1. Aggregate for concrete mixes are either fine or coarse aggregates.
Which sieve is used to separate
fine from coarse aggregates?
a. No.4 (4.75 mm)
b. No.6 (3.35 mm)
c. No.8 (2.36 mm)
d. None of the above
2. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of how
many days after it has been placed?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 14
d. 28
3. In slip-form construction, what is the slump of concrete used?
a. Not more than 3”
b. 3” to 4”
c. Almost zero
d. Any of the above
4. What will possible be the result in using different brands of cement in concrete paving?
a. Different strength
b. Different textur
c. Different color after it has hardened
d. No effect
5. In soils testing, SPT means
a. Soil Penetration Test
b. Standard Preparation Test
c. Sampling and Preparation Technique
d. Standard Penetration Test
6. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the materials delivered at the project site are
NAME
different from the ones tested and that passes the requirements. As the materials engineer, what
would you do
a. authorized the use of the materials
b. conduct immediate retesting of the materials for verification purposes
c. reject the materials
d. replace the materials
7. When the results of the second test differs from that of the first test of the sample representing the
same lot of materials, a third test is done. This is referred to as:
a. tertiary test
b. verdict test
c. referee test
d. final test
8. Specimens for compressive of flexural strength test shall be removed from the molds at the end of 24
hours and stored in a moist condition at a temperature range of ___ until the time of test.
a. 20⁰C to 25⁰C
b. 22⁰C to 26⁰C
c. 18⁰C to 26⁰C
d. 18⁰ to 24⁰C
9. Concrete curing refers to:
a. procedures done to repair damages in concrete surface
b. procedures done to promote cement hydration
c. procedures done to maximize concrete strength
d. procedures done to minimize concrete cracking
10. The required strength of a concrete beam sample is at least _____ when tested by the third point.
a. 550 psi
b. 650 psi
c. 450 psi
d. 750 psi
11. In testing, approximately, how many kilograms of steel bars of each size should be a one (1) meter
long specimen be represented?
a. 20,000 kgs
b. 15,000 kgs
c. 10,000 kgs
d. 8,000 kgs
12. The moisture density curve is different for each soil. Which of the following statements is/are true?
a. Clay soils have lower densities at OMC than granular, well-graded soils
b. Granular, well-graded soils have higher densities than uniform soils at OMC
c. Granular, well-graded soils generally have fairly high maximum densities at low optimum
moisture content (OMC)
d. None of the above
13. Testing of concrete samples may be done at an earlier age for purposes of:
a. payment of completed pavement
b. determining the trend of its development
c. designing the concrete mixture
d. all of the above
14. Geosynthesis may be used for:
a. reinforcement
b. erosion control
c. filtration and drainage
d. all of the above
15. Materials suitable for selected borrow shall have a plasticity index of not more than:
a. 12
b. 10
c. 8
d. 6
16. The aggregate component contributes internal friction to shear strength and stability of the
bituminous mixture. The desirable shape and surface texture of aggregate particles are:
a. round and smooth aggregate particles
b. angular and smooth aggregate particles
c. round and rough-textured particles
d. angular and rough-textured particles
17. When does the contractor/supplier submit to the Project/Materials Engineer the job-mix formula
bituminous mixes for his approval?
a. at least one week prior to the production of the mix
b. at least three weeks prior to the production of the mix
c. upon delivery of the mix
d. upon the request of the Project/Materials Engineer
18. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if their average strength is
equal to:
a. at least 85% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
;)
b. at least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
c. at least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
d. at least 75% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
19. Following are the results obtained from field density and laboratory compaction tests:
Weight of dry soil – 80 grams
Weight of water in the soil – 16 grams
Wet density of soil – 1.92 grams per cc
Maximum dry density obtained from laboratory compaction – 1.68 g/cc
Using the above data, the moisture content of the soil is:
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
20. The most important single factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
a. the quality of aggregate and cement
b. water-cement ratio
c. curing conditions
d. duration of mixing
21. What is the minimum test requirement for riprap boulders?
a. stone size and specific gravity
b. stone size or weight test and inspection report on assessment of stone soundness
c. stone size, weight test and abrasion test
d. none of the above
22. In pavement construction, what is the required density of the bituminous mixtures based on
laboratory density of the compacted specimens?
a. equal or greater than 65%
b. equal or greater than 75%
c. equal or greater than 85%
d. equal or greater than 95%
23. The following results were obtained from tests down on aggregate samples:
Liquid limits of fined = 25%
Plasticity Index = 5%
Mass percent of wear of coarse aggregates = 55%
CBR value = 30
a. Item 200
b. Item 105
c. Item 201
d. Item 202
24. The purpose of capping concrete cylinders with sulphur compound prior to testing for compression is
to:
a. protects the ends of the cylinder from premature breaking resulting from improper application of
load
b. provide smooth, flat ends that are perpendicular to the axis of the sample
c. prevent cylinder from tilting
d. to maintain the verticality of the cylinder
25. Using truck mixers, the time elapsed (in minutes) from the time water is added to the mix per batch
un til the concrete mix is deposited in place at the site shall not exceed:
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 45
26. What differentiates the composition of Item 201 – Aggregates Base Course from Item 200 – Aggregate
Subbase Course?
a. Item 201 contains less binder and smaller size of gravel than Item 200
b. Item 201 contains more binder and bigger size of gravel than Item 200
;)
c. Item 201 contains less binder and bigger size of gravel than Item 200
d. Item 201 contains more binder and smaller size of gravel than Item 200
27. A set of three (3) beam samples representing a particular section of the concrete pavement failed to
meet the flexural strength requirement. As materials engineer, what would you recommend?
a. monitor the pavement section with strength deficiency
b. adjust payment corresponding to the strength deficiency of the beam samples
c. conduct core tests for strength determination on section represented by the failed samples to
determine the actual strength of the in-placed concrete
d. submit new beam samples for testing
28. What is the specification range for asphalt content in a bituminous concrete mix for surface course
paving?
a. 4% to 10% of the total dry aggregates mass weight
b. 5% to 8% of the total dry aggregates mass weight
c. 3.5% to 7.5% of the total dry aggregates mass weight
d. 4% to 8% of the total dry aggregates mass weight
29. In concrete pavement construction, a concrete mix was not placed within 1 hour and 50minutes.
What should the materials engineer recommend?
a. add water and pour the mix
b. allow the mix to be poured after a certain test
c. reject the mix
d. allow the mix after adding cement and proper mixing
30. The DPWH Specifications provided____tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness.
a. +5mm
b. +5%
c. a + 10%
d. -5mm
31. The temperature of concrete during the mixing while in transport and/or during placing shall not be
permitted to rise above:
a. 25⁰C
b. 40⁰C
c. 36⁰C
d. 50⁰C
32. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered at the project site is 15 degrees centigrade
lower than the required compaction temperature require by the Job-mix formula. As materials engineer
of the project, what should you recommend?
a. allow the use of the delivered materials
b. advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c. reject the delivered material
d. adjust the Job-Mix Formula
33. The minimum CBR value for base course should be?
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 80%
34. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from the pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25mm?
a. at no less than 20 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
b. at no less than 15 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
c. at no less than 10 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
d. at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
;)
35. What penetration grade of asphaltic material is appropriate for stealing of PCCP joints?
a. 85-100
b. 120-150
c. 150-200
d. not exceeding 90
36. Which of the following is true regarding the rebound (Schmidt) hammer test for concrete? a. The
test is used to determine the uniformity of concrete
b. Can be used as a substitute to direct methods of compressive strength determination such as tests
on cored samples
c. is a simple and versatile test method which can be used on rough concrete surfaces
d. all of the above
37. The submission of any type in the lab. What should you accomplished and to be tested submitted
together with the samples?
a. Sample report
b. sample card
c. sample test
d. sample book
38. The weighted loss of fine aggregates subjected to 5 cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test should not
exceed____.
a. 12 mass %
b. 10 mass %
c. 6 mass %
d. 5 mass %
39. What is the weight of Class A riprap stone?
a. 20 kg to a max of 35 kg w/ at least 50% weighing 30 kg
b. 15 kg to a max of 25 kg w/ at least 50% weighing 20 kg
c. 15 kg to a max of 30 kg w/ at least 50% weighing 25 kg
d. 15 kg to a max of 25 kg w/ at least 30% weighing 20 kg
40. A test covers the quantitative determination of bitumen in hot mixtures and pavement samples for
specification acceptance, service evaluation, control and research
a. Extraction test
b. Spot test
c. hot mixed temperature test
d. compaction test
41. The gradation requirement use for hot Plant mix Bituminous Pavement
a. Grading A
b. Grading B
c. Grading C
d. Grading D
42. In making cylinder samples, how many layers a concrete to be placed and how many blows per layer?
a. 3 layers at 25 blows/layer
b. 3 layers at 20 blows/layer
c. 2 layers at 25 blows/layer
d. 2 layers at 20 blows/layer
43. How many layers are concrete to be placed in making beam sample and how many blows per layer?
a. 3 layers at 1 blow/2 sq.in
b. 3 layers at 15 blow/3 sq.in
c. 2 layers at 1 blow/sq.in
d. 2 layers at 1 blow/2 sq.in
44. What is the common method adopted by DPWH in the determination of density of soil in place?
a. Nuclear method
;)
b. Balloon type method
c. sand cone method
d. compaction method
45. What is the oven drying temperature for moisture content determination?
a. 160+/-5 degree C
b. 120+/-5 degree C
c. 110+/-5 degree C
d. 100+/-5 degree C
46. The interval of inserting vibrator that should be withdrawn vertically
a. 40 cm
b. 50 cm
c. 60 cm
d. none of the above
47. Criteria that can be applied for the rejected of asphalt mixture delivered at site
a. Gradation of aggregates
b. Temperature of mix
c. Asphalt content
d. Shape & texture of aggregate
48. What is the size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
a. Passing sieve No.30 retained No.200
b. Passing sieve No.20 retained No.200
c. Passing sieve No.10 retained No.200
d. none of the above
49. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the
optimum moisture content of AASHTO T180-D
a. spread to the required loose thickness & compact
b. add water, spread to the required thickness and compact
c. dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
d. spread to the required thickness
50. What class of concrete to be used for superstructures?
a. Class A, slump 2-4
b. Class B, slump 2-4
c. Class C, slump 2-4
d. Class P, slump 2-4
51. As Materials Engineer, what would you recommend in order to check the suitability and efficiency of the
equipment to be used prior to subbase construction for Item 310 Bituminous Concrete Surface Course?
a. Make trail section
b. Establish control strip
c. Make trail mixes
d. none of the above
52. Item No. for reinforcing Steel Bar
a. Item 402
b. Item 403
c. Item 404
d. Item 405
53. A crack concrete linking a transverse joint to the longitudinal joint?
a. block crack
b. edge crack
c. corner crack
d. temperature crack
;)
54. What is the compressive strength in psi of a sample with machine reading of 620 KN?
a. 5,000 psi
b. 5,100 psi
c. 5,500 psi
d. 6,000 psi
55. Concrete shall be dropped through approved conveyors if the distance is more than
a. 1.5 meter
b. 2.0 meter
c. 3.0 meter
d. none of the above
56. Minimum diameter of core sample for thickness determination
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 12 in.
57. A concrete sample of having a maximum height of less than___ of its diameter before applying or a height
less than its diameter after capping shall not be used.
a. 95%
b. 96%
c. 97%
d. 98%
58. Sawing of joints of PCCP shall commence as soon as the concrete hardens, usually
a. within 12 hrs
b. within 24 hrs
c. within 48 hrs
d. within 8 hrs
59. Straw curing on PCCP shall be at least ___ thick w/c is measured after wetting
a. 20 mm
b. 20 in.
c. 20 cm
d. 24 in.
60. Required boring in large buildings
a. one hole at each corner
b. every column and at the center
c. one hole at each corner and at the center
d. every column
61. Minimum compressive strength of Class B concrete
a. 2,000 psi
b. 2,400 psi
c. 2,500 psi
d. 3,000 psi
62. Maximum width of weakened plane joint
a. 4 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 8 mm
63. Quantity of concrete hollow blocks sent to the laboratory for strength determination
a. 3
;)
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
64. In sampling fresh concrete, the elapsed time between obtaining the first and final portion of the composite
samples shall be as short as possible, but in no instance shall exceed
a. 10 min
b. 15 min
c. 20 min
d. 30 min
65. Corrugation procedure by brooming the surface of the fresh concrete pavement
a. 1 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm
d. 2.5 mm
66. Required cement factor for 3,000 psi Class A concrete at 28 days
a. 11 bags
b. 10 bags
c. 9.1 bags
d. 9 bags
67. Bars installed perpendicular to the longitudinal joint
a. tie bars
b. dowels
c. plain reinforcing bars
d. #16 GI tie wire
68. Number of concrete cylinder samples for 165 cu.m of concrete
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
69. Tensile strength for Grade 40 reinforcing bars
a. 40,000 psi
b. 60,000 psi
c. 70,000 psi
d. 80,000 psi
70. Are finely divided residue that results from the combustion of ground or powdered coal
a. slag
b. Pozzolan
c. fly ash
d. micro silica
71. Defects at the longitudinal joints characterized by cracking, breaking, chipping or fraying of slab edge 0.30
m from the face of the joint.
a. Scaling
b. Spaling
c. striping
d. cracking
72. The property of concrete that indicates its stability to withstand bending
a. Tensile strength
b. Compressive strength
c. Flexural strength
;)
d. Yield strength
73. If the top of a concrete cylinder is rough, by how much is the compressive strength reduced?
a. ½
b. 1/3
c. ¼
d. 1/5
74. RSB having an elongation of 20 mm & failed in elongation test, as the Materials Engineer what will you do?
a. conduct second test of sample
b. reject the material
c. change the material to 16 mm
d. let it be
75. What will be the result of having a faster loading rate in compressive test?
a. no change on results
b. lesser result
c. zero result
d. higher result
76. Loss of ignition is for what?
a. amount of moisture in the cement
b. amount of sulfate in the cement
c. amount of pressure in the cement
d. amount of paste in the cement
77. Used to determine the percent of clay & silt on soil
a. hygrometer test
b. hydrometer test
c. compaction test
d. CBR test
78. What physical test is performed to measure the resistance to flow of asphalt?
a. solubility
b. viscosity
c. flexibility
d. ductility
79. The acceptance of pavement is based on what test?
a. through compressive test
b. through flexural strength test & core test
c. through core test and
d. through compressive test & core test
80. What is California Bearing Ratio?
a. to test the bearing capacity of the soil
b. to test the flexibility of the soil
c. to test the absorption of the soil
d. to test the moisture of the soil
81. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 17,500 cu.m. How many CBR test is
required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirements?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 12
;)
82. Stability of an asphalt pavement is its ability to resist shoving and rutting under traffic loads. In general,
higher stability of the mix can be attained by using:
a. more medium size and sand
b. angular and rough aggregates
c. more asphalt
d. b and c
83. The frequency of sampling and testing for compacting of subbase material is:
a. 1 per 1500 cu.m
b. 1 per 2500 cu.m
c. 1 per 500 cu.m
d. 1 per 750 cu.m
84. What do you call the bituminous mixture composed of aggregates and liquid asphalt which can be used
effectively during wet season?
a. hot mix
b. cold mix
c. slurry mix
d. bituminous macadam mix
85. If the average thickness in the pavement is deficient by more than 25%, the contractor is required to
a. deduct his contract payment by 50%
b. deduct his contract payment by 25%
c. remove & replace the pavement
d. none of the above
86. In the Immersion – compression stability test, the molded sample has a diameter of 4 in. of which the wet
molded asphalt sample is submerged in water
a. 4 days
b. 6 hours
c. 2 days
d. 4 hours
87. What is the purpose of grading steel bar?
a. to know its yield strength
b. to know its stress-strain limit
c. to know its price
d. none of the above
88. Abrasion loss of course aggregates is determined according to the specification of
a. AASHTO 69
b. AASHTO 96
c. AASHTO 196
d. AASHTO 169
89. Retempering concrete by adding water shall not be permitted except:
a. when concrete is not delivered in fresh mixes
b. provided the operation performed within 45 minutes
c. the water-cement ratio is exceeded
d. none of the above
90. The minimum time interval of concrete pouring to avoid cold joint
a. 15 min
b. 20 min
c. 30 min
d. none of the above
91. This determines the relative proportions of the ingredients of concrete
;)
a. water-cement ratio
b. job mix formula
c. concrete design mix
d. none of the above
92. The best way to determine the temperature of the delivered asphalt mix is with a dial and armored stem
thermometer. The stem should be inserted sufficiently into the mixture to a depth of at least:
a. 2 in.
b. 4 in.
c. 6 in.
d. 8 in.
93. What is the best temperature to begin rolling(compaction) of the bituminous mix?
a. maximum temperature at which the mix will support the roller without moving
b. maximum temperature at which the mix can be compacted without watering the roller
c. the minimum temperature at which densification can take place
d. the minimum temperature at which the mix can be compacted without cracking
94. What is used to measure pavement surface irregularity?
a. falling weight deflectometer
b. benkelmen beam apparatus
c. dynamic cone penetrometer
d. 3-meter straight edge
95. If there is a necessity of increasing the water content of concrete intended for structures for better
workability, which of the following should be undertaken?
a. mixture should be redesign
b. water and cement should be added
c. water, cement and sand should be added
d. water should be added
96. Asphaltic concrete binder course paving is in progress. The Project Inspector or the Foreman tells you
that the mix from the compute-controlled plant appears that aggregates are not fully coated with bitumen.
What would you do as Materials Engineer?
a. increase the programmed bitumen weight
b. decrease the programmed aggregate weight
c. decrease the programmed bitumen weight
d. check for defects in the plant
97. Excessive vibration of newly-placed fresh concrete may result in:
a. smooth surface finish
b. well dense graded mix
c. bleeding/laitance
d. quick settlement
98. The minimum moisture content at which soil can be rolled into a thread of 1/8” in a diameter without
breaking is known as____
a. liquid limit
b. plastic limit
c. shrinkage limit
d. atterberg limit
99. When the plasticity index of a soil is zero, it means that:
a. the soil is non plastic
b. plastic limit is equal to liquid limit\
c. plastic limit is greater than the liquid limit
d. the soil is too plastic
100. The highest the paste content of the concrete, the
;)
a. the stronger the concrete
b. the slower the curing process
c. the greater the shrinkage
d. the faster the curing process
GOODLUCK & GODBLESS
;)
