Scribd
Upload
28 views

Problem Set 2

Hoja de Problemas 2 de la Universidad de Colorado. Temario: Transiciones de Fase (Física Estadística II)

Uploaded by

Marc Asenjo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
28 views

Problem Set 2

Hoja de Problemas 2 de la Universidad de Colorado. Temario: Transiciones de Fase (Física Estadística II)

Uploaded by

Marc Asenjo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 2

Problem Set 2

Phys 7240, Fall 2014


Due: Sep 25

1 Infinitely dimensional Ising model

Solve exactly the infinite dimensional Ising model. It is defined as the limit of N → ∞ of
J
PN PN
e 2N T ( σn )( σm )
X
Z= n=1 m=1 . (1.1)
σk =±1

Here there are N spins σk , k = 1, . . . , N . Notice that each spin interacts with every
other spin in this model. N which appears explicitly in the exponential multiplying the
temperature appears there to provide a well defined N → ∞ limit. Mean field theory is
in fact exact for this model, as the calculations you will do demonstrate.
To do this,
(a) employ the following very important integral representation called the Hubbard-
Stratonovich transformation (here α > 0)
Z ∞
2 dx x2
eαA = √ eAx− 4α . (1.2)
−∞ 2 πα
Use it to turn Eq. (1.1), which is quadratic in spins in the exponential, into something
where the spins in the exponential appear linearly, and choose α such that N appears in
front of x2 .
(b) Sum over the spins σk = ±1.
(c) Do the integral over x using the steepestR descend method. The steepest descend
∞
method is a way to compute integrals of the form −∞ dx g(x) ef (x) , where f (x) is a function
which has a sharp maximum at a point x0 while g(x) is some featureless function (without
sharp maxima). In other words, f 0 (x0 ) = 0, and f 00 (x0 ) is extremely large and negative.
Then the steepest descend method claims that
s
|f 00 (x0 )|
Z ∞ Z ∞
f (x) f (x0 ) − (x−x0 )2 2π
dx g(x)e ≈ g(x0 ) e dx e 2 = g(x0 ) ef (x0 ) . (1.3)
−∞ −∞ |f 00 (x 0 )|

To use this method, bring the integral over x to a form (1.3) where large N makes the
maximum very sharp.
(d) Write the average magnetization as
N
1 X X J
PN PN
M= σm e 2N T ( n=1 σn )( m=1 σm ) . (1.4)
N Z σk =±1 m=1
Repeat these steps for the average magnetization. Derive M in terms of x0 obtained in
the previous step.
2 Easy Plane Magnet in a Transverse Field
The easy plane magnet in a transverse field is defined by its quantum mechanical Hamil-
tonian
N N −1  
τk3 1
τk1 τk+1 2
+ τk2 τk+1
X X
H = −γ −β . (2.1)
k=1 k=1

This describes a chain of spins- 12 which prefer to lie in the x−y plane, subject to a magnetic
field in the z-direction.

1. Map this into a free fermion problem using the Jordan-Wigner transformation.

2. Find the ground state energy and the correlation length, as a function of the parameters
γ and β.

You might also like