University College London: +1 1 M N NM
University College London: +1 1 M N NM
Starting with the cases where n 6= m, since P1 (x) is odd and P0 (x) and P2 (x)
are even, it follows immediately that
Z +1 Z +1
P0 (x)P1 (x) dx = P2 (x)P1 (x) dx = 0 . [1]
−1 −1
Furthermore,
Z +1 Z +1 +1
P2 (x)P0 (x) dx = 1
2
(3x2 − 1) dx = 1
2
x3 − x =0. [2]
−1 −1 −1
For n = m = 0, Z +1 Z +1
[P0 (x)] dx = 2
dx = 2 . [1]
−1 −1
For n = m = 1, Z +1 Z +1
[P1 (x)] dx = 2
x2 dx = 2
. [1]
3
−1 −1
For n = m = 2,
Z +1 Z +1 h i+1
2
[P2 (x)] dx = 1
4
(9x4 − 6x2 + 1) dx = 1
4
9 5
5
x − 2x3 + x = 2
5
. [1]
−1 −1 −1
1
Finally, imposing orthogonality with respect to P2 (x) means that
Z +1 Z +1
5 4 3 2
3
2
[x + bx + cx + dx ] dx + 1
2
[x3 + bx2 + cx + d] dx = 0 .
−1 −1
Now the second integral vanishes because of the orthogonality to P0 (x). Hence
3
5
b + 12 d = 0 . [1]
This result is incompatible with the previous relation obtained between b and
d. Hence b = d = 0. Students might get this result by claiming that P3 (x) is
an odd function. Though true, this was not given in the question and would
only receive a maximum credit of three marks.
Using the result for c, the Legendre polynomial reduces to
h i
P3 (x) = a x3 − 35 x . [1]
The easiest way of determining the value of a is from the condition that the
Legendre polynomials are normalised by Pn (x = 1) = 1. Therefore
h i
3
1=a 1− 5
= 25 a ,
and a = 52 . [3]
Alternatively, For n = m = 2,
Z +1 Z +1
2 2
[P3 (x)] dx = a x6 − 65 x4 + 9 2
25
x dx
−1 −1
h i+1
= a2 1 7
7
x − 6 5
25
x + 3 3
25
x = 8 2
175
a = 2
7
.
−1
in powers of t gives
2
Differentiating the generating function with respect to x gives
∞
∂g(x, t) t
L0n (x) tn .
X
=− g(x, t) = [1]
∂x 1−t n=0
Now ∞
exp (−xt/(1 − t)) X
g(x, t) = = Ln (x) tn
1−t n=0
∞
exp (−xu/(1 − u)) X [1]
g(x, u) = = Ln (x) un
1−u n=0
Z ∞ 1 Z ∞
t u
−x
I= e g(x, t) g(x, u) dx = exp −x 1 + + dx
0 (1 − t)(1 − u) 0 1−t 1−u
∞
" !#
1 Z ∞
1 − ut 1 [2]
un tn .
X
= exp −x dx = =
(1 − t)(1 − u) 0 (1 − t)(1 − u) 1 − ut n=0
On the left hand side the power of u is always equal to the power of t. Hence
only n = m is non-vanishing on the RHS so that the required integral is
proportional to δnm . [1]
Then, comparing powers of un tn on both sides, this shows that
Z ∞
e−x Ln (x) Ln (x) dx = 1 . [1]
0
This gives the normalisation integral for the Coulomb wave functions that is
of use in the 2B22 course.