Hesi StudyGuide
Hesi StudyGuide
EXAMINATION
STUDY GUIDE
TABLE OF CONTENTES
Page
HESI Study Packet
Introduction
Math VII-XII: Fraction terms; reducing proper and improper fractions; LCD 20-33
changing improper to mixed, mixed to improper; ass, subtract, multiply,
divide fractions; change fractions to decimals; change decimals to fractions
5. Percentage 55-56
6. Ratio/Proportion 57
7. Conversion 58-59
8.Rounding 60-61
Grammar (face sheets) face sheet precedes each section- pages 135-137
are bold, underlined; answers follow each section
9. Plurals: Ex 2, 3, 4, 5 166-169
Math Overview
1. Add, subtract
2. Add, subtract: decimals, whole numbers to decimals
3. Ratio; change fractions to ratio
4. Change decimal to percent
5. Multiply decimals
6. Divide by decimals
7. Rounding
8. Change fractions to decimals
9. Divide by fractions
10. Reduce
11. Add fractions with unlike denominators
12. Divide fractions by whole numbers
13. Divide fractions by fractions
HESI Grammar
Overview
4. Questions 51-55
3
MATH Diagnostic
Directions:
1) Take the diagnostic test that follows.
2) Score with the answer key that immediately follows.
3) Provide the following information hereon (pages 3,4) for tutor- and-self-
evaluation:
NEXT STEP: GO ON TO
MATH REVIEW, THEN
PRACTICE TESTS 1 AND 2.
4
Diagnostic
Key to follow
1 Addition
25 Multiplication
36 Division
4 Subtraction
This pretest will tell you which chapters of Number Power Review you need to work on and which you have
already mastered. Do all the problems that you can. There is no time limit. Check your answers with the answer
key. Fill out chart at test end. Do all work on these pages.
16. Keisha bought sixteen cans of soda for a birthday party. Six of these are cans of cola.
a. What fraction of the soda is cola (red)?
= Red
20. Which expression can be used to find the width of each board?
18”
c. 18- (3 x 0.375)
3
7
Solve each problem.
24. The Clothes Tree is offering a 25% discount on all women’s sweaters. Including a 6% sales tax,
what will Selena pay for a sweater that normally sells for $48.00?
25. What percent of the students at Highland Middle School are in the 8th grade?
26. Suppose that next year the enrollment at Highland Middle School increases by 20%. How many
students will be enrolled at Highland next year?
7th
th
6 Grade Grade
174 156
27. What is the ratio of the amount that Jonathan saved in May to the amount he saved in January?
(Reduce to lowest terms. If necessary)
If Jonathan’s take-home pay is 1,500 per month, how much did he save during the 6 months
shown on the graph?
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun
8
Answer Key
1. 1,695
2. 19,135
3. 21 R 18
4. 1,854
5. 4,498
6. 263
7. $ 7.00 ($4.50 + $2.50)
8. 4%, 30%, 0.34, 0.4, 2/3, ¾
9. 62.5%
10. <
11. =
12. >
13. 4 – ½
14. 2/5
15. 2/5
16. a. 3/8 (6/16) b. 3/5 or 3 to 5 (6/10)
17. >
18. <
19. >
20. d.
21. 2.16
22. 0.123
23. 2.03
24. $38.16 ($36.00+ $2.16)
25. 34% (170/500 x 100%)
26. 600 (500 + 100)
27. 5/3 (25/15)
9
Math Review
(Note: This page has space for portion and for overall test score.)
Directions: 1) Take the portion of the test that follows. Label and do all work on front
and back of same page as problem.
2) See pages 42-44 for answer key, to score portion.
3) Provide the following information hereon (page 10) for tutor- and self-
evaluation:
NEXT STEP: GO ON TO
PRACTICE TESTS 1 AND 2.
10
Basic Addition and Subtraction
Basic Addition Steps:
462+133 1. Line up digits according to place value.
Check by: 595 2. Add the digits starting from right to left:
462 - 133 Ones: 2 + 3 = 5
+133 462 must be the answer Tens: 6 + 3 = 9
595 Hundreds: 4 + 1 = 5
Vocabulary:
Digit: A numeral, (the number 7 is a digit). Now you try!
Place Value: Each digit in a number occupies a
position – that position is called its place value. 1. 1,803 + 156 =
3. 1,372 + 139
1 Hundred = 100 ones
Ones
Tens
23 X 5 Steps:
1. Multiply one digit at a time.
1
2. Multiply (5 X 23)
23
Ones: 5 x 3 = 15 (carry the 1 to the tens place
x 5
and write the 5 in the ones place)
115
Tens: 5 x 2 = 10 + 1 = 11
623 X 45 Steps:
1. Multiply 623 X 5
5 x 3 = 15
623 5 x 2 = 10 + 1 (carried over)= 11
x 45 5 x 6 = 30 + 1 (carried over)= 31 (doesn’t need
3115 to be carried over)
24,920 2. Multiply 623 x 4 (remember to line up the ones
28,035 digits with the four by using zero as the
placeholder):
4 x 3 = 12
4x2=8+1=9
4 x 6 = 24
3. Add the two products together:
3,115 + 24,920 = 28,035 is the final product
Vocabulary:
Product: The answer to a multiplication problem.
HESI Hints:
Remember, the placeholders help keep the problem aligned. If you do not skip a space, the answer
will be incorrect. Below is an example of a well-aligned problem.
Note: Timetables are crucial for doing multiplication, division, fractions, etc. Please notify the tutor if
you do not know timesheets by heart at least through 9 x 9.
12
301
301 x 451 x 451 Steps: Now You Try!
301 1. Multiply 301 x 1
¾ 1x1=1
15050 ¾ 1x0=0 1. 846 x 7 =
+120400 ¾ 1x3=3
135,751 2. Multiply 301 x 5 2. 325 x 6 =
¾ 5 x 1 = 5 ( remember
to use a zero for a 3. 653 x 12 =
placeholder)
¾ 5x0=0 4. 806 x 55 =
¾ 5 x 3 = 15
3. Multiply 301 x 4 5. 795 x 14 =
¾ 4x1=4
¾ 4x0=0 6. 999 x 22 =
¾ 4 x 3 = 12
4. Add the three products 7. 582 x 325 =
together:
¾ 301 + 15,050 + 8. 9,438 x 165 =
120,400 = 135,751 is
the final product
13
Basic Division
(Whole Numbers)
40÷ 8 = Steps:
1. Set up the problem. (Review the vocabulary section).
2. Use a series of multiplication and subtraction problems to
solve a division problem.
3. 8 x ?= 40
Multiply: 8 x 5 = 40
Subtract: 40-40=0
The quotient (or answer) is 5
672÷ 6 = Steps:
1. Set up the problem.
2. Begin with the hundreds place:
o 6 x ?=6; we know 6 x 1 =6; Therefore, place the
1(quotient) above the 6 hundred (dividend). Place the
other 6 under the hundred and subtract: 6-6=0
o Bring down the next number which is 7; 6 x ? = 7.
There is no number that can be multiplied by six that
will equal seven exactly, so try to get as close as
possible without going over 7. Use 6x1=6 and set it up
just like the last subtraction problem. 7-6 =1
o Bring down the 2 from the dividend which results in
the number 12 (the 1 came from the remainder of 7-
6=1).
o 6x?=12;?=2 The two becomes the next number in the
quotient. 12- 12=0. There is not a remainder.
o The quotient (or answer) is 112.
Vocabulary
Quotient: The answer to a division problem.
Dividend: The number being divided.
Divisor: The number by which the dividend is divided.
HESI Hints:
The 5 represents the divisor, the 45 represents the dividend, and the 9 represents the
quotient. It is the best not to leave a division problem with a remainder, but to end it as
a fraction or a decimal point instead. To make the problem into a decimal, just add a
decimal point and zeros at the end of the dividend and continue. If a remainder
continues to occur, round to the hundredths place.
Example:
233.547→ 233.55 (the 7 rounds the 4 to a 5)
Steps to Division
1. Division
2. Multiplication
3. Subtraction
4. Bring down
14
174÷ 5 Steps:
1. Set up the problem.
2. 5 does not divide into 1, but does divide into 17.
3. 5 x 3 = 15 Write the 3 in the quotient. (It is written above
the 7 in seventeen because that is the last digit in the
number).
o 5 x 3 = 15
o 17 – 15 = 2
4. Bring the 4 down. Combine the 2 (remainder from 17-15)
and 4 to create 24.
5. Five does not divide evenly into 24; therefore try to get
close without going over.
o 5 x 4 = 20
o 24 – 20 =4
6. There is a remainder of 4, but there is not a number left
in the dividend. Add a decimal point and zeros and
continue to divide.
7. The quotient (or answer) is 34.8 (thirty-four and eight
tenths).
1. 132 ÷ 11 =
2. 9,618 ÷ 3 =
3. 2,466 ÷ 2 =
4. 325 ÷ 13 =
5. 5,024 ÷ 8 =
6. 3,705 ÷ 5 =
7. 859 ÷ 4 =
8. 6,987 ÷ 7 =
15
Math Review
Directions: 1) Take the portion of the test that follows. Label and do all work on front
and back of same page as problem.
2) See pages 42-44 for answer key, to score portion.
3) Provide the following information hereon (page 16) for tutor-and-self-
evaluation:
Ten-Thousandths
5 because it does not have a
12.34 decimal point. Remember that
Thousandths
+ 5.00
Hundredths
Thousands
after the ones place; there is a
Hundreds
17.34 decimal point. IN order to help
Tenths
Ones
Tens
with organization, add zeros.
Example: 5= 5.00
2. Add the hundredths: 4 + 0 = 4
3. Add the tenths: 3 + 0 = 3 9 8 7 6 . 5 4 3 2
4. Add the ones: 2 + 5 = 7
5. Add the tens: 1 + 0 = 1
6. Final answer: 17.34 (17 and 34
hundredths).
7.21 – 4.01 Steps: HESI Hints:
1. Line up the decimal points The word “and” when writing the
7.21 2. Subtract the hundredths: number in words stands for the
- 4.01 3. Subtract the tenths: 2 – 0= 2 decimal.
3.20 4. Subtract the ones: 7 – 4 = 3 Example: 5.7 (five and seven
5. Final answer: 3.20 (3 and 20 tenths)
hundredths).
12 – 8.99 Steps: Now You Try!
1. Line up the decimal points.
2. Since twelve is a whole number, add 1. 9.2 + 7.55=
a decimal point and zeros.
3. .00 - .99 cannot be subtracted; 2. 2.258 + 64.58 =
1 9 10
therefore, 1 must be borrowed from
12.00 the 12 and regrouped. 3. 892.2 + 56 =
- 8.99 4. The ones become 1, the tenths
3.01 become 9, and the hundredths 4. 22 + 3.26 =
become 10.
5. Subtract the hundredths: 10 – 9 = 1 5. 8.5 + 7.55 + 14 =
6. Subtract the tenths: 9 – 9 = 0
7. Subtract the ones: 11 – 8 = 3 6. 18 + 7.55 =
o 1 was borrowed from the tens in
order to subtract the 8. 7. 31.84 – 2.430 =
Final answer: 3.01 (3 and 1 hundredth).
8. 21.36 – 8.79 =
17
Multiplication of Decimals
75.7 x 2.1 Steps: Vocabulary:
Place value (regarding decimals):
1. Multiply 757 x 21 (do not worry
1 decimal place Numbers to the right of the
about the decimal until the final
75.7 + 1 decimal place decimal point have different terms
product has been calculated).
x 2.1 2 decimal places from the whole numbers to the left
757 2. Starting from the right count the of the decimal point. Each digit in
+15140 move to the left decimal places in both numbers a number occupies a position:
158.97 two decimal and ass together (2 decimal That position is called its place
places in the final places). value.
product.
3. Move to the left 2 places and then
place the decimal.
Ten-Thousands
Thousandths
0.002 x 3.4 Steps:
Hundredths
Thousands
Hundreds
1. Multiply 0002 x 34
Tenths
3 decimal places
Ones
Tens
+ 1 decimal places
0.002 4 decimal places 2. Starting from the right, count
x 3.4 the decimal places in both
Move four places numbers and add together (4
0008
to the left. decimal places).
+ 00060 9 8 7 6 . 5 4 3 2
0.0068 3. Move to the left 4 places and
then place the decimal.
5. 0.1364 x 2.11 =
6. 8.23 x 4 =
7. 0.058 x 64.2 =
8. 794.23 x .001 =
18
Division of Decimals
34 ÷ 2.5 Steps: Vocabulary:
Ten-Thousandths
going over
Thousandths
o Subtract 90 – 75 = 15
Hundredths
Thousands
Hundreds
o Add a zero to the dividend
Tenths
and bring it down to the 15
Ones
Tens
making it 15j0
o 26 x 6 = 150
150 – 150 = 0
5. The quotient is 13.6 9 8 7 6 . 5 4 3 2
Math Review
Directions:
1) Take the portion of the test that follows. Label and do all work on
front and back of same page as problem.
2) See pages 42-44 for answer key, to score portion.
3) Provide the following information hereon (page 21) for tutor-and self-
evaluation:
(The top number goes inside the box. The bottom An improper fraction occurs when the numerator is
number goes outside the box.) larger than the denominator. An improper fraction
should always be reduced or made into a mixed
The answer is 3. number.
12 ÷ 4 = 3
20 ÷ 4 = 5
22
x 3 3
23
Addition of Fractions
Addition with common denominators Steps:
1. Add the numerators together 3 + 2= 5
3+2=5 2. The denominator stays the same, 7.
7 7 7 3. Answer: 5/7 (five—sevenths)
Vocabulary:
Numerator: the top number in a fraction
Denominator: the bottom number in a fraction
Common Denominator: two or more fraction that have the same denominator
Least common denominator: the smallest multiple that two numbers share.
NOTE: never add denominators; they must be the same for addition and subtraction before you
add or subtract.
24
Subtraction of Fractions
Subtracting fractions with Steps: Vocabulary:
common denominators
1. Subtract the numerators: Numerator: the top number in a
2. Keep the same fraction.
denominator. Denominator: the bottom number
3. Reduce the fraction by in a fraction.
dividing by the greatest Common Denominator: two or
common factor: more fractions that have the same
denominator.
Least Common Denominator: the
smallest multiple that two numbers
share.
Factor: a number that divides
evenly into another number.
Example: 12 ÷ 6 = 2 (6 and 2 are
factors of 12).
8. 1 3
30 – 13 =
2 4
27
Multiplication of Fractions
Steps:
Multiply
1. Multiply the numerators together:
o 4x1=4
2. 7/9 x 1/9 =
3. 6 x 4/5 =
4. 1 2/5 x 5 =
5. 2 1/7 x 1 3/4 =
1 5/6 ÷ ¾ Steps:
1. Change the mixed number into an improper fraction:
1 5/6 ÷ 3/4 o 1 5/6 = ( 1 x 6 )v +5=11/6
2. Rewrite the new problem with the improper fraction.
11/6 ÷ 3/4 3. Inverse or flip the second fraction.
4. Multiply the numerator and the denominators together:
11/6 x 4/3 = 44/18 o 11 x 4 = 44 (numerator)
o 6 x 3 = 18(denominator)
2 8/18 = 2 4/9 5. Change the improper fraction into a mixed number. Reduce the
mixed number.
12 ÷ 2 3/8 Steps:
1. Change the whole number into a fraction and the mixed
number into an improper fraction.
12/1 ÷ 19/8 2. Inverse of flip the second fraction.
3. Multiply the numerators and then denominators together:
12/1 x 8/19 = 96/19 o 12 x 8 = 96
o 1 x 19 = 19
5 1/19 4. Change the improper fraction into a mixed number.
Vocabulary
Numerator: the top number in a fraction.
Denominator: the bottom number in a fraction.
Reciprocals pairs of numbers when multiplied together equal 1.
Factor: a number that divides evenly into another number.
30
HESI Hints
These two numbers are reciprocals of each other, because when they are multiplied together, they
equal 1.
1. 4/5 ÷ 1/7 =
2. 12/15 ÷ 3/5 =
3. 7/8 ÷ 1/6 =
4. 1 ÷ 1/5 =
5. 8 ÷ 1/4 =
6. 2 1/4 ÷ 1/6 =
7. 10 ÷ 3 1/3 =
8. 12 1/3 ÷ 2 =
31
Changing Fractions to Decimals
Change ¾ to a decimal Steps: Vocabulary:
1. Change the fraction into a Fractions bar: the line in-between
division problem. the numerator and denominator.
2. Add a decimal point after The bar is another symbol for
the 3 and add two zeros. division.
o Remember to raise the Terminating decimal: a decimal
decimal into the that is not continuous.
quotient area.
3. This is terminating decimal;
therefore adding additional
zeros is not necessary.
6. 1 ½
Change 2 3/5 to a decimal Steps:
1. Change the fraction into a 7. 3/10
division problem.
2. After the 3, add a decimal 8. 2 7/8
and two zeros.
3. Place the whole number in
front of the decimal:
o 2.6
33
Changing Decimals to Fractions
Change 0.9 to a fraction Steps: Vocabulary:
Knowing place values makes it very Place value: Numbers to the
simple to change decimals to right of the decimal point have
fractions. different terms from the whole
1. The last digit is located in the numbers.
tenths place; therefore the 9
Ten-Thousands
becomes the numerator.
Thousandths
2. 10 becomes the denominator.
Hundredths
Thousands
Hundreds
Tenths
Ones
Tens
9 8 7 6 . 5 4 3 2
Math Review
Directions:
1. Take the portion of the test that follows. Label and do all work on
front and back of same page as problem.
2. See pages 42-44 for answer key, to score portion.
3. Provide the following information hereon (page 21) for tutor- and self-
evaluation:
HESI Hints:
Ratios can be written several ways.
o As a fraction 5/12
o Using a colon 5:12
o In words 5 to 12
1. 22/91
2. 19/40
Solve for X
3. 7: 5 :: 91: X
4. 7: 9 :: X: 63
5. X: 15 ::120: 225
6. 15: X :: 3: 8
7. 360: 60 :: 6: X
8. X: 81 :: 9: 27
37
Math Review
Directions:
1. Take the portion of the test that follows. Label and do all work on
front and back of same page as problem.
2. See pages 42-44 for answer key, to score portion.
3. Provide the following information hereon (page 21) for tutor- and self-
evaluation:
Ten-Thousands
Change the decimal to a percent Steps:
Thousandths
Hundredths
0.002 0.2% 1. Move the decimal point to
Thousands
Hundreds
the right of the hundredths
Tenths
place (two places-always!)
Ones
Tens
2. Put the percent sign behind
the new number. Do not
worry. It is still a percent- it
is just a very small percent. 9 8 7 6 . 5 4 3 2
HESI Hints:
Percent formula
The word “of” usually indicates
Part = % the whole portion of the
Whole = 100 percent formula
Using this formula will help in all percent problems where there is an unknown (solving for x)
Now You Try!
Helpful Information
to Memorize and Understand
Fractions, Decimals, Percents
Helpful Information
to Memorize and Understand
Roman Numerals
I=1 XI = 11 D= 500
II = 2 XX = 20 M = 1,000
III=3 XXX = 30 = 5,000
IV = 4 XL = 40 = 10,000
V=5 L = 50 = 50,000
VI = 6 LX = 60 = 100,000
VII = 7 LXX = 70 = 500,000
VIII = 8 LXXX = 80 = 1,000,000
IX = 9 XC = 90
X = 10 C = 100
Measurement Conversions
0 degrees Celsius = 32 degrees Fahrenheit (the freezing point of water)
Temperature
100 degrees Celsius = 212 degrees Fahrenheit (the boiling point of water)
Metric Customary
1 kilometer = 1,000 meters 1 mile = 1,760 yards
Length 1 meter = 100 centimeters 1 mile = 5,280 feet
1 centimeter = 10 millimeters 1 yard = 3 feet
1 foot = 12 inches
Answer Key:
Mathematics Section
Math Practice
Test 1 Face Sheet
Important
1) Use the space provided on the paper for scratch paper; all work should be done on
these pages for ease of assessment.
2) Fill in the blanks on the face sheet to assist the HESI staff in assessing your skills and
weaknesses.
Example: 80 correct out of 100: 80 X 100= 8000 8000 divided by 100 = 80 or 80%
MATH PRACTICE
TEST 1
5. Percentage
6. Ratio/Proportion
7. Conversions
8. Rounding
Answer Key
1. 88,679
2. 957
3. 6,018
4. 540
5. 567
6. 10,704
7. 1,578
8. 27,093
9. 80,916
10. 4,704
11. 168,665
12. 25,917
13. 162,955
14. 47 r2
15. 786 r 3
16. 49
17. 673
18. 43 r 25
Answer Key
1. 1.014
2. 64.5
3. .2356
4. .9591
5. .37
6. 5.8
7. 50
8. 40
9. 2.217
10. 37.93
11. 15.92
12. 2.65
13. 7.862
14. 11.392
Enter score for Practices Test 1 part 2 on face sheets page 44-46.
51
Step one to Fraction to Decimals Skills Practice Test 1 Part 3
1. 5/6 =
2. 9/20 =
3. 4/7 =
4. 5/8 =
5. 9/16 =
Change each decimal or mixed decimal to a fraction or mixed number. Reduce each fraction.
1. .08 =
2. .625 =
3. .48 =
4. 3.36 =
5. 2.00004 =
52
Answer Key
1. .83 1/3
2. .45
3. .57 1/7
4. .62 ½ or .625
5. .56 ¼
1. 2/25
2. 5/8
3. 12/25
4. 3 9/25
5. 2 1/25,000
Enter score for practices test 1 part 3 on face sheets page 44 – 46.
53
Step One to Fraction Skills Practices Test 1 Part 4
Do all work on these pages.
Answer Key
1. ¾
2. 6 ¼
3. 2/9
4. 13/14
5. 1/5
6. 7/24
7. 3 4/9
8. 5 2/5
9. 2 11/18
10. 10/27
11. 4/5
12. 6 2/3
13. 70
14. 2/3
15. 10 ½
16. 1 ½
17. 7 ½
18. 1/24
19. 1 1/3
20. 1 ¼
4. 21
5. 54
6. 80%
7. 33 1/3% or 33.3%
8. 60
9. 260
Use the Principle of Proportion to determine which of the following are true proportions.
1. 5:7 = 15:21
2. 6:11 = 12: 24
4. 63:81 = 77:99
5. 64: 28 = 96:40
58
Conversions Practice Test 1 Part 7
1. 5 yards = feet
2. 40 ounces = pounds
3. 20 quarts = gallons
4. 2 quarts = ounces
5. 3 pints = quarts
59
Answer Key
Answers for test 6: (Enter scores for 6 on face sheet page 44-46)
1. .56 1. True
2. 15 2. False
3. 4 3. True
4. 25 4. True
5. False
Answers for test 7: ( Enter the scores for 7 on face sheet pages 44- 46)
1. 15ft
2. 2.5lbs
3. 5 gals
4. 64 oz
5. 1.5 qt
60
Rounding Dollars and Cents Practices Test 1 Part 8
You round dollars and cents in the same way you round whole numbers. You can round a monetary
amount to the nearest ten cent (dime), nearest dollar, nearest ten dollars, and so on.
Dollar column
$ 165.37
Step 2. Look at the digit to the right of the 7. Since the digit $ 15.86
6 is more than 5, add 1 to the digit 7.
Step 3. Now put zeros in all the places to the right of the 8 $15.80
Answer: $ 15.80
1. 76 (tens place)
Answer Key
1. 80
2. 200
3. 3,000
4. $0.40
5. $3.00
6. $70.00
Math Practice
Test 2 Face Sheet
Important:
1) Use the space provided on the paper for scratch paper; all work
should be done on these pages for ease of assessment.
2) Fill in the blanks on the face sheet to assist the HESI staff assessing
your skills and weaknesses.
Example: 80 correct out of 100: 80 X 100 = 8000 8000 divided by 100= 80 or 80%
Change decimals to fractions; change fractions to decimals; Multiply, divide (by and into), add, subtract
decimals
1. 425 + 34 =
2. 732 + 9,255 =
3. 6,927 + 434 + 56 =
4. 83 – 9 =
5. 800 – 73 =
6. 12,603 – 9258 =
7. 90,000 – 4,782 =
8. 62 x 34 =
9. 536 x 273 =
10. 2,706 x 75 =
11. 39 x 4,086 =
12. 196 ÷ 4 =
13. 779 ÷ 9 =
14. 4,836 ÷ 52 =
15. 7,224 ÷ 9 =
16. 4, 662 ÷ 63 =
66
Answer Key:
Test 2 Part 9
1. 459
2. 9,987
3. 7,417
4. 74
5. 727
6. 3,345
7. 85,218
8. 2,108
9. 146,328
10. 202,950
11. 159,354
12. 49
13. 86 r5
14. 93
15. 802 r6
16. 74
67
Decimal Review Practice Test 2 Part 10
Change each decimal or mixed decimal to a fraction or mixed number. Reduce each fraction.
1. .3=
2. 3.75 =
3. .625=
4. 9.32=
5. 1/5=
6. 1/8=
7. 4/25=
8. 3/50=
9. .29 + .8 + .626=
13. .8 - .29=
18. 18 x .0074 =
22. 54 ÷ 27 =
Answer Key:
Test 2 Part 10
2. 3 ¾ 22. 200
3. 5/8 23. 30
4. 9 8/25
5. .2
6. .12 ½ or .125
7. .16
8. .06
9. 1.716
10. .9172
11. 27.96
12. 20.429
13. .51
14. 6.073
15. 10.491
16. 6.248
17. 1.634
18. .1332
19. 2.1385
20. 4.8
69
Fraction Review Practice Test 2 Part 11
1. 7/10 + 1/10 =
2. 8/15 + 4/5 =
3. 1/2 + 5/9 =
5. 11/16 – 5/16 =
6. 3/5 – 1/6 =
7. 9 – 4 5/12 =
8. 8 2/5 – 2 2/3 =
9. 9 1/4 – 4 7/12 =
12. 8 x 7/10 =
16. 7/8 ÷ 3 =
70
Answer Key:
Test 2 Part 11
1. 4/5
2. 1 1/3
3. 1 1/18
4. 13 13/24
5. 3/8
6. 13/30
7. 4 7/12
8. 5 11/15
9. 4 2/3
10. 15/56
11. 1/3
12. 5 3/5
13. 8
14. 3/4
15. 4 1/2
16. 7/24
71
Percent Review Practice Test 2 Part 12
1. Change each decimal to a percent.
.3 = .09= .455=
SOLVE
4. 16% of 125 =
5. 40% of 75=
6. 4.8% of 800=
7. 45 is what % of 75?
8. 36 is what % of 54?
Answer Key:
Test 2 part 12
1. 30% 9% 45.5%
4. 20
5. 30
6. 38.4
7. 60%
8. 66 2/3%
9. 125
73
Ratio and Proportions Practice Test 2 part 13
In each of the following, what number should replace n to make each a true proportion?
1. n : 4 = 12 : 8
2. 5 : 8 = 35: n
3. 17 : n = 6 : 8
4. 7 : n = 11: 18
5. 15: 35 = 4 : n
6. 1/6 = ?/ 18
7. 3/ ? = 6/8
8. 50/ ? = 1/2
9. 8/9 = ? /27
74
Answer Key:
Test 2 Part 13
1. 6
2. 56
3. 22 2/3
4. 11 5/11
5. 9 1/3
6. 3
7. 4
8. 100
9. 24
75
Converting Units Practice Test 2 part 14
Change each quantity to the unit indicated. As your first step in each problem identify the correct factor.
1. 3 lbs = oz.
2. 3 qt. = pt.
3. 12pt.= qt.
4. 80 oz. = lb.
Many times, when smaller units are converted to larger units, there is a remainder.
As the example below show, this remainder is simply written as the number of smaller units left over.
7 ÷ 3 = 2 r1
Step 2. write the remainder as the number if feet left over.
Answer Key:
Test 2 Part 14
1. 48
2. 6
3. 6
4. 5
5. 2lbs. 15 oz
77
Steps for Rounding Decimal Practices Test 2 Part 15
1. Underline the digit in the place you are rounding to
2. Look at the digit to the right of the underlined digit. If the digit to the right is 5 or more, add 1 to
the underlined digit. If the digit to the right is less than 5, leave the underlined number as is.
3. Discard the digits to the right of the underlined digit.
Step 2. Look at the digit to the right of the 4. The digit is 9. Since 9 is “5 or more,”
add 1 to the underlined digit 4.
Add 1 to 4: 2.1759
Answer: 2.175
Round each amount below to the nearest cent. For each amount circle one of the two answer
choices.
Round each decimal fraction below as indicated. The first problem in each row is done for you.
4. .52
5. .375
6. .483
7. .725
78
Answer Key:
Test 1 Part 15
1. $.47
2. $.95
3. $6.88
4. .5
5. .4
6. .48
7. .73
79
READING
COMPREHENSION
FACE SHEET
Directions: Students will
Important:
1) Use the space provided on the paper for scratch paper; all work should be
done on these pages for ease of assessment.
2) Fill in the blanks on the face sheet to assist the HESI staff in assessing
your skills and weaknesses.
Areas to work on : , , , .
80
Reading Comprehension
2. Reading
Read this the night before you take your exam. It will help you get the right answers on
reading comprehension questions.
¾ When you get to the reading comprehension section, take a deep breath and;
o Quickly read through the questions—not the answer choices, just the
questions. You will be able to focus your reading knowing what the
questions are.
o Read the passage, paying attention to details. Be alert for what the author
thinks is important, by noting phrases like Of importance is…., Do not
overlook…., and Note that….
o Read each question carefully to determine what is being asked. Watch for
all-inclusive words like always, never, all, only, every, absolutely,
completely, none, entirely, no. These words will affect your answer.
o Read all answer choices. Eliminate obviously incorrect choices. Do not
jump to choose the first answer that looks correct. Refer to the passage to
get the best answer.
o Avoid spending too much time on any one question. If you’re stuck on a
question, choose from the answers left after eliminating the obviously
incorrect ones and move on.
There are seven reading skills tested on the HESI exam; the basic tenet emphasized here
is: Reading proactively to keep focused. The skills and how to improve them are
described below:
1. Identify the main idea – key to understanding what you’re reading and what to
remember.
a. Ask “What is the passage about and what point is the author making
about the topic?”
b. Summarize the paragraph in your head after you read it.
c. Visualize as you read---picture the information being projected on a
big screen TV.
d. Remember that main ideas can be found in the beginning, middle, or
end of a paragraph or passage.
e. Look at details, examples, causes, reasons to find implied, or unstated,
main ideas.
82
3. Finding the Meaning of Words in Context--- look for context clues, which are words
or sentences surrounding unknown word (s): the provide information on meaning for
the reader.
4. Identifying a Writer’s Purpose and Tone --- purpose can be to entertain, inform,
persuade. Tone is author’s attitude or feelings towards topic.
Choice of words is clue to both.
Identify words in the passage for negative or positive connotation to determine why the
author wrote the passage, how he/she is trying to manipulate the reader’s feelings. For
example, if the passage is about a beautification project, the author might describe it
using positive connotation (and tone), in words like inspired, visionary, to get the reader
to agree. Or, the writer may describe the project using negative connotation (and
tone)with words like wasteful, foolhardy in opposition.
83
Inform: passages written to inform are less biased, with fewer words that have positive
or negative connotation. Supportive text is factual and allows reader to form own opinion
of subject matter.
5. Distinguishing Between Fact and Opinion --- facts can be proven to be right or
wrong. Ex. The world is round. Opinions are personal statements which cannot be
proven. Ex. “Titanic” was the best movie ever made.
Critical reading means looking at choice of words to determine whether writer is stating
fact or opinion.
Facts: concrete words including measurable data, colors. Ex. Joe weighs 215 pounds.
Sally’s dress is red.
Opinions: evaluative or judgmental words (good, better, best, worst); abstract words
(love, envy, hate); and statements that speculate about future events are considered
opinions.
6. Making Logical Inferences --- inferences are not stated in the reading; they are
educated , logical guesses made by the reader --- “reading between the lines” ---
based on the available facts, information, and reader’s knowledge and experience.
Key to making inferences is to be sure the facts and evidence in the reading supports
the inferences.
This type of question takes the longest for students. Three rules to follow:
a. Summary to include main ideas from beginning, middle, and end of passage
b. Summary presented in chronological (as it happened) order.
c. Summary must have accurate information. False information automatically
rules out choice.
84
3. What is the meaning of the word “accruing” as used in the first paragraph?
A. Something that increases or accumulates.
B. Something that attaches itself like a parasite.
C. Something that annoys.
D. Something that describes emotion.
A. To inform
B. To persuade
C. To entertain
D. To analyze
Answer Key:
Reading Comprehension
Practice Test
1. D (main idea)
2. B (supporting details)
4. B (author’s purpose)
5. C (author’s tone)
7. B (inferences)
8. D (summary)
Bibliography
1. Johnson, Ben. The Reading Edge 4th Ed. New York: Houghton Mifflin Company, 2001
Sample:
The next test has short reading passages, each one followed by questions.
A. The reading passages on the next test will be Correct Marking on Separate Answer Sheet
a) all on one page A B C D
b) followed by questions
c) easy to read
d) very long.
Our planet Earth is divided into seven separate a) No two sets of earthquake waves ever
layers. The outer layer is called the “crust” and travel in the same direction.
appears to be approximately twenty miles thick. b) Earthquakes usually travel in the same
Next in line are the four layers of the “mantle.” direction.
These layers vary in thickness from 250 to 1000 c) Earthquake waves travel at different
miles. The remaining two layers are divided into the speeds.
“outer core” and “inner Core.” The thickness of the d) Earthquake waves travel at the same
outer core has been determined to be slightly more speed but in different directions.
than 1200 miles, while that of the inner core is
slightly less than 800 miles. Scientists calculate the 116. You would expect to find the kind of
location and depth of these layers by measuring and information in this passage in
studying the speed and direction of earthquake a) an encyclopedia.
waves. They have also determined that both b) a science book.
temperature and pressure are much greater at the c) neither of these.
core than at the crust. d) Both pf these.
149. (OMIT)
150. The word fascinating, as underlined and used in this passage, most nearly means
a) frightening.
b) Enjoyable
c) Frustrating
d) Interesting
Answer Key:
Reading Comprehension
1. Take the Vocabulary tests, which are divided into “everyday” and “medical
terminology.”
2. Correct all questions. Use dictionary to enhance study after correcting test.
3. Fill in information on face sheet, which is in front of all tests.
4. Study lists of medical terminology following quizzes. Use medical dictionary or
regular dictionary to enhance knowledge of medical terminology.
5. Return work to HESI staff, arrange tutoring or conference to give go-ahead on
taking actual HESI test.
Important: Fill in the blanks on the face sheet to assist the HESI staff in assessing
your skills and weaknesses.
Example: 80 correct out of 100: 80 X 100= 8000 8000 divided by 100= 80 or 80%
VOCABULARY
1. Test 5 (everyday)
3. Spelling (everyday)
5. Chapter One
6. Chapter Two
Total number of Questions 25
Total number of correct answers X 100 = Divide this number by total number of questions
Percent Correct
7. Chapter Three
Total number of Questions 25
Total number of correct answers X 100 = Divide this number by total number of questions
Percent Correct
8. Chapter Four
For numbers 21 through 30 select the word that best 26. During the fire drill, the well-trained students
fits into the blank. left the building in a(n) fashion.
A. perpetuate
25. Only a could be sent to the B. erase
office for a pair of paper stretchers. C. consolidate
D. alter
F. technician
G. researcher
H. consumer
J. novice
97
Answer Key:
Reading Vocabulary
Test 5
1—10 There is only one synonym of each given word.
24. (B) Dense hedge of thorns and barbed wire would be impenetrable.
27. (H) The key phrase is in a democracy, where the will of the majority must ultimately
prevail.
28. (D) Thousands of vacationers will be lured out doors by balmy weather.
29. (G) The Children would try to persuade their grandparents by being nice, or making
promises; they would cajole them.
30. (A) Our democratic republic will perpetuate the memory of our founding fathers.
EXAMPLE: a b c d
A cheerful face
a. sad b. bashful c. rough d. happy 11. a notable success
a. outstanding b. notice c. taking notes d. musical
a b c d
a b c d
Box d has been blackened because a cheerful face is a happy face,
rather than a sad, bashful, or rough face. The letter before “happy” 12. for medicinal purposes
is “d”; therefore, box d is blackened. a. final b. digestive c. solving d. curative
1. A massive structure a b c d
a. trifling b. tremendous c. isolated d. lovely
13. a minute detail
a b c d a. hourly b. very small c. timed d. quick
2.drawing nigh a b c d
a. away b. near c. up d. water
14. necessary requirements
a b c d a. essential b. plausible c. partial d. fulfilling
3. a startling observation
a b c d
a. remark b. view c. service d. claim
15. an obedient pupil
a b c d a. rebellious b. happy c. dutiful d. bright
4. punctual arrival a b c d
a. late b. early c. on time d. pointed
16. a rugged pioneer
a b c d a. colonist b. conservative c. radical d. flower
6. radiated light a b c d
a. sent forth b. obscured c. rained d. heated
18. the reformed convict
a b c d a. reasonable b. change for the better c. evil d. guilty
EXAMPLE:
A narrative is a
a. composition b. musicale c. story d. mystery e. vehicle
a b c d e
a b c d e
8. A corrupt regime is
a. unheard of b. expert c. hypnotist d. specialist
a b c d e
a b c d e
12. The light snow scorched her face 12. T F 10. a typical teenager a. rock ‘n’ roll b. mature
gently. c. happy d. delinquent e. average 10.
13. Sculpture is one of the fine arts, the 13. T F 11. the significant event a. unhappy b. wedding
art of building beautiful structures. c. following d. important e. last 11.
14. The knife was placed in a sheath to 14. T F 12. a noble sentiment a. feeling b. sadness c. cry
keep it away from the children. d. lament e. silliness 12.
15. After a day in the desert, our food 15. T F 13. the turmoil in the hills a. quiet b. quiet c. girl
was sodden. d. elephant e. crowd 13.
16. A spendthrift saves money regularly. 16. T F 14.unsound reasoning a. ringing b. untested
c. intelligent d. precocious e. faulty 14.
17. Spontaneous applause came all night 17. T F
from the paid applauders. 15. the moving van a. truck b. furniture c. house
d. man e. wheels 15.
18. The cattle remained clam during the 18. T F
stampede. 16. a vision of success a. story b. break c. dream
d. fulfillment e. example 16.
19. There is no more steadfast friend than 19. T F
a fickle girl. 17. with uncommon fervor a. ordinary b. dreamy
c. noisy d. unrealistic e. more than usual 17.
20. His suave manners were uncouth. 20. T F
101
18. the important transaction EXAM 14
a. business man b. result c. method of communication
DIRECTIONS: In each line below you will find one italicized
d. piece of business e. proceeding
word followed by five words or phrases lettered a to e. In each
18.
case choose the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to
the italicized word. Then blacken with your pencil the space
19. the third stanza
with the letter of the word or phrase you have selected.
a. Song b. repetition c. lyric
d. portion of a poem e. scale
EXAMPLE:
19.
Oblique a. blinking b. scarce c. level
d. criss-cross e. diagonal
20. the subsequent events
a.in place of b. followning a b c d e
c. preceding d. important
e. significant 20.
1. stump a. glide b. walk heavily c. imprint d. strut
e. blast loose
EXAM 13 a b c d e
DIRECTIONS: For the underlined word in each phrase at the
left, select the lettered word or phrase that means most nearly 2. sulk a. sink b. come after c. drive a horse carriage
the SAME. Print the letter of the correct answer in the space d. go off alone e. commute
at the right. a b c d e
EXAMPLE: 3. surge a. swell b. take a view of c. influence
An ambitious man d. remove e. excel
a. lazy b. energetic c. purposeful a b c d e
d. cruel e. fine Answer: b
1. The traditional costume: a. young 4. taunt a. placate b. mimic c. tangle d. mock e. tighten
b. peasant c. tattered d. dance
a b c d e
e. handed down through the ages
1.
2. utilize your talents! a. make use of 5. tempo a. storm b. largo c. rhythm d. tendency
b. utilities c. sing d. modernize e. symphony
e. undo a b c d e
2.
3. his vigorous objection: a. unhappy
b. poorly timed c. vintage d. wrong 6. thrive a. dishevel b. push c. bounce d. confess e. flourish
e. tasteful
3.
a b c d e
4. the vulgar remark a. coarse b. poorly timed
c. vintage d. wrong e. tasteful 7. triangular a. mathematical b. perpendicular c. having four
4. angles d. three-sided e. trapezoidal
5. her sullen mood a. happy b. silly
c. brooding d. sunny e. distasteful a b c d e
5.
6. the spacious garden a. empty b. outdoor 8. tumult a. wretchedness b. noise and confusion c. exciting
c. roomy d. lovely e. springy anticipation d. multiplication e. deep and violent anger
6.
7. terminate the business a. start b. remodel a b c d e
c. refinance d. exterminate e. put an end to
7. 9. tyrant a. despot b. ruler c. sovereign d. viceroy e. premier
8. the upright position a. erect b. upside down
c. immovable d. wrong e. sloppy a b c d e
8.
9. veto the bill a. sign b. withdraw c. debate on 10. unique a. 100% b. not basic c. alone of its kind
d. pass e. refuse to sign d.changeable e. extraordinarily large
9. a b c d e
10. variety of acts a. show b. hall c. sequence
d. poor quality
10.
102
Answer Key:
VOCABULARY
EXAM 7 EXAM 15
1. b 5. d 9. a 13. b 17. d 1. b 3. b 5. d 7. d 9. c
2. b 6. a 10. d 14. a 18. b 2. c 4. e 6. a 8. e 10. b
3. a 7. d 11. a 15. c 19. a
4. c 8. c 12. d 16. a 20. d EXAM 16
1. c 5. d 9. d 13. d 17. c
EXAM 8 2. d 6. a 10. b 14. b 18. a
1. S 5. O 9. U 13. S 17. S 3. d 7. a 11. d 15. c 19. b
2. O 6. U 10. S 14. S 18. U 4. b 8. c 12. a 16. d 20. c
3. O 7. S 11. S 15. S 19. U
4. O 8. S 12. O 16. S 20. U EXAM 17
1. e 5. c 9. b 13. b 17. b
EXAM 9 2. c 6. d 10. e 14. d 18. d
1. O 5. O 9. 13. 17. 3. d 7. a 11. b 15. a 19. c
2. S 6. O 10. 14. 18. 4. b 8. a 12. e 16. d 20. e
3. O 7. S 11. 15. 19.
4. O 8. S 12. 16. 20. EXAM 18
1. d 9. b 17. b 25. c 33. c
EXAM 10 2. d 10. b 18. a 26. d 34. d
1. d 3. a 5. c 7. a 9. a 3. a 11. c 19. d 27. d 35. a
2. e 4. b 6. d 8. e 10. b 4. a 12. d 20. c 28. d 36. a
5. b 13. b 21. d 29. d 37. d
EXAM 11 6. c 14. d 22. d 30. c 38. a
1. F 5. F 9. T 13. F 17. F 7. d 15. a 23. d 31. b 39. c
2. F 6. T 10. F 14. T 18. F 8. d 16. d 24. d 32. b 40. a
3. T 7. T 11. F 15. F 19. F
4. T 8. T 12. F 16. F 20. F EXAM 19
1. b 9. c 17. c 25. b 33. d
EXAM 12 2. c 10. b 18. b 26. a 34. c
1. e 5. c 9. e 13. b 17. e 3. b 11. a 19. b 27. a 35. d
2. a 6. d 10. e 14. e 18. d 4. d 12. c 20. d 28. b 36. b
3. e 7. d 11. d 15. a 19. d 5. a 13. b 21. c 29. a 37. a
4. b 8. c 12. a 16. c 20. b 6. c 14. a 22. a 30. b 38. c
7. b 15. a 23. c 31. a 39. d
EXAM 13 8. d 16. b 24. a 32. b 40. b
1. e 3. a 5. c 7. e 9. e
2. a 4. d 6. c 8. a 10. d EXAM 20
1. d 7. b 13. c 19. b 25. d
EXAM 14 2. d 8. a 14. d 20. d 26. a
1. b 3. a 5. c 7. d 9. a 3. b 9. a 15. b 21. a 27. b
2. d 4. d 6. e 8. b 10. c 4. d 10. c 16. d 22. b 28. c
5. c 11. d 17. a 23. c 29. c
6. b 12. d 18. c 24. c 30. b
Exercise 5
Circle the correct choice
1. They plan to (a lot allot) $1500 for the redecoration of their (dining/ dinning) room.
2. Let there be (peace/piece) in (are/ our) time.
3. Each year, an increasing number of (woman/ women) (desert/ dessert) their families.
4. (Were/ We’re/ Where) do you think (were/ we’re/ where) going to get the money?
5. I found it impossible to remain (stationary/stationery), so I walked rapidly back and (forth/ fourth).
6. I (hear/ here) (your/ you’re) sorry you (choose/ chose) this (coarse/course).
7. Do you think children (are/our) (conscience/ conscious) of (there/ their/ they’re) parents’ sacrifices for
them?
8. The learning process is greatly (affected/ effected) by student (moral/ morale).
9. He is a person (whose/ who’s) (advice/ advise) I value.
10. Inflation and unemployment are the (principal/ principle) concerns of Americans; world (peace/piece) is
considered almost a (miner/ minor) problem in comparison.
104
Exercise 6
Circle the correct choice
Exercise 7
Circle the correct choice
Exercise 10
Circle the correct choice
1. I made the turn and (than/ then) saw the sign: “No left turn; buses (accepted/ excepted.)”
2. If you let the dog run(loose/ lose), you must (accept/ except) the consequences.
3. (Whose/ Who’s) turn is it to find the (complement/ compliment) of the angle?
4. We were (to/ too/ two) late for dinner but in time for (desert/ dessert).
5. I accept your (advice/ advise) for the sound (council/consul/ counsel) it is.
6. (Their/ There/ They’re) are many children who believe the tooth fairy will come if they (loose/lose) a
tooth.
7. A (stationary/ stationery) store is (were/ we’re/ where) you’ll find carbon paper.
8. The (miner/ minor) skirmish before the game had the (affect/ effect) of making us determined to win.
9. Edmund Burke believed manners were more important ( than/ then) (morales/ morals).
10. State colleges are governed by a (consul/ council/ counsel) (who’s/ whose) function is to (advice/
advise) the Board of Education.
106
Answer Key:
Spelling
Exercise 4
Exercise 5
Exercise 6
Exercise 7
Answer Key:
Spelling
Exercise 9
Exercise 10
In the box write the letter of the choice that is the definition of the term or best answers the question. There is only one correct answer
for each question.
ο
E) Cutting into a tumor
ο
1. Gastrectomy:
A) Gastric resection
7. Electroencephalogram:
B) Intestinal incision
C) Tumor of the stomach A) Record of electricity in the brain
D) Incision of the stomach B) Record of electricity in the heart
E) Resection of the intestine C) X-ray of the brain
ο
D) Record of sound waves in the brain
E) X-ray of the heart and brain
ο
2. Osteitis:
A) Incision of a bone
8. Diagnosis:
B) Removal of bone
C) Incision of a joint A) Is made after prognosis
D) Inflammation of a joint B) Is a guess as to the patient’s condition
E) Inflammation of a bone C) Is a prediction of the course of treatment
ο
D) Is made on the basis of complete knowledge
about the patient’s condition
3. Cystoscopy: E) Is a treatment of the patient
A)
B)
C)
D)
Study of cells
Visual examination of cells
Removal of a sac of fluid
Removal of the urinary bladder
9. Cancerous tumor:
A) Hematoma
ο
E) Visual examination of the urinary badder B) Adenoma
ο
C) Carcinoma
D) Carcinogenic
4. Hepatoma: E) Neurotomy
ο
B) Tumor of the liver
C) Blood mass
D) Inflammation of the liver
living tissue:
E) Red blood cells
A) Incision
5. Which of the following is not an B) Pathology
ο
C) Biopsy
D) Autopsy
endocrine gland? E) Resection
A)
B)
C)
D)
Thyroid gland
Adrenal gland
Ovary
Mammary gland
11. pertaining to the brain:
A) Cerebral
ο
E) Pituitary gland B) Cephalic
ο
C) Renal
D) Cardiac
6. Iatrogenic: E) Neural
A)
B)
C)
D)
Pertaining to produced by treatment
Produced by the mind
Cancer producing
Pertaining to producing a tumor
12. Removal of gland
A) Gastrotomy
ο
109
B) Gastric D) Erythrocyte
ο
C) Hepatic resection
D) Nephric section
E) Adenectomy 19. Abnormal condition of the mind:
A) Physchosis
13. Decrease in numbers of red blood B) Psychosis
C) Psychogenic
ο
D) Encephalopathy
E) Adenoma
cells:
A) Anemia
ο
B) Erythrocytosis
C) Thrombocytosis
D) Leukemia 20. Inflammation of the nose:
E) Leukoctosis
A) Arthrosis
B) Hepatitis
ο
C) Nephritis
D) Dermatosis
14. Pathologist: E) Rhinitis
A) One who examines x-rays
ο
B) One who operates on the urinary tract
C) One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
D) One who operates on the kidney 21. Study of cells:
E) One who treats diseases with chemicals
A) Pathology
ο
B) Cytology
C) Cystology
15. Pain in a joint: D) Dermatology
A) Ostealgia E) Urology
B) Arthritis
ο
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Arthroalgia
E) Arthralgia 22. Pertaining to through the liver:
ο
C) Transhepatic
D) Subhepatic
white blood cells: E) Hepatoma
A) Leukocytosis
ο
B) Leukemia
C) Erythremia
D) Thrombocytosis 23. Abnormal condition of the kidney:
E) Erythrocytosis
A) Neurological
ο
B) Neuralgia
C) Nephrotomy
17. Instrument to view the eye: D) Neural
A) Ophthalmoscopy E) Nephrosis
B) Opthalmoscope
ο
C) Ophthalmology
D) Ophthalmoscope
E) Opthalmoscopy 24. Incision of a bone:
ο
A) Sarcoma
B) Pathogenic
18. A platelet C) Osteotomy
A) Hematoma D) Ostectomy
B) Thrombosis E) Endoscopy
C) Leukocyte
110
Answer Key:
Chapter One
In the box write the letter of the choice that is the definition of the term or best answers the question. There is only one correct answer for each question.
A) Cytoplasm
1. The process by which food is B) Cell membrane
ο
C) Chromosomes
D) Mitochondria
E) Nucleus
burned to release energy:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Nuclear energy
Anabolism
Phagocytosis
Catabolism
7. Genes are composed of:
A) Chromosomes
ο
E) Protein synthesis B) Ribosomes
C) Hemoglobin
2. Part of the cell where formation of proteins D) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
ο
E) Mitochondria
ο
E) Peritoneum
ο
E) Retroperitoneal space
ο
numerical order:
A) Biopsy
10. Adipose means pertaining to :
B) X-ray
C) Electroencephalogram A) Cartilage
D) Sonogram B) Bone
E) Karyotype C) Fat
D) Skin
5. Part of a cell where catabolism primarily E) Nervous tissue
occurs:
A) Cell membrane
ο 11. Throat: ο
B) Nucleus A) Trachea
C) Mitochondria B) Coccyz
D) Genes C) Larynz
E) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Esophagus
E) Pharynx
ο
6. Allows materials to pass into and out of the
ο
C) Pertaining to the brain
D) Incision of the chest
E) Pertaining to the head
20. The tailbone is the:
ο
A) Sacrum
B) Cervix
C) Ilium
14. A histologist studies:
D) Coccyx
A) Drugs E) Cranium
B) X-rays
ο
C) Tissues
D) The backbone
E) The spinal cord
21. Supine means:
ο
A) Lying on the back
B) Conducting toward a structure
C) In front of the body
15. An epithelial cell is a(an):
D) Lying on the belly
A) Skin cell E) Pertaining to the side
B) Nerve cell
C) Fat cell 22. The upper lateral regions of the abdomen, beneath the ribs, are
ο
D) Organ
E) Muscle cell
the:
ο
D) Space between the membranes around the lungs
E) Space within the skull
23. The RUQ contains the :
17.Viscera:
A) Cells in the blood
ο A)
B)
C)
D)
Liver
Appendix
Lung
Spleen
B) Internal organs E) Heart
C) Parts of cells
D) Cavities of the body 24. Pertaining to a plane that divides the body into right
ο
E) Tissues composed of cartilage
body cavity?
A) Cranial
ο A)
B)
C)
D)
Coronal
Transverse
Frontal
Sagittal
113
E) Distal
Answer Key:
Chapter Two
In the box write the letter of the choice that is the definition of the term of best answers the question. There is only one correct answer for each
question.
1. Amniocentesis: ο
ο
A) Incision of the abdomen
B) Paracentesis
C) Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
7. Pain in the ear:
D) Puncture of the chest region
E) Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the A) Pleurodynia
embryo B) Otitis
ο
C) Otalgia
D) Osteitis
E) Neuralgia
2. Inflammation of lymph tissue in the throat:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Bronchitis
Laryngitis
Pharyngeal
Tonsilitis
8. Continuing over a long period of time:
A) Chronic
ο
E) Tonsillitis B) Acute
ο
C) Chromic
D) Relapse
E) Remission
3. Prolapse:
A)
B)
C)
D)
–pathy
–ptosis
–trophy
–plasty
9. Small artery is a (an):
A) Capillary
ο
E) –plasm B) Arteriole
ο
C) Venule
D) Lymph vessel
E) Blood vessel leading from the heart
4.Blood is held back from an area:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Thrombocyte
Anemia
Ischemia
Hematoma
10. Instrument to visually examine:
A) –scope
ο
E) Hemolysis B) –scopy
ο
C) –opsy
D) –stasis
E) –tomy
5. Death:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Neur/o
Nephr/o
Neutr/o
Nucle/o
11. Hernia of the urinary bladder:
A) Rectocele
ο
E) Necr/o B) Inguinal hernia
ο
C) Hiatal hernia
D) Rectalgia
E) Cystocele
6. Acromegaly:
A) Exocrine disorder of bone enlargement
B) Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland
problem
C) Abnormal growth of bones before puberty
12. Tumor of bone marrow:
A) Myosarcoma
ο
D) Endocrine gland problem in young children B) Malignant myeloma
E) Fear of extremities (heights) C) Oteeogenic sarcoma
D) Adenocarcinoma
E) Metastasis
115
ο
E) Trachectomy
ο
14. Berry-shaped bacteria:
A)
B)
Staphyl/o
Pneum/o
20. Angioplasty means:
A) Pertaining to fat
ο
C) –cele
D) Strept/o B) Fear of extremities
E) –cocci C) Therapy with chemicals
D) Surgical Puncture of a blood vessel
E) Surgical repair of blood vessel
ο
ο
15. Neutrophil:
A) Lymphocyte
B) Polymorphonuclear leukocyte 21. A blood cell that produces antibodies:
C) Monocyte
D) Agranulocyte A) Erythrocyte
E) Platelet B) Platelet
C) Lymphocyte
D) Monocyte
ο
E) Basophil
ο
16. Instrument to record:
A) –gram
B) –scopy 22. Opposite of –malacia is:
C) –scope
D) –graph A) –megaly
E) –graphy B) –sclerosis
C) –emia
D) –plasia
ο
E) –lysis
ο
17. Resembling:
A) –osis
B) –eal 23. Excessive development:
C) lith/o
D) –oid A) Hypoplasia
E) –ic B) Dystrophy
C) Achondroplasia
D) Morphology
ο
E) Hypertrophy
ο
18. An eosinophil is a (an):
A) Erythrocyte
B) Leukocyte 24. Treatment:
C) Agranulocyte
D) Platelet A) –therapy
E) Lymphocyte B) –tomy
C) –ectomy
D) –osis
ο
E) –stasis
19. Removal of the voice box: 25. Surgical creation of a permanent opening to the outside
of the body:
A) Larnygectomy
A) –stomy
B) Pharyngotomy
B) –tomy
C) Pharynostomy
C) –ectomy
D) Laryngectomy
116
D) Section
E) Resection
116
Answer Key:
Chapter Two
1) E
2) E
3) B
4) C
5) E
6) B
7) C
8) A
9) B
10) A
11) E
12) B
13) D
14) E
15) B
16) D
17) D
18) B
19) D
20) E
21) C
22) B
23) E
24) A
25) A
In the box write the letter of the choice that is the definition of the term or best answers the question. There is only one correct
answer for the each question.
ο
ο
1. Pertaining to between the ribs:
A) Intracostal
7. Before meals:
B) Infracostal
C) Mediastinal A) Prenatal
D) Intercostal B) Anti cibum
C) Postpartum
ο
D) Antenatal
E) Ante cibum
ο
2. Pertaining to the opposite side:
A) Bilateral
8. Antibodies:
B) Contralateral
C) Unilateral A) Bacteria
D) Contraindication B) Protein substances made by leukocytes
E) Ipsilateral C) Phagocytes
D) Produced by erythrocytes to fight disease
ο
E) Antibodies
ο
3. Protrusion of an eyeball:
A) Cystocele
9. Symphysis:
B) Inguinal hernia
C) Exopthalmia A) Bifurcation
D) Ectopic B) Symptoms occur tighter
E) Exophthalmos C) Living organisms grow together for mutual benefit.
D) Bones grow together, as in the pelvis
ο
E) Synthesis of substances
ο
4. A congential anomaly:
A) Cerebral ischemia
10. Ultrasonography:
B) Pseudocyesis
C) Hemiglossectomy A) X-ray recording of sound waves
D) Syndactyly B) Amniocentesis
E) Acromegaly C) Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
D) Radioactive material is injected and sound waves are
ο
recorded
E) Abdominal x-ray recording
5. Symbiosis:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Parasitism
Symmetrical organs
Biopsy
Group of symptoms
11. Metamorphosis:
A) Paralysis of limbs
ο
E) Neonatal B) Spread of a cancerous growth
C) Precancerous
ο
D) Change in shape of form
E) After death
6. Symptoms precede an illness:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Apnea
Syndrome
Euphoria
Prodome
12.Hyptertrophy:
A) Underdeveloped
ο
E) Prognosis B) Poor development
C) Increase in cell size
118
ο
D) Increase in cell numbers
E) Newborn
19. Dyspnea:
A) Abnormal formation
B) Difficult breathing
ο
C) Not able to sleep
D) Condition of lack of water
E) Not able to breathe
13. Excessive sugar in the blood:
A) Hypodermic
ο
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Glycosuria
D) Hematuria
E) Hyperglycemia 20. Brady-:
A) Fast
ο
B) Bad
C) Short
D) Slow
14. Retroperitoneal:
E) Large
A) Region of the stomach
B) Within the chest 21. Located on the dorsal side of an endocrine gland
ο
C) Behind the abdomen
D) Within the abdomen
E) Below the pelvis
in the neck:
ο
A) Pituitary gland
B) Parathyroid glands
C) Adrenal glands
15. Antigens:
D) Esophagus
A) Streptococci E) Trachea
B) Antibiotics
ο
C) Antitoxins
D) Produced by antibodies
E) Penicillins
22. Recombinant DNA:
ο
A) Pregnancy that is out of place
B) Artificial kidney machine
C) Backward development
16. Return of disease symptoms:
D) Antibodies are made against normal tissue
A) Prolapse E) Gene from one organism is inserted into another organism
B) Relapse
ο
C) Syndrome
D) Prodrome
E) Remission
23. Tachycardia:
ο
A) Bad, painful swallowing
B) Inability to swallow
C) Near the windpipe
17. Dia-:
D) Rapid breathing
A) Flow E) Rapid heartbeat
B) Down, lack of
ο
C) Complete, through
D) Against
E) Near
24. Epithelium:
ο
A) Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the
skin
B) Membrane surrounding bone
18. Abductor muscle:
C) Connective tissue that binds muscles to bones
A) Bending forward D) Adipose tissue
B) Located proximally E) Above the stomach
C) Pertains to both sides
ο
D) Carries a limb toward the body
E) Carries a limb away from the body
25. Percutaneous:
A) Within a vein
119
B) Through a vein
C) Through the skin
D) Surrounding cartilage
E) Surrounding a bone
119
Answer Key:
Chapter 4
1) E
2) B
3) E
4) D
5) A
6) D
7) E
8) B
9) D
10) C
11) D
12) C
13) E
14) C
15) A
16) B
17) C
18) E
19) B
20) D
21) B
22) E
23) E
24) A
25) C
Chapter Twenty-One
In the box write the letter of the choice that is the definition of the term or best answers to the question. There is only one correct answer for
each question.
ο
C) Inhalation
D) Topical
E) Oral
entities such as enzymes and DNA is called:
A) Medicinal chemistry 7. Drugs are swallowed and absorbed through the intestinal
ο
B) Pharmacodynamics
C) Chemotheraphy
D) Molecular pharmacology
tract:
E) Pharmacokinetics
A) Parenteral administration
2. Finding proper antidotes to the harmful effects of B) Rectal administration
ο
C) Inhalation
D) Topical
E) Oral
drugs is part of the specialty of:
A) Molecular pharmacology 8. Drugs are injected through a syringe into a muscle, vein,
ο
B) Toxicology
C) Medicinal chemisty
D) Pharmacodynamics
or body cavity:
E) Pharmacokinetics
ο
A) Parenteral administration
B) Rectal administration
C) Inhalation
3. Which of the following is a drug generic name? D) Topical
A) Omnipen E) Oral
ο
B) Ampicillin
C) Aminopenicillanic acid
D) Polycillin
9. Aerosols are administered in this way:
E) Principen
A) Parenteral administration
4. Which agency holds the legal responsibility for deciding B) Rectal administration
ο
C) Inhalation
D) Topical
E) Oral
whether a drug may be distributed and sold?
A)
B)
C)
PDR
United States Pharmacopeia
National Institutes of Health
10. Drugs are applied on the skin:
A) Parenternal administration
ο
D) Hospital Formulary B) Rectal administration
E) FDA C) Inhalation
D) Topical
5. The combination of two drugs can cause an effect that is E) Oral
ο
E) An antipruritic and antiseptic drug
ο
D) Lowers cholesterol
E) Increases blood pressure by holding water in the body
allergic reactions are called:
A) Anticoagulants 19. Penicillin is an example of which
ο
B) Antidiabetics
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Anthistamines
E) Anesthetics type of drug?
A) Antihistamine
ο
B) Analgesic
C) Antiemetic
D) Antibiotic
13. Morphine:
E) Hypnotic
A) Endocrine
ο
B) Cardiovascular
C) Analgesic
D) Stimulant
E) Anticoagulant 20. A drug that works against fever is:
A) Antipruritic
ο
B) Antipyretic
C) Anesthetic
D) Anticoagulant
14. Beta- Blocker:
E) Hypnotic
A) Endocrine drug
B) Cardiovascular drug 21. Drugs that control anxiety and sever disturbances
ο
C) Analgesic drug
D) Stimulant drug
E) Anticoagulant drug
of behavior:
ο
A) Sedatives
B) Anticonvulsants
C) Analgesics
15. Heparin:
D) Tranquilizers
A) Endocrine drug E) Anesthetics
B) Cardiovascular drug
ο
C) Analgesic drug
D) Stimulant drug
E) Anticoagulant drug
22. Drugs that relax without necessarily producing sleep:
ο
A) Sedatives
B) Anticonvulsants
C) Analgesics
16. Estrogen:
D) Tranquilizers
A) Endocrine drug E) Anesthetics
B) Cardiovascular drug
ο
C) Analgesic drug
D) Stimulant drug
E) Anticoagulant drug
23. Drugs used to relieve pain induce sleep, and suppress cough:
ο
A) Sedatives
B) Anticonvulsants
C) Analgesics
17. Amphetamine and caffeine:
D) Tranquilizers
A) Endocrine drug E) Anesthetics
B) Cardiovascular drug
C) Analgesic drug
D) Stimulant drug
122
Answer Key:
Chapter 21
1) D
2) B
3) B
4) E
5) D
6) B
7) E
8) A
9) C
10) D
11) A
12) D
13) C
14) B
15) E
16) A
17) D
18) A
19) D
20) B
21) D
22) A
23) C
24) E
25) B
Terminology Meaning
Terminology Meaning
Terminology Meaning
Abdominal Pertaining to the abdomen.
Adipose Pertaining to fat.
Anterior Pertaining to the front
Anabolism Process of casting up (Building-up or synthesizing process in a cell)
Cervical Pertaining to the neck
Chondroma Tumor of cartilage
Chondrosarcoma Flesh tumor (malignant) of cartilage
Chromosomes “Color bodies”; contain genetic material and are located in the nucleus
of cell.
Coccygeal Pertaining to the tailbone
Craniotomy Incision of the skull
Cytoplasm Contents (formation) of the cell (apart from the nucleus and cell
membrane.)
Distal Pertaining to far (from the beginning of a structure)
Dorsal Pertaining to the back
Histology Study of tissues
Iliac Pertaining to the ilium
Inguinal Pertaining to the groin
Karyotype Picture (classification) of the nucleus (and its chromosomes)
Lateral Pertaining to the side
Lumbosacral Pertaining to the lumbar and sacral regions
Medical Pertaining to the middle
Nucleic Pertaining to the nucleus
Pelvic Pertaining to the hip bone
Posterior Pertaining to the back, behind
Proximal Pertaining to near the beginning of a structure
Sacral Pertaining to the sacrum (lower back)
Sarcoma Tumor of flesh tissue (malignant)
Spinal Pertaining to the spine, backbone
Epithelial cell Cell covering the surface of the skin and inner lining of body cavities
and tubes.
Thoracic Pertaining to the chest
Thoracotomy Incision of the chest
Tracheal Pertaining to the windpipe
Umbilical Pertaining to the navel
Ventral Pertaining to the belly side of the body
Vertebral Pertaining to the vertebrae
Visceral Pertaining to internal organs
Anabolic Pertaining to casting up; building up substances (proteins) in the cell
Catabolism Process of casting down; breaking down material in the cell to release
energy.
126
Chapter Two
Answers to Combining Forms and Terminology Sections (textbook pages 54-57)
Terminology Meaning
Abdominal Pertaining to the abdomen.
Adipose Pertaining to fat.
Anterior Pertaining to the front
Anabolism Process of casting up (Building-up or synthesizing process in a cell)
Cervical Pertaining to the neck
Chondroma Tumor of cartilage
Chondrosarcoma Flesh tumor (malignant) of cartilage
Chromosomes “Color bodies”; contain genetic material and are located in the nucleus
of cell.
Coccygeal Pertaining to the tailbone
Craniotomy Incision of the skull
Cytoplasm Contents (formation) of the cell (apart from the nucleus and cell
membrane.)
Distal Pertaining to far (from the beginning of a structure)
Dorsal Pertaining to the back
Histology Study of tissues
Iliac Pertaining to the ilium
Inguinal Pertaining to the groin
Karyotype Picture (classification) of the nucleus (and its chromosomes)
Lateral Pertaining to the side
Lumbosacral Pertaining to the lumbar and sacral regions
Medical Pertaining to the middle
Nucleic Pertaining to the nucleus
Pelvic Pertaining to the hip bone
Posterior Pertaining to the back, behind
Proximal Pertaining to near the beginning of a structure
Sacral Pertaining to the sacrum (lower back)
Sarcoma Tumor of flesh tissue (malignant)
Spinal Pertaining to the spine, backbone
Epithelial cell Cell covering the surface of the skin and inner lining of body cavities
and tubes.
Thoracic Pertaining to the chest
Thoracotomy Incision of the chest
Tracheal Pertaining to the windpipe
Umbilical Pertaining to the navel
Ventral Pertaining to the belly side of the body
Vertebral Pertaining to the vertebrae
Visceral Pertaining to internal organs
Anabolic Pertaining to casting up; building up substances (proteins) in the cell
Catabolism Process of casting down; breaking down material in the cell to release
energy.
127
Terminology Meaning
Terminology Meaning
GRAMMAR
FACE SHEET
Important: Fill in the blanks on the face sheet to assist the HESI staff in assessing your skills and
weaknesses.
¾ To calculate Total number of correct answers, subtract number of incorrect answers from total number
of problems
¾ To calculate Percent correct: multiply number correct X 100, divide this number by total number of
problems.
Example: 80 correct out of 100: 80 x 100= 8000 8000 divided by 100= 80 or 80%
Areas to work on : , , ,
136
GRAMMAR
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
9. PLURALS—Exercises 2, 3, 4, 5
Percent Correct
10. VERBS—Exercises 12, 13
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Percent Correct
Next step: Make sure to complete overall score on face sheet. See HESI staff for final assessment of our study
packet and go-ahead to take test.
138
EXERCISE ONE: PROBLEMS WITH VERBS (PART 1)
Directions: Four words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D) , are given beneath each
incomplete sentence. You are to choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have chosen so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
In some sentences in Part A of the Structure and Written Expression Section, you will be asked to
identify the correct verb. In fact, most of the sentences in this part are verb problems.
A verb is a word or phrase that expresses action or condition. A verb can be classified as transitive
or intransitive according to whether it requires a complement; it can be classified further according to
the kind of complement it requires, including not only nouns, pronouns, adjectives, and adverbs but
also –ing forms or infinitives.
3. We wish that you such a lot of work, because we know that you would have enjoyed the party.
(A) hadn’t had (C) didn’t have had
(B) hadn’t (D) hadn’t have
4. Since your roommate is visiting her family this weekend, you like to have dinner with us tonight?
(A) Will (C) do
(B) won’t (D) wouldn’t
7. The team really looks good tonight because the coach had them every night this week.
(A) practice (C) practiced
(B) to practice (D) the practice
13. Frankly, I’d rather you anything about it for the time being.
(A) do (C) don’t
(B) didn’t do (D) didn’t
10. The old man asked her to move because he in that chair.
(A) used to sit (C) used to sitting
(B) was used to sit (D) was used to sitting
11. After the way she treated you, if I in your place, I wouldn’t return the call.
(A) be (C) was
(B) am (D) were
4. Mary and John to the parties at the Student Union every Friday.
(A) used to go (C) are used to go
(B) use to go (D) were used to go
8. After he had researched and his paper, he found some additional material that he should have included.
(A) wrote (C) writing
(B) written (D) have written
9. The man who was driving the truck would not admit that he had been at fault, and .
(A) neither the other driver (C) neither had the other driver
(B) neither would the other driver (D) the other driver neither
12. Almost everyone fails the driver’s test on the first try.
(A) passing (C) to pass
(B) to have passed (D) in passing
14. I think that you had better earlier so that you can get to class on time.
(A) to start to get up (C) start getting up
(B) started getting up (D) to get up
In some sentences in Part B, you will be asked to identify errors in introductory verbal modifiers and
the subjects that they modify.
Introductory verbal modifiers are –ing forms, participles, and infinitives. A phrase with an
introductory verbal modifier occurs at the beginning of a sentence and is followed by a comma. The
subject modified by an introductory verbal modifier must follow the comma.
If the correct subject does not follow the comma, then the meaning of the sentence is changed.
Often the changed meaning is not logical.
1. After finishing Roots, the one-hundred-year history of a black American family, the Nobel Prize
(A) (B)
Committee awarded author Alex Haley a special citation for literary excellence.
(C) (D)
2. A competitive sport, gymnasts perform before officials who must use their judgment along with
(A) (B) (C)
their knowledge of the rules to determine the relative skill of each participant.
(D)
3. To remove stains from permanent press clothing, carefully soaking in cold water before washing
(A) (B) (C)
with one’s regular detergent.
(D)
4. Found in Tanzania by Mary Leakey, some archeologists estimated that the three-million-year-old
(A) (B) (C)
fossils were the oldest human remains to be discovered.
(D)
5. After fighting the blaze for three days, the supertanker was hauled toward open seas in an effort to
(A) (B)
save the southern Caribbean form the worst oil spill in history.
(C) (D)
6. According to the conditions of their scholarships, after finishing their degrees, the University will
(A) (B)
employ them for three years.
(C) (D)
7. Originally having been buried in Spain, and later moved to Santo Domingo in the Dominican
(A) (B) (C)
Republic, Columbus’s final resting place is Havana, Cuba.
(D)
143
8. Written by Neil Simon, New York audiences received the new play enthusiastically at the world
(A) (B) (C)
premiere Saturday evening.
(D)
9. By migrating to a warmer climate every fall, survival is assured for another year.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. Saddened by the actor’s sudden death, a memorial fund will be established so that family and
(A) (B) (C)
friends can make donations in his name to The American Cancer Society.
(D)
11. To prevent cavities, dental floss should be used daily after brushing one’s teeth.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12. While researching the problem of violent crime, the Senate committee’s discovery that handguns
(A)
were used to commit 54 percent of all murders in large cities.
(B) (C) (D)
13. Trying to pay for a purchase with cash, salespersons often ask for credit cards instead.
(A) (B) (C)
14. After reviewing the curriculum, several significant changes were made in traditional business
(A) (B) (C) (D)
programs at Harvard University.
15. Having hit more home runs than any other player in the history of baseball, Hank Aaron’s record
(A) (B) (C) (D)
is famous.
16. Banned in the U.S., the effect of fluorocarbons continues at a level that could eventually damage
(A) (B) (C)
the ozone layer, and bring about such serious results as high risk of skin cancer and global
(D)
climate changes.
17. To avoid jet lag, many doctors recommend that their patients begin adjusting one week before
(A) (B)
departure time by shifting one hour each day toward the new time schedule.
(C) (D)
18. After cooking in the microwave oven for five minutes, one should put most meat dishes on a
(A) (B) (C)
platter to cool.
(D)
144
19. Traditionally named for women, but recently Bob was chosen as the first make name for a
(A) (B) (C)
hurricane.
20. While testifying, their answers were recorded by the court stenographer.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21. By reading the instructions carefully, mistakes on the examination can be avoided.
(A) (B) (C)
22. Having been divorced, her credit could not be established in spite of her high income.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. Attempting to smuggle drugs into the country, custom officials apprehended them, and took them
(A) (B) (C)
to police headquarters for questioning.
(D)
24. While trying to build a tunnel through the Blue Ridge Mountains, coal was discovered at the
(A) (B) (C) (D)
construction site.
25. Founded in 1919, students and teachers who are interested in spending several months abroad
(A) (B)
may benefit from educational programs administered by the Institute for International Education.
(C) (D)
145
EXERCISE FIFTEEN:
PROBLEMS WITH PARALLEL STRUCTURE
PREVIEW: PARALLEL STRUCTURE
In some sentences in Part B, you will be asked to identify errors in parallel structure.
Parallel structure is the use of the same grammatical structures for related ideas of equal
importance. Related ideas of equal importance often occur in the form of a list. Sometimes related
ideas of equal importance are connected by conjunctions, such as and, but, and or.
1. The committee decided to cancel its law suit, to approve the contract, and that it would adjourn
(A) (B) (C) (D)
the meeting.
3. Rock music is not only popular in the United States but also abroad.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. Every day the watchman would lock the doors, turning on the spot lights, and walk around the
(A) (B) (C) (D)
building.
5. To control quality and making decisions about production are among the many responsibilities
(A) (B) (C) (D)
of an industrial engineer.
6. I suggest that the instructor react to the situation by changing the textbook instead of to modify
(A) (B) (C)
the objectives of the course.
(D)
7. Dr. Johnson, the first woman elected president of the University, was intelligent, capable, and
(A) (B)
awareness of the problems to be solved.
(C) (D)
8. The insurance program used to include not only employees but their families.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The six main parts of a business letter are the address, the inside address, the salutation, the
(A) (B) (C)
body, the closing, and signing your name.
(D)
10. We solved the problem by using a computer rather than to do it all by hand.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
146
Preview and Practice Exercises for the Structure and Written Expression Section of the TOEFL
11. To read literature and being introduced to a different culture are two excellent reasons for studying a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
foreign language.
12. The proposed increase in the utility rate was neither a fair request and not a practical one.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. Tom is the best candidate for the position because he understands the project, knows the University,
(A) (B)
and who works very hard.
(C) (D)
14. Ice skating and to go skiing are popular winter sports in the Northern United States.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15. The surgeon examined the patient quickly, and then the operation was begun.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. Because we were not sure where the house was, and because of the time, we decided to ask for
(A) (B) (C) (D)
directions.
17. To treat minor diarrhea, drink plenty of liquids, especially tea, water, and carbonated beverages, eat
(A) (B)
soup, yogurt, salty crackers, and bananas, and avoiding milk, butter, eggs, and meat for twenty-four
(C) (D)
hours.
18. The new electric typewriters are equipped not only with an element for foreign languages but also a key
(A) (B)
for correcting errors automatically.
(C) (D)
19. The examiner did not know whether to report the student for cheating or warning him first.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. Jim had spent his vacation traveling in Arizona visiting some of the Indian reservations, and had
(A) (B) (C) (D)
finished several paintings that he had begun last year.
21. The Smithsonian Institute is famous because is contains such interesting exhibits as the flag that was
(A)
raised over Fort McHenry in 1812, the airplane that the Wright brothers built for their first flight at Kitty
(B) (C)
hawk and there are the gowns worn by every first lady since Martha Washington.
(D)
146
11. To read literature and being introduced to a different culture are two excellent reasons for studying a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
foreign language.
12. The proposed increase in the utility rate was neither a fair request and not a practical one.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. Tom is the best candidate for the position because he understands the project, knows the University,
(A) (B)
and who works very hard.
(C) (D)
14. Ice skating and to go skiing are popular winter sports in the Northern United States.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15. The surgeon examined the patient quickly, and then the operation was begun.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. Because we were not sure where the house was, and because of the time, we decided to ask for
(A) (B) (C) (D)
directions.
17. To treat minor diarrhea, drink plenty of liquids, especially tea, water, and carbonated beverages, eat
(A) (B)
soup, yogurt, salty crackers, and bananas, and avoiding milk, butter, eggs, and meat for twenty-four
(C) (D)
hours.
18. The new electric typewriters are equipped not only with an element for foreign languages but also a key
(A) (B)
for correcting errors automatically.
(C) (D)
19. The examiner did not know whether to report the student for cheating or warning him first.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. Jim had spent his vacation traveling in Arizona visiting some of the Indian reservations, and had
(A) (B) (C) (D)
finished several paintings that he had begun last year.
21. The Smithsonian Institute is famous because is contains such interesting exhibits as the flag that was
(A)
raised over Fort McHenry in 1812, the airplane that the Wright brothers built for their first flight at Kitty
(B) (C)
hawk and there are the gowns worn by every first lady since Martha Washington.
(D)
22. Please send me the smallest, most recently published, and less expensive dictionary that you have
(A) (B) (C) (D)
available.
23. In order to become a law, a bill must be passed not only by the Senate but also the House of
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Representatives.
24. The cloverleaf is a common engineering design for expressways that permits traffic between two
(A) (B)
intersecting highways to move more safely, efficiently, and with ease.
(C) (D)
25. A new product should be judged not by the promises made in commercials and advertisements, but
(A) (B) (C)
also by the results demonstrated in actual use.
(D)
148
EXERCISE EIGHTEEN: PROBLEMS WITH STRUCTURE
PREVIEW: STRUCTURE
1. Of the two lectures, the first was by far the best, partly because the person who delivered it
(A) (B) (C)
had such a dynamic style.
(D)
2. That modern science knows to assist women who are unable to give birth to babies by normal
(A) (B) (C)
means is one of the miracles of the twentieth century.
(D)
3. After he had researched his paper and wrote it he found some additional data that he should
(A) (B) (C) (D)
have included.
4. Because of the light, the city seemed differently from the way that I had remembered it.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. The Federal Aviation Agency has grounded all DC-10 aircraft so they can be checked for
(A) (B) (C) (D)
possible problems in the design of the under-wing jet systems.
6. The colonel wanted to retreat, but the general insisted that he continue do everything
(A) (B) (C)
necessary in order to win the battle.
(D)
7. There are not many people which adapt to a new culture without feeling some disorientation at
(A) (B) (C) (D)
first.
8. Bob wishes that his wife understands why he has not had time to write her lately.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. Because of the accident, the judge forbade Joe and me from driving for six months.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. After he had ran the program thought the computer, he noticed that he had forgotten to do the
(A) (B) (C) (D)
last operation.
11. Most small appliances have ninety-days guarantees that entitle the purchaser to free repair or
(A) (B) (C)
replacement if the item breaks before the expiration date.
(D)
149
12. Although everyone in our group was pleased with his meal, Mrs. Brown insisted on complaining
(A) (B) (C)
that the coffee tasted badly.
(D)
13. Let you and I agree to cancel that last shipment unless the company meets the conditions of our
(A) (B) (C) (D)
original contract.
14. His recommendation that the Air Force investigates the UFO sightings was approved by the
(A) (B) (C)
commission and referred to the appropriate committee.
(D)
15. Although she seems to be very mature, Ann is much younger as the other girls in her class.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. Nuclear power plants are still supported by the Society of Professional Engineers in spite the
(A) (B) (C)
unfortunate accident at Three Mile Island.
(D)
17.Miss Smith returned home quite lately that night to find that someone had broken into her garage
(A) (B) (C)
and stolen her car.
(D)
18. If Mary would have been more careful in proofreading her dissertation, she would not have had to
(A) (B) (C)
get it typed again.
(D)
19. The more that she tried to remove the stain, the worst it looked.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20. The national television networks have been criticized for not showing much good movies during
(A) (B) (C) (D)
prime time.
21. This is the athlete whom everyone says will win the gold medal at the winter Olympic Games.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
22. If you would have checked your answer sheet more carefully, you would have corrected these
(A) (B) (C)
errors yourself.
(D)
23. It was her who suggested that he go to New York in order to get a direct flight.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
24. We veterans often fail taking advantage of the scholarship programs at the university level.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
25. It is necessary that the directors will sign all of the copies, not just the top one.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
150
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
CHAPTER 4 PART TWO: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Exercise One: Problems With Verbs (Part 1)
1. (D) That is used before the subject he and the verb word rest in the clause after the verb
insists.
2. (C) Neither is used before the auxiliary does followed by the subject she. She doesn’t either
3. (A) Hadn’t and the participle had are used after the verb wish in the main clause.
4. (D) Wouldn’t is used before the subject you and the verb like in an invitation.
5. (B) Do not is used before the verb word submit to express a negative command.
6. (C) Am is used before the verb phrase used to followed by the –ing for eating to express habit.
7. (A) Had is used before the person them followed by the verb word practice to express an
8. (B) The –ing form answering is used after the verb phrase not mind.
9. (C)Had better is used before the verb word reserve to express advice.
11. (A) Didn’t she is used to agree with you sister and used to visit in the main clause.
12. (C) Had is used before the participle come in the conditional clause.
13. (B) Would rather is used before the subject you and the past verb didn’t followed by the verb
14. (A) Must have is used before the participle left to express a logical conclusion.
15. (C) Had is used before the participle rung to refer to an activity already in the past.
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
Exercise Two: Problems With Verbs (Part 2)
1. (B) That is used before the subject he followed by would and the verb word call after the verb
phrase had hoped.
2. (A) Did is used before the subject I to agree with lived in the main clause. And I did too would
also be correct.
3. (B) Know how is used before the infinitive to take to express ability or skill. Does your new
secretary know shorthand would also be correct.
4. (B) Had is used before the person his big brother followed by the verb word tie to express an
activity caused by Tommy.
5. (C) Were is used after the verb wish in the main clause.
6. (A) The verb word begin is used in the clause after the verb recommends.
8. (A) Would [‘d] rather is used before not and the verb word have to express preference.
9. (C) Would you please is used before not followed be the verb word write to express a negative
command.
10. (D) Was is used before the verb phrase used to followed by the –ing form sitting to express a
habit.
12. (B) Hadn’t is used before the participle had in the conditional clause.
13. (A) Hasn’t he is used to agree with he’s [he has] in the main clause.
14. (D) The –ing form seeing is used after the verb phrase looking forward to.
15. (A) The verb word be is used in the clause after the impersonal expression it is imperative.
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
Exercise Three: Problems With Verbs (Part 3)
1. (D) Need is used before the –ing form adjusting to express necessity for repair. The brakes
need to be adjusted would also be correct.
2. (A) Could is used before the verb word go after the verb wish in the main clause.
3. (C) Knows how is used before the infinitive to use to express ability of skill. Miss Smith knows
the equipment would also be correct.
4. (D) Used to is used before the verb word go to express a habit in the past.
5. (C) Must have is used before the participle understood to express a logical conclusion.
6. (C) Wouldn’t is used before the subject you followed by rather and the verb word sit to express
preference.
7. (D) That is used before the subject he and the verb word stay in the clause after the verb
insisted.
8. (B) The participle written is used after had to refer to an activity in the past.
9. (B) Neither is used before the auxiliary would followed by the subject the other driver. The
other driver wouldn’t either would also be correct.
10. (B) Doesn’t is used in the clause of condition to agree with we’ll [we will] in the clause of result.
11. (D) Have is used before the thing your temperature followed by the participle taken to express
an activity caused by someone else.
12. (C) The infinitive to pass is used after the verb fails.
13. (C) That is used before the subject she followed by would and the verb word answer after the
verb phrase had hoped.
14. (C) The verb word starts is used after the verb phrase had better and the –ing form getting up
is used after the verb start.
15. (D) Is it is used to agree with the subject today’s weather and the verb is in the main clause.
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
Exercise Fourteen: Problems With Introductory Verbal Modifiers
1. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. After finishing Roots is misplaced because is does not precede the noun it modifies, author
Alex Haley.
2. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. A competitive sport is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies,
gymnastics.
3. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Carefully soaking should be (you) carefully soak to provide a noun for the introductory verbal
phrase to remove stains from permanent press clothing.
4. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Found in Tanzania by Mark Leakey is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it
modifies, the three-million-year-old fossils.
5. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. After fighting the blaze for three days is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it
modifies, the fire fighters.
6. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. After finishing their degrees is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modified,
the students.
7. (D) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Columbus’s final resting place should be Columbus because the man, not the place, is
modified by the verbal phrase Originally having been buried in Spain.
8. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. New York audiences received the new play should be the new play was received by New
York audiences because the play, not the audiences, is modified by the verbal phrase written by Neil
Simon.
9. (C) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Survival is assured should be animals assure survival because the animals, not the survival,
is modified by the verbal phrase by migrating to a warmer climate every fall.
10. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. A memorial fund will be established should be family and friends will establish a memorial
fund because the family and friends, not the memorial fund, are modified by the verbal phrase
saddened by the actor’s sudden death.
11. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Dental floss should e used should be (you) use dental floss to provide a noun for the
introductory verbal phrase to prevent cavities.
154
12. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. The Senate committee’s discovery should be The Senate committee discovered because the
committee, not the discovery, is modified by the verbal phrase while researching the program of violent
crime.
13. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Trying to pay for a purchase with cash is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it
modifies, customers.
14. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. After reviewing the curriculum is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies,
faculty.
15. (D) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Hank Aaron’s record should be Hank Aaron because the man, not the record, is modified by
the verbal phrase having hit more home runs than any other player in the history of baseball.
16. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Banned in the U.S. is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies,
fluorocarbons.
17. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. To avoid jet lag is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies, patients.
18. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. After cooking in the microwave oven for five minutes is misplaced because it does not
precede the noun it modifies, most meat dishes.
19. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Traditionally named for women is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies,
a hurricane.
20. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. While testifying is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies, witnesses.
21. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. By reading the instructions carefully is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it
modified.
22. (B) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Her credit should be the woman because she, not the credit, is modified by the phrase,
having been divorced.
23. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Attempting to smuggle drugs into the country is misplaced because it does not precede the
noun it modifies, criminals.
24. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. While trying to build a tunnel through the Blue Ridge Mountains is misplaced because it does
not precede the noun it modifies.
25. (A) An introductory verbal phrase followed by a comma should immediately precede the noun that it
modifies. Founded in 1919 is misplaced because it does not precede the noun it modifies, the Institute
for International Education.
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
1. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. That it would adjourn should be to
adjourn to provide parallelism with the infinitives to cancel and to approve.
2. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. It is should be deleted to provide
parallelism among the adjectives fast, safe, and convenient.
3. (B) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Not only popular should be popular not
only to provide parallelism between the adverbial phrases in the United States and abroad.
4. (B) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Tuning should be turn to provide
parallelism with the verb words lock and walk.
5. (A) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Making should be to make to provide
parallelism with
6. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. To modify should be to make to
provide parallelism with the phrase by changing.
7. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Awareness should be aware to provide
parallelism with the adjectives intelligent and capable.
8. (B) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures, and inclusives should be used in
coordinating pairs. But should be but also to coordinate with not only.
9. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Signing your name should be the
signature to provide parallelism with the nouns the address, the inside address, the salutation, the
body, and the closing.
10. (B) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. To do should be by doing to provide
parallelism with the phrase by using.
11. (A) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Being introduced should be to be
introduced to provide parallelism with the infinitive to read.
12. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. And not should be nor to coordinate
with neither.
13. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Who should be deleted to provide
parallelism among the verbs understands, knows, and works.
14. (A) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Ice skating should be to go ice skating
to provide parallelism with the infinitive to go skiing.
15. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. The operation was begun should be
began the operation to provide parallelism with the past, active verb examined.
156
16. (B) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Because of the time should be
because there was little time to provide parallelism with the clause because we were not sure.
17. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Avoiding should be avoid to provide
parallelism with the verb words drink and eat.
18. (B) Ideas after inclusives should be expressed by parallel structures. A key should be with a key to
provide parallelism with the phrase with an element.
19. (C) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Warning should be to warn to provide
parallelism with the infinitive to report.
20. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Had finished should be finishing to
provide parallelism with the –ing forms traveling and visiting.
21. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. There are should be deleted to provide
parallelism among the nouns the flag, the airplane, and the gowns.
22. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. Less should be least to provide
parallelism with the superlative adjectives the smallest and most recently published.
23. (D) Ideas after inclusives should be expressed by parallel structures. The House of Representatives
should be by the House of Representatives to provide parallelism with the phrase by the Sentate.
24. (D) Ideas in a series should be expressed by parallel structures. With ease should be easily to provide
parallelism with the adverbs safely and efficiently.
25. (C) Ideas after exclusives should be expressed by parallel structures and exclusives should be used in
coordinating pairs. But also should be but to coordinate with not.
Explanatory
Answers: Chapter 4
1. (B) The best should be the better because two, not three lectures, are being compared.
2. (A) Knows to assist should be knows how to assist because knows how is used before the
infinitive to assist.
3. (A) Wrote should be written because a participle, not a past form, is used with had.
4. (B) Differently should be different because an adjective, not an adverb, is used after the verb of
the senses the seem.
6. (C) Do should be doing because an –ing form, not a verb word, is used after the verb continue.
8. (A) Understands should be understood because a past form, not a present form, is used after
the verb wishes.
9. (B) From should be deleted because a preposition is not used after the verb forbid.
10. (A) Ran should be run because a participle, not a past form, is used with had.
11. (B) Ninety-days should be ninety-day because an adjective does not have a plural form.
12. (D) Badly should be bad because an adjective, not an adverb, is used after the verb of the
senses taste.
14. (A) Investigates should be investigate because the word recommendation requires a verb
word.
15. (C) As should be than because than is used after the comparative younger.
16. (C) In spite should be in spite of because in spite of introduces a condition with an unexpected
result. Despite would also be correct.
17. (A) Lately should be late because the adverb form of late does not have an –ly ending.
18. (A) Would have been should be had been because had and a participle are used in the
condition and would have and a participle are used in the result.
19. (C) The worst should be the worse because comparative forms are used with the in double
comparisons that express cause and result.
158
20. (C) Much should be many because many is used with the count noun movies.
21. (B) Whom should be who because it is the subject of the verb will win.
22. (A) Would have checked should be had checked because had and a participle are used in the
condition and would have and a participle are used in the result.
23. (A) Her should be she because a subject pronoun is used after it was
24. (B) Taking should be to take because an infinitive, not an –ing form, is used after the verb fail.
25. (A) Will sign should be sign because a verb word is used after the impersonal expression is it
necessary.
Lesson
Sentence Structure
Dangling Modifiers
5 QUESTIONS
160
Dangling Modifiers
Directions: Choose the one best answer to each question. Questions 1 through 6 refer to the
following paragraph.
(1) Comets are icy, celestial bodies that have one or two tails. (2) We can see comets without a
high-power telescope only when they orbit very near the sun. (3) The sun melts the ice,
creating a vapor trail of shining dust particles. (4) We watch their swift, brilliant journeys,
knowing the are very far away. (5) With dazzling tails behind them, we are astonished by their
beauty. (6) Looking up into the night sky, the unusual light show is awesome.
1. Sentence 2: We can see comets without a high-power telescope only when they orbit
very near the sun.
If you rewrote sentence 2 beginning with: Without a high-power telescope, the next words should be:
(1) We can see
(2) We can sea
(3) Comets orbits
(4) When they orbit
(5) Very near the sun
2. Sentence 4: We watch their swift, brilliant journeys, knowing they are very far away.
If you rewrote sentence 4 beginning with: Knowing they are very far away the next words should be:
(1) Comets are
(2) We can see
(3) We had watched
(4) Their swift, brilliant journies
(5) There swift, brilliant journies
3. Sentence 5: With dazzling tails behind them, we are astonished by their beauty.
Which is the best way to write the underlined portion of this sentence? If the original is the best way,
choose option (1).
(1) We are astonished by their beauty.
(2) We are astonished by comets by their beauty.
(3) We are astonishing by their beauty.
(4) Comets are astonished by their beauty.
(5) Comets astonish us by their beauty.
161
4. Sentence 6: Looking up into the night sky, the unusual light show is awesome.
Which is the best way to write the underlined portion of this sentence? If the original is the best way
choose option (1)
(1) Adventure, a windjammer
(2) Adventure; a windjammer
(3) Adventure, we found that a windjammer
(4) Adventure, exciting and fun
162
Lesson
Sentence Structure
Parallel Structure
Parallel structure means that equal and related words and phrases must use
the same grammatical form.
6 QUESTIONS
163
Parallel Structure
Directions: Choose the one best answer to each question. Questions 1 through 3 refer to the
following paragraph.
(1) The tall Afghan hound are an ancient dog breed. (2) the Afghan, which has a curling tail, is
long-eared, and has long legs. (3) The Afghan also has thick, long flowing hair. (4) Afghans
are aloof, are stubborn, and have a sweet disposition. (5) For such a large and stately dog
the Afghan is surprisingly affectionate. (6) Afghans like to hunt, to run, and being by
themselves outside.
1. Sentence 2: The Afghan, which has a curling tail, is long- eared, and has long legs.
If you rewrote sentence 2 beginning with; With a curling tail, long ears, and the next word should be:
2. Sentence 4: Afghans are aloof, are stubborn, and have a sweet disposition.
If you rewrote sentence 4 beginning with Afghans are aloof, stubborn, and the next word or words
should be:
Which is the best way to write the underlined portion of this sentence? If the original is the best way,
choose option (1).
(1) In October, the states of Vermont and Maine have spectacular colors, crisp weather, and
leaves that fall. (2) Although they are green in the spring, the leaves turn bright red, deep
brown, and yellow that shines in the fall. (3) The lake or ocean water is blue, clear, and it
sparkles. (4) For many years, tourists have travel long distances to see these sights. (5)
Maine and Vermont have become a favorite destination for hikers, bicyclists, and people
who take pictures. (6) Our visitors always enjoy the fresh country air and the beautiful
colors of the New England landscape.
4. Sentence 1: In October, the states of Vermont and Maine have spectacular colors,
crisp weather, and leaves that fall.
Which is the best way to write the underlined portion of this sentence? If the original is the best way
choose option (1)
7. Sentence 5: Maine and Vermont have become a favorite destination for hikers,
bicyclists, and people who take pictures.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. 3
5. 3
1. 5
2. 2
3. 2
4. 4
6. 4
7. 4
Quiz Answers
Lessons 5 and 6
1. 1
2. 2
3. 5
4. 3
5. 3
1. 5
2. 2
3. 2
4. 4
6. 4
7. 4
There are rules for forming the plurals of nouns. Here are the three most basic
rules:
1) The plural of most nouns is formed by adding s:
Car, cars; sale, sales; desk, desks
2) The plural of nouns ending with s, sh, ch, x, or z is formed by adding es:
Brush, brushes; box, boxes
3) The plural of nouns that end with y after a consonant is formed by
changing y to i and adding es:
Baby, babies; city, cities
Note: The plural of nouns that end with y after a vowel is formed by
adding s:
Day, days; attorney, attorneys
7) The plural of nouns ending with ful is formed by adding s to the end of the
word:
spoonful, spoonfuls
Directions: If there is an incorrect plural form in the group of nouns, circle it.
Then write the correct spelling on the line. If all of the plurals are
correct, write “OK” on the line.
8) For some nouns, the plural form is the same as the singular form:
one fish, two fish; one deer, two deer
9) Some nouns can be used only in the plural form:
Binoculars; scissors
10) The plural of some nouns is formed by changing the spelling:
Tooth, teeth; mouse, mice; child, children; person, people
11) The plural of nouns ending with man, woman, or child is formed by using the
plural forms men,
women, or children
12) The plural of some nouns ending in is is formed by changing is to es:
crisis, crises; basis, bases; hypothesis, hypotheses
13) The plural of some nouns ending in um or on is formed by changing the um or
on to a:
datum, data; memorandum, memoranda; criterion, criteria; phenomenon,
phenomena
DIRECTIONS: If there is an incorrect plural form in the group of nouns, circle it. Then write
the correct spelling on the line. If all of the plurals are correct, write “OK” on
the line
1. city 1.
2. church 2.
3. chairwoman 3.
4. crisis 4.
5. monkey 5.
6. brother-in-law 6.
7. baby 7.
8. tooth 8.
9. belief 9.
10. solo 10.
11. check 11.
12. potato 12.
13. wife 13.
14. story 14.
15. light 15.
16. replay 16.
17. spoonful 17.
18. fish 18.
19. bookshelf 19.
20. grandchild 20.
21. vacancy 21.
22. crash 22.
23. annex 23.
24. quiz 24.
25. criterion 25.
170
Some verbs, called irregular verbs, form the past tense differently:
To be certain of the correct past tense form of any irregular verb, you can
check the dictionary.
10. The crowd (been, was) at the race since early afternoon.
Besides the simple present, past, and future, there are other, more complicated, tenses
a verb can take.
Answer Key
Lesson
12
Usage
Subject-Verb Agreement
¾ When a singular and plural subject are joined by or or nor, the verb
agrees with the closest subject.
Neither the fax machine nor the copiers are working.
Neither the copiers nor the fax machine is working.
176
Circled only
Subject-Verb Agreement
Directions: Choose the one best answer to 3. Sentence 4: There have been some
each question. Questions 1 through 5 refer to common danger signs that you are
the following paragraph. about to fall asleep while driving.
(1) Neither drinking nor sleeping mixes Which is the best way to write the
with driving. (2) Some experts view being underlined portion of this sentence? If
sleepy behind the wheel like being intoxicated. the original is the best way, choose
(3) Driving at night or driving when option (1).
you’re tired increase the likelihood of an
accident. (4) There have been some common (1) There have been some common
danger signs that you are about to fall asleep danger signs
while driving. (5) Yawning, nodding, and seeing (2) Their have been some common
double are three signs of fatigue. (6) Drifting off danger signs
the road and then jerking the car back into the (3) There have been some common
lane also means you are in danger. danger signs,
(4) There are some common danger
1. Sentence 2: Some experts view being signs
sleepy being the wheel like being (5) There were some common
intoxicated. danger signs
(1) In 1755 a group of French settlers were Which correction should be made to sentence
expelled from their adopted homeland. (2) They 4?
settle earlier in what is now the Canadian province
of Nova Scotia. (3) They called the coastal area (1) insert a comma after However
where they lived Acadia. (2) change became to become
(4) However the settlers became victims of the (3) change became to will become
struggle between France and England for control of (4) insert a comma after France
North America. (5) They scattered throughout the (5) insert a comma after England
British colonies form Massachusetts to Louisiana.
(6) The group that settled in Louisiana came to be 9. Sentence 6: The Group that settled in
known as “Cajuns,” a word derived from Louisiana came to be known as “Cajuns,” a
“Acadians.” (7) Henry Wadsworth Longfellows word derived from “Acadians.”
famous narrative poem “Evangeline” is about the
French settlers transplanted to Louisiana. Which is the best way to write the underlined
portion of this sentence? If the original is the
6. Sentence 2: They settle earlier in what is best way, choose option (1).
now the Canadian province of Nova
Scotia. (1) settled in Louisiana came to be known as
“Cajuns,”
Which correction should be made to (2) will settle in Louisiana came to be knows
sentence 2? as “Cajuns,”
(3) settled in Louisiana come to be known as
(1) change settle to had settled “Cajuns,”
(2) change is to was (4) settled, in Louisiana, will come to be
(3) change is to will be known as “Cajuns,”
(4) insert a comma after province (5) settle in Louisiana came to be knows as
(5) no correction is necessary “Cajuns,”
7. Sentence 3: They called the coastal area 10. Sentence 7: Henry Wadsworth Longfellows
where they lives Acadia. famous narrative poem “Evangeline” is about
the French settlers transplanted to Louisiana.
If you rewrote sentence 3 beginning with
Acadia was the name they the next Which correction should be made to sentence
word(s) should be 7?
SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT
Exercise 19
DIRECTIONS: Block out box A if the sentence is correct. Block out box B if the sentence is incorrect
1. One of the students have my homework. 14. Everyone except the members of the laboratory squad
3. One-fourth of the crew was injured in that game. friends has solved the problem within the time limits
4. One-fourth of the members are ready to vote now. 16. There is only one set of rules that I ever follow.
a b a b
5. Any one of the four is a good as these. 17. Here are the set of records that he bought for me.
a b a b
6. A box of oranges were received at the depot early 18. Each of the boys who sell newspapers has to have an
a b a b
this morning. identification badge.
7. Neither you nor he is responsible for my errors. 19. Why don’t someone fix the switch for the electric
a b
trains? a b
8. Either of the men know the combination to the safe. 20. Why don’t he mind his own business!
a b a b
9. She is one of the girls who is to speak at the rally. 21. Edna accompanied by Margie and her friend has left
10. Every one of the solutions were rejected by the 22. No longer do his incessant cries for assistance bother
11. Either this group or several of those was the object of 23. Neither the time not the energy is his at this moment.
his search. a b a b
12. Pauline together with her four friends wish to see you 24. Each of the contestants have three minutes to work
13. The carton of old magazines were placed in the 25. Are there anyone of the players ready to join me in a
basement. a b
practice session? b
a
179
Answer Key
Answer Key
Exercise 19
1. b
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. a
6. b
7. a
8. b
9. b
10. b
11. b
12. b
13. b
14. b
15. b
16. a
17. b
18. a
19. b
20. b
21. a
22. a
23. a
24. b
25. b
G or I
1. refuse 46. recall
2. delay 47. hire
3. volunteer 48. appear
4. beg 49. practice
5. appreciate 50. remind
6. mind
7. can’t help
8. persuade
9. keep
10. miss
11. force
12. afford Gerund = verb + ing Ex: delay going
13. challenge V + ing
14. discuss
15. imagine Infinitive = to + verb Ex: decide to go
16. dare To + V
17. arrange
18. allow
19. pretend
20. resent
21. convince
22. tell
23. authorize
24. manage
25. teach
26. mention
27. postpone
28. mean
29. agree
30. cause
31. anticipate
32. struggle
33. warn
34. avoid
35. deny
36. dislike
37. resist
38. demand
39. risk
40. deserve
41. urge
42. suggest
43. quit
44. expect
45. recommend
182
Quiz Answers
G or I
1. I (refuse to go) 44. I
2. G (delay going) 45. G
3. I 46. G
4. I 47. I
5. G 48. I
6. G 49. G
7. G 50. I
8. I
9. G
10. G
11. I
12. I
13. I
14. G
15. G
16. I
17. I
18. I
19. I
20. G
21. I
22. I
23. I
24. I
25. I
26. G
27. G
28. I
29. I
30. I
31. G
32. I
33. I
34. G
35. G
36. G
37. G
38. I
39. G
40. I
41. I
42. G
43. G