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Foundation _ 10.05.2019
_ I _17.01.2020 Class Test
(Where A is the amplitude)
01. The velocity of a particle executing simple
harmonic motion is A
(1) A 2 (2)
(1) 2 A 2  x 2 (2)  A 2  x 2 2

(3)  A2  x 2 (4) 2 A2  x 2 2 2 2
(3) A (4) A
02. The maximum speed of a particle executing SHM 3 3
is 10 m/s and maximum acceleration is 08. The function sin t  cos t represents
31.4 m/s 2 . Its periodic time is 
(1) 2s (2) 4s (1) a simple harmonic motion with a period

(3) 6s (4) 1s
03. The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg 2
in moti on along the x-axis is g iven by (2) A simple harmonic motion with a period

U  4(1  cos 2x)J, where x is in metres. (3) A periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
The period of small oscillations (in s) is 
(1) 2 (2)  with a period

(3)  /2 2(4) (4) A periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
04. Which of the following relationships between the 2
with a period
acceleration a and the displacement x of a 
particle involve simple harmonic motion ? 09. Two particles execute SHM of same amplitude
(1) a  0.7x (2) a  200x2 and frequency along the same straight line from
same position. They cross one another without
(3) a  10x (4) a  100x 3 collision , when going in opposite directions,
05. Two simple harmonic motions are represented
3
by the equations each time their displacement is th of their
5
(1) A11  A 22  A 3 3
amplitude from equilibrium position. The phase
2 difference between them is
(2) A 2  A 2  A 3
1 1 2 2 3
[Given sin 370  3 /5 , cos 370  4 /5 ]
(3) A121  A 222  A 233
(1) 740 (2) 1200
2 2 2 2 2 2
(4) A   A   A 
1 1 2 2 3 3 (3) 900 (4) 1060
06. If <T> and <U> denote the average kinetic and 10. The displacement of a particle is represented by
the average potential energies respectively of a  
mass executing a simple harmonic motion over the equation y  3cos   2t  . The motion of
 4 
one period, then the corresponding relation is the particle is
(1)  T  2  U  (2)  T  2  U 
(1) simple harmonic with period 2 / 
U
(3)  T  U  (4)  T  (2) simple harmonic with period  / 
2
(3) periodic but not simple harmonic
07. The kinetic energy of a particle executing SHM will (4) non-periodic
be equal to (1/8)th of its potential energy when its
dispalcement from the mean position is

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11. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. (3) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force
The radius of the circle, the period, sense of on the particle when it is 4 cm away from B
revolution and the initial position are indicated going towards A are negative
on the figure. The simple harmonic motion of (4) The sign of acceleration and force on the
the x-projection of the radius vector of the particle when it is at points B is negative
rotating particle P is 14. What is the phase difference between two simple
y
 2 t  harmonic motions represented by
(1) x (t )  B sin   p(t=0)
 30   
T=30s x1  A sin  t   and x 2  A cos t
B  6
 t     2
(2) x (t )  B cos   x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 15  6 3 2 3
 t    t   15. Which of the following is not characteristic of
(3) x (t )  B sin    (4) x (t )  B cos    simple harmonic oscillation?
 15 2   15 2 
(1) The motion is periodic
12. The displacement-time graph of a particle (2) The motion is along straight line about the
executing SHM is shown in figure. Which of the mean position
following statement is false ? (3) The acceleration of the particle is directed
towards the extreme positions
displacement

(4) The oscillations are responsible for the energy

2T/4 T transpotation
0 T/4 3T/4 5T/4 time(s) 16. The angular velocity of a wheel increases from
100 rps to 300 rps in 10 seconds. The number of
revolutions made during that time is
3T
(1) The force is zero at t  (1) 600 (2) 1500 (3) 1000 (4) 2000
4
4T 17. A torque of 50Nm acting on a wheel at rest
(2) The acceleration is maximum at t 
4 rotates it through 200 radian in 5 sec. Calculate
T the angular acceleration produced
(3) The velocity is maximum at t 
4
T (1) 8 rad sec 2 (2) 4 rad sec 2
(4) The PE is equal to KE of oscillation at t 
2
13. A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion (3) 16 rad sec 2 (4) 12 rad sec 2
between two points. A and B, 10 cm apart (figure)
take the direction from A to B as the positive 18. Five particles of mass 2kg are attached to the
direction and choose the incorrect statements rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1m & negligible
A O C B mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the
A 0  0B  5 cm axis passing through the centre of the disc and
AC  8 cm perpendicular to its plane is
(1) The sign of velocity, acceleration and force
(1) 1kg  m 2 (2) 0.1kg  m 2
on the particle when it is 3 cm away from A
going towards B are positive (3) 2kg  m 2 (4) 0.2kg  m 2
(2) The sign of velocity of the particle at C going
towards B is negative

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19. Four thin rods of same mass M and same length 5 5
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
l , form a square as shown in figure. Moment of 2 21
inertia of this system about an axis through 23. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
centre O and perpendicular to its plane is The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure.
4 2 I AB , I BC , I CA are the moments of inertia of the
(1) Ml l
3 plane about AB, BC, CA respectively. Which one
of the following relations is correct
Ml 2 l l A
(2) O (1) I CA is maximum
3
(2) I AB  I BC 4 5
Ml 2 2 2
(3) (4) Ml l
6 3 (3) I BC  I AB
20. From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made B 3 C
(4) I AB  I BC  I CA
(i) P of radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the
moment of inertia of Q about an axis passing 24. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD,
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane whose centre is O
is 8 times that of P about a similar axis, the value
(1) 21AC  I EF A E B
of n is (diameter of the wire is very much
smaller than r or nr)
(2) I AD  3I EF O
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
21. Three rings each of mass M and radius R are (3) I AC  I EF (4) I AC  2I EF D C
F
arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
of inertia of the system about YY” will be 25. A wheel having moment of inertia 2kg  m 2
Y about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60
(1) 3 MR 2
rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop
3 the wheel’s rotation in one minute would be
(2) MR 2
2 
2
(1) N m (2) N m
7 2 15 12
(3) 5 MR 2 (4) MR Y’
2
 
22. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are (3) N m (4) N m
15 18
connected with a massless rod of length 2R as
shown in the figure.What will be the moment of 26. The total torque about pivot A provided by the
inertia of the system about an axis passing forces shown in the figure, for L  3.0 m, is
through the centre of one of the spheres and
perpendicular to the rod

21 M M
(1) MR 2
5 R/2 R/2

2
(2) MR 2
5 2R

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(1) 210 Nm (2) 140 Nm at -

(3) 95 Nm (4) 75 Nm
27. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is
rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity  . Four objects each of mass m, are kept
gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of (1) x = x 1 (2) x = x 2
the ring will be (3) Both x1 and x 2 (4) Neither x1 nor x 2
31. With what velocity should a particle be projected
M (M  4m )
(1) (2) so that its height becomes equal to radius of
M  4m M earth ?
(M  4m ) M 1/2 1/2
(3) (4)  GM   8GM 
M  4m 4m (1)   (2)  
 R   R 
28. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal
to the discs and passing through the centres of 1/2 1/2
 2GM   4GM 
the discs. Disc D1 has 2 kg mass and 0.2 m (3)   (4)  
 R   R 
radius and initial angular velocity of 50 rads 1 .
32. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of
Discs D2 has 4 kg mass, 0.1m radius and mass m from the earth surface (radius R) to
infinity is
initial angular velocity of 200 rad s 1 . The two
discs are brought in contact face to face, with mgR
(1) (2) 2mgR
their axes of rotation coincident. The final 2

angular velocity (inrads 1 ) of the system is mgR

(3) mgR (3)
(1) 60 (2) 100 2
(3) 120 (4) 40 33. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v.
29. A sphere of mass 0.5 kg and diameter 1m rolls For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half the
without sliding with a constant velocity of earth’s radius the orbital velocity is
5 m /s , calculate what is the ratio of the
3 3 2 2
rotational K.E. to the total kinetic energy of the (1) v (2) v (3) v (4) v
sphere 2 2 3 3
34. The period of revolution of planet A round the
7 5 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A from
10 7 7 2 the sun is how many times greater than that of
30. The force acting on a body moving along x-axis B from the sun ?
varies with the position of the particle as shown (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium

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35. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit (4) independent of n
around the earth has total mechanical energy
E0 . Its potential energy is 41. If orbital velocity of planet is given by v  Ga MbR c ,
then
(1) 2E0 (2) 1.5E0 (3) 2E0 (4) E0
1 1 1 1 1 1
36. If mean radius of earth is R, its angular velocity is (1) a  ,b  ,c   (2) a  ,b  ,c  
3 3 3 2 2 2
, and the acceleration due to gravity at the 1 1 1 1 1 1
surface of the earth is g, then the cube of the radius (3) a  ,b   ,c  (4) a  ,b   ,c  
2 2 2 2 2 2
of the orbit of geostationary satellite will be
42. A planet is revolving round the sun in an
2
R g 2 2
R  2 Rg elliptical orbit, If v is the velocity of the planet
R g
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 when its position vector from the sun is r, then
2 g  
areal velocity of the planet is
37. Two identical satellites are orbiting at distances
R and 7R from the surface of the earth, R being (1) |v  r| (2) 2|r  v|
the radius of the earth.
The ratio of their 1
(3) (r  v) (4) None of these
(1) kinetic energies is 4 2
(2) potential energies is 4 43. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about
(3) total energies is 4 (4) All of these the sun with an orbital period T. If A be the area
38. What is not conserved in case of celestial bodies of orbit, then itsangular momentum would be
revolving around sun all the time ?
2mA mA
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Mass (1) (2) mAT (3) (4) 2mAT
T 2T
(3) Angular momentum (4) None of these
39. A mass m is placed inside a hollow sphere of 44. What additional velocity must be given to a
mass M as shown in figure. The gravitation force satellite orbiting around earth with radius R to
on mass m is become free from earth’s gravitational field ?
Mass of earth is M.

r m GM GM
(1) ( 2  1) (2) ( 2  1)
R 2R
GM GM
R (3) ( 3  1) (4) ( 2  1)
R R
45. Four equal masses (each of mass M) are placed at
the corners of a square of side a. The escape velocity
GMm GMm GMm
(1) (2) (3) (R  r)2 (4) zero of a body from the centre O of the square is
R2 r2
40. If gravitational attraction between two points masses 2GM 8 2 GM
m1m2 (1) 4 (2)
be given by F  G . Then the period of a a a
rn
satellite in a circular orbit will be proportional to
4GM 4 2GM
n 1 n 1 n (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) a a
r 2 r 2 r2

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46. If K1 and K 2 are equilibrium constants for re- 51. For the synthesis of ammonia Kc is 1.2 at 3750 C ,
action (i) and (ii) respectively for

N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)

N2  O2  2NO .........(i)
What is Kp at this temperature
1 1 (1) 4.1  108 (2) 4.2  104

N2  O2  NO .......(ii)
2 2 (3) 1.3  103 (4) 3.4  103
Then 52. In an experiment carried out at 1377 K, HI was
(1) K1  K 2 (2) K 2  K1 found to be 25% dissociated. The Kc for the dis-
sociation
1
(3) K1  2K 2 (4) K1  K2 
2HI(g)  H2 (g)  I2 (g) is
2
47. For which reaction, K p is less than K C 9
(1) (2) 9
4

(1) N2O4  2NO2
1 1
(3) (4)

(2) 2HI  H 2  I2 9 36
53. In a closed system

(3) 2SO2  O2  2SO3

A (s )  2B(g )  3C(g ) .

(4) N2  O2  2NO If the partial pressure of C is doubled at equilib-
rium, then partial pressure of B will be
48. 2 moles of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel
(1) Two times the original value
of 2 Litre capacity. At equilibrium 40% of PCl5 (2) One half of its original vlaue
dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2 . The value of equi- 1
(3) times the original value
librium constant is 2 2
(1) 0.267 (2) 0.53
(4) 2 2 times the original value
(3) 2.63 (4) 5.3
 54. For reaction at 270 C , G  12.7 kJ when the
49. For the reaction CO(g )  Cl 2(g )  COCl2(g ) then
reaction quotient   10 . What is the value of
Kp/Kc is equal to
G0 for the reaction ?
1
(1) (2) 1.0 (1) 12.1kJ (2) 7.0 kJ
RT
(3) 18.4 kJ (4) 37.5 kJ
(3) RT (4) RT
55. Phosphorus pentachloride dissociates as follows
50. Which statement characteries a chemical sys- in a closed reaction vessel.
tem at equilibrium
(P) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to 
PCl5(g )  PCl3(g )  Cl 2(g )
the rate of the reverse reaction If total pressure at equilibrium of the reaction
(Q) The concentration of the reactants and prod-
mixture i, P and degree of dissociation of PCl5
ucts are equal
(1) P only (2) Q only is x. The partial pressure of PCl3 will be
(3) Both P and Q (4) Neither P nor Q

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60. The degree of dissociation of PCl5(g ) obeying the
 x   2x 
(1)  P (2)  P 
 x 1 1  x  equilibrium PCl5  PCl3  Cl2 is approxi-
 x   x  mately related to the pressure at equilibrium by
(3)  P (4)  P (Given x < 1)
 x  1 1  x 
56. Introduction of inert gas (at the same tempera- 1
(1) x  P (2) x 
ture) will affect the equilibrium if. P
(1) Value is constant and ng  0 1 1
(3) x  (4) x 
(2) Pressure is constant and ng  0 P2 P
(3) Volume is constant and ng  0 61. Solution of 0.1N NH4OH and 0.1 NH4Cl has pH

(4) Pressure is constant and ng  0 9.25. The find out PK b of NH4OH
57. For the equilibrium system (1) 9.25 (2) 4.75
(3) 3.75 (4) 8.25

CO(g )  2H2(g )  CH3OH(  ) what is K c ? 62. Which of the following is basic buffer solution ?

CH3OH (1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

CH3OH
(1) K C  2 CO H (2) K C  2
  2  CO H2  (2) CH3COOH  NH4Cl
(3) NH4OH  NH4Cl
1 1
(3) K C  2 CO  H  (4) K C  [ CO H 2 (4) CH3COONa  NH4OH
2   2 
58. For the following reaction, formation of the 63. In the reaction I2  I  I3 . The lewis base is
product is favoured by
(1) I2 (2) I

A 2(g )  4B2(g )  2AB4(g ) H  0
(1) Low temperature and high pressure (3) I3 (4) None of these
(2) High temperature and low pressure 64. pH value of HCl and NaOH solution each of
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
N
(4) High temperature and high pressure strength will be the respectively
100
59. At temperature T, a compound AB 2(g ) dissociates (1) 12 and 2 (2) 2 and 12
according to the reaction (3) 2 and 2 (4) 2 and 10

2AB2(g )  2AB(g )  B2(g ) 65. The pH value of decinormal solution of NH4OH
With a degree of dissociation, x, which is small which is 20% ionised is
compare with unity. Deduce the expression for (1) 12.95 (2) 12.30
(3) 14.70 (4) 13.30
K p in terms of x and the total pressure P
66. BF3 is an acid according to
Px 3 Px 2 (1) Arrehenius concept
(1) (2)
2 3 (2) Bronsted-Lowry concept
(3) Lewis concept
Px 3 Px 2 (4) Ostwald
(3) (4)
3 2

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67. The increasing order of basic strength of
(3) 6  1013 (4) 6  1019
2 
Cl CO3 , CH3COO , OH , F is
  
75. The solution of NH4Cl i s
(1) Cl   F   CH3COO  CO32  OH  (1) Acidic (2) Alkaline
  2
(2) Cl  F  CO3  CH3COO  OH   (3) Neural (4) Coloured
76. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2,
(3) CH3COO  Cl   F   CO32  OH CH3– CH2 – NH – CH3,
(4) None of these and
68. The pH of the solution obtained mixing 10ml of CH3 –N –CH3
1 NHCl and 10ml of 1 is
10 10 N NaOH CH3
(1) 8 (2) 2
are :
(3) 7 (4) None of these
(1) Positional isomer
69. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is
(2) Chain isomer
(1) HN2 (2) N 3 (3) Metamers
(4) Functional isomer
(3) N3 (4) N 2
CH 3
70. 10 6 M HCl is diluted to 100 times, tis pH is 77.
(1) 6.0 (2) 8.0 CH 3 ––CH ––CH 2 ––Cl
(3) 6.95 (4) 9.5 and
71. pH for the solution of salt undergoing anionic
CH3
hydrolysis (say CH3COONa) is given by
CH3 ––C ––CH3
1
(1) pH  PK w  PK a  log C
2 Cl
1 Example of :
(2) pH  PK w  PK a  log C (1) Chain isomer
2
(2) Positional isomer
1 (3) Functional isomer
(3) pH  PK w  PK b  log C (4) Tautomars
2
(4) None of these O
72. The solubility of AgCl will be minimum in
(1) 0.001 M Ag NO3 (2) 0.01 M NaCl CH3 ––C ––CH2 ––CH3
I
(3) 0.01M CaCl2 (4) Pure water 78. OH are related as
73. The solubility of A 2 X 3 is S mol L1 . Its solubility CH3 ––C =CH ––CH3
II
prode is (1) Resonance (2) Metamers
(1) 6S4 (2) 64 S4 (3) Hyperconjugation (4) Tautomerism
79. Total monochloro derivatives of n – Butane are
(3) 36 S5 (4) 108 S5 (1) 2 (2) 3
74. Number of OH in 1 ml solution of pH  13 is (3) 4 (4) 6
(1) 1  1013 (2) 6  107

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80. Maximum enol content in the following will be : 86. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
O (1) XeO2F2 & SF4 have see – saw shape
(2) Among IF7 & PCl5,PCl5 has lesser number of
(1) CH3 ––C ––CH3 atoms in XY plane
O O (3) SF4 is planar molecule
(4) O atom in H2O is sp3 hybridized
(2) CH 3 ––C ––CH 2–C–H 87. Which of the following is a wrong order w.r.t. the
property mentioned against each ?
O
(1) O22  O2  O2 (magnetic moment)
(3) CH3 ––C ––H
(2) NO  NO  NO (Bond length)
O O
(3) H2 > H2  He2 (bond energy)
(4) CH3 ––C ––CH2 – C – CH3
(4) NO2  NO2  NO2 (bond length)
81. Which of the following do not characterize ionic
compounds ? 88. Arrange the following in decreasing order of bond
(1) These compounds usually exist in solid state angles of X–C–X
(2) These posses high melting & boiling points COF2,COCl2, COBr2, COI2
(3) These are insoluble in solvent with high (1) COF2 > COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2
dielectric constant (2) COI2 > COBr2> COCl2 >COF2
(4) These are good conductors of electricity an (3) COF2 = COCl2 > COBr2 > COI2
aq. state. (4) None of these
82. The compound with maximum lattice energy is 89. Which of the following paris is iso – structural ?
– (1) NO2 & CO2 (2) HCN & SnCl2
(1) NaF (2) NaCl (3) SO3 & CH4 (4) None of these
(3) AlF3 (4) MgF2 90. In which of the following molecule Dipole
83. Which of the following is not an odd electron moment (Observed) is found to be greater than
molecule ? Dipole moment (theoretical) ?
(1) NO (2) NO2
Cl CH3
(3) O2 (4) None of these
Cl CH3
84. Select the incorrect statement
(1) (2)
(1) In dsp2 hydridization d x 2  y2 participates

(2) In sp3d2 hybridization d x 2  y2 & d z 2 participate

NO2 O-H O
(3) In sp3d hybridization d z 2 participates NO2 N
(4) None of these (3) (4) O

85. Select the correct statement about ClO3 & SO23

(1) Both are isostructural but not isoelectronic 91. Which of the following represents tracheophytes
(2) Both are isoelectronic but not isostructural (i.e., vascular plants) ?
(3) Both are ne ithe r isoele ctro nic nor (1) Bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms
isostructural (2) Algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes
(4) Both are isoelectronic & isostructural (3) Pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) Algae, fungi and bryophates

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92. Match the coloumn w.r.t. green algae : 98. Identify the brown algae given below labelled as
Column – I Column – II A, B and C :
A. Unicellular algae (i) Ulothrix
B. Filamentous algae (ii) Spirogyra
with collar shaped
chloroplast
C. Filamentous algae (iii) Volvox
with ribbon shaped
chloroplast
D. Colonial coenobial (iv) Chlamydomonas
algae
(1) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
(2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (ii)
93. Match the column :
Column – I Column – II (1) A = Fucus, B = Dictyota, C = Laminaria
A. Carrageen (i) Brown algae (2) A = Dictyota, B = Laminaria, C = Fucus
B. Algin (ii) Red algae (3) A = Laminaria, B = Dictyota, C = Funcus
C. Agar – agar (iii) Gelidium (4) A = Laminaria, B = Fucus, C = Dictyota
(iv) Gracilaria 99. Gemma :
(1) A = (ii), B = (iii, iv), C = (iv) (1) Is an asexual bud, green and multicullar
(2) A = (i), B = (ii, iii), C = (iv) (2) Develops in small receptacles called gemma cup
(3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii, iv) (3) Get detached from the parent body and
(4) A = (i, ii), B = (iii), C = (iv) germinate to form new individuals
94. Read the following statements : (4) All are correct
(i) Agar – Agar is used to grow micoboes and in 100. Which of the following is correct for bryophytes ?
the preparation of ice – creams and jellies (1) Their plant body is more differentiated than algae
(ii) Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae, (2) They may possess root – like leaf – like or
rich in pro tein s an d are used as fo od stem – like stryctures
supplements by space travellers (3) They lack gamete formation
(iii) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are (4) More than one option is correct
poisonous 101. Which of the following is not incorrect ?
(iv) Algae are photosynthetic (1) Species of Funaria provide peat
(v) Spirogyra is a filamentous fungi (2) Mosses alongwith lichens are the first
How many of the above statements are incorrect organism to colonise rocks and hence, are of
? great ecological importance
(1) Five (2) Three (3) Bryophyte are more evolved than pteridophytes
(3) Four (4) Two (4) Bryophytes in general are to great economic
95. Pyrenoids : importance
(1) Are located in the chloroplasts of most of the 102. Identify the pteridophyte and the structure
members of chlorophyceae marked
(2) Contain protein besides starch
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Are lipid bodies
96. Green algae usually have :
(1) A rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of
cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
(2) Chlorophyll – a and chlorophyll – d
(3) Cell – wall made of murein
(4) All are correct
97. The giant brown algae usually have their plant
body differentiated into :
(1) Holdfast – For attachment to substratum
(2) Stipe – i.e., stalk
(3) Frond – i.e., leaf like photosynthetic organ
(4) All of the above

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(1) Sel agin ella, A = fl oati ng l eave s, B = 107. The life cycle pattern shown below is seen in
Submerged leaves which group of plants ?
(2) Equisetum, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating
leaves
(3) Salvinia, A = Submerged leaves, B = floating Sporophyte
leaves Zygote (2n)
(4) Salvinia, A = floating leaves, B = submerged leaves (2n)
103. The spread of living bryophytes and pteridophytes is
restricted to moist, damp and shady places as : A
(1 ) They require water for fertilization and Syn
gam
gametophyte required cool, damp and shady places y
(2) They lack motile gametes Meiosis
(3) They are weak plants
(4) They lack vascular bundles Gametogenesis
104. Select the correct incorporation sequence of one B Spores
(n)
structure within the other in a gymnosperm :
(1) Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus  Sporangia
(2)Sporangia  Spores  Sporophylls  Strobilus Gametophyte
(3) Sporangia  Strobilus  Sporophylls  Spores (n)
(4) Spores  Sporangia  Sporophylls  Strobilus
105. Match the columns :
Column – I Column – II (1) In algae only
A. cedar wood oil (i) Pinus gerardiana (2) In bryophytes and pteridophytes
B. Ephedrine (ii) Cycas revoluta (3) In gymnosperms only
C. Chilgoza (iii) Juniperus (4) In algae and gymnosperms
D. Sago (iv) Ephedra 108. Identify the life cycle pattern :
(1) A= (iii), B =(iv), C = (i), D = (ii)
(2) A= (iii), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
(3) A= (iv), B =(i), C = (ii), D = (iii) Sporophyte
(4) A= (iv), B =(ii), C = (i), D = (iii) (2n)
106. Identity the life cycle pattern :

Zygote
Meiosis A
(2n) Zygote (2n)
Sy
ng Gametogenesis
am B
y
Spores
O (n) (n)
A
Gametogenesis B Gametophyte
O CH2––O––C––R
B
(1) Diplontic (2) Haplontic
R2––C––O––CH O (3) Diplo – haplontic (4) Haplo – diplontic
109. Protonema is :
(1) Haploid and is found in mosses
(2) Diploid and is found in liverworts
OH
Gametophyte (3) Diploid and is found in pteridophytes
(n) (4) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
110. How many charachters in the box are related to
mosses ?
fig Diploid antherozoid mother cells, Protonema,
(1) Haplo – diplontic Rhizoisa, Vasular sporophyte, Haploid spore
(2) Haplontic mother cells, Fragmetation, Non – photosynthetic
(3) Diplontic sporophyte, Avascular gametophyte, Diploid
(4) Diplo-haplontic prothallus

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(1) Eight (2) Four
(3) Six (4) Five
H+
111. Largest gymnosperms is :
(1) Zamia (2) Sequoia
(3) Cedrus (4) Ginkgo Cytoch-
A romes
112. Choose the correct sequence of steps w.r.t flow b&f B NADPH
of electrons in non – cyclic ETS.
(1) PS II  PQ  Cytb–f  PC  PS II
(2) PS I  PQ  Cytb–f  PC  PS II H+ D
H+ H+
(3) PS II  PQ  Cytb–f  PC  PS I H
+

(4) PS I  PQ  Cytb–f  PC  PS I Thylakoid F0

113. Choose the correct option w.r.t location and raw membrane
materi al for biosy nthe tic path way in c
photosysnthesis in higher plants. F1
ATP synthase
Location Raw Material ADP ATP
(1) Stroma NADH,ATP, CO2H2O
(2) Membrane ADP, NADPH, CO, H2O
(3) Grana ATP, NADPH, CO2,H2O (1) A– Photosystem – I, B – Photosystem – II, C
(4) Matrix ATP, NADPH, CO2,H2O – Lumen, D – Stroma
114. Light dependent release of CO2 in photosynthetic (2) A– Photosystem – II, B – Photosystem – I, C –
organs is related to Stroma, D – Lumen
(3) A – Photosystem – I, B – Photosystem – II, C –
(1) RuBP + CO2 
RuBisCO 2XPGA Stroma, D – Lumen
(2) RuBP + O2  Photophoglycolate +
PEPcase (4) A – Photosystem – II, B – Photosystem – I, C –
PPGA Lumen , D – Stroma
119. C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient
(3) RuBP + O2 
RuBisCO Phosphoglycolate + PGA than C3 plants because of
(4) RuBP + CO2  2XPGA
PEPcase (1) Presence of non – chloroplast containing cells
115. Read the given statements and select the correct (2) mesophyll and bundle sheath cells
option. (3) Absence of photorespiratory loss
Statement A : Photorespiration does not produce (4) Improved water use efficiency due to higher
ATP or NADH and is a wastefull process. transpiration
Statement B : Decarboxylation is the primary 120. Ce ll o rgan elle whi ch is n ot i nvol ved in
step of Calvin cycle. photorespiration is
(1) Only A is correct (1) Chloroplasts (2) Peroxisomes
(2) Only B is correct (3) Mitochondria (4) Dictyosomes
(3) Both A and B are correct 121. Non – cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (1) Occurs in stroma lamellae only
116. Which of the following is not a CAM plant ? (2) Results in the formation of ATP, NADPH and
(1) Pineapple (2) Opuntia evolution of O2
(3) Kalanchoe (4) Sorghum (3) Involves two photosystems that work in
series, first PS I and then PS II
117. “FOrmation of malic acid occurs in A of (4) Is not associated with splitting of water
122. Select the incorrectly matched pair
leaves and B carboxylation occurs in bundle
(1) Primary CO2 fixation – PGA
sheath cells of plants having Kranz antomy.” Product in C3 cycle
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks (2) Primary CO2 fixation – OAA
A and B. product in C4cycle
A B (3) Primary CO2 acceptor – Phosphoenol
(1) Mesophyll cells First in C4 plants pyruvate
(2) Guard cells Second (4) Primary CO2 aceptor – Malic acid
(3) Epidermal cells First in C3plants
(4) Mesophyll cells Seconda 123. Calvin cycle has three stages
118. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the given 1. Reduction during which carbohydrate is
diagram and select the correct option. formed at the expense of photochemically made
ATP and NADPH
2. Regeneration during which carbon dioxide
acceptor 1, 5 – RuBP is formed
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3. Carboxylation during which CO2 combines
with 1,5 – RuBP
Fats Carbohydrates Proteins
Identify the correct sequence :
(1) 3, 1, 2 (2) 3, 2, 1 Simple sugars
a b Amino acids
e.g.Glucose
(3) 1, 2, 3 (4) 2, 1, 3
Glucose - 6 – phosphate
124. Glycolysis is a part of
(1) Only anaerobic respiration Fructose 1, 6 – biphosphate
(2) Kreb’s cycle
c Glyceraldehyde 3 – phosphate
(3) Only aerobic respiration
(4) Both aerobic and anerobic respiration
d
125. Which product of glycolysis is consumed in
alcoholic fermentation ? c
(1) NADH + H+ (2) ATP
(3) ATP and NADH + H+ (4) CO2 H2O Kreb's
cycle CO2
126. The first member of the TCA cycle is
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Citric acid (1) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, b –
(3) OAA (4) Pyruvic acid fatty acid, a – glycerol
127. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (2) d – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, c – pyruvic acid, a –
matching. fatty acid, b – glycerol
(3) c – DHAP, e – acetyl CoA, d – pyruvic acid, a –
fatty acid, b – glycerol
Outer (4) c – DHAP, d – acetyl CoA, e – pyruvic acid, a –
side ATP fatty acid, b – glycerol
132. When malic acid is respiratory substrate, the
amount of CO2 released is
2H+ (1) More than O2 consumed
b (2) Less than O2 released
a
(3) Equal to O2consumed
(4) CO2 is not released
d 133. Assertion : In living organisms, respiratory
ADP Pi substates are often more than one.
c Reason : Pure proteins or fats are never used as
respiratory substrates
(1) a – F1, b – F0,c– intermembrane space, d – Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
outer mitochondrial membrane the correct option in question
(2) a – F0, b – F1, c – intermembrane space, d – (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
inner mitochondrial membrane reacon is the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) a – F 1 , b – F 0 ,c – matrix, d – inn er (2)If both assertion and reason are true but reson
mitochondrial membrane is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) a – F0, b – F1,c– matrix, d – inner mitochondrial (3) If assertion is ture but reason is false
membrane (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
134. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
128. In electron transport system (ETS) which of the
matching.
following cytochromes reacts with oxygen
(1) Cyt a3 (2) Cyt b
(3) Cyt b3 (4) Cyt c b
129. Succinate + FAD forms
(1) Fumarate + FADH2
(2) Malate + NADH2
(3) Isocitrate + NADH2
(4) Citrate + Water c a
130. Succinate is oxidised to fumarate in Kreb’s cycle
by
(1) Removal of hydrogen (2) Loss of electrons
d
(3) Addtion of oxygen (4) Removal of oxygen
131. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching

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(1) a – primary acceptor, b – reaction centre, c – 138. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
pigement molecules, d – photon walls of blood vessels is :-
(2) a – primary acceptor, b – reaction centre, d – (1) Squamous epithelium
pigement molecules, c – photon (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) b – primary acceptor, a – reaction centre, d – (3) Columnar epithelium
pigment molecules, c – photon (4) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) d – primary acceptor, a – reaction centre, b – 139. Histamine in blood is secreted by :-
pigement molecules, c – photon (1) Mast cells (2) Macrophages
135. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (3) Eosinophils (4) Basophils
matching 140. In higher vertebrates, SA node helps in :-
(1) Opening of tricuspid valve
a b (2) Initiation of heart beat
(3) Conduction of blood
e acceptor c (4) Opening of bicuspid valve
Light e acceptor + 141. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to
NADP
ADP + iP d the diastolic right atrium of heart due to :-
(1) Pressure difference between the post caval
Electron and atrium
transport
sysmte (2) Pushing open of the venous valves
(3) Suction pull
(4) Stimulation of the sino auricular node
142. Which is the correct sequence of arrangement
LHC
of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms
of number per mm3 of human blood ?
(1) Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
LHC
(2) Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
H2O 2c- +2H+[O]
(3) Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
(4) Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils
(1) a – PS I, b – PS II, c – ATP, d – NADH 143. Bundle of His is a network of :-
(2) a – PS II, b – PS I, c – NADPH, d – ATP (1) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(3) a – PS I, b – PS II, c – NADPH, d – ATP (2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
(4) a – PS II, b – PS I, c – ATP, d – NADPH (3) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the
heart walls
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
144. Diastole occurs due to :-
(1) Nerve impulse from vagus
136. (2) Elastic recoil of arteries
(3) Relaxation of heart muscles
(4) All of them
Given below is the ECG of a normal human. 145. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are
Which one of its components is correctly primarily involved in :-
interpreted below ? (1) Clotting of blood
(1) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and (2) Defence mechanisms of body
diastolic blood pressures (3) Osmotic balance of body fluids
(2) Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction (4) Oxygen transport in the blood
only 146. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in
(3) Complex QRS – One complete pulse the human blood even after its uptake by the
(4) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction body tissues. This O2 :-
137. The most popularly known blood grouping is the (1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium
ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC tissues.
because ‘‘O’’ in it refers to having :- (2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(1) No antigens A and B on RBCs. (3) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
(2) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs. (4) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation
(3) Overdominance of this type on the genes for at 96%
A and B types.
(4) One antibody only–either anti–A or anti–B
on the RBCs.

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147. Which of the following is a correct statement ? (1) Lymphocyte  Erythrocyte
(1) The volume of blood in pulmonary circulation (2) Plasma  Serum
is more than the volume of blood in systemic (3) Mitral valve  Bicuspid valve
circulation at any instant. (4) Atrioventricular node  pacemaker
(2) The blood pressure in pulmonary circulation
154. A decrease in plasma albumin levels is likely
is less than that of the systemic circulation
to affect :-
(3) Double circulation is characteristic of all
(1) Clot formation
vertebrates
(2) Oxygenation of hemoglobin
(4) A double aortic arch is seen in birds and
(3) Osmotic balance
mammals.
(4) Immune functions
148. In a cardiac output of 5250 ml/minute, with 75
heart beats per minute, the stroke volume is :-
155 Which one of the following statement is correct
(1) 80 ml (2) 70 ml
one ?
(3) 60 ml (4) 55 ml
(1) The volume of blood in pulmonary circulation
149. The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle
is more than the volume of blood in systemic
is produced by the :-
circulation at any instant.
(1) Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular
(2) The blood pressure in pulmonary circulation
valves.
is less than that of the systemic circulation.
(2) Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular
(3) Double circulation is characteristic of all
valves.
vertebrates.
(3) Simultaneous opening of the semilunar
(4) A double aortic arch is seen in birds and
valves.
mammals.
(4) Simultaneous closure of the semilunar
156. Match the following and choose the correct
valves.
option.
150. An increase in the blood flow to the atria of the
Type Synovial Joint Bone Involved
heart can cause the release of :-
a. Ball and socket 1. Carpal and
(1) Erythropoeitin
metacarpal of thumb
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor
b. Hinge 2. Atlas and axis
(3) Renin
c. Pivot 3. Frontal and parietal
(4) Aldosterone
d. Saddle 4. Knee
151. Match Column I with Column II and select the
5. Humerus and
correct option from the codes given below :-
pectoral girdle
Column I Column II
(1) a - 5, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1.
(Plasma Protein) (Functions)
(2) a - 1, b - 3, c - 4, d - 5.
A- Fibrinogen (i) Defence mechanism
(3) a - 5, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1.
B- Globulins (ii) Osmotic balance
(4) a - 1, b - 2, c - 5, d - 4.
C- Albumins (iii) Coagulation of blood
157. Statements about the mechanism of muscle
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii.
contraction are given below :-
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii.
I. Acetylcholine is released when the neural
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i.
signal reaches the motor end plate.
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii.
II. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal
152. Match Column I with Column II and select the
sent by CNS via a sensory neuron.
correct option from the codes given below :-
III. During muscle contraction isotropic band
Column I Column II
gets elongated.
A- RBC (i) Coagulation
IV. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead
B- Antibody (ii) Immunity
to lactic acid accumulation.
C- Platelets (iii) Contraction
Identify the correct statements.
D- Systole (iv) Gas transport
(1) I and IV are correct
(v) Hypertension
(2) I and III are correct
(1) A-v, B-i, C-iv, D- iii.
(3) II and III are correct
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i.
(4) I, Il and III are correct
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii.
158. Thoracic cage of man is formed of :-
(4) A-iii, B-v, C-ii, D-iv.
(1) Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae
153. In which one of the following pairs, two terms
(2) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
represent the same thing ?
(3) Ribs, sternum and lumbar vertebrae
(4) Ribs and sternum

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159. Which one of the following items gives its Identify A, B, C and D in the above figure correctly
correct total number ? and choose the right option given below ?
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8 (1) A-Thoracic Vertebra, B-Intervertebral Disc,
(2) Floating ribs in humans - 4 C-Sacrum, D-Coccyx.
(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 (2) A-Cervical Vertebra, B-Intervertebral Disc,
(4) Types of diabetes - 3 C-Sacrum, D-Coccyx.
160. Which one of the following is the correct (3) A-Cervical Vertebra, B-Intervertebral Disc,
matching of three items and their grouping C-Coccyx, D-Sacrum.
category ? (4) A-Thoracic Vertebra, B-Intervertebral Disc,
Items Group C-Coccyx, D-Sacrum.
166. Select the correct statement regarding the
(1) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine  Pyrimidines
specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system:
(2) Malleus, incus, cochlea  Ear ossicles
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorders
(3) Ilium, ischium, pubis  Coxal bones which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
of pelvic girdle (2) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra
(4) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin  Muscle proteins deposition of calcium
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening
(3) 3 (4) 4 of muscles
161. Which muscle is adapted to be highly resistant (4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and
to fatigue ? higher chances of fractures with advancing age
(1) Cardiac (2) Striped 167. Origin of striated muscle is form which germ
(3) Unstriped (4) Voluntary layer of embryo :-
162. Which kind of joint (the sutures of the cranium) (1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm
is essentially immovable ? (3) Mesoderm (4) All of these
(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Fibrous joint 168. One of the following is true of muscle contraction.
(3) Hinge joint (4) Ball and socket joint (1) H-zone expands
163. Wh at i s th e i on n ecessary fo r mu scle (2) I-band expands
contraction ? (3) A-Band remains constant
(1) Cl (2) Ca (4) The sarcomeres expands
(3) Na (4) K 169. Association area perform which of the following
function ?
A (I) Intersensory association
(II) Communication
B (III) Memory
164. (1) Only (I) (2) Only (II)
(3) (I) and (III) (4) (I), (II) and (III)
C
170. Which part of brain contains several group of
neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones
Identify A, B and C in the above figure correctly ?
and choose the right option given below ? (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(1) A-Tropomyosin, B-Troponin, C-F actin. (3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla
(2) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-G actin. 171. How many statements are correct regarding
(3) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-F actin. hypothalamus ?
(4) A-Tropomyosin, B-Troponin, C-G actin. (A) It controls urge of eating and drinking
(B) It does not contribute in thermoregulation
A (C) Lies at the base of thalamus
(D) It contains group of neurosecretory cells
(E) It regulates function of pituitary gland
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
172. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human
165. brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose
B the answer in which these alphabets have been
correctly matched with the part which they
C indicate.
D

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 NEET - 2021 AIIMSBatch
Foundation _ 10.05.2019
_ I _17.01.2020 Class Test
– Eardrum
(4) A – Parietal bone, B – Malleus, C – Vestibule,
D – Eustachian tube
177. Match the following columns :
Column – I Column – II
(A) Sacral nerves (i) 1 pair
(B) Thoracic nerves (ii) 8 pairs
(C) Coccygeal nerves (iii) 7 pairs
(D) Cervical nerves (iv) 12 pairs
(v) 5 pairs
Codes :
A B C D
(1) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C – (1) iv i iii ii
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal (2) v iii i ii
lobe (3) iii iv ii i
(2) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C – (4) v iv i ii
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Occipital 178. Medulla controls :
lobe (1) respiration
(3) A – Temporal lobe, B – Parietal lobe, C – (2) gastric secretions
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Frontal (3) cardiovascular reflexes
lobe (4) all of the above
(4) A – Frontal lobe, B – Temporal lobe, C –
Cerebellum, D – Medulla oblongata, E – Pariental
lobe
173. The inner layer of eyelids which is also the
thinnest epidermis in animal body is :
(1) sclera (2) Choroid
(3) retina (4) Conjunctiva
174. The posterior part of retina, which is just opposite
to the lens is :
(1) cornea (2) yellow spot 179.
(3) fovea centralis (4) both (2) and (3)
175. Organ of corti is found in :
(1) scala rotundus (2) scala media
(3) scala vestibule (4) scala tympani
176. Given below is a diagrammatic view of ear. Which
of the following option is correctly representing Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the diagram given above
A to D ? :

(1) A –Neurotransmitter, B –Schwann cell,

C– Synaptic knob
(2) A – Neurotransmitter, B – Synaptic knob,
C – Schwann cell
(3) A –Nissl’s granules, B – Schwann cell,
C–Synaptic knob
(4) A – Nissl’s granules, B – Synaptic knob,
C – Schwann cell
180. Forebrain contains :
(1) A – Temporal bone, B – Incus, C – Semicircular (1) Olfactory lobes (2) thalamus
canal, D – Pinna (3) cerebrum (4) all of these
(2) A – Temporal bone, B – Stapes, C – Cochlea, D
– Tympanic membrane
(3) A – Parietal bone, B – Stapes, C – Vestibule, D

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