Nursing Board Examination questions

November 2004, set A

1. The nurse in a long term health facility is caring for a client with 3rd
stage pressure ulcer. Other patient’s in the facility have MRSA and VRE
infection. What is the priority action for the nurse to implement?

a. Inspect wound
b. Obtain wound culture and sensitivity
c. Institute contact precaution
d. Administer prophylactic medication as ordered

RATIONALE: C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) and

Methicillin resistant Staphyloccocus Aureus (MRSA) is a common
bacterium that’s easily spread via direct person-to-person contact.
Wearing gown to prevent contact and contamination is advised.

(Diseases: A nursing process approach to excellent Care, p.

107)

2. When a client has peptic ulcer disease, the nurse would expect a
priority intervention to be

a. Assisting in inserting a Miller-Abbott tube

b. Assisting in inserting an arterial pressure line
c. Inserting a nasogastric tube
d. Inserting an IV

Answer: c

Rationale: An NG tube insertion is the most appropriate intervention

because it will determine
the presence of active gastrointestinal bleeding. A Miller-Abbott tube is
a weighted, mercury-filled ballooned tube used to resolve bowel
obstructions. There is no evidence of shock or fluid overload in the
client; therefore, an arterial line is not appropriate at this time and an
IV is optional.

3. A nursing assessment for initial signs of hypoglycemia will include

a. Pallor, blurred vision, weakness, behavioral changes

b. Frequent urination, flushed face, pleural friction rub
c. Abdominal pain, diminished deep tendon reflexes, double vision
d. Weakness, lassitude, irregular pulse, dilated pupils
Answer: a

Rationale: Weakness, fainting, blurred vision, pallor and perspiration

are all common symptoms when there is too much insulin or too little
food - hypoglycemia. The signs and symptoms in answers (b) and (c)
are indicative of hyperglycemia.

4. A client being treated for esophageal varices has a Sengstaken-

Blakemore tube inserted to control the bleeding. The most important
assessment is for the nurse to

a. Check that a hemostat is at the bedside

b. Monitor IV fluids for the shift
c. Regularly assess respiratory status
d. Check that the balloon is deflated on a regular basis

Answer: c

Rationale: The respiratory system can become occluded if the balloon

slips and moves up the esophagus, putting pressure on the trachea.
This would result in respiratory distress and should be assessed
frequently. Scissors should be kept at the bedside to cut the tube if
distress occurs. This is a safety intervention.

5. A 55-year-old client with sever epigastric pain due to acute

pancreatitis has been admitted to the hospital. The client's activity at
this time should be

a. Ambulation as desired
b. Bedrest in supine position
c. Up ad lib and right side-lying position in bed
d. Bedrest in Fowler's position

Answer: d

Rationale: The pain of pancreatitis is made worse by walking and

supine positioning. The client is more comfortable sitting up and
leaning forward.

18. A female client is admitted to the facility for investigation of

balance and coordination problems, including possible Ménière’s
disease. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:

a. vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss.

b. vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus
c. vertigo, pain, and hearing impairment.
d. vertigo, blurred vision, and fever.

Answer A. Ménière’s disease, an inner ear disease, is characterized by

the symptom triad of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. The
combination of vertigo, vomiting, and nystagmus suggests
labyrinthitis. Ménière’s disease rarely causes pain, blurred vision, or
fever.

19. A male client with a conductive hearing disorder caused by

ankylosis of the stapes in the oval window undergoes a stapedectomy
to remove the stapes and replace the impaired bone with a prosthesis.
After the stapedectomy, the nurse should provide which client
instruction?

a. “Lie in bed with your head elevated, and refrain from blowing your
nose for 24 hours.”
b. “Try to ambulate independently after about 24 hours.”
c. “Shampoo your hair every day for 10 days to help prevent ear
infection.”
d. “Don’t fly in an airplane, climb to high altitudes, make sudden
movements, or expose yourself to loud sounds for 30 days.”

Answer D.

For 30 days after a stapedectomy, the client should avoid air travel,
sudden movements that may cause trauma, and exposure to loud
sounds and pressure changes (such as from high altitudes).
Immediately after surgery, the client should lie flat with the surgical
ear facing upward; nose blowing is permitted but should be done
gently and on one side at a time. The client’s first attempt at
postoperative ambulation should be supervised to prevent falls caused
by vertigo and light-headedness. The client must avoid shampooing
and swimming to keep the dressing and the ear dry.

141. A male client complains of vertigo. Nurse Bea anticipates that the
client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?

a. Tymphanic membranes
b. Inner ear
c. Auricle
d. External ear
B. Inner ear

The Inner ear is responsible for containing the Eustachian tube which
when disturbed is mainly the reason for experiencing vertigo.

134. When examining a client with abdominal pain, Nurse Hazel should
assess:

a. Symptomatic quadrant either second or first

b. The symptomatic quadrant last
c. The symptomatic quadrant first
d. Any quadrant

B. The symptomatic quadrant last

Assess the symptomatic area last, to avoid exacerbation of pain to that

area.

128. Tony with infection is receiving antibiotic therapy. Later the client
complaints of ringing in the ears. This ototoxicity is damage to:

a. 4th CN
b. 8th CN
c. 7th CN
d. 9th CN

B. 8th CN

The 8th CN nerve is the Auditory nerve which controls our sense of
hearing.

125. In caring for clients with renal calculi, which is the priority nursing
intervention?

a. Record vital signs

b. Strain urine
c. Limit fluids
d. Administer analgesics as prescribed

D. Administer analgesics as prescribed

Pain must be immediately relieved.

126. In patient with renal failure, the diet should be:

a. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium
b. Low protein, high potassium
c. High carbohydrate, low protein
d. High calcium, high protein

A. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium

79. Nurse Judy is aware that following condition would reflect presence
of congenital G.I anomaly?
a. Cord prolapse
b. Polyhydramios
c. Placenta previa
d. Oligohydramios

B. Polyhydramios

80. Gina a postpartum client is diagnosed with endometritis. Which

position would you expect to place her based on this diagnosis?
a. Supine
b. Left side lying
c. Trendelinburg
d. Semi-fowlers

D. Semi-fowlers

Nursing T.I.P.S in alphabet vol 3 ray A. GApuz

The ABC’s of passing the Philippine Nursing board exams Ray A
Gapuz

June 2005 Integrated Comprehensive Test III-A

Reference: Compilation of previous Philippine Nurse Licensure
Examination

Situation: A young boy of 6 years old is suffering from otitis media

1. What should the nurse observe in this patient?

a. Response to illness
b. Demands for attention
c. Tantrums
d. Hearing Loss

Answer: D
Otitis media causes an obstruction in the ear that will eventually cause
Hearing Loss.

Rationale: Hearing loss is the possible complication of inflammation of

the middle ear.

2. This particular boy wants to be active. Which activities will the

nurse encourage him to engaged in?

a. word scrabble games

b. listening to pop music and wrap through walk man audio
c. play in lighted areas
d. fencing with other boys

Answer: D

3. The boy has to get ear drops daily. How should the nurse instill
the ear medication?

a. Side lying
b. Support head and till head upward
c. Pull pinna up and back
d. Draw pinna down and back

Answer: C

The structure of an ear for a child is different from an adult, so the

maneuver used for instilling medications to a child is through pulling
the pinna up and back.

Rationale: Pulling the pinna up and back will straighten the ear canal
where the ear drops will pass.

4. If the medication is to be given once a day what shall the nurse

remember?

a. Regular time of the day

b. Fixed time and minutes
c. Can be delegated to the watcher companion
d. Can be given any time

Answer: D

5. What important teaching should the nurse advise the 6-year-old

boy with otitis media?
 a. Sleep 8-10 hours per day
b. Eat plenty of fluids and vegetables
c. Careful not to swim yet
d. Observe body hygiene

Answer: C

Swimming will only exacerbate the Otitis media.

June 2004 Integrated Comprehensive Examination IV-

Rehabilitative
Reference: Compilation of previous Philippine Nurse Licensure
Examination
June 2003, set B

Situation 7: Michelle is caring for pediatric patients with

gastrointestinal disorders

31. A nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of intussusceptions.

Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to note on
this child?

a. Blood and mucus in the stools

b. Profuse projectile vomiting
c. Watery diarrhea
d. Ribbon like stools

Answer: A

32. When assessing a client for possible intussusceptions which of the

following would be least likely to provide valuable information?

a. Stool inspection
b. Pain pattern
c. Family history
d. Abdominal palpation

Answer: C

33. A nurse is reviewing the record of a child with diagnosis of pyloric

stenosis. Which of the following data would the nurse expect to note
documentation in the child record?

a. Vomiting large amount of bile

b. Watery diarrhea
 c. Increased urine output
d. Projectile vomiting

Answer: D

34. When assessing a neonate the nurse notes visible peristaltic waves
across the epigastrium this characteristic indicative of which of the
following?

a. Hyper trophic pyloric stenosis

b. Imperforate anus
c. Intussusception
d. Short gut syndrome

Answer: A

35. A nurse is caring for an infant with pyloric stenosis. After feeding
the infant should be placed which of the following position?

a. Prone in fowler’s position

b. On his back without elevation
c. On the left side in fowler’s position
d. Slightly on the right side in hight semi fowler’s position

Answer: D

November,2008 Set D

1.Which of the following is an effective technique of communicating

with a hearing impaired client?

a) speak slowly in a low tone of voice

b) speak slowly in a loud voice
c) speak slowly and try to overemphasize words
d) speak slowly and directly in front of the client

Answer and Rationale: D

- speaking slowly allows the client to understand the message. And
speaking in fron of the client allows him to read the lip movement of
the speaker. Avoid using loud voice pitch. High-pitched voice is more
difficult to be understood by hearing-impaired client.
2. Which of the following is done when performing Weber test?

a) place vibrating tuning fork in front of the opening of the ear

b) place the vibrating tuning fork in the middle of the head
c) place the vibrating tuning fork behind the ear
d) irrigate the ear with cold water and observe movement of the eyes

Answer and Rationale: B

- describes weber test, which confirms presence of sensorineural
hearing loss like Meniere's disease.

3. The client has been diagnosed to have Meniere's disease. Which of

the following should be included when giving health teachings?

a) limit carbohydrates and proteins in the diet

b) limit salt intake
c) limit fats in the diet
d) drink a lot of fluids

Answer and Rationale: B

- meniere's disease is a disorder caused by increased endolymphatic
pressure in the inner ear; characterized by vertigo, tinnitus, gradual
hearing loss. Low sodium diet is indicated to prevent further
accumulation of endolymphatic fluids.

4. A nurse provides discharge instructions to the mother of a child after

myringotomy with insertion of tympanostomy tubes. The nurse
determines that the mother needs additional instructions if the mother
states that:

a) swimming in deep water is prohibited

b) swimming in lake water needs to be avoided
c) she will place earplugs in the child's ears during baths and showers
d) she will be sure to give her child soft tissues to blow his nose

Answer and Rationale: D

- A myringotomy is the insertion of tympanoplasty tubes into the
middle ear to equalize pressure and keep the ear aerated. Parents
need to be instructed that the child should not blow his or her nose for
7 to 10 days. Bath and lake water are potential sources of bacterial
contamination. Diving and swimming in deep water are prohibited. The
child’s ears need to be kept dry.

5. A client arrives at the emergency room with a foreign body in the

left ear that has been determined to be an insect. Which intervention
would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed initially?

a) irrigation of the ear

b) instillation of diluted alcohol
c) instillation of antibiotic ear drops
d) instillation of corticosteroid ointment

Answer and Rationale: B

- Insects are killed before removal unless they can be coaxed out by a
flashlight or a humming noise. Mineral oil or diluted alcohol is instilled
into the ear to suffocate the insect, which then is removed using ear
forceps. When the foreign object is vegetable matter, irrigation is not
used, because this material expands with hydration and the impaction
becomes worse.

6. A client with Meniere's disease is experiencing severe vertigo. Which

instruction should the nurse give to the client to assist in controlling
the vertigo?

a) increase sodium in the diet

b) avoid sudden head movements
c) lie still and watch the television
d) increase fluid intake to 3L a day

Answer and Rationale: B

- The nurse instructs the client to make slow head movements to
prevent worsening of thevertigo. Dietary changes such as salt and fluid
restrictions that reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid are
sometimes prescribed. Lying still and watching television will not
control vertigo.

7. The client had been diagnosed to have a cholelithiasis. He had

undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following does
the nurse recognize as normal signs and symptoms after the surgery?

a) abdominal pain and bloating

b) diminished lung sounds
c) bile-stained vomitus
d) hyperactive bowel sounds

Answer and Rationale: A

- carbon dioxide insufflation of the abdomen is done during
laparoscopic cholecystectomy. This leads to abdominal pain and
bloating 24 hours post-procedure

8. The client has been diagnosed to have cancer of the colon. She is
for colostomy. The client says, "The doctor told me that there are
complications of colostomy." The best initial action by the nurse is

a) discuss complications of colostomy to the patient

b) provide pre-operation teachings
c) ask what are the complications of colostomy
d) ask the client to sign consent form

Answer and Rationale: C

- assess what the client knows, before giving teachings. This provides
the starting point of discussion

9. A nurse is caring for a client with colostomy created 3 days earlier.

The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from stoma. The
nurse interprets that:

a) this is normal, expected event

b) this indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation
c) the client is experiencing early signs of impaired circulation
d) the client should not have the nasogastric tube movement

Answer and Rationale: A

- passage of flatus indicates return of peristalsis. This is normal,
expected event 3 days after colostomy.

10. A nurse is preparing a diet plan for a post-gastrectomy client to

prevent dumping syndrome. Which of the following would not be a
component of this teaching plan?

a) lie down after eating

b) drink liquids with meals
c) eat small meals, six times daily
d) avoid concentrated sweets

Answer and Rationale: B

- to prevent dumping syndrome, the client should drink fluids after
meals, not with meals. This is to prevent rapid emptying of the
stomach.

November 2008 Integrated Comprehensive Test III-A

Reference: Compilation of previous Philippine Nurse Licensure
Examination

June 2006, set C

181. When gastric analysis testing reveals excess secretion of gastric

acid, which of the following diagnoses is supported?
a) Duodenal ulcer

b) Chronic atrophic gastritis

c) Gastric cancer
d) Pernicious anemia

Answer: A

Patients with duodenal ulcers usually secrete an excess amount of

hydrochloric acid. B) Patients with chronic atrophic gastritis secrete
little or no acid. C) Patients with gastric cancer secrete little or no acid.
D) Patients with pernicious anemia secrete no acid under basal
conditions or after stimulation.

187. Which of the following terms refers to the symptom of

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) which is characterized by a
burning sensation in the esophagus?

a) Pyrosis
b) Dyspepsia
c) Dysphagia
d) Odynophagia

Answer: A

Pyrosis refers to a burning sensation in the esophagus and indicates

GERD. B) Indigestion is termed dyspepsia. C) Difficulty swallowing is
termed dysphagia. D) Pain on swallowing is termed odynophagia.

188. The nurse teaches the patient with gastroesophageal reflux

disease (GERD) which of the following measures to manage his
disease?

a) Avoid eating or drinking 2 hours before bedtime.

b) Minimize intake of caffeine, beer, milk, and foods containing
peppermint and spearmint.
c) Elevate the foot of the bed on 6- to 8-inch blocks
d) Eat a low carbohydrate diet
Answer: A
The patient should not recline with a full stomach. B) The patient
should be instructed to avoid the listed foods and food components. C)
The patient should be instructed to elevate the head of the bed on 6-
to 8-inch blocks. D) The patient is instructed to eat a low-fat diet.

199. Which of the following terms refers to tarry, black stools?

a) Melena
b) Hemarthrosis
c) Hematemesis
d) Pyrosis
Answer: A

Melena indicates blood in the stool. B) Hemarthrosis is bleeding into a

joint. C) Hematemesis is vomiting blood. D) Pyrosis refers to
heartburn.

201. The nurse recognizes that the patient with a duodenal ulcer will
likely experience

a) pain 2-3 hours after a meal.

b) vomiting.

c) hemorrhage.
d) weight loss.

Answer : C

Hemorrhage is less likely in the patient with duodenal ulcer than the
patient with gastric ulcer. A) The patient with a gastric ulcer often
awakens between 1-2 A.M. with pain and ingestion of food brings relief.
B) Vomiting is uncommon in the patient with duodenal ulcer. D) The
patient with a duodenal ulcer may experience weight gain.

202. Of the following categories of medications, which is used in

combination with bismuth salts to eradicate Helicobacter pylori?
a) Antibiotics

b) Antacids
c) Proton pump inhibitors
d) Histamine-2 receptor antagonists

Answer: A

Antibiotics and bismuth salts are given to eradicate H. pylori. B)

Antacids are given to manage gastric acidity.C) Proton pump inhibitors
are given to decrease acid secretion. D) Histamine-2 receptor
antagonists are given to decrease the acid secretion in the stomach.

203. Which of the following medications represents the category

proton (gastric acid) pump inhibitors?

a) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
b) Sucralfate (Carafate)

c) Famotidine (Pepcid)
d) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Answer : A

Omeprazole decreases gastric acid by slowing the hydrogen-

potassium-adenosine-triphosphatase pump on the surface of the
parietal cells. B) Sucralfate is a cytoprotective drug. C) Famotidine is a
histamine-2 receptor antagonist. D) Metronidazole is an antibiotic,
specifically an amebicide.

206. Which of the following statements regarding gastric cancer is

accurate?

a) The incidence of cancer of the stomach continues to decrease in

the United States.
b) Most gastric cancer deaths occur in people younger than 40
years.

c) Females have a higher incidence of gastric cancers than males.

d) A diet high in smoked foods and low in fruits and vegetables may
decrease the risk of gastric cancer.
Answer: A
While the incidence continues to decrease, gastric cancer still accounts
for 12,800 deaths annually. B) While gastric cancer deaths occasionally
occur in younger people, most occur in people older than 40 years. C)
Males have a higher incidence of gastric cancers than females. D) More
accurately, a diet high in smoked foods and low in fruits and
vegetables may increase the risk of gastric cancer.

207. Which of the following categories of laxatives draw water into the
intestines by osmosis?

a) Saline agents (milk of magnesia)

Saline agents use osmosis to stimulate peristalsis and act within 2
hours of consumption.

b) Bulk-forming agents (Metamucil)

Bulk-forming agents mix with intestinal fluids, swell, and stimulate
peristalsis.

c) Stimulants (Dulcolax)
Stimulants irritate the colon epithelium.

d) Fecal softeners (Colace)

Fecal softeners hydrate the stool by surfactant action on the colonic
epithelium, resulting in mixing of aqueous and fatty substances.

208. Crohn’s disease is a condition of malabsorption caused by

a) inflammation of all layers of intestinal mucosa.

Crohn’s disease is also known as regional enteritis and can occur
anywhere along the GI tract, but most commonly at the distal ileum
and in the colon.

b) infectious disease.
Infectious disease causes problems such as small bowel bacterial
overgrowth leading to malabsorption.

c) disaccharidase deficiency.
Disaccharidase deficiency leads to lactose intolerance.

d) gastric resection.
Postoperative malabsorption occurs after gastric or intestinal resection.
209. The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a
sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will
be

a) solid.
With a sigmoid colostomy, the feces are solid.

b) semi-mushy.
With a descending colostomy, the feces are semi-mushy.

c) mushy.
With a transverse colostomy, the feces are mushy.

d) fluid.
With an ascending colostomy, the feces are fluid.

210. When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse lubricates the catheter

and gently inserts it into the stoma no more than _______ inches

a) 3”
The nurse should insert the catheter no more than 3 inches.

b) 2”
Insertion of the catheter 2 inches is inadequate.

c) 4”
Insertion of the catheter 4 inches is excessive and not recommended.

d) 5”
Insertion of the catheter 5 inches is excessive and not recommended.

212. Which type of diarrhea is caused by increased production and

secretion of water and electrolyes by the intestinal mucosa into the
intestinal lumen?

a) Secretory diarrhea
Secretory diarrhea is usually high volume diarrhea and is caused by
increased production and secretion of water and electrolytes by the
intestinal mucosa into the intestinal lumen.

b) Osmotic diarrhea
Osmotic diarrhea occurs when water is pulled into the intestines by the
osmotic pressure of nonabsorbed particles, slowing the reabsorption of
water.
c) Mixed diarrhea
Mixed diarrhea is caused by increased peristalsis (usually from
inflammatory bowel disease) and a combination of increased secretion
or decreased absorption in the bowel.

d) Diarrheal disease
The most common cause of diarrheal disease is contaminated food.

213. Which of the following terms is used to refer to intestinal

rumbling?

a) Borborygmus
Borborygmus is the term used to refer to intestinal rumbling which
accompanies diarrhea.

b) Tenesmus
Tenesmus is the term used to refer to ineffectual straining at stool.

c) Azotorrhea
Azotorrhea is the term used to refer to excess of nitrogenous matter in
the feces or urine.

d) Diverticulitis
Diverticulitis is the term used to refer to inflammation of a diverticulum
from obstruction (by fecal matter) resulting in abscess formation.

214. The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests

a) Inflammatory colitis
The presence of mucus and pus in the stools suggests inflammatory
colitis or enteritis.

b) Small bowel disease

Watery stools are characteristic of small bowel disease.

c) Disorders of the colon

Loose, semisolid stools are associated more often with disorders of the
colon.

d) Intestinal malabsorption
Voluminous, greasy stools suggest intestinal malabsorption.

215. Celiac sprue is an example of which category of malabsorption?

a) Mucosal disorders causing generalized malabsorption
In addition to celiac sprue, regional enteritis and radiation enteritis are
examples of mucosal disorders.

b) Infectious diseases causing generalized malabsorption

Examples of infectious diseases causing generalized malabsorption
include small bowel bacterial overgrowth, tropical sprue, and Whipple’s
disease.

c) Luminal problems causing malabsorption

Examples of luminal problems causing malabsorption include bile acid
deficiency, Zollinger Ellison syndrome, and pancreatic insufficiency.

d) Postoperative malabsorption
Postoperative gastric or intestinal resection can result in development
of malabsorption syndromes.

216. Typical signs and symptoms of appendicitis include:

a) Nausea
Nausea is typically associated with appendicitis with or without
vomiting.

b) Left lower quadrant pain

Pain is generally felt in the right lower quadrant.

c) Pain when pressure is applied to the right lower quadrant of the

abdomen.
Rebound tenderness, or pain felt with release of pressure applied to
the abdomen, may be present with appendicitis.

d) High fever
Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

217. Regional enteritis is characterized by:

a) Transmural thickening
Transmural thickeneing is an early pathologic change of Crohn’s
disease. Later pathology results in deep, penetrating granulomas.

b) Diffuse involvement
Regional enteritis is characterized by regional discontinuous lesions.

c) Severe diarrhea
Severe diarrhea is characteristic of ulcerative colitis while diarrhea in
regional enteritis is less severe.
d) Exacerbations and remissions
Regional enteritis is characterized by a prolonged and variable course
while ulcerative colitis is characterized by exacerbations and
remissions.

218. What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?

a) Adhesions
Adhesions are scar tissue that forms as a result of inflammation and
infection.

b) Hernias
Hernias are one of the second most common causes of small bowel
obstruction.

c) Neoplasms
Neoplasms are one the second most common causes of small bowel
obstruction.

d) Volvulus
Volvulus (twisting of the bowel) is a less common cause of small bowel
obstruction.

219. Which of the follow statements provides accurate information

regarding cancer of the colon and rectum?

a) Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type
of internal cancer in the United States.
Cancer of the colon and rectum is the second most common type of
internal cancer in the United States.

b) Rectal cancer affects more than twice as many people as colon

cancer.
Colon cancer affects more than twice as many people as does rectal
cancer (94,700 for colon, 34,700 for rectum).

c) The incidence of colon and rectal cancer decreases with age.

The incidence increases with age (the incidence is highest in people
older than 85).

d) There is no hereditary component to colon cancer.

Colon cancer occurrence is higher in people with a family history of
colon cancer.

220. Which of the following characteristics are risk factors for

colorectal cancer?
a) Familial polyposis
Family history of colon cancer or familial polyposis is a risk factor for
colorectal cancer.

b) Age younger than 40

Being older than age 40 is a risk factor for colorectal cancer.

c) Low fat, low protein, high fiber diet

A high-fat, high-protein, low-fiber diet is a risk factor for colorectal
cancer.

d) History of skin cancer

History of skin cancer is not a recognized risk factor for colorectal
cancer.

223. Which of the following terms is used to describe a chronic liver

disease in which scar tissue surrounds the portal areas?

a) Alcoholic cirrhosis
This type of cirrhosis is due to chronic alcoholism and is the most
common type of cirrhosis.

b) Postnecrotic cirrhosis
In postnecrotic cirrhosis, there are broad bands of scar tissue, which
are a late result of a previous acute viral hepatitis.

c) Biliary cirrhosis
In biliary cirrhosis, scarring occurs in the liver around the bile ducts.

d) Compensated cirrhosis
Compensated cirrhosis is a general term given to the state of liver
disease in which the liver continues to be able to function effectively.

224. Which of the following terms describes the passage of a hollow

instrument into a cavity for the withdrawal of fluid?

a) Paracentesis
Paracentesis may be used to withdraw ascitic fluid if the fluid
accumulation is causing cardiorespiratory compromise.

b) Astrerixis
Asterixis refers to involuntary flapping movements of the hands
associated with metabolic liver dysfunction.
c) Ascites
Ascites refers to accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal
cavity.

d) Dialysis
Dialysis refers to a form of filtration to separate crystalloid from colloid
substances.

Nursing T.I.P.S in alphabet vol 4 ray A. GApuz

The ABC’s of passing the Philippine Nursing board exams Ray A
Gapuz
(pages 50 – 59)

June 2006 Integrated Comprehensive Examination IV-

Rehabilitative
Reference: Compilation of previous Philippine Nurse Licensure
Examination