08/06/2016 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

AMBITIOUS COURSE FOR NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
Test - 3
Topics covered in various subjects :
Physics : Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium
Botany : Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Cell: The Unit of Life: Brief account of organelles, Nucleus and
chromosomes
Zoology : Biomolecules-II: Lipids, Nucleic acid, Enzymes-types, properties, enzyme action, Digestion and
Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of Gases

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. A body is moving in a vertical circular path of radius 2. A position dependent force F = [2 + 2x] N acts on
R under critical condition as given in figure. Find the a small body of mass 2 kg to displace it from
magnitude of change in velocity between two points x = 0 to x = 4 m. Find the work done in joule
A and B
(1) 25 (2) 24
B
(3) 20 (4) 30

R A 3. An engine pumps up 200 kg of water through a

height of 20 m in 10 s. Given that the efficiency of
the engine is 60 %. Find the power of the engine
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 gR (2) 2 gR
(1) 66 kW (2) 0.66 kW

(3) gR (4) 5 gR (3) 6.6 kW (4) 0.066 kW

(1)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
4. A ball of mass 1 kg and another of mass 2 kg are 10. A ball of mass m is dropped from a height h. Ball is
released from a 20 m tall building. After a fall of embedded in sand upto depth x and stops. If x is
10 m each towards the earth, find the ratio of their less than h, then average retarding force by sand is
respective kinetic energies
mgh mg (h  x )
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (1) (2)
x x
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
mgx mg (h  x )
5. The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 100%. (3) (4)
h h
The momentum of the body would increase by

(1) 51% (2) 41% 11. If two balls each of mass 2 kg moving in opposite
directions with speed 4 m/s collide elastically then,
(3) 31% (4) 200% find the impulse imparted to each ball due to other
6. A car is moving on a straight horizontal road with a (1) 15 Ns (2) 12 Ns
speed 10 m/s. If the coefficient of friction between
the tyres and the road is 0.1, then find the shortest (3) 10 Ns (4) 16 Ns
distance in which the car can be stopped 12. The slope of the kinetic energy versus position
(1) 100 m (2) 200 m vectors gives the rate of change of

(1) Velocity (2) Work

(3) 50 m (4) 125 m
(3) Force (4) Momentum
7. The potential energy of a spring when stretched
through a distance 1 cm is 20 joule. Find the 13. A small bucket full of water is revolved in vertical
amount of work to stretch it through additional circle of radius 0.4 m. What should be the minimum
distance 1 cm angular velocity so that water does not fall off the
bucket?
(1) 40 J (2) 30 J
(1) 1.5 rad/s (2) 5 rad/s
(3) 80 J (4) 60 J

8. A particle of mass m is moving towards the spring (3) 3.5 rad/s (4) 4 rad/s
of force constant k. If the maximum compression of 14. In a water fall, water is falling at the rate of
the spring is x, find maximum momentum of particle 6000 kg per minute on the blades of turbine. If the
height of fall is 50 m, then the power delivered to the
turbine is

(1) 25,000 watt (2) 20,000 watt

m
(3) 50,000 watt (4) 10,000 watt

15. Two bodies having kinetic energies in the ratio of

(1) m kx (2) 2m kx
9 : 4 are moving with equal linear momentum. The
ratio of their mass is
(3) x mk (4) x 2mk
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 2 : 3
9. A ball of mass m1 collides elastically and head-on
with another ball of mass m2 initially at rest. In (3) 3 : 2 (4) 9 : 4
which of the following cases the transfer of kinetic 16. A body of mass 2 kg is under a force which gives
energy to second ball is maximum?
t2
(1) m1 >> m2 a displacement in it given by S  (in m). Find the
2
(2) m1 << m2 work done by the force in first 2 second.

(3) m1 = m2 (1) 4 J (2) 2 J

(4) Data is not sufficient (3) 10 J (4) 6 J

(2)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)

17. A time-dependent force, given as F = 3t2

acts on a O mA
small body of mass 1 kg and displaces it. Find the
work-done in time t = 0 to t = 2s, if initially body is 60º
at rest.
mB
(1) 16 J (2) 32 J

(3) 40 J (4) 42 J (1) mg (2) 3 mg 

18. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight

mg  3
line under the action of 10 N force. If the work-done (3) (4) mg 
2 2
is –50 J, find the angle between the force and
direction of motion of body. 23. A ball of mass m elastically collides against a wall
with velocity v and returns in the opposite direction
  with same speed. Find the change in magnitude of
(1) (2)
3 6 momentum.

(1) 2mv (2) mv

2 
(3) (4)
3 2
mv
(3) (4) Zero
19. A stationary particle explodes into two pieces of 2
masses 3 kg and 4 kg which move in opposite
24. A moving bullet gets embedded in a solid block
directions with different velocity. Find the ratio of their resting on a frictionless surface. In this process
kinetic energies.
(1) Momentum is conserved
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 9 : 16
(2) Kinetic energy is conserved
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 4 : 3
(3) Potential energy is conserved
20. A particle of mass m kg is thrown vertically upwards
with a speed u m/s. Find the work done by the force (4) Both (1) & (2)
of gravity during the time if the particle goes up. 25. A particle of mass 10 gram moving with velocity
18 m/s collides with a stationary particle of mass 20
1 gram and combines. Find speed of system just after
(2)  mu
2
(1) mu2
2 collision.

(1) 3 m/s (2) 6 m/s

1
(3) mu 2 (4) Zero
2 (3) 8 m/s (4) 10 m/s

21. If the potential energy of a body is given as 26. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend on
U = ax2 – bx. Find the potential energy at equilibrium. (1) The mass of the body

(2) The angular velocity of the body

b b2
(1) (2) 
4a 2 2a (3) The axis of rotation of the body

(4) The distribution of the mass in the body

b2 b2
(3) (4)  27. The diameter of flywheel increases by 1%, what will
4a 2 4a
be percentage increase in moment of inertia about
22. A simple pendulum is released from A as given axis of symmetry?
in figure. If m and  are the mass of bob and length
(1) 2% (2) 4%
of pendulum respectively, find the kinetic energy
at B. (3) 1% (4) 0.5%

(3)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
28. Three thin rods of length L and mass m are placed 32. In a rectangle ABCD, AB = 2l and BC = l. Axis xx
along x, y and z axis in such a way that one end of and yy pass through the centre of the rectangle. The
each rod is at origin. The moment of inertia of the moment of inertia is least about
system about x-axis is
y
y
A B

L x x

x
L
L D C
y
z
(1) DB (2) BC
2mL2 4mL2
(1) (2)
3 3 (3) xx-axis (4) yy-axis

33. A wire of length l and mass m is bent in the form of

5mL2 mL2
(3) (4) AB
3 3 a rectangle ABCD with  2 . The moment of
BC
29. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron inertia of this wire about the side BC is
plate of thickness t and another circular disc B of
t 11
radius 4r and thickness . The relation between (1) ml 2
4 252
moments of inertia IA and IB is

(1) IA > IB 8
(2) ml 2
(2) IA = IB 203

(3) IA < IB
5
(3) ml 2
(4) Depend on the actual value of m and r 136
30. A body of mass m and radius R is rolling
horizontally without slipping with speed v. It then 7
(4) ml 2
162
5v 2
rolls up a hill to a maximum height h. If h  ,
6g 34. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed
what is the moment of inertia of the body? axis, its angular momentum is directed along

(1) The radius

1 2
(1) mR 2 (2) mR 2
2 3 (2) The tangent to the orbit

(3) The line at an angle of 5° to the plane of rotation

3 2
(3) mR 2 (4) mR 2 (4) The axis of rotation
4 5
35. When a torque acting upon a system is zero, which
31. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density 
and radius R about its diameter is of the following will be constant?

(1) Force
105 5 105 2
(1) R  (2) R 
176 176 (2) Linear momentum

(3) Angular momentum

176 5 176 2
(3) R  (4) R 
105 105 (4) Linear impulse

(4)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
36. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a vertical 40. A wheel has radius 10 cm and it is coupled by a
plane about a fixed horizontal axis through B. The belt to another wheel of radius 30 cm. The smaller
rod begins rotating from rest from its unstable wheel increases its speed from rest at a uniform rate
equilibrium position. When it has turned through an
of  rad/s2. After how much time will the speed of
angle as shown in the figure, its angular velocity
larger wheel become 100 rpm?
 is
(1) 2 s (2) 5 s
A
(3) 10 s (4) 20 s

L 41. A raw egg and a hard boiled are made to spin on a


table with the same angular speed about the same
axis. The ratio of the time taken by the two to stop
B is

6g 6g  (1) Equal to one (2) Less than one

(1) sin  (2) sin
L L 2 (3) More than one (4) Equal to two

42. A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc.

6g  6g
(3) cos (4) cos  Angular velocity () of disc varies with number of
L 2 L
rotations (n) made by the disc as

1 (1)  n1/3 (2)  n3/2

37. If the earth were to suddenly contract to th of its
n (3)  n2/3 (4)  n2
present radius without any change in its mass, the
duration (in hrs) of the new day will be nearly 43. A solid sphere of radius R is rolling with velocity v
on a smooth plane. The total kinetic energy of the
24 sphere is
(1) (2) 24n
n
7 3
(1) mv 2 (2) mv 2
24 10 4
(3) (4) 24n2
n2
1 1
38. If the earth suddenly stops revolving and all its (3) mv 2 (4) mv 2
2 4
rotational KE is used up in raising its temperature
and if s is taken to be the specific (in calory) heat 44. The position vector of a particle is given by
of the earth’s material, the rise of temperature of the 
r  i  2 ˆj  kˆ and its linear momentum is given by
earth will be (R = radius of the earth,  = its

angular velocity) p  3iˆ  4 ˆj  2k . Then its angular momentum, about
the origin is perpendicular to
R 2 2 R 2 2
(1) (2)
5Js 5J (1) yz-plane (2) z-axis

(3) y-axis (4) x-axis

R 2 R 2 2
(3) (4) 45. A particle moves through angular displacement on
5Js 5s
a circular path of radius r. The linear displacement

39. If vector F be a force acting on a particle having the will be
 
position vector r and  be the torque of this force
⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞
about the origin, then (1) 2r sin ⎜ ⎟ (2) 2r cos ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
⎝ 2⎠ 2
   
(1) r .  0 and F .  0 (2) r .  0 and F .  0
 ⎛ ⎞
    (3) 2r tan ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟ (4) 2r cot ⎜ ⎟
(3) r .  0 and F .  0 (4) r .  0 and F .  0 ⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠

(5)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016

CHEMISTRY
46. N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2(g) + x kJ 53. Which of the following is true for a process taking
place at constant temperature and pressure?
2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g) + y kJ

The enthalpy of formation of NO is (1) H = 0 (2) H = TS

(1) x – y (2) 2x – 2y (3) H = E + S (4) S = 0

54. The species which is a Bronsted acid but cannot

1 1
(3) (y  x) (4) (x  y) act as a Bronsted base is
2 2
(1) H2O (2) H2S
47. The internal energy of one mole of an ideal gas is
(3) NH3 (4) HCO3–
1 3 55. Which of the following salt does not undergo
(1) kT (2) RT
2 2 hydrolysis in water?

3 1 (1) (NH4)2SO4
(3) kT (4) RT
2 2 (2) Na2SO4

48. A system has internal energy equal to E1. If 450 J (3) Al2(SO4)3
of heat is taken out of it and 600 J of work is done
(4) All salts will get hydrolysed
on it, then the final energy of the system will be
56. Ka of four monobasic acids HA, HB, HC and HD is
(1) (E1 + 1050) (2) (E1 + 150)
6  10 –4 , 5  10 –5 , 3.6  10 –6 and 7  10 –10
(3) (E1 – 150) (4) (E1 – 1050) respectively. The pH of their 0.1 M aqueous solutions
49. The standard entropy of N2(g), H2(g) and NH3(g) is is
191.5, 130.5 and 192.6 J K–1 mol–1 respectively. The (1) HD > HC > HB > HA
standard entropy change (S°) for the formation of
NH3 will be (2) HA > HB > HC > HD

(1) 129.4 J K–1 mol–1 (2) –29.4 J K–1 mol–1 (3) HB > HC > HA > HD

(3) –98.9 J K–1 mol–1 (4) Zero (4) All have same pH

50. One mole of ice is converted into water at 273 K. The 57. The amount of NaOH (in gram) which is needed to
entropy of H 2 O(s) and H 2 O(l) is 38.2 and be present in a one litre solution so that its pH
60 J mol–1 K–1 respectively. The enthalpy change for becomes 12 is
the given conversion is
(1) 0.4 g L–1 (2) 0.2 g L–1
(1) 320.6 J mol–1 (2) 5954 J mol–1
(3) 1.2 g L–1 (4) 0.1 g L–1
(3) 59.54 J mol–1 (4) Cannot be calculated
58. If a neutral solution has pKw value of 13 at 60°C
51. In an adiabatic expansion of ideal gas then pH of the solution is
(1) W = E + PV (2) W = –ve
(1) > 7 (2) < 7
(3) W = 0 (4) E = 0
(3) 7 (4) Any one of these
52. Heat of combustion (H) for C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g)
59. A solution having pH 6 is mixed with an equal
is –94, –68 and –213 kcal mol–1. H for
volume of solution having pH 3. The pH of the
C(s) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g) is resultant solution will be
(1) –111 kcal (2) –85 kcal (1) 4.3 (2) 5.3
(3) –17 kcal (4) –170 kcal (3) 3.3 (4) 4.5

(6)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
60. If Hf° of ICl(g), Cl(g) and I(g) is 17.57, 121.34 and 67. When PCl5 is heated, it dissociates into PCl3 and
106.9 J mol–1 respectively then bond dissociation Cl2. The vapour density of the gas mixture at a given
energy of I – Cl bond is temperature is 70. The degree of dissociation at this
temperature is
(1) 106.69 J mol–1 (2) 210.7 J mol–1
(1) 0.85 (2) 0.38
(3) 420.9 J mol–1 (4) 35.15 J mol–1
(3) 0.49 (4) 0.60
61. For the reaction Br2(l) + Cl2(g)  2BrCl. At 300 K
68. Ksp of chalk is 9  10–8. Its solubility in g/L is
the value of H is 7 kcal and S is 25 cal K–1. The
free energy change for the given reaction is (1) 0.3 (2) 0.01

(1) –50 cal (2) –730 kcal (3) 0.24 (4) 0.03

(3) –410 cal (4) –500 cal 69. 0.1M NH4OH solution has Kb equal to 1.6 × 10–6,
the [OH–] would be
62. 142.5 kJ of heat is required to decompose 9 gm of
water. Enthalpy of formation of water is (1) 4  10–4 M (2) 4 × 10–2 M

(1) + 390 kJ (2) –285 kJ (3) 4  10–6 M (4) 4  10–8 M

(3) –390 kJ (4) Cannot be calculated 70. For the given equilibrium

63. The work done by a gas if it expands from 100 ml 


 2SO3(g); H = – 42 kcal
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
to 250 ml under a constant pressure of 2
atmosphere will be Which of the following conditions are unfavourable for
(1) 35.29 joule (2) 30.38 joule then formation of SO3?

(3) 8 kJ (4) All of these (1) High pressure

(2) High temperature
1
64. H2 (g)  O2 (g)  H2O(g); H  x joule (3) Low concentration of SO2
2
(4) Both (2) & (3)
1
H2 (g)  O2 (g)  H2O(l); H  y joule
2 

71. If N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 has equilibrium constant K

The relation between ‘x’ and ‘y’ is 


and 2N2 + 6H2 
 4NH3 has equilibrium constant
(1) x > y (2) x = y K, then K is equal to
(3) x < y (4) x + y = 0
1
65. If an endothermic reaction takes place (1) (2) K2
K
spontaneously, then which of the following will be
always true?
1
(1) S < 0 (2) S > 0
(3) K (4)
K2
(3) G < 0 (4) Both (2) & (3) 72. The compounds A and B are mixed in equimolar

 proportion to form the products as
66. For the reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) 
 CO2(g) +
H 2 (g) given at a particular temperature, the 

A  B 
C D
equilibrium amount of CO2(g) can be increased by
1
(1) Adding an inert gas At equilibrium, if of A and B are consumed, the
3
(2) Increasing the amount of CO(g) equilibrium constant of the reaction is
(3) Adding a suitable catalyst (1) 0.75 (2) 1
(4) Decreasing the volume of container (3) 0.25 (4) 0.5

(7)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
73. Which of the following is the strongest acid? 80. For the equilibrium
(1) H2S (2) H2O 

 2B(s)  3D(g)
3A(s) 
(3) NH3 (4) CH4
The relation between Kp & Kc is
74. Which of the following solution has highest pH?
(1) Kp = Kc(RT)2 (2) Kp = Kc(RT)5
M M
(1) NaOH solution (2) NaOH solution (3) Kc = Kp(RT)–3 (4) Kc = Kp(RT)–2
10 20
81. For the equilibrium
M M
(3) NaOH solution (4) HCl solution 

Ester(l) + H2O(l) 
 Carboxylic acid(l)+Alcohol(l)
100 100

75. If S is the solubility (in mol L–1) of PbCl2 and Ksp is If water reacts completely in the reaction, then which
its solubility product. Then of the following relation is correct?

1/3
⎛ K sp ⎞ Carboxylic acid Alcohol
(2) S  ⎜ (1) K c 
(1) Ksp = S2
⎝ 4 ⎠
⎟ Ester 

(3) Ksp = 2S4 (4) S = Ksp

Carboxylic acid Alcohol
(2) K c 
76. Which of the following is a Lewis acid? Ester H2O
(1) H3O+ (2) NH4+
Pcarboxylic acid × Palcohol
(3) [Al(H2O)6]3+ (4) Ag+
(3) K p 
Pester H2O
77. Which of the following salts in water form alkaline
solution?
Pcarboxylic acid × Palcohol
(1) FeCl3 (2) CsCl (4) K p  Pester  PH2O
(3) NaCN (4) HCOONH4
78. For the equilibrium : 82. If the net reaction is taking place in forward direction
in a reversible reaction, then which of the following


 NH3 (g)  H2S(g)
NH4HS(s)  is true?
(1) Qc > Kc (2) Qc < Kc
The value of Kp is 0.16. The total equilibrium pressure
of the mixture is
1
(1) 0.4 atm (2) 0.8 atm (3) Qc = Kc (4) Qc  K
c

(3) 0.2 atm (4) 0.1 atm

83. The value of equilibrium constant, Kc < 1 for a
79. Consider the following gaseous equilibria : reaction. The value of G° would be
K

A  C 
1

B (1) Positive (2) Negative

 K
 (3) Zero (4) –2.303 RT
B  C 
2
D  E
K3 84. If heat is supplied to the system for a reversible

A  2C  
D  E exothermic reaction, then the value of equilibrium
The relation between the equilibrium constants constant
K1, K2 and K3 is
(1) Increases
(1) K 2  K1  K 3 (2) K3 = K1 × K2 (2) Decreases

K2 (3) Remains same

(3) K1 × K2 × K3 = 1 (4) K1  K
3 (4) May increase or decrease

(8)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
85. The equilibrium constant of a gaseous reaction is 50. 88. Choose the incorrect statement :
If the pressure of the system is reduced to half
(1) Change in temperature changes the equilibrium
(keeping temperature constant), the new equilibrium
constant
constant will be

(2) Solid  liquid, equilibrium can be achieved
(1) 25 (2) 100
only at melting point of the solid
(3) 50 (4) 75
(3) A catalyst does not change the value of
86. When a gas is dissolved in water at the given equilibrium constant
pressure, then which of the following is always true?
(4) For the reaction, 2NO2(g) 
 N2O4(g), the
(1) H = – ve for forward reaction value of equilibrium constant increases with
(2) H = + ve for backward reaction increase in concentration of N2O4

(3) S = – ve for forward reaction 89. When dilution approaches infinity, the degree of
dissociation of a weak electrolyte approaches
(4) All of these
(1) Infinity
87. If helium is added to the equilibrium
(2) Unity


2NH3(g) 
 N2(g) + 3H2(g) (3) Zero

at constant temperature and pressure, then the (4) Degree of dissociation does not change with
degree of dissociation of ammonia dilution

(1) Increases 90. Which of the following is amphiprotic?

(2) Decreases (1) SO42– (2) C2H5OH

(3) Remains constant (3) H2S (4) H3O+

(4) First increases and then decreases

BOTANY

91. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. wood 93. Select the incorrect match

(1) Spring wood has large number of xylary (1) Trichomes – Usually multicellular
elements (2) Casparian strips – Suberized structure

(2) Late wood has broad vessels (3) Bulliform cells – Small and coloured cells
(4) Phloem fibres – Bast fibres
(3) Autumn wood is darker and has higher density
94. Match the following (Column I with Column II)
(4) Early wood is formed due to high activity of
Column I Column II
cambium
(Scientists) (Discovery)
92. Internal structure of monocotyledous root is
a. Robert Brown (i) Cell membrane
characterized by presence of
b. Palade (ii) Cell theory
(1) Large number of scattered and open vascular
c. Schleiden and (iii) Nucleus
bundles Schwann
(2) Phloem parenchyma and conjoint vascular d. Singer and Nicolson (iv) Nucleolus
bundles
(v) Ribosomes
(3) Endarch xylem and radial vascular bundles (1) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Large and well developed pith (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(9)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
95. _________ are membrane bound vesicular structures 100. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
formed by the process of packaging in the golgi
(A) Gymnosperms lack _______ in their xylem.
apparatus.
(1) Glyoxysomes (2) Lysosomes (B) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
_______ .
(3) Centrosomes (4) Ribosomes
(C) In roots, the primary xylem is _______.
96. Mitochondrial matrix possesses all, except
(1) Circular DNA (1) A – Tracheids B – Dicots C – Endarch

(2) Many RNA molecules and chlorophylls (2) A – Vessel B – Monocots C – Exarch

(3) Ribosomes(70S) (3) A – Tracheids B – Monocots C – Endarch

(4) Components required for the protein synthesis (4) A – Vessels B – Dicots C – Exarch
97. How many of the given statements are correct w.r.t 101. Guard cells
meristmatic tissues?
a. Enclose stomatal pore
A. The meristems which occur at the tips of roots
and shoots are primary meristems. b. Are dumb-bell shaped in dicots
B. Some cells ‘left behind’ from the shoot apical c. Possess chloroplast and RuBisCo
meristem constitutes the accessory bud.
d. Regulates opening and closing of stomata.
C. Cork cambium is responsible for producing
secondary tissues. (1) a & b are correct (2) a & d are incorrect
D. The process of formation of structurally and (3) b & c are incorrect (4) c & d are correct
functionally specialised cells is known as
dedifferentiation. 102. The region of ground tissue system present just
below epidermis can be
E. The intercalary meristem occurs in grasses and
regenerates parts removed by grazing herbivore. (1) Parenchymatous
F. Interfascicular cambium and fascicular vascular (2) Collenchymatous
cambium are absent in woody plant axis.
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(1) Two (2) Three
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Four (4) Five
98. Find out incorrect combination w.r.t simple 103. Given below is a complex tissue. Identify the
permanent tissue correctly matched pair w.r.t. the diagram given.

Tissue Feature Cell wall Function

A
(1) The tissue that Cellulosic Storage
forms main B
component within
organs C
(2) Found below the Cellulose, Mechanical
epidermis in pectin and support
dicotyledonous hemicellulose D
plants

(3) Thick walled, Lignified cell Mechanical

dead elongated wall support
and pointed cells (1) A – Perforations on end walls.
(4) Spherical, oval or Thick cellulosic Flexibility
cylindrical dead cell wall (2) B – Tapering cylindrical cells with dense
cells cytoplasm and nucleus.

99. All are the tissue systems of plant, based on their (3) C – Stores food material and contains thick
structure and location, except cellulosic and lignified cell wall.
(1) Epidermal (2) Fundamental (4) D – Helps in radial conduction of water and
(3) Secretory (4) Vascular minerals.

(10)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
104. The type of vascular bundle in which xylem and 109. Find the correct match w.r.t. annual rings.
phloem are situated at same radius, is present in
Feature Spring wood Autumn wood
(i) Root
(1) Cambium More active Less active
(ii) Stem (2) Colour Dark Light
(iii) Leaf (3) Xylary Large in number Small in number
elements with narrow with wide cavities
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii) cavities
(4) Density High Low
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) Only (i)
110. The peripheral region of secondary xylem is ____ in
105. Mark the odd one w.r.t. T.S. of a plant’s part.
colour and is known as _______.
(1) Lighter, heartwood (2) Darker, duramen
(3) Lighter, sapwood (4) Darker, alburnum
111. Find the odd one w.r.t redifferentiated structures.
(1) Cork (2) Phellogen
(3) Duramen (4) Phelloderm

(1) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring 112. The non-technical term that refers to all tissues
exterior to vascular cambium
(2) Epidermis is covered by a thin layer of cuticle
(1) Is known as lenticels
(3) The cells of the endodermis have a deposition of
water-impermeable, waxy material (2) Includes only dead cells

(4) Pericycle contains both sclerenchyma and (3) Is constituted by periderm and phloem
parenchyma (4) Formed during primary growth of plant organs
106. Bulliform cells 113. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) w.r.t
(1) Are large, empty and colourful secondary growth in root and choose the correct
option.
(2) Present in all isobilateral and few dorsiventral
I. Vascular cambium is partially secondary in
leaves
origin.
(3) When flaccid they curl outward due to water
II. Vascular cambium is formed as continuous and
excess
complete but wavy ring.
(4) Present on adaxial epidermis of leaves
III. Cork cambium arises from cortical cells.
107. Water containing cavities and cambium are present
I II III
within the vascular bundles of (respectively)
(1) T F F
(1) Dicot root, Monocot root
(2) F T T
(2) Monocot root, Dicot stem
(3) T T F
(3) Dicot stem, Monocot root
(4) F T F
(4) Monocot stem, Dicot stem
114. Parenchymatous structure with intercellular spaces
108. In young dicot stem, vascular cambium are
(1) Is absent (1) Cortex and pith
(2) Present as multiple layer (2) Epidermis and pericycle
(3) Present in patches (3) Endodermis and cortex
(4) Completely secondary in origin (4) Hypodermis and epidermis

(11)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
115. Read the following statements carefully : 120. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. golgi
apparatus?
(A) Present below epidermis in dicot stem.
(1) Fixed number of cisternae
(B) Cells are much thickened at the corners due to
deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin. (2) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
near the nucleus
(C) Provide mechanical support to the growing parts.
(3) The cis and the trans faces of the organelle are
These all are the features of entirely different
(1) Collenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Parenchyma (4) Sclereids 121. Select the answer which correctly matches the
116. Trichomes of shoot system can be all, except organelle and its function

(1) Secretory Organelle Function

(2) Branched (1) Contractile vacuole Phagocytosis
(3) Usually unicellular (2) Golgi apparatus Synthesis of steroidal
hormones
(4) Soft or stiff
(3) RER Protein synthesis
117. Conjunctive tissue and starch sheath are present (4) SER Synthesis of lysosomal
respectively in enzymes
(1) Dicot leaf, dicot root
122. Which of the following is not a character of Gram
(2) Monocot stem, moncot leaf positive bacteria?
(3) Monocot root, monocot stem (1) The cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan

(4) Dicot root, dicot stem (2) Lipopolysaccharide layer is found

118. Heartwood is durable and resistant to the attacks of (3) Mesosome helps in DNA replication
microbes and insects due to (4) The plasma membrane is structurally similar to
(1) Secretion of antibiotics eukaryotes

(2) Deposition of organic compounds 123. Gas vacuoles are found in

(3) Living nature (1) Blue green algae

(4) Presence of highly lignified cells with dense (2) Purple and green bacteria
protoplasm (3) Brown algae

119. In A of the dicotyledonous plants, the (4) More than one option is correct

B elongation of the radicle leads to the 124. Select the correct match w.r.t. function of cell
organelles in prokaryotes
formation of C .
Column I Column II
Choose the correct option. a. Mesosome (i) mRNA to protein
A B C b. Polysome (ii) Secretion
(1) Few Indirect Root lets c. Fimbriae (iii) Floating
(2) Majority Direct Secondary roots d. Gas vacuoles (iv) Attach the bacteria to rocks
(3) Few Indirect Primary roots (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Majority Direct Primary roots (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

(12)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)

125. ________ first explained that cells divided and new 130. Which one of the following structures determines the
cells are formed from pre-existing cells shape of the cell and provides a strong structural
support to prevent the bacterium from bursting?
(1) Schleiden (2) Rudolf Virchow
(1) Cell membrane (2) Glycocalyx
(3) Schwann (4) Rober Brown

126. Which of the following organelles lack membrane? (3) Slime layer (4) Cell wall

A. Centriole B. Flagella 131. Match the following

C. Ribosome D. Microbodies Column I Column II

E. Vacuoles F. Lysosomes a. Thylakoids (i) The inner compartment of

mitochondria
(1) A & B (2) D & E
b. Cristae (ii) In foldings in mitochondria
(3) A & C (4) D & F
c. Cisternae (iii) Disc-shaped sacs in golgi
127. When a chromosome has centromere slightly away
apparatus
from the middle of chromosome, then it will be called
d. Matrix (iv) Flat membranous sacs in
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
stroma
(3) Submetacentric (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
128. Choose the correct statement for A, B, C and D in
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
the given diagram
132. Algal cell wall made of all, except

D (1) Cellulose (2) Galactans

C
(3) Hemicellulose (4) Mannans

133. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) ER helps in transport of substances

(2) Mitochondria help in generation of adenosine

triphosphate

(3) Centrosome is an organelle usually containing

B two spherical structures called centrioles

(4) The stroma of the chloroplast contains enzymes

required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and
A
proteins
(1) ‘A’ is the major site for synthesis of lipid
134. How many radial spokes and microtubules are found
(2) ‘C’ helps in synthesis of steroidal hormones in an axoneme of a eukaryotic cilia respectively?
(3) ‘B’ is 40 S subunit of ribosome (1) 18 and 20 (2) 9 and 20
(4) ‘D’ helps in secretion (3) 9 and 18 (4) 18 and 18
129. A nuclear pore allows 135. Select the incorrectly matched pair
(1) Protein movement only (1) Flemming – Chromatin
(2) RNA movement only (2) Camillo Golgi – Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Unidirectional movement of DNA (3) Palade – Ribosome
(4) RNA and protein movement (4) Schleiden – Cell theory

(13)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016

ZOOLOGY
136. Nitrogenous compound present in lecithin is 143. Which of the following is not supported by
(1) Ethanolamine (2) Inositol incomplete cartilaginous rings?

(3) Serine (4) Choline (1) Tracheae (2) Primary bronchi

137. Which of the following are different in RNA and (3) Initial bronchioles (4) Alveolar duct
DNA?
144. When approximately 2200 mL of air is left in the
(1) Purines and Pyrimidines lungs after normal expiration, it is
(2) Phosphate and sugar (1) Residual volume
(3) Sugar and purine (2) Total lung capacity
(4) Sugar and pyrimidine
(3) Functional residual capacity
138. Following metabolites are insoluble in Cl3CCOOH
(4) Vital capacity
except
(1) Proteins (2) Nucleic acid 145. Control of bacterial pathogen effected through using
sulpha drugs to inhibit synthesis of folic acid in
(3) Lipids (4) Monosaccharides bacteria is an example of
139. The feeling of fullness due to inadequate enzyme
(1) Competitive inhibition
secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating is
better defined by a term (2) Non-competitive inhibition
(1) Constipation (2) Indigestion (3) Allosteric inhibition
(3) Diarrhoea (4) Vomiting (4) Feedback inhibition
140. Dental formula of milk teeth in humans is
146. Mark the bond absent in a nucleotide.
2100 2102 (1) Glycosidic bond (2) Phosphodiester bond
(1) 2 (2) 2
2100 2102
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) Both (2) & (3)
2123 2033 147. Which class of enzyme catalyzes following reaction?
(3) 2 (4) 2
2123 1023 X Y
141. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. emphysema. C–C X–Y+C=C
(1) Its a chronic obstructive disease of lung causing (1) Class III (2) Class IV
irreversible distension and loss of elasticity of
alveoli (3) Class V (4) Class VI

(2) Alveolar wall disintegrate, producing abnormally 148. Some enzymes require metal ions for their activity
large air spaces that remain filled with air during ‘X’ is a cofactor for proteolytic enzyme
expiration carboxypeptidase. Here ‘X’ is
(3) It is preventable if chronic exposure to smoke (1) Magnesium (2) Zinc
and other pollutants is avoided
(3) Iron (4) Copper
(4) It is caused due to imbalance of hormones and
enzymes 149. In ATP, high energy bond occurs between
142. The partial pressure of O2 at which haemoglobin is (1) Phosphate and phosphate
50% saturated is called P 50 value for oxygen.
Normally the value for an adult human is around (2) Ribose and phosphate

(1) 15 mm Hg (2) 30 mm Hg (3) Adenine and phosphate

(3) 20 mm Hg (4) 50 mm Hg (4) Adenine and ribose

(14)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
150. Consider following graphs regarding the effect of 154. Absorption of nutrients occur largely in small
change of different factors on enzyme activity intestine and to a lesser extent in large intestine.
Absorption of one of the following nutrients requires
Vmax a protein secreted in stomach.

Velocity of reaction (V)

(1) Monoglyceride
(2) Glucose

(3) Amino acids

(4) Vitamin B12

(a)
(b) 155. In constipation, faeces become dry. The most
appropriate reason could be
Identify the factor (a) and (b)
(1) Faeces are retained in the colon and rectum for
(1) (a) – Substrate concentration, (b) – temperature long time so most of the water get absorbed
(2) (a) – pH, (b) – substrate concentration (2) Diet has high fibrous content
(3) (a) – Temperature, (b) – pH (3) Bowel movements occur irregularly

(4) (a) – Substrate concentration, (b) – pH (4) Both (1) & (3)

151. Which one is correct sequence of following layers 156. The absorbed fat from intestinal cells are released
in the alimentary canal, starting from inner to outer into
side?
(1) Blood capillaries as micelles
(a) Visceral peritoneum
(2) Blood capillaries as chylomicron
(b) Sub-mucosa (3) Lacteals as micelles
(c) Longitudinal muscle of muscularis externa (4) Lacteals as chylomicrons
(d) Circular muscle of muscularis externa 157. Which of the following muscle contract during forceful
(e) Muscularis mucosa expiration?

(f) Lamina propria (a) Phrenic muscle

(1) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e), (f) (b) External intercostal muscle

(2) (a), (c), (d), (e), (b), (f) (c) Internal intercostal muscle

(3) (f), (e), (b), (d), (c), (a) (d) Abdominal muscles

(4) (a), (c), (e), (f), (d) (1) (a) & (b) (2) (c) & (d)

152. Which enzyme activates most of the enzymes of (3) (b) & (d) (4) (a) & (c)
pancreatic juice but that enzyme itself is activated 158. Which of the following is the switch off point of
by some other non-digesting enzyme? inspiration?
(1) Enterokinase (2) Trypsin (1) Apneustic centre
(3) Pepsin (4) Rennin (2) Pneumotaxic centre
153. Sphincter of oddi guards (3) Pons varolii
(1) Cystic duct (4) Cerebrum
(2) Common bile duct 159. Partial pressure of O2 in expired air is

(3) Hepato-pancreatic ampulla (1) 158 mm of Hg (2) 116 mm of Hg

(4) Pancreatic duct (3) 40 mm of Hg (4) 45 mm of Hg

(15)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
160. On the following graph, the shift from curve A to B 164. An enzyme is given a four digit number in the
could be caused by system of universal nomenclature. The first digit for
enzyme lipase is
B
(1) Four (2) Six
100 A
haemoglobin with oxygen
Percentage saturation of

(3) Two (4) Three

80
165. How many nitrogen atoms are present in adenine?
60
(1) Five (2) Four
40
(3) Three (4) Two
20
166. Read the following statements related to enzymes
0 20 40 60 80 100 and choose the correct answer
Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)
(a) The rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions depends
(1) Acidic pH (2) Increase in pCO2 on hydrogen ion concentration.

(b) Substrate concentration does not affect reaction

(3) Low pO2 (4) Foetal haemoglobin
rate.
161. Maximum amount of CO2 is carried by the blood in
(c) Competitive inhibitors typically resemble substrate.
the form of
(d) Enzymes catalysing hydrolysis of ester, ether,
(1) Carbamino haemoglobin
peptide, glycosidic, C – C, C –halide or P – N
(2) Carbonic acid bonds are hydrolases.

(3) NaHCO3 (1) Both (a) & (b) statements are correct

(4) Carboxyhaemoglobin (2) Both (b) & (d) statements are correct

162. At a particular pressure difference, the diffusion of (3) All statements are incorrect, except(c)
CO2 is
(4) All statements are correct, except (b)
(a) 20 times faster than O2
167. All of the following are 18 carbons containing fatty
(b) 40 times faster than N2 acids, except

(c) 2 times faster than O2 (1) Stearic acid (2) Linoleic acid

(d) 8 times faster than N2 (3) Linolenic acid (4) Palmitic acid

(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b) 168. Find out the incorrect option for given structure

(3) (a) & (c) (4) (b), (c) & (d) O

O CH2 – O – C – R1
163. Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of secondary
structures. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. R2 C O CH O
secondary structures exhibited by DNA (Watson- CH2 O P O CH2 CH2
+
Crick model) OH N
CH3 CH3
(1) The backbone is formed by the sugar-phosphate CH3
sugar chain (1) It forms zwitterionic form on changing pH
(2) The two strands of polynucleotides of DNA are (2) It is a basic component of all cell membranes
antiparallel
(3) It has phosphorous and a phosphorylated
(3) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36° organic compound
(4) The pitch of DNA would be 3.4 Å (4) It has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions

(16)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)
169. Absorption of water, simple sugar and alcohol takes 174. Read the following statements having one or two
place in blanks
(1) Oral cavity (2) Stomach (A) The hard chewing surface of teeth made up of
(3) Oesophagus (4) Caecum (i) helps in mastication of food.
170. Read the following statement (B) Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ
(i) The enzyme acts on ‘N’ terminal of a polypeptide attached to floor of oral cavity by (ii) .
chain is present in A
(C) A cartilaginous flap called (iii) prevents the
(ii) The enzyme acts on ‘C’ terminal of a polypeptide
B entry of food in wind pipe.
chain is present in
(D) Each hapatic lobule is covered by a thin
Choose the option which correctly fills up the blanks
connective tissue sheath called as (iv) .
A and B .
(1) Gastric juice Pancreatic juice Choose the option which includes one correct and
one incorrect option respectively
(2) Pancreatic juice Gastric juice
(1) (i) Enamel (ii) Papilla
(3) Pancreatic juice Succus entericus
(2) (ii) Epiglottis (iv) Glisson’s capsule
(4) Intestinal juice Pancreatic juice
(3) (i) Dentine (iii) Glottis
171. Read the following reaction carefully
(4) (ii) Frenulum (iv) Glisson’s capsule
A
(i) Starch 
7-8 pH
 Maltose
175. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of
exchange of gases at the alveolus and the body
B tissues with blood and transport of O2 & CO2 having
(ii) Fat 
7-8 pH
 fatty acid + Glycerol
pO2 & pCO2 labelled as A, B, C, D, E and F
C
(iii) Nucleic acid 
7-8 pH
 Nucleotides Inspired air Expired air

D Alveolar air
(iv) Protein 
7-8 pH
 Proteoses + Peptones
pO2 =A mmHg
pCO2 =B mmHg Alveolus
Choose the correct option w.r.t. A, B, C and D CO2 O2

A B C D Pulmonary CO2 O 2
artery Pulmonary
(1) Ptyalin Steapsin Nuclease Pepsin vein

(2) Amylopsin Lipase Nuclease Rennin

(3) Ptyalin Steapsin Nuclease Trypsin
(4) Amylopsin Lipase Nuclease Trypsin Systemic Systemic
veins arteries
172. An extra oblique muscle layer is present inner to
circular muscle layer in muscularis layer of CO2 O 2

(1) Oesophagus (2) Duodenum

pO2 = E mm Hg CO2O2 pO2 = C mm Hg
(3) Stomach (4) Ileum pCO2= F mm Hg pCO 2= D mm Hg
Body tissues
173. The undigested food enters into large intestine
through _____, which prevents the back flow of faecal Choose the correct option which includes the
matter labelled partial pressure having same values
(1) Cardiac valve (2) Ileocolon valve (1) A, B and C (2) D, E and F
(3) Ileorectal valve (4) Ileocaecal valve (3) E, F and A (4) B, D and E

(17)
Test - 3 (Code A) Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
176. Given below is a diagrammatic representation 179. Blood is a medium of transport for O2 and CO2.
explaining mechanism of breathing (A)
About of O2 is transported by RBC in the

blood and remaining (B) of O 2 is carried in

dissolve state through the plasma
Choose the option which correctly fills up the blanks
A and B
(1) A – 70%, B – 30%
(2) A – 90% B – 10%
(3) A – 97% B – 3%
(4) A – 3% B – 97%

If air enter in lungs, then which of the following is not 180. Match the column I and column II
possible Column I Column II
(1) Phrenic muscle of diaphragm is contracted and (a) Additional volume of (i) 1100 ml – 1200 ml
diaphragm becomes dome shaped air, a person can
(2) External intercostal muscles are contracted expire by a forcible
expiration
which leads to raising of ribs and sternum
(b) Volume of air (ii) 1000 ml – 1100 ml
(3) Volume of thoracic cavity is increased
inspired or expired
(4) Both (2) & (3) are not possible during a normal
respiration
177. Carbonic anhydrase is found in
(c) Volume of air (iii) 2500 ml – 3000 ml
(1) Blood plasma (2) RBC
remaining in lungs
(3) WBC (4) Both (1) & (2) even after forceful
expiration
178. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in
after a forced expiration is (d) Additional volume of (iv) 500 ml
air, a person can
(1) Inspiratory capacity
inhale during forcible
(2) Vital capacity inspiration

(3) Functional residual capacity (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(4) Expiratory capacity (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

  

(18)
Ambitious Course for NEET (Phase-II) - 2016 Test - 3 (Code A)

08/06/2016 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hr.

AMBITIOUS COURSE FOR NEET (Phase-II) - 2016
Test - 3

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (2) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148 (2)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (1)
6. (3) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (4) 48. (2) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (2)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137 (4) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (1)
33. (4) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (4) 100. (4) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

(19)