 + x 2
16. If x1 and x2 are two distinct roots of the equation acos x + b sin x = c, then tan is equal to
2
a b c a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
b a a c

 3π   π x
17. If x ∈  π,  , then 4 cos2  −  + 4 sin4 x + sin2 2x is always equal to
 2  4 2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) – 2 (D) none of these

sin2A + sin 2B + sin 2C

18. In triangle ABC is equal to
sin A + sinB + sinC
A B C A B C A B C A B C
(A) 8 sin sin sin (B) 8 cos cos cos (C) 8 tan tan tan (D) 8cot cot cot
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

1 + cos x + 1 − cos x  x
19. If x ∈ ( π,2π ) and = cot  a +  , then a is equal to
1 + cos x − 1 − cos x  2 
π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
4 2 3

20. The distance between the two parallel lines is 1 unit. A point ‘A’ is chosen to lie between the lines at
a distance ‘d’ from one of them. Triangle ABC is equilateral with B on one line and C on the other
parallel line. The length of the side of the equilateral triangle is
2 2 d2 − d + 1
(A) d + d+1 (B) 2 (C) 2 d2 − d + 1 (D) d2 − d + 1
3 3

21. If α + β = π / 2 and β + γ = α, then tan α equals

(A) 2(tan β + tan γ ) (B) tan β + tan γ (C) tan β + 2 tan γ (D) 2 tan β + tan γ

22. If 0º < θ < 180º then 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + ............. + 2(1 + cos θ) there being n number of 2’s , is

equal to-
θ θ θ
(A) 2 cos (B) 2 cos n −1
(C) 2 cos n +1
(D) None of these
2n 2 2

a  ax −x
 d2 y
23. If y = e + e a
and = y , then a equals
2   dx 2
1
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) (D) none of these
2
dy
24. If y = f(e− x ) and f '(x) = ln x then at x = ln 2 is
dx
− ln2
(A) 2ln2 (B) (C) ln 2 (D) none of these
2

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π/3
1
25. If ∫
π/4
sin 2
x cos2 x
dx = k , then k is equal to

2
(A) (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
3
π/2
4 cos x
26. The value of
π ∫
0
cos+ sin x
dx is equal to

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) – 1 (D) 0

 1
27. Let f(x) = ln | x − 1|, x ≠ 1 , then the value of f '  
 2
(A) is – 2 (B) is 2 (C) is 0 (D) does not exist
2t 2t dy
28. If tan y = and sin x = , then is not equal to
1 − t2 1 + t2 dx
(A) 1 (B) sin2 θ + cos2 θ (C) sec 2 θ − tan2 θ (D) none of these

29. The maximum value of the function f(x) = 2x 3 − 15x 2 + 36x − 48 on the set A = {x | x 2 + 20 ≤ 9x} is
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 5

30. India today conducted a survey if people taking tea/ coffee. Out of 9000 people, 5550 people take
tea, 3600 people take coffee and 1500 people take both tea and coffee. How many people take
neither tea nor coffee?
(A) 350 (B) 700 (C) 1120 (D) 1350

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 BHIT1921 (XI) PH-1- A–LOT JEE MAIN−17

FIITJEE - JEE (Mains)

ITY – PHASE – 1 (A–LOT)
BATCH – ITY1921

ANSWERS
PHYSICS

1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. D

7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. C

13. A 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D

19. B 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C

25. B 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. A

CHEMISTRY
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A

7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. C

13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D

19. C 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. C 24. B

25. B 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. D 30. B

MATHS

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. D

7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. B

13. B 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. B 18. A

19. A 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. C

25. A 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. D

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